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Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET)

for DBT-JRF Award (2008-09)


Government of India, Ministry of Science & Technology,
Department of Biotechnology, New Delhi
(Coordinated by University of Pune)

April 20, 2008 Total Marks 300 Duration 10.00 a.m. - 12.30 p.m.

N.B. 1) All questions in Section A are compulsory.


2) Answer any 50 questions from Section B.
3) In case more than 50 are attempted, first 50 will be considered.
4) Each question carries 3 marks; for every wrong answer, one mark will be
deducted.
5) Write your seat no. strictly inside the space provided on the Answer sheet.
6) Answers marked inside the question paper will not be evaluated.
7) Please return the question paper along with the Answer sheet.

Instructions for filling the Answer sheet:


1) There is only one correct answer for each question and once a mark has been
made the same cannot be altered.
2) All entries in the circle must be made by BLACK ink Ball Point Pen only.
Do not try to alter the entry.
3) Oval should be darkened completely so that the numeral inside the oval is
not visible.
4) Do not make any stray marks for rough work on the sheet.
5) Do not use marker, white fluid or any other device to hide the shading already
done.
6) More than one entry of an answer will be considered wrong, and negative
marking will be done as above.
7) Mark your answer as shown in the example.

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Section A
1. Virus-mediated transfer of cellular genetic (D) The sequence of the last 3 nt at the 3' end of all
material from one bacterial cell to another tRNAs is the same
by means of virus particles is called:
(A) transduction 6. Collagen consists of 3 helical chains containing Glycine
(B) transposition and proline amino acids in each chain. The overall
structure of each polypeptide in the collagen molecule is
(C) transformation
a:
(D) transfection (A) polyproline I
(B) polyproline II
2. The plasmid cloning vector pBR322 (C) helix
contains ampR and tetR genes that confer (D) Polyglycine I
resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline,
respectively. The tetR gene contains a site for 7. In nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy, the
the restriction endonuclease BamHI. absorption spectra result by the absorption of one of the
pBR322 is first cleaved with BamHI, added following electromagnetic radiation by the spinning
to a BamHI restriction fragment from a nucleus:
different DNA molecule and the resulting (A) ultraviolet waves
mixture is treated with DNA ligase and used (B) infrared waves
to transform E. coli cells. Under these (C) radiowaves
(D) microwaves
conditions, which one of the following
statements is true? 8. A ribonuclase solution gave an absorbance of 1.0 at 278
(A) Tetracycline can then be used to nm in a UV spectrometer using a 1 cm quartz cuvette.
select for transformed E. coli Given that the molar extinction coefficient of the enzyme
carrying recombinant plasmids at 278 nm is 102 M-1cm-1, the concentration of the
(B) Tetracycline can then be used to enzyme would be:
select for transformed E. coli (A) 1 mM
carrying non-recombinant plasmids (B) 20 mM
(C) Tetracycline can then be used to (C) 10 mM
select for non-transformed E. coli (D) 100 mM
(D) E. coli cells with recombinant
plasmids will grow on both 9. Two proteins have the same molecular mass as well as the
same isoelectric point. The best way to separate them
tetracycline and ampicillin
would be to use:
(A) Reverse phase chromatography
3. Which subunit of E. coli RNA polymerase is
(B) Gel filtration chromatography
responsible for gene selection?
(C) Ion-exchange chromatography
(A) alpha
(D) Chromatofocusing.
(B) beta
(C) omega
10. One strand of double-stranded DNA is mutated, changing
(D) sigma
all cytosines to uracils. After one round of replication of
the mutated DNA strand, the melting temperature of the
4. Which one of the following radioisotopes
resulting DNA will:
does not emit rays?
(A) be higher
(A) 14C
(B) be lower
(B) 3H
(C) remain the same
(C) 32 P
(D) be double
(D) 125I
11. Which type of restriction enzymes does not
5. Which of the statements about tRNAs is FALSE?
require ATP?
(A) All organisms have more than 20 tRNA genes
(A) Type I
(B) The three-dimensional structure of tRNAs looks
(B) Type II
like a cloverleaf
(C) Type III
(C) tRNAs contain modified bases

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(D) Type IV (C) an anion-exchange matrix
(D) a plant cell wall constituent
12. The Southern blotting technique is used for:
18. Biological washing powders remove stains by
enzyme action. Which of the following
(A) the detection of RNA fragments on
combinations would be most effective in
membranes by specific radioactive
removing an egg stain?
antibodies
(B) the detection of DNA fragments on (A) Amylase and protease
membranes by a radioactive DNA (B) Catalase and lipase
(C) Lipase and maltase
probe
(D) Lipase and protease
(C) the detection of proteins on membranes
using a radioactive DNA probe
19. A tetanus booster shot results in the increased
(D) the detection of DNA fragments on
membranes by specific radioactive production of:
antibodies (A) tetanus-specific NK cells
(B) T cells that recognize tetanus toxoid
but not tetanus toxin
13. Which of the following is not found in an E.coli
(C) antibodies which neutralize tetanus
replication fork?
toxin
(A) DnaA
(B) Primase (D) T-cells which kill Clostridium tetani
(C) PCNA
20. Allotypes are:
(D) Single-stranded DNA binding protein.
(A) antigenic determinants which
segregate within a species
14. Which of the following is changing the fastest
over evolutionary time? (B) critical to the function of the antibody
(A) The amount of intergenic DNA combining site
(C) involved in specificity
(B) The order of genes on chromosomes
(D) involved in memory
(C) Microsatellites
(D) Exon DNA sequences
21. ELISA:
15. Superoxide dismutase is an important enzyme for (A) results in cell lysis
maintenance of red blood cells and is defective in (B) uses a radiolabeled second antibody.
(C) involves addition of substrate which is
some neurodegenerative diseases. What does this
converted to a colored end-product
enzyme do?
(D) requires sensitized red blood cells
(A) catalyzes the conversion of O2- to
H2O2 and O2
(B) creates superoxides by oxidizing 22. Which of the following is not a member of the
heme Immunoglobulin supergene family?
(A) Antibodies
(C) converts H2O2 to water and O2
(B) lymphokines
(D) removes H2O2 by oxidizing
(C) TCR
glutathione and producing water
(D) Fc receptor on leukocytes
16. Which of the following conditions would NOT
23. Exchange of two non-homologous
promote denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
chromosomes is known as:
(A) heating to 100 degrees Celsius
(A) Crossing over
(B) adding high concentrations of sodium citrate
(B) Reciprocal translocation
(C) decreasing the ionic strength of the
solution (C) Inversion
(D) adding a protein that binds to single- (D) Duplication
stranded, but not to double-stranded
24. ESTs are obtained through:
DNA
(A) Genomic DNA library
(B) cDNA library
17. Carboxymethyl cellulose is:
(A) a cation -exchange matrix (C) RT-PCR
(B) a gel filtration matrix (D) Chromosome walking

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25. Targetted suppression of gene expression is 31. The peptide bond is rigid because it is a:
achieved by: (A) single bond
(A) T-DNA insertion (B) partial double bond
(B) EMS (C) double bond
(C) RNAi (D) triple bond
(D) Gamma ray
32. If we increase the confidence limits then:
26. A set of two or more overlapping DNA (A) No change in significant result
fragments that form a contiguous stretch of (B) Statistically significant result may
DNA is called: change to non-significant
(A) contigs (C) Non-significant result may change to
(B) BAC clones significant result
(C) YAC clones (D) No change in level of significance
(D) map
33. A woman has a color blind father but husband
27. A vector can accept an insert of 20 kb size with normal vision. What are the chances for
and the recombinant vector can be replicated their sons and daughters to be color blind?
in E. coli. In order to make complete gene (A) 1/2 for sons; 1/2 for daughters
library of E. coli by using this vector, (B) for sons; for daughters
minimum number of bacterial colonies (C) for sons; zero for daughters
which must be present should not be less (D) Zero for sons; 3/4 for daughters
than:
(A) 1.1 x 103 34. An isolated human population, with
(B) 4.1 x 103 approximately equal number of blue eyed and
(C) 2.1 x 104 brown eyed individuals, was killed due to
(D) 1.5 x 104 earthquake. Only a few brown eyed people
remained to form the next generation. This kind
28. Scientist involved with Golden Rice of change in the gene pool is called
technology is: (A) Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium
(A) Norman Borlaug (B) blocked gene flow
(B) I. Potrykus (C) bottleneck effect
(C) M.S. Swaminathan (D) founder effect
(D) G.S. Khush
35. Cystic fibrosis is due to:
29. Haploid production by anther culture was (A) defective chloride channel
first demonstrated by: (B) defective LDL receptor
(A) Bhojwani (C) High levels of HDL
(B) Guha and Maheshwari (D) increased dopamine
(C) Murashige and Skoog
(D) Cocking 36. HAT selection is based on:
(A) TK and HPRT genes
30. The DNA of temperate phage P4 is linear, (B) APRT and ATK genes
double stranded, 11.5 kb long and has (C) HK and AP genes
cohesive ends. Digestion with BamH1 yields (D) HAT gene.
fragments 6.4, 4.1 and 1.0 kb in length. The
partial digestion with the same enzyme 37. The main difference between active transport
yields fragments 10.5, 7.4, 6.4, 4.1, and 1.0 and facilitated diffusion is that:
kb in length. Circular P4 DNA made with (A) in active transport, the molecules move
DNA ligase can be digested with BamH1 to from areas of high concentration to
yield fragments in the DNA. What is the areas of low concentration
order of fragments in DNA ? (B) carrier protein is involved only in case
(A) 6.4- 1.0- 4.1 of active transport
(B) 4.1- 6.4- 1.0 (C) in active transport, energy is consumed
(C) 1.0- 6.4- 4.1 to move molecules against a
(D) 4.1- 1.0- 6.4 concentration gradient

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(D) in active transport, only water
molecules are transported 44. Addition of salt to a culture medium only allows
the salt-tolerant bacteria to grow. This is an
38. What is the correct order of molecular example of a:
weights? (A) Complex media
(A) Human ntibody>albumin> (B) Chemically defined media
insulin>glutathione (C) Selective media
(B) albumin>insulin>antibody> (D) Differential media
glutathione
(C) glutathione>insulin>albumin> 45. Long terminal repeats are found in:
antibody (A) proviral DNA
(D) insulin>antibody>glutathione> (B) retroviral RNA
albumin (C) reoviral genome
(D) influenza virus
39. Beaker A has 100 ml of a fluid at 800C and
beaker B has 200 ml of the same fluid at 46. A signal sequence KDEL is removed from a ER
200C. If both the fluids are mixed, what resident protein. Assuming that there is no
would be the resultant temperature of the change in tertiary structure of protein and on
mixture? other signal sequences present in protein, the
(A) 200C changed protein will now have following fate:
(B) 800C (A) It will remain in ER and be degraded
(C) 400C (B) It will be targeted to Golgi apparatus
(D) 500C (C) It will be secreted outside the cell
(D) It will be targeted to lysosome for
40. During batch fermentation lowest specific degradation
growth rate is achieved during:
(A) Exponential phase 47. All living cells arise from preexisting cells was
(B) Lag and stationary phase proposed in cell theory by:
(C) When cells are growing at their (A) Schleiden and Schwann
fastest pace (B) Rudolf Virchow
(D) Throughout the fermentation (C) Dutrocht
(D) Pasteur
41. In competitive inhibition
(A) Km increases, V max constant 48. Using deliberate attenuation approach Louis
(B) Km decreases, Vmax constant Pasteur Produced vaccine against which
(C) Km constant, Vmax increases diseases?
(D) Km decreases, Vmax increases (A) Rabies
(B) Tuberculosis
42. For a reaction to be spontaneous, (C) Anthrax
(A) G is negative (D) FMD
(B) G is positive
(C) G = 0 49. What is PROSITE?
(D) H increases (A) a database of protein structures
(B) a database of interacting proteins
43. The dependence of molecular weight of (C) a database of protein motifs
protein molecule to the distance traveled in(D) (D) a search tool
denaturing gel electrophoresis is: (E)
(A) linear 50. Which is the best annotated database?
(B) cubic (A) Genbank
(C) logarithmic (B) PDB
(D) inversely related to the amount of (C) Prodom
denaturant (D) Swissprot

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Section B
51. Protein sequence comparison is more regulates the lactose (lac) operon by:
sensitive than nucleic acid sequence
(A) binding to the operator to turn on
comparison because:
transcription
(A) proteins are functional
(B) binding to the lac repressor to prevent
(B) proteins have definite three
transcription
dimensional structures
(C) combining with the catabolite activator
(C) the protein alphabet has more
protein (CAP) to form a complex that
letters than the nucleic acid
enhances transcription upon binding to the
(D) codon bias
promoter
(D) combining with the CAP to remove CAP's
52. Sickle-cell anemia is an example of Single
inhibition of transcription
Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNP) of
57. Co-transport of nutrients across the intestinal cell
(A) A to T mutation membranes is an active process that can move
(B) T to A mutation glucose against a concentration gradient. The energy
(C) G to C mutation requiring step for co-transport involves:
(D) C to G mutation (A) The Na+K+ATPase that pumps Na+ from the
cell into the lumen of the intestine
53. Which of the statements about translation is (B) The permease that allows glucose and Na+
FALSE? into the cell requires ATP
(A) During translocation in the "hybrid (C) The permease that pumps glucose from the
sites" model, the tRNA attached to cell into the blood requires ATP
the nascent polypeptide chain is in (D) The Na+K+ ATPase that pumps Na+ from the
the P site of the small subunit and the cell into the blood, maintaining low Na+
A site of the large subunit levels in the cell
(B) Fusidic acid prevents the release of EF-
G-GDP from the ribosome 58. The endogenous GTPase activity of G-proteins
(C) Puromycin leads to premature release of serves to:
the polypeptide chain (A) stimulate the activity of enzymes by
(D) IF-3 preferentially binds to 30S producing energy
ribosomes (B) synthesize cGMP as a second messenger
(C) synthesize GTP as an energy source
54. For the folding of a linear polypeptide into a (D) hydrolyze GTP returning the G protein to a
compact tertiary structure, globular in nature, the pre-stimulated level of activity
change in entropy is known to be negative. In
order for the folding process to be thermodyna- 59. Cytochalasins are drugs that interfere with actin
miccally feasible, the overall change is enthalpy polymerization into microfilaments. If you add
based in intermolecular interaction should be: cytochalasin to cultured mammalian cells that have
(A) +Ve just begun mitosis what is most likely to happen?
(B) -Ve (A) The cells will arrest at mitotic metaphase
(C) Zero (B) The cells will cease metabolism and die
(D) Endothermic (C) The cells will complete mitosis and arrest at
cytokinesis
55. If the equilibrium constant for a chemical (D) The cells will arrest at mitotic anaphase
reaction at 20 C is 20, the standard free energy
change associated with the reaction will be: 60. Which of the following is NOT a part of the methods
(A) -1.74 kcals used in single locus probe analysis of VNTR regions
(B) 1.74 kcals of human DNA?
(C) 0.76 kcals
(D) 0.12 kcals (A) DNA extraction
(B) Restriction endonuclease digestion of DNA
56. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) (C) Gel electrophoresis

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(D) Recombinant DNA (D) Viral oncogenes can act by increasing the
activity of cellular tumor suppressor p53
61. Which of the following elements is
NOT a characteristic of factor- 65. The insulin receptor functions as a:
independent terminators in E.coli? (A) receptor with 7 transmembrane spanning
(A) a C-rich sequence regions
(B) an RNA sequence that can form a stem-loop (B) nuclear protein that acts as a transcription
(C) a run of single-stranded U residues factor
(D) a GC rich sequence (C) receptor guanylate cyclase
(D) tyrosine kinase
62. A covalently closed circular DNA containing a
single promoter is mixed with RNA polymerases that 66. Frameshift mutations are observed because the DNA
open complexes form where 1 turn of DNA is code is:
unwound. Which of the following statements will be (A) Comma-less
TRUE? Please note that L = linking number, T = (B) redundant
twist, and W = writhe. (C) anti-parallel
(A) L will decrease because T will (D) degenerate
decrease by 1
(B) L will increase because W will 67. When synthetic mRNA consisting of alternating A
increase by 1 and C residues (ACACAC....) was translated in a
(C) L will stay the same because T and bacterial extract, only one kind of polypeptide
W will not change consisting of alternating threonine and histidine
(D) L will stay the same because an residues was made. When the base sequence was .
increase in W will cancel out the ..AACAACAAC.... three different polypeptides were
decrease in T formed :poiyasparagine, polythreonine and
polyglutamine. Hence we may conclude that one
63. The RNA from the ribosomes of E. coli has a GC codon for histidine is:
content of 51%. After infection with a phage (A) ACA
that has a GC content of 40%, you purify the (B) CAC
RNA, and run it on a density gradient, which (C) AAC
gives you peaks at 23S, 16S, and 4S, plus a high (D) CAA
baseline between the 23S and 16S peaks. Which
of the following would you expect to see from 68. Hybrid dysgenesis is asymmetrical. It is induced by:
the analysis of the GC content of each fraction? (A) X male PM crosses
(A) All the RNA will be 40% GC (B) P male x M female crosses
(B) The RNA in the 4S peak will be 40%GC, (C) M male x P female crosses
but everything else will be 51%GC (D) it is a random event, can occur in all the
(C) The RNA in the 23S, 16S and 4S three.
peaks will be 51%GC, but the
material between 16S and 23S will 69. During RNA polymerase II transcriptional
be 40%GC initiation, phosphorylation of the following
(D) The RNA in the 23S, 16S an 4S peaks will factor is essential to commence
be 40%GC, but the material between 16S transcription:
and 23S will be 51%GC (A) Polymerase II CTD
(B) TFIID
64. Which of the following statements about tumor (C) TFIIH
suppressors is TRUE? (D) TFIIE
(A) Tumor suppressors are mutant tRNAs
that recognize stop codons 70. Typical nucleosomal organization of a gene
(B) Tumor suppressors are mutated viral is not found in:
versions of cellular proteins involved in (A) human liver nuclei
signal ransduction (B) malarial parasite
(C) Recessive mutations that inactivate (C) human sperm
the Rb tumor suppressor are found in (D) Neuron
families with high incidence of
retinoblastomas

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71. A mutational event inserts bases in the 72. In a temperature sensitive mutant bacteria, at
beginning of the coding sequence of a gene. non-permissive temperature, there are huge
The highest chance of the altered protein accumulation of Okazaki fragments. The
being functional when the number of base(s) bacteria are mutant for:
inserted is: (A) DNA ploymerase I
(A) 1 (B) DNA topoisomerase I
(B) 2 (C) DNA ligase
(C) 3 (D) DNA gyrase
(D) 4

Answer questions 73-75 based on the information provided below:

Researchers studying the regulation of a hormone-responsive gene isolated 750 base pairs of DNA
immediately preceding the start site of transcription (+ 1). They demonstrated that if these sequences are
cloned upstream of the bacterial chloramphenicol acetyltransferase (CAT) gene and the DNA then
introduced into mammalian cells, CAT enzyme activity increases in response to hormone treatment. To
define the sequences involved in the regulation of this gene, they made a series of deletions containing
various lengths of the 5/ regulatory sequences. They cloned these truncated DNA fragments upstream of the
CAT gene as shown in the figure below, introduced the constructs into the mammalian cells, and assayed
for the CAT enzyme activity in the absence (-) and presence (+) of hormone. The figure below gives the
results of a representative experiment.

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73. The maximal stimulation of CAT activity 75. A new construct was made that began at -
due to the addition of hormone is 742 and was identical to that shown in the
approximately: figures except that the sequences between -
424 and -315 were inverted. In this new
(A) I-fold
(B) 10-folds construct, which of the following are closest
(C) 50-folds to the expected CAT activities in the
(D) 100-folds absence and presence, respectively, of
hormones?
74. Assuming that there is a single hormone-
responsive regulatory element in the gene, (A) 5 units/50 units
that element is located between: (B) 5 units/25 units
(A) -742 and 638 (C) 25 units/10 units
(B) -638 and -424 (D) 25 units/5 units
(C) -424 and -315
(D) -315 and -116

Answer questions 76-78 based on the information provided below:

A transcription factor Y (TFY) is examined for its DNA binding ability and its expression in
different cell lines. The specific DNA binding sequence has been determined and is used as a probe in an
electromobility shift (EMS) assay.
Specific antibody against TFY is used in Western blot analysis to check the subcellular
localization of the protein. The EMS and Western blot results of TFY activity in muscle cells and nerve
cells are shown below.

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76. The EMS results suggest that:
(A) TFY is expressed only in the (D) glycolysis occurs in mitochondria
muscle cells
(B) TFY binds DNA in the muscle 80. A solution of a protein whose sequence
cells, but not in nerve cells includes three tryptophan residues, no
tyrosine residues, and no phenylalanine
(C) TFY binds DNA in the nerve cells,
residues has an absorbance of 0.3 at 280 nm
but not in muscle cells
in a cell with a path length of 1 cm. Estimate
(D) TFY is expressed only in the nerve the concentration of the protein in units of
cells molarity. If the protein has a molecular mass
77. According to the results of the Western blot, of 100 kDa, estimate the concentration in
(A) TFY binds with DNA in nerve cells units of milligrams of protein per milliliter
(B) TFY is expressed only in muscle of solution. ( = 10000 M-1 cm-1):
cells
(C) TFY is expressed both in nerve and (A) 10 M, I mg/mL
muscle cells (B) 30 M, 1 mg/mL
(D) TFY binds with DNA in muscle (C) 30 M, 3 mg/mL
cells (D) 10 M, 3 mg/mL

78. It was observed that TFY activity is 81. Repolarization after an action potential
occurs:
significantly blocked in the nerve cells in
(A) through the opening of Na+
comparison to muscle cells. Based on these channels
data, what could be most likely mechanism (B) through the opening of Na+ and
of regulation of TFY in nerve cells? closure of K+ channels
(A) Inhibition of transcription of TFY (C) through the closure of Na+ and
in the nucleus opening of K+ channels
(B) Inhibition of translation of TFY in (D) through the opening of Na+ and K+
cytoplasm channels
(C) Inhibition of translocation of TFY
82. Chitosan, a derivative of chitin isolated from
to the nucleus Shrimps and marine crustaceans is being
(D) Inhibition of translocation of TFY used as a tool for drug and vaccine delivery.
to the cytoplasm It is a polymer of:
(A) acetylated -(1-4)-linked D-
79. Which of the following is not correct pair of glucosamine
a metabolic pathway and its subcellular (B) acetylated N-acetyl-D-glucosamine
location? (C) deacetylated -(1-4)-linked D-
glucosamine
(A) oxidative phosphorylation occurs in (D) acetylated -(1-4)-linked D-glucosamine and
mitochondria acetylated N-acetyl-D- glucosamine
(B) fatty acid synthesis occurs in
mitochondria
(C) ganglioside degeneration occurs in
lysosomes

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83. The gene that increases susceptibility to (C) Mitochondrial conditions only
breast cancer is: affect muscle and nerve tissue
(A) p53 (D) The risk of passing on a
(B) BRCA-1 mitochondrial condition to the
(C) Rb-1 next generation may be as high
(D) H-Ras as 100%
90. Immuno-suppression is mediated by T-cells
84. In the urine of Burkitts lymphoma patient having:
abnormal quantities of the following is (A) CD4+CD25-
detected (B) CD8+CD25-
(A) Bence-Jones Proteins (C) CD8+CD25+
(B) Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (D) CD4+CD25+
(hCG)
(C) Carcinoembryonic antigen 91. The target cells for ADA gene therapy are:
(CEA) (A) bone marrow cells
(D) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) (B) B-lymphocytes
(C) Liver cells
85. What would be the functional consequence (D) Spleen cells
for the immune system in a knock out mice
lacking 2 microglobulin? 92. All of the following are angiogenic factors
(A) Loss of TCR expression EXCEPT:
(B) Loss of phagocytic ability (A) VEGF
(C) Loss of structural integrity of (B) Ang-1
MHC II (C) Endostatin
(D) Loss of structural integrity of (D) Cox-2
MHC I
93. Acute graft versus host disease is mediated
86. Frequent development of primary tumours by:
of reticulo-endothelial system is due to: (A) Helper T cells
(A) Acquired haemolytic anemia (B) Cytotoxic T cells
(B) Hypergammaglobulinemia (C) NK Cells
(C) Corticosteroid abuse (D) B cells
(D) Impairment of CMI
94. All of the following disorders can be
87. Negative selection of T-cells depends on: diagnosed prenatally by chorionic villus
(A) High affinity to self antigen sampling, EXCEPT:
(B) High affinity to thymosin (A) Downs syndrome
(C) Intermediate affinity to self (B) Alpha thalassemia
antigen (C) Tay Sachs disease
(D) Low affinity to self MHC (D) Spina bifida

88. Hemophilia A, a common X-linked bleeding 95. The germ layer that produces nervous
disorder is caused due to lack of function of system is:
a gene for: (A) endoderm
(A) Factor VIII (B) mesoderm
(B) Factor VII (C) ectoderm
(C) Platelets (D) endoderm and mesoderm
(D) Fibrinogen
96. The rate of impulse conduction in a nerve
depends on:
89. Which one of the following statements is
(A) axon diameter and axon length
true for mitochondrial disease?
(B) axon length and number of
(A) Heteroplasmy
dendrites
(B) Mitochondrial gene mutates less
(C) axon diameter and thickness of
often than nuclear gene myelination

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(D) myelination and nuclear size (A) many myelinated axons of
different diameters as well as
97. Pain sensation is a subjective and conscious large number of unmyelinated
feeling. However, although the autonomic fibres
organs do not get represented in the cerebral (B) many unmyelinated fibres as well
cortex, one feels pain in those parts as well. as large number of myelinated
The reason is: axons of same diameter
(A) those parts receive less blood (C) only myelinated axons of same
supply diameter
(B) increased pH in those parts (D) only unmyelinated axons of
(C) the pain is referred to other different diameter
parts of the body
(D) those organs are not 104. In a neuronal culture experiment the
superficially located response gradually reduced when the
neurons were exposed to increasing
98. Which one of the following is NOT a concentration of a chemical. However, if the
function of glia? cells were thoroughly washed and left for
(A) providing support to the neural sometime in normal medium and then the
tissue experiment was repeated, the cells started
(B) conduction of electrical signal responding similarly as before. Which of the
(C) myelination of neurons following could be the most probable
(D) help in neuronal growth explanation?
(A) increased apoptosis of the cells
99. At chemical synapse, communication (B) the cells were gradually necrosed
between two neurons is: in an exponential manner
(A) physical process (C) the pH of the medium was
(B) chemical process changed
(C) physico-chemico-physical (D) the receptors were desensitized/
process down-regulated
(D) physico-chemico-mechanical
process 105. Under a condition (A) a neuron showed
transmembrane potential -50mV while after
100. Retrograde transport may be used for : some treatment (B) it was -70mV. Given
(A) nerve path tracing such a condition, which of the following
(B) determining nerve fiber statements would be correct ?
diameter (A) condition (A) is hyperpolarized
(C) determining soma size state than condition (B)
(D) estimating number of dendrites (B) condition (A) needs higher
intensity stimulation than
101. Which of these electrodes will be preferred condition (B) for inducing a
for intracellular potential recording? response
(A) glass capillary electrode (C) the treatment caused
(B) steel micro-electrode depolarization of the neuron
(C) copper micro-electrode (D) the treatment induced
(D) solid glass electrode hyperpolarization

102. Which of the following types of neurons 106. Which of the statements is true for matured
may be identified using Tyrosine human RBC? It
hydroxylase immunostaining ? (A) divides once a day
(A) Cholinergic (B) does not divide
(B) GABA-ergic (C) divides every 120 days
(C) Glutamateric (D) divides under stressful condition
(D) Aminergic
107. The intervention by which a gadget e.g. an
103. Nerve is a bundle of fibres. In vertebrates it electrode may be accurately guided to a
contains:

12
predefined region deep inside the brain is
known as: 115. Vitrification of cultured explants caused by:
(A) stereoscopy (A) low light irradiance, high
(B) stereotaxic surgery temperature and intensive
(C) craniotomy sterilization
(D) laparoscopy (B) high auxin , low temperature and
high light irradiance
108. Hybridization between species followed by (C) higher agar, high nutrients and low
polyploidy or chromosome doubling is pH
known as: (D) high pH, low temperature and high
(A) Autopolyploid micronutrient concentration
(B) Aneuploid
(C) Haploid 116. Which of the following objectives can not
(D) Allopolyploid be achieved through use of cybrids ?
(A) Transfer of cytoplasmic male
109. Identify the hormone combination that sterility
induces shoot development in vitro (B) Recombination of cytoplasmic
(A) no auxin + average cytokinin genes with nuclear gene of another
(B) High auxin + no cytokinin species.
(C) high auxin + low cytokinin (C) Introgression of Chromosome
(D) low auxin + high cytokinin segment
(D) Development of true hybrid line
110. C4 rice has been developed by transforming
rice with 117. The most preferred choice for development
(A) PCPC of hybrid plants from a male sterile line
(B) PPDK would be:
(C) GS (A) Pollen culture
(D) Both PEPC and PPDK (B) Anther culture
(C) Ovary culture
111. Stress signalling is mediated by: (D) Meristem culture
(A) ABA
(B) GA 118. The transplastomic lines bear no risk of
(C) Both the above gene escape through pollens because:
(D) None of the above (A) Pollens degenerate before
fertilization
112. The first commercially released GM crop in (B) Transformed mitochondrial DNA is
India is: lost during pollen maturation
(A) Cotton expressing cryIAb gene (B) (C) Transformed chloroplast DNA is
Brinjal expressing cry1Ab gene lost during pollen maturation
(C) Corn expressing cryIAb gene (D) Transformed genomic DNA is
(D) Cotton expressing cryIAc gene maternally inherited

113. Biodiesel is produced by: 119. A cross between two true breeding lines one
(A) Transesterification with dark blue flowers and one with bright
(B) Fermentation white flowers produces F1 offspring that are
(C) High pressure oxidation light blue. When the F1 progeny are selfed a
(D) Esterification 1:2:1 ratio of dark blue to light blue to white
flowers is observed) What genetic
114. A pair of genes in two organisms of phenomenon is associated with these
different species which are similar and they results?
are strongly predicated to have the same (A) epistasis
function is known as: (B) incomplete dominance
(A) homologous genes (C) co-dominance
(B) Orthologous genes (D) inbreeding depression
(C) Paralogous genes
(D) Isoforms

13
120. Mutations which occur in vegetative parts (D) transgenic plants obtained
during growth which do not go on to form through plastid transformation
gametes can be classified as:
(A) auxotrophic mutations 126. Transformation method which avoids use of
(B) somatic mutations plant tissue culture technique is:
(C) morphological mutations (A) electroporation
(D) oncogenes (B) biolistic
(C) In planta
121. Arabidopsis is advantageous for plant (D) Microinjection
genetic research because:
(A) it is commercially important as a 127. Which of the following is an example of
food crop GURT?
(B) it is having longer life cycle (A) Hybridoma technology
(C) it is a small plant with a small (B) PCR technology
genome size which can be raised (C) Terminator technology
inexpensively (D) Transgenic technology
(D) it is a close relative of corn and
results with this species can be 128. Tobacco leaf discs are transferred with
applied to problems in corn Agrobacterium tumefaciens strain
containing binary vector (GUS as reporter
122. DNA polymerase processivity: gene) with selectable marker neo
(A) is a measure of the number of (kanamycin resistant gene) and then
nucleotides joined before the regenerated to the plants. The plants are
polymerase dissociates kanamycin resistant but leaf tissues are
(B) is determined by the ability of the negative to GUS assay. The explanation is:
enzyme to also have nuclease (A) the plants are transformed for
activity both the genes but GUS gene is
(C) is a measure of thermal stability turned off.
of the enzyme. (B) the plants are transformed to only
(D) is a measure of rate of elongation neo genes not the GUS genes
of newly synthesized strands (C) the plants are not transformed at
all, but the development of
123. Dye injected into a plant cell might be able kanamycin resistance is due to
to enter an adjacent cell through a: somaclonal variation
(A) tight junction. (D) all of the above
(B) microtubule.
(C) desmosome. 129. Some of the genes from viruses introduced
(D) plasmodesma into plants in fully functional form often
exhibit Mendelian inheritance, because:
124. The most dominant trait incorporated in (A) the genes are stably integrated in
transgenic plants worldwide is: chromosomes
(A) Insect resistance (B) the genes are stably maintained
(B) yield in vectors
(C) nutritional quality (C) the genes are co- expressed with
(D) herbicide tolerance chromosomal genes
(D) the genes are not interrupted by
125. Clean gene technology in developing introns
transgenic plants means:
(A) transgenic plants without marker 130. Which of the following techniques can be
genes utilized to measure the rate of diffusion of
(B) transgenic plants with provision membrane proteins?
of removing marker gene after (A) Patching and capping
transformation (B) Immunodiffusion
(C) plant obtained with conventional (C) Patch-clamp
breeding approach (D) FRAP

14
131. A researcher made an interesting (C) Ficks law
observation about a protein made by the (D) Stokes law
rough ER and eventually used to build a
cell's plasma membrane. The protein in the 137. Sedimentation constant (S) is the ratio of:
membrane was slightly different from the (A) Rate of sedimentation to
protein made in the ER. The protein was acceleration due to gravity
probably changed in the: (B) Rate of sedimentation to angular
(A) Golgi apparatus. acceleration
(B) Smooth ER. (C) Rate of sedimentation to relative
(C) Mitochondrion. acceleration
(D) Nucleus (D) Velocity of sedimentation to
acceleration due to gravity
132. A particular enzyme loses its activity if just
stored in normal saline. However, if normal 138. The oxygen solubility in a bioreactor
saline contains 10 mM 2-mercaptoethanol, a depends upon:
reducing agent the enzyme retains its (A) Agitation
activity. What can you conclude about the (B) Aeration
enzyme from above? (C) Both Agitation and Aeration
(A) It has methionine residues that (D) Viscosity and surface tension
are necessary for activity
(B) It has sulphydryl groups that are 139. In which type of elution technique, there is
necessary for activity no change in gradient with respect to time?
(C) It has disulphide bonds that are (A) Isocratic elution technique
necessary for activity (B) Stepwise elution technique
(D) It has histidine residues that are (C) Linear elution technique
necessary for activity (D) Exponential elution technique

133. The major contribution to the stability of 140. For 100% purity of peak recovery in
Watson-Crick structure of DNA in aqueous chromatography, the desired resolution
solution comes from: factor (Rs) is:
(A) hydrogen bonds between Watson (A) Rs=0.99
Crick base pairs (B) Rs= 1
(B) stacking interaction of bases (C) Rs=1.5
(C) counter-ion condensation on (D) Rs= infinity
phosphates
(D) entropic contribution 141. One of the these purification steps requires
initial high ionic strength in sample
134. Optimum bead loading for cell disruption in (A) Ion exchange chromatography
a bead mill is: (B) Hydrophobic interaction
(A) 40-50% chromatography
(B) 75-85% (C) Chromatofocusing
(C) 60-70% (D) Preparative chromatography
(D) 55-65%
142. The bioprocess model that differentiates
135. Driving force for a membrane process is cells on the basis of morphology and /or
only the concentration difference in the size distribution is:
case of:
(A) Structured model
(A) Reverse osmosis
(B) Unstructured model
(B) Ultrafiltration
(C) Segregated model
(C) Microfiltration
(D) Non-segregated model
(D) Dialysis

136. The basic equation characterizing filtration 143. Unit of second order rate constant is:
is governed by: (A) mol L-1 S-1
(A) Darcys law (B) sec-1
(B) Fourier law (C) mol-1 L S-1

15
(D) mol-2 L2 S-1 (B) Contains large amount of organic
compounds
144. The E.coli concentration in a growth (C) Contains large amount of organic
medium is 0.6 g/l . The respiration rate of compounds that are not easily
E.coli at this condition in 0.6 g/l. h. biodegradable
What will be the oxygen uptake rate? (D) Contains no organic compounds
(A) 36 g/g.h
(B) 36 g/l.h 150. For running a Continuous Stirred Tank
(C) 0.1 g/g.h Reactor, critical dilution rate is:
(D) 0.01 g/l h (A) Equal to the washout rate
(B) Less than the washout rate
145. In equilibrium condition of the Freundlich (C) Higher than the washout rate
adsorption isotherm: (D) Unpredictable
(A) The solid loading increases with
the increase of equilibrium 151. In continuous sterilization process, fluid
concentration flows through the holding section where
(B) The solid loading decreases with there is:
the increase of equilibrium (A) A positive axial dispersion value
concentration (B) A negative axial dispersion value
(C) The solid loading takes place (C) Axial dispersion is zero
independent of the increase of (D) No relationship between axial
equilibrium concentration dispersion and fluid flow
(D) The solid loading initially
decreases and then increases 152. The physical significance of specific growth
rate constant is:
146. In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, Km = (A) Rate at which the organism is
410-5 mol/l, and the rate of reaction (V) growing
at substrate concentration [S] = 1.210-2 (B) Fraction per unit growth of
M is 80 mol/l-min. Assume no inhibitor microorganism per unit time
is present. Vmax is practically equal to: (C) Grams of cell formed per grams
(A) 40 mol/l-min cell mass per unit time
(B) 80 mol/l-min (D) Gram of cells formed per unit time
(C) 120 mol/l-min
(D) 4.8 102 mol/l-min 153. Supercritical fluid (SCF) extraction is much
better than normal solvent extraction. This is
147. Immobilization of microbial cells: because:
(A) Increases apparent Ks (A) SCF is non toxic
(B) Decreases apparent Ks (B) Diffusivity is much higher than
(C) Has no effect on Ks normal solvent
(D) Increases cells affinity for the (C) Handling of SCF is much easier
substrate (D) SCF viscosity is higher than normal
solvent and hence extraction is
148. In the Dynamic gassinol method, the better
volumetric oxygen transfer coefficient (KLa)
is given by: 154. Growth yield coefficient is defined as:
(A) X- intercept (A) Cell mass formed: substrate utilized
(B) Y- intercept (B) Substrate utilized: cell mass formed
(C) Slope (C) Product formed: cell mass formed
(D) Inverse of Y- intercept (D) Carbon dioxide produced to
substrate utilized
149. The ratio of BOD/COD is approximately
0.5. When this ratio falls below 0.3, it 155. Anticancer vitamin is:
signifies that it: (A) Retinol
(A) Contains large amount of (B) Phylloquinone
microorganism (C) Thiamine
(D) Pyridoxine

16
(C) Scenodesmus
156. If the rate of product formation is (D) Spirulina
approximately proportional to the rate of cell
growth, then this pattern of product 162. The origin of tetradotoxin in mollusks is:
formation is referred to as: (A) endogeneous
(A) Non-growth associated (B) exogeneous
(B) Growth associated (C) symbiotic microorganisms
(C) Uncoupled (D) all the above
(D) Metabolically uncoupled
163. Which of the following commercially
157. The viscosity of a fluid decreases with available cancer drug is obtained from
increasing stirrer speed. This fluid would be marine source?
best described as being: (A) Bleomycin
(A) Newtonian (B) AraC
(B) Pseudoplastic (C) Cisplatin
(C) Dilatant (D) Vinblastin
(D) Thixotropic
164. Spores of Gracilaria settle on hard
158. The addition of acid to maintain the pH at 2 substrate, begin to germinate by cell
2.6 in the filtered fermentation broth division within:
before penicillin extraction is carried out (A) 12hrs
to extract maximum amount of penicillin (B) 20hrs
in solvent phase. The pH is adjusted to (C) 48hrs
2 2.6 because this helps: (D) 24hrs
(A) In precipitation of proteins
(B) In maintaining penicillin in 165. The waves which generally occur during
aqueous phase hurricanes are called:
(C) In maintaining penicillin in organic (A) seismic sea waves
phase (B) storm waves
(D) In reducing the bacterial (C) tsunami
contamination (D) both (A) and (B)

159. The advantage of counter current flow in 166. Heparin is a:


the heat exchanger is always desirable as in (A) lipopolysaccharide
counter current system: (B) glycated lipopolysaccharide
(A) Temperature control is easier (C) sulphated polysaccharide
(B) Area required for heat transfer is (D) sulphated lipopolysaccharide
less
(C) Fluid flow is easy 167. Eutrophication in coastal water results in
(D) Terminal temperature difference is the following phenomenon:
less (A) red tide
(B) diurnal tide
160. Which of the following is the name of the (C) mixed tide
satellite developed recently to scan (D) neap tide
the oceans around the country?
(A) INSAT-2D 168. Barophiles are capable of growth up to:
(B) INSAT-1B (A) 100 to 200 atm
(C) INSAT-2E (B) 700 to 800 atm
(D) Aryabhatta (C) 500 to 600 atm
(D) 1 to 100 atm
161.Which one of the following algae is a
wonder crop with about 70% protein 169. The most abundant group of organisms
even surpassing famous Soya bean in food inhabiting hydrothermal vents are:
value? (A) Sulphate reducing bacteria
(A) Chlorella (B) Chemoautotrophic sulphur bacteria
(B) Dunaliella

17
(C) Sulphur oxidizing (B) luminescent bacteria
chemolithotrophs (C) non-methanogenic bacteria
(D) Nitrifiers (D) sea weeds

170. Deep sea hydrothermal vents are habitats 177. The repeating galactose units of all
where the primary producers are: carrageenans is joined by:
(A) Organotrophic bacteria
(A) 1-3 glycosisdic linkages
(B) Chemolithotrophic bacteria
(B) 1-4 glycosisdic linkages
(C) Chemoorganotrophs
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) Methylotrophs
(D) none
171. Giant tube worms receive their nutrition
178. Fish can survive inside a frozen lake
(A) through unusual haemoglobins
because:
which bind H2S as well as O2,
(A) Fish hibernate in ice
transport to the trophosome and
(B) Fish are warm blooded animals
release to bacterial symbionts
(C) Ice is a good counductor of heat
(B) from methanotrophic symbionts
(D) Water near the bottom does not
living in symbiotic association
freeze.
(C) from thermophilic prokaryotes
which reside in smoker chimneys
179. The virus-host surface interaction is a:
(D) through normal haemoglobin
(A) Specific event
(B) Non-specific event
172. The lux gene from Vibrio fischeri has been
(C) Random attachment
used to make glowing tobacco plants. This
(D) Natural event
gene is involved in:
(A) Bioluminescence
180. Which one of the following tests is not
(B) Photosynthesis
suitable for immunocytochemical studies of
(C) Phosphorescence
pathogens?
(D) Fluorescence
(A) Immunofluorescence
(B) Immunoperoxidase
173. Hydrocolloids extracted from seaweeds
(C) Immunoelectrophoresis
have attained commercial significance
(D) Immunoelectronmicroscopy
specially as:
(A) Detergents
181. The insertion of foreign DNA into non-
(B) Biofuels
essential region of vaccinia virus can be
(C) Food additives
achieved by:
(D) Laboratory chemicals
(A) Homologous recombination
(B) Heterologous recombination
174. ___________ is used in the production of
(C) Conjugation
explosives.
(D) Hybridization
(A) Carrageenan
(B) Alginate
182. Antiviral cellular immunity is
(C) agar
predominantly mediated by:
(D) xanthine
(A) CD 8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes
175. Nutraceuticals available in the market from (B) Natural killer cells
marine sources are largely from (C) CD4+ T lymphocytes
(A) bacteria (D) Dendritic cells
(B) fungi
(C) diatoms 183. Activation of classical pathway of
(D) macro algae complement requires:
(A) Antigen-antibody reaction
176. ___________ are being cultured and (B) Properdine
harvested as a source of biofuels: (C) Interleukin
. (D) Interferon
(A) anaerobic bacteria

18
184. Bovine group A rotavirus contains: (B) 30 to 45 days
(A) ss RNA (C) 40 to 50 days
(B) ds RNA (D) 10 to 15 days
(C) ss DNA
(D) ds DNA 193. One of the following diseases has been
eradicated from India:
185. Use of 2-deoxy adenosine in semen sample (A) Sheep pox
may: (B) PPR
(A) Decrease sperm motility (C) Rinderpest
(B) Increase sperm motility (D) BQ
(C) Inactivate sperms
(D) Separate head of sperm from the 194. BSE is caused by:
tail (A) Prion
(B) Viroid
186. In cows, before embryo transfer, they are (C) RNA virus
grown upto: (D) Mycoplasma
(A) Mid morula stage
(B) Late morula stage 195. Fertilized single cell cattle egg is what type
(C) Very early morula stage of stem cell?
(D) Blostocyst stage (A) Totipotent stem cell
(B) Pluripotent stem cell
187. Capacitation of sperm takes place in the (C) Multipotent stem cell
reproductive tract of cows due to (D) None of the above
presence of :
(A) Amino acids 196. -lactoglobulin promoter is used for
(B) Proteins expression of gene in:
(C) Galactosamine (A) Liver
(D) Glycosaminoglycan (B) Spleen
(C) Mammary gland
188. Sperm DNA is covered by: (D) D. Lymphnode
(A) Lipid
(B) Protamines 197. Which one of the following virus vectors
(C) Carbohydrate has been used for development of
(D) Histones bluetongue virus particle like recombinant
vaccine?
189. One of the following is not a viral disease (A) AcNPV
of sheep: (B) BmNPV
(A) FMD (C) HSV
(B) PPR (D) VSV
(C) Bluetongue
(D) Haemonchosis 198. Which one of the following is connected
with Ranikhet disease?
190. Nili Ravi is a breed of: (A) Poultry
(A) Cattle (B) Cows
(B) Sheep (C) Fishes
(C) Goat (D) Sheep
(D) Buffalo
199. For searching a query sequence with a
191. Average gestation period of cow is database, which of the following statement
(A) 280 days is correct?
(B) 245 days (A) Nucleotide query against a
(C) 310 days nucleotide sequence database is
(D) 325 days done by blastp
(B) Protein query against a translated
192. Cow comes in heat every: nucleotide sequence database is
(A) 19 to 20 days done by blastp

19
(C) Translated nucleotide query against (D) n x (m+1)
a protein database is done by blastx
(D) Protein query against a protein 207. In a PHYLIP output, the first line is two
database is done by tblastn numbers, what do they indicate?
(A) Number of sequences, length of
200. Which is the default scoring matrix used in alignment
BLAST? (B) Length of alignment, number of
(A) PAM62 sequences
(B) BLOSUM 62 (C) Number of gaps, number of
(C) BLOSUM 60 sequences
(D) BLOSUM 80 (D) Number of sequences, number of
gaps
201. PAM matrices are derived by noting
evolutionary changes in protein sequences 208. BLAT is used to find:
that are more than: (A) regions of higher identity within
(A) 80% similar genomic assemblies
(B) 60% similar (B) regions of higher differences within
(C) 40% similar genomic assemblies
(D) 25% similar (C) folds in a RNA sequence
(D) secondary structures in a given
202. Which alignment is used to predict whether protein
two sequences are homologous or not?
(A) Local 209. Homology modeling may be distinguished
(B) Global from ab initio prediction because:
(C) Pair-wise (A) Homology modeling requires a
(D) Multiple model to be built
(B) Homology modeling requires
203. In Molecular Dynamics simulation, the alignment of a target to a template
dependence is on: (C) Homology modeling is usefully
(A) only position applied to any protein sequence
(B) only momentum (D) The accuracy of homology
(C) both position and momentum modeling is independent of the
(D) either position or momentum percent identity between the target
and the template
204. In phylogenetic analysis, maximum
likelihood method is chosen when the 210. Molecular Dynamics simulation is carried
sequences have: out for:
(A) strong similarity (A) Obtaining ensemble of structures at
(B) local similarity physiological condition
(C) medium level similarity (B) Obtaining the structure at global
(D) no clear identifiable similarity energy minimum
(C) Fitting prospective drug candidate
205. The method of maximum parsimony is also molecules to a receptor
known as: (D) Modeling a protein structure from
(A) maximum evolution method sequence alone
(B) minimum evolution method
(C) zero evolution method 211. A left handed alpha helix falls in the
(D) moderate evolution method Ramachandran plot under:

206. In Needleman Wunsch algorithm of (A) allowed region


pairwise alignment of sequences with (B) partially allowed region
lengths n and m, the computational time is (C) disallowed region
proportional to: (D) line joining allowed and partially
(A) n x m allowed region
(B) (n+1) x (m+1)
(C) n + m

20
212. The Greek key motif is composed of: (B) domains, superfamilies, folds,
(A) Four alpha helices families, classes
(B) Three alpha helices and one beta (C) superfamilies, folds, families,
strand domains, classes
(C) Two alpha helices and two beta (D) Classes, folds, superfamilies,
strands families, domains
(D) Four beta strands
218. Which of the following cases are commonly
213. Which of the following statements is true used?
regarding a secondary amide? (A) gap opening penalty = -2, gap
extension penalty = -0.5
(A) It can only participate in hydrogen (B) gap opening penalty = -0.5, gap
bonding as a hydrogen bond donor extension penalty = -2.0.
(B) It can only participate in hydrogen (C) gap opening penalty = -100, gap
bonding as a hydrogen bond extension penalty = 0
acceptor (D) gap opening penalty = -100, gap
(C) It can participate in hydrogen extension penalty = -100
bonding both as a hydrogen bond
donor and a hydrogen bond 219. The description of a new organism
acceptor identified must be submitted to a Journal
(D) It cannot participate in hydrogen and the name validated before it is
bonding at all formally accepted as a new taxon of
prokaryotes. The Journal is:
(A) Bergeys Manual
214. If systematic conformational search is
performed for a molecule with six rotatable (B) International Journal of Systematic
bonds and step size is 30 degree then and Evolutionary Microbiology
(C) The Prokaryotes
number of conformers will be:
(D) Applied and Environment
(A) 1, 895, 672
Microbiology
(B) 2, 985, 984
(C) 2, 008, 672
(D) 1, 895, 760 220. The Omph protein is a type of porin,
synthesized in bacterial cells grown under a
pressure of
215. Which of the following amino acids are
(A) One atmosphere
more likely to occur in alpha helices?
(B) 100 to 200 atm
(A) A,E,L,M
(B) P,G,Y,S (C) 500 to 600 atm
(C) A,G,Y,W
(D) A,C,G,S (D) 600 to 700 atm

216. The alpha helix can be called a 3.613 helix . 221. Gasohol in USA is produced by adding
The numbers refer to: 10% ethanol to lead-free gasoline. The
(A) the number of residues and the combustion of gasohol produces:
pitch of the helix (A) lower amounts of CO and nitrogen
(B) the number of residues and number oxides than pure gasoline
of atoms in the helix (B) lower amounts of CO2 and higher
(C) the number of residues in a turn of amounts of SO2 than pure gasoline
the helix and the number of atoms (C) lower amounts of CO2 and CO
in the hydrogen bond ring than pure gasoline
(D) the number of turns and diameter (D) higher amounts of CO2 and CO
of the helix than pure gasoline
222. Some extremophiles produce extremozymes
217. Arrange the following in hierarchical top to which have major industrial application as
bottom order as is done in SCOP: (A) many industrial processes operate
(A) Classes, domains, superfamilies, best at high temperatures
folds, families (B) they have high specificity and their
ability to distinguish between chiral

21
isomers enable them to function in globin locus. The LOD score at b=0 is
extremes environment negative infinity. The LOD score at b=0.01
(C) they are always produced by is -4.5. You conclude that the disorder in
hyperthermophiles this family:
(D) many bioprocesses operate at low pH (A) Is due to a point mutation in the -
globin gene
223. The main pacemaker for endogenous (B) Is due to a mutation in a gene on
rhythms (Circadian rhythms) is the: chromosome 11, 10cM centromeric -
(A) Zeitgeber globin
(B) Suprachasmatic nucleus (C) Is not due to a -globin gene mutation
(C) Optic chiasm (D) Is an acquired disorder due to a somatic
(D) Core body temperature gene mutation

224. Epulopiscium fishelsoni whose length 230. A catalyst is one which speeds up the
ranges from 200-500 m belongs to the reaction by:
microbial group: (A) The enthalpy of the reaction
(A) Microalgae (B) Decreasing the free energy of the
(B) Fungi reaction
(C) Protozoa (C) Increasing the kinetic energy of the
(D) Bacteria reaction
(D) Decreasing the activation energy of the
225. Agar-agar is a polymer of: reaction
(A) Glucose
(B) Sulphated sugar
(C) Pectin 231. Transfer of T-DNA from Ti-plasmid into
(D) Protein plant cells is mediated by:
(A) MOB-gene
226. The most uncommon characteristic of (B) Nif gene
marine microorganisms is: (C) Vir gene
(A) They require low nutrients (D) Octopine gene
(B) They are slow growing
(C) 95% are gram negative 232. During RNA polymerase II transcription
(D) They do not exhibit pleomorphism initiation, phosphorylation of the following
factor is essential to commence
227. Which of the following statements is false transcription:
when describing SWISS-PROT ? (A) Polymerase II CTD
(A) It is a curated protein sequence (B) TFIID
database (C) TFIIH
(B) Data is redundant (D) TFIIE
(C) Provides a high level of annotations
(D) It is maintained by Swiss Institute of 233. In human genome, approximately--------of
Bioinformatics and EBI the DNA codes for proteins:
(A) 10%
228. Threading approaches can be used to: (B) 2%
(A) Predict secondary structures of (C) 50%
proteins (D) 20%
(B) Build phylogenetic trees
(C) Identify distantly related structural 234. A linear fragment of DNA will be unstable
homologs of proteins if it carries:
(D) To check the fitness of a modeled (A) Two origins of replication
protein structure (B) Two centromeres
(C) Two telomeres
229. Linkage analysis is performed in a large (D) Two selection markers
family with an autosomal hemolytic anemia,
235. A restriction endonuclease recognizes a 8
using a polymorphic marker within the -
bp unbiased conserved sequence as its

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cleavage site. How many probable site(s) (B) Absence of polyadenylation at the
can be present in a 70 kb DNA fragment ? 3end of the transcript
(A) 2 (C) Codon bias
(B) 1 (D) Lack of splicing machinery in E. coli.
(C) 4
(D) 6 242. The genomic DNA fraction which has
highest value of cot on Cot curve
236. Typical nucleosomal organization of gene is represnts:
not found in the nuclei of: (A) Highly repetitive DNA
(A) Human liver cells (B) Moderately repetitive DNA
(B) Muscle cell (C) Minisatellite DNA
(C) Human sperm (D) Unique DNA
(D) Neural cells
243. The best method to permeabilize yeast cells
237. Which of the following organelles is chemically is to use:
surrounded by a single membrane? (A) EDTA and Lysozyme
(A) Chloroplast (B) -(1,3) glucanase and protease
(B) Mitochondria (C) -(1,6) glucanase
(C) Peroxisomes (D) Alkaline hydroxylase
(D) Nucleus
244. Asparaginase is used as an:
238. If a DNA sequence predominantly contains (A) Anti-tumor agent
alternating pyrimidines and purines, which (B) Anti-tuberculosis agent
of the following DNA structures is highly (C) Anti-malarial agent
favored ? (D) Anti-diabetic agent
(A) A-DNA
(B) B-DNA 245. Which of the following will have the largest
(C) Z-DNA interfacial area per unit volume ?
(D) A-B-DNA (A) A bubble with a diameter of 1 mm
(B) A bubble with a diameter of 2 mm
239. In a temperature-sensitive mutant bacteria, (C) A bubble with a diameter of 3 mm
at non-permissive temperature, there are (D) A bubble with a diameter of 4 mm
huge accumulation of Okazaki fragments.
The bacteria are mutant for: 246. Mr. B and Mrs. B have a 2 month-old baby
(A) DNA polymerase with Downs syndrome. Her Karyotype is
(B) DNA topoisomerase I showing translocation variety of Downs
(C) DNA ligase syndrome. Which of the following
(D) DNA gyrase investigations will you advise to the parents
before next pregnancy ?
240. Which among the following enzymes is not (A) Triple test
a component of nitrogen assimilation (B) -foetoprotein analysis
complex ? (C) Karyotyping
(A) Nitrate reductase (D) -hCG analysis
(B) Glutamate synthase
(C) Lactate dehydrogenase 247. Occurrence of TB in HIV patients suggests
(D) Glutamine synthetase the potent protective role played by:
(A) NK cells in healthy individuals
241. A cDNA encoding an eukaryotic gene (B) NKT cells in healthy individuals
was ligated to an expression vector which (C) CD3+ T cells in healthy individuals
was then introduced into E.coli for (D) CD4+ T cells in healthy individuals
expression of protein. However, the
experiment resulted in poor expression of
inactive form of the protein, which could be
due to:
(A) Absence of capping at the 5end of
the transcript

23
248. Which of the following types of neurons is
primarily lost in Parkinsons disease?
(A) Dopaminergic neurons in the
substantia nigra
(B) Cholinergic neurons in the brain
stem
(C) Noradrenergic neurons in the
cerebellum
(D) GABA-ergic neurons in cortex

249. The term k in the following energy


expression E = k (theta-thetao)2
represents:
(A) Van der Waals interaction
(B) Stretching constant for bond angle
variation
(C) Torsonal potential
(D) Kinetic energy of an atom

250. Heyflicks limit refers to which one of the


following phenomena?
(A) DNA repair
(B) Cell senescence in vitro
(C) Protein synthesis
(D) RNA transport

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