Sample Paper ASAT Leader

ASAT
(ALLEN Scholarship Cum Admission Test)
LEADER COURSE
(FOR XII PASSED & APPEARED STUDENTS)
Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
SANKALP, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-5156100 info@allen.ac.in
www.allen.ac.in
INSTRUCTIONS (
)
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
5

Things NOT ALLOWED in EXAM HALL : Blank Paper, clipboard, log table, slide rule, calculator, camera, mobile and any electronic or
electrical gadget. If you are carrying any of these then keep them at a place specified by invigilator at your own risk
1. This booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal of 1.

Booklet until the invigilator instructs to do so.
2. Fill your Form No. in the space provided on the top of this page. 2.
3. The Answer Sheet is provided to you separately which is a 3.
(ORS)
machine readable Optical Response Sheet (ORS). You have to

ORS

mark your answers in the ORS by darkening bubble, as per
your answer choice, by using black & blue ball point pen.
4. Total Questions to be Attempted 80. Part-I : 20 Questions
4. 80

-I : 20
-II : 60 .
& Part-II : 60 Questions.
5. After breaking the Question Paper seal, check the following : 5.
:
a. There are 27 pages in the booklet containing question a.
27
1 100
2
-I
no. 1 to 100 under 2 Parts i.e. Part-I & Part-II.
b. Part-I contains total 20 questions of IQ (Mental Ability).

-II
c. Part-II contains total 80 questions under 4 sections b.
-I
20 IQ ( )
which are-Section (A) : Physics, Section (B): Chemistry, c.
-II 80 4
(A) :
,
Section (C): Mathematics* & Section (D): Biology*. (B): , (C): * (D) : *
*Important: You have to attempt ANY ONE SECTION only *: (C): (D) :
out of Section(C): Mathematics and Section (D) : Biology.
DO NOT attempt both sections.
6. Marking Scheme : 6. :
a. If darkened bubble is RIGHT answer : 4 Marks. a.
: 4
b. If no bubble is darkened in any question: No Mark. b.
:
c. Only for part - II : If darkened bubble is WRONG answer: c. - II :
-1 Mark (Minus One Mark). -1 ( ).
7. Think wisely before darkening bubble as there is negative 7.
marking for wrong answer.
8. If you are found involved in cheating or disturbing others 8.
ORS
then your ORS will be cancelled.
9. Do not put any stain on ORS and hand it over back properly 9. ORS
to the invigilator.
Sample questions for ASAT : Leader Course
PART - I
IQ (MENTAL ABILITY)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
20 (1), (2), (3)

(4)

1. Find the missing term 1.
TVA, QSC, NPE, (?), HJI TVA, QSC, NPE, (?), HJI
(1) MGK (2) KLG (1) MGK (2) KLG
(3) KMG (4) GKL (3) KMG (4) GKL
2. Find the missing number in the following 2.
?
4 8
diagram ?
4 8
6 14 6 14
6 14 6 14 8 8
10 18 14 22
8 8
10 18 14 22
8 5
8 5
6 6 ?
6 6 ?
4
4 22 11 15
22 11 15
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 14 (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 14
Direction (Q.3 to Q.5) : Below in Column-I

(Q.3 Q.5) :
-I
are given some word and in column-II are given -II

their equivalent in some code language.
Word in column-II do not appear in the same

-II
-I
order as in column-I. Moreover the order of
letters is also jumbled up.

Column I Column II
I
II
TAPE moij TAPE moij
COUP ihhplk COUP ihhplk
TIE nls TIE nls
ROTATE nhpk ROTATE nhpk
SAY nkpl SAY nkpl
TREAT msr TREAT msr
YEAR khlph YEAR khlph
SIP hrp SIP hrp
TYRE pmlh TYRE pmlh
1/27
3. How will SOUP be coded in that code 3. SOUP
language?
?
(1) nhsm (2) siom (3) hnsm (4) somh (1) nhsm (2) siom (3) hnsm (4) somh
4. How will REACT be coded in that code 4. REACT
?
language? (1) lhpijk (2) lihpr
(1) lhpijk (2) lihpr (3) pkjih (4) jklph (3) pkjih (4) jklph
5. How will TOP be coded in that code language? 5. TOP
?
(1) mih (2) lih (3) pri (4) jio (1) mih (2) lih (3) pri (4) jio
Directions for (Q.6 & Q.7) : The following
( 6 7)
:
questions are based on the information given.
Study the information carefully and answer

the questions.
I. There are five students L, M, N, O and P I.
L, M, N, O
P
in a class II. L
II. L studies Physics, English and Chemistry
III.M
N
III.M and N study Chemistry and Psychology
IV. O
L
IV. O and L study Biology and Sanskrit
V. P and M study Hindi and English V. P
M
6. Who among the following students studies 6.
?
maximum number of subjects? (1) O (2) N
(1) O (2) N (3) L (4) P (3) L (4) P
7. Which subject is studied by only one student ? 7.
?
(1) Biology (2) Hindi (1) (2)
(3) Physics (4) Sanskrit (3) (4)
8. A dice is thrown twice and its different 8.
positions are shown below .
:
Which is the number of dots on the face

opposite 4 dots ?
4
?
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
9. Two positions of a standard dice are shown 9.
2
:
below.
When 6 is at the bottom, what number will be 6

at the top ?
?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
2/27
10. If a clock shows 12 : 37 then its mirror image 10.
12 : 37
will be :

:
(1) 11 : 37 (2) 11 : 23
(1) 11 : 37 (2) 11 : 23
(3) 01 : 23 (4) 21 : 23 (3) 01 : 23 (4) 21 : 23
Directions (Q.11 & Q.12) : Following
(11 12)
:
questions are based on the information given
:
below :
1. P Q
P, Q

1. P Q means P is the father of Q
2. P Q
P, Q

2. P Q means P is the sister of Q
3. P + Q
P, Q

3. P + Q means P is the mother of Q
4. P Q means P is the brother of Q 4. P Q
P, Q

11. In the expression B + D M N, how is M 11.
B + D M N, M
B
related to B ?
(1) Granddaughter (1)
(2) Son (2)
(3) Grandson (3)
(4) Granddaughter or Grandson (4)
12. Which of the following represents J is the son 12.
J, F
of F -

(1) J R T F (2) J + R T F (1) J R T F (2) J + R T F
(3) J M N F (4) None of these (3) J M N F (4)
13. In the following letter series, some of the 13.
letters are missing, which are given in that order
as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the

correct alternative
abca bcaab aa caa ca
abca bcaab aa caa ca
(1) bbac (2) bbaa
(1) bbac (2) bbaa
(3) acbb (4) acac (3) acbb (4) acac
Direction (Q.14 & Q.15) : A pyramid of
(
14
15) :
letters is given below. Study the pyramid and
select the correct alternative to fill in the

-
missing term.
A A
N M B N M B
Y X C Y X C
H G Z W H G Z W
O N I V Q J E O N I V Q J E
T S P M J E B U R I F T S P M J E B U R I F
W V U R Q L K D C T S H G W V U R Q L K D C T S H G
3/27
14. GYXOW, ZXOLP, FZWPV ? 14. GYXOW, ZXOLP, FZWPV ?
(1) AWPKQ (2) PVQJE (1) AWPKQ (2) PVQJE
(3) KQUCT (4) EBURI (3) KQUCT (4) EBURI
15. AMONB, YGIHZ ? 15. AMONB, YGIHZ ?
(1) LPVBD (2) FAVQJ (1) LPVBD (2) FAVQJ
(3) OSUTP (4) LPVQJ (3) OSUTP (4) LPVQJ
Directions (Q.16 to Q.19) : Read the
(
16
19) :
following information carefully and answer :
the questions given below it :
(i) 6 2
(i) Six flats on a floor in two rows facing

P, Q, R, S, T
U
North and South are alloted to P, Q, R, S,

T and U.
(ii) Q
S
(ii) Q gets North facing flat and is not next to
S.
(iii) S and U get diagonally opposite flats. (iii) S
U
(iv) R, next to U, gets south facing flat and T (iv) R

U
gets North facing flat. T
16. Which of the following combination get South 16.
facing flats ?
(1) QTS (2) UPT (1) QTS (2) UPT
(3) URP (4) None of these (3) URP (4)
17. Whose flat is between Q and S ? 17. Q S
?
(1) T (2) U (1) T (2) U
(3) R (4) P (3) R (4) P
18. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, whose 18. T
P
U
flat will be next to that of U ?
?
(1) P (2) Q (1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) T (3) R (4) T
19. Which of the following pairs other than SU are 19.
SU
diagonally opposite to each other ?
?
(1) QP (2) QR (1) QP (2) QR
(3) PT (4) TS (3) PT (4) TS
20. If on 14th day after 5th March be Wednesday, 20. 5
14
what day of the week will fall on 10th Dec. of
10
?
the same year?
(1) Friday (2) Wednesday (1) (2)
(3) Thursday (4) Tuesday (3) (4)
4/27
PART-II
SECTION-A : PHYSICS
20 (1), (2), (3)

(4)

21. An object of mass m is tied to string of length 21. m
L
L and a variable horizontal force is applied on
it which starts at zero and gradually increases
(
)
(Equilibrium axis at all times) until the string

'F'
makes an angle with the vertical. Total work

......
done by the force F is
L
F
L
F
(1) L sin mg
(1) L sin mg (2) mgL(1 cos)
(2) mgL(1 cos)
(3) mgL cos
(3) mgL cos
(4) None (4)
22. A disc of mass m and radius R is rotated about 22. m
R
an axis which is tangential to disc, in the plane
of disc as shown. What is the moment of inertia

of the disc about the given axis ?
?
5mr 2 3mr 2 5mr 2 3mr 2

(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 4 4 4
3mr 2 7mr 2 3mr 2 7mr 2

(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 5 2 5
23. From a point if we move in a direction 23.

x-

making an angle measured from +ve
dv
x-axis , the potential gradient is given as
=2 cos
dr
dv
=2 cos Find the di rection and
dr
magnitude of electric field at that point.
(1) 2i (2) 2i (1) 2i (2) 2i
(3) i j (4) i j (3) i j (4) i j
5/27
24. Two masses each of mass m are attached at mid 24.
m
AC
points B & end point C of a massless road AC
B
C
hinged at A. It is released from horizontal
A
position. Find the force at hinge A when the rod
A
becomes vertical.
28 mg A A
(1) 28 mg
5 (1)
5

26 mg 2 26 mg 2
(2) (2)
5 5
B B
23 mg 23 mg
(3) (3)
5 5
2 2
31 mg 31 mg
(4) (4)
5 C 5 C
25. For a poly-tropic process pressure P and 25.
P V
Volume V is related as PV3 = constant, if gas
PV3 =
is mono-atomic what is molar specific heat

capacity for it.
7R 5R 11R 7R 5R 11R
(1) (2) (3) 3R (4) (1) (2) (3) 3R (4)
4 3 4 4 3 4
26. The spectral emissive power E for a body at 26. T1
E
temperature T1 is plotted against the wavelength

A
and area under the curve is found to be A. At

T2
9A
a different temperature T2 the area is found to
1/2 =
be 9A. Then 1/ 2 =
(1) 3 (2) 1/3 (3) 1 3 (4) 3 (1) 3 (2) 1/3 (3) 1 3 (4) 3
27. In the figure, there is a hexagon of side a and 27.
a
charges are placed as shown; the electric field
:
at centre of hexagon is :
q q
q q
q q
q q
q q
q q
kq 2kq 5 3kq 6 2kq kq 2kq 5 3kq 6 2kq
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
a2 a2 a2 a2 a2 a2 a2 a2
6/27
28. The figure shows a uniformly charged 28.
R
hemisphere of radius R. If has volume charged

density . If the electric field at a point 2R
2R
E
2R
distance above its centre is E. Then what is the
electric field at the point at distance 2R below
?
its centre.
R R R R
(1) 6 E (2) 12 E (1) 6 E (2) 12 E
0 0 0 0
R R R R
(3) 6 E (4) 24 E (3) 6 E (4) 24 E
0 0 0 0
29. Three large plates are arranged as shown. How 29.

much charge will flow through the key K if it K
K
is closed?
?
5Q 4Q 3Q 5Q 4Q 3Q
(1) (2) (3) (4) none (1) (2) (3) (4)
6 3 2 6 3 2
30. A current carrying loop is coplanar with a long 30.
infinite current carrying wire as shown in the
XX'
figure. If the loop is now rotated about axis XX'
120
by an angle of 120. The final flux of magnetic

-
field associated with the loop will be -
X X
l a l a
a a a a
X X
0 Ia 0 Ia 0 Ia 0 Ia 0 Ia 0 Ia
(1) (2) (3) (4) zero (1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2
7/27
31. A photocell in the saturation mode is irradiated 31.
= 6600
by light of wavelength = 6600 . The
corresponding spectral sensitivity of the cell is
s = 4.8 mA/W. Find the yield of

s = 4.8 mA/W
photoelectrons, i.e. the number of
photoelectrons produced by each incident d hft , A [h = 6.6 1034 J-s]
photon. [Take : h = 6.6 1034 J-s]
(1) 9 102 (2) 9 104
(1) 9 102 (2) 9 104
(3) 9 103 (4) 9 (3) 9 103 (4) 9
32. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of 32.

the page and a metallic wire frame is placed in
the field as shown. While the shape of the wire
is transformed into a circle in the same plane,
:
the current in frame is :
(1) Clock wise (2) Does not appear (1) (2)

(3) Anti clockwise (4) Alternating (3) (4)
33. A wire loop is placed in a region of time varying 33.
magnetic field which is oriented orthogonally
to the plane of the loop as shown in the figure.
The graph shows the magnetic field variation
as the function of time. Assume the positive emf
is the one which drives a current in the
B

clockwise direction and seen by the observer
in the direction of B shown. Which of the
following graphs best represents the induced
:
emf as a function of time.
t3 t3
3 3
(1) (2) (1) 3
(2)
3
3 3
(3) 3 (4) (3) 3 (4)
8/27
34. The equivalent resistance between A and B is 34. A B
r r r r
r r r r r r
r r r r
A B A B
r r r r r r
r r r r
5r 5r
(1) 2r (2) (1) 2r (2)
3 3
r r
(3) r (4) (3) r (4)
2 2
35. The rms value of the current wave 35.

i = a sint + b cost
i = a sint + b cost is:
:
a 2 b2 2a 2 b 2 a 2 b2 2a 2 b 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
a 2 2b 2 a 2 2b 2
(3) (4) 2
a b 2 (3) (4) a 2 b2
2 2
36. A block of mass m is moving at a speed V 36. m

V
2m
collides with another block of mass 2m at rest.
The lighter block comes to rest after collision.
The co-efficient of restitution is
:
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 3 2 3
1 2 1 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 3 4 3
9/27
Comprehension for (Q.No.37 & Q.No.38)
(
37
38)
In a rigid wire frame ABCDEFA, as shown in
ABCDEFA
I0
the figure, a current I0 flows through the wire
F A
AB, CD EF
from F to A as shown in the figure. Radii of
the three quarters AB, CD and EF are r1 = 31/4
r1=31/4 m, r2=31/4m r3=1 m
m, r2 = 31/4m and r3 = 1 m respectively with
O
common centre at O. All the wires are light
ED
'm' kg
except for the portion ED which have a mass
of m kg.
Z Z
B B
C C
Y Y
D O F A D O F A
E E
X X
37. The magnetic moment of the loop is 37.
I0 1 I0 1
(1) 3i j k (1) 3i j k
4 3 4 3
I0 1 I0 1
(2) 3i j k (2) 3i j k
4 3
4 3
I0 1 I0 1
(3) 3i j k (3) 3i j k
4 3 4 3
I0 1 I0 1
(4) 3i j k (4) 3i j k
4 3 4 3
38. If this loop is kept in a magnetic field of 38.

2 T
magnitude 2 T which is directed along positive
y-
y-axis, angular acceleration of the loop is

[where = (r3r2)]
[ = (r3r2)]
8 I 0 6 I 0 8 I 0
i 3k i 3k i 3k 6 I 0
(1) 2 (2) 2 i 3k
m m (1) 2 (2) 2
m m
8 I 0 6 I 0 8 I 0 6 I 0
(3) i 3k (4) i 3k (3) i 3k (4) i 3k
m 2 m 2 m 2 m 2
10/27
Comprehension for (Q.No.39 & Q.No.40)
(
39
40)
Heat generation may occur in a variety of radial
geometries. Consider a long, solid cylinder as

shown in the figure, which could represent a
current-carrying wire or a fuel element in a
nuclear reactor. For steady state conditions, the
rate at which heat is generated within the
cylinder must equal the rate at which heat is

convected from the surface of the cylinder to a
moving fluid.
TS TS
r r
cold fluid cold fluid
(Tf) (Tf)
r0 r0

This condition allows the surface temperature

TS

to be maintained at a fixed value of T S. To

determine the temperature distribution in the

r
cylinder, we begin with energy conservation
principle. Consider a cylindrical section of

radius r. The energy is generated within the
volume and is conducted radially outwards.
dT dT
q r2 = K2r q r2 = K2r
dr dr
where q is the energy generated per unit time

q
per unit volume, K is the thermal conductivity K

dT dT
and is the temperature gradient at radius r. , r
q
dr dr
11/27
q 2 q 2
If q is constant T(r) = r + C
T(r) = r + C; r = r0
4k 4k
At r = r0 , T(r0) = TS. Therefore , T(r0) = TS
q 2 r2 q 2 r2
T(r) = r 1 T T(r) = r 1 T
4k 0 r02 S 4k 0 r02 S
The rate of heat convected to the surrounding TS Tf

fluid (at temperature T f) by the surface at

(TS Tf)
temperature T S is proportional to the

temperature difference (TS Tf) and the surface
h(2r0) (T S T f) h
area in contact with the fluid. Thus, rate of heat
convecti on = h(2r 0 )(T S T f ) where h is a

constant called heat convection coefficient. By ,
overall energy balance,
qr0
q (r02) = h(2r0) (TS Tf) Ts = Tf +
qr0 2h
q (r02) = h(2r0) (TS Tf) Ts = Tf +
2h
39. The dimension of heat convection coefficient 39.
is-
(1) [ML2 T1 1 ]
(1) [ML2 T1 1 ]
(2) [ML0 T3 1 ]
(2) [ML0 T3 1 ]
(3) [ML0 T2 1 ] (3) [ML0 T2 1 ]
(4) [ML4 T2 1 ] (4) [ML4 T2 1 ]

40. In the given passage, the difference in 40.
temperature at the axis and surface of the
cylinder is-
qr02 qr02
qr02 qr02 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 4k k
4k k
qr02 2qr0 qr02 2qr0

(3) (4) (3) (4)
2k k 2k k
12/27
SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
20 (1), (2), (3)

(4)

41. Most acidic phenol is - 41.
OH OH
OH OH
NO2 NO2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
NO2 NO2
OH OH
OH OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
H 2C NO2 H 2C NO2
42. Which of the following will convert 42.
CH 3 CH2 C CH
CH 3 CH2 C CH

CH 3 C CH 2 CH 3 CH 3 C CH 2 CH 3
|| ||
O O
(1) H2O/H+ (1) H2O/H+

(2) Hg+2/H 2SO 4 (2) Hg+2/H 2SO 4
(3) conc.H2 SO4 / H3PO 4 (3)
.H2 SO4 / H3PO4
(4) K2 Cr2O7 / KMnO4 (4) K2 Cr2O7 / KMnO4
43. CH2 =CHCH=CHCH3 3

(ii )Zn / H 2O
(i)O
Products 43. CH2 = CH CH = CH CH3
(i)O
3
(ii) Zn / H 2 O

Which one of the following cannot be obtained

as product.
(1) HCHO (2) CH3 CHO (1) HCHO (2) CH3 CHO
CHO CHO
(3) (4) HCOOH (3) (4) HCOOH
CHO CHO
13/27
44. Observe the given reaction pathway and 44.
choose the correct alternative from the options
given below -
CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3
C (i) Aq KOH C C
(i) Aq KOH +
C C + C Ph Cl (ii) H+ Ph OH Ph H
+
Ph Cl (ii) H Ph OH Ph H H H HO
H H HO 50% 50%
50% 50%
Reaction follow this path

(I) PE
(I) PE
Reaction co-ordinates

Reaction follow this path
(II) PE (II) PE
Reaction co-ordinates
(III) Intermediate of the reaction is

(III)
carbocation.
(IV) reaction goes via pentavalent Transition (IV)
state.

(1) I, IV (2) II, IV (3) I, III (4) II, III
(1) I, IV (2) II, IV (3) I, III (4) II, III
45. Identify the products of gives reaction and 45.
choose the correct one from the options given
:-
below :- O
O
+ HI ?
+ HI ?
1 : 1
1 : 1
OH OH
(1) + C2H5I , SN1 (1) + C2H5I , SN1
OH OH
(2) + C2H5I , SN2 (2) + C2H5I , SN2
I I
(3) + C2H5OH , SN1 (3) + C2H5OH , SN1
I I
(4) + C2H5OH , SN2 (4) + C2H5OH , SN2
14/27
46. Which of the following compounds can 46.
undergo tautomerization ?

?
O O O O
(I) (II) (I) (II)
O O
O O
(III) (IV)
(III) (IV)
O O
O O
(1) I, II
III (2) II
III
(1) I, II and III only (2) II and III only
(3) I, II, III
IV (4) I
III
(3) I, II, III and IV (4) I and III only
47. Which of the following does not show 47.
geometrical isomerism ?
?
(1) C6 H5 N = N C6 H5 (1) C6 H5 N = N C6 H5
(2) CH3 CH = N OH (2) CH3 CH = N OH
(3) Me Me (3) Me Me
(4) None (4)
48. Which of the following dissolve(s) in 48.

NaOH
excess of NaOH solution ?
(1) AgNO3 (2) Zn(OH)2 (1) AgNO3 (2) Zn(OH)2
(3) BaSO4 (4) Hg2 (NO3) 2 (3) BaSO4 (4) Hg2 (NO3) 2
Heat Heat
49. Be(NO3)2 BeO + [X] + O2 49. Be(NO3)2 BeO + [X] + O2
What is the [X] :-

[X]
:-
(1) NO (2) N2O (3) NO2 (4) N2O3 (1) NO (2) N2O (3) NO2 (4) N2O3
50. Which of the following molecule is correctly 50.

matched with its dipole moment :
:
(1) PF3Cl 2, 0 (2) PF2Cl 3, 0 (1) PF3Cl 2, 0 (2) PF2Cl 3, 0
(3) PF3Cl 2, 0 (4) None of these (3) PF3Cl 2, 0 (4)
15/27
51. Which of the following molecule has SOS 51.
SOS
-
linkage -
(1) H2S 2O 8 (2) H2S 2O 5
(1) H2S 2O 8 (2) H2S 2O 5
(3) S 3O 9 (4) H2S 2O 4 (3) S 3O 9 (4) H2S 2O 4
52. In which of the following process, maximum 52.

amount of energy involved.
(1) Cl Cl (2) Br Br
(1) Cl Cl (2) Br Br
(3) F F (4) I I (3) F F (4) I I
53. Which of the following compounds have the 53.
same number of lone pairs on their central atom
[I] XeF5 [II] BrF3 [I] XeF5 [II] BrF3
+ +
[III] XeF2 [IV] H3 O [III] XeF2 [IV] H3 O
4 4
[V] XeO6 [V] XeO6
(1) IV and V (2) I and III (1) IV and V (2) I and III
(3) I and II (4) II, IV and V (3) I and II (4) II, IV and V
54. In P 4 , P 4O 6 and P 4O 10 have how many 54. P 4, P 4O6
P 4O 10

bonds?
?
(1) 12, 6, 16 (1) 12, 6, 16
(2) 16, 6, 12 (2) 16, 6, 12
(3) 6, 12, 16 (3) 6, 12, 16
(4) 16, 16, 12 (4) 16, 16, 12
55. According to Graham's law, at a given 55.
A B
temperature the ratio of the rates of diffusion r
A
:
rA rB
of gases A and B is given by :
rB 1/ 2
P MA
1/ 2 (1) A
PA M A PB M B
(1)
PB M B
1/ 2
M PA
1/ 2 (2) A
M A PA M B PB
(2) M
B PB
1/ 2
1/ 2
PA M B
PA M B (3) P
B MA
(3) P
B MA
1/ 2
1/ 2 M A PB
M A PB (4) M
(4) M B PA
B PA
16/27
Comprehension for (Q.No.56 to Q.No.58)
(
56
58)
Introducing the Cl-atoms in PF 5 we may get PF5
Cl-
PClxF5 x
molecule PClx F5 x
56. When the value of x = 2. Comment on the 56. x = 2
F-
position of F-atoms in the molecule.
(1) Three F-atoms are at the three equitorial (1) F-
position
(2)
F-
F-
(2) Two F-atoms are at the equitorial position

and one F-atom is at the axial position.
(3)
F-
F-
(3) Two F-atoms are at axial position and one

F-atom is at the equitorial position.
(4) All are correct (4)
57. For which value of x, the dipole moment of 57. x

the molecule is zero
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 1
58. For which value of x, the central atom is not 58. x
utilising d-orbital for its hybridisation d-
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 2 (4) None of these (3) 2 (4)

Comprehension for (Q.No.59 & Q.No.60) (
59
60)
O
O
PCl5
PCl5 (i) CH3COCHCH3 'P' + Q
(i) CH3COCHCH3 'P' + Q
O
(i)DI-BALH
O (ii) CH3COCHCH3 (ii) H2O 'R' + T
(i)DI-BALH
(ii) CH3COCHCH3 (ii) H2O 'R' + T
O O
+
H3O
+
H3O
(iii) CH3COCHCH3 'S' + T (iii) CH3COCHCH3 'S' + T
O O
(i)LiAlH4 (i)LiAlH4
(iv) CH3COCHCH3 (ii) H2O 2T (iv) CH3COCHCH3 (ii) H 2O 2T
PCl5
(v) T
PCl5
Q (v) T Q
59. Which can't show positive iodoform test - 59.

-
(1) T (2) Q (3) R (4) P (1) T (2) Q (3) R (4) P
60. Which compound is a alcohol - 60.
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) T (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) T
17/27
Attempt any one of the section C or D
Section C or D
section
SECTION-C : MATHEMATICS
20 (1), (2), (3)

(4)

61. If the letters of the word CHANDIGARH are 61. CHANDIGARH
written down at random in a row, the A'S

S
probability that two A' are together is
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
62. If the function f(x) = 2x3 9ax2 + 12a2 x + 1, 62. f(x) = 2x3 9ax2 + 12a2 x + 1,
where a > 0, attains its maximum and a > 0,
p q
minimum values at p and q respectively such
p = q
2
a
that p2 = q, then a equals -
1 1
(1) (2) 3 (1) (2) 3
2 2
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2

63. The point (2, ) is a point in the angle 63.
(2, )
, x + 2 y 3 = 0
between the lines, x + 2 y 3 = 0 and 2 x 5 y + 2 = 0 2 x 5 y + 2 = 0
containing the origin if:
(1) (1, 2) (1) (1, 2)
1 1
(2) , 1 (2) , 1
2 2
1 1
(3) 3, (3) 3,
2 2
1 1
(4) , 3 , 1 (4) , 3 , 1
2 2
x 1
5x 1
64. The complete solution set of 0 is - 64. 5x 1 0
4 x 1 4
(1) (, 0] (2) [0, ) (1) (, 0] (2) [0, )

(3) (, 1] [1, ) (4) R (3) (, 1] [1, ) (4) R
18/27
(sin x) n (cos x) n (sin x) n (cos x) n

65. If x 0, Lim
, then n is 65. x 0, , n
Lim
4 (sin x) n (cos x) n 4 (sin x) n (cos x) n
(1) 1 (2) 1 (1) 1 (2) 1

(3) 0 (4) Do not exist (3) 0 (4) Do not exist
66. Number of real solution of 66. x 2 3x 2 | x 4 | 0
x 2 3x 2 | x 4 | 0 is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) Infinite (3) 2 (4)
1 1 1 1 1 1
67. ....... 67. .......
cos0 cos1 cos1 cos2 cos88 cos89 cos0 cos1 cos1 cos2 cos88 cos89
is equal to :
:
sin1 cos1 sin1 cos1

(1) (2) (1) (2)
cos2 1 sin 2 1 cos2 1 sin 2 1
sin 2 1 cos2 1 sin 2 1 cos2 1

(3) (4) (3) (4)
cos2 1 sin1 cos2 1 sin1
68. If all roots of the equation, 68.

z 3 az2 bz c 0 a,b,c R are of unit z 3 az2 bz c 0 a,b,c R
modulus, then
(1) a 3 (2) b 3 (1) a 3 (2) b 3
(3) c 1 (4) none of these (3) c 1 (4)
69. Let , , be three numbers such that 69. , ,

2() = ,
1 1 1 9 1 1 1 9
2() = , 2
2 2 and 2
2 2
+ + = 2
4 4
+ + = 2 then the value of is

(1) 4 (2) 2 (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 2 (4) 4 (3) 2 (4) 4
n
sin 3 3r n
sin 3 3r
70. The value of lim
n
r n 3r
is :- 70. lim
n
3r
r n
:-
3 3 1 4 3 3 1 4
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 4 3 4 4 4 3
19/27
71. Two contestants play a game as follows each 71.
is asked to select a digit from 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8. 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
If the two digits match they both win a prize.
The probability that they will win a prize in a trial
single trial is
1 1
1 1 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 36 6
36 6
1 2
1 2 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 3 3
3 3
72. Let function f : R R be defined by 72. f : R R, x R

f(x) = 15x + sin(x15)
f(x) = 15x + sin(x15) for x R then f is
f
(1) one-to-one and onto (1)
(2) one-to-one not onto (2)
(3) onto but not one-to-one (3)
(4) neither one-to-one nor onto (4)
60 sin 82 sin 51 sin 47 60 sin 82 sin 51 sin 47

73. The exact value of is 73.
sin16 sin 78 sin 86 sin16 sin 78 sin 86
(1) 12 (2) 15 (1) 12 (2) 15

(3) 16 (4) 20 (3) 16 (4) 20
74. If x 2 2x cos + 1 = 0 then the value of 74. x2 2x cos + 1 = 0 x2n 2xn cosn + 1
x2n 2xn cosn + 1 is equal to
(1) cos2n (1) cos2n
(2) sin2n (2) sin2n
(3) 0 (3) 0
(4) some real number > 0 (4)

>0
75.
2 2
If (2x 3x + 1) (2x + 5x + 1) = 9x , then
2 75. (2x2 3x + 1) (2x2 + 5x + 1) = 9x2,
equation has :
:
(1) Four real roots (1)
(2) Two real and two imaginary roots (2)
(3) All imaginary (3)
(4) None of the above (4)
20/27
(
76
78)
Consider the algebraic expression (x + 1)

(x + 1) (x 2) (x + 3) (x 4).........
(x 2) (x + 3) (x 4).........(x 100). (x 100)
On the basis of above information, answer the

following questions : :
76. Coefficient of x
100
is equal to- 76. x
100

-
(1) 1 (2) 50 (1) 1 (2) 50
(3) 100 (4) 101 (3) 100 (4) 101
x
99
99
is equal to- 77. -
(1) 50 (2) 100 (1) 50 (2) 100

(3) 5050 (4) 101 (3) 5050 (4) 101
x
98
98
is equal to- 78. -
(1) 158975 (2) 168925 (1) 158975 (2) 168925
(3) 167925 (4) 157925 (3) 167925 (4) 157925

(
79
80)
It is given that,
log sin 2 log cos log sin

log sin 2 log cos log sin
4x y 7z x y 2z x 6y 3z
4x y 7z x y 2z x 6y 3z
(
)
(wherever defined).
On the basis of above information, answer the

following questions : :
sin . cos . sin
2 5 2 5
79. Value of sin . cos . sin is equal to- 79.
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
1 1
(3) (4) 3 (3) (4) 3
2 2
80. If [0, 2] such that ( ) is 80. [0, 2]

()

maximum then tan 8 tan 8 is equal to-
tan tan
8 8
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 1 (2) 0

(3) 1 (4) 3 (3) 1 (4) 3
21/27
SECTION-D : BIOLOGY
20 (1), (2), (3)

(4)

81. The carrying capacity of a population is 81.
determined by its
(1)
(1) Population growth rate
(2)
(2) Birth rate
(3) Death rate (3)
(4) Limiting resource (4)
82. A graphical respresentatio n between 82.

potential energy and progression of reaction A, B
C
is given below. Identify appropriate terms

for the given A, B and C
C
C Potential energy
Potential energy A
A
B
B
Progress of reaction
Progress of reaction
(1) A
, B
, C
(1) ASubstrate, BProduct, CActivation
energy with enzyme

(2) AProduct, BSubstrate, CActivation (2) A
, B
, C
energy with enzyme

(3) AProduct, BSubstrate, CActivation (3) A
, B
, C
energy without enzyme
(4) ASubstrate, BProduct, CActivation (4) A
, B
, C
energy without enzyme
83. Below the acromion process a depression is 83.
found called as glenoid cavity. From the
above statement identify the bone which is

been talked about
(1)
(1) Clavicle
(2) Scapula (2)
(3) Humerus (3)

(4) Rib (4)
22/27
84. Match the contents of col umnI and 84.
-I
-II

columnII with appropriate matching

I
II
ColumnI ColumnII (i) (a)
(i) First heart sound (a) First month of
pregnancy (ii) (b)
(ii) Separation of (b) Sixth month of
eye-lids pregnancy
(iii) (c)
(iii) Formation of (c) Second month of

eye-lashes pregnancy
(iv) (d)
(iv) First movement (d) Fifth month of
of foetus pregnancy (1) (i)a, (ii)b, (iii)b, (iv)d
(1) (i)a, (ii)b, (iii)b, (iv)d
(2) (i)a, (ii)b, (iii)c, (iv)d
(2) (i)a, (ii)b, (iii)c, (iv)d
(3) (i)b, (ii)a, (iii)c, (iv)d
(3) (i)b, (ii)a, (iii)c, (iv)d
(4) (i)c, (ii)d, (iii)a, (iv)b (4) (i)c, (ii)d, (iii)a, (iv)b
85. Which of the following structures is not 85.

concerned with male reproductive system of
:-
cockroach
(1) (2)
(1) Caudal style (2) Colleterial gland
(3) Phallic gland (4) Seminal vesicle (3) (4)
86. Four metabolic processes are listed 86.

a. Storage of vitamin-A a.
-A
b. Regulation of fat metabolism b.

c. Synthesis of digestive enzymes c.
d. Synthesis of plasma proteins d.
Which of these are functions of liver
(1) a, b and c only (1) a, b
c
(2) a, b and d only (2) a, b
d
(3) b, c and d only (3) b, c
d
(4) a, b, c and d (4) a, b, c
d
23/27
87. A process that starts with activity of most 87.
abundant enzyme in the world and results in
release of CO2 is :- CO2
:-
(1) Cellular respiration (1)

(2) Photosynthesis (2)
(3) Alcoholic fermentation (3)

(4) Photorespiration (4)
88. A phenomenon that prevents pollination by 88.
pollen grains of same flower but not by that of
another flower of same plant is :-

:-
(1) Monoeciousness
(1)
(2) Xenogamy
(2)
(3) Cleistogamy (3)
(4) Autogamy (4)
89. Match the following - 89.
-
Column-I Column-II -I
-II
(1) Simple cuboidal (i) Eustachain tube (1) (i)
epithelium
(2) Simple columnar (ii) Terminal (2) (ii)
epithelium bronchioles
(3) Simple squamous (iii) Thyroid vesicle
(3) (iii)
epithelium
(4) Ciliated (iv) Gastric gland
columnar (4)
(iv)
epithelium
(1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i) (1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i) (2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) (3) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i) (4) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
90. How many of the following are copper 90.
IUD's
releasing IUD's.
LNG-20, CuT, Cu7, Progestasert, LNG-20, CuT, Cu7, Progestasert,
Multiload-375 Multiload-375
(1) 2 (2) 1 (1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
24/27
91. Cancerous tumours can be detected by the 91.
following techniques, except:-
(1) Radiography (1)
(2) Computed tomography (2)
(3) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (3)
(MRI)
(4) EEG (4) EEG
92. Which ancestor of man firstly hunted with 92.
stone weapons but essentially ate fruit :-
(1) Ramapithecus (1)
(2) Dryopithecus (2)
(3) Homo Habilis (3)
(4) Australopithecus (4)
93. Some of the contraceptive methods are given in 93.
table according to their types. Select correct
option.
Hormonal Natural Mechanical
Method Method Method
(1) Multiload 375 Condom Mala-D
(1) Multiload 375 Condom Mala-D
(2) Gossypol B.B.T. Mala-D
(2) Gossypol B.B.T. Mala-D
(3) IUCD B.B.T. CuT
(3) IUCD B.B.T. CuT
(4) B.B.T. IUCD
(4) Saheli B.B.T. IUCD
94. Fill in the blanks in the different columns of 94.

the table given below:-
Casual

Disease
organism Medium of
and part it transfer

inputs
(i) A
Droplets from
Common
(i) A sneezing of
cold
infected persons

Trichophyton Using towels of (ii) B

(ii) B skin, nails infected
and scalp individuals

Droplets/aerosols
released by an (iii) C
(iii) Pneumonia C
infected person,

sharing utensils
Wuchereria

(iv) Filariasis Lymphatic D (iv) D
vessels
25/27
In which one of the following options all the
A, B, C D
blanks A, B, C and D are correctly filled
(1) A Rhinovirus. Nose and respiratory (1) A
passage not lungs
B Ringworm
B
C Haemophillus influenzae, alveoli of
lungs C

D Contaminated food and water D
(2) A Coryza virus. Alveoli of lungs (2) A
B Ringworm B
C Streptococcus pneumoniae. Nose and
respiratory passage C

D Culex mosquito D
(3) A Rhinovirus. Nose and respiratory (3) A
passage not lungs
B Ascariasis B
C Haemophilus influenzae, alveoli of
lungs C

D Culex mosquito D
(4) A Rhinovirus, Nose and respiratory (4) A
passage not lungs
B Ringworm
B
C Haemophilus influenzae, alveoli of
lungs C

D Culex mosquito D
95. Take a glance of a part of the life cycle of
95.
Plasmodium given below as events A, B, C and A, B, C
D
D along with their description
Events Description

Parasites reproduce
asexually in the red
A. RBC blood cells, bursting A. RBC
the red blood cells
and causing cycles
RBC
of fever RBC
Sexual stages
Male (gametocytes) develop Male
B. B.
in intestine of mosquito
Female Female
Fertilization and
development take place
(GIT)
C. in intestine/GIT of C.
mosquito
Mature infective stages
(sporozoites) escape from
the intestine and migrate
to the mosquito salivary D.
D.
glands
26/27
How many of the above events are correctly
described? (1)
(1) One
(2)
(2) Two
(3) Three (3)
(4) Four (4)
Comprehension for (Q.No.96 & Q.No.97) (
96
97)
A simple tissue is made of cells similar in
structure and function, and the tissues made of

many different types of cells ar called complex
tissues. Simple tissues are parenchyma,
collenchyma and sclerenchyma and the
complex tissues are exemplified by xylem and

phloem.
96. The most common simple tissue present in all 96.
plants is :- :-
(1) Paranchyma (2) Collenchyma (1) (2)
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Fibres (3) (4)
97. Which tissue is often contain chloroplast but 97.
this tissue is not present in monocots :-
:-
(1) Parenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma (1) (2)
(3) Collenchyma (4) Phloem parenchyma (3) (4)
Comprehension for (Q.No.98 to Q.No.100) (
98
100)
All living organisms are made of cells. Some
are unicellular and others are multicellular. But

few structures are realy exceptions in biology.
Some organisms have cell wall but some donot.
In genetic engineering virus are very
important.
98. Gene transfer by the help of virus is called :- 98.
:-
(1) Transformation (2) Transduction (1) (2)
(3) Conjugation (4) Both 1 & 2 (3) (4) 1 2
99. Which of the following are exception of cell 99.
theory:- :-
(1) Bacteria (2) Amoeba (1) (2)
(3) Rickettsia (4) Virus (3) (4)
100. Which of the following organisms have cell 100.
membrane but never have cell wall :-
:-
(1) Cyanobacteria (1)
(2) Virus (2)
(3) Mycoplasma (3)
(4) Eubacteria (4)
27/27
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 2 4 1 3 3 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 2 1 1 4 2 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 1 1 1 2 1 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 4 3 4 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 1 3 2 3
Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 1 2 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 4 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 4 3

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ASAT

(ALLEN Scholarship Cum Admission Test)

1. This booklet is your Question Paper. DO NOT break seal of 1.

20 (1), (2), (3)

Direction (Q.3 to Q.5) : Below in Column-I

Which is the number of dots on the face

When 6 is at the bottom, what number will be 6

(iv) R, next to U, gets south facing flat and T (iv) R

(3) Thursday (4) Tuesday (3) (4)

20 (1), (2), (3)

(Equilibrium axis at all times) until the string

makes an angle with the vertical. Total work

done by the force F is

5mr 2 3mr 2 5mr 2 3mr 2

3mr 2 7mr 2 3mr 2 7mr 2

23. From a point if we move in a direction 23.

(3) i j (4) i j (3) i j (4) i j

29. Three large plates are arranged as shown. How 29.

32. A uniform magnetic field B is directed out of 32.

(1) Clock wise (2) Does not appear (1) (2)

35. The rms value of the current wave 35.

36. A block of mass m is moving at a speed V 36. m

38. If this loop is kept in a magnetic field of 38.

This condition allows the surface temperature

where q is the energy generated per unit time

At r = r0 , T(r0) = TS. Therefore , T(r0) = TS

The rate of heat convected to the surrounding TS Tf

convecti on = h(2r 0 )(T S T f ) where h is a

(3) [ML0 T2 1 ] (3) [ML0 T2 1 ]

(4) [ML4 T2 1 ] (4) [ML4 T2 1 ]

qr02 2qr0 qr02 2qr0

20 (1), (2), (3)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

42. Which of the following will convert 42.

(1) H2O/H+ (1) H2O/H+

43. CH2 =CHCH=CHCH3 3

Which one of the following cannot be obtained

Reaction follow this path

Reaction follow this path

(III) Intermediate of the reaction is

(I) (II) (I) (II)

(4) None (4)

48. Which of the following dissolve(s) in 48.

What is the [X] :-

50. Which of the following molecule is correctly 50.

52. In which of the following process, maximum 52.

57. For which value of x, the dipole moment of 57. x

(3) 2 (4) None of these (3) 2 (4)

59. Which can't show positive iodoform test - 59.

20 (1), (2), (3)

(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2

(1) (, 0] (2) [0, ) (1) (, 0] (2) [0, )

(sin x) n (cos x) n (sin x) n (cos x) n

(1) 1 (2) 1 (1) 1 (2) 1

sin1 cos1 sin1 cos1

sin 2 1 cos2 1 sin 2 1 cos2 1

68. If all roots of the equation, 68.

(3) c 1 (4) none of these (3) c 1 (4)

69. Let , , be three numbers such that 69. , ,

+ + = 2 then the value of is

(3) 2 (4) 4 (3) 2 (4) 4

72. Let function f : R R be defined by 72. f : R R, x R

(1) one-to-one and onto (1)

(2) one-to-one not onto (2)