You are on page 1of 32

Form Number : Paper Code : 1001CM303115048

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME


(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE


TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIIMS
TEST DATE : 04 - 05 - 2016
TEST SYLLABUS : 11th SYLLABUS

Important Instructions /
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the
examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.


2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 200 Questions. The Max. Marks are 200.

3
200
200
3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each
incorrect answer.

1

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with
Paper code and Your Form No.

Correction Paper code Form No.
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in mail

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016


Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, SANKALP, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-5156100 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. A particle starts from rest and moves along a 1.
straight line with uniform acceleration. The ratio
1:3
of time taken to cover successive distances in the
ratio 1 : 3 is :- (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 3 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 3
2. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water 2.
5 km/h
crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest 1 km
15 min
possible path in 15 min. The velocity of river water
(km/h
)-
in km/h is :-
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 41
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4)
41
3. A uniform ring of mass M and radius R rotates 3. y-
about y-axis about y-axis in plane of ring so that
P
V0
point P has constant speed V0. The kinetic energy
of the ring is :-
y
y

R
R O P
O P

3 1
3 2 1 2 (1) MV02 (2) MV02
(1) MV0 (2) MV0 4 2
4 2

3 3
(3) MV02 (4) MV02 (3) MV02 (4) MV02
16 16
4. The increase in length of a wire on stretching is 4. 0.05%


0.05%. If poisson's ratio is 0.5, then the percentage
0.5
decrease in diameter of wire is :-
(1) 0.1 % (2) 0.05% (1) 0.1 % (2) 0.05%
(3) 0.025% (4) 0.2 % (3) 0.025% (4) 0.2 %
5. For a particle moving along x-axis, which of the 5. x-
following is incorrect ?
(1) Velocity-time graph can be drawn from speed- (1)
time graph
(2) Speed-time graph can be drawn from velocity- (2)
time graph
(3) Acceleration-time graph can be drawn from (3)
velocity-time graph
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2)
(3)

1001CM303115048 1/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
6. A very broad elevator is going vertically up with 6.
2m/s2
a constant acceleration of 2m/s2. At the instant
4 m/s
when its velocity is 4 m/s, a ball is projected from 4 m/s

the floor of the lift with a speed of 4 m/s relative 30
to the floor at an elevation of 30. The time of flight
of the ball will be :- (1) 1/2 s (2) 1/3 s
(1) 1/2 s (2) 1/3 s
(3) 1/4 s (4) 1 s (3) 1/4 s (4) 1 s
7. Two masses m1 and m2 start moving towards each 7.
m1
m2
other due to mutual attraction with m1 > m2. Then m1 > m2

the centre of mass of the system :-
(1) Moves towards m1 (1) m1
(2) Moves towards m2
(2) m2
(3) Remains at rest
(4) Moves perpendicular to the line joining the (3)
masses (4)
8. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken through a 8.
PVa =
process PVa = const. The value of 'a' for which
specific heat capacity of the gas is zero is :- a

(1) 5/3 (2) 7/5 (3) 2/3 (4) 4/3 (1) 5/3 (2) 7/5 (3) 2/3 (4) 4/3
9. A particle moves along x-axis according to the 9. x-x = t + t 1
3

equation x = t3 + t 1. The average acceleration t = 2s


t = 5s
of the particle from t = 2s to t = 5s is :-
:-
(1) 42 m/s2 (2) 21 m/s2 (1) 42 m/s2 (2) 21 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2 (4) 40 m/s2 (3) 20 m/s2 (4) 40 m/s2
10. A motorcycle is going on an overbridge of radius 10. R
R. The driver maintains a constant speed. As the
motorcycle is ascending on the overbridge, the
normal force on it :-
(1) (2)
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains same (4) Fluctuates erratically (3) (4)
11. An object is taken to a depth H from the surface 11.
H
of the earth. The gravitational potential energy of
the object becomes 1.25 of its value on the surface. 1.25
H

The value of H is :
(R =
)
(R = radius of earth)
(1) R 2 (2) R/2
(1) R 2 (2) R/2

(3) R(1 1 2) (4) R( 2 1) (3) R(1 1 2) (4) R( 2 1)

12. The temperature of a body is increased from 127C 12.


127C 227C
to 227C. The radiation emitted by it increases by
a factor of :-
625 127
625 127 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 256 27
256 27
25 125 25 125
(3) (4) (3) (4)
16 64 16 64

2/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
13. A particle moving on a straight line covers one 13.
third of total distance with speed v and then v
2m/s
reduces its speed by 2 m/s to cover the remaining 4.5 m/s
v
distance. If the average speed for the whole
journey is 4.5 m/s, then the value of v is :- (1) 6 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(1) 6 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(3) 8 m/s (4) 10 m/s (3) 8 m/s (4) 10 m/s
14. A particle is projected horizontally from the top 14.
u
of a tower with speed u. If v be its velocity at any v

instant, then the normal acceleration of the particle
at that instant is :-
2 2 u 2g v2g vg ug
ug vg vg ug (1) 2 (2) 2 (3) (4)
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) (4) v u u v
v u u v
15. A straight tunnel is drilled from one point on earth 15.
R
to another point along a chord. If length of tunnel
is R, the minimum initial kinetic energy required
to reach the other point is : (R =
)
(R = radius of earth) M =
m =
M = mass of earth, m = mass of particle
GMm GMm
GMm GMm (1) (2)
(1) (2) R 2R
R 2R
GMm GMm
(3) (4) Zero (3) (4) Zero
R 2 R 2

CP CP
16. If 1.5 ; the gas may be :- 16. 1.5 ;
CV CV
(1) Monoatomic (1)
(2) Diatomic (2)
(3) A mixture of diatomic and monoatomic (3)
(4) a mixture of diatomic and triatomic (4)
17. A body dropped from the top of a tower clears 17.
7/16 of total height of tower in its last second of 7/16
flight. The time taken by the body to reach the
ground is :-
(1) 2.5 s (2) 3 s (3) 1.5 s (4) 4 s
(1) 2.5 s (2) 3 s (3) 1.5 s (4) 4 s
18. Work done by force of static friction :- 18.
(1) may be positive (2) may be negative (1) (2)
(3) may be zero (4) all of the above (3) (4)
19. A particle executes SHM along x-axis with 19. x-A T
amplitude A and time period T about x = 0. The
x = 0
time taken by the particle to move from x = A x = A x = A / 2
to x = A / 2 is :-
5T 3T 5T 3T
(1) (2) (1) (2)
12 8 12 8
3T T 3T T
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 3 2 3
1001CM303115048 3/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
20. On the basis of kinetic theory of gases, mean 20.
kinetic energy of one mole per degree of freedom
is :-
(1) 1/2 KT (2) 1/2 RT (1) 1/2 KT (2) 1/2 RT
(3) 3/2 KT (4) 3/2 RT (3) 3/2 KT (4) 3/2 RT
21. A particle is projected at an angle of 53 with the 21.
53
100 m/s
horizontal with a speed of 100 m/s. The time after
which it makes an angle of 45 with the horizontal 45
is :- (1) 2s (2) 10 s
(1) 2s (2) 10 s
(3) 14 s (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) 14 s (4) (1)
(3)
22. The total work done on a particle is equal to the 22.
change in its kinetic energy :-
(1) always (1)
(2) only if the forces acting on the body are (2)
conservative
(3) only in inertial frame (3)
(4) only if no external force is acting (4)
23. The motion represented by x = 8 sin3t 6sint 23. x = 8 sin3t 6sint
is :- :-
(1) SHM (1)
(2) Oscillatory but not SHM (2)
(3) Periodic but not oscillatory (3)
(4) Uniform circular (4)
24. The second overtone of an open organ pipe is 24.
equal to second harmonic of a closed organ pipe.
Ratio of their lengths is :-
(1) 3/2 (2) 2/3 (1) 3/2 (2) 2/3
(3) 7/4 (4) Undefined (3) 7/4 (4)
25. A particle moves along the parabola y = x2 such 25. y = x2
that the x-component of velocity is always x-
2m/s
2m/s. The acceleration of the particle is :-
(1) (4 j) m / s2 (2) (2 j) m / s2 (1) (4 j) m / s2 (2) (2 j) m / s2
m / s2
(3) (8i) (4) 8j m / s2 m / s2
(3) (8i) (4) 8j m / s2
26. A person pulls a bucket of water from a well of 26.
h
depth h. If mass of uniform rope is m and that of
m
bucket full of water is M, then work done by the
M
person is :-
(1) (M + m) gh/2 (2) (M + m/2)gh (1) (M + m) gh/2 (2) (M + m/2)gh
(3) (M + m)gh (4) (M/2 + m)gh (3) (M + m)gh (4) (M/2 + m)gh
27. In SHM, the average velocity of particle over half 27.
time-period is :-
(1) Positive (2) Negative (1) (2)
(3) Zero (4) All of these (3) (4)
Key

Filling

4/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
28. 100 g of ice at 0C is mixed with 10g of steam 28. 0C 100 g
100C 10 g
at 100C. Mixture contains :-
(1) 20 g ice and 90 g water at 0C (1) 0C 20 g
90 g
(2) Only water at 0C (2) 0C
(3) 10 g ice and 100 g water at 0C (3) 0C 10 g
100 g
(4) 110 g water at 20C (4) 20C 110 g
29. On the trajectory of a ground to ground projectile, 29.
the radius of curvature is maximum at :-
(1) maximum height (2) point of strike (1) (2)
(3) point of projection (4) both (2) and (3) (3) (4) (2)
(3)
30. A small cone filled with water is revolved in a 30.
4m
vertical circle of radius 4m and the water does not
fall down. The maximum period of revolution is:-
(1) 4 s (2) 2 s (1) 4 s (2) 2 s
(3) 6 s (4) 1 s (3) 6 s (4) 1 s
31. If the lift is accelerated upwards :- 31.

k k

m m

(1) Time period of oscillation and mean position (1)


remain unchanged
(2) Time period of oscillation changes but mean (2)
position remains unchanged
(3) Time period of oscillation does not change but (3)
mean position shits downward
(4) Time period of oscillation does not change but (4)
mean position shifts upward
32. A transverse progressive wave in differential form 32.
is given by :-
1 2 y 1 2 y
2
1 y 1 y 2 (1)
(1) 2 t 2 k 2 2 x 2
2 t 2 k 2 2 x 2
1 2y 1 2 y
1 2y 1 2 y (2)
(2) 2 2 2 2 2 k 2 t 2 2 2 x 2
k t x
2y 2
2 y
2y 2
2 y (3) v
(3) v t 2 2 x2
t 2 2 x2
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1)
(3)
33. In a ground to ground projectile with curved 33.
trajectory, velocity is parallel to acceleration :-
(1) Once (2) Twice (1) (2)
(3) Thrice (4) Never (3) (4)

1001CM303115048 5/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
34. Power delivered to a body varies with time as 34.
P = 3t2. The change in kinetic energy of the body P = 3t2
t = 2s t = 4s
in an interval from t = 2s to t = 4s is :-
(1) 24 J (2) 36 J (1) 24 J (2) 36 J
(3) 12 J (4) 56 J (3) 12 J (4) 56 J
35. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4C. 35. 4C
It will :- (1)
(1) Overflow if cooled
(2)
(2) Overflow if heated
(3)
(3) Not overflow if heated or cooled
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1)
(2)
36. A gas undergoes a process in which pressure and 36.
volume are related as PnV = const. Bulk modulus PnV =
of gas for the process is :-
(1) nP (2) P/n (1) nP (2) P/n
(3) P 1/n
(4) Pn (3) P1/n (4) Pn
37. Which of the following is most accurate ? 37.
(1) 0.06 m (2) 60 103 m (1) 0.06 m (2) 60 103 m
(3) 6 102 m (4) 600 104 m (3) 6 102 m (4) 600 104 m
38. A door can move about a vertical axis along AB 38.
AB
as shown. There are two hinges at A and B. The A
B B

net force on door by the hinge at B is best
represented by :-

A A

S Q S R Q
R
P P
B B

(1) P (2) Q (1) P (2) Q


(3) R (4) S (3) R (4) S
39. A wire is stretched slowly and then released 39.
suddenly.
(1) It will cool down (1)
(2) Its temperature will increase (2)
(3) Its temperature will remain unchanged (3)
(4) Information insufficient (4)
40. An observer records a drop of 10% in frequency 40.
10%
of horn of a stationary car as he crosses it. If the
speed of sound is 330 m/s the speed of observer
330 m/s
is :-
(1) 20 m/s (2) 18 m/s (1) 20 m/s (2) 18 m/s
(3) 16.5 m/s (4) 17.4 m/s (3) 16.5 m/s (4) 17.4 m/s

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

6/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
41. Systematic IUPAC name of bond line structure 41.
IUPAC
given below :-
:-

HO HO

(1) 3,4-Dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol (1) 3,4-


-2-
-4-
(2) 1,2-Dimethyl-2-butenol (2) 1,2-
-2-
(3) 3-Methylpent-3-en-2-ol (3) 3-
-3-
-2-
(4) 2,3-Dimethyl-1,3-pentenol (4) 2,3-
-1,3-

2 Hg(OAc) / H O
2 2 Hg(OAc) / H O
2
42. CH3C CH
(ii)NaBH
(A), 42. CH3C CH
(ii)NaBH
(A),
4 4

3 (i) BH / THF 3 (i) BH / THF


CH3 C CH
(ii)H2O2 / OH
(B) CH3 C CH
(ii)H2O2 / OH
(B)

relation between A and B :- A B


:-
(1) Functional isomers (1)
(2) Metamers (2)
(3) Position isomers (3)
(4) Homomers (4)
43. In how many species the CA has two lone 43.
pairs ?
?
XeF 4, XeF 5, F 2SeO2, XeF 3, XeOF 4, ClOF 4 , XeF 4, XeF 5, F 2SeO2, XeF 3, XeOF 4, ClOF 4 ,
ICl4, SCl2, SOF4 ICl4, SCl2, SOF4
(1) 6 (2) 5 (1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 4 (3) 7 (4) 4
44. If the uncertainity in velocity and position is same 44.
then the uncertainity in momentum will be :-
?

hm h hm h
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 4 4 4

h 1 h h 1 h
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 m m 4 4 m m 4

45. The compound which reacts with HBr obeying 45.


HBr
Markownikov's Rule is :-
:-

CH3 H CH3 H
(1) CH2=CH2 (2) C=C (1) CH2=CH2 (2) C=C
H CH3 H CH3

CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 H CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 H
(3) C=C (4) C=C (3) C=C (4) C=C
H H CH 3 H H H CH 3 H

Take it Easy and Make it Easy


1001CM303115048 7/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
46. Which is not pair of valid resonating structure ? 46.
?
+ +

(1) (1)
O O+ O O+

(2) (2)

+ +

+ +
(3) N N (3) N N
H H H H H H H H

(4) NH +
NH (4) NH +
NH

47. Which of the following polarising power order is 47.


:-
not correct :-
(1) Ca+2 < Pb+2 (2) Na+ < Cu+
(1) Ca+2 < Pb+2 (2) Na+ < Cu+
(3) Sn+2 < Sn+4 (4) Zn+2 > Cd+2 (3) Sn+2 < Sn+4 (4) Zn+2 > Cd+2
48. The total number of orbitals in first shell 48.
containing g-subshell will be ? g-
?
(1) 9 (2) 16 (1) 9 (2) 16
(3) 25 (4) 36 (3) 25 (4) 36

CH2OH CH2OH
+ +
A HBr B , (B)
H
49. A HBr B , what is product 49. H

(B):- :-
CH3 CH2Br CH3 CH2Br
Br Br
(1) (2) (1) (2)

Br Br Br Br
(3) (4) Br (3) (4) Br

50. Which of the following does not show tautomerism:- 50.


:-

O O
O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
CH3 CH3

O O
(3) CH 3 (4) All of these (3) CH 3 (4)
CH 3 CH 3

8/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
51. Which of the following have maximum and 51. MnO, MnF2 , MnO2 ,
Mn2 O7
minimum ionic character out of MnO, MnF 2 ,
?
MnO2, Mn2O7 ? (1) MnO, Mn2O7
(1) MnO, Mn2O7 respectively (2) MnO2, Mn2O7
(2) MnO2, Mn2O7 respectively
(3) MnO2, MnO
(3) MnO2, MnO respectively
(4) Mn2O7, MnO respectively (4) Mn2O7, MnO
52.
+
Potential energy of electron present in He is :- 52. He+
:-
e2 3e 2 e2 3e 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 0 r 4 0 r 2 0 r 4 0 r

2e 2 e 2 2e 2 e 2
(3) 4 r (4) 4 r 2 (3) (4)
0 0
4 0 r 4 0 r 2
53. What will be the structure of C8H12 :- 53. C8H12
:-
CH3 CH3
(i) O3 (i) O3
C8H12 OHC C8H12 OHC
(ii) Zn/H2O O (ii) Zn/H2O O
CH3 CH3

(1) (2) (1) (2)


H 3C CH3 H 3C CH3
CH3 CH3
H3C H3C
CH3 CH3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
54. A cyclic skeleton of silicon and oxygen can be 54.
constructed by the silicate ion with composition :-
:-
(1) Si2O74 (2) Si2O52 (1) Si2O74 (2) Si2O52
(3) SiO32
(4) SiO44 (3) SiO32 (4) SiO44
55. Calculate the no. of moles of Fe(OH)3 that can be 55.
Fe2S3 1
H2O
produced by allowing 1 mol of Fe2S3, 2 mol of 2
O2 3
Fe(OH)3
H2 O and 3 mol of O 2 to react according to
:-
following reaction :- 2Fe2S3(s) + 6H2O() + 3O2(g) 4Fe(OH)3(s) + 6S(s)
2Fe2S3(s) + 6H2O() + 3O2(g) 4Fe(OH)3(s) + 6S(s)
(1) 4 (2) 1.33
(1) 4 (2) 1.33
(3) 2 (4) 0.66 (3) 2 (4) 0.66

PV PV
56. The quantity represents the 56.
k BT k BT

(kB : Boltzmann constant) :- (kB : Boltzmann constant) :-


(1) number of particles of the gas (1)
(2) mass of the gas (2)
(3) number of moles of the gas (3)
(4) translation energy of the gas (4)

1001CM303115048 9/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
57. Which of the following compound give three different 57.
types of carbonyl compounds, on ozonolysis reaction?
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
CH 3 C CH 3 C
(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
C CH 3 C CH 3

(3) (4) (3) (4)

C CH 3 C CH 3
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
58. Total number of diprotic acid among the following 58.
is/are H3PO2, H2SO4, H3PO3, H2CO3, H2S2O7, H3BO3 :-
H3PO2, H2SO4, H3PO3, H2CO3, H2S2O7, H3BO3 :-
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6
59. If both H & S are negative, the reaction will 59. H S
be spontaneous :- :-
(1) At high temp. (2) At low temp. (1) (2)
(3) At all temp. (4) None of these (3) (4)

C p,m C
60. For an ideal gas . The molecular mass 60. p,m
C v,m C v,m

of the gas is M, its specific heat capacity at M



constant volume is :-
:-

R M R M
(1) (2) (1) (2)
M( 1) R( 1) M( 1) R( 1)

RM R RM R
(3) (4) (3) (4)
1 M( 1) 1 M( 1)
61. Which of the following addition reaction proceeds 61.
through formation of cycle intermediate/transition
state? (1) Br2
(1) Addition of Br2 (2) KMnO4/OH
(2) Hydroxylation by dil. KMnO4/OH
(3)
(3) Hydroboration oxidation reaction
(4) All of these (4)
62. MF + XeF4 A (M+ = Alkali metal cation). 62. MF + XeF4 A (M+ =
).
The state of hybridisation of the central atom in 'A'
'A' and shape of the species are :- :-
(1) sp3d, TBP (1) sp3d, TBP
(2) sp3d2 (Distorted octahedral) (2) sp3d2 (
(3) sp3d3, pentagonal planer (3) sp3d3,
(4) No compound formed at all (4)

10/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
63. The enthalpy of vapourisation of liquid water in 63.
KJ mol1
KJ mol1 will be :-
:-
1 1
H2(g) + O (g) H2O(); H = 285 KJ H2(g) + O (g) H2O(); H = 285 KJ
2 2 2 2

1 1
H2(g) + O (g) H2O(g); H = 242 KJ H2(g) + O (g) H2O(g); H = 242 KJ
2 2 2 2
(1) 43 (2) 43 (1) 43 (2) 43
(3) 527 (4) 527 (3) 527 (4) 527
64. Solubility of AgCl in 0.2M NaCl is x and that in 64. AgCl 0.2M NaCl x
0.1 M AgNO3 is y then which of the following 0.1 M AgNO 3 y
is correct ?
:-
(1) x = y (1) x = y
(2) x > y (2) x > y
(3) x < y (3) x < y
(4) we can not predict (4)
65. Arrange the following carbanions in correct order 65.
of stability :-
:-

CH2 CH2

A B C D A B C D
(1) C > D > B > A (1) C>D > B>A
(2) D > C > A > B (2) D>C > A>B
(3) C > D > A > B (3) C>D > A>B
(4) D > C > B > A (4) D>C > B>A
66. Which of following reaction is/are incorrect :- 66.
:-
(1) BCl3 + H2O H3BO3 + HCl (1) BCl3 + H2O H3BO3 + HCl
(2) B2H6 + H2O H3BO3 + H2 (2) B2H6 + H2O H3BO3 + H2
(3) BN + H2O B2O3 + NH3 (3) BN + H2O B2O3 + NH3
(4) Na2B4O7 + H2SO4 + H2O H3BO3 + Na2SO4 (4) Na2B4O7 + H2SO4 + H2O H3BO3 + Na2SO4
67. Calculate the no. of moles of KMnO4 required 67. 1
FeC2O4
for the oxidation of 1 mol of FeC2O4 in acidic KMnO4
medium ?
5 5
(1) 1 (2) (1) 1 (2)
3 3
3 1 3 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
68. To what volume of 10 litre of 0.5 M CH3COOH 68. 0.5 M CH3COOH (Ka = 1.8 105) 10 L
5
(Ka = 1.8 10 ) be diluted in order to double the
hydroxide ion concentration :-
:-
(1) 20 L (2) 30 L (1) 20 L (2) 30 L
(3) 40 L (4) None of these (3) 40 L (4) None of these

1001CM303115048 11/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016

O O
a a
69. O The correct order of Bond length for 69. O
(a,b,c)
b c b c
OH OH
bonds (a,b,c) is :- :-
(1) a > b > c (2) a > c > b (1) a > b > c (2) a > c > b
(3) b > a > c (4) b > c > a (3) b > a > c (4) b > c > a
70. Incorrect match is : 70.
(1) Permutit Hydrated silicates of Na and Al (1)
Na
Al
(2) Calgon Sodium Hexameta phosphate (2)

(3) BeH2.MgH2 Covalent polymeric hydride (3) BeH2.MgH2
(4) Hydrolith electron deficient hydride (4)

71. Conjugate base of H2PO4 is :- 71. H2PO4

:-
(1) H3PO4 (2) H2PO4 (1) H3PO4 (2) H2PO4
(3) HPO42 (4) PO43 (3) HPO42 (4) PO43
72. The vander wall's equation for 0.5 mol gas is ? 72. 0.5

a v b 2RT a v b 2RT
(1) p 2 2 (1) p 2 2
4v 2 4v 2

a a
(2) p 2 2v b RT (2) p 2 2v b RT
4v 4v

a a
(3) p 2 2v 4b RT (3) p 2 2v 4b RT
4v 4v

a 2RT a 2RT
(4) p 2 (4) p 2
4v 2 v b 4v 2 v b
73. Which is not a pair of structural isomers ? 73.
?
Br OCH3 Cl OCH3 Br OCH3 Cl OCH3
(1) (1)
HO Cl BrO H HO Cl BrO H

(2) (2)

F Br Cl I F Br Cl I
(3) (3)
Cl I Br F Cl I Br F

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3


(4) ClCH2COH ClCOCH 3 (4) ClCH2COH ClCOCH 3
CH2CH3 CH2CH3 CH2CH3 CH2CH3
74. Least mobile ion is : 74.
(1) [Be(H2O)n]+2 (2) [Na(H2O)n]+ (1) [Be(H2O)n]+2 (2) [Na(H2O)n]+
(3) [Mg(H2O)n]+2 (4) [Li(H2O)n]+ (3) [Mg(H2O)n]+2 (4) [Li(H2O)n]+

12/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
75. The ratio of diffusion rate of oxygen to hydrogen 75.
is :- :-
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1
76. If a is the edge length of the unit cell of an atomic 76.
ccp
crystal having ccp arrangement. Then what will
a
be distance of closest approach between two
atoms in the crystal ?
a 2 a 2
a 2 a 2 (1) 2a (2) (3) (4)
(1) 2a (2) (3) (4) 2 a 2
2 a 2

CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3

77. (I) Br (II) 77. (I) Br (II)


Br Br
CH3 CH3

CH3 CH3

(III) (III)
Br Br
Ease of dehydrobromination :-
:-
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I (3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I
78. In which of the following reaction, product are not 78.
?
correctly matched ?
(1) HNO3 + P4O10(s) N2O5
(aq.)
(1) HNO3 + P4O10(s) N2O5
(aq.)
(2) P4(s) + SO2Cl2 PCl3
(2) P4(s) + SO2Cl2 PCl3
(3) Ca3P2 + HCl(aq.) PH3
(3) Ca3P2 + HCl(aq.) PH3
(4) NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq.) (4) NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(aq.)

N2

N2
79. The compressibility factor (Z) for a real gas at high 79.
(Z)
pressure is :-
:-

Pb Pb
(1) 1 (2) 1 + (1) 1 (2) 1 +
RT RT

Pb RT Pb RT
(3) 1 (4) 1 + (3) 1 (4) 1 +
RT Pb RT Pb
80. If rate of formation of SO 3 in reaction 80.
2SO 2 + O 2 2SO 3 SO 3
1
2SO2 + O2 2SO3 is 100 g min then rate of
100 g min1
O2
disappearance of O2 will be?
?
1 1
(1) 50 g min1 (2) 40 g min1 (1) 50 g min (2) 40 g min
(3) 200 g min1 (4) 20 g min1 (3) 200 g min1 (4) 20 g min1


1001CM303115048 13/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
81. Both the words in a biological name when 81.
handwritten are underlined, or printed in italics
to indicate :-
:-
(1) They are endangered (1)
(2) They are living (2)
(3) Their Latin origin (3)
(4) Now they are extinct (4)
82. Jute, flax and hemp are useful for human because 82.
of their :- (1)
(1) Xylem fibres
(2)
(2) Cortical fibres
(3)
(3) Wood fibres
(4) Phloem fibres (4)
83. Out of following how many structures are the parts 83.
of mammalian bone ?
?
Periosteum, Haversian canal, Volkmann's canal,
Chondrioblast, endosteum, Chondrin,
Bone marrow cavity.
(1) Four (2) Five (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Two (3) (4)
84. Auxin, Gibberellin, Cytokinin, Ethylene, Abscisic 84.
acid.
How many of the above phytohormones are
derived from amino acid?
(1) Two (2) Three (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One (3) Four (4) One
85. It is generally agreed that prokaryotes constitued 85.
the first life on earth. It is also generally accepted
that the early eukaryotes were :-
(1) Photosynthetic (2) Heterotrophs (1) (2)
(3) Multicellular (4) Unicellular (3) (4)

86. (b) 86. (b)

(a) (a)

(c) (c)
A sclereid A sclereid

Identify the (a), (b) and (c) in given figure. (a), (b) (c)
(1) (a)-Thick wall, (b)-Pits, (c)-Inter cellular space (1) (a)-
, (b)-, (c)-
(2) (a)-Pits, b-Thick wall, (c)-Inter cellular space (2) (a)-, b-, (c)-
(3) (a)-Lumen, (b)-Pits, (c)-Thick wall (3) (a)- , (b)- , (c)-
(4) (a)-Protoplasm, (b)-Vacuole (c)-Cell wall (4) (a)- , (b)- (c)-


14/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
87. In Periplaneta which of the following help nourish 87.

the sperms ?
(1) Ejaculatory duct (2) Vasa deferentia (1) (2)
(3) Utriculi majores (4) Utriculi brevivores (3) (4)
88. For the purpose of increasement of expiratory capacity 88.
which muscles are responsible from following?
(A) Radial muscles of diaphragm (A)
(B) External intercostal muscles (B)
(C) Internal intercoastal muscles (C)
(D) Abdominal muscles. (D)
Option Option
(1) A and B (2) C and D (1) A and B (2) C and D
(3) A and D (4) All the above (3) A and D (4) All the above
89. Choose the incorrect match from following :- 89.
(1) Albugo - Phycomycetes (1)
-
(2) Agaricus - Ascomycetes (2) -
(3) Puff balls - Basidiomycetes (3)
-
(4) Alternaria - Deuteromycetes (4)
-
90. Roots come out of the ground and grow vertically 90.
upwards in some plants growing in swampy areas
are called :-
:-
(1) Hydathodes (2) Stomata (1) (2)
(3) Pneumatophores (4) Lenticels (3) (4)
91. In earthworm structure which is analogous to 91.
human kidney ?
(1) Setae (2) Clitellum (1) (2)
(3) Nephridia (4) Peristomium (3) (4)
92. "Enterokinase" is secreted by :- 92.
:-
(1) Intestinal mucosa (1)
(2) Gastric gland in stomach (2)
(3) Pancreas (3)
(4) Liver (4)
93. A feature common in gametophyte and 93.
sporophyte of mosses and ferns is-
(1) Independent existance (1)
(2) Photosynthetic nature (2)
(3) Presence of vascular tissue (3)
(4) Unbranched habit (4)

1001CM303115048 15/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
94. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? 94.
?
(i) Arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is (i)
called inflorescence.
(ii) Arrangement of veins and veinlets in the leaf (ii)
lamina is called vernation.
(iii) A bud is present in the axil of leaflets of (iii)
compound leaf.
(iv) The main axis terminates in a flower in (iv)
cymose inflorescence.
(1) i, iv (2) ii, iii (1) i, iv (2) ii, iii
(3) i, ii, iv (4) Only iii (3) i, ii, iv (4) iii
95. During gamete formation in animals in which stage 95.
of cell cycle sister chromatids are seperate :-
(1) Prophase I (2) Pachytene (1) I (2)
(3) Anaphase II (4) Anaphase I (3) II (4) I
96. Heart beat rate is accelerated by the following 96.
except :-
:-
(1) Exercise (2) Anger (1) (Exercise) (2)
(3) Hypoxia (4) At the time of sleep (3)
(Hypoxia) (4)
97. Match the column-I with column-II & select the 97. -I
-II
correct option :- :-

Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II

(A) Filaria worm (i) Wuchereria (A)


(i)
(B) Wall lizard (ii) Chelone (B)
(ii)
(C) Sea pen (iii) Hemidactylus (C) (iii)
(D) Turtle (iv) Pennatula (D) (iv)

(1) A i, B ii, C iii, D iv (1) A i, B ii, C iii, D iv


(2) A i, B iii, C iv, D ii (2) A i, B iii, C iv, D ii
(3) A iii, B ii, C i, D iv (3) A iii, B ii, C i, D iv
(4) A ii, B iii, C iv, D i (4) A ii, B iii, C iv, D i
98. Select the mismatched pair from the following :- 98.
:-
(1) Axile placentation Lemon (1)
(2) Zygomorphic flower Pea (2)
(3) Monoadelophous stamen Citrus (3)
(4) Fibrous mesocarp Coconut (4)
99. In animal 70S Ribosomes are present in :- 99.
70S
:-
(1) ER and Mitochondria (1) ER and Mitochondria
(2) Mitochondria and Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria and Chloroplast
(3) Nucleolus and ER (3) Nucleolus and ER
(4) Mitochondria (4) Mitochondria


16/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
100. Read the following statements with regards to 100.
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) :-
:-
(i) It inhibits the renin secretion. (i)
(ii) It also antagonizes the action of many (ii)
vasodilating agents.
(iii)It promotes the diuresis. (iii)
(iv)It increases the urinary excretion of sodium. (iv)
(v) It secretes by atrial muscle cells at the time (v)
of low B.P.
How many statements are correct?
Option
(1) Three (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) One (4) Four (3) (4)
101. Which one of the following sets of animal belongs 101.
to a single taxonomic group ?
(1) Silverfish, cuttlefish, dogfish, starfish (1)
(2) Earthworm, silkworm, pinworm (2)
(3) Butterfly, pigeon, bat (3)
(4) Chimpanzee, monkey, man (4)
102. Identify the position of gynoecium in the given 102.
A -D
diagrams A to D and select the flower in which
they are found :-
:-

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) A-Perigynous, Plum; B-Perigynous, Rose; (1) A-


; B-
;
C-Hypogynous, China rose; D-Epigynous, Guava C-
; D-
(2) A-Hypogynous, China rose; B-Perigynous, Plum; (2) A-
; B-
;
C-Perigynous, Guava; D-Epigynous, Rose C-
; D-
(3) A-Epigynous, Guava; B-Perigynous, Plum; C- (3) A-
; B-
;
Hypogynous, China rose; D-Perigynous, Rose C-
; D-
(4) A-Hypogynous, China rose; B-Perigynous, plum; (4) A-
; B-
;
C-Perigynous, Rose; D-Epigynous, Guava C-
; D-
103. Macromolecule in cell includes all except :- 103.
_________
(1) DNA (2) Nucleotide (1) DNA (2)
(3) RNA (4) Protein (3) RNA (4)
Time Management is Life Management
1001CM303115048 17/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
104. Identify the non-matching pair from following table? 104.

Option Name of Bones Catagory

(1) Maxilla and Skull bones (1)



temporal bone
(2) Vertebrae and Axial skeleton (2)
sternum
(3)

(3) Glenoid cavity Pelvic girdle

and pubis bone
(4) Humerus and Appendicular (4)
radius skeleton
105. Which of the following viviparous ? 105.
(1) Testudo (2) Ornithorhynchus (1) (2)
(3) Equus (4) Aptenodytes (3) (4)
106. Select the missing part of the floral formula of tulip 106.
from the following :- :-
Br + ...... A3+3G(3) Br + ...... A3+3G(3)
(1) K(5) C(5) (2) P2 (1) K(5) C(5) (2) P2
(3) P (3+3) (4) K5C5 (3) P(3+3) (4) K5C5
107. Primary structure of protein is due to :- 107.
(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Peptide bonds (1) (2)
(3) SSlinkage (4) Ionic bonds (3) SS (4)
108. Which one is not a feature of "Red muscles"? 108.
(1) Red muscles contain more amount of (1)
myoglobin.
(2) They obtain energy anaerobically (2)
(3) They has more mitochondria (3)
(4) They has less amount of sarcoplasmic (4)
reticulum
109. Study the given statements carefully and give the 109.
answer. (A)
(A) Bark is a nontechnical term that refers to all
tissues exterior to the cork cambium (B)
(B) Phellum, phellogen and phelloderm are
collectively called pericarp (C)
(C) In the dicot stem vascular cambium is
completely secondary in origin (D)
(D) In dicot stem endodermis cells are rich in starch
grains and the layer is also called starch sheath.
Options :- Options :-
(1) A, B-correct; C, D-incorrect (1) A, B-correct; C, D-incorrect
(2) A, C-correct ; B, D-incorrect (2) A, C-correct ; B, D-incorrect
(3) A, B, C - correct; D-incorrect (3) A, B, C - correct; D-incorrect
(4) A, B, C - incorrect ; D - correct (4) A, B, C - incorrect ; D - correct
18/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
110. Identify the incorrect matching pair ? 110.
?
A. Simple squamous Air sacs of lungs A.
B. Simple cuboidal Tubular part of nephron B.
C. Simple columnar Sweat gland C.
D. Pseudostratified Stomach and colon D.
(1) A, B and C (2) A and C (1) A, B
C (2) A
C
(3) B and C (4) C and D (3) B C (4) C
D
111. Which one of the following option gives the 111.
correct character of three types of plants?

C3 plant C4 plant CAM plant C3 C4 CAM


(1) RuBisCO in CO2 refixation RuBisCO in (1)
thylakoid lumen in mesophyll mesophyll
CO2
cells cells


(2) RuBisCO in Oxidative PEPcase in
chloroplast decarboxylation mesophyll (2)

stroma of malic acid in cells

bundle sheath PEPcase
cells
(3) Photorespiration CO2 refixation Initial CO2 (3)

CO2
in bundle fixation

CO2
sheath cells during day

(4) Photorespiration Primary CO2 Scotoactive
acceptor with stomata (4)
CO2
5-carbon atoms 5-

112. Which of the following is not a function of basal 112.


part of diencephalon :-
:-
(1) It stimulates reabsorption of H2O from renal (1)
tubules by it's secretion.
(2) Participates in regulation of biological clock. (2)
(3) Pathway of sensory signaling sent to cerebrum (3)
(4) Autonomic and emotional responses (4)
113. Presence of water cavities, vascular bundles are 113.
surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath,
parenchymatous ground tissue, conjoint, collateral
and closed vascular bundles are characters of :-
(1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem (1) (2)
(3) Dicot root (4) Monocot root (3) (4)
114. Read the following statements out of following 114.
which is wrong for epithelial tissue ?
?
(1) Epithelial tissue rest upon underlying (1)
connective tissue
(2) Epithelial cells are compactly packed with little (2)
intercellular matrix
(3) Power of regeneration is absent (3)
(4) Blood circulation is absent in epithelium (4)
1001CM303115048 19/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
115. Toxicity of manganese in plants induce 115.
deficiencies of :-
:-
(1) One type of micro nutrient and one type of (1)
macronutrient.
(2) Two types of micronutrients and one type of (2)
macronutrient.
(3) One type of micronutrient and two types of (3)
macronutrients.
(4) Two types of micronutrients and two types of (4)
macronutrients.
116. Alveolar growth in mammary gland is function of:- 116.
:-
(1) Thyroxine (2) Oestrogen (1) (2)
(3) ANF (4) Oxytocin (3) ANF (4)
117. When the cambium is very much active and 117.
produces large number of xylary elements having
vessels with wider cavities lighter in colour and
has lower density, the produced wood is called:-
(1) Spring wood (2) Autumn wood (1) (2)
(3) Heart wood (4) Sap wood (3) (4)
118. Match the following column :- 118.
:-

Column-A Column-B
-B
-B
(A) Areolar (i) Endomysium (A)
(i)
connective tissue
(B) Adipose (ii) Tendon (B) (ii)
connective tissue (C) (iii)
(C) Dense regular (iii) White fat
connective tissue
(D)
(iv)
(D) Dense irregular (iv) True vocal cord
connective tissue

(1) Aii, Bi, Ciii, Div (1) Aii, Bi, Ciii, Div
(2) Aiv, Biii, Cii, Di (2) Aiv, Biii, Cii, Di
(3) Ai, Biii, Cii, Div (3) Ai, Biii, Cii, Div
(4) Aiv, Bii, Ci, Diii (4) Aiv, Bii, Ci, Diii
119. How many ATP molecules are produced during 119.
the complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvic ATP
ETS
acid without entering ETS ? (1) 15 ATP (2) 11 ATP
(1) 15 ATP (2) 11 ATP
(3) 14 ATP (4) 1 ATP
(3) 14 ATP (4) 1 ATP
120. During bright light :- 120.
:-
(1) Diameter of pupil increase (1)
(2) Radial muscles of iris contract (2)
(3) Circular muscles of iris contract (3)
(4) Diameter of pupil is decreased and it is called (4)
mydriasis
20/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180 121 180
These questions consist of two statements each,
printed as Assertion and Reason.While

answering these Questions you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses.
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the A.
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason B.
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. C.
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False. D.
121. Assertion :- The path of a projectile as seen from 121. :-
another projectile is a straight line.
Reason :- Both have same acceleration. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. Assertion :- In circular motion, velocity changes 122. :-

continuously. :-
| dr |
dr = 0

Reason :- In circular motion | dr | and dr = 0.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123. Assertion :- Frictional force acting on a body 123. :-
reduces its kinetic energy.
Reason :- Frictional force is a conservative force. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. Assertion :- In case of pure rolling on a horizontal 124. :-
surface, some points have vertical velocity.
Reason :- In case of pure rolling, point of contact :-
may slip.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
125. Assertion :- In an explosion, kinetic energy of 125. :-
system increases.
Reason :- In an explosion, split particles must :-
move in opposite directions.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion :- A passenger in a train hears the same 126. :-
frequency as whistled by train.
Reason :- When source and observer have same
velocity relative to medium frequency does not :-
change.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


127. Assertion :- L I is always valid. 127. :- L I

Reason :- L and are always parallel. :- L
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

1001CM303115048 21/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
128. Assertion :- If net force on a body is zero it cannot 128. :-
rotate.

Reason :- r Fnet . :- r Fnet .
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. Assertion :- If work done by conservative force 129. :-
is positive, potential energy of system increases.
Reason :- WC = U; WC = work done by conservative :- WC = U; WC =
force and U = potential energy of system.
U =
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion :- Centre of buoyancy always coincides 130. :-
with centre of gravity if body is fully immersed
in liquid.
Reason :- Force of buoyancy and weight of body
:-
are always collinear.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion :- Speed of planet around the sun in an 131. :-
elliptical orbit changes continuously.
Reason :- Gravitational force is a conservative force. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. Assertion :- Doppler effect in light and sound are 132. :-
different.
Reason :- Velocity addition is different for high :-
velocities.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion :- A hollow shaft of same mass length 133. :-
and material is stronger than a solid shaft.
Reason :- Torsional constant for hollow shaft is
:-
smaller that that of solid shaft.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion :- Sound waves cannot be polarized. 134. :-
Reason :- Sound waves are longitudinal in nature. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion :- Tiny drops of liquid resist deforming 135. :-
forces better than bigger drops.
Reason :- Excess pressure inside tiny drop is smaller. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion :- Water can be boiled without heating 136. :-
at room temperature.
Reason :- Boiling point of a liquid depends on
:-
pressure.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion :- A process is called adiabatic if the 137. :-
system does not exchange heat with the
surrounding.
Reason :- In an adiabatic process pressure volume :-
and temperature are change.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

22/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016

138. Assertion :- Ideal gas cannot be liquified. 138. :-


Reason :- Real gas behaves as ideal gas at low :-
pressure and high temperature.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
2
139. Assertion :- x = sin(t) represents an oscillatory 139. :- x = sin(t)
2

motion. :- x = sin (t)2


Reason :- x = sin (t)2 is a periodic function.

( is a constant.)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. Assertion :- Insects sink in water when petrol is 140. :-
sprayed on water surface.
Reason :- Impurities always decrease surface :-
tension of liquid.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. Assertion :- A mixture of camphor and benzoic 141. :-
acid cannot be separated by sublimation.
Reason :- Camphor on heating sublimes but :-
benzoic acid does not.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D
142. Assertion :- On heating ammonium dichromate, 142. :-
NH3
NH3 gas is produced.
Reason :- Cr2O72 ion is a strong Reducing agent. :- Cr2O72
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. Assertion :- Nucleophilicity of NH 2 is greater 143. :- NH2
OH

than OH .


Reason :- Basic nature of OH is higher than NH 2 :- OH
NH 2
because electronegativity of oxygen is greater than
nitrogen.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- Alkali metals do not occur in native 144. :-
state in nature.
Reason :- Alkali metals are highly reactive metals. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- For isomeric alkane the boiling point 145. :-
decrease with increase in branching.
Reason :- With increase in branching, the surface :-
area decrease which decrease the magnitude of
Vandar Walls attraction.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. Assertion :- Salicyclic acid (ohydroxy benzoic 146. :- (o
)
acid) is stronger than m and p isomers. m p
Reason :- Carboxylate ion is stablised by :-
H-
intra-molecular H-bonding.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

1001CM303115048 23/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
147. Assertion :- Repeated Nitration of Benzene gives 147. :-
1,3,5-
1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene.

Reason :- In Nitration of Benzene NO2 serve as :-
NO2
electrophile.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B(3) C (4) D
148. Assertion :- All the oxides of boron family with 148. :-
M2O 3
the general formula M2O3 are basic.
Reason :- From B2O3 to Tl2O3 basic character :- B 2O 3 Tl 2O 3
decreases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. Assertion :- Biphenyl is an Aromatic hydrocarbon . 149. :-
Reason :- All Aromatic compound contain :-
Benzene ring.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion :- S, G and H are zero for cyclic process. 150. :- S, G H
Reason :- Free energy, entropy and enthalpy are
state functions. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. :-
sp
3 3
151. Assertion :- Hydrogen attached to sp carbon in
cyclopentadiene can be released as proton.
Reason :- Conjugate base of cyclopentadiene is :-
aromatic.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- NaCl is precipitated when HCl gas 152. :- HCl
NaCl
is passed through it's saturated solution.
Reason :- HCl is a strong acid. :- HCl
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- Reactivity of alkene is more than 153. :- EAR
alkyne towards EAR.
Reason :- In alkene saturated carbocation is :-
formed as intermediate while in alkyne
unsaturated carbocation is formed as intermediate.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- PV = nRT is applicable for ideal gas. 154. :-
PV = nRT
Reason :- a and b, vander waal's constants can not :-
a b,
be zero for ideal gas.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- Mn2O7 is acidic in nature. 155. :- Mn2O7
Reason :- Oxygen has tendency to form multiple :-
bonds.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
156. Assertion :- Orbital angular momentum of 156. :- 1s,2s,3s,etc.
1s,2s,3s, etc. is zero.
Reason :- Value of '' for s-suborbit is zero. :- s-
''
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

24/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
157. Assertion :- HNO2 may act as an oxidising as well 157. :- HNO2
as a reducing agent.
Reason :- The oxidation number of Nitrogen :-
remains same in all the compounds.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion :- Addition of HCl(aq.) to HCOOH(aq.) 158. :- HCl HCOOH (aq.)
decrease the ionization of HCOOH(aq.) HCOOH
+
Reason :- Due to common ion effect of H , ionization :- H+
HCOOH
of HCOOH decrease.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D
159. Assertion :- Dil. solution of alkali metals in liq. 159. :-
NH3

NH3 are paramagnetic in nature.
Reason :- Paramagnetic nature decreases when :-
concentration of solution increase.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
160. Assertion :- Many endothermic reactions that are 160. :-
not spontaneous at room temperatures become
spontaneous at high temperature.
Reason :- H of the endothermic reaction changes :-
H
with increase in temperature.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion - Diatomaceous earth is used in 161. -
polishing, filteration of oil and syrups
Reason - Diatomaceous earth is gritty due to -
presence of silica
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- Eggs of cockroach are encased in 162. :-
capsules called oothecae.
Reason :- Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish :-
brown capsule.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion - The species are reproductively isolated 163. -
natural population
Reason - Prokaryotes will kept under different -
species on the basis of reproductive isolation
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164 Assertion :- The quasifluid nature of lipid enable 164 :-
lateral movement of protein with in the overall
bilayer of cell membrane.
Reason :- Flip flop movement of protein is only :-
possible in quasifluid nature of lipid.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
165. Assertion :- Amphibian teeth are acrodont. 165. :-
Reason :- In amphibians, teeth appear number of :-
times in life.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

1001CM303115048 25/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
166. Assertion :- Each protein is a polymer of amino 166. :-
acids.
Reason :- Amino acids are substitute ethanes. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate. 167. :-
Reason :- Coelom is not lined up by mesoderm. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. Assertion :- All solutions have a lower water 168. :-
potential than pure water.
Reason :- If some solutes are dissolved in pure :-
water, the solution has fewer free water molecules.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Both apical meristem and intercalary 169. :-
meristems are primary meristems.
Reason :- They appear late in life of a plant and :-
contribute to the formation of secondary plant body.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- An ideal enzyme should have low Km 170. :-
Km
value.
Reason :- In presence of competitive inhibitor, :-
Km
value of Km increases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- Fascicular vascular cambium, 171. :-
interfacicular cambium and cork cambium are
examples of lateral meristems.
Reason :- These meristems are responsible for :-
producing the secondary tissues which form
woody axis in the plants.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- Osmolirity of medullary interstitium 172. :-
of kidney is maintained by NaCl and Urea. NaCl
Reason :- Discending limb of LOH permeable for :-
NaCl
NaCl and small amount of urea is diffused out
through distal part of collecting duct.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. Assertion :- In china rose and mustard alternate 173. :-
phyllotaxy is found.
Reason :- In china rose and mustard a pair of :-
leaves arise at each node.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- At alveolar level, bicarbonate and 174. :-
carbamino compounds dissociate and to liberate CO2

the CO2 which diffuses into alveoli.

Reason :- Halden's effect takes place on alveoli level.
:-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

26/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
175. Assertion :- In Calotropis, valvate aestivation is 175. :-

present.
Reason :- In Calotropis, sepals or petals in a whorl :-

just touch one another at the margin without
overlapping.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- Insufficient supply oxygen in heart 176. :-
O2
muscles may leads to angina pectoris.
Reason :- Acute chest pain might arise in angina :-
pectoris.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. Assertion :- Simple cuboidal epithelium is also 177. :-
called as germinal epithelium.
Reason :- Cuboidal cells of gonads forms gametes. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- Food is not properly digested, leading 178. :-
to a feeling of fullness, such condition is known
as vomiting. :-
Reason :- Major cause of vomiting is frequent bowel
movement.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- Connective tissue is the most widely 179. :-
distributed tissue in the body.
Reason :- Bones and cartilage are the specilized :-
connective tissue.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
180. Assertion :- Cretinism, deaf mutism is deficiency 180. :-
result of gland hormone secreted by located at
junction of larynx and trachea.
Reason :- Thyroxine hormone deficiency affects :-
human development.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
181. Ancient Sanskrit and pali texts refer to a land 181.
known as Suvarnadvipa or Suvarnabhumi
:-
identified with :- (1)
(1) Sri Lanka
(2)
(2) South East Asia
(3)
(3) Tibet
(4) North-West of Hindukush (4)
182. Which one among the following will be the 182.
longest railway tunnel of the world which is 2016

scheduled to be operational in year 2016? (1)
(1) Pir Panjal Railway tunnel, India
(2) South Liangshan tunnel, China (2)
(3) Railway tunnel beneath the Swiss Alps, (3) (Swiss Alps)
Switzerland
(4) Seikan tunnel, Japan (4)

1001CM303115048 27/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
183. Which one among the following is not responsible 183.
for 'Green house effect' ?
(1) Water (1)
(2) Carbon dioxide (2)
(3) Nitrogen (3)
(4) Chlorofluorocarbons (4)
184. Which of the following memorial was constructed 184.
to honour those. Indian soldiers who sacrificed
their lives during World War-I and Afgan wars.
(1) India Gate, New Delhi (1)
(2) Chandigarh war memorial (2)
(3) Tawang war memorial
(3)
(4) War memorial, IMA Dehradun (4) , IMA
185. The world famous diamond 'Kohinoor' was 185.
mined from which mine?
(1) Jwaneng mine, Botswana (1)
(2) Kollur mines, India (2)
(3) Panna mines, India (3)
(4) Jubilee mines, Republic of Russia (4)
186. International Yoga Day is observed on ? 186.
st
(1) 21 June th
(2) 7 April (1) 21 (2) 7
(3) 23rd June (4) 21st January (3) 23 (4) 21
187. The only Prime Minister of India who was 187.
multilinguist and knew and speak 14 languages. 14
(1) P.V. Narsimha Rao (1)
(2) Jawahar Lal Nehru (2)
(3) Indira Gandhi (3)
(4) Lal Bahadur Shastri (4)
188. According to the National Institutional Ranking 188.
(NIRF)
Framwork [NIRF] reports by HRD ministry of
India, which University among the following was
ranked top most?
(1) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore (1)
(2) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai (2)
(3) Jawahar Lal Nehru University, New Delhi (3)
(4) University of Hyderabad, Hyderabad (4)
189. The 2016 Rio Olympics will be............Olympics. 189.
2016...........
(1) Thirtieth (1) 30
(2) Thirty first (2) 31
(3) Thirty second (3) 32
(4) Thirty third (4) 33

28/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
190. Which rivers out of the following flows in Rift 190.
valleys ? (1)
(1) Krishna and Cauvery (2)
(2) Narmada and Tapti
(3)
(3) Ganga and Yamuna
(4) Satluj and Ravi (4)
191. Who plays the role of 'Mowgli' in the movie 'The 191.
Jungle book' based on Rudyard Kipling's
eponymous collective works?
(1) Runa Simi (2) Bill Pope (1) (2)
(3) Neel Sethi (4) Jon Favreau (3) (4)
192. Which is the most polluted city in the world by 192.
(PMC)
particulate matter concentration?
(1) Karachi (2) Beijing (1) (2)
(3) Doha (4) Delhi (3) (4)
193. With reference to the wild life of India what is 193.
(Dugong)
Dugong? (1)
(1) It is a desert gazelle (2)
(2) It is a marine mammal
(3)
(3) It is a migratory raptor
(4) It is a salt water crocodile (4)
194. Who of the following is popularly known as the 194.
'Grand old Man of India'?
(1) Acharya Vinoba Bhave (1)
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji (2)
(3) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (3)
(4) Mahadev Govind Ranade (4)
195. 'A Brief History of Time' is written by :- 195.
(1) Stephen Hawking (1)
(2) Paul Daves (2)
(3) Steven Weinberg (3)
(4) Errol Morris (4)
196. Member of Rajya Sabha are elected for :- 196.
(1) 4 years (2) 5 years (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 years (4) 3 years (3) 6 (4) 3
197. The National policy for children, 2013 recognizes 197.
2013,
every person as a child below the age of :-
(1) 12 years (2) 14 years (1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 16 years (4) 18 years (3) 16 (4) 18
198. Who among the following is the winner of the 198.
(2015)
World Food Prize (year 2015) ?
(1) Sanjaya Rajaram (1)
(2) Baldev Singh Dhillon (2)
(3) Sir Fazle Hasan Abed (3)
(4) Rajendra Singh Paroda (4)

1001CM303115048 29/31
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2016/AIIMS/04-05-2016
199. Leander Paes won the US Open Mixed Double 199.

Tennis title (2015) partenering with :- (2015)
(1) Kristina Mladenovic (1)
(2) Flavia Pennetta (2)
(3) Martina Hingis (3)
(4) Sania Mirza (4)
200. "Swachh Bharat Abhiyan" (Clean India Mission) 200.
is a national campaign by the Government of
India. The slogan of this mission is :-
(1) Clean India - "Nirmal Bharat" (1)
(2) Jahan Soch Wahan Shauchalaya (2)
(3) One step towards Cleanliness - "Ek Kadam (3)
Swacchta Ki Aur" (4)
(4) Let's clean

Your moral duty is to prove that


is

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016

30/31 1001CM303115048
Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/04-05-2016
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

1001CM303115048 31/31