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Q.1.

Consider the following statements regarding the parliamentary


privileges available to the members:

1. They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament


for both civil and criminal offences.

2. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for


anything said in Parliament.

3. The presiding officer of the house has the final authority in


deciding matters of breach of privileges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: They cannot be arrested during the session of


Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session.
This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive
detention cases.

Statement 2 is correct: No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for


anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or its committees.
Statement 3 is correct: The presiding officer of the legislature has the final powers in
deciding matters of breach of privilege. Thus Lok Sabha speaker has the final powers
in deciding matters of breach of privilege by a member of Lok Sabha. The same
function is performed by the chairman of the Rajya Sabha for its members.

Q.2. With reference to the executive powers and functions of the


union, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Unlike legislative powers, the distribution of executive


powers between the centre and states is rigid.

2. If a state fails to comply with executive directions given by


the centre then the legislative assembly of the state can be
dissolved.

3. The delegation of the executive functions of the centre to a


state compulsorily requires the consent of that state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c
Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: The distribution of legislative powers
between the centre and states is rigid as article 246 provides three lists where as
there is no as such rigidity in the division of executive power between the centre and
states. For example, the President with the consent of the state government may
entrust any of the executive functions to that state. Similarly the Governor of a state
with the consent of the central government may entrust to that government any of the
executive functions of the state.

Statement 2 is correct: If the state fails to comply with the executive direction of the
centre then the

President rule can be imposed as per article 356. So the state legislative assembly
can be dissolved.

Statement 3 is not correct: It can be done even without the consent of the state. The
Parliament can make a law on the union list and can confer the executive powers on
the states.

Q.3. The Election Commission has the power of superintendence,


direction and conduct of elections to the

3. Legislative Council

4. Rajya Sabha

5. Office of Vice President

6. Office of Speaker

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. c

Explanation: The election commission has the power of superintendence, direction


and conduct of all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, Office of President
and Office of Vice President. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst
its members.

Q.4. Consider the following statements regarding the 73rd


Constitutional Amendment act:

1. It added a new part and a new schedule to the Constitution


of India.

2. It promoted the process of democratic decentralisation.

3. It has brought panchayati raj institutions under the


justiciable part of Constitution.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only.

(d) 1 and 2 only


Ans. a

Explanation: 73rd Amendment Act of 1992: This act has added a new Part-IX to the
Constitution of India. It is entitled as The Panchayats and consists of provisions from
Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to
the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It
deals with Article 243-G. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroot democratic institutions


in the country. It transfers the representative democracy into participatory democracy.
It is a revolutionary concept to build democracy at the grassroot level in the country
and promote the process of democratic decentralisation. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.

The act gives a constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought
them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, the
state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj
system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the
formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on
the will of the state government any more. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q.5. Who among the following can vote in the election of the
President?

1. Elected and nominated members of the Lok Sabha.

2. Elected Members of Rajya Sabha.

3. Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies of UTs

4. Elected members of Legislative Councils


Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. b

Explanation: The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of
Electoral College consisting of:

the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;

the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states;

and the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union


Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

However nominated members of Parliament though do not take part in election but
take part in impeachment process of the President.

Also, elected members of Legislative assemblies though take part in election but do
not take part in impeachment proceedings

Q.6. Consider the following statements with regard to special


status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370:

1. The Parliament cannot make laws on subjects not


mentioned in instrument of accession signed in 1947.
2. The President can repeal Article 370 only on the
recommendation of State government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. d

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 370 mentions that Parliament can make
laws on those matters in the Union list and concurrent list that correspond with the
matters mentioned in the instruments of Accession. However, Parliament can make
laws on other matters of union list and concurrent list specified by the President only
with the concurrence of State government.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 370 can be repealed by the President only on the
recommendation of the Constituent assembly of the State and NOT the State
Government.

Q.7. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court covers which of the


following matters?

7. Interstate Water Dispute.

8. Disputes arising out of any preconstitutional treaty.

9. Enforcement of Fundamental rights.


Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation: As a federal court SC has original jurisdiction over federal disputes


between different units of the Indian Federation. Other than this, it has no original
jurisdiction over matters like inter-state water disputes, ordinary dispute of
commercial nature between centre and states, dispute arising out of preconstitutional
treaty, agreement, covenant, recovery of damages by a state against the centre and
state. Therefore, statement 1 and 2 are not correct.

Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the
guarantor and defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court
is empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-
warrento and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved
citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an
aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of
appeal.

Q.8. Which of the following represents federal features of the


Indian Constitution?

1. Written Constitution

2. Integrated Judiciary
3. Indestructible states of Union

4. Existence of union and state governments

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Ans. d

Explanation: The federal features of the Constitution of India are:

1. Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union
at the Centre and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with
sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively
by the Constitution.

2. Written Constitution: It specifies the structure, orga-nisation, powers and


functions of both the

Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must
operate.

3. Division of Powers: The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre
and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in
the Seventh Schedule.
4. Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution is the supreme (or the
highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states
must confirm to its provisions. Thus, the organs of the

government (legislative, executive and judicial) at both the levels must operate within
the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution.

5. Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent


judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the
supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review;
and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or
between the states.

6. Bicameralism: The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is


required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of
the states against the undue interference of the Centre.

Integrated Judiciary is a unitary feature of the Constitution of India.

States in India are not indestructible. Unlike in other federations, the states
in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral
action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it
requires only a simple majority and not a special majority.

Q.9. Which of the following statements are correct regarding office


of the Prime minister?

1. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

2. Resignation of Prime minister automatically dissolves the


council of ministers
3. Constitution has provided procedure for selection and
appointment of Prime minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he
holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the
president can dismiss the Prime

Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the
Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the
confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him.

Statement 2 is correct: Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of
ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or
dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister
automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The
resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy
which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Constitution has not specified any selection procedure for
Prime minster. It is based on Parliamentary Convention that leader of the majority
party is appointed as Prime minister
Q.10. Consider the following statements regarding board of co-
operative society:

1. It must have at least one seat reserved for SC or ST and


two seats for women.

2. The elected members of the board is five years.

3. Elections for the board members are administered by state


election commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: It must have at least one seat reserved for SC or ST


and two seats for women.

Statement 2 is correct: The term of office of elected members of the board


and its office bearers is five years.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Elections for the board members are administered by the
body authorized by the state legislature.
Q.11 The provision of joint sitting is applicable for which of the
following bills?

1. Ordinary bills

2. Financial bills

3. Constitutional Amendment bills

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanations: President summons the joint sitting to resolve the deadlock between
the two houses over the passage of a bill. Provision of joint sitting is applicable to
ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bill or Constitutional amendment
bills.

Q.12 The executive branch of government consist of which of the


following?

1. President

2. Council of Ministers
3. Members of Parliament

4. Civil Servants

5. Attorney General

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 5 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

Ans. d

Explanations:

The executive branch includes presidents, prime ministers, Council of


Ministers, Attorney General and the administrative machinery (civil
servants). While the heads of government and their ministers are together
known as the political executive, civil servants are called the permanent
executive.

Members of Parliaments are part of legislative. Only those MPs, which are
ministers form part of Executive.

Q.13 Consider the following statements:

1. There is single citizenship in India.


2. President enjoys absolute veto over state bills.

3. The Union can change the name, area and boundary of a


state without its content.

4. Constitution is the supreme law of the land.

Which of the above, if absent, would make the Indian constitution


more federal in nature?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. C

Explanation: Statements 1, 2 and 3 are the unitary features of Indian constitution and
hence removing them would make Indian constitution more federal. Supremacy of the
constitution is a federal feature. The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law
of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its
provisions. Thus, the organs of the government (legislative, executive and judicial) at
both the levels must operate within the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution.

Q.14 Which of the following is/are the discretionary powers of


President?
1. Exercise of suspensive veto power

2. Appointment of Prime Minister when no Political Party has


majority in Lok Sabha

3. Appointment of Governor in a state

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.

Explanations: Statement 1 is correct. The President has veto power by which he can
withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the
Parliament. The President can send the bill back to the Parliament asking it to
reconsider the bill. So, in case of ordinary bill, President has a discretionary power.

Statement 2 is correct. The President has discretion to appoint Prime Minister in such
cases. Other ministers are appointed on the advice of PM.

Statement 3 is incorrect. It is not a discretionary power of the President. The Governor


in a state is appointed by the President on the advice of central government.

Q.15. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding


Vice-President of India?
1. He is member and chairman of Council of States.

2. He can resign by addressing resignation letter to deputy


chairman of Council of States.

3. He can be removed only through a formal impeachment


process similar to that of President

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Ans. d

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Vice President is ex-officio chairman of Council


of States but he is not member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is incorrect: He can resign by addressing to the President of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect: He is not impeached by a formal impeachment process like


President .He can be removed from office by a resolution of Rajya Sabha with
absolute majority and agreed by Lok Sabha.

Q16. Which of the following are the exclusive powers of Lok


Sabha?
1. Vote of demand for grants

2. Proclamation of National Emergency

3. Revocation of National Emergency

4. Introduction of Constitution Amendment bill

5. Creation of All India Services

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans. a

Explanations:

Option 1 is correct. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot
vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok
Sabha).

Option 2 is incorrect. Proclamation of National Emergency has to be


approved by both the houses of parliament.
Option 3 is correct. A resolution for the discontinuance of the national
emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya
Sabha.

Option 4 is incorrect. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated in


either House of Parliament.

Option 5 is incorrect. It is the Rajya Sabha which can authorize the


Parliament to create new All-India

Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312).

Q.17 Which of the following is not correct when Vice-President is


discharging functions of President?

(a) He enjoys all immunities which are available to the President for
his official acts.

(b) He continues to perform the duties of chairman of Rajya Sabha.

(c) He can pardon the sentence of a court martial.

(d) He can promulgate ordinances on the advice of Council of


Ministers.

Ans. b

Explanation: When Vice -President is acting as President, he enjoys all the powers and
Privileges of the President. Option (a),(c),(d) are powers and privileges of the
President. While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the
Vice-President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya
Sabha. During this period, those duties are performed by the Deputy Chairman of
Rajya Sabha.

Q.18 Under which of the following cases can the Governor use his
individual discretion in appointing Chief Minister?

1. When no political party has clear majority.

2. When the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. When no party has a clear majority in the


legislative assembly, then governor may exercise his personal discretion in
the selection and appointment of CM. In such a situation the governor
usually appoints, the leader of largest party or largest coalition party, as
the CM and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the house within a
month.

Statement 2 is correct. The governor may exercise his individual judgment


in the selection and appointment of CM when CM in the office dies
suddenly and there is no obvious successor. However, on the death of a
CM, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and governor appoints
him/her as CM.

Q.19 Which of the following Constitutional provisions


is/are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir?

1. Part III

2. Part IV

3. Part IV A

4. Fifth Schedule

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only.

Ans. c

Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect. Part III (dealing with Fundamental Rights) is


applicable to the state with some exceptions and conditions. The
Fundamental Right to Property is still guaranteed in the state. Also, certain
special rights are granted to the permanent residents of the state with
regard to public employment, acquisition of immovable property, settlement
and government scholarships.

Options 2 and 3 are correct. Part IV (dealing with Directive Principles of


State Policy) and Part IVA (dealing with Fundamental Duties) are not
applicable to the state.

Option 4 is correct. The Fifth Schedule (dealing with administration and


control of schedule areas and scheduled tribes) and the Sixth Schedule
(dealing with administration of tribal areas) do not apply to the state.

Q.20. The president exercises executive power through:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister

(c) Parliament

(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

Ans. b

Explanations: The Constitution of India vests the executive power of the Union
formally in the President. In reality, the President exercises these powers through the
Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Q.21. Consider the following provisions of the Tenth Schedule

1. An independent member of the house becomes


disqualified if he/she joins any political party.
2. A member of a political party cannot abstain from voting in
the house, contrary to the direction of the party, under any
circumstance.

3. A nominated member becomes disqualified if he/she joins


party before the expiry of 6 months.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanations:

Statement 1 is Correct. An Independent member of a house becomes


disqualified to remain a member of the house is he/she joins any political
party after such election.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. A member belonging to any political party


becomes disqualified if he/she votes or abstains from voting contrary to the
direction of the party. However a member shall not be disqualified if he/she
has obtained prior permission of the party and such act has not been
condoned by the party within 15 days.

Statement 3 is incorrect. A nominated member of the house becomes


disqualified if he/she joins party after the expiry of 6 months from the date
on which he/she takes his/her seat in the house. That means a nominated
member becomes is not disqualified if he/she joins party before the expiry
of 6 months.

Q.22. With reference to official language of a state, consider the


following statements:

1. It should be spoken by the majority of the population of the


state.

2. It should be listed in 8th schedule of the constitution.

3. It is adopted on the direction of the Governor with the prior


consent of the president of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement is incorrect: Though it is being observed that official language of a


particular state is spoken by a large section of the population but it is not the soul
criteria to make a language as an official language. The official language is used in
the official and administrative works in the state for the effective functioning of the
government. Even the President, for protecting the linguistic interests of the minorities
in the states, can direct to states to recognize any language as a official language.

Statement 2 is incorrect: the choice of the state is not limited to the languages
enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

Statement 3 is incorrect: State legislature of a state has given exclusive power to


adopt any one or more languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language
of that state. Authorisation of the governor is not required here.

Q.23. Which of the following is/are correct regarding impeachment


of the President?

1. He can be impeached only on the charge of violation of


Constitution.

2. Only elected members of Parliament can vote at


impeachment proceedings.

3. On removal of President, Vice-President takes charge as


president for the remaining tenure.

4. Impeachment resolution needs to be passed by a majority


of two-thirds of the total membership in both the houses.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only


(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans. c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 56(1)(b) states that President may , for


violation of the constitution, be removed from office by impeachement.
However Constitution does not give description of what amounts to
violation of constitution

Statement 2 is not correct: The nominated members of either House of


Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they
do not participate in his election.

Statement 3 is not correct: Unlike in USA, Vice president does not take
charge for remaining tenure but only till the new president is elected.

Statement 4 is correct: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either


House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth
members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days notice
should be given to the President. After the impeachment resolution is
passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it
is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the
other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment
resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the
President stands removed from his office.

Q.24. Consider the following statements:


1. In Presidential system, the President is accountable to the
legislature.

2. In Parliamentary system, the head of the state may be


monarch.

3. In Presidential system, the President is the head of


government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the Presidential System, the President is not


accountable to legislature.

Statement 2 is correct. Canada has a parliamentary democracy with a


constitutional monarchy where Queen Elizabeth II is the formal chief of
state and the prime minister is the head of government.

Statement 3 is correct. In the Presidential System, the President is head of


the state as well as the head of the government.
Q.25. Consider the following statement, regarding Lok Sabha:

1. Lok Sabha has a normal term of 5 years, after which it


automatically dissolves.

2. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the president is subject to


judicial review.

3. During National emergency the term of Lok Sabha can be


extended for one year at a time for any number of times.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Lok Sabha has normal term of five years after which
it dissolves automatically.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision to dissolve Lok sabha by the


president cannot be challenged in a court of law.

Statement 3 is correct: During National emergency the term of Lok Sabha


can be extended for one year at a time for any length of time. However the
extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the
emergency has ceased to operate.

Q.26. Consider the following statements with reference to


presiding officers in Parliament:

1. In case of vacancy in the office of speaker and deputy


speaker, Lok Sabha may elect any member as acting
speaker.

2. In the instance when resolution of their removal is in


consideration, both speaker and the chairman can vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the president, not Lok Sabha, who appoints a member of
parliament as acting speaker if the post of speaker/deputy speaker is vacant until the
next speaker/deputy speaker is elected by the house.
Statement 2 is incorrect as well. While Speaker can vote in the first instance when a
resolution for his removal is under consideration of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman can
only be present and speak in the house without voting.

Q.27. Consider the following statements with regard to co-


operatives:

1. To form co-operative societies is a fundamental right under


article 19.

2. Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for co-


operative societies.

3. Co-operative societies is a state subject in seventh


schedule of the constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: To form co-operative societies is a fundamental


right under article 19.
Statement 2 is correct: Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions
for co-operative societies.

Statement 3 is correct: Co-operative societies is a state subject in seventh


schedule of the constitution.

Q.28 Consider the following statements regarding High Court (HC)


judges:

1. A distinguished jurist in the eye Chief Justice of India can


be appointed as a judge of HC.

2. A judge of HC can be removed by the Governor after an


address by the state legislature has been presented to him.

3. Grounds for removal of HC judges are to be determined by


the respective state legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Ans. d

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no provision of appointing


distinguished jurist as a judge of HC (this provision is there for appointing judge of SC
only).
Statement 2 is incorrect. State legislature has no powers with respect to removal of
the judge of HC. He can be removed by the President after an address by the
Parliament has been presented to him in the same session.

Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision in the constitution. There are only
two grounds for removal of HC/SC judges-proved misbehavior or incapacity.

Q.29 The parliament can make laws on State list if:

1. There is constitutional breakdown of state machinery

2. The Chief Ministers of two or more states request the


parliament

3. Parliament passes a motion for the same with special


majority

4. It is for implementing international treaties

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Ans. a
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: If President rule is being invoked in the state then
the Parliament can make laws on matters mentioned in the state list and the state
legislative assembly is suspended.

Statement 2 is not correct: It is the state legislatures which make the request not the
Chief Ministers.

Statement 3 is not correct: It is not the Parliament rather the Upper House (Rajya
Sabha) which can pass a resolution with a special majority of not less than two thirds
of members present and voting, if it is necessary in national interest that parliament
should make laws on any matter mentioned in the State List.

Statement 4 is correct: The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List
for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision
enables the Central government to fulfill its international obligations and
commitments.

Q.30 With reference to doctrine of pleasure, consider the following


statements:

1. It is only applicable to persons who are members of the All-


India Services and Central Services not to the members of
State services.

2. It is used to remove Comptroller and Auditor General of


India and Chief Election Commissioner from their office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Doctrine of pleasure means all the persons who are
members of the All-India Services and Central Services hold office during the pleasure
of the President. Similarly the personnel of the state services hold office during the
pleasure of the governor. So this doctrine is also applicable to persons of the state
services also.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Doctrine of pleasure is not applicable for Comptroller and


Auditor General of India (CAG) and Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). Though they
are appointed by the President, they may be removed from their office only on ground
of proved misbehavior or incapacity on the resolution for the same being passed by
the parliament with special majority.

Q.31. Consider the following statements regarding Money bill:

1. It can be introduced only by a minister.

2. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the Money bill.

3. President can withhold his assent to the Money bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only


(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that
too on the recommendation of the president. Every such bill is considered to be a
government bill and can be introduced only by a minister.

Statement 2 is correct. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the the Money bill. It
should return the bill with or without recommendations within 14 days.

Statement 3 is correct as well. The president may either give his assent to the bill or
withhold his assent to the bill. It can be rejected or approved but cannot be returned
for reconsideration of the Parliament.

Q32. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding


the Departmental Standing Committees?

1. The members of this committee are elected by


proportional representation.

2. It considers the demands for grants of concerned


ministries and can suggest cuts in the budget.

3. Its recommendations are advisory in nature and hence not


binding on the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct as the members of the Departmental Standing Committees


are nominated by the Speaker/chairman from amongst the members of the
concerned House. Each committee has 31 members ( 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from
Rajya Sabha )

Statement 2 is not correct as the Committees cannot make any suggestions of a


nature of cuts in their reports.

Statement 3 is correct. The recommendations of Departmental Standing Committees


are advisory in nature and are not binding on the parliament.

Q.33. Consider the following statements with regard to


disqualification under Anti defection law:

1. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of


defection is to be decided by the presiding officer.

2. This decision is final and cannot be subjected to judicial


review.
3. While taking such a decision, the decision-taking authority
function as a tribunal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of


defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the house.

Statement 2 is Incorrect. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding
officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, the Supreme Court
declared this provision as Unconstitutional. It held that the presiding officer, while
deciding a question under the 10th Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence his/her
decision like that of any other tribunals, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of
mala-fides, perversity etc.

Statement 3 is Correct. The presiding officer functions as a tribunal while taking such
decisions.

Q.34. Consider the following statements with regard to Inter State


Water Disputes:
1. Article 262 provides that Parliament alone can make laws
on Inter-state water disputes.

2. Parliament may restrict the jurisdiction of Supreme Court


in these matters.

3. The decision of an Inter-State Water dispute Tribunal is


final and binding on the parties involved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 262, Parliament alone has the authority to
make laws on

Inter-state water disputes.

Statement 2 is correct. Article 262 also allows the Parliament to restrict Supreme
Court and other courts from interfering in these disputes.

Statement 3 is correct. Under Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956, Parliament can
establish an ad-hoc tribunal for a river water dispute. The decision of the tribunal is
binding and final on the parties. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other Court has
any jurisdiction in these matters.

Q.35. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard


to Committee on Public undertakings?

1. The members are elected every year from both the houses
of the parliament.

2. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the


committee.

3. The chairman of this Committee can be only from Lok


sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct as the members are elected every year for a term of
1 year. The elections are done through proportional representation using a
single transferable vote.
Statement 2 is correct. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the
committee.

Statement 3 is correct. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the


Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha
only.

Q.36. In the context of special status given to Jammu and Kashmir,


consider the following statements:

1. The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was drafted by


the Constituent Assembly of India.

2. Article 370 provides permanent special status to the state.

3. The right to property is still a fundamental right in the state


of Jammu and Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. c

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own
constitution but a separate constituent assembly prepared it. The people of
the State elected a sovereign Constituent Assembly which met for the first
time on October 31, 1951.

Statement 2 is incorrect Article 370 deals with the special provision with
the state of Jammu and Kashmir but this status is temporary not
permanent.

Statement 3 is correct fundamental right to property is still granted to in


this state.

Q.37. Consider the following statements with regard to powers and


functions Inter-State Council:

1. Its recommendations are advisory in nature and are not


binding.

2. Its function is complementary to the Supreme Courts


jurisdiction to decide a legal controversy between the
governments.

3. All the questions discussed are decided by consensus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Inter-state councils function to enquire


and advice upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme
Courts jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between
the governments. The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal
or nonlegal, but its function is advisory unlike that of the court which gives
a binding decision.

Statement 3 is also correct. All the matters are settled by consensus.

Q.38. Consider the following statements:

1. Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.

2. No confidence motion can be moved against an individual


minister or the entire council of minister.

3. Censure motion can be moved against the entire council of


minister only.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha


only.

Statement 2 is incorrect: No confidence motion can be moved against the


entire council of minister only.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Censure motion can be moved against an


individual minister or the entire council of minister.

Q.39. The fundamental objective of the residuary power of the


Indian Parliament is to ensure which among the following?

1. Uniformity of legislation nationwide

2. Supremacy of the Parliament over state legislatures

3. Formulation of laws on any matters not mentioned in State


List and Concurrent List.

4. The Parliamentary system of government in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only

Ans. c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: For uniformity of legislation nationwide


parliament make laws on matter present in Union list and concurrent list.

Statement 2 is not correct: This is not the main objective as the constitution
provides clear cut distribution of legislative powers between the centre and
the states.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 248 says that the parliament has exclusive
power to make laws on matters not present in union list, State list and
Concurrent list.

Statement 4 is not correct: There is a Parliamentary System of Government


in India because the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha. It
has nothing to do with residuary power of the Parliament.

Q,40. What are the benefits received by the political parties


recognised by the Election Commission?

1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols.

2. Access to electoral rolls.

3. Time for political broadcast on state owned television and


radio stations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only


(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation: Benefits received by recognised political parties include:

1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols. Every national party is allotted a


symbol exclusively reserved for its use throughout the country. Similarly,
every state party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use in the
state or states in which it is so recognised.

2. Access to electoral rolls.

3. Time for political broadcast on state owned television and radio-stations.

Q.41.Consider the following statements:

1. Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for


grants.

2. The expenditure made from the consolidate fund of India


can be discussed in Parliament but cannot be voted.

3. Policy cut motion reduce the amount of demand to zero.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two types of expenditures related to consolidated


fund of India. The expenditure made from the consolidate fund of India can be
discussed and voted in Parliament, whereas expenditure charged upon the
consolidate fund of India can be discussed in Parliament but cant be voted.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Policy cut motion reduce the amount of demand to Re 1.

Q.42. Gram Sabha as provided by 73rd Constitutional Amendment


Actis a body comprising of:

(a) All the adult members of the village coming under the
Panchayat area

(b) All the registered voters in the area of the Panchayat at the
village level.

(c) All graduates of three years standing and residing within the
area of Panchayat.
(d) All the elected members in the area of the Panchayat at the
village level.

Ans. b

Explanation: Gram Sabha is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral


rolls of a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is
a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat. It
may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the
legislature of a state determines.

Q.43.In the context of Indian federalism, consider the following


statements:

1. Parliament can change the area, boundary and name of


any state by special majority.

2. During National Emergency, Parliament can legislate on


state list.

3. States cannot remove officers of All India Services from


their service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect Parliament can change the area, boundary and


name of any state by simple majority not with the special majority.

Statement 2 is correct During National Emergency, the Parliament


assumes the power to make laws on subjects within the jurisdiction of the
States.

Statement 3 is correct Officers serves in the administration of the States,


are under the control of the central government. State cannot remove these
officers from service.

Q.44. With reference to All-India Services, consider the following


statements:

1. UPSC regulates the recruitment and the conditions of


service of the persons appointed to these services.

2. Their salaries and pensions are met by both the state and
the centre.

3. For the addition of new All India Service, a constitutional


amendment is required.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The officers of All-India Services are recruited by the central
government according to rules prescribed under All-India Services Act of 1951. The
constitution states that the parliament can make laws to regulate the recruitment and
conditions of service of the officers recruited under All-India Services. So All-India
Services Act was passed which assigned UPSC to conduct exams for the recruitment
in to the services.

Statement 2 is incorrect : The members of the All-India Services are recruited by the
Centre but their services are placed under various state cadres. But their salaries and
pensions are met by the States.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Addition of any new All-India Service does not require
amendment of the constitution. The Rajya can pass a resolution declaring it is
necessary to create a new All-India Service in the national interest then the parliament
can create a new All-India Service. On the same fashion India Forest Service was
established as the third All-India Service by the parliament.

Q.45. On which of the following grounds, the constitutional validity


of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged
in the Supreme Court?

1. When it infringes the Fundamental Rights.


2. When it is outside the competence of the authority which
has framed it.

3. When it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation: The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive


order cn be challenged in the Supreme Court on the following three grounds:

(a) it infringes the Fundamental Rights (Part III),

(b) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and

(c) it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.

Q.46. With reference to Special status of Jammu and Kashmir,


which of the following cannot be imposed by the President in the
state?

1. National Emergency
2. Financial Emergency

3. Presidents Rule

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. National Emergency cannot be imposed on the grounds of


internal disturbance. On other grounds, national Emergency can be imposed in
Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement 2 is correct. Financial Emergency cannot be imposed in Jammu and


Kashmir.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Presidents Rule can be imposed but only on the failure of
constitution of the State, not Indian Constitution.

Q.47. Consider the following pairs: Union Territory Name of High


Court
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands: Madras High Court

2. Lakshadweep Islands: Kerala High Court

3. Daman and Diu: Gujarat High Court

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the territorial
jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court.

Pair 2 is correctly matched.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Bombay HC has jurisdiction over Daman and diu and
Dadra and Nagar

Haveli. Even this HC has jurisdiction over Goa.

Q.48. Consider the following statements with regard to election


system in India:
1. India chose first past the post system because of its
cultural, religious and linguistic diersity.

2. All the members of Rajya Sabha are elected by


proportional representation system.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c ) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because India chose FPTP because of its


simplicity and popularity as at that time large population was illiterate and
would not have understood complex proportional representation system. If
it was the diversity which was considered, India should have chosen
Proportional representation.

Statement 2 is incorrect as there are also nominated members in Rajya


sabha.

Q.49. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the


financial powers of the President?
1. Demand for a grants can be introduced only after his prior
recommendation.

2. He certifies any bill as Money bill before being introduced


in the Parliament.

3. He constitutes a Finance Commission to recommend the


distribution of revenue between the centre and states.

4. He can make advances out of the contingency fund of


India without prior sanction of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 113(3) states that no Demands for Grant


shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Money bill can be introduced only after prior


recommendation of the President. However, Money bill is certified by Lok
Sabha Speaker and not by the President.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 280, President constitutes a Finance
commission every 5 years to distribute revenue between the Centre and the
state.

Statement 4 is correct: Contingency fund is at the disposal of the President


and no prior approval of the Parliament is required for appropriation from
this fund. However no money can be appropriated from the Consolidated
Fund of India without prior sanction of the Parliament.

Q.50. As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has which of the


following powers?

1. Its judgments and proceedings are recognized as legal


precedents and legal references in any court of law.

2. It has the power to punish for contempt of any court


including tribunals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. c

Explanation: As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two powers:


(a) The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for
perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary
value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognised
as legal precedents and legal references. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

(b) It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a
term up to six months or with fine up to `2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme
Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of
high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country.
Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Q.51. Consider the following statements:

1. Expenses of Supreme Court including the administrative


expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

2. Parliament can curtail the jurisdiction and powers of


Supreme Court only if Chief Justice of India has requested
to do so.

3. Parliament cannot discuss the Conduct of the judges even


during the impeachment motion is under consideration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only


(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The expenses like salaries, allowances and pensions of judges
and staff as well as all the administrative expenses of SC are charged on
Consolidated fund of India (Consolidated fund of States with respect to HC).

Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliament is not authorized to curtail the jurisdiction and


powers of SC.

However, parliament can extend the constitutionally guaranteed provisions with


respect SC jurisdiction.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Except during the impeachment motion under consideration,


conduct of judges cannot be discussed in parliament. Otherwise SC will be without
checks and balances.

Q.52. Consider the following statements:

1. In the absence of Speaker, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha


presides over the joint sitting.

2. Deputy speaker is responsible to the Speaker.

3. Chairman of Rajya Sabha can exercise a casting vote in


case of a tie.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. a

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: In the absence of Speaker, Deputy Speaker of Lok


Sabha presides over the joint sitting.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Deputy Speaker is responsible to the House and is


not sub ordinate to the Speaker.

Statement 3 is correct: Chairman of Rajya Sabha has a power of casting


vote but he do not have the power to vote at first instance.

Q.53. Which of the following circumstances is/are exempted for


disqualification under defection?

1. Merger of the party with another party by 2/3rd members.

2. Voluntarily giving-up the membership after being elected


as the presiding officer.

3. Split in the party by 1/3rd members.


Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct. If a member goes out of his party as a result of merger of the
party with another party, he/she is exempted. A merger takes place when 2/3rd of the
members of the party have agreed to such merger.

Statement 2 is Correct. If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the
house, voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her party or rejoins it after he/she
ceases to hold that office.

Statement 3 is Incorrect. This provision was deleted by 91st constitutional


amendment act and hence the defectors have no more protection on the grounds of
splits.

Q.54. Which of the following statements are correct regarding


ordinance making power of the President?

1. He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the


Houses of Parliament are not in session.
2. Ordinances cannot be introduced to amend tax laws or the
Constitution.

3. Ordinances cannot be promulgated retrospectively.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tribunals are not part of the integrated judicial system of
India. Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State
High Courts below it.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The service matters related to the employees of the PSU can
be brought under Central Administrative Tribunals or State Administartive Tribunals by
a notification.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 was passed by the
parliament and it led to the establishment of the Armed Forces Tribunal in India.

Q.55. With reference to Tribunals in India, consider the following


statements:
1. Tribunals are part of the Integrated Judiciary System of
India.

2. Tribunals do not cover the employees of the Public Sector


Undertakings

3. Armed Forces Tribunal is established by the Ministry of


Defence.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. d

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Tribunals are not part of the integrated judicial system of
India. Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State
High Courts below it.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The service matters related to the employees of the PSU can
be brought under Central Administrative Tribunals or State Administrative Tribunals by
a notification.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 was passed by the
parliament and it led to the establishment of the Armed Forces Tribunal in India.