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Class II Medical Excel 2016-17 Max. Marks 720

NEET Intensive Program Duration 3 Hours
Test 08 Date 28-12-2016
Topics Physics: Gravitation
Chemistry: Redox Reactions
Biology: Biomolecules, Cell cycle and Cell division
1. The test paper contains 180 multiple choice questions under four parts: Part I - Physics, Part II - Chemistry,
Part III - Biology. Answer all the questions.
2. Each question carries four marks for correct answer and one negative mark for wrong answer. Multiple markings
for the same question will be treated as wrong answer and will carry one negative mark.
3. For each question there are four options of which one option is correct. Choose the correct option and darken the
appropriate circle in the response sheet.
4. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself.
5. Calculator / Log table is not allowed.
OMR Instructions
1. Complete the particulars on side 1 of the OMR response sheet.
2. Ensure that the student ID is written on both sides of OMR response sheet.
3. Marking of more than one option for the same question will render the answer invalid.

1. At what height has above earth, the value of g becomes (where R = radius of earth)?
2 1 R (B) 2R
(C) 2 1 R (D)
2. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) A clock when taken on a mountain can be made to give correct time if we change the mass of the
bob of the pendulum suitably.
(B) An increase in value of g makes a clock go slow.
(C) If the length of a pendulum is increased, the clock becomes fast
(D) A clock when taken to a deep mine or carried to the top of a mountain becomes slow.
3. A satellite is revolving around the earth with a kinetic energy E. The minimum addition of kinetic energy
needed to make it escape from its orbit is
(A) 2 E (B) E (C) (D) E
4. If the earth shrinks in its radius by 4%, mass remaining the same, the value of g on its surface
(A) decreases by about 4% (B) increases by about 8%
(C) decreases by about 8% (D) remains constant
5. When a body is taken from poles to equator on the earth, its weight
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains the same
(D) increases at south pole and decreases at north pole
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6. The units of gravitational intensity(gravitational force per unit mass) is
(A) Nm2 kg2 (B) J kg1 (C) J (D) m s2

7. Two small and heavy spheres, each of mass M, are placed at a distance r apart on a horizontal surface.
The gravitational potential at the mid-point on the line joining the centres of the spheres is
(A) zero (B) (C) (D)
r r r
8. In a gravitational force field a particle is taken from A to B along different paths as shown in figure.
(A) work done along path I will be maximum
(B) work done along path III will be minimum
(C) work done along path IV will be maximum
(D) work done along all the paths will be the same

9. An astronaut on a strange planet finds that acceleration due to gravity is twice as that on the surface of
earth. Which of the following could explain this?
(A) Mass of the planet is half as that of earth but radius is same as that of earth
(B) Both the mass and radius of the planet are twice as that of earth
(C) Radius of the planet is half as that of earth but the mass is the same as that of earth
(D) Both the mass and radius of the planet are half as that of earth
10. Knowing that mass of Moon is , where M is the mass of Earth, find the distance of the point where
gravitational field due to Earth and Moon cancel each other, from the Moon. Given that distance between
Earth and Moon is 60 R, where R is the radius of Earth.
(A) 8 R (B) 4 R (C) 6 R (D) 2 R
11. A research satellite of mass 200 kg circles the earth in an orbit of average radius where R is the
radius of the earth. Assuming the gravitational pull on mass of 1 kg on the earths surface to be 10 N, the
pull on the satellite will be
(A) 880 N (B) 889 N (C) 890 N (D) 892 N

12. A body of mass is placed on earth surface which is taken from earth surface to a height on h = 3R, then
change in gravitational potential energy is
mgR 2 3 mgR
(A) (B) mgR (C) mgR (D)
4 3 4 2
13. A body has a weight 90 N on the earths surface, the mass of the moon is that of the earths mass and
its radius is that of the earths radius. On the moon the weight of the body is
(A) 45 N (B) 202.5 N (C) 90 N (D) 40 N
14. A satellite is rotating around a planet in the orbit of radius r with time period T. If gravitational force
changes according to r 2 , the T2 will be
7 9 3
(A) r (B) r2 (C) r2 (D) r2

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15. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earths surface, the gain in the potential energy of an object
of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is
1 1
(A) 2 mgR (B) mgR (C) mgR (D) mgR
2 4
16. The satellite of mass m revolving in a circular orbit of radius r around the earth has kinetic energy E.
Then its angular momentum will be
(A) 2
(B) (C) 2Emr 2 (D) 2Emr
mr 2mr 2

17. Average density of the earth

(A) is directly proportional to g (B) is inversely proportional to g
(C) doesnot depend on g (D) is a complex function of g

18. A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t1 to reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes time t 2 when
lift is moving up with constant acceleration. Then
(A) t1 > t2 (B) t2 > t1 (C) t1 = t2 (D) t1 > > t2

19. If both the mass and radius of earth decrease by 1% the value of
(i) acceleration due to gravity would increase by 1%
(ii) acceleration due to gravity would decrease by 1%
(iii) escape velocity from earths surface would decrease by 1%
(iv) the gravitational potential energy of a body on earths surface will remain unchanged
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv)

20. If R is the radius of a planet, g the acceleration due to gravity on its surface and G is the universal
gravitational constant, the mean density of the planet is
4G 3R 3g Rg
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3gR 4gG 4GR 12 G

21. A body of mass m is raised from the surface of the earth to a height nR (R = radius of earth). Magnitude
of the change in the gravitational potential energy of the body is (g = acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of the earth)
n n 1 mgR mgR
(A) mgR (B) mgR (C) (D)
n 1 n n ( n 1)

22. The gravitational potential energy of a body at a distance r from the centre of the earth is U, then its
weight at that point is
(A) 2 (B) (C) Ur (D) Ur2
r r

23. The acceleration due to gravity to a depth d is gd and at height h above the surface of earth is gh. If
d = 2h, then the ratio d is equal to
1 2 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
2 1 4

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24. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10 cm. Find
the work to be done against the gravitational force between them, to take the particle far away from the
sphere (you may take G = 6.67 1011 Nm2/kg2)
(A) 13.34 1010 J (B) 3.33 1010 J (C) 6.67 109 J (D) 6.67 1010 J

25. Infinite number of masses, each 2 kg, are placed along the x-axis at x = 1 m, 2m, 4 m, 8 m,16 m . . .. The
magnitude of the resultant gravitational potential in terms of gravitational constant G at the origin
(x = 0) is
(A) (B) G (C) 4 G (D) 8 G
26. A point of mass m is placed inside a spherical shell of radius R and mass M at a distance from the
centre of the shell. The gravitational force exerted by the shell on the point mass is
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) zero (D) 4
R R R2

27. Read the following statements

S1: An object shall weigh more at pole than at equator when weighed by using a physical balance.
S2: It shall weigh the same at pole and equator when weighed by using a physical balance
S3: It shall weigh the same at pole and equator when weighed by using a spring balance.
S4: It shall weigh more at the pole than at equator when weighed using a spring balance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) S1 and S2 (B) S1 and S4 (C) S2 and S3 (D) S2 and S4
28. The heights at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes (where g = acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of the earth) is n times the radius R of the earth where n is
(A) 3 (B)

(C) 3 1 (D) 3 1
29. Weightlessness while orbiting the earth, in spaceships, is the result of
(A) acceleration (B) inertia (C) zero gravity (D) centre of gravity

30. A body weighs W Newton at the surface of the earth, its weight at a height equal to half the radius of the
earth will be
W 2W 4W 8W
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 9 27
31. The angular velocity of earth at present is . With what angular velocity should it rotate so that weight of
a body at the equator appears to be zero?
(A) 289 (B) 17 (C) 8 (D) 2
32. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the
surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the radius of the earth is R, the radius of
the planet would be
1 1
(A) 4 R (B) R (C) R (D) 2 R
4 2

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33. The moon is revolving in a circular orbit around earth with a uniform speed V. If the gravitational force
suddenly disappears, the moon will
(A) continue to move with speed V along the original orbit
(B) fall downward to earth with increasing velocity
(C) finally come to rest somewhere on the original path
(D) move with the velocity V tangentially to the original orbit
34. A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio of work done by force of gravity in first, second and
third second of the motion of the ball is
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 4 : 9 (C) 1 : 3 : 5 (D) 1 : 5 : 3
35. If a body of mass m is raised from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is comparable to the
radius of earth R, the work done is
h h mgh
(A) mgh (B) mgh 1 (C) mgh 1 (D)
R R h

36. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 2
2 2

37. Acceleration due to gravity g for a body of mass m on earths surface is proportional to (Radius of
earth = R, mass of earth = M)
1 1
(A) 2 (B) m0 (C) mM (D) 3
38. The ratio between the value of acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above and at a depth of 1 km
below the earths surface is (radius of earth is R)
R2 R R2 2R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 1 R 1 R R 1
39. If the distance between the earth and the sun were to reduce to one fourth of the present value, the length
of the year would have been
(A) half of the present year (B) one fourth of the present year
(C) one sixth of the present year (D) one eighth of the present year

40. Two satellites S and S revolve around the earth at distance 3R and 6R from the centre of the earth. Their
periods of revolution will be in the ratio
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 21.5 (D) 1 : 20.67

41. Gravitational attraction of earth on a stone of mass M is FS and that on a hydrogen balloon of mass M

located at same distance from center of earth is FB . Then,

(A) FS > Fb (B) FS < Fb (C) FS = FB (D) FS = FB
42. If V is the gravitational potential on the surface of the earth then what is its value at the centre of the
(A) 2V (B) 3V (C) 3/2 V (D) 2/3 V
43. If the spinning speed of the earth if increased, then the weight of the body at equator
(A) Does not change (B) Doubler (C) Decreases (D) Increases

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44. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated A in air and the gravitational force between them is The
space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force will now
(A) F (B) F/3 (C) F/9 (D) 3F
45. Two identical spheres of same material are in contact with each other. If r be the radius of the sphere,
then gravitational attraction between them is proportional to
(A) r (B) r2 (C) r3 (D) r4

46. Oxidation is process which involves
(A) de-electro nation (B) electro-nation
(C) addition of hydrogen (D) addition of metal
47. The decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2 on heating is an example of
(A) intermolecular redox change (B) intra-molecular redox change
(C) disproportionation or auto redox change (D) none of these
48. Conversion of PbSO4 to PbS is
(A) reduction of S (B) oxidation of S
(C) dissociation (D) none of these
49. Which is not a redox reaction?
(A) BaO2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + H2O2 (B) 2BaO + O2 2 BaO2
(C) 4 KClO3 4 KClO2 + 2O2 (D) SO2 + 2H2S 3S + 2H2O
50. Fluorine is a strong oxidising agent because
(A) it has several isotopes
(B) it is very small and has 7 electrons in valency shell
(C) its valency is one
(D) it is the first member of the halogen series

51. It is found that V forms a double salt isomorphous with Mohrs salt. The oxidation number of V in this
compound is
(A) +3 (B) +2 (C) + 4 (D) 4

52. Stronger is oxidising agent, more is

(A) standard reduction potential of the species
(B) the tendency to get itself oxidised
(C) the tendency to lose electrons by that species
(D) standard oxidation potential of that species

53. In which reaction the underlined substance has been reduced?

(A) Carbon oxide + copper oxide carbon dioxide + copper
(B) Copper oxide + hydrochloric acid water + copper chloride
(C) Steam + iron hydrogen + iron oxide
(D) Hydrogen + iron oxide water + iron

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54. When Fe metal is rusted then Fe is
(A) oxidised (B) reduced (C) hydrolysed (D) precipitated

55. In the reaction,

Cr2 O72 14H 6I 2Cr 3 7H 2 O 3I 2 , which elements is reduced
(A) I (B) O (C) H (D) Cr

56. In the preparation of chlorine from HCl, MnO2 acts as

(A) reducing agent (B) oxdising agent
(C) catalytic agent (D) dehydrating agent

57. What would happen when a small quantity of H2O2 is added to a solution of FeSO4?
(A) Colour disappears (B) H2 is evolved
(C) An electron is added to Fe (D) An electron is lost by Fe2+
58. In the reaction; 3Br2 6CO32 3H 2 O 5Br BrO3 6HCO3 which statement is correct
(A) Br2 is oxidised (B) Br2 is reduced
(C) Br2 is neither oxidised nor reduced (D) Br2 is oxidised and reduced

59. Which reaction does not involve change in oxidation state in all its compounds?
(A) VO2 V2O3 (B) Na Na
(C) CrO 24 Cr2O 27 (D) Zn 2 Zn

60. The most stable oxidation state of copper is

(A) + 2 (B) + 1 (C) +3 (D) + 4

61. Which change requires a reducing agent?

(A) CrO24 Cr2 O 72 (B) BrO3 BrO
(C) H2O2 O2 (D) Al(OH)3 Al(OH) 4

62. The oxidation state of Ni in Ni(CO)4 is

(A) zero (B) + 4 (C) + 8 (D) + 2
63. Carbon reacts with oxygen to from two oxides, CO and CO2. This is because
(A) carbon has two crystalline forms (B) carbon has two oxidation states
(C) oxygen donates as well as accept electrons (D) oxygen has a strong affinity for carbon
64. In the reaction 2Ag + 2H2SO4 Ag2SO4 + 2H2O + SO2, H2SO4 act as
(A) oxidising agent (B) reducing agent
(C) dehydrating agent (D) none of these
65. In the reaction 2Na2S2O3 + I2 Na2S4O6 + 2 Nal. the oxidation state of sulphur is
(A) decreased (B) increased (C) unchanged (D) none of these

66. In which reaction is hydrogen acting as an oxidising agent?

(A) With iodine to given hydrogen iodide (B) With lithium to given lithium hydride
(C) With nitrogen to given ammonia (D) With sulphur to give hydrogen sulphide

67. Addition of zinc powder to CuSO4 solution precipitates copper due to

(A) reduction of Cu2+ (B) reducation of SO 24
(C) reduction of Zn (D) hydrolysis of CuSO4

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68. In the reaction between acidified K2Cr2O7 and iron (II) ions shown by the equation;
Cr2 O72 (aq) 6Fe 2 (aq) 14H (aq) 2Cr 3 (aq) 7H 2O(l ) 6Fe3 (aq)
(A) the colour of the solution changes from green to blue
(B) the iron (II) ions are reduced
(C) the dichromate ions are reduced
(D) hydrogen ions are reduced

69. In the reaction of O3 and H2O2, the later acts as

(A) oxidising agent (B) reducing agent
(C) bleaching agent (D) both oxidising and bleaching agent

70. Fluorine exhibits only-1 oxidation state, while iodine exhibits oxidation states of 1, +1, +3, +5 and +7.
This is due to
(A) fluorine being a gas (B) available d-orbitals in iodine
(C) non- availability of d-orbitals in iodine (D) none of the above
71. H2S reacts with halogens, the halogens
(A) are oxidised (B) are reduced (C) form sulphur halides (D) none of these
72. In the reaction, C + 4 HNO3 CO2 + 2H2O + 4 NO2,HNO3 acts as
(A) an oxidising agent (B) an acid
(C) an acid as well as oxidising agent (D) an reducing agent
73. In the aluminothermic process, aluminum acts as
(A) an oxidising agent (B) a flux (C) a reducing agent (D) a solder
74. Saline hydrides are
(A) strong oxidants (B) strong reductants
(C) strong dehydrating agents (D) strong bleaching agents
75. The oxoacid which acts both as oxidising and reducing agent is
(A) H2SO4 (B) H3PO4 (C) HNO2 (D) HClO4
76. Which metal exhibits more than one oxidation state?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Ca (D) Fe
77. In the reaction H2O2 + Na2CO3 Na2O2 + CO2 + H2O the substance undergoing oxidation is
(A) H2O2 (B) Na2CO3 (C) Na2O2 (D) None of these

78. Which is a redox reaction?

(A) H2SO4 + 2NaOH Na2SO4 + 2H2O
(B) BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + 2HCl
(D) 2FeCl3 + SnCl2 FeCl2 + SnCl4
79. LiAlH4 is used as
(A) oxidising agent (B) reducing agent (C) a mordant (D) water softner

80. In presence of moisture SO2 can

(A) gain electrons (B) lose electrons
(C) acts as oxidising agent (D) does not act as reducing agent

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81. The equivalent mass of a reductant or an oxidant is given by
molar mass of reductant or oxidant
(A) Eq. mass
Number of electrons lost or gained by1 molecule of reductant or oxidant
molar mass
(B) Eq. mass
molar mass
(C) Eq. mass
total charge on cation or anion
(D) All of the above

82. KMnO4 acts as indicator in its redox reactions.

(A) self (B) external (C) internal (D) not an

83. Which one is not a redox titration?

(A) FeSO4 vs. K2Cr2O7 (B) CuSO4 vs. hypo
(C) I2 vs. Na2S2O3 (D) AgNO3 vs. KCl

84. The oxidation numbers of manganese in KMnO4. MnSO4 and K2MnO4 are
(A) +7, +2, +6 respectively (B) +6, +5, +4 respectively
(C) +2, +3, +4 respectively (D) +7

85. The oxidation number of sulfur in S2F2 and H2S respectively will be
(A) +1, +2 (B) +2, +1 (C) 0, +1 (D) +1, 2
86. Which among the following is a disproportionation reaction?
(A) P4 OH H 2 PO 4 PH 3
(B) Pb (NO3)2 PBO + NO2 + O2
(C) MnO 4 MnO 2 MnO 42 O 2
(D) All the above

87. The equivalent mass of potassium dichromate as an oxidising agent in acid medium is
(A) 2/3 of its molecular mass (B) 1/3 of its molecular mass
(C) 1/6 of its molecular mass (D) 1/2 of its molecular mass.

88. Which one of the following chemical reactions depicts the oxidising behaviour of H2SO4?
(A) NaCl + H2SO4 NaHSO4 + HCl
(B) PCl5 + H2SO4 2 POCl3 + 2 HCl + SO2 Cl2
(C) 2 HI + H2SO4 I2 + SO2 + 2H2O
(D) Ca (OH)2 HSO4 CaSO4 + 2H2O
89. A compound contains atoms of three elements A, B and C with the following oxidation number
A = +2; B = + 5; C = 2 Possible formula of the compound is
(A) A2 (BC3)2 (B) A3 (BC4)2 (C) A2 (B4C)2 (D) ABC2
90. The equivalent mass of MnSO4 is half of its molecular mass when it is converted to
(A) Mn2O3 (B) MnO2 (C) MnO 4 (D) MnO 24


91. The four elements called big-four which make up 95% of all elements found in a living system are
(A) C, H, O, N (B) C, H, O, P (C) C, H, O, S (D) C, N, O, P

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 9
92. Biomolecules are
(A) inorganic materials
(B) organic materials
(C) all the carbon compounds obtained from living tissues
(D) only DNA and RNA
93. Biological molecules are primarily joined by
(A) peptide bonds (B) ionic bonds (C) hydrogen bonds (D) covalent bonds.
94. Essential amino acids include
(A) leucine (B) valine (C) tryptophan (D) all of these.
95. Which of the two groups of the given formula is involved in peptide bond formation between different
amino acids?

(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4

96. Which of the following is the correct match?
Basic amino Neutral amino
acid acid
(A) Glutamic acid Lysine Valine
(B) Lysine Valine Glutamic acid
(C) Glutamic acid Valine Lysine
(D) Lysine Glutamic acid Valine
97. The 20 different amino acids have different
(A) R-groups (B) carboxylic groups
(C) peptide bonds (D) amino groups.
98. The component present in both nucleotides and nucleosides is
(A) sugar (B) phosphate
(C) nitrogenous base (D) both (A) and (C)
99. Primary structure of proteins is due to the presence of
(A) peptide bonds (B) disulphide (SS) linkages
(C) hydrogen bonds (D) ionic bonds
100. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Haemoglobin is an example of quaternary structure of proteins.
Statement 2: Haemoglobin molecule is composed of four polypeptide chains-two -chains and two
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 10
101. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
a. Tetrose sugar (i) Galactose
b. Pentose sugar (ii) Maltose
c. Hexose sugar (iii) Erythrose
d. Disaccharide (iv) Ribose
(v) Sedoheptulose
(A) a-(v); b-(iv); c-(iii); d-(i), (ii) (B) a-(iii); b-(iv); c-(v); d-(ii)
(C) a-(iii); b-(iv); c-(i); d-(ii) (D) a-(i); (ii) b-(iv); c-(iii); d-(v)
102. The polysaccharides made up of glucose monomers are
(A) sucrose, lactose, maltose (B) chitin, glycogen, starch
(C) starch, glycogen, cellulose (D) starch, inulin, peptidoglycan.
103. Read the given statements.
(i) Fructose is the sweetest sugar.
(ii) Glycine is the simplest amino acid.
(iii) Lactose is a disaccharide composed of one molecule each of glucose and galactose.
(iv) Cellulose is an unbranched chain of glucose and fructose molecules linked by -1, 4-glycosidic
Which of the given statements are correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
104. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
a. Cotton fibre (i) Starch
b. Exoskeleton of cockroach (ii) Glycogen
c. Liver (iii) Chitin
d. Peeled potato (iv) Inulin
e. Roots of Dahlia (v) Cellulose
(A) a-(v), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i), e-(v) (B) a-(v), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv), e-(ii)
(C) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(v), e-(iv) (D) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(v), d-(iv), e-(i)
105. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Galactose (i) Protein
B. Anticoagulant (ii) Phospholipid
C. Fructose (iii) Brain sugar
D. Lecithin (iv) Heparin
E. Insulin (v) Fruit sugar
(A) a-(v), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i), e-(iv) (B) a-(v), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv), e-(i)
(C) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(v), e-(iv) (D) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(v), d-(ii), e-(i)
106. How many carbon atoms are generally used in composition of monosaccharides?
(A) 3 to 7 (B) 1 to 5 (C) 5 to 10 (D) 5 to 15
107. Take a living tissue, grind it in trichloroacetic acid using pestle and mortar, and then strain it, you would
obtain two fractions: acid-soluble and acid-insoluble fraction. Acid insoluble fraction does not contains
(A) polysaccharides (B) nucleic acids
(C) lipids (D) flavonoids and alkaloids.

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 11
108. Select the option that correctly identifies the chemical bonds present in the given biomolecules.
Polysaccharides A, Proteins B, Fats C, Water D
(A) Ester Peptide Glycosidic Hydrogen
(B) Glycosidic Peptide Ester Hydrogen
(C) Glycosidic Peptide Hydrogen Ester
(D) Hydrogen Ester Peptide Glycosidic
109. Study the given statements and select the correct answer
(i) Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose.
(ii) Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose.
(iii) Starch gives blue colour and glycogen gives red colour with iodine solution.
(iv) Cellulose gives no colour with iodine solution.
(A) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(B) Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) All statements are correct.
110. _______is the most abundant protein in animal world and ______ is the most abundant protein in the
whole biosphere.
(A) Collagen, RuBisCO (B) Collagen, keratin
(C) Keratin, RuBisCO (D) Keratin, collagen
111. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding chitin?
(A) It is a storage polysaccharide.
(B) It is a homopolysaccharide.
(C) It is a constituent of arthropod exoskeleton and fungal cell wall.
(D) It is the second most abundant carbohydrate on earth.
112. Reducing sugars are those which can reduce Cu+2 ions to Cu+ state. On that basis which of the following
can be considered as a non-reducing sugar?
(A) Sucrose (B) Maltose
(C) Glucose (D) Fructose
113. Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid?
(A) Oleic acid (B) Linoleic acid
(C) Arachidonic acid (D) Palmitic acid
114. Which of the following is a triglyceride?
(A) Wax (B) Phospholipid
(C) Oil (D) Steroid
115. Saturated fatty acids possess _____ bonds between carbon atoms and are ______at room temperature.
(A) single, solids (B) double, solids
(C) single, liquids (D) double, liquids
116. Triglycerides are fatty acid esters of glycerol, which are formed by the esterification of _____
molecule(s) of fatty acids with __________ molecule(s) of glycerol.
(A) one, two (B) one, three
(C) three, one (D) two, one

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117. Given structural formula is correctly identified along with its
related function by which of the following options?

(A) Cholesterol A component of animal cell membrane

(B) Lecithin A component of cell membrane
(C) Triglyceride An energy source
(D) Adenosine A component of nucleic acids

118. Identify the given structural formulae and select the correct option.

1 2
(A) Adenine Uracil
(B) Guanine Thymine
(C) Adenine Guanine
(D) Cytosine Thymine
119. Refer the given reactions.
(i) Adenine + X Adenosine
(ii) Adenosine + Y Adenylic acid. What does X and Y represent here?
(A) Phosphate group Sugar molecule
(B) Sugar molecule Phosphate group
(C) Sugar molecule Nitrogenous base
(D) Nitrogenous base Sugar molecule
120. Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine, cytidine are all _________but adenylic acid, guanylic acid,
uridylic acid, cytidylic acid are ________.
(A) nucleotides, nucleosides
(B) nucleosides, nucleotides
(C) nucleotides, nucleic acids
(D) nucleosides, nucleic acids
121. In a DNA molecule, the phosphate group is attached to _______carbon of the sugar residue of its own
nucleotide and ___________ carbon of the sugar residue of the next nucleotide by _________bonds.
(A) 5, 3, phosphodiester (B) 5, 3, glycosidic
(C) 3, 5, phosphodiester (D) 3, 5, glycosidic
122. Pyrimidines have nitrogen atoms at ________positions.
(A) 1, 3, 7, 9 (B) 1, 5, 7, 9
(C) 1, 3 (D) 1, 9

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123. B-DNA which is right-handed double helix contains_______base pairs per turn of the helix and each
turn is __________ long.
(A) 10, 3.4 (B) 10, 34 (C) 11, 20 (D) 11, 34
124. Which bonds are indicated by X and Y in the given diagram?

(A) Glycosidic bond Hydrogen bond
(B) Phosphodiester bond Hydrogen bond
(C) Glycosidic bond Phosphodiester bond
(D) Phosphodiester bond Glycosidic bond
125. Which of the following secondary metabolites are used as drugs?
(A) Abrin and ricin (B) Vinblastin and curcumin
(C) Anthocyanins (D) Gums and cellulose
126. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I (Category) Column-II (Secondary metabolities)
a. Pigments (i) Concanavalin A
b. Terpenoids (ii) Monoterpenes, diterpenes
c. Alkaloids (iii) Morphine, codeine
d. Lectins (iv) Carotenoids, anthocyanins
(A) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i) (B) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(C) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii) (D) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
127. Michaelis Menten Constant (Km) is equal to
(A) the rate of reaction
(B) the rate of enzymatic activity
(C) substrate concentration at which the reaction attains half of its maximum velocity
(D) substrate concentration at which the rate of reaction is maximum.

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128. Feed back inhibition of an enzyme is influenced by
(A) enzyme itself (B) external factors
(C) end product (D) substrate

Read the given statements and select the correct option

(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
129. Statement 1: Low temperature destroys enzymes by causing their denaturation.
Statement 2: High temperature preserves the enzymes in their inactive stage.
130. Statement 1: Ribozymes are RNA molecules which catalyze the synthesis of certain specific RNAs and
removal of introns from mRNA.
Statement 2: Ribozymes are proteinaceous enzymes.
Enzyme A
131. Refer the given reaction. C12 H 22 O11 H 2 O 2C6 H12 O 6 . Enzyme A used in the reaction,
Maltose Glu cose

belongs to which class of enzymes?

(A) Dehydrogenases (B) Transferases (C) Hydrolases (D) Lyases
132. What is denoted by X and Y in the given graph?

(A) Activation energy without enzyme Activation energy with enzyme
(B) Activation energy with enzyme Activation energy without enzyme
(C) Substrate concentration with enzyme Substrate concentration without enzyme
(D) Substrate concentration without enzyme Substrate concentration with enzyme
133. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle
Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell

(A) B-Metaphase (B) C-Karyokinesis

(C) D-Synthetic phase (D) A-Cytokinesis

134. Normal cellular activities, such as protein synthesis occur primarily during
(A) Interphase (B) Anaphase (C) Metaphase (D) Prophase
135. DNA and histone proteins are synthesized during the following phase of cell cycle
(A) S phase (B) G2 phase (C) G1 phase (D) None of these

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136. Calcium dependent kinases can control
(A) Cell cycle activities (B) DNA replication
(C) Cell surface receptor (D) Membrane structure
137. Read the following statements about cell division and select the correct answer.
(i) M phase represents the phase when actual cell division occurs and I phase represents the phase
between two successive M phases.
(ii) In the 24 hours average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts for only
about an hour.
(iii) M phase constitutes more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
138. Which one is the correct sequence of a cell cycle?
(A) G2 M G1 S (B) S G2 M G1
(C) G1 S G2 M (D) M G1 S G2
139. Which of the following statements is correct regarding G0 phase?
(A) Mitogens are present in G0 phase
(B) Mitogens are present but energy rich compounds are absent
(C) Both mitogen and energy rich compounds are present
(D) Neither mitogen nor energy rich compounds are present
140. Select the correct statement about G1 phase.
(A) Cell is metabolically inactive.
(B) DNA in the cell does not replicate.
(C) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules.
(D) Cell stops growing.
141. In eukaryotic cell cycle, cell fusion experiments show that
(A) When a S-phase cell is fused with a G1-phase cell, G1- phase cell is stimulated to synthesize DNA
(B) When a S-phase cell is fused with a G2-phase cell. DNA synthesis is induced in G2-phase cell.
(C) When a G1-phase cell is fused with a G2-phase cell, DNA synthesis is induced in both G1 and G2
phase cells
(D) When a G1-phase cell is fused with an M-phase cell both G and M phase cells are stimulated to
synthesise DNA
142. The replication of centrioles occurs during
(A) Early prophase (B) Late prophase
(C) Late telophase (D) Interphase
143. Pick out the correct statements cell divisions asexually reproducing organisms
(a) Mitosis takes place in the somatic cells and meiosis takes place in the germ cells
(b) During mitosis, the DNA replicates once for -one cell division and in meiosis the DNA replicates
twice for two
(c) Mitosis and meiosis occur in sexually reproducing organism
(A) (a) only (B) (b) only
(C) (c) only (D) (a) and (c) only
144. Best material for studying mitosis in laboratory is
(A) leaf tip (B) shoot tip
(C) root tip (D) gamete

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 16
145. Which one of the following precedes re-formation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell
(A) Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast
(B) Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes
(C) Decondensation of chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
(D) Transcription from chromosomes, and ressembly of the nuclear lamina
146. During cell division, the spindle fibres get attached to condensing chromosome at a highly differentiated
region, this region is called as
(A) chromomere (B) chromocentre
(C) centriole (D) kinetochore
147. The term mitosis was proposed by
(A) Flemming (B) Farmer (C) Moore (D) Boveri
148. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
a. Disintegration of nuclear membrane (i) Anaphase
b. Appearance of nucleolus (ii) Prophase
c. Division of centromere (iii) Telophase
d. Replication of DNA (iv) S-phase
(A) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) (B) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(C) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) (D) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
149. The given diagram shows a cell

Which of the following statements related to the image is not correct?

(A) The nuclear envelope is disappearing (B) The cell furrow is forming
(C) It is an animal cell (D) It is in telophase
150. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below:
Column-I Column-II
a. V-shaped at anaphase (i) Acrocentric chromosome
b. L-shaped at anaphase (ii) Metacentric chromosome
c. J-shaped at anaphase (iii) Telocentric chromosome
d. I-shaped at anaphase (iv) Sub-metacentric chromosome
(A) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii) (B) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(C) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i) (D) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
151. In which stage of cell division chromosomes are most condensed?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
152. What does (i) and (ii) represent in the given flowchart?
Parent cell Daughter cells 4 Daughter cells
(2n) (i) (ii)

(A) (i) = 2n (ii) = n (B) (i) = n (ii) = n

(C) (i) = n (ii) = 2n (D) (i) = 2n (ii) = 2n

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 17
153. While working in a lab, a student forgot to add colchicine while karyotyping through blood culture
technique, Then what will happen
(A) Mitosis will be arrested at metaphase
(B) Chromosomal division will continue and each chromosome will have four arms
(C) Chromosomal division will continue
(D) Mitosis will be arrested at telophase
154. Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively
(A) Prophase Anaphase
(B) Metaphase Telophase
(C) Telophase Metaphase
(D) Late Anaphase Prophase
155. Which is not true for anaphase?
(A) Golgi body and ER are reformed
(B) Chromosomes move to opposite poles
(C) Spindle poles move farther apart
(D) Centromeres split and chromatids separate
156. Centrioles undergo duplication during (i) of (ii) and begin to move towards opposite poles of the cell
during (iii) stage of (iv).
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) S phase Interphase Prophase Mitosis
(B) S phase Interphase Anaphase Mitosis
(C) Prophase Mitosis Metaphase Mitosis
(D) Prophase Mitosis Anaphase Mitosis
157. Which stage connecting link between Meiosis I and Meiosis II
(A) Interphase I (B) Interphase II (C) lnterkinesis (D) Anaphase I
158. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of ______ proteins.
(A) tubulin (B) myosin (C) actin (D) actomyosin
159. Match List I and list II and select the correct answer using the code given below in the lists:
List I List II
(Phase of meiosis) (Event that occurs)
(1) Prophase I Crossing over occurs
(2) Metaphase I Sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles
(3) Anaphase I Homologous line up at equator in pairs
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
(C) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false (D) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
160. Chromosome number is halved in meiosis during
(A) Metaphase-I (B) Anaphase-I (C) Metaphase-II (D) Telophase-I
161. Amitosis usually occurs in
(A) eukaryotic cells (B) prokaryotic cells
(C) meristems (D) spore mother cells.
162. During the G1 phase of cell division
(A) RNA and Proteins are synthesised (B) DNA and Proteins are synthesised
(C) Cell prepares for M phase (D) Cell undergo duplication

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 18
Direction: Refer the following statements describing prophase- I of meiosis and answer the
Q. Nos. 163 and 164
(i) Thin thread like chromosomes with a beaded appearance
(ii) Appearance of recombination nodules
(iii) Formation of bivalents/tetrads
(iv) Terminalisation of chiasrnata
(v) Appearance of chiasmata
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(A) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene Diakinesis
(B) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene Diakinesis Diplotene
(C) Leptotene Pachytene Zygotene Diakinesis Diplotene
(D) Leptotene Pachytene Diplotene Zygotene Diakinesis
Arrange the given statements in the correct sequence of their occurrence during prophase I.
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(C) (i) (iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (v)
164. Invisible stage of M-Phase is
(A) G1 phase (B) S phase (C) G2 phase (D) G0 phase
165. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
(A) Phragmoplast Persistent spindle
(B) Heterotypic division Meiosis I
(C) Homotypic division Meiosis II
(D) Crossing over Non-homologous chromosomes
166. Identify the given figures showing meiotic phases and
select the correct option.
(A) Metaphase Anaphase Telophase
(B) Metaphase-I Anaphase-I Telophase-I
(C) Metaphase-II Anaphase-II Telophase-II
(D) Anaphase-I Metaphase-I Telophase-I
167. An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many PMCs must have been there to produce them?
(A) 1200 (B) 300 (C) 150 (D) 2400

168. The given figure shows a cell undergoing in Prophase I

Keeping the diagram in view which of the following diagram is correct for one of the cell at the end of

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 19
169. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called
(A) Axoneme (B) Equatorial plate
(C) Kinetochore (D) Bivalent
170. During meiosis - I in humans, one of the daughter cells receives
(A) only maternal chromosomes
(B) a mixture of maternal and paternal chromosomes
(C) same number of chromosomes as present in parent cell
(D) none of these
171. Beads on string like structures of A are seen in B, which further condense to form chromosomes in C
stage of cell division. What are A, B and C
(A) Chromonema Chromatin Metaphase
(B) Chromatin Chromatid Metaphase
(C) Chromonema Chromosome Anaphase
(D) Chromonema Chromatid anaphase
172. The significance of meiosis lies in
(A) Reduction of the diploid number of chromosomes to haploid
(B) Maintaining constancy in the number of diploid chromosomes during sexual reproduction
(C) Production of genetic variability in the population of a species
(D) All the above
173. Study the following lists
List I List II
(a) Initiation of spindle fibre (I) Anaphase-I
(b) Synthesis of RNA and protein (II) Zygotene
(c) Action of endonuclease (III) G1 phase
(d) Movement of chromatids towards opposite poles (IV) Pachytene
(V) Anaphase-II
The correct match is
a b c d a b c d

Assertion and Reason

(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both assertion and reason are false.
174. Assertion: Reduction division occurs in anaphase-l. So there is no need of meiosis.
Reason: Meiosis-II occurs to separate homologous chromosomes.
175. Assertion: Prophase is the first stage of mitosis which follows S and G1 phases of interphase.
Reason: Prophase is marked by the initiation of clusters of chromosomes.
176. Assertion: Variations are important for the process of evolution.
Reason: Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to
the next.

2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 20
177. Assertion: Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic material on the two chromosomes.
Reason: Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes.
178. Assertion: The living state is a equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work.
Reason: living process is a constant effort to prevent falling into non-equilibrium.
179. Assertion :Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
Reason: Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
180. Assertion: The long protein chain is folded upon itself like a hollow ball giving rise to the tertiary
Reason: Tertiary structure gives a 3-dimensional view of a protein.


2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 21
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2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 22
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2ME1617PCB(NIP)T8 23