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# ROBEL, Melvin M.

## ELECTRONICS PRINCIPLES (6th Edition)

TIP/ Manila By: Albert Paul Malvino

## Chapter 1 INTRODUCTION 11. The Norton current is sometimes called the

1. An ideal voltage source has b. Open-load current
a. Zero internal resistance c. Thevenin current
b. Infinite internal resistance d. Thevenin voltage
d. A load-dependent current 12. A solder bridge
a. may produce a short
2. A real voltage source has b. may cause an open
a. Zero internal resistance c. is useful in some circuits
b. Infinite internal resistance d. always has high resistance
c. A small internal resistance
d. A large internal resistance 13. A cold-solder joint
a. shows good soldering technique
3. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff voltage source has a b. usually produces an open
resistance of c. is sometimes useful
a. At least 10 ohm d. always has low resistance
b. Less than 10 ohm
c. More than 100 kohm 14. An open resistor has
d. Less than 100 kohm a. Infinite current through it
b. Zero voltage across it
4. An ideal current source has c. Infinite voltage across it
a. Zero internal resistance d. Zero current through it
b. Infinite internal resistance
c. A load-dependent voltage 15. A shorted resistor has
d. A load-dependent current a. Infinite current through it
b. Zero voltage across it
5. A real current source has c. Infinite voltage across it
a. Zero internal resistance d. Zero current through it
b. Infinite internal resistance
c. A small internal resistance 16. An ideal voltage source and an internal resistance is an
d. A large internal resistance example of the
a. Ideal approximation
6. If a load resistance is 1 kohm, a stiff current source has a b. Second approximation
resistance of c. Higher approximation
a. At least 10 ohm d. Exact model
b. Less than 10 ohm
c. More than 100 kohm 17. Treating a connecting wire as a conductor with zero
d. Less than 100 kohm resistance is an example of the
a. Ideal approximation
7. The Thevenin voltage is the same as the b. Second approximation
a. Shorted-load voltage c. Higher approximation
b. Open-load voltage d. Exact model
c. Ideal source voltage
d. Norton voltage 18. The voltage out of an ideal voltage source
a. Is zero
8. The Thevenin resistance is equal in value to the b. Is constant
b. Half the load resistance d. Depends on the internal resistance
c. Internal resistance of a Norton circuit
d. Open-load resistance 19. The current out of an ideal current source
a. Is zero
9. To get the Thevenin voltage, you have to b. Is constant
a. Short the load resistor c. Depends on the value of load resistance
b. Open the load resistor d. Depends on the internal resistance
c. Short the voltage source
d. Open the voltage source 20. Thevenins theorem replaces a complicated circuit
10. To get the Norton current, you have to a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor
a. Short the load resistor b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor
b. Open the load resistor c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor
c. Short the voltage source d. Ideal current source and series resistor
d. Open the current source
21. Nortons theorem replaces a complicated circuit facing a 6. Which is the most widely used semiconductor?
a. Ideal voltage source and parallel resistor b. Germanium
b. Ideal current source and parallel resistor c. Silicon
c. Ideal voltage source and series resistor d. None of the above
d. Ideal current source and series resistor
7. How many protons does the nucleus of a silicon atom
22. One way to short a device is contain?
a. With a cold-solder joint a. 4
b. With a solder bridge b. 14
c. By disconnecting it c. 29
d. By opening it d. 32

23. Derivations are 8. Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a
a. Discoveries a. Covalent bond
b. Inventions b. Crystal
c. Produced by mathematics c. Semiconductor
d. Always called theorems d. Valence orbit

24. Laws are proved by 9. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room
a. Definition temperature. What causes these holes?
b. Experiment a. Doping
c. Mathematics b. Free electrons
d. Formulas c. Thermal energy
d. Valence electrons
25. Definitions are
a. Man made 10. Each valence electron in an intrinsic semiconductor
b. Invented establishes a
c. Made up a. Covalent bond
d. All of the above b. Free electron
c. Hole
d. Recombination
Chapter 2 SEMICONDUCTORS
11. The merging of a free electron and a hole is called
1. The nucleus of a copper atom contains how many a. Covalent bonding
a. 1 c. Recommendation
b. 4 d. Then-nal energy
c. 18
d. 29 12. At room temperature an intrinsic silicon crystal acts
approximately like
2. The net charge of a neutral copper atom is a. A battery
a. 0 b. A conductor
b. +1 c. An insulator
c. -1 d. A piece of copper wire
d. +4
13. The amount of time between the creation of a hole and
3. Assume the valence electron is removed from a copper its disappearance is called
atom. The net charge of the atom becomes a. Doping
b. + 1 c. Recombination
c. -1 d. Valence
d. +4
14. The valence electron of a conductor is also called a
4. The valence electron of a copper atom experiences what a. Bound electron
kind of attraction toward the nucleus? b. Free electron
a. None c. Nucleus
b. Weak d. Proton
c. Strong
d. Impossible to say 15. A conductor has how many types of flow?
a. 1
5. How many valence electrons does a silicon atom have? b, 2
a. 0 c. 3
b. 1 d. 4
c. 2
d. 4 16. A semiconductor has how many types of flow?
a. 1
b. 2 d. 5
c. 3
d. 4 27. A donor atom has how many valence electrons?
a. 1
17. When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor, holes will b. 3
flow c. 4
a. Away from the negative potential d. 5
b. Toward the positive potential
c. In the external circuit 28. If you wanted to produce a p-type semiconductor, which
d. None of the above of these would you use?
a. Acceptor atoms
18. A conductor has how many holes? b. Donor atoms
a. Many c. Pentavalent impurity
b. None d. Silicon
c. Only those produced by thermal energy
d. The same number as free electrons 29. Holes are the minority carriers in which type of
semiconductor?
19. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free a. Extrinsic
electrons b. Intrinsic
a. Equals the number of holes c. n-type
b. Is greater than the number of holes d. p-type
c. Is less than the number of holes
d. None of the above 30. How many free electrons does a p-type semiconductor
contain?
20. Absolute zero temperature equals a. Many
a. -273 degrees C b. None
b. 0 degrees C c. Only those produced by thermal energy
c. 25 degrees C d. Same number as holes
d. 50 degrees C
31. Silver is the best conductor. How many valence
21. At absolute zero temperature an intrinsic semiconductor electrons do you think it has?
has a. 1
a. A few free electrons b. 4
b. Many holes c. 18
c. Many free electrons d. 29
d. No holes or free electrons
32. Suppose an intrinsic semiconductor has 1 billion free
22. At room temperature an intrinsic semiconductor has electrons at room temperature. If the temperature changes to
a. A few free electrons and holes 75'C, how many holes are there?
b. Many holes a. Fewer than 1 billion
c. Many free electrons b. 1 billion
d. No holes c. More than 1 billion
d. Impossible to say
23. The number of free electrons and holes in an intrinsic
semiconductor increases when the temperature 33. An external voltage source is applied to a p-type
a. Decreases semiconductor. If the left end of the crystal is positive,
b. Increases which way do the majority carriers flow?
c. Stays the same a. Left
d. None of the above b. Right
c. Neither
24. The flow of valence electrons to the left means that holes d. Impossible to say
are flowing to the
a. Left 34. Which of the following doesn't fit in the group?
b. Right a. Conductor
c. Either way b. Semiconductor
d. None of the above c. Four valence electrons
d. Crystal structure
25. Holes act like
a. Atoms 35. Which of the following is approximately equal to room
b. Crystals temperature?
c. Negative charges a. 0 degrees C
d. Positive charges b. 25 degrees C
c. 50 degrees C
26. Trivatent atoms have how many valence electrons? d. 75degrees C
a. 1
b. 3 36. How many electrons are there in the valence orbit of a
c. 4 silicon atom within a crystal?
a. 1 d. Reverse breakdown
b. 4
c. 8 47. The voltage where avalanche occurs is called the
d. 14 a. Barrier potential
b. Depletion layer
37. Positive ions are atoms that have c. Knee voltage
a. Gained a proton d. Breakdown voltage
b. Lost a proton
c. Gained an electron 48. Diffusion of free electrons across the junction of an
d. Lost an electron unbiased diode produces
a. Forward bias
38. Which of the following describes an n-type b. Reverse bias
semiconductor? c. Breakdown
a. Neutral d. The depletion layer
b. Positively charged
c. Negatively charged 49. When the reverse voltage increases from 5 to 10 V, the
d. Has many holes depletion layer
a. Becomes smaller
39. A p-type semiconductor contains holes and b. Becomes larger
a. Positive ions c. Is unaffected
b. Negative ions d. Breaks down
c. Pentavalent atoms
d. Donor atoms 50. When a diode is forward-biased, the recombination of
free electrons and holes may produce
40. Which of the following describes a p-type a. Heat
semiconductor? b. Light
b. Positively charged d. All of the above
c. Negatively charged
d. Has many free electrons
Chapter 3 DIODE THEORY
41. Which of the following cannot move?
a. Holes 1 . When the graph of current versus voltage is a straight
b. Free electrons line, the device is referred to as
c Ions a. Active
d. Majority carriers b. Linear
c. Nonlinear
42. What causes the depletion layer? d. Passive
a. Doping
b. Recombination 2. What kind of device is a resistor?
c. Barrier potential a. Unilateral
d. Ions b. Linear
c. Nonlinear
43. What is the barrier potential of a silicon diode at room d. Bipolar
temperature?
a. 0.3 V 3. What kind of a device is a diode?
b. 0.7 V a. Bilateral
c1V b. Linear
d. 2 mV per degree Celsius c. Nonlinear
d. Unipolar
44. To produce a large forward current in a silicon diode, the
applied voltage must be greater than 4. How is a nonconducting diode biased?
a. 0 a. Forward
b. 0.3 V b. Inverse
c. 0.7 V c. Poorly
d. 1 V d. Reverse

45. In a silicon diode the reverse current is usually 5. When the diode current is large, the bias is
a. Very small a. Forward
b. Very large b. Inverse
c. Zero c. Poor
d. In the breakdown region d. Reverse

46. Surface-leakage current is part of the 6. The knee voltage of a diode is approximately equal to the
a. Forward current a. Applied voltage
b. Forward breakdown b. Barrier potential
c. Reverse current c. Breakdown voltage
d. Forward voltage d. 50 mA

7. The reverse current consists of minority-carrier current 17. How much load current is there in Fig. 3-19 (see your
and textbook) with the second approximation?
a. Avalanche current a. 0
b. Forward current b. 14.3 mA
c. Surface-leakage current c. 15 mA
d. Zener current d. 50 mA

8. How much voltage is there across the second 18. How much load current is there in Fig. 3-19 with the
approximation of a silicon diode when it is forward biased? third approximation?
a. 0 a. 0
b. 0.3 V b. 14.3 mA
c. 0.7 V c. 15 mA
d. 1 V d. 50 mA

9. How much current is there through the second 19. If the diode is open in Fig. 3-19, the load voltage is
approximation of a silicon diode when it is reverse biased? a. 0
a. 0 b. 14.3 V
b. 1 mA c. 20 V
c. 300 mA d. -15 V
d. None of the above
20. If the resistor is ungrounded in Fig. 3-19, the voltage
10. How much forward diode voltage is there with the ideal- measured with a DMM between the top of the resistor and
diode approximation? ground is closest to
a. 0 a. 0
b. 0.7 V b. 15 V
c. More than 0.7 V c. 20 V
d. 1 V d. -15 V

11. The bulk resistance of a 1N4001 is 21. The load voltage measures zero in Fig. 3-19. The trouble
a. 0 may be
b. 0.23 ohm a. A shorted diode
c. 10 ohm b. An open diode
d. 1 kohm c. An open load resistor
d. Too much supply voltage
12. If the bulk resistance is zero, the graph above the knee
becomes
a. Horizontal Chapter 4 DIODE CIRCUITS
b. Vertical
c. Tilted at 450 1. If N1/N2 = 2, and the primary voltage is 120 V, what is
d. None of the above the secondary voltage?
a. 0 V
13. The ideal diode is usually adequate when b. 36 V
a. Troubleshooting c. 60 V
b. Doing precise calculations d. 240 V
c. The source voltage is low
d. The load resistance is low 2. In a step-down transformer, which is larger?
a. Primary voltage
14. The second approximation works well when b. Secondary voltage
a. Troubleshooting c. Neither
c. Source voltage is high
d. All of the above 3. A transformer has a turns ratio of 4: 1. What is the peak
secondary voltage if 115 V rms is applied to the primary
15. The only time you have to use the third approximation is winding?
when a. 40.7 V
a. Load resistance is low b. 64.6 V
b. Source voltage is high c. 163 V
c. Troubleshooting d. 650 V
d. None of the above
4. With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor,
16. How much load current is there in Fig. 3-19 (see your load current flows for what part of a cycle?
textbook) with the ideal diode? a. 0 degrees
a. 0 b. 90 degrees
b. 14.3 mA c. 180 degrees
c. 15 mA d. 360 degrees
14. With the same secondary voltage and filter, which has
5. Line voltage may be from 105 V rms to 125 rms in a half- the most ripple?
wave rectifier. With a 5:1 step-down transformer, the a. Half-wave rectifier
maximum peak load voltage is closest to b. Full-wave rectifier
a. 21 V c. Bridge rectifier
b. 25 V d. Impossible to say
c. 29.6 V
d. 35.4 V 15. With the same secondary voltage and filter, which
6. The voltage out of a bridge rectifier is a a. Half-wave rectifier
a. Half-wave signal b. Full-wave rectifier
b. Full-wave signal c. Bridge rectifier
c. Bridge-rectified signal d. Impossible to say
d. Sine wave
16. If the filtered load current is 10 mA, which of the
7. If the line voltage is 115 V rms, a turns ratio of 5: 1 means following has a diode current of 10 mA?
the rms secondary voltage is closest to a. Half-wave rectifier
a. 15 V b. Full-wave rectifier
b. 23 V c. Bridge rectifier
c. 30 V d. Impossible to say
d. 35 V
17. If the load current is 5 mA and the filter capacitance is
8. What is the peak load voltage in a full-wave rectifier if the 1000uF, what is the peak-to-peak ripple out of a bridge
secondary voltage is 20 V rms? rectifier?
a. 0 V a. 21.3 pV
b. 0.7 V b. 56.3 nV
c. 14.1 V c. 21.3 mV
d. 28.3 V d. 41.7 mV

9. We want a peak load voltage of 40 V out of a bridge 18. The diodes in a bridge rectifier each have a maximum dc
rectifier. What is the approximate rms value of secondary current rating of 2 A. This means the dc load current can
voltage? have a maximum value of
a. 0 V a. 1 A
b. 14.4 V b. 2 A
c. 28.3 V c. 4 A
d. 56.6 V d. 8 A

10. With a full-wave rectified voltage across the load 19. What is the PIV across each diode of a bridge rectifier
resistor, load current flows for what part of a cycle? with a secondary voltage of 20 V rms?
a. 0 degrees a. 14.1 V
b. 90 degrees b. 20 V
c. 180 degrees c. 28.3 V
d. 360 degrees d. 34 V

11. What is the peak load voltage out of a bridge rectifier for 20. If the secondary voltage increases in a bridge rectifier
a secondary voltage of 15 V rms? (Use second with a capacitor-input filter, the load voltage will
approximation.) a. Decrease
a. 9.2 V b. Stay the same
b. 15 V c. Increase
c. 19.8 V d. None of these
d. 24.3 V
21. If the filter capacitance is increased, the ripple will
12. If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a a. Decrease
half-wave rectifier is b. Stay the same
a. 30 Hz c. Increase
b. 60 Hz d. None of these
c. 120 Hz
d. 240 Hz
Chapter 5 SPECIAL-PURPOSE DIODES
13. If line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of a
bridge rectifier is 1. What is true about the breakdown voltage in a zener
a. 30 Hz diode?
b. 60 Hz a. It decreases when current increases.
c. 120 Hz b. It destroys the diode.
d. 240 Hz c. It equals the current times the resistance.
d. It is approximately constant.
2. Which of these is the best description of a zener diode? 12. If the zener diode in a zener regulator is connected with
a. It is a rectifier diode. the wrong polarity, the load voltage will be closest to
b. It is a constant-voltage device. a. 0.7 V
c. It is a constant-cuffent device. b. 10 V
d. It works in the forward region. c. 14 V
d. 18 V
3. A zener diode
a. Is a battery 13. At high frequencies, ordinary diodes don't work properly
b. Has a constant voltage in the breakdown region because of
c. Has a barrier potential of 1 V a. Forward bias
d. Is forward-biased b. Reverse bias
c. Breakdown
4. The voltage across the zener resistance is usually d. Charge storage
a. Small
b. Large 14. The capacitance of a varactor diode increases when the
c. Measured in volts reverse voltage across it
d. Subtracted from the breakdown voltage a. Decreases
b. Increases
5. If the series resistance decreases in an unloaded zener c. Breaks down
regulator, the zener current d. Stores charges
a. Decreases
b. Stays the same 15. Breakdown does not destroy a zener diode provided the
c. Increases zener current is less than the
d. Equals the voltage divided by the resistance a. Breakdown voltage
b. Zener test current
6.In the second approximation, the total voltage across the c. Maximum zener current rating
zener diode is the sum of-the breakdown voltage and the d. Banier potential
voltage across the
a. Source 16. To display the digit 8 in a seven-segment indicator,
b. Series resistor a. C must be lighted
c. Zener resistance b. G must be off
d. Zener diode c. F must be on
d. All segments must be on
7. The load voltage is approximately constant when a zener
diode is 17. A photodiode is normally
a. Forward-biased a. Forward-biased
b. Reverse-biased b. Reverse-biased
c. Operating in the breakdown region c. Neither forward- nor reverse-biased
d. Unbiased d. Emitting light

8. In a loaded zener regulator, which is the largest current? 18. When the light increases, the reverse minority carrier
a. Series current current in a photodiode
b. Zener current a. Decreases
d. None of these c. Is unaffected
d. Reverses direction
9. If the load resistance decreases in a zener regulator, the
zener current 19. The device associated with voltage-controlled
a. Decreases capacitance is a
b. Stays the same a. Light-emitting diode
c. Increases b. Photodiode
d. Equals the source voltage divided by the series resistance c. Varactor diode
d. Zener diode
10. If the load resistance decreases in a zener regulator, the
series current 20. If the depletion layer gets wider, the capacitance
a. Decreases a. Decreases
b. Stays the same b. Stays the same
c. Increases c. Increases
d. Equals the source voltage divided by the series resistance d. Is variable

11. When the source voltage increases in a zener regulator, 21. When the reverse voltage increases, the capacitance
which of these currents remains approximately constant? a. Decreases
a. Series current b. Stays the same
b. Zener current c. Increases
c. Load current d. Has more bandwidth
d. Total current
22. The varactor is usually
a. Forward-biased c. Neither
b. Reverse-biased d. Both
c. Unbiased
d. Operated in the breakdown region 5. The barrier potential across each silicon depletion layer is
a. 0
23. The device to use for rectifying a weak ac signal is a b. 0.3 V
a. Zener diode c. 0.7 V
b. Light-emitting diode d. 1 V
c. Varistor
d. Back diode 6. The emitter diode is usually
a. Forward-biased
24. Which of the following has a negative-resistance region? b. Reverse-biased
a. Tunnel diode c. Nonconducting
b. Step-recovery diode d. Operating in the breakdown region
c. Schottky diode
d. Optocoupler 7. For normal operation of the transistor, the collector diode
has to be
25. A blown-fuse indicator uses a a. Forward-biased
a. Zener diode b. Reverse-biased
b. Constant-cuffent diode c. Nonconducting
c. Light-emitting diode d. Operating in the breakdown region
d. Back diode
8. The base of an npn transistor is thin and
26. To isolate an output circuit from an input circuit, which a. Heavily doped
is the device to use? b. Lightly doped
a. Back diode c. Metallic
b. Optocoupler d. Doped by a pentavalent material
c. Seven-segment indicator
d. Tunnel diode 9. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor flow
a. Out of the base lead
27. The diode with a forward voltage drop of approximately b. Into the collector
0.25 V is the c. Into the emitter
a. Step-recovery diode d. Into the base supply
b. Schottky diode
c. Back diode 10. Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor do
d. Constant-current diode not recombine because they
28. For typical operation, you need to use reverse bias with a b. Have a negative charge
a. Zener diode c. Must flow a long way through the base
b. Photodiode d. Flow out of the base
c. Varactor
d. All of the above 11. Most of the electrons that flow through the base will
a. Flow into the collector
b. Flow out of the base lead
Chapter 6 BIPOLAR TRANSISTOR c. Recombine with base holes
d. Recombine with collector holes
1. A transistor has how many doped regions?
a. 1 12. The current gain of a transistor is the ratio of the
b. 2 a. Collector current to emitter current
c. 3 b. Collector current to base current
d. 4 c. Base current to collector current
d. Emitter current to collector current
2. What is one important thing transistors do?
a. Amplify weak signals 13. Increasing the collector supply voltage will increase
b. Rectify line voltage a. Base current
C. Regulate voltage b. Collector current
d. Emit light c. Emitter current
d. None of the above
3. Who invented the first junction transistor?
a. Bell 14. The fact that only a few holes are in the base region
b. Faraday means the base is
c. Marconi a. Lightly doped
d. Schockley b. Heavily doped
c. Undoped
4. In an npn transistor, the majority carriers in the base are d. None of the above
a. Free electrons
b. Holes
15. In a normally biased npn transistor, the electrons in the
emitter have enough energy to overcome the barrier 25. The base-emitter voltage of an ideal transistor is
potential of the a. 0
a. Base-emitter junction b. 0.3 V
b. Base-collector junction c. 0.7 V
c. Collector-base junction d. 1 V
d. Recombination path
26. If you recalculate the collector-emitter voltage with the
16. When a free electron recombines with a hole in the base second approximation, the answer will usually be
region, the free electron becomes a. Smaller than the ideal value
a. Another free electron b.. The same as the ideal value
b. A valence electron c. Larger than the ideal value
c. A conduction-band electron d. Inaccurate
d. A majority carrier
27. In the active region, the collector current is not changed
17. What is the most important fact about the collector significantly by
current? a. Base supply voltage
a. It is measured in milliamperes. b. Base current
b. It equals the base current divided by the current gain. c. Current gain
c. It is small. d. Collector resistance
d. It approximately equals the emitter current.
28. The base-emitter voltage of the second approximation is
18. If the current gain is 200 and the collector current is 100 a. 0
mA, the base current is b. 0.3 V
a. 0.5 mA c. 0.7 V
b. 2 mA d. 1 V
c. 2 A
d. 20 A 29. If the base resistor is open, what is the collector cuffent?
a. 0
19. The base-emitter voltage is usually b. 1 mA
a. Less than the base supply voltage c. 2 mA
b. Equal to the base supply voltage d. 10 mA
c. More than the base supply voltage
Chapter 7 TRANSISTOR FUNDAMENTALS
20. The collector-emitter voltage is usually
a. Less than the collector supply voltage 1. The current gain of a transistor is defined as the ratio of
b. Equal to the collector supply voltage the collector current to the
c. More than the collector supply voltage a. Base current
d. Cannot answer b. Emitter current
c. Supply current
21. The power dissipated by a transistor approximately d. Collector current
equals the collector current times
a. Base-emitter voltage 2. The graph of current gain versus collector-current
b. Collector-emitter voltage indicates that the current gain
c. Base supply voltage a. Is constant
d. 0.7 V b. Varies slightly
c. Varies significantly
22. A small collector current with zero base current is d. Equals the collector current divided by the base current
caused by the leakage current of the
a. Emitter diode 3. When the collector current increases, what does the
b. Collector diode current gain do?
c. Base diode a. Decreases
d. Transistor b. Stays the same
c. Increases
23. A transistor acts like a diode and a d. Any of the above
a. Voltage source
b. Current source 4. As the temperature increases, the current gain
c. Resistance a. Decreases
d. Power supply b. Remains the same
c. Increases
24. If the base current is 100 mA and the current gain is 30, d. Can be any of the above
the collector current is
a. 300 mA 5. When the base resistor decreases, the collector voltage
b. 3 A will probably
c. 3.33 A a. Decrease
d. 10 A b. Stay the same
c. Increase b. Vertical
d. Do all of the above c. Useless
d. Flat
6. If the base resistor is very small, the transistor will operate
in the 16. The collector current is 10 mA. If the current gain is 100,
a. Cutoff region the base current is
b. Active region a. 1 microamp
c. Saturation region b. 10 microamp
d. Breakdown region c. 100 microamp
d. 1 mA
7. Ignoring the bulk resistance of the collector diode, the
collector-emitter saturation voltage is 17. The base current is 50 microamp. If the current gain is
a. 0 125, the collector current is closest in value to
b. A few tenths of a volt a. 40 microamp
C. 1 V b. 500 microamp
d. Supply voltage c. 1 mA
d. 6 mA
8. Three different Q points are shown on a load line. The
upper Q point represents the 18. When the Q point moves along the load line, the voltage
a. Minimum current gain increases when the collector current
b. Intermediate current gain a. Decreases
c. Maximum current gain b. Stays the same
d. Cutoff point c. Increases
d. Does none of the above
9. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line, an
increase in the base resistance will move the Q point 19. When there is no base current in a transistor switch, the
a. Down output voltage from the transistor is
b. Up a. Low
c. Nowhere b. High
d. Off the load line c. Unchanged
d. Unknown
10. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line, an
increase in the current gain will move the Q point 20. A circuit with a fixed emitter current is called
a. Down a. Base bias
b. Up b. Emitter bias
c, Nowhere c. Transistor bias
d. Off the load line d. Two-supply bias

11. If the base supply voltage increases, the Q point moves 21. The first step in analyzing emitter-based circuits is to
a. Down find the
b. Up a. Base current
c. Nowhere b. Emitter voltage
d. Off the load line c. Emitter current
d. Collector current
12. Suppose the base resistor is open. The Q point will be
a. In the middle of the load line 22. If the current gain is unknown in an emitter-biased
b. At the upper end of the load line circuit, you cannot calculate the
c. At the lower end of the load line a. Emitter voltage
d. Off the load line b. Emitter current
c. Collector current
13. If the base supply voltage is disconnected, the collector- d. Base current
emitter voltage will equal
a. 0 V 23. If the emitter resistor is open, the collector voltage is
b. 6 V a. Low
c. 10.5 V b. High
d. Collector supply voltage c. Unchanged
d. Unkiiown
14. If the base resistor is shorted, the transistor will probably
be 24. If the collector resistor is open, the collector voltage is
a. Saturated a. Low
b. In cutoff b. High
c. Destroved c. Unchanged
d. None of the above d. Unknown

15. If the collector resistor decreases to zero in a base-biased 25. When the current gain increases from 50 to 300 in an
circuit, the load line will become emitter-biased circuit, the collector current
a. Horizontal a. Remains almost the same
b. Decreases by a factor of 6
c. Increases by a factor of 6 9. The collector voltage of a VDB circuit is not sensitive to
d. Is zero changes in the
a. Supply voltage
26. If the emitter resistance decreases, the collector voltage b. Emitter resistance
a. Decreases c. Current gain
b. Stays the same d. Collector resistance
c. Increases
d. Breaks down the transistor 10. If the emitter resistance increases in a VDB circuit, the
collector voltage
27. If the emitter resistance decreases, the a. Decreases
a. Q point moves up b. Stays the same
b. Collector current decreases c. Increases
c. Q point stays where it is d. Doubles
d. Current gain increases
11. Base bias is associated with
Chapter 8 TRANSISTOR BIASING a. Amplifiers
b. Switching circuits
1. For emitter bias, the voltage across the emitter resistor is c. Stable Q point
the same as the voltage between the emitter and the d. Fixed emitter current
a. Base
b. Collector 12. If the emitter resistance doubles in a VDB circuit, the
c. Emitter collector current will
d. Ground a. Double
b. Drop in half
2. For emitter bias, the voltage at the emitter is 0.7 V less c. Remain the same
than the d. Increase
a. Base voltage
b. Emitter voltage 13. If the collector resistance increases in a VDB circuit, the
c. Collector voltage collector voltage will
d. Ground voltage a. Decrease
b. Stay the same
3. With voltage-divider bias, the base voltage is c. Increase
a. Less than the base supply voltage d. Double
b. Equal to the base supply voltage
c. Greater than the base supply voltage 14. The Q point of a VDB circuit is
d. Greater than the collector supply voltage a. Hypersensitive to changes in current gain
b. Somewhat sensitive to changes in current gain
4. VDB is noted for its c. Almost totally insensitive to changes in current gain
a. Unstable collector voltage d. Greatly affected by temperature changes
b. Varying emitter current
c. Large base current 15. The base voltage of two-supply emitter bias (TSEB) is
d. Stable Q point a. 0.7 V
b. Very large
5. With VDB, an increase in emitter resistance will c. Near 0 V
a. Decrease the emitter voltage d. 1.3 V
b. Decrease the collector voltage
c. Increase the emitter voltage 16. If the emitter resistance doubles with TSEB, the
d. Decrease the emitter current collector current will
a. Drop in half
6. VDB has a stable Q point like b. Stay the same
a. Base bias c. Double
b. Emitter bias d. Increase
c. Collector-feedback bias
d. Emitter-feedback bias 17. If a splash of solder shorts the collector resistor of
TSEB, the collector voltage will
7. VDB needs a. Drop to zero
a. Only three resistors b. Equal the collector supply voltage
b. Only one supply C. Stay the same
c. Precision resistors d. Double
d. More resistors to work better
18. If the emitter resistance increases with TSEB, the
8. VDB normally operates in the collector voltage will
a. Active region a. Decrease
b. Cutoff region b. Stay the same
c. Saturation region c. Increase
d. Breakdown region d. Equal the collector supply voltage
a. A dc short
19. If the emitter resistor opens with TSEB, the collector b. An ac open
voltage will c. A dc open and an ac short
a. Decrease d. A dc short and an ac open
b. Stay the same
c. Increase slightly 4. In a bypass circuit, the top of a capacitor is
d. Equal the collector supply voltage a. An open
b. A short
20. In TSEB, the base current must be very c. An ac ground
a. Small d. A mechanical ground
b. Large
c. Unstable 5. The capacitor that produces an ac ground is called a
d. Stable a. Bypass capacitor
b. Coupling capacitor
21. The Q point of TSEB does not depend on the c. Dc open
a. Emitter resistance d. Ac open
b. Collector resistance
c. Current gain 6. The capacitors of a CE amplifier appear
d. Emitter voltage a. Open to ac
b. Shorted to dc
22. The majority carriers in the emitter of a pnp transistor c. Open to supply voltage
are d. Shorted to ac
a. Holes
b. Free electrons 7. Reducing all dc sources to zero is one of the steps in
c. Trivalent atoms getting the
d. Pentavalent atoms a. DC equivalent circuit
b. AC equivalent circuit
23. The current gain of a pnp transistor is c. Complete amplifier circuit
a. The negative of the npn current gain d. Voltage-divider biased circuit
b. The collector current divided by the emitter current
c. Near zero 8. The ac equivalent circuit is derived from the original
d. The ratio of collector current to base current circuit by shorting all
a. Resistors
24. Which is the largest current in a pnp transistor? b. Capacitors
a. Base current c. Inductors
b. Emitter current d. Transistors
c. Collector current
d. None of these 9. When the ac base voltage is too large, the ac emitter
current is
25. The currents of a pnp transistor are a. Sinusoidal
a. Usually smaller than npn currents b. Constant
b. Opposite npn currents c. Distorted
c. Usually larger than npn currents d. Alternating
d. Negative
10. In a CE amplifier with a large input signal, the positive
26. With pnp voltage-divider bias, you must use half cycle of the ac emitter current is
a. Negative power supplies a. Equal to the negative half cycle
b. Positive power supplies b. Smaller than the negative half cycle
c. Resistors c. Larger than the negative half cycle
d. Grounds d. Equal to the negative half cycle

## 11. Ac emitter resistance equals 25 mV divided by the

Chapter 9 AC MODELS a. Quiescent base current
b. DC emitter current
1. For dc, the current in a coupling circuit is c. AC emitter current
a. Zero d. Change in collector current
b. Maximum
c. Minimum 12. To reduce the distortion in a CE amplifier, reduce the
d. Average a. DC emitter current
b. Base-emitter voltage
2. The current in a coupling circuit for high frequencies is c. Collector current
a. Zero d. AC base voltage
b. Maximum
c. Minimum 13. If the ac voltage across the emitter diode is 1 mV and
d. Average the ac emitter current is 0.1 mA, the ac resistance of the
emitter diode is
3. A coupling capacitor is a. 1 ohm
b. 10 ohm b. AC emitter resistance
c. 100 ohm c. AC collector resistance
d. 1 kohm d. Generator voltage

14. A graph of ac emitter current versus ac base-emitter 4. The input impedance of the base increases when
voltage applies to the a. Beta increases
a. Transistor b. Supply voltage increases
b. Emitter diode c. Beta decreases
c. Collector diode d. AC collector resistance increases
d. Power supply
5. Voltage gain is directly proportional to
15. The output voltage of a CE amplifier is a. Beta
a. Amplified b. Ac emitter resistance
b. Inverted c. DC collector voltage
c. 180 degrees out of phase with the input d. AC collector resistance
d. All of the above
6. Compared to the ac resistance of the emitter diode, the
16. The emitter of a CE amplifier has no ac voltage because feedback resistance of a swamped amplifier should be
of the a. Small
a. DC voltage on it b. Equal
b. Bypass capacitor c. Large
c. Coupling capacitor d. Zero
7. Compared to a CE stage, a swamped amplifier has an
17. The voltage across the load resistor of a CE amplifier is input impedance that is
a. Dc and ac a. Smaller
b. DC only b. Equal
c. AC only c. Larger
d. Neither dc nor ac d. Zero

18. The ac collector current is approximately equal to the 8. To reduce the distortion of an amplified signal, you can
a. AC base current increase the
b. AC emitter current a. Collector resistance
c. AC source current b. Emitter feedback resistance
d. AC bypass current c. Generator resistance
19. The ac emitter current times the ac emitter resistance
equals the 9. The emitter of a swamped amplifier
a. Dc emitter voltage a. Is grounded
b. AC base voltage b. Has no de voltage
c. AC collector voltage c. Has an ac voltage
d. Supply voltage d. Has no ac voltage

20. The ac collector current equals the ac base current times 10. A swamped amplifier uses
the a. Base bias
a. AC collector resistance b. Positive feedback
b. DC current gain c. Negative feedback
c. AC current gain d. A grounded emitter
d. Generator voltage
11. In a swamped amplifier, the effects of the emitter diode
become
Chapter 10 VOLTAGE AMPLIFIERS a. Important to voltage gain
b. Critical to input impedance
1. The emitter is at ac ground in a c. Significant to the analysis
a. CB stage d. Unimportant
b. CC stage
c. CE stage 12. The feedback resistor
d. None of these a. Increases voltage gain
b. Reduces distortion
2. The output voltage of a CE stage is usually c. Decreases collector resistance
a. Constant d. Decreases input impedance
b. Dependent on re'
c. Small 13. The feedback resistor
d. Less the one a. Stabilizes voltage gain
b. Increases distortion
3. The voltage gain equals the output voltage divided by the c. Increases collector resistance
a. Input voltage d. Decreases input impedance
a. Decrease
14. The ac collector resistance of the first stage includes the b. Increase
a. Load resistance c. Remain the same
b. Input impedance of first stage d. Equal zero
c. Emitter resistance of first stage
d. Input impedance of second stage
Chapter 11 POWER AMPLIFIERS
15. If the emitter bypass capacitor opens, the ac output
voltage will 1. For class B operation, the collector current flows
a. Decrease a. The whole cycle
b. Increase b. Half the cycle
c. Remain the same c. Less than half a cycle
d. Equal zero d. Less than a quarter of a cycle

16. If the collector resistor is shorted, the ac output voltage 2. Transformer coupling is an example of
will a. Direct coupling
a. Decrease b. AC coupling
b. Increase c. DC coupling
c. Remain the same d. Impedance coupling
d. Equal zero
3. An audio amplifier operates in the frequency range of
17. If the load resistance is open, the ac output voltage will a. 0 to 20 Hz
a. Decrease b. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
b. Increase c. 20 to 200 kHz
c. Remain the same d. Above 20 kHz
d. Equal zero
4. A tuned RF amplifier is
18. If any capacitor is open, the ac output voltage will a. Narrowband
a. Decrease b. Wideband
b. Increase c. Direct coupled
c. Remain the same d. Impedance coupled
d. Equal zero
5. The first stage of a preamp is
19. If the input coupling capacitor is open, the ac input a. A tuned RF stage
voltage will b. Large signal
a. Decrease c. Small signal
b. Increase d. A dc amplifier
c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero 6. For maximum peak-to-peak output voltage, the Q point
should be
20. If the bypass capacitor is open, the ac input voltage will a. Near saturation
a. Decrease b. Near cutoff
b. Increase c. At the center of the dc load line
c. Remainthe same d. At the center of the ac load line
d. Equal zero
7. An amplifier has two load lines because
21. If the output coupling capacitor is open, the ac input a. It has ac and dc collector resistances
voltage will b. It has two equivalent circuits
a. Decrease c. DC acts one way and ac acts another
b. Increase d. All of the above
c. Remain the same
d. Equal zero 8. When the Q point is at the center of the ac load line, the
maximum peak-to-peak output voltage equals
22. If the emitter resistor is open, the ac input voltage will a. VCEQ
a. Decrease b. 2VCEQ
b. Increase c. ICQ
c. Remain the same d. 2IcQ
d. Equal zero
9. Push-pull is almost always used with
23. If the collector resistor is open, the ac input voltage will a. Class A
a. Decrease b. Class B
b. Increase c. Class C
c. Remain the same d. All of the above
d. Equal approximately zero
10. One advantage of a class B push-pull amplifier is
24. If the emitter bypass capacitor is shorted, the ac input a. Very small quiescent current drain
voltage will b. Maximum efficiency of 78.5 percent
c. Greater efficiency than class A 21. For a Q point near the center of the dc load line, clipping
d. All of the above is more likely to occur on the
a. Positive peak of input voltage
11. Class C amplifiers are almost always b. Negative peak of output voltage
a. Transformer-coupled between stages c. Positive peak of output voltage
b. Operated at audio frequencies d. Negative peak of emitter voltage
c. Tuned RF amplifiers
d. Wideband 22. In a class A amplifier, the collector current flows for
a. Less than half the cycle
12. The input signal of a class C amplifier b. Half the cycle
a. Is negatively clamped at the base c. Less than the whole cycle
b. Is amplified and inverted d. The entire cycle
c. Produces brief pulses of collector current
d. All of the above 23. With class A, the output signal should be
a. Unclipped
13. The collector current of a class C amplifier b. Clipped on positive voltage peak
a. Is an amplified version of the input voltage c. Clipped on negative voltage peak
b. Has harmonics d. Clipped on negative current peak
c. Is negatively clamped
d. Flows for half a cycle 24. The instantaneous operating point swings-along the
14. The bandwidth of a class C amplifier decreases when the b. DC load line
a. Resonant frequency increases c. Both load lines
b. Q increases d. Neither load line
c. XL decreases
d. Load resistance decreases 25. The current drain of an amplifier is the
a. Total ac current from the generator
15. The transistor dissipation in a class C amplifier b. Total dc current from the supply
decreases when the c. Current gain from base to collector
a. Resonant frequency increases d. Current gain from collector to base
b. coil Q increases
c. Load resistance decreases 26. The power gain of an amplifier
d. Capacitance increases a. Is the same as the voltage gain
b. Is smaller than the voltage gain
16. The power rating of a transistor can be increased by c. Equals output power divided by input power
a. Raising the temperature d. Equals load power
b. Using a heat sink
c. Using a derating curve 27. Heat sinks reduce the
d. Operating with no input signal a. Transistor power
b. Ambient temperature
17. The ac load line is the same as the dc load line when the c. Junction temperature
ac collector resistance equals the d. Collector current
a. DC emitter resistance
b. AC emitter resistance 28. When the ambient temperature increases, the maximum
c. DC collector resistance transistor power rating
d. Supply voltage divided by collector current a. Decreases
b. Increases
18. If RC = 3.6 kohm and RL = 10 kohm, the ac load c. Remains the same
resistance equals d. None of the above
a. 10 kohm
b. 2.65 kohm 29. If the load power is 3 mW and the dc power is 150 mW,
c. I kohm the efficiency is
d. 3.6 kohm a. 0
b. 2 percent
19. The quiescent collector current is the same as the c. 3 percent
a. DC collector current d. 20 percent
b. AC collector current
c. Total collector current
d. Voltage-divider current Chapter 12 EMITTER FOLLOWERS

20. The ac load line usually 1. An emitter follower has a voltage gain that is
a. Equals the dc load line a. Much less than one
b. Has less slope than the dc load line b. Approximately equal to one
c. Is steeper than the dc load line c. Greater than one
d. Is horizontal d. Zero
2. The total ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower b. Larger
equals c. Equal
a. re' d. Clipped
b. re
c. re + re' 13. If the Q point is at the middle of the dc load line,
d. RE clipping will first occur on the
a. Left voltage swing
3. The input impedance of the base of an emitter follower is b. Upward current swing
usually c. Positive half cycle of input
a. Low d. Negative half cycle of input
b. High
c. Shorted to ground 14. If an emitter follower has VCEQ = 5 V, ICQ = 1 mA,
d. Open and re = 1 kohm, the maximum peak-to-peak unclipped
output is
4. The dc emitter current for class A emitter followers is a. 1 V
a. The same as the ac emitter current b. 2 V
b. VE divided by RE c. 5 V
c. Vc divided by Rc d. 10 V
d. The same as the load current
15. If the load resistance of an emitter follower is very
5. The ac base voltage of an emitter follower is across the large, the external ac emitter resistance equals
a. Emitter diode a. Generator resistance
b. DC emitter resistor b. Impedance of the base
c. Load resistor c. DC emitter resistance
d. Emitter diode and external ac emitter resistance d. DC collector resistance

6. The output voltage of an emitter follower is across the 16. If an emitter follower has re' = 10 ohm and re = 90 ohm,
a. Emitter diode the voltage gain is approximately
b. DC collector resistor a. 0
d. Emitter diode and external ac emitter resistance c. 0.9
d. 1
7. If Beta = 200 and re = 150 ohm, the input impedance of
the base is approximately 17. A square wave out of an emitter follower implies
a. 30 kohm a. No clipping
b. 600 n b. Clipping at saturation
c. 3 kohm c. Clipping at cutoff
d. 5 kohm d. Clipping on both peaks

8. The input voltage to an emitter follower is usually 18. A Darlington transistor has
a. Less than the generator voltage a. A very low input impedance
b. Equal to the generator voltage b. Three transistors
c. Greater than the generator voltage c. A very high current gain
d. Equal to the supply voltage d. One VBE drop

9. The ac emitter current is closest to 19. The ac load line of the emitter follower is
a. VG divided by re a. The same as the dc load line
b. vin divided by re' b. Different from the dc load line
c. VG divided by re' c. Horizontal
d. vin divided by re d. Vertical

10. The output voltage of an emitter follower is 20. If the generator voltage is 5 mV in an emitter follower,
approximately the output voltage across the load is closest to
a. 0 a. 5 mV
b. VG b. 150 mV
c. vin c. 0.25 V
d. Vcc d. 0.5 V

11. The ac load line of an emitter follower is usually 21. If the load resistor of Fig. 12-la in your textbook is
a. The same as the dc load line shorted, which of the following are different from their
b. More horizontal than the dc load line normal values:
c. Steeper than the dc load line a. Only ac voltages
d. Vertical b. Only dc voltages
c. Both dc and ac voltages
12. If the input voltage to an emitter follower is too large, d. Neither dc nor ac voltages
the output voltage will be
a. Smaller
22. If R1 is open in an emitter follower, which of these is 32. In the two-transistor voltage regulator, the output voltage
true? a. Is regulated
a. DC base voltage is Vcc b. Has much smaller ripple than the input voltage
b. DC collector voltage is zero c. Is larger than the zener voltage
c. Output voltage is normal d. All of the above
d. DC base voltage is zero
33. For a class B push-pull emitter follower to work
23. Usually, the distortion in an emitter follower is properly, the emitter diodes must
a. Very low a. Be able to control the quiescent current
b. Very high b. Have a power rating greater than the output power
c. Large c. Have a voltage gain of I
d. Not acceptable d. Match the compensating diodes

24. The distortion in an emitter follower is 34. The maximum efficiency of a class B push-pull
a. Seldom low amplifier is
b. Often high a. 25 percent
c. Always low b. 50 percent
d. High when clipping occurs c. 78.5 percent
d. 100 percent
25. If a CE stage is direct coupled to an emitter follower,
how many coupling capacitors are there between the two 35. The ac emitter resistance of an emitter follower
stages? a. Equals the dc emitter resistance
a. 0 b. Is larger than the load resistance
b. 1 c. Has no effect on MPP
c. 2 d. Is usually less than the load resistance
d. 3

## 26. A Darlington transistor has a Beta of 8000. If RE = 1 Chapter 13 JFETs

kohm and RL = 100 ohm, the input impedance of the base is
closest to 1. A JFET
a. 8 kohm a. Is a voltage-controlled device
b. 80 kohm b. Is a current-controlled device
c. 800 kohm c. Has a low input resistance
d. 8 Mohm d. Has a very large voltage gain

27. The transistors of a class B push-pull emitter follower 2. A unipolar transistor uses
are biased at or near a. Both free electrons and holes
a. Cutoff b. Only free electrons
b. The center of the dc load line c. Only holes
c. Saturation d. Either one or the other, but not both
d. The center of the ac load line
3. The input impedance of a JFET
28. Thermal runaway is a. Approaches zero
a. Good for transistors b. Approaches one
b. Always desirable c. Approaches infinity
c. Useful at times d. Is impossible to predict
d. Usually destructive
4. The gate controls
29. The ac resistance of compensating diodes a. The width of the channel
a. Must be included b. The drain current
b. Is usually small enough to ignore c. The proportional pinchoff voltage
c. Compensates for temperature changes d. All the above
d. Is very high
5. The gate-source diode of a JFET should be
30. A small quiescent current is necessary with a class B a. Forward-biased
push-pull amplifier to avoid b. Reverse-biased
a. Thermal runaway c. Either forward- or reverse-biased
b. Destroying the compensating diodes d. None of the above
c. Crossover distortion
d. Excessive current drain 6. Compared to a bipolar transistor, the JFET has a much
higher
31. The zener current in a zener follower is a. Voltage gain
a. Equal to the output current b. Input resistance
b. Smaller than the output current c. Supply voltage
c. Larger than the output current d. Current
d. Prone to thermal runaway
7. The pinchoff voltage has the same magnitude as the
a. Gate voltage
b. Drain-source voltage 18. When a JFET is cut off, the depletion layers are
c. Gate-source voltage a. Far apart
d. Gate-source cutoff voltage b. Close together
c. Touching
8. When the drain saturation current is less than IDSS, a d. Conducting
JFET acts like a
a. Bipolar transistor 19. When the gate voltage becomes more negative in an n-
b. Current source channel JFET, the channel between the depletion layers
c. Resistor a. Shrinks
d. Battery b. Expand
c. Conduct
9. RDS equals pinchoff voltage divided by the d. Stop conducting
a. Drain current
b. Gate current 20. If a JFET has IDSS = 10 mA and VP = 2 V, then RDS
c. Ideal drain current equals
d. Drain current for zero gate voltage a. 200 ohm
b. 400 ohm
10. The transconductance curve is c. 1 kohm
a. Linear d. 5 kohm
b. Similar to the graph of a resistor
c. Nonlinear 21. The easiest way to bias a JFET in the ohmic region is
d. Like a single drain curve with
a. Voltage-divider bias
11. The transconductance increases when the drain current b. Self-bias
approaches c. Gate bias
a. 0 d. Source bias
b. ID(sat)
c. IDSS 22. Self-bias produces
d. IS a. Positive feedback
b. Negative feedback
12. A CS amplifier has a voltage gain of c. Forward feedback
a. gmrd d. Reverse feedback
b. gmrs
c. gmrs/(l + gmrs) 23. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased
d. gmrd/(l + gmrd) JFET circuit, you must have a
a. Voltage divider
13. A source follower has a voltage gain of b. Source resistor
a. gmrd c. Ground
b. gmrs d. Negative gate supply voltage
c. gmrs/(l + gmrs)
d. gmrd/(l + gmrd) 24. Transconductance is measured in
a. Ohms
14. When the input signal is large, a source follower has b. Amperes
a. A voltage gain of less than one c. Volts
b. A small distortion d. Mhos or Siemens
c. A high input resistance
d. All of these 25. Transconductance indicates how effectively the input
voltage controls the
15. The input signal used with a JFET analog switch should a. Voltage gain
be b. Input resistance
a. Small c. Supply voltage
b. Large d. Output current
c. A square wave
d. Chopped
Chapter 14 MOSFETs
16. A cascode amplifier has the advantage of
a. Large voltage gain 1. Which of the following devices revolutionized the
b. Low input capacitance computer industry?
c. Low input impedance a. JFET
d. Higher gm b. D-MOSFET
c. E-MOSFET
17. VHF stands for frequencies from d. Power FET
a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz 2. The voltage that turns on an EMOS device is the
c. 30 to 300 MHz a. Gate-source cutoff voltage
d. 300 MHz to 3 GHz b. Pinchoff voltage
c. Threshold voltage a. Integrated circuits
d. Knee voltage b. Small-signal devices
c. Used mostly with analog signals
3. Which of these may appear on the data sheet of an d. Used to switch large currents
enhancement-mode MOSFET?
a. VGS(th) 14. When the internal temperature increases in a power FET,
b. ID(on) the
c. VGS(on) a. Threshold voltage increases
d. All of the above b. Gate current decreases
c. Drain current decreases
4. The VGS(on) of an n-channel E-MOSFET is d. Saturation current increases
a. Less than the threshold voltage
b. Equal to the gate-source cutoff voltage 15. Most small-signal E-MOSFETs are found in
c. Greater than VDS(on) a. Heavy-current applications
d. Greater than VGS(th) b. Discrete circuits
c. Disk drives
5. An ordinary resistor is an example of d. Integrated circuits
a. A three-terminal device
b. An active load 16. Most power FETS are
c. A passive load a. Used in high-current applications
d. A switching device b. Digital computers
c. RF stages
6. An E-MOSFET with its gate connected to its drain is an d. Integrated circuits
example of
a. A three-terminal device 17. An n-channel E-MOSFET conducts when it has
b. An active load a. VGS > VP
c. A passive load b. An n-type inversion layer
d. A switching device c. VDS > 0
d. Depletion layers
7. An E-MOSFET that operates at cutoff or in the ohmic
region is an example of 18. With CMOS, the upper MOSFET is
a. A current source a. A passive load
c. A passive load c. Nonconducting
d. A switching device d. Complementary

## 8. CMOS stands for 19. The high output of a CMOS inverter is

a. Common MOS a. VDD/2
c. p-channel and n-channel devices c. VDS
d. Complementary MOS d. VDD

## 9. VGS(on) is always 20. The RDS(on) of a power FET

a. Less than VGS(th) a. Is always large
b. Equal to VDS(on) b. Has a negative temperature coefficient
c. Greater than VGS(th) c. Has a positive temperature coefficient
d. Negative d. Is an active load

## 10. With active-load switching, the upper E-MOSFET is a

a. Two-terminal device Chapter 15 THYRISTORS
b. Three-terminal device
c. Switch 1. A thyristor can be used as
d. Small resistance a. A resistor
b. An amplifier
11. CMOS devices use c. A switch
a. Bipolar transistors d. A power source
b. Complementary E-MOSFETs
c. Class A operation 2. Positive feedback means the returning signal
d. DMOS devices a. Opposes the original change
b. Aids the original change
12. The main advantage of CMOS is its c. Is equivalent to negative feedback
a. High power rating d. Is amplified
b. Small-signal operation
c. Switching capability 3. A latch always uses
d. Low power consumption a. Transistors
b. Feedback
13. Power FETs are c. Current
d. Positive feedback 14. The photo-SCR responds to
a. Current
4. To turn on a four-layer diode, you need b. Voltage
a. A positive trigger c. Humidity
b. low-current drop out d. Light
c. Breakover
d. Reverse-bias triggering 15. The diac is a
a. Transistor
5. The minimum input current that can turn on a thyristor is b. Unidirectional device
called the c. Three-layer device
a. Holding current d. Bidirectional device
b. Trigger current
c. Breakover current 16. The triac is equivalent to
d. Low-current drop out a. A four-layer diode
b. Two diacs in parallel
6. The only way to stop a four-layer diode that is conducting c. A thyristor with a gate lead
is by d. Two SCRs in parallel
a. A positive trigger
b. Low-current drop out 17. The unijunction transistor acts as a
c. Breakover a. Four-layer diode
d. Reverse-bias triggering b. Diac
c. Triac
7. The minimum anode current that keeps a thyristor turned d. Latch
on is called the
a. Holding current 18. Any thyristor can be turned on with
b. Trigger current a. Breakover
c. Breakover current b. Forward-bias triggering
d. Low-current drop out c. Low-current dropout
d. Reverse-bias triggering
8. A silicon controlled rectifier has
a. Two external leads 19. A Shockley diode is the same as a
b. Three external leads a. four-layer diode
c. Four external leads b. SCR
d. Three doped regions c. diac
d. triac
9. A SCR is usually turned on by
a. Breakover 20. The trigger voltage of an SCR is closest to
b. A gate trigger a. 0
c. Breakdown b. 0.7 V
d. Holding current c. 4 V
d. Breakover voltage
10. SCRs are
a. Low-power devices 21. Any thyristor can be turned off with
b. Four-layer diodes a. Breakover
c. High-current devices b. Forward-bias triggering
d. Bidirectional c. Low-current drop out
d. Reverse-bias triggering
11. The usual way to protect a load from excessive supply
voltage is with a 22. Exceeding the critical rate of rise produces
a. Crowbar a. Excessive power dissipation
b. Zener diode b. False triggering
c. Four-layer diode c. Low-current drop out
d. Thyristor d. Reverse-bias triggering

12. An RC snubber protects an SCR against 23. A four-layer diode is sometimes called a
a. Supply overvoltages a. Unijunction transistor
b. False triggering b. Diac
c. Breakover c. pnpn diode
d. Crowbarring d. Switch

13. When a crowbar is used with a power supply, the supply 24. A latch is based on
needs to have a fuse or a. Negative feedback
a. Adequate trigger current b. Positive feedback
b. Holding current c. The four-layer diode
c. Filtering d. SCR action
d. Current limiting
11. Two stages have voltage gains of 100 and 200. The total
Chapter 16 FREQUENCY EFFECTS decibel voltage gain is
a. 46 dB
1. Frequency response is a graph of voltage gain versus b. 66 dB
a. Frequency c. 86 dB
b. Power gain d. 106 dB
c. Input voltage
d. Output voltage 12. One frequency is 8 times another frequency. How many
octaves apart are the two frequencies?
2. At low frequencies, the coupling capacitors produce a a. 1
decrease in b. 2
a. Input resistance c. 3
b. Voltage gain d. 4
c. Generator resistance
d. Generator voltage 13. If f = 1 MHz, and f2 = 10 Hz, the ratio f/f2 represents
3. The stray-wiring capacitance has an effect on the a. 2
a. Lower cutoff frequency b. 3
b. Midband voltage gain c. 4
c. Upper cutoff frequency d. 5
d. Input resistance
14. Semilogarithmic paper means
4. At the lower or upper cutoff frequency, the voltage gain is a. One axis is linear, and the other is logarithmic
a. 0.35Amid b. One axis is linear, and the other is semilogarithmic
b. 0.5Amid c. Both axes are semilogarithmic
c. 0.707Amid d. Neither axis is linear
d. 0.995Amid
15. If you want to improve the high-frequency response of
5. If the power gain doubles, the decibel power gain an amplifier, which of these would you try?
increases by a. Decrease the coupling capacitances.
a. A factor of 2 b. Increase the emitter bypass capacitance.
b. 3 dB c. Shorten leads as much as possible.
c. 6 dB d. Increase the generator resistance.
d. 10 dB
16. The voltage gain of an amplifier decreases 20 dB per
6. If the voltage gain doubles, the decibel voltage gain decade above 20 kHz. If the midband voltage gain is 86 dB,
increases by what is the ordinary voltage gain at 20 MHz?
a. A factor of 2 a. 20
b. 3 dB b. 200
c. 6 dB c. 2000
d. 10 dB d. 20,000

## 7. If the voltage gain is 10, the decibel voltage gain is

a. 6 dB Chapter 17 DIFFERENTIAL AMPLIFIERS
b. 20 dB
c. 40 dB 1. Monolithic ICs are
d. 60 dB a. Forms of discrete circuits
b. On a single chip
8. If the voltage gain is 100, the decibel voltage gain is c. Combinations of thin-film and thick-film circuits
a. 6 dB d. Also called hybrid ICs
b. 20 dB
c. 40 dB 2. The op amp can amplify
d. 60 dB a. AC signals only
b. DC signals only
9. If the voltage gain is 2000, the decibel voltage gain is c. Both ac and dc signals
a. 40 dB d. Neither ac nor dc signals
b. 46 dB
c. 66 dB 3. Components are soldered together in
d. 86 dB a. Discrete circuits
b. Integrated circuits
10. Two stages have decibel voltage gains of 20 and 40 dB. c. SSI
The total ordinary voltage gain is d. Monolithic ICs
a.1
b. 10 4. The tail current of a diff amp is
c. 100 a. Half of either collector current
d. 1000 b. Equal to either collector current
c. Two times either collector current
d. Equal to the difference in base currents c. CE amplifier
d. Swamped amplifier
5. The node voltage at the top of the tail resistor is closest to
a. Collector supply voltage 16. The tail of a diff amp acts like a
b. Zero a. Battery
c. Emitter supply voltage b. Current source
d. Tail current times base resistance c. Transistor
d. Diode
6. The input offset current equals the
a. Difference between two base currents 17. The common-mode voltage gain of a diff amp is equal to
b. Average of two base currents RC divided by
c. Collector current divided by current gain a. re'
d. Difference between two base-emitter voltages b. re'/2
c. 2re'
7. The tail current equals the d. 2RE
a. Difference between two emitter currents
b. Sum of two emitter currents 18. When the two bases are grounded in a diff amp, the
c. Collector current divided by current gain voltage across each emitter diode is
d. Collector voltage divided by collector resistance a. Zero
b. 0.7 V
8.The voltage gain of a diff amp with a differential output is c. The same
equal to RC divided by d. High
a. re'
b. re'/2 19. The common-mode rejection ratio is
c. 2re' a. Very low
d. RE b. Often expressed in decibels
c. Equal to the voltage gain
9. The input impedance of a diff amp equals re' times d. Equal to the common-mode voltage gain
a. 0
b. RC 20. The typical input stage of an op amp has a
c. RE a. Single-ended input and single-ended output
d. 2 times Beta b. Single-ended input and differential output
c. Differential input and single-ended output
10. A dc signal has a frequency of d. Differential input and differential output
a. 0
b. 60 Hz 21. The input offset current is usually
c. 0 to over 1 MHz a. Less than the input bias current
d. 1 MHz b. Equal to zero
c. Less than the input offset voltage
11. When the two input terminals of a diff amp are d. Unimportant when a base resistor is used
grounded,
a. The base currents are equal 22. With both bases grounded, the only offset that produces
b. The collector currents are equal an error is the
c. An output error voltage usually exists a. Input offset current
d. The ac output voltage is zero b. Input bias current
c. Input offset voltage
12. One source of output error voltage is d. Beta
a. Input bias current
b. Difference in collector resistors
c. Tail current Chapter 18 OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIERS
d. Common-mode voltage gain
1. What usually controls the open-loop cutoff frequency of
13. A common-mode signal is applied to an op amp?
a. The noninverting input a. Stray-wiring capacitance
b. The inverting input b. Base-emitter capacitance
c. Both inputs c. Collector-base capacitance
d. Top of the tail resistor d. Compensating capacitance

## 14. The common-mode voltage gain is 2. A compensating capacitor prevents

a. Smaller than voltage gain a. Voltage gain
b. Equal to voltage gain b. Oscillations
c. Greater than voltage gain c. Input offset current
d. None of the above d. Power bandwidth

15. The input stage of an op amp is usually a 3. At the unity-gain frequency, the open-loop voltage gain is
a. Diff amp a. 1
b. Class B push-pull amplifier b. Amid
c. Zero 14. If the two supply voltages are plus and minus 15 V, the
d. Very large MPP value of an op amp is closest to
a. 0
4. The cutoff frequency of an op amp equals the unity-gain b. +15V
frequency divided by c. -15 V
a. the cutoff frequency d. 30 V
b. Closed-loop voltage gain
c. Unity 15. The open-loop cutoff frequency of a 741C is controlled
d. Common-mode voltage gain by
a. A coupling capacitor
5. If the cutoff frequency is 15 Hz and the midband open- b. The output short circuit current
loop voltage gain is 1,000,000, the unity-gain frequency is c. The power bandwidth
a. 25 Hz d. A compensating capacitor
b. 1 MHz
c. 1.5 MHz 16. The 741C has a unity-gain frequency of
d. 15 MHz a. 10 Hz
b. 20 kHz
6. If the unity-gain frequency is 5 MHz and the midband c. 1 MHz
open-loop voltage gain is 200,000, the cutoff frequency is d. 15 MHz
a. 25 Hz
b. 1 MHz 17. The unity-gain frequency equals the product of closed-
c. 1.5 MHz loop voltage gain and the
d. 15 MHz a. Compensating capacitance
b. Tail current
7. The initial slope of a sine wave is directly proportional to c. Closed-loop cutoff frequency
a. Slew rate d. Load resistance
b. Frequency
c. Voltage gain 18. If funity is 10 MHz and midband open-loop voltage gain
d. Capacitance is 1,000,000, then the open-loop cutoff frequency of the op
amp is
8. When the initial slope of a sine wave is greater than the a. 10 Hz
slew rate, b. 20 Hz
a. Distortion occurs c. 50 Hz
b. Linear operation occurs d. 100 Hz
c. Voltage gain is maximum
d. The op amp works best 19. The initial slope of a sine wave increases when
a. Frequency decreases
9. The power bandwidth increases when b. Peak value increases
a. Frequency decreases c. Cc increases
b. Peak value decreases d. Slew rate decreases
c. Initial slope decreases
d. Voltage gain increases 20. If the frequency is greater than the power bandwidth,
a. Slew-rate distortion occurs
10. A 741C uses b. A normal output signal occurs
a. Discrete resistors c. Output offset voltage increases
b. Inductors d. Distortion may occur
d. A large coupling capacitor 21. An op amp has an open base resistor. The output voltage
will be
11. A 741C cannot work without a. Zero
a. Discrete resistors b. Slightly different from zero
c. Dc return paths on the two bases d. An amplified sine wave
d. A small coupling capacitor
22. An op amp has a voltage gain of 500,000. If the output
12. The input impedance of a BIFET op amp is voltage is 1 V, the input voltage is
a. Low a. 2 microvolts
b. Medium b. 5 mV
c. High c. 10 mV
d. Extremely high d. 1 V

13. An LF157A is a 23. A 741C has supply voltages of plus and minus 15 V. If
a. Diff amp the load resistance is large, the MPP value is
b. Source follower a. 0
c. Bipolar op amp b. +15 V
d. BIFET op amp c. 27 V
d. 30 V
3. A VCVS amplifier approximates an ideal
24. Above the cutoff frequency, the voltage gain of a 741C a. Voltage amplifier
decreases approximately b. Current-to-voltage converter
a. 10 dB per decade c. Voltage-to-current converter
b. 20 dB per octave d. Current amplifier
c. 10 dB per octave
d. 20 dB per decade 4. The voltage between the input terminals of an ideal op
amp is
25. The voltage gain of an op amp is unity at the a. Zero
a. Cutoff frequency b. Very small
b. Unity-gain frequency c. Very large
c. Generator frequency d. Equal to the input voltage
d. Power bandwidth
5. When an op amp is not saturated, the voltages at the
26. When slew-rate distortion of a sine wave occurs, the noninverting and inverting inputs are
output a. Almost equal
a. Is larger b. Much different
b. Appears triangular c. Equal to the output voltage
c. Is normal d. Equal to +15 V
d. Has no offset
6. The feedback fraction B
27. A 741C has a. Is always less than 1
a. A voltage gain of 100,000 b. Is usually greater than 1
b. An input impedance of 2 Mohm c. May equal 1
c. An output impedance of 75 ohm d. May not equal 1
d. All of the above
7. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. A possible
28. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier trouble is
equals a. No negative supply voltage
a. The ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance b. Shorted feedback resistor
b. The open-loop voltage gain c. No feedback voltage
c. Feedback resistance divided by the input resistance d. Open load resistor
d. The input resistance
8. In a VCVS amplifier, any decrease in open-loop voltage
29. The noninverting amplifier has a gain produces an increase in
a. Large closed-loop voltage gain a. Output voltage
b. Small open-loop voltage gain b. Error voltage
c. Large closed-loop input impedance c. Feedback voltage
d. Large closed-loop output impedance d. Input voltage

30. The voltage follower has a 9. The open-loop voltage gain equals the
a. Closed-loop voltage gain of unity a. Gain with negative feedback
b. Small open-loop voltage gain b. Differential voltage gain of the op amp
c. Closed-loop bandwidth of zero c. Gain when B is 1
d. Large closed-loop output impedance d. Gain at funity

31. A summing amplifier can have 10. The loop gain AOLB
a. No more than two input signals a. Is usually much smaller than 1
b. Two or more input signals b. Is usually much greater than 1
c. A closed-loop input impedance of infinity c. May not equal 1
d. A small open-loop voltage gain d. Is between 0 and 1

## 11. The closed-loop input impedance with an ICVS

Chapter 19 NEGATIVE FEEDBACK amplifier is
a. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance
1. With negative feedback, the returning signal b. Equal to the open-loop input impedance
a. Aids the input signal c. Sometimes less than the open-loop impedance
b. Opposes the input signal d. Ideally zero
c. Is proportional to output current
d. Is proportional to differential voltage gain 12. With an ICVS amplifier, the circuit approximates an
ideal
2. How many types of negative feedback are there? a. Voltage amplifier
a. One b. Current-to-voltage converter
b. Two c. Voltage-to-current converter
c. Three d. Current amplifier
d. Four
13. Negative feedback reduces the
a. Feedback fraction a. No supply voltages
b. Distortion b. Open feedback resistor
c. Input offset voltage c. No input voltage
d. Loop gain d. Open load resistor

14. A voltage follower has a voltage gain of 25. A VCVS amplifier has no output voltage. A possible
a. Much less than 1 trouble is
b. 1 a. Shorted load resistor
c. More than 1 b. Open feedback resistor
d. A c. Excessive input voltage
15. The voltage between the input terminals of a real op amp
is 26. An ICIS amplifier is saturated. A possible trouble is
a. Zero a. Shorted load resistor
b. Very small b. R2 is open
c. Very large c. No input voltage
d. Equal to the input voltage d. Open load resistor

16. The transresistance of an amplifier is the ratio of its 27. An ICVS amplifier has no output voltage. A possible
a. Output current to input voltage trouble is
b. Input voltage to output current a. No positive supply voltage
c. Output voltage to input voltage b. Open feedback resistor
d. Output voltage to input current c. No feedback voltage
17. Current cannot flow to ground through
a. A mechanical ground 28. The closed-loop input impedance in a VCVS amplifier is
b. An ac ground a. Usually larger than the open-loop input impedance
c. A virtual ground b. Equal to the open-loop input impedance
d. An ordinary ground c. Sometimes less than the open-loop input impedance
d. Ideally zero
18. In a current-to-voltage converter, the input current flows
a. Through the input impedance of the op amp
b. Through the feedback resistor Chapter 20 LINEAR OP-AMP CIRCUITS
c. To ground
d. Through the load resistor 1. In a linear op-amp circuit, the
a. Signals are always sine waves
19. The input impedance of a current-to-voltage converter is b. Op amp does not go into saturation
a. Small c. Input impedance is ideally infinite
b. Large d. Gain-bandwidth product is constant
c. Ideally zero
d. Ideally infinite 2. In an ac amplifier using an op amp with coupling and
bypass capacitors, the output offset voltage is
20. The open-loop bandwidth equals a. Zero
a. funity b. Minimum
b. f2(OL) c. Maximum
c. funity/ACL d. Unchanged
d. fmax
3. To use an op amp, you need at least
21. The closed-loop bandwidth equals a. One supply voltage
a. funity b. Two supply voltages
b. f2(OL) c. One coupling capacitor
c. funity/ACL d. One bypass capacitor
d. fmax
4. In a controlled current source with op amps, the circuit
22. For a given op amp, which of these is constant? acts like a
a. f2(CL) a. Voltage amplifier
b. Feedback voltage b. Current-to-voltage converter
c. ACL c. Voltage-to-current converter
d. ACLf2(CL) d. Current amplifier

23. Negative feedback does not improve 5. An instrumentation amplifier has a high
a. Stability of voltage gain a. Output impedance
b. Nonlinear distortion in later stages b. Power gain
c. Output offset voltage c. CMRR
d. Power bandwidth d. Supply voltage

## 24. An ICVS amplifier is saturated. A possible trouble is

6. A current booster on the output of an op amp will increase c. Keep the output voltage almost constant
the short-circuit current by d. Reduce the CMRR of the circuit
a. ACL c
b. Beta dc 17. 1 ppm is equivalent to
c. funity a. 0.1%
d. Av b. 0.01%
c. 0.001%
7. Given a voltage reference of +2.5 V, we can get a voltage d. 0.0001%
reference of +15 V by using a d
a. Inverting amplifier 18. An input transducer converts
b. Noninverting amplifier a. Voltage to current
c. Differential amplifier b. Current to voltage
d. Instrumentation amplifier c. An electrical quantity to a nonelectrical quantity
d. A nonelectrical quantity to an electrical quantity
8. In a differential amplifier, the CMRR is limited mostly by d
a. CMRR of the op amp 19. A thermistor converts
b. Gain-bandwidth product a. Light to resistance
c. Supply voltages b. Temperature to resistance
d. Tolerance of resistors c. Voltage to sound
d. Current to voltage
9. The input signal for an instrumentation amplifier usually b
comes from 20. When we trim a resistor, we are
a. An inverting amplifier a. Making a fine adjustment
b. A transducer a. Reducing its value
c. A differential amplifier b. Increasing its value
d. A Wheatstone bridge d. Making a coarse adjustment
a
10. In the classic three op-amp instrumentation amplifier, 21. A D/A converter with four inputs has
the differential voltage gain is usually produced by the a. Two outputs
a. First stage b. Four outputs
b. Second stage c. Eight outputs
c. Mismatched resistors d. Sixteen outputs
d. Output op amp d
22. An op amp with a rail-to-rail output
11. Guard driving reduces the a. Has a current-boosted output
a. CMRR of an instrumentation amplifier b. Can swing all the way to either supply voltage
b. Leakage current in the shielded cable c. Has a high output impedance
c. Voltage gain of the first stage d. Cannot be less than 0 V.
d. Common-mode input voltage b
23. When a JFET is used in an AGC circuit, it acts like a
12. In an averaging circuit, the input resistances are a. Switch
a. Equal to the feedback resistance b. Voltage-controlled current source
b. Less than the feedback resistance c. Voltage-controlled resistance
c. Greater than the feedback resistance d. Capacitance
d. Unequal to each other c
24. If an op amp has only a positive supply voltage, its
13. A D/A converter is an application of the output cannot
a. Adjustable bandwidth circuit a. Be negative
b. Noninverting amplifier b. Be zero
c. Voltage-to-current converter c. Equal the supply voltage
d. Summing amplifier d. Be ac coupled
a
14. In a voltage-controlled current source,
a. A current booster is never used Chapter 21 ACTIVE FILTERS
b. The load is always floated
c. A stiff current source drives the load 31
d. The load current equals ISC 1. The region between the passband and the stopband is
called the
15. The Howland current source produces a a. Attenuation
a. Unidirectional floating load current b. Center
b. Bidirectional single-ended load current c. Transition
c. Unidirectional single-ended load current d. Ripple
d. Bidirectional floating load current c
2. The center frequency of a bandpass filter is always equal
16. The purpose of AGC is to to
a. Increase the voltage gain when the input signal increases a. The bandwidth
b. Convert voltage to current b. Geometric average of the cutoff frequencies
c. Bandwidth divided by Q 13. Linear phase shift is equivalent to
d. 3-dB frequency a. Q = 0.707
b. Maximally-flat stopband
3. The Q of a narrowband filter is always c. Constant time delay
a. small d. Rippled passband
b. equal to BW divided by f0
c. less than 1 14. The filter with the slowest rolloff rate is the
d. greater than 1 a. Butterworth
b. Chebyshev
4. A bandstop filter is sometimes called a c. Elliptic
a. Snubber d. Bessel
b. Phase shifter
c. Notch filter 15. A first-order active-filter stage has
d. Time-delay circuit a. One capacitor
b. Two op amps
5. The all-pass filter has c. Three resistors
a. No passband d. a high Q
b. One stopband
c. the same gain at all frequencies 16. A first-order stage cannot have a
d. a fast rolloff above cutoff a. Butterworth response
b. Chebyshev response
6. The approximation with a maximally-flat passband is c. Maximally-flat passband
a. Chebyshev d. Rolloff rate of 20 dB per decade
b. Inverse Chebyshev
c. Elliptic 17. Sallen-Key filters are also called
d. Bessel a. VCVS filters
b. MFB filters
7. The approximation with a rippled passband is c. Biquadratic filters
a. Butterworth d. State-variable filters
b. Inverse Chebyshev
c. Elliptic 18. To build a 10th-order filter, we should cascade
d. Bessel a. 10 first-stage stages
b. 5 second-order stages
8. The approximation that distorts digital signals the least is c. 3 third-order stages
the d. 2 fourth-order stages
a. Butterworth
b. Chebyshev 19. To get a Butterworth response with an 8th-order filter,
c. Elliptic the stages need to have
d. Bessel a. Equal Q's
b. Unequal center frequencies
9. If a filter has six second-order stages and one first-order c. Inductors
stage, the order is d. Staggered Q's
a. 2
b. 6 20. To get a Chebyshev response with a 12th-order filter, the
c. 7 stages need to have
d. 13 a. Equal Q's
b. Equal center frequencies
10. If a Butterworth filter has 9 second-order stages, its c. Staggered bandwidths
rolloff rate is d. Staggered center frequencies and Q's
b. 40 dB per decade 21. The Q of a Sallen-Key second-order stage depends on
c. 180 dB per decade the
d. 360 dB per decade a. Voltage gain
b. Center frequency
11. If n = 10, the approximation with the fastest rolloff in the c. Bandwidth
transition region is d. GBW of the op amp
a. Butterworth
b. Chebyshev 22. With Sallen-Key high-pass filters, the pole frequency
c. Inverse Chebyshev must be
d. Elliptic a. Added to the K values
b. Subtracted from the K values
12. The elliptic approximation has a c. Multiplied by the K values
a. Slow rolloff rate compared to the Cauer d. Divided by the K values
b. Rippled stopband
c. Maximally-flat passband 23. If BW increases, the
d. Monotonic stopband a. Center frequency decreases
b. Q decreases
c. Rolloff rate increases d. Relaxation oscillator
d. Ripples appear in the stopband
3. The voltage out of a Schmitt trigger is
24. When Q is greater than 1, a bandpass filter should be a. A low voltage
built with b. A high voltage
a. Low-pass and high-pass stages c. Either a low or a high voltage
b. MFB stages d. A sine wave
c. Notch stages
d. All-pass stages 4. Hysteresis prevents false triggering associated with
a. A sinusoidal input
25. The all-pass filter is used when b. Noise voltages
a. High rolloff rates are needed c. Stray capacitances
b. Phase shift is important d. Trip points
c. A maximally-flat passband is needed
d. A rippled stopband is important 5. If the input is a rectangular pulse, the output of an
integrator is a
26. A second-order all-pass filter can vary the output phase a. Sine wave
from b. Square wave
a. 90 degrees to -90 degrees c. Ramp
b. 0 degrees to -180 degrees d. Rectangular pulse
c. 0 degrees to -360 degrees
d. 0 degrees to -720 degrees 6. When a large sine wave drives a Schmitt trigger, the
output is a
27. The all-pass filter is sometimes called a a. Rectangular wave
a. Tow-Thomas filter b. Triangular wave
b. Delay equalizer c. Rectified sine wave
c. KHN filter d. Series of ramps
d. State-variable filter
7.If pulse width decreases and the period stays the same, the
28. The biquadratic filter duty cycle
a. Has low component sensitivity a. Decreases
b. Uses three or more op amps b. Stays the same
c. Is also called Tow-Thomas filter c. Increases
d. All of the above d. Is zero

## 29. The state-variable filter 8. The output of a relaxation oscillator is a

a. Has a low-pass, high-pass, and bandpass output a. Sine wave
b. Is difficult to tune b. Square wave
c. Has high component sensitivity c. Ramp
d. Uses less than three op amps d. Spike

30. If GBW is limited, the Q of the stage will 9. If AOL = 200,000, the closed-loop knee voltage of a
a. Remain the same silicon diode is
b. Double a. 1 uV
c. Decrease b. 3.5 uV
d. Increase c. 7 uV
d. 14 uV
31. To correct for limited GBW, a designer may use
a. A constant time delay 10. The input to a peak detector is a triangular wave with a
b. Predistortion peak-to-peak value of 8 V and an average value of 0. The
c. Linear phase shift output is
d. A rippled passband a. 0
b. 4 V
c. 8 V
Chapter 22 NONLINEAR OP-AMP CIRCUITS d. 16 V

1. In a nonlinear op-amp circuit, the 11. The input voltage to a positive limiter is a triangular
a. Op amp never saturates wave of 8 V pp and an average value of 0. If the reference
b. Feedback loop is never opened level is 2 V, the output is
c. Output shape is the same as the input shape a. 0
d. Op amp may saturate b. 2 Vpp
c. 6 Vpp
2. To detect when the input is greater than a particular value, d. 8 Vpp
use a
a. Comparator 12. The discharging time constant of a peak detector is 10
b. Clamper ms. The lowest frequency you should use is
c. Limiter a.10 Hz
b.100 Hz d. Much less than 0.7 V
c. 1 kHz
d. 10 kHz 23. In an active peak detector, the discharging time constant
is
13. A comparator with a trip point of zero is sometimes a. Much longer than the period
called a b. Much shorter than the period
a. Threshold detector c. Equal to the period
b. Zero-crossing detector d. The same as the charging time constant
c. Positive limit detector
d. Half-wave detector 24. If the reference voltage is zero, the output of an active
positive limiter is
14. To work properly, many IC comparators need an a. Positive
external b. Negative
a. Compensating capacitor c. Either positive or negative
b. Pullup resistor d. A ramp
c. Bypass circuit
d. Output stage 25. The output of an active positive clamper is
a. Positive
15. A Schmitt trigger uses b. Negative
a. Positive feedback c. Either positive or negative
b. Negative feedback d. A ramp
c. Compensating capacitors
d. Pullup resistors 26. The positive clamper adds
a. A positive dc voltage to the input
16. A Schmitt trigger b. A negative dc voltage to the input
a. Is a zero-crossing detector c. An ac signal to the output
b. Has two trip points d. A trip point to the input
c. Produces triangular output waves
d. Is designed to trigger on noise voltage 27. A window comparator
a. Has only one usable threshold
17. A relaxation oscillator depends on the charging of a b. Uses hysteresis to speed up response
capacitor through a c. Clamps the input positively
a. Resistor d. Detects an input voltage between two limits
b. Inductor
c. Capacitor
d. Noninverting input Chapter 23 OSCILLATORS

## 18. A ramp of voltage 1 . An oscillator always needs an amplifier with

a. Always increases a. Positive feedback
b. Is a rectangular pulse b. Negative feedback
c. Increases or decreases at a linear rate c. Both types of feedback
d. Is produced by hysteresis d. An LC tank circuit

19. The op-amp integrator uses 2. The voltage that starts an oscillator is caused by
a. Inductors a. Ripple from the power supply
b. The Miller effect b. Noise voltage in resistors
c. Sinusoidal inputs c. The input signal from a generator
d. Hysteresis d. Positive feedback

20. The trip point of a comparator is the input voltage that 3. The Wien-bridge oscillator is useful
causes a. At low frequencies
a. The circuit to oscillate b. At high frequencies
b. Peak detection of the input signal c. With LC tank circuits
c. The output to switch states d. At small input signals
d. Clamping to occur
4. A lag circuit has a phase angle that is
21. In an op-amp integrator, the current through the input a. Between 0 and +90 degrees
resistor flows into the b. Greater than 90 degrees
a. Inverting input c. Between 0 and -90 degrees
b. Noninverting input d. The same as the input voltage
c. Bypass capacitor
d. Feedback capacitor 5. A coupling circuit is a
a. Lag circuit
22. An active half-wave rectifier has a knee voltage of b. Lead circuit
b. 0.7 V d. Resonant circuit
c. More than 0.7 V
6. A lead circuit has a phase angle that is
a. Between 0 and +90 degrees 17. The Hartley oscillator uses
b. Greater than 90 degrees a. Negative feedback
c. Between 0 and -90 degrees b. Two inductors
d. The same as the input voltage c. A tungsten lamp
d. A tickler coil
7. A Wien-bridge oscillator uses
a. Positive feedback 18. To vary the frequency of an LC oscillator, you can vary
b. Negative feedback a. One resistor
c. Both types of feedback b. Two resistors
d. An LC tank circuit c. Three resistors
d. One capacitor
8. Initially, the loop gain of a Wien-bridge oscillator is
a. 0 19. Of the following, the one with the most stable frequency
b. 1 is the
c. Low a. Armstrong
d. High b. Clapp
c. Colpitts
9. A Wien bridge is sometimes called a d. Hartley
a. Notch filter
b. Twin-T oscillator 20. The material with the piezoelectric effect is
c. Phase shifter a. Quartz
d. Wheatstone bridge b. Rochelle salts
c. Tourmaline
10. To vary the frequency of a Wien bridge, you can vary d. All the above
a. One resistor
b. Two resistors 21. Crystals have a very
c. Three resistors a. Low Q
d. One capacitor b. High Q
c. Small inductance
11. The phase-shift oscillator usually has d. Large resistance
a. Two lead or lag circuits
b. Three lead or fag circuits 22. The series and parallel resonant frequencies of a crystal
d. A twin-T filter a. Very close together
b. Very far apart
12. For oscillations to start in a circuit, the loop gain must be c. Equal
greater than 1 when the phase shift around the loop is d. Low frequencies
a. 90 degrees
b. 180 degrees 23. The kind of oscillator found in an electronic wristwatch
c. 270 degrees is the
d. 360 degrees a. Armstrong
b. Clapp
13. The most widely used LC oscillator is the c. Colpitts
a. Armstrong d. Quartz crystal
b. Clapp
c. Colpitts 24. A monostable 555 timer has the following number of
d. Hartley stable states:
a. 0
14. Heavy feedback in an LC oscillator b. 1
a. Prevents the circuit from starting c. 2
b. Causes saturation and cutoff d. 3
c. Produces maximum output voltage
d. Means B is small 25. An astable 555 timer has the following number of stable
states:
15. When Q decreases in a Colpitts oscillator, the frequency a. 0
of oscillation b. 1
a. Decreases c. 2
b. Remains the same d. 3
c. Increases
d. Becomes erratic 26. The pulse width out of a one-shot multivibrator increases
when the
16. Link coupling refers to a. Supply voltage increases
a. Capacitive coupling b. Timing resistor decreases
b. Transformer coupling c. UTP decreases
c. Resistive coupling d. Timing capacitance increases
d. Power coupling
27. The output waveform of a 555 timer is
a. sinusoidal 6. With foldback current limiting, the load voltage
b. triangular approaches zero, and the load current approaches
c. rectangular a. A small value
d. elliptical b. Infinity
c. The zener current
28. The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-width d. A destructive level
modulator is
a. Pulse width 7. A capacitor may be needed in a discrete voltage regulator
b. Period to prevent
c. Duty cycle a. Negative feedback
d. Space b. Excessive load current
c. Oscillations
29. The quantity that remains constant in a pulse-position d. Current sensing
modulator is
a. Pulse width 8. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 15 to 14.7
b. Period V between the minimum and maximum load current, the
c. Duty cycle load regulation is
d. Space a. 0
b. 1%
30. When a PLL is locked on the input frequency, the VCO c. 2%
frequency d. 5%
a. Is less than f0
b. Is greater than f0 9. If the output of a voltage regulator varies from 20 to 19.8
c. Equals f0 V when the line voltage varies over its specified range, the
d. Equals fin source regulation is
a. 0
31. The bandwidth of the low-pass filter in a PLL b. 1%
determines the c. 2%
a. Capture range d. 5%
b. Lock range
c. Free-running frequency 10. The output impedance of a voltage regulator is
d. Phase difference a. Very small
b. Very large
Chapter 24 REGULATED POWER AMPLIFIERS d. Equal to the input voltage divided by the output current

1. Voltage regulators normally use 11. Compared to the ripple into a voltage regulator, the
a. Negative feedback ripple out of a voltage regulator is
b. Positive feedback a. Equal in value
c. No feedback b. Much larger
d. Phase limiting c. Much smaller
d. Impossible to determine
2. During regulation, the power dissipation of the pass
transistor equals the collector-emitter voltage times the 12. A voltage regulator has a ripple rejection of -60 dB. If
a. Base current the input ripple is 1 V, the output ripple is
b. Load current a. -60 mV
c. Zener current b. 1 mV
d. Foldback current c. 10 mV
d. 1000 V
3. Without current limiting, a shorted load will probably
a. Produce zero load current 13. Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC regulator if
b. Destroy diodes and transistors a. Power dissipation is too high
c. Have a load voltage equal to the zener voltage b. Internal temperature is too high
d. Have too little load current c. Current through the device is too high
d. All the above occur
4. A current-sensing resistor is usually
a. Zero 14. If a linear three-terminal IC regulator is more than a few
b. Small inches from the filter capacitor, you may get oscillations
c. Large inside the IC unless you use
d. Open a. Current limiting
b. A bypass capacitor on the input pin
5. Simple current limiting produces too much heat in the c. A coupling capacitor on the output pin
a. Zener diode d. A regulated input voltage
c. Pass transistor 15. The 78XX series of voltage regulators produces an
d. Ambient air output voltage that is
a. Positive
b. Negative 26. An advantage of shunt regulation is
c. Either positive or negative a. Built-in short-circuit protection
d. Unregulated b. Low power dissipation in the pass transistor
c. High efficiency
16. The 78XX-12 produces a regulated output voltage of d. Little wasted power
a. 3 V
b. 4 V 27. The efficiency of a voltage regulator is high when
c. 12 V a. Input power is low
d. 40 V b. Output power is high
c. Little power is wasted
17. A current booster is a transistor in d. Input power is high
a. Series with the IC regulator
b. Parallel with the IC regulator 28. A shunt regulator is inefficient because
c. Either series or parallel a. It wastes power
d. Shunt with the load b. It uses a series resistor and a shunt transistor
c. The ratio of output to input power is low
18. To turn on a current booster, we can drive its base- d. All of the above
emitter terminals with the voltage across
a. A load resistor 29. A switching regulator is considered
b. A zener impedance a. Quiet
c. Another transistor b. Noisy
d. A current-sensing resistor c. Inefficient
d. Linear
19. A phase splitter produces two output voltages that are
a. Equal in phase 30. The zener follower is an example of a
b. Unequal in amplitude a. Boost regulator
c. Opposite in phase b. Shunt regulator
d. Very small c. Buck regulator
d. Series regulator
20. A series regulator is an example of a
a. Linear regulator 31. A series regulator is more efficient than a shunt regulator
b. Switching regulator because
c. Shunt regulator a. It has a series resistor
d. Dc-to-dc converter b. It can boost the voltage
c. The pass transistor replaces the series resistor
21. To get more output voltage from a buck switching d. It switches the pass transistor on and off
regulator, you have to
a. Decrease the duty cycle 32. The efficiency of a linear regulator is high when the
b. Decrease the input voltage a. Headroom voltage is low
c. Increase the duty cycle b. Pass transistor has a high power dissipation
d. Increase the switching frequency c. Zener voltage is low
d. Output voltage is low
22. An increase of line voltage into a power supply usually
produces 33. If the load is shorted, the pass transistor has the least
a. A decrease in load resistance power dissipation when the regulator has
b. An increase in load voltage a. Foldback limiting
c. A decrease in efficiency b. Low efficiency
d. Less power dissipation in the rectifier diodes c. Buck topology
d. A high zener voltage
23. A power supply with low output impedance has low
a. Load regulation 34. The dropout voltage of standard monolithic linear
b. Current limiting regulators is closest to
c. Line regulation a. 0.3 V
d. Efficiency b. 0.7 V
c. 2 V
24. A zener-diode regulator is a d. 3.1 V
a. Shunt regulator
b. Series regulator 35. In a buck regulator, the output voltage is filtered with a
c. Switching regulator a. Choke-input filter
d. Zener follower b. Capacitor-input filter
c. Diode
25. The input current to a shunt regulator is d. Voltage divider
a. Variable a
b. Constant 36. The regulator with the highest efficiency is the
c. Equal to load current a. Shunt regulator
d. Used to store energy in a magnetic field b. Series regulator
c. Switching regulator
d. Dc-to-dc converter

## 37. In a boost regulator, the output voltage is filtered with a

a. Choke-input filter
b. Capacitor-input filter
c. Diode
d. Voltage divider

## 38. The buck-boost regulator is also

a. A step-down regulator
b. A step-up regulator
c. An inverting regulator
d. All of the above