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Practice Examination B

1. A person diagnosed with dementia usually:


a. Complains a lot
b. Stresses failures
c. Displays a loss of intellectual capacity
d. Appears to be completely unconcerned
2. Gerontology is best defined as the study of the;
a. Aging process
b. Psychology of aging
c. Illnesses of the aged
d. ADL levels of the aged
3. One of the current proposals regarding the developmentally disabled stre
sses changing the emphasis in active treatment to:
a. One of choice
b. Independent living
c. Occupational therapy
d. Acquiring social skills
4. The most important factor in the treatment and care of the developmental
ly disabled is:
a. The process
b. The end result
c. Documentation
d. Record keeping
5. A resident cannot be discharged or transferred if the:
a. Resident contracts HIV
b. Resident’s needs cannot be met
c. Resident’s health has improved significantly
d. Resident had failed to pay after reasonable notice
6. Assume that 150 doses of medication were prescribed by the resident’s ph
ysician to be administered in a given time period. However, 2 doses ordered wer
e not given and 3 doses were incorrectly administered as prescribed. What was t
he medication error rate?
a. 2.0 %
b. 3.0%
c. 3.3%
d. 5.0%
7. It is standard operating procedure to:
a. Monitor restraints every 2 hours
b. Monitor restraints every 30 minutes
c. Release patients from restraints every two hours and leave them out of t
he restraint for at least one hour
d. Release patients from restraints every hour and leave them out of the re
straint for at least 10 minutes
8. The DON may serve as charge nurse only if the facility:
a. Has applied for a waiver
b. Is licensed for less than 100 beds
c. Has an average daily occupancy of 60 residents or less
d. Accepts only residents requiring minimal nursing services
9. The OBRA outcome-oriented survey is focused on the:
a. Review of physical resources
b. Quality of care actually provided
c. Monitoring of management procedures
d. Compliance with state and federal regulations
10. When a new resident is admitted, the social worker should help the famil
y during the initial separation period by:
a. Maintaining family contact regarding the resident’s condition
b. Telling the family that the facility will handle the resident’s conditio
n
c. Advising the family not to visit until the resident has adjusted to the
facility
d. Advising the family to have someone visit each day until the resident is
adjusted
11. Empathy may be best defined as the:
a. Capacity to share the interest of another person
b. Process whereby one strives to be like another person
c. Unconscious conferring of undesirable traits or tendencies on another pe
rson
d. Ability to comprehend the meaning and relevance of the thoughts and feel
ings of another
12. In most states, which of the following cannot be appointed as the agent
under an advance directive?
a. A friend
b. An attorney
c. A family member
d. The attending physician
13. The Resident Self-Determination Act should be:
a. Enforced by the social service department
b. Discussed during the resident assessment
c. Mailed out annually to all residents and families
d. Given to the resident and family at the time of admission
14. The be effective a resident council should:
a. Be controlled by the administrator
b. Have the participation of residents and employees
c. Be given the opportunity to control the activities of the facility
d. Have continued support by the administrator and the residents
15. A curator, as used in civil law, equates to a:
a. Payee
b. Guardian
c. Next of kin
d. Family member
16. The most common cause of food poisoning is:
a. Infected food handlers
b. Communication with sick persons
c. Contamination of food by insects
d. Improper refrigeration of perishable foods
17. Nursing personnel should encourage a resident to eat in the dining area
unless the resident:
a. Is incontinent
b. Cannot eat unassisted
c. Is confined to a wheelchair
d. Has been contraindicated to do so by physician’s orders
18. According to research studies, the most indispensable mineral found to b
e lacking in the diet of the elderly is:
a. Iron
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Magnesium
19. To maximize the destruction of bacteria on dinnerware, the temperature o
f rinse water in dishwashers should be:
a. 110 F
b. 140 F
c. 160 F
d. 180 F
20. Proper food storage is very important. Of the following problems listed,
which is usually the most significant?
a. Dented cans
b. Temperature control
c. Labeling of cans and leftovers
d. Utensils left in large containers
21. An unplanned and/or undesired weight loss would be classified as signifi
cant if the percentage of loss during a six-month interval was:
a. 4%
b. 6%
c. 8%
d. 10%
22. Carcinoma is the medical term for:
a. Cancer
b. Cataracts
c. Liver spots
d. Heart disease
23. The physician who is primarily involved with the causes and histories of
diseases is:
a. An internist
b. A pathologist
c. A geriatrician
d. A general practitioner
24. Who is responsible for implementation of the resident-care policies in t
he facility?
a. Medical director
b. DON
c. The assessment team
d. Licensed nursing home administrator
25. The physician must write, sign, and date progress notes:
a. Each month
b. At each visit
c. As deemed necessary
d. Monthly for the first 90 days
26. The Social Security Act provides that a facility must have a written tra
nsfer agreement with one or more hospitals that are:
a. Equipped with CAT scan and MRI
b. Within a radius of 5 miles of the facility
c. Able to provide ambulance transportation
d. Approved for participation under both Medicare and Medicaid
27. Under OBRA, the quality improvement committee is required to meet at lea
st:
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Annually
28. Under OBRA, the implementation of which of the following policies is not
the responsibility of the Medical Director?
a. Dietary
b. Admission
c. Personnel
d. Infection control
29. A “re-motivation” program as applied to the senile resident generally re
fers to a:
a. Procedure used to recruit residents for group activities
b. Procedure used to encourage resident-staff cooperation
c. Program designed to stimulate the resident’s interest in community affai
rs
d. Group therapy program designed to stimulate the resident’s interest in t
he real world around him
30. Care plans address activities that are appropriate for each resident bas
ed on the:
a. Age and sex of the resident
b. Comprehensive assessment
c. Former lifestyle of the resident
d. Recommendations of the nursing staff
31. Which of the following would not usually be a primary interdisciplinary
team member?
a. Activity director
b. Rehabilitation staff
c. Nursing facility administrator
d. Therapeutic recreation staff
32. A resident spends most of his time in his room alone and he has few inte
rests except he watches the news on television. Which of the following activity
approaches would perhaps be the most beneficial?
a. Take him on group walks in the community
b. Enroll him in male craft projects like building bird houses
c. Invite him to participate in current events including small group discus
sions
d. Suggest to the attending physician that antidepressant medication be con
sidered
33. The resident activity director has many roles and duties. However, the f
irst responsibility should be:
a. Maintaining adequate records
b. Planning and organizing activity programs
c. Preparing care plans and writing progress notes
d. Completing the assessments and identifying the interests and needs of th
e residents
34. Activity coordinators must plan, coordinate, and direct the resident act
ivity programs and in addition:
a. Supervise therapeutic programs
b. Record notes in the resident’s medical record
c. Conduct the interdisciplinary assessment program
d. Conduct in-service training programs for all employees
35. Medical records are also referred to as clinical records and are utilize
d by various members of the staff. However, the person ultimately responsible f
or accurate and adequate medical records is the:
a. Administrator
b. DON
c. Attending physician
d. Medical records librarian
36. Medical records may be released by written permission of the resident an
d if required by any of the following except:
a. A court order
b. An attorney at law
c. A third party contract including Medicare
d. Another nursing home to which the resident is being transferred
37. In cases in which facilities have created the option for an individual’s
record to be maintained by computer, rather than hard copy:
a. Electronic signatures are acceptable
b. Electronic signatures are acceptable only for the medical staff
c. Signatures must be recorded both electronically and on hard copy
d. Electronic signatures can only be used by full-time employees of the fac
ility
38. The person designated as the clinical record clerk must be:
a. Certified
b. Licensed
c. A consultant
d. A full-time staff member
39. According to Medicare and Medicaid requirements, upon an oral or written
request, the residents shall have access to all records, including clinical rec
ords, pertaining to himself/herself within:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 3 days
d. 1 week
40. Which of the following types of drugs are for external use only?
a. Topical
b. Diuretic
c. Laxative
d. Sedative
41. Stop-order procedures were formerly developed by the pharmaceutical serv
ice committee but are now developed by the:
a. Pharmacist
b. Medical director
c. Pharmacist and the medical director
d. Pharmacist and the DON
42. If a medication has an automatic stop order, the nurse must:
a. Notify the pharmacist
b. Never renew the medication
c. Notify the physician before the last dose is administered
d. Notify the physician at the time the drug is last administered
43. Drugs prepared (poured) for administration at 8:00 am should be administ
ered and recorded before subsequent doses are prepared and administered before:
a. 9:00 am
b. 10:00 am
c. 11:00 am
d. 12:00 noon
44. Abbreviations are used by nurses in completing charts and other medical
records. The abbreviation stat means:
a. Status
b. Statistic
c. Continue
d. Immediately
45. The 1987 OBRA regulation changed the role of the pharmacists in nursing
facilities and greatly increased their responsibility. Therefore, today the pha
rmacist must perform all of the following duties except:
a. Destroy all unused prescriptions
b. Determine that drug records are in order
c. Conduct a review of each resident’s drug regimen
d. Determine that an account of all controlled drugs is maintained and peri
odically reconciled
46. If a resident wants to self-administer medication, who is responsible fo
r drug storage and recording the self-administered doses?
a. The resident
b. The nursing staff
c. A family member
d. The legal guardian
47. According to OBRA, the facility is required to offer therapeutic activit
ies that:
a. Must include games and crafts
b. Support, maintain, and empower
c. Are first approved by the medical staff
d. Are based upon past interests and hobbies
48. Flexion, rotation, abduction, and adduction are all terms referring to:
a. Menus
b. Exercises
c. Nursing modalities
d. Treatment to be provided only be a therapist
49. Which of the following statements relative to range of motion is incorre
ct?
a. Passive ROM is performed by the staff
b. Active ROM is performed by the resident
c. Adequate preventive care must include ROM
d. Active assistive ROM exercises are performed by the resident and the sta
ff
50. If specialized rehabilitation services are required in the resident’s co
mprehensive plan of care, the facility must provide the services or:
a. Dismiss the resident
b. Transfer the resident
c. Obtain the required services from an outside resource
d. Utilize the services available in the nursing department and in the acti
vity department
51. The administrator may want to ensure that a rehabilitative team approach
is being implemented for a resident and that:
a. Some family members assist
b. The staff, including nursing, is involved
c. The physician observes the process and follows up
d. Therapy has its own department and dedicated room
52. Which of the following is not considered a life-sustaining treatment?
a. Physical therapy
b. Dialysis treatment
c. Use of ventilators
d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
53. In monitoring work performance, the most essential activity for the admi
nistrator is to:
a. Hold individual conferences with department heads
b. Review written reports from all department heads and consultants
c. Visit each department and observe daily activities and the environment
d. Conduct staff meetings and secure verbal reports from each department
54. Placing a message in an oral form or in written words, a diagram, pictur
e, or chart is called:
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Formatting
d. Transmitting
55. The key to understanding communication is:
a. Reading
b. Listening
c. Watching
d. Interpreting
56. This of the following relationships is not regarded as having “privilege
d communication?”
a. Husband/wife
b. Attorney/client
c. Physician/patient
d. Administrator/family
57. The lack of adequate communication creates a vacuum which will cause the
staff to:
a. Listen to rumors
b. Reject any information
c. Cease communication
d. Ignore all communication
58. It is very important that staff meetings do not become a:
a. Time to complain
b. Learning situation
c. Sharing experience
d. Time to share challenges
59. The 1996 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act:
a. Encourages all employees to elect the option of participating in COBRA
b. Caps health care plans pre-existing condition limitation of exclusion at
12 months
c. Provides for insurance coverage for children and spouses at the time of
death of the employee
d. Allows for divorced parents to continue insurance coverage for the forme
r spouse and children up to age 21
60. Under FMLA, if paid leave is provided by the employer:
a. Company rules apply in lieu of FMLA
b. The employee is not eligible for coverage under FMLA
c. The rate paid to the employee must equal the employee’s current salary
d. The employer can require the employee to substitute eligible leave for a
ny part of the 12 weeks required by the Act
61. Under the American with Disabilities Act, an employer may:
a. Test and applicant for drugs
b. Require a “fitness for duty examination” providing it is job related
c. Ask questions relative to family members who may have disabilities
d. Require a pre-employment medical examination to determination if the app
licant has a disability
62. Which of the following determines the tasks, the employee behavior, and
the knowledge and skills necessary to carry out a certain job?
a. Job analysis
b. Job assignment
c. Job relationship
d. Job classification
63. Pay scales are required for:
a. Only wage employees
b. Only salaried employees
c. Only non-administrative personnel
d. Both salaried and wage employees
64. During an employee interview you may ask:
a. For a photograph
b. About child care plans
c. About willingness to work religious holidays
d. About willingness to work a required schedule
65. Over 75% of the administrator’s problems relate to:
a. Families
b. Residents
c. Employees
d. Community
66. “Job” is a term that refers to:
a. A collection of tasks that can be performed by an employee
b. The behavior, knowledge, and skills necessary to perform a duty
c. The duties, authority, and qualifications of each employees classificati
on
d. A classification of employees such as secretaries, housekeepers, and nur
ses
67. Affirmative action relates to:
a. Firing practices
b. Hiring practices
c. Benefit programs
d. Compensation programs
68. To develop effective staff rapport, an administrator should:
a. Establish a program of peer review
b. Discourage all formal and informal “grapevines”
c. Promote employees from within the organization
d. Establish clear lines of authority and responsibility
69. What is the average daily absentee rate for a facility with a total of 8
0 full-time employees and 184 lost workdays or absences during a 60-day period?
a. 2.3
b. 2.5
c. 2.6
d. 3.8
70. The primary function of disciplinary action is to:
a. Extract compliance
b. Impose punishment
c. Effect a desired behavior change
d. Ensure that the behavior will never be tolerated in the future
71. It is reasonable to expect that employees who are formally evaluated by
their supervisor will:
a. Experience no effect from the lack of evaluation
b. Make less progress than those who are not evaluated
c. Make more progress than those who are not evaluated
d. Make about the same progress as those who are evaluated
72. EEOC enforces all of the following laws except the:
a. Equal Pay Act
b. Fair Labor Standards Act
c. Title VII of the Civil Rights Acts
d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
73. The “employment-at-will relationship” provides that employer may:
a. Discharge an employee without cause
b. Not discharge an employee without due notice
c. Discharge an employee only with a valid reason
d. Not discharge an employee if the employee is following the job descripti
on
74. Any effective sexual-harassment policy should contain all of the followi
ng essential elements except:
a. The establishment of a complaint procedure
b. A statement clearly prohibiting sexual harassment
c. A description of conduct that constitutes sexual harassment
d. A warning that anyone who violates the policy will be immediately dismis
sed
75. Under COBRA, continuation of employee group medical insurance must be of
fered except if the:
a. Employee retires
b. Employee’s marriage is dissolved
c. Employee’s work hours are reduced
d. Employee is fired for gross misconduct
76. In planning a budget, it is most important to know:
a. Assets and liabilities
b. Net profit and net worth
c. Past cost and future cost
d. Past experience and projected expectations
77. After liquidity, the second major objective of financial management is u
sually:
a. Payroll
b. Inventory
c. Profitability
d. Rate structure
78. The accrual method of accounting is required by Medicaid and Medicare an
d therefore income and expenses are recorded:
a. On a monthly basis
b. As they are capitalized
c. When they are incurred
d. When they are paid or received
79. Depreciation is correctly defined as:
a. A declining balance
b. A cost allocation of equipment
c. The change in value over a stipulated period
d. The decrease in value due to obsolescence, wear, and tear
80. Working capital equals the current assets:
a. Minus fixed assets
b. Minus current liabilities
c. Divided by current assets
d. Minus inventories divided by current liabilities
81. Which paid fringe benefit is usually the most costly?
a. Holidays
b. Jury duty
c. Vacations
d. Sick leave
82. If an employee works 40 hours in a one-week period and worked 10 hours p
er day at a rate of $8.00 per hour, what would be the total salary before deduct
ions and including overtime pay if required?
a. $200.00
b. $256.00
c. $320.00
d. $386.00
83. When a facility is being sold, which of the following is an intangible a
sset that is very marketable?
a. Supplies
b. Goodwill
c. Buildings
d. Equipment
84. In which of the following areas will an employed nursing home administra
tor usually have the most input?
a. Budget
b. Benefits
c. Salary schedules
d. Mission statement
85. The income of a proprietary corporation remaining after all costs, taxes
, and dividends have been paid is known as:
a. Profit
b. Net profit
c. Gross income
d. Retained earnings
86. Which of the following is not a primary source of health care malpractic
e suits:
a. Breach or violation of a contract or promise
b. Rendering substandard or poor quality care
c. Failure to obtain effective consent before intervening in the life of a
resident
d. Agreeing to withhold prescribed treatment at the request of a competent
resident
87. Risk management is identifying and solving problems:
a. As soon as possible
b. Before they get out of hand
c. That only involve a legal risk
d. To adhere to federal guidelines
88. Workers’ compensation insurance premium rates depend upon the claim expe
rience, state regulations, and:
a. Are discounted based upon volume
b. The risk class of the occupations involved
c. Safety programs provided for the employees
d. The number of years insured by the same carrier
89. The key to purchasing supplies is to:
a. Obtain bids and accept the lowest price available
b. Purchase in the largest quantity available to reduce cost
c. Let each department purchase their own supplies their own supplies since
they will use them and know what is needed
d. Standardize the products and vendors used, organize a central purchasing
department, and minimize the people authorized to purchase.
90. Which of the following ratios will reflect the facility’s ability to mee
t obligations?
a. ROI
b. Equity ratio
c. Current ratio
d. Acid test ratio
91. The best way to maintain an inventory is to:
a. Place all orders with a single supplier
b. Observe supply levels in the storeroom
c. Limit access to supplies and requisitioning to specified individuals
d. Record requisitions in an inventory-control system utilizing reorder lev
els
92. A fiscal intermediary is usually:
a. A CPA
b. An HMO
c. An insurance company
d. A state nursing home association
93. The percentage of gross profit for a facility with a gross income of $55
5,000, fixed expenses of $195,000, and variable expenses of $305,000 is approxim
ately:
a. 2.5%
b. 5.5%
c. 9.9%
d. 11.1%
94. Employees pay only 50% of the cost of:
a. FICA
b. FUTA
c. Workers’ Compensation
d. Federal Withholding Tax
95. Which of the following financial statements includes assets and liabilit
ies?
a. Balance sheet
b. Statement of cash flow
c. Statement of revenues and expenses
d. Statement of changes in fund balances
96. Payroll checks should include all of the following information except:
a. Gross pay
b. FICA deductions
c. Income tax withholdings
d. Federal unemployment tax
97. An administrator has been advised that utility costs far exceed those of
comparable facilities. The first action should be to:
a. Arrange for an energy audit
b. Determine whether excessive hot water is being used
c. Have all lights and equipment turned off when not in use
d. Check all heating and air conditioning units for efficiency
98. When two agencies or governmental bodies do not agree on interpretation
s relative to requirements and standards, it is prudent to comply with the order
that is:
a. More stringent
b. Outlined in OBRA
c. Federal versus state
d. More recently enforced
99. According to surveyors, to determine the comfortable and safe levels of
the air temperature in resident rooms and in dining areas, the air temperature s
hould be measured:
a. 2 feet above the floor
b. 3 feet above the floor
c. 4 feet above the floor
d. 4.5 feet above the floor
100. An administrator determines that his laundry is slightly understaffed, b
ut the shortage is not enough to hire a full-time employee. What would be the l
east economical solution?
a. Hire a part-time employee
b. Allow laundry employees to work overtime
c. Stagger employee schedules to provide extended daily laundry service
d. Assign underutilized personnel in another department to the laundry on a
part-time basis
101. According to OSHA, all contaminated sharps shall be discarded in sharp c
ontainers:
a. Immediately after used
b. At the end of every shift
c. Within a reasonable time period
d. After being sheared and broken
102. The principal cause of odors in an NF is:
a. Ventilation systems
b. Incontinent residents
c. Not using disinfectants
d. Improper garbage storage
103. The major advantage in contracting with a professional pest control comp
any is that:
a. Contracting is less expensive than operating the facility’s own program
b. The facility staff is not efficient in identifying key areas to target f
or control
c. Contractors are more thorough in their pest control measures than facili
ty staff.
d. Contractors are generally more knowledgeable than staff about rotating a
ppropriate pesticides to ensure effectiveness.
104. The most common accident occurring to employees in a health-care facilit
y is caused by:
a. Lifting
b. Burns
c. Falling
d. Lacerations
105. The handrails in stairwells must extend beyond the first and last steps
by:
a. 6 inches
b. 8 inches
c. 10 inches
d. 12 inches
106. According to Safe Medical Device Reporting, user facilities must keep re
cords for:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
107. The safety program should include which of the following policies regard
ing the personal electrical appliances residents bring into the facility?
a. Personal appliances should not be allowed in the facility
b. Personal appliances should be inspected prior to initial use and at regu
lar intervals
c. Personal appliances should always be removed from the resident’s room an
d stored when not in use
d. Personal appliances must be inspected and certified as safe by an outsid
e appliance technician
108. The fires that involve energized electrical equipment are classified as:
a. Class A fires
b. Class B fires
c. Class C fires
d. Class D fires
109. Hazardous communication programs, hepatitis B virus, HIV immunization, a
nd universal precautions are all enforced by
a. ANSI
b. DHHS
c. OSHA
d. EEOC
110. Chemical manufacturers and importers must convey the hazard information
to employers by means of labels and:
a. Seminars
b. Suppliers
c. A list provided by OSHA
d. Material safety data sheets
111. All exit doors must swing
a. To the egress
b. To the ingress
c. One to the egress and one to the ingress
d. In either direction but never be propped open
112. According to the Life Safety Code, there must be at least one Class A fi
re extinguisher for every travel distance of:
a. 25 feet
b. 50 feet
c. 75 feet
d. 100 feet
113. OSHA accident reports must be posted
a. Annually
b. At the end of the fiscal year
c. Every year from February 1 through April 30
d. When an accident involves more than three persons
114. The primary advantage of the fire-detection systems is:
a. A warning time
b. That everyone is informed
c. That communication problems are reduced
d. That the fire department is always notified immediately
115. Backup batteries for generators must provide light for certain areas in
a nursing home during emergency situations, however waivers may be obtained for
all areas except:
a. Entrances
b. Nurse’s station
c. Exits and doors
d. Resident call system
116. A Medicaid agency need not be notified if a change occurs in the:
a. Facility’s stock value
b. Ownership of the facility
c. Facility’s nursing home administrator
d. Officers of the managing company of the facility
117. HIPAA requires nursing homes to:
a. Give hospitals immediate access to a resident’s records
b. Employ a person who handles all HIPAA requirements
c. Have written policies and procedures to ensure the protection of clinica
l records
d. Have a family member or legal representative approve all transfers of re
sident clinical information
118. Which of the following is paid for under Part B of Medicare?
a. Dentures
b. Prostheses
c. Eye glasses
d. Hearing aids
119. Which of the following does not license, register, or certify profession
als such as nurses and therapists?
a. Associations
b. State boards
c. State Agencies
d. Federal government
120. Disclosure of ownership is required of:
a. Corporations
b. Governmental agencies
c. Non-profit organizations
d. Individuals operating as sole proprietors
121. In which type of business entity does the owner have the most limited li
ability?
a. Partnership
b. Corporation
c. Joint venture
d. Sole proprietorship
122. Bylaws usually contain all of the following except:
a. Rules
b. Regulations
c. Job descriptions
d. The mission statement
123. It is not the role of the ethics committee to:
a. Make decisions
b. Evaluate alternate solutions
c. Review policies and procedures from an ethical perspective
d. Educate the residents, families, and staff about ethical decision-making
124. When a facility wishes to transfer a resident for reasons other than the
health of the resident being in danger, generally the notice to transfer must b
e provided at least:
a. 1 week prior to the transfer
b. 10 days prior to the transfer
c. 15 days prior to the transfer
d. 30 days prior to the transfer
125. A resident has the right to work in a facility under certain circumstanc
es except when the:
a. Position replaces a full-time employee
b. Resident agrees to the work arrangement
c. Compensation is at or above prevailing wage rates
d. Plan of care specifies the nature of the service performed
126. Which of the following may not be considered abuse?
a. Threats
b. Hand mitts
c. Deprivation
d. Voluntary seclusion
127. Which of the following is seldom handled by the governing board?
a. Hiring all staff
b. Practicing stewardship
c. Establishing goals and objectives
d. Appointing the licensed nursing home administrator
128. The primary purpose of departmentalization is to:
a. Reduce cost
b. Increase personal goals
c. Promote efficient operation
d. Prevent employee arguments
129. All of the following are usually functions of the governing body of a he
alth-care facility except the:
a. Funding sources
b. Organizational structure
c. Creation of a mission statement
d. Creation and implementation of procedures
130. A resident who dies without leaving a will is said to have died:
a. Testate
b. Intestate
c. Inter vivos
d. Without probate
131. It is considered a good administrative practice in a nursing facility to
adopt regulations covering emergency nursing care for residents who may suffer
acute coronary attacks. Which one of the following approaches to assuring such
care is likely to be most effective?
a. Obtain signed standing cardiac orders for all residents in advance
b. Frequently review standing orders for a procedure to be followed in the
event of such an emergency
c. Institute an ongoing in-service training program to teach the nursing pe
rsonnel the use of cardiac monitoring equipment
d. Insist that all physicians who admit residents with histories of cardiac
disorders write cardiac orders at the time of admission
132. The ombudsman cannot:
a. Have access to facility records
b. Issue citations against a facility
c. Serve as an advocate for the elderly
d. See resident records without written consent or a court order
133. The goals of providing resident support and increasing public awareness
may be accomplished by the:
a. Resident council
b. Ethics committee
c. Community council
d. Quality improvement team
134. Demographic information relates primarily to:
a. Topography
b. Health care institutions
c. Educational institutions
d. Statistics regarding population
135. The number of those who need and who will purchase the services offered
by a facility can be determined by:
a. A market-opportunity analysis
b. A study of hospital census ratios
c. A review of existing advertisements
d. As assessment of competitive institutions
136. Marketing is oriented to:
a. Research
b. Advertising
c. Consumers’ wants and needs
d. Various public relation programs
137. Which of the following marketing efforts is perhaps the least effective
to increase occupancy?
a. Supplementing the work of the nursing staff
b. Meeting the personal needs of the resident
c. Changing attitudes toward the physically disabled
d. Bringing the nursing facility and the community closer together
138. Effective delegation has been established when decisions are made:
a. Very quickly
b. By first-line supervisors
c. At the lowest level authorized to make them
d. Through the contribution of ideas by several people
139. When comparing leadership with management, leadership:
a. Is rigid
b. Inspires
c. Specializes
d. Requires authority
140. When a resident feels that everyone is against him/her, it is best to:
a. Try to help by agreeing
b. Be logical and explain everything
c. Realize that there is usually no truth in such statements
d. Have clear communication among staff so all will be consistent
141. Conflict is best resolved by:
a. Orientation
b. Problem solving
c. In-service training
d. Professional training
142. Which of the following is not a type of authority?
a. Line
b. Staff
c. Functional
d. Span of management
143. A basic management principle is to put one person in charge when there a
re:
a. Two or more employees working together
b. Three or more employees working together
c. Five or more employees working together
d. Seven or more employees working together
144. A governing body or designated person(s) is required by:
a. ANSI
b. OSHA
c. OBRA
d. EEOC
145. Goal orientation focuses on:
a. Missions
b. Strategies
c. Controlling
d. Future accomplishments
146. Purpose or mission is the basic task assigned to an enterprise by:
a. Law
b. Society
c. Ownership
d. The board of directors
147. The maximum number of shareholders in a closely held corporation is:
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 250
148. Employees are primarily concerned with which three plans?
a. Plans, budgets, and missions
b. Policies, budgets, and programs
c. Policies, procedures, and rules
d. Policies, budgets, and procedures
149. Laissez-faire, autocratic, and paternal are all forms of:
a. Staffing
b. Authority
c. Goal setting
d. Leadership styles
150. Before attempting to improve its public image, it is mandatory that the
nursing facility:
a. Involve all staff
b. Provide good resident care
c. Hire specialists in public relations
d. Develop a public relations program