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1. Which of the following blood vessels is most often used to find arterial systolic pulse?

A. external jugular vein

B. subclavian artery
C. radial artery
D. radial vein

2. Blood is carried away from the heart by

A. the pulmonary veins
B. systemic veins
C. pulmonary capillaries
D. systemic arteries

3. A thin, weakened section of the wall of a blood vessel that is prone to rupture is termed
A. atherosclerosis
B. arteriosclerosis
C. aneurysm
D. arterial stenosis

4. Which of the following is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk?

A. celiac artery
B. esophageal artery
C. phrenic artery
D. right subclavian artery

5. Which artery enters the skull through the foramen magnum?

A. external carotid
B. basilar
C. vertebral
D. coronary
6. Which of the following is NOT a branch of the aorta?
A. brachiocephalic trunk
B. right coronary artery
C. pulmonary artery
D. left subclavian artery

7. The part of the aorta that passes through the diaphragm is the
A. ascending aorta
B. descending aorta
C. arch of the aorta
D. abdominal aorta

8. The circle of Willis provides blood supply to the

A. liver
B. fetus
C. brain
D. heart

9. The basilar artery is formed by the union of the _____ arteries

A. posterior cerebral
B. anterior and middle cerebral
C. posterior communicating and posterior cerebral
D. vertebral

10. Which of the following vessels bring blood to the inferior vena cava?
A. radial and brachial veins
B. coronary sinus and subclavian veins
C. renal and common iliac veins
D. external jugular and carotid artery
11. Which of the following statements is true?
A. From the popliteal artery, blood flows into the femoral artery
B. From the femoral artery, blood flows into the popliteal artery
On the left, the brachiocephalic artery continues into the shoulder as the subclavian
artery, but on the right the subclavian artery arises directly from the aorta
D. The left gastric, splenic, and renal arteries all arise from the celiac trunk

12. Blood reaches the cells that make up large blood vessels by way of tiny capillaries called the
_____ in the outer layer of the vessel
A. vasa vasorum
B. chordae tendineae
C. arterial syncytium
D. tunica adventitia

13. The pulmonary arteries bring _____ blood to the _____

A. deoxygenated, left atrium
B. deoxygenated, alveoli of the lungs
C. oxygenated, left atrium
D. oxygenated, alveoli of the lungs

14. Which type of blood vessel holds the smallest volume of blood?
A. capillaries
B. systemic veins and venules
C. systemic arteries and arterioles
D. pulmonary vessels

15. The longest vein in the human body is the

A. descending aorta
B. external iliac
C. inferior vena cava
D. great saphenous
16. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood?
A. hepatic vein
B. pulmonary vein
C. axillary vein
D. temporal vein

17. Elastic arteries can withstand the pressure of blood at ventricular systole because
A. they are lined by a thick endothelium that absorbs the pressure
B. arteries have a larger lumen than veins, thus peripheral resistance is lower in arteries
elastic fibers allow the artery to expand with the pressure, then return to original size
and shape
D. blood volume is very low in arteries, so the pressure at systole is minimal

18. Pressure against the walls of capillaries due to water in the blood is called
A. blood hydrostatic pressure
B. blood osmotic pressure
C. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
D. interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

19. Endothelium makes up the layer of the arteries called the

A. tunica interna
B. tunica media
C. tunica externa
D. tunica adventitia

20. The property of arteries that contributes to a pressure reserve is the

A. elastic recoil of the large arteries
B. stiff walls due to the presence of collagenous fibers
C. stretch of the tunica intima
D. thin walls of these vessels

21. The exchange of nutrients and waste products takes place only through the walls of
A. arteries
B. capillaries
C. arterioles
D. venules

22. Capillaries in which the basement membrane is incomplete or absent and have large spaces
between the endothelial cells are called
A. continuous capillaries
B. fenestrated capillaries
C. thorough channels
D. sinusoids

23. Veins that contain valves are located mostly in the

A. head
B. thoracic region
C. limbs
D. abdomen

24. The principal blood reservoirs are the

A. veins in the thorax region
B. arteries in the legs
C. capillary networks throughout the body
D. veins of the abdominal organs

25. If your total blood volume is 5 liters, the volume in your veins and venules is
A. 3 liters
B. 2 liters
C. 1 liter
D. 1 liter

26. At the venous end of capillaries, fluid moves from the interstitial spaces into the capillaries
A. hydrostatic pressure exceeds osmotic pressure
B. blood pressure in the veins is high
C. the net filtration pressure is usually about -9 mm Hg
D. the net filtration pressure at the venous end is higher than at the arterial end

27. Velocity of blood flow is fastest in the

A. aorta
B. muscular arteries
C. capillaries
D. veins

28. Circulation time in an average resting human is about

A. 30 seconds
B. one minute
C. five minutes
D. ten minutes

29. If cardiac output (CO) rises due to an increase in stroke volume or heart rate, but resistance stays
the same
A. blood pressure will increase
B. venous pressure will decrease
C. blood colloid pressure will increase
D. blood flow will decrease

30. If a tube is decreased to 1/2 its diameter, it will increase its resistance to fluid flow
A. 2 times
B. 4 times
C. 8 times
D. 16 times

31. Contraction of skeletal muscles in the leg cause blood to be pumped toward the heart because
A. proximal valves in the vein close and distal valves open
B. both proximal and distal valves open
C. proximal valves open and distal valves close
D. both proximal and distal valves close

32. Which type of blood vessel exerts the major control of systemic vascular resistance on a
moment-to-moment basis?
A. arteries
B. arterioles
C. capillaries
D. veins

33. The most immediate result of increased muscle contraction and increased respiration would be
A. increased venous return to the heart
B. increased cardiac output
C. decreased systemic vascular resistance
D. increased mean arterial pressure

34. Effector tissues regulated by the cardiovascular center are

A. skeletal muscles
B. heart muscle
C. blood vessel smooth muscles
D. heart muscle and blood vessel smooth muscles but not skeletal muscles
35. Sympathetic nerve impulses reach the heart via
A. cardiac accelerator nerves
B. the vagus (X) nerve
C. vasomotor nerves
D. sensory afferent nerves

36. Information on blood pressure travels from the baroreceptors in the arch of the aorta to the
cardiovascular center through the
A. glossopharyngeal nerve
B. cardioaccelerator nerves
C. vagus nerve
D. vasomotor nerves

37. Because of the presence of beta adrenergic receptors on the smooth muscles of arterioles going
to skeletal muscles and the heart, sympathetic stimulation causes
A. vasoconstriction and a reduction in blood flow to these tissues
B. vasodilation and increase in blood flow to these tissues
C. increase in blood pressure
D. decrease in heart rate

38. If blood pressure drops, a negative feedback mechanism causes

A. activation of the venous reservoirs
B. increase in capillary blood flow to insure that the cells get oxygen
C. increase in heart rate, stroke volume, and vasoconstriction
D. vasodilation to allow more blood to return to the heart

39. The principle stimulus for autoregulation of blood flow into the capillaries is
A. oxygen
B. carbon dioxide
C. epinephrine
D. acetylcholine
40. A sign of shock is
A. dry, flushed skin
B. slow pulse
C. increased urine formation
D. hypotension

41. Shock becomes steadily worse and compensatory mechanisms are no longer adequate when the
blood volume drops more than
A. 1-2 percent
B. 5-10 percent
C. 10-20 percent
D. 30-35 percent

42. If the blood pressure reading on a patient is 142/95, the pulse pressure is
A. 142 mm Hg
B. 95 mm Hg
C. 47 mm Hg
D. 74 mm Hg

43. The most proximal portion (closest to the heart) of the aorta is the
A. ascending aorta
B. arch of the aorta
C. thoracic aorta
D. abdominal aorta

44. The diameter of the aorta in an adult is about

A. 1/4 inch
B. 1/2 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 2 inches

45. The largest artery in the thigh is the

A. common iliac artery
B. femoral artery
C. anterior tibial artery
D. sciatic artery

46. The blood that flows to the left arm passes through the
A. left vertebral artery
B. brachiocephalic trunk
C. left common carotid artery
D. left subclavian artery

47. The right radial and ulnar arteries are branches of the
A. right vertebral artery
B. right subclavian artery
C. right axillary artery
D. right brachial artery

48. An important function of the circle of Willis is to

A. supply blood to the head and neck
B. equalize blood pressure and supply alternate routes to the brain
C. act as an alternate blood supply to the liver
D. transport blood from the aorta to the heart tissue

49. The splenic artery supplies blood to the spleen and one of its branches supplies blood to the
A. pancreas
B. liver
C. gallbladder
D. esophagus

50. The unpaired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta are the
A. celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
B. suprarenal, renal, and gonadal arteries
C. inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries
D. sacral and common iliac arteries

51. The _____ arteries pass posterior to the inguinal ligament as they enter the thigh
A. femoral
B. external iliac
C. common iliac
D. posterior tibial

52. The descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum are supplied with blood through the
A. celiac artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. inferior mesenteric artery
D. common iliac artery

53. The abdominal aorta divides into the common iliac arteries at about the level of the
A. bottom of the kidneys
B. fourth lumbar vertebra
C. top of the sacrum
D. pubic bone

54. The transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae have foramina that allow passage of the
A. vertebral veins
B. external jugular veins
C. internal jugular veins
D. subclavian veins

55. The basilic and brachial veins merge in the arm to form the
A. axillary vein
B. subclavian vein
C. cephalic vein
D. median cubital vein

56. Orthostatic hypotension occurs when a person

A. over exercises
B. becomes overheated
C. stands up
D. diets excessively

57. When the axillary vein leaves the arm and enters the shoulder region it is renamed the
A. brachiocephalic vein
B. common carotid vein
C. subclavian vein
D. radial vein

58. The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the two
A. femoral veins
B. great saphenous veins
C. external iliac veins
D. common iliac veins

59. Most of the tissues and organs in the thorax are drained by the
A. brachiocephalic veins
B. azygos system of veins
C. anterior vena cava
D. coronary veins

60. The hepatic portal veins bring blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the _________________
A. kidneys
B. liver
C. brain
D. adrenal glands

61. At the back of the knee, the anterior and posterior tibial and small saphenous veins drain blood
into the
A. femoral vein
B. popliteal vein
C. peroneal vein
D. common iliac vein

62. Which vein of the hepatic portal system drains the small intestine, portions of the large intestine,
stomach and pancreas?
A. inferior vena cava
B. common iliac vein
C. superior mesenteric vein
D. inferior mesenteric vein

63. Because the pulmonary arteries have larger diameter, thinner walls, and less elastic tissue than
systemic arteries
A. the resistance to blood flow is very low
B. the amount of blood flowing through the lungs is low
C. the blood pressure varies considerably during ventricular systole
D. blood gases diffuse readily across them
64. After the baby is born, the umbilical vein that passes through the liver constricts and becomes
A. ligamentum arteriosum
B. ligamentum teres (round ligament)
C. umbilical ligaments
D. fossa ovalis

65. By age 80, blood flow through the kidneys is _____ less than in the same person at the age of 30
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 30 percent
D. 50 percent

66. The cause of primary hypertension is

A. continued psychological stress
B. atherosclerosis
C. pulmonary thrombosis
D. unknown

1. All of these are non-specific defense mechanisms except

A. flow of saliva
B. phagocytosis
C. neutralization of an antigen by an antibody
D. gastric juice acidity

2. The lymphokine interleukin - 2

A. is toxic only to the target cells
B. promotes phagocytic activity
C. attracts leukocytes chemically
D. stimulates T-cell proliferation

3. Lymphocytes that destroy cancerous cells in a non-specific fashion are called

A. carcinolytic cells
B. natural killer cells
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. macrophages

4. Which of the following does NOT function to increase vasodilation and permeability of blood
A. defensins
B. histamine
C. prostaglandins
D. kinins

5. A tissue transplant in which one's own tissue is grafted to another part of the body is called
A. an autograft
B. an isograft
C. an allograft
D. a xenograft

6. Which of the following is a specific body defense mechanism?

A. phagocytosis
B. inflammation
C. immunity
D. fever

7. The most abundant type of immunoglobin is

A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG

8. Interferon is produced in response to the presence of

A. viruses
B. specific bacterial cells
C. chemical irritants
D. lymphocytes

9. The two major types of phagocytic cells are

A. monocytes and eosinophils
B. macrophages and neutrophils
C. neutrophils and lympocytes
D. monocytes and lymphocytes

10. After recovering from certain diseases, one may have developed _____ immunity to the
A. naturally acquired active
B. artificially acquired active
C. naturally acquired passive
D. artificially acquired passive

11. The antibodies involved in allergic reactions are

A. called allergens
B. secreted by mast cells
C. in the IgE class
D. produced only after immunization

12. Normal immune responses require the presence of

A. B lymphocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. both T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
D. NK cells

13. An immunoglobulin is
A. an antigen
B. an antibody
C. a nucleoprotein
D. found in platelets

14. The tissue of which organ is called pulp?

A. thymus
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. tonsils

15. Which of the following cell types is derived from monocytes?

A. neutrophil
B. wandering macrophage
C. mast cell
D. histiocyte

16. Natural killer cells are

A. monocytes
B. macrophages
C. lymphocytes
D. neutrophils

17. A hapten is an antigen that has

A. immunogenicity but not reactivity
B. reactivity but not immunogenicity
C. both immunogenicity and reactivity
D. neither immunogenicity nor reactivity

18. The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)

A. artery
B. arteriole
C. vein
D. capillary

19. The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks are the
A. thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
B. thoracic duct and left lymphatic duct
C. subclavian duct and bronchomediastinal duct
D. cisterna chyli and thoracic duct

20. Lymph nodes of the axillary region receive lymph primarily from the
A. scalp and face
B. arm and mammary gland
C. thoracic viscera
D. abdominal viscera

21. The thoracic duct

A. empties into the right subclavian vein
B. drains the right side of the head and neck
C. is the shorter of the two collecting ducts
D. drains lymph from most of the body
22. Afferent lymph vessels
A. carry lymph toward lymph nodes
B. carry lymph toward the thoracic duct
C. enter a lymph node at the hilum
D. combine to form lacteals

23. The functions of the lymphatic system include

A. draining excess interstitial fluid
B. transporting dietary lipids
C. carrying out immune responses
D. all of these

24. Lymphatic vessels are lined with

A. ciliated columnar epithelium
B. pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
C. endothelium
D. white fibrous connective tissue

25. Emigration refers to the

A. release of lymphokines
B. lysis of cell walls by lymphotoxins
C. apoptosis of cells
D. movement of cells from the circulatory system into infected areas

26. Interleukin - 1
A. is toxic only to the target cells
B. promotes phagocytic activity
C. initiates chemotaxis
D. is a fever-causing cytokine
27. B lymphocytes
A. migrate from the thymus to other lymphatic organs
B. are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity
C. secrete lymphokines
D. are phagocytic

28. Complement
A. is produced by eosinophils and neutrophils
B. is chemotactic and attracts phagocytic cells
C. contains enzymes which reduce the inflammatory response
D. lyses B-cells, thus releasing antibodies

29. Medullary sinuses of lymph nodes

A. are filled with lymph
B. contain germinal centers
C. filter blood
D. are strands of lymphocytes

30. Antigen recognition by a T-cell receptor with CD4 or CD8 proteins is the
____________________ in the activation of a T-cell.
A. first signal
B. second signal
C. third signal
D. fourth signal

31. Lack of reactivity of T cells and B cells to fragments of one's own proteins is known as
A. self-tolerance
B. self-recognition
C. positive selection
D. negative selection
32. Lymph from the cisterna chyli empties into the
A. liver
B. thoracic duct
C. left brachiocephalic vein
D. heart

33. The largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the adult human body is the
A. liver
B. spleen
C. thymus
D. pancreas

34. The proper sequence of phases in the process of phagocytosis is

A. adherence, ingestion, chemotaxis
B. adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion
C. chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion
D. chemotaxis, ingestion, adherence

35. After phagocytosis, which intracellular chemicals kill the microbe by a process called an
oxidative burst?
A. lethal oxidants
B. lysozyme
C. defensins
D. complement

36. The first stage of inflammation is

A. tissue repair
B. vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels
C. phagocyte migration and cytolysis by complement
D. activation of cell mediated immunity

37. The Class I major histocompatibility complex (MHCI) antigens

A. are a large group of bacterial related antigens that cause many diseases
B. are located only on viruses, not bacteria
C. are difficult to produce antibodies against because they are constantly mutating
D. mark the surfaces of all your body cells except your red blood cells

38. Antigen presenting cells (APCs) include

A. macrophages
B. killer T cells
C. neutrophils
D. plasma cells

39. When stimulated, T cells that display the CD8 molecule develop into
A. plasma cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. memory cells
D. helper T cells

40. Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells directly by secreting

A. cytokines
B. antibodies
C. lysozyme
D. perforin and granulysin

41. An activated B cell develops into a clone of

A. T cells
B. Natural Killer cells
C. antibody-producing plasma cells
D. IgG antibodies

42. Antibodies are composed of

A. 1 heavy and 3 light polypeptide chains
B. 2 heavy and 2 light polypeptide chains
C. 2 heavy and 2 light polysaccharide chains
D. 1 light and 3 heavy polysaccharide chains

1. Chemoreceptors in the brain are activated primarily by the presence of _______ in the
cerebrospinal fluid.
A. hydrogen ions
B. oxygen ions
C. carbonic acid
D. bicarbonate ions

2. Carbon dioxide binds to the globin portion of hemoglobin to form

A. oxyhemoglobin
B. hemoglobin
C. carbonic anhydrase
D. carbaminohemoglobin

3. Mucous membranes of the nasal passages, nasopharynx and trachea are lined with what type of
A. stratified columnar
B. simple squamous
C. simple columnar
D. pseudostratified ciliated columnar

4. The enzyme carbonic anhydrase causes

A. carbon dioxide to react with water
B. carbon dioxide to react with bicarbonate ions
C. hydrogen ions to react with bicarbonate ions
D. hydrogen ions to react with water

5. The term pulmonary ventilation refers to

A. external respiration
B. cellular respiration
C. internal respiration
D. mechanics of breathing

6. If the air we breathe contains 10 percent of Gas X, the partial pressure of Gas X is
A. 760 mm Hg
B. 76 mm Hg
C. 7.6 mm Hg
D. 0.76 mm Hg

7. Nerves, pulmonary vessels, and bronchi enter the lungs at the

A. cupola
B. hilus
C. base
D. costal surface

8. As blood enters the systemic capillaries

A. pO2 is high in the blood and low in the tissues
B. pO2 is low in the blood and high in the tissues
C. pO2 is low in the blood and low in the tissues
D. pO2 is high in the blood and high in the tissues
9. The first respiratory branches after the trachea are called
A. lobar bronchi
B. segmental bronchi
C. primary bronchi
D. respiratory bronchi

10. When oxygen combines with the heme of hemoglobin, what is formed?
A. oxyhemoglobin
B. hemoglobin
C. carbaminohemoglobin
D. carbonic acid

11. The right lung has

A. 2 fissures and 3 lobes
B. 1 fissure, 2 lobes, and the cardiac notch
C. 2 fissures, 3 lobes, and the cardiac notch
D. 1 fissure and 2 lobes

12. Tidal volume is

A. the amount of air that can be forced from the lungs after normal exhalation
B. the volume of air in one breath during normal relaxed breathing
C. about 5,800 ml
D. about 3,000 ml

13. During swallowing, the glottis is covered by

A. hyaline cartilage rings
B. the epiglottis
C. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D. the tongue
14. Some hydrogen ions in the blood are produced by the dissociation of
A. bicarbonate
B. carbonic acid
C. carbonic anhydrase
D. carbaminohemoglobin

15. The amount of oxygen that can combine with heme is determined mainly by the
A. systolic blood pressure
B. partial pressure of oxygen
C. concentration of hydrogen ions
D. concentration of carbonic anhydrase

16. In order for inspiration to occur,

A. alveolar pressure must decrease
B. the thoracic cavity must decrease in size
C. external intercostal muscles must pull ribs down and in
D. external intercostal muscles must relax

17. Internal respiration occurs

A. between atmosphere and blood
B. between systemic capillaries and tissue cells
C. in bronchi and trachea
D. in the lungs

18. The amount of oxygen released by the hemoglobin molecules in the blood to the tissues
A. decreases as pCO2 increases
B. increases as blood pH decreases (acidity increases)
C. decreases as temperature increases
D. increases as pCO2 decreases
19. Most carbon dioxide is carried in the blood
A. as part of a bicarbonate ion
B. as carbonic anhydrase
C. as dissolved carbon dioxide gas
D. bound to hemoglobin

20. The respiratory membrane consists of

A. a single layer of epithelial cells
B. a single layer of epithelial cells and a basement membrane
C. two layers of epithelial cells and 2 basement membranes
D. two layers of epithelial cells

21. In the lungs

A. PCO2is high in the alveoli and low in the capillaries
B. PO2 is high in the alveoli and high in the capillaries
C. PCO2 is low in the alveoli and high in the capillaries
D. PO2 is low in the alveoli and low in the capillaries

22. Surface tension of the alveolar fluid is reduced by the presence of

A. surfactant
B. serotonin
C. histamine
D. hyaline cartilage rings

23. Eupnea refers to

A. constant diaphragmatic breathing
B. wheezing
C. forced exhalation
D. a normal pattern of quiet breathing
24. The phrenic nerves innervate the
A. trachea
B. visceral pleura
C. alveoli
D. diaphragm

25. The vocal folds are found in the

A. glottis
B. pharynx
C. larynx
D. trachea

26. Lung compliance is affected mainly by the amount of elastic tissue in the lungs and the
A. thickness of cartilage in the trachea
B. partial pressure of oxygen in inhaled air
C. diameter of the nasal cavity
D. amount of surfactant

27. The rhythm of normal breathing is controlled by neurons located in the

A. cerebellum
B. vagus nerve
C. spinal cord
D. medulla oblongata

28. Epithelial cells of the respiratory tract are ciliated. The function of these cilia is to
A. moisten the inhaled air
B. secrete mucus
C. move mucus toward the pharynx
D. respond to olfactory stimuli
29. During internal and external respiration, gases move by
A. osmosis
B. active transport
C. endocytosis
D. diffusion

30. When the diaphragm lowers during breathing

A. volume in the thoracic cavity increases
B. alveolar pressure increases
C. external intercostal muscles relax
D. pleural cavity decreases in size

31. A disorder characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli is

A. emphysema
B. pneumonia
C. pneumothorax
D. pleurisy

32. Functionally, the bronchi are considered to be part of the _____ portion of the respiratory
A. upper
B. lower
C. conducting
D. respiratory

33. We hold our breath when lifting a heavy object by closing off the opening of the larynx using the
A. ventricular folds (false vocal cords)
B. vocal folds (true vocal cords)
C. epiglottis
D. soft palate
34. An increase in pulmonary capillary permeability or an increase in pulmonary capillary pressure
leads to
A. pulmonary embolism
B. respiratory stress syndrome
C. asthma
D. pulmonary edema

35. The most sensitive region of the respiratory tract for triggering the cough reflex is the
A. larynx
B. epiglottis
C. carina
D. bronchioles

36. The smallest and last tube the air flows through before it reaches the alveoli is the
A. tertiary bronchiole
B. terminal bronchiole
C. respiratory bronchiole
D. alveolar duct

37. The function of alveoloar macrophages is

A. to secrete surfactant
B. to provide oxygen to the Type I alveolar cells
C. to remove dust particles and other debris from alveolar spaces
D. to form part of the terminal bronchioles

38. _____________ Law states that each gas in a mixture of gases exerts its own pressure as if all
the other gases were not present
A. Dalton's
B. Charles'
C. Henry's
D. Boyle's

39. The sum of the residual volume, tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume is the
A. vital capacity
B. inspiratory capacity
C. functional residual capacity
D. total lung capacity

40. During normal quiet breathing, the diaphragm descends and the alveolar pressure decreases
A. 0.5 mm Hg
B. 2 mm Hg
C. 10 mm Hg
D. 100 mm Hg

41. When we inhale

A. both alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure decrease
B. both alveolar pressure and intrapleural pressure increase
C. alveolar pressure increases and intrapleural pressure decreases
D. alveolar pressure decreases and intrapleural pressure increases

42. A modified respiratory pattern involves a series of convulsive inspirations followed by a single
prolonged expiration. This pattern is characteristic of
A. sneezing
B. sobbing
C. laughing
D. sighing

43. After you inhale in a quiet inhalation, which lung volume does not contain any air?
A. residual volume
B. expiratory reserve volume
C. tidal volume
D. inspiratory reserve volume

44. Although air contains about 79 percent nitrogen, very little of it dissolves in blood plasma
because of its low solubility coefficient. This is an example of
A. Boyle's law
B. Dalton's law
C. Henry's law
D. the Bohr effect

45. _____________is a disorder characterized by chronic airway inflammation, airway

hypersensitivity to a variety of stimui, and airway obstruction. Symptoms include chest
tightness, coughing and wheezing.
A. influenza
B. pneumonia
C. asthma
D. pneumonia

46. At a partial pressure of 105 mm Hg in the alveoli, the percent saturation of hemoglobin with
oxygen in the pulmonary capillaries will be
A. almost 100 percent
B. about 90 percent, depending on the rate of blood flow
C. 80 percent or more, depending on how hard we breathe
D. 75 percent, because the solubility of oxygen in water is low

47. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried as

A. carbaminohemoglobin
B. gas dissolved in the plasma
C. the bicarbonate ion
D. oxyhemoglobin
48. In normal, quiet breathing, the basic rhythm of respiration is determined almost entirely by the
autorhythmic cells of the
A. expiratory area
B. inspiratory area
C. pneumotaxic area
D. apneustic area

49. By age seventy, the vital capacity can decrease as much as

A. 10 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 35 percent
D. 50 percent

50. The most common infectious cause of death in the United States is
A. pneumonia
B. influenza
C. tuberculosis
D. coryza

1. The wavelike, rhythmic contractions that move food through the digestive tract are called
A. deglutition
B. peristalsis
C. mucosal contractions
D. absorption

2. Which peritoneal modification supports the large intestine?

A. dorsal mesentery
B. falciform ligament
C. lesser omentum
D. mesocolon

3. The pyloric sphincter is found between the

A. duodenum and jejunum
B. ileum and cecum
C. stomach and esophagus
D. stomach and duodenum

4. The pancreas is stimulated to release its secretions by

A. gastrin
B. HCl in chyme
C. secretin
D. trypsinogen

5. Which of the following are part of the digestive system, but are not part of the alimentary canal?
A. duodenum, jejunum, ileum
B. stomach, esophagus, pharynx
C. liver, pancreas, gallbladder
D. mouth, pharynx, rectum

6. The physical and chemical breakdown of food is completed primarily in the

A. large intestine
B. stomach
C. small intestine
D. cecum

7. Gastric glands increase their secretory activity in response to a hormone released from the
A. duodenum
B. stomach
C. pancreas
D. liver

8. The space between the parietal and visceral peritoneum is the _____ cavity.
A. antiperitoneal
B. mediastinal
C. retroperitoneal
D. peritoneal

9. Connective tissue of the mucosa is called the

A. muscularis mucosae
B. rugae
C. lamina propria
D. myenteric plexus

10. The intrinsic factor is produced by _____ cells of the gastric glands.
A. goblet
B. parietal
C. G
D. chief

11. The esophageal hiatus is in the

A. esophagus
B. cardiac portion of the stomach
C. mesentery
D. diaphragm

12. Digestion begins in the

A. stomach
B. mouth
C. jejunum
D. esophagus

13. Taste buds are found in elevations on the dorsal surface of the tongue called
A. papillae
B. emetics
C. Peyer's patches
D. plicae circularis

14. What are the names of the three sections of the small intestine?
A. cecum, pylorus, fundus
B. duodenum, jejeunum, ileum
C. pylorus, ileum, colon
D. jejeunum, cardia, duodenum

15. The final products of protein digestion are

A. amino acids
B. fatty acids and glycerol
C. monosaccharides
D. nucleotides

16. Absorption of nutrients occurs primarily in the

A. stomach
B. small intestine
C. colon
D. pancreas

17. The myenteric plexus is located in which layer of the alimentary canal?
A. mucosa
B. serosa
C. lamina propria
D. muscularis

18. Which hormone stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice that is rich in digestive enzymes and
contraction of the wall of the gallbladder to release bile?
A. cholecystokinin
B. gastrin
C. enterokinase
D. secretin

19. The crypts of Lieberkuhn (intestinal glands) are found in the

A. gastric pits
B. large intestine
C. small intestine
D. pancreas

20. The nerve plexus that controls secretions by the gastrointestinal tract is located in the
A. mucosa
B. submucosa
C. muscularis
D. serosa

21. The inner surface of each lip is attached to the gum by a midline fold of mucous membrane
called the
A. labia
B. fauces
C. vermilion
D. labial frenulum
22. Mumps is a viral infection, inflammation, and enlargement of the
A. lingual tonsils
B. parotid salivary glands
C. tongue and throat
D. uvula and soft palate of the mouth

23. The duct of the parotid gland enters the mouth cavity near the
A. second maxillary molar
B. lingual frenulum
C. base of the tongue
D. floor of the mouth

24. Secretion of saliva stops

A. immediately after food is swallowed
B. when food is tasted
C. when we see or smell food
D. when the body is dehydrated

25. The deciduous molars (baby teeth molars) are replaced in the adult by the
A. incisors
B. premolars (bicuspids)
C. cuspids
D. molars

26. Salivary amylase digestive activity

A. occurs only in the mouth while the food is being chewed
continues until the food is swallowed, then it is halted by esophageal
C. stops as soon as it arrives in the stomach
D. continues in the stomach until the stomach acids deactivate it

27. During the act of deglutition

A. deciduous teeth are replaced by permanent ones
B. salivary glands are stimulated to secrete more saliva
C. food moves from the mouth to the stomach
D. food is thoroughly mixed with saliva by action of the tongue and teeth

28. What are rugae?

A. folds of the serosa of the stomach
B. folds of the mucosa of the small intestine
C. folds of the peritoneum that attach to the greater and lesser curvatures of the stomach
D. folds of the mucosa of the stomach

29. The passage of a bolus of solid food from the mouth to the stomach takes about
A. 1/2 second
B. 4-8 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute

30. The inner lining of the stomach is made up of

A. simple columnar epithelium
B. simple squamous epithelium
C. stratified squamous epithelium
D. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

31. Hydrochloric acid is produced in the stomach by the

A. mucous surface cells
B. goblet cells
C. chief cells
D. parietal cells

32. The thought or smell of food initiates the _____ phase of stomach secretion and motility.
A. cephalic
B. buccal
C. gastric
D. intestinal

33. During the intestinal phase of gastric digestion

A. gastric secretions and motility increase
B. gastric motility increases, but gastric secretions decrease
C. gastric motility decreases, but gastric secretions increase
D. gastric secretions and motility decrease

34. Secretion of gastrin and stimulation of the vagus nerve cause

decreased stomach motility, relaxation of the esophageal sphincter, and contraction of
the pyloric sphincter
increased secretion of secretin, inhibition of the smooth muscles of the stomach, and
contraction of the pyloric sphincter
increased stomach motility, contraction of the esophageal sphincter, and relaxation of
the pyloric sphincter
decreased secretion of hydrogen ions, inhibition of pepsin secretion, and relaxation of
the esophageal muscles

35. The ducts of the pancreas and liver connect to the digestive tract at the
A. pylorus of the stomach
B. duodenum
C. jejunum
D. ileum

36. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are enzymes of the pancreatic juice that act on
A. proteins
B. fats
C. carbohydrates
D. DNA and RNA

37. Pepsin action ceases in the duodenum because of the presence of

A. enterokinase enzyme, secreted by the duodenum
B. bile pigments from the liver
C. bicarbonate ions from the pancreas
D. secretin hormone from the duodenum

38. The only substance in bile that aids in digestion is

A. bilirubin
B. bile salts
C. secretin
D. lipase

39. The hormone that causes secretion of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions is
A. secretin
B. cholecystokinin
C. gastrin
D. enterokinase

40. The cystic duct is attached to the

A. gallbladder
B. pancreas
C. liver
D. duodenum
41. The finger-like projections of the small intestine that give the mucosa a velvety appearance and
greatly increase the surface area are called
A. circular folds
B. villi
C. cilia
D. haustra

42. Most carbohydrate digestion takes place in the

A. mouth
B. stomach
C. small intestine
D. large intestine

43. There are no lipase enzymes secreted by the gland cells of the
A. mouth
B. stomach
C. pancreas
D. small intestine

44. All lipids are absorbed through the brush border of the small intestine by the process of
A. facilitated diffusion
B. simple diffusion
C. active transport
D. pinocytosis

45. Although over 9 liters of water enter the small intestine, the amount lost in the feces is only
A. 0.1 liter
B. 1 liter
C. 2 liters
D. 3 liters
46. Which digestive gland produces bile?
A. salivary glands
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. gallbladder

47. Which two regions of the large intestine are retroperitoneal?

A. ascending colon and sigmoid colon
B. descending colon and sigmoid colon
C. ascending colon and descending colon
D. transverse colon and sigmoid colon

48. Tubular glands formed by simple columnar epithelium and goblet cells that extend the full
thickness of the mucosa are found in the
A. esophagus
B. stomach
C. liver
D. large intestine

49. Which of the following is NOT a function of hepatocytes?

A. secretion of digestive enzymes
B. secretion of bile
C. detoxifying alcohol
D. synthesizing cholesterol

50. In the embryo, the inner lining of most of the digestive tract is formed from
A. ectoderm
B. mesoderm
C. endoderm
D. mesenchyme

51. Dentists recommend that plaque be removed from the teeth at least every
A. 24 hours
B. week
C. month
D. 6 months

52. The second leading cause of cancer deaths in males, after deaths from lung cancer, is
A. pancreatic cancer
B. colorectal cancer
C. cancer of the mouth and tongue
D. stomach cancer

53. Gallstones are formed from the fusion of crystallized

A. cholesterol
B. bile salts
C. bilirubin
D. sodium chloride

54. The branch of dentistry that is concerned with the prevention and correction of abnormally
aligned teeth is
A. endodontics
B. orthodontics
C. peridontics
D. paradontics

1. Within a living cell, the oxidation of one molecule is always coupled with the simultaneous _____
of another molecule.
A. phosphorylation
B. dehydrogenation
C. chemiosmosis
D. reduction

2. In the transitional step between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle

A. glucose enters the mitochondria
B. pyruvic acid undergoes decarboxylation
C. coenzyme A brings FAD and NAD to the mitochondria
D. coenzyme Q adds electrons to glucose

3. Essential amino acids are those that

A. cannot be synthesized by humans in adequate amounts
B. can be synthesized by humans
C. are necessary only in trace amounts
D. are needed in large quantities daily

4. In fatty acid metabolism, which molecule enters the Krebs cycle?

A. the entire fatty acid
B. ketone bodies
C. acetyl CoA

5. A nutrient
A. is used for growth, maintenance and repair
B. rearranges atoms within a molecule
C. transports electrons along the transport chain
D. serves as a carrier molecule within the Krebs cycle

6. Which hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?

A. aldosterone
B. insulin
C. parathormone
D. cortisol

7. The electron transport chain

A. involves four classes of carrier molecules
B. is a stepwise release of energy for the generation of ATP
C. consists of specialized molecules located in the cytoplasm
D. requires acetyl CoA and the process of beta oxidation

8. Body temperature is ultimately regulated by the

A. skin
B. hypothalamus
C. cerebral cortex
D. amount of glucose ingested

9. The energy for metabolism is primarily transferred by molecules of

A. transferase
B. cofactor
D. oxygen

10. Which of the following minerals are constituents of coenzymes?

A. calcium, iron, magnesium
B. iodine, sodium chloride
C. magnesium, cobalt, zinc
D. copper, lead, aluminum
11. The function of HDLs (high density lipoproteins) is to
A. transport triglyerides from adipose cells to the liver
B. transport triglycerides from hepatocytes to adipose cells
deliver cholesterol in blood to cells throughout the body so they can use it to repair their
membranes and synthesize steroid hormones
D. pick up excess cholesterol from body cells and the blood and return it to the liver

12. Vitamin D deficiency causes

A. rickets and osteomalacia
B. night blindness
C. scurvy
D. pernicious anemia

13. Convection is
A. the transfer of heat between two substances or objects in contact with each other
B. the transfer of heat from a warmer object to a coller object without physical contact
C. the transfer of heat by a liquid or gas between areas of different temperatures
D. the conversion of a liquid to a vapor

14. The areas of the brain that regulate food intake are located in the
A. hypothalamus
B. cerebral cortex
C. medulla oblongata
D. cerebellum

15. An example of anabolism is the

A. series of reactions in the Krebs cycle
B. breakdown of glucose into pyruvic acid
C. electron transport chain of reactions
D. formation of protein molecules from amino acids
16. The amount of energy released in catabolism that is available for cellular functions equals about
A. 20 percent
B. 40 percent
C. 75 percent
D. 90 percent

17. The major regulator of BMR is

A. the hypothalamus
B. diet
C. thyroid hormone
D. exercise

18. Too high a core body temperature can be fatal because it causes
A. the blood to coagulate
B. denaturation of proteins
C. cardiac arrythmias
D. nerve impulses from the brain to cease

19. An increase in core body temperature of one degree C (Celsius) will increase the rate of
biochemical reactions by about
A. 1 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 25 percent

20. In the negative feedback mechanism of body temperature heat regulation, in response to a
decrease of body temperature, the hypothalamus
A. releases epinephrine and thyroxine
B. sends parasympathetic impulses to the arterioles of the skin
C. releases thyrotropin-releasing hormone
D. sends sympathetic impulses to the blood vessels of the digestive tract

21. When you touch a cool object, you are losing heat by
A. radiation
B. conduction
C. convection
D. evaporation

22. When, as a result of pyrogens, the body thermostat is set to a higher temperature, you will
A. a chill
B. hot flashes
C. hypothermia
D. sweating

23. A coupled chemical reaction that directly transfers a high energy phosphate group from a
substrate to ADP, producing ATP is
A. substrate-level phosphorylation
B. oxidative phosphorylation
C. an electron transport chain reaction
D. photophosphorylation

24. Which of these four processes is called anaerobic respiration?

A. glycolysis
B. formation of Acetyl coenzyme A
C. Krebs cycle
D. electron transport chain

25. Which of these four processes produces ATP from NADH and FADH2?
A. glycolysis
B. formation of Acetyl coenzyme A
C. Krebs cycle
D. electron transport chain

26. As a result of glycolysis, there is a net gain of ____ ATP molecules.

A. two
B. four
C. one
D. thirty two

27. In glycolysis, which of the following ATP energy budgets is correct?

A. 2 ATPs produced - 0 ATPs used = net gain of 2 ATPs
B. 4 ATPs produced - 0 ATPs used = net gain of 4 ATPs
C. 4 ATPs produced - 2 ATPs used = net gain of 2 ATPs
D. 2 ATPs produced - 1 ATPs used = net gain of 1 ATP

28. Which of the following reactions does NOT occur in the Krebs cycle?
A. production of reduced coenzymes
B. production of carbon dioxide
C. generation of GTP, which is used to produce ATP
D. formation of lactic acid in the absence of oxygen

29. For every glucose molecule metabolized, how many carbon dioxide molecules are produced?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

30. NADH dehydrogenase complex, cytochrome b-c1 complex, and cytochrome oxidase complex
are all
A. proton pumps in the mitochondrial membrane
B. enzymes of the Krebs cycle
C. kinases in the glycolysis reactions
D. molecules that transport pyruvic acid into the mitochondrion

31. In which cellular compartment does glycolysis occur?

A. nucleus
B. cytoplasm
C. mitochondrion,
D. endoplasmic reticulum

32. How many oxygen molecules are used during the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

33. The majority of fat in the body is stored in fat cells located
A. subcutaneously
B. around the heart
C. in the abdomen
D. around the kidneys

34. Acetone, acetoacetic acid, and beta-hydroxybutyric acid are

A. emboli
B. chylomicrons
C. micelles
D. ketone bodies
35. An increase in urea in the blood would indicate an increase in the breakdown of
A. glucose
B. amino acids
C. fatty acids
D. glycerol

36. Before amino acids can enter the Krebs cycle, they must undergo
A. lipolysis
B. beta oxidation
C. deamination
D. glycolysis

37. After glucose 6-phosphate is formed in a cell it cannot

A. be used to synthesize glycogen
B. diffuse out of the cell
C. be used for the synthesis of the sugar needed in RNA
D. be used in glycolysis

38. Which molecule will undergo different reactions, depending on whether oxygen is plentiful, or
in short supply?
A. acetyl CoA
B. citric acid
C. glucose 6-phosphate
D. pyruvic acid

39. The main hormone that is active during the absorptive state is
A. insulin
B. glucagon
C. thyroid hormone
D. cortisol
40. During the absorptive state, glucose is
A. deaminated and used as an energy source
B. stored by the liver for later use
C. oxidized for ATP production
D. used for gluconeogensis

41. During the postabsorptive state, when we exercise, the anaerobically produced lactic acid is
A. oxidized in the skeletal muscles when oxygen becomes available
B. carried to the liver where it can be converted into glucose and put back into the blood
C. carried to the kidney where it is excreted
D. converted to ketone bodies, which are used by all cells of the body

42. Experts in good nutrition recommend that we get about _____ of our calories from complex
A. 15 percent
B. 30 percent
C. 50 - 60 percent
D. 10 percent

43. The base of the food guide pyramid includes

A. fruits
B. raw leafy vegetables
C. milk and yogurt
D. bread and cereals

44. Which of the following minerals serves as an antioxidant, prevents chromosome damage, and
may play a role in preventing certain birth defects?
A. zinc
B. magnesium
C. chromium
D. selenium

45. Which vitamin is essential for the formation of photopigments and, if deficient, leads to night
A. A
B. D
C. E
D. K

46. The only B vitamin not found in vegetables, the only vitamin requiring intrinsic factor for proper
absorption, and the vitamin necessary for red blood cell formation is vitamin
A. B1 (thiamine)
B. B2 (riboflavin)
C. B6 (pyridoxine)
D. B12 (cyanocobalamin)

47. Obesity is defined as a body weight more than _____ above a desirable standard due to
excessive accumulation of adipose tissue.
A. 10 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 30 percent
D. 40 percent

48. Which of these four series of reactions uses oxygen in the last reaction of the series?
A. glycolysis
B. formation of Acetyl coenzyme A
C. Krebs cycle
D. electron transport chain

1. Urine leaves the urinary bladder through the

A. urethra
B. collecting duct
C. ureter
D. renal vein

2. Which of the following structures are found in the renal cortex?

A. distal convoluted tubules
B. renal columns
C. collecting ducts
D. minor calyces

3. Fenestrations are associated with the

A. loop of Henle
B. Bowman's capsule
C. collecting duct
D. glomerulus

4. Urine contains
A. waste products of digestion
B. waste products of metabolism
C. only water
D. only water and proteins

5. The renal pelvis

A. is formed by the union of minor calyces
B. channels urine toward the renal pyramids
C. contains collecting tubules
D. drains into the ureter

6. The kidneys help control blood pressure by the secretion of

A. erythropoietin
B. angiotensin
C. aldosterone
D. renin

7. Sodium is moved out of the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule and into the interstitial fluid
by the process of
A. diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion
C. active transport
D. osmosis

8. The outer layer of the three layers of tissue that surround the kidney is the
A. renal fascia
B. adipose capsule
C. renal capsule
D. peritoneum

9. In renal interstitial fluid

A. sodium chloride has the same concentration from cortex to medulla
B. sodium chloride concentration decreases from cortex to medulla
C. water concentration increases from cortex to medulla
D. sodium chloride concentration increases from cortex to medulla

10. Filtration of blood

A. occurs in the glomerulus
B. occurs in the renal tubules
C. increases systemic blood pressure
D. causes H+ and K+ to concentrate in blood
11. The loop of Henle is associated with
A. filtration
B. reabsorption
C. secretion
D. assimilation

12. A function of the kidney is to

A. remove nutrients from the blood
B. remove microorganisms from the blood
C. regulate blood ionic composition
D. add vitamins and rare ions to the blood

13. Which of the following molecules cannot pass the filtration membranes in the kidneys?
A. sodium ions
B. glucose
C. amino acids
D. large proteins

14. The innermost layer of the three layers of tissue that protect the kidney is the
A. renal fascia
B. adipose capsule
C. renal capsule
D. peritoneum

15. The renal papillae contain papillary ducts which empty into the
A. minor calyces
B. ureters
C. renal pelvis
D. urethra
16. Reabsorption is the movement of molecules from the _____ into the _____ .
A. glomerulus, renal tubule
B. tissues, distal convoluted tubule
C. renal tubules, peritubular capillaries
D. proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule

17. Very little water reabsorption occurs in the

A. thick ascending loop of Henle
B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. thin descending loop of Henle
D. collecting ducts

18. Sodium ions move through the apical membranes of principal cells of the collecting duct by
A. secondary active transport
B. osmosis
C. sodium pumps
D. diffusion

19. Glomerular filtrate is produced as a result of

A. reabsorption
B. blood hydrostatic pressure
C. tubular secretion
D. facilitated diffusion

20. The external opening of the urinary system is the

A. anus
B. urethra
C. external urethral orifice
D. vaginal orifice
21. The kidneys secrete the hormone erythropoietin, which functions to
A. regulate blood pressure
B. activate vitamin D
C. concentrate salt in the nephron
D. control the rate of red blood cell production

22. Which of the following accurately represents the pathway of fluid through a juxtamedullary
proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle,
ascending loop of Henle
proximal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle, ascending loop of Henle, distal
convoluted tubule
distal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle, ascending loop of Henle, proximal
convoluted tubule
distal convoluted tubule, ascending loop of Henle, descending loop of Henle, proximal
convoluted tubule

23. Urine reaches the urinary bladder through the

A. urethra
B. external urethral orifice
C. ureter
D. renal vein

24. The nephron has two parts. They are the

A. glomerulus and renal tubule
B. capsule and loop of Henle
C. glomerulus and peritubular capillaries
D. renal corpuscle and renal tubule

25. The visceral layer of Bowman's capsule is covered with specialized cells called
A. podocytes
B. fenestrations
C. pedicels
D. slits

26. Increased sodium and chloride ion concentrations in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla is
the result of
A. renin secretion
B. tubular secretion
C. reabsorption of glucose
D. countercurrent mechanism

27. Externally, the kidney is protected and supported by connective tissue and
A. mesentery
B. adipose tissue
C. serous fluid
D. cartilage

28. Renal blood pressure remains fairly constant due to the function of the
A. loop of Henle
B. Bowman's capsule
C. fenestra
D. juxtaglomerular apparatus

29. Chloride ions are actively reabsorbed from the

A. collecting tubule
B. glomerulus
C. proximal convoluted tubule
D. thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

30. A patient has symptoms that include painful, frequent urination, and low back pain. Further
examination reveals inflammation of the mucosa and submucosa of the urinary bladder. The
patient has
A. polycystic disease
B. cystitis
C. bilirubinuria
D. gall stones

31. Potassium ions are actively secreted into the tubular fluid of the
A. distal convoluted tubule
B. loop of Henle
C. peritubular capillaries
D. ascending limb

32. A patient is brought to the emergency room. Blood evaluation reveals high levels of creatinine,
urea, uric acid, and potassium. Family members report failure to urinate, even though the patient
consumed a fairly large quantity of water during the day. The patient is experiencing
A. pyelitis
B. urinary tract infection
C. renal failure
D. horseshoe kidney

33. Most reabsorption occurs in the

A. loop of Henle
B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. Bowman's capsule
D. distal convoluted tubule

34. The process by which water is reabsorbed by following solutes when they are reabsorbed is
A. facultative water reabsorption
B. obligatory water reabsorption
C. rennin-angiotensin water reabsorption
D. osmotic water reabsorption
35. Which layer of the endothelial-capsular membrane prevents red blood cells from leaving the
blood, but allows all components of the blood plasma to pass through?
A. fenestrated endothelial cells
B. basal lamina
C. fatty acids
D. slit membranes of podocytes

36. In cortical nephrons, the

A. renal corpuscle lies in the outer portion of the renal cortex
B. loop of Henle penetrates far down into the medulla
C. glomerulus is larger then the juxtamedullary nephron glomeruli
D. proximal convoluted tubules are very short

37. The proximal convoluted tubule is made up of

A. simple squamous cells
B. columnar cells covered with cilia
C. podocytes
D. cuboidal cells with many microvilli

38. Normally, net filtration pressure in the kidney is about

A. 5 mm Hg
B. 10 mm Hg
C. 50 mm Hg, the same as in capillaries
D. 80 mm Hg, the same as diastolic blood pressure

39. In the process of renal autoregulation, when the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes less
vasoconstrictor substance,
A. the afferent arterioles dilate, increasing glomerular filtration rate
B. the efferent arterioles dilate, allowing blood to flow through the kidney faster
C. the loop of Henle reabsorbs more sodium and chloride ions
D. the collecting tubule reabsorbs less water
40. Which of the following chemicals is an enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
A. aldosterone
B. antidiuretic hormone
C. atrial naturetic peptide
D. renin

41. Glucose enters the proximal convoluted tubule cells by _____ and leaves the cell into the
interstitial fluid by _____.
A. simple diffusion, active transport
B. facilitated diffusion, simple diffusion
C. sodium ion-glucose symporters, facilitated diffusion
D. primary active transport, sodium ion-glucose symporters

42. The main region of the kidney tubule that is impermeable to water is the
A. collecting duct
B. thin descending limb of the loop of Henle
C. proximal convoluted tubule
D. thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

43. The main regulator of facultative water reabsorption is

A. antidiuretic hormone
B. aldosterone
C. renin
D. angiotensin

44. In the embryo, the first kidney to form is the

A. mesonephros
B. pronephros
C. metanephros
D. urogenital diaphragm

45. Which of the following occurs by the action of Na+ symporters in the apical membranes of
tubule cells?
A. reabsorption of hydrogen ions by proximal convoluted tubule cells
B. reabsorption of amino acids by proximal convoluted tubule cells
C. secretion of hydrogen ions by intercalated cells
both reabsorption of glucose by proximal convoluted tubule cells and reabsorption of
amino acids by proximal convoluted tubule cells

46. Ions, but not water, are reabsorbed from the tubular fluid in the ascending loop of Henle.
Therefore, the osmolarity of the fluid entering the distal convoluted tubule is
A. less than pure water
B. greater than blood
C. greater than the glomerular filtrate
D. less than blood

47. The most important solutes that contribute to the high osmolarity of the interstitial fluid in the
renal medulla are
A. potassium ions, hydrogen ions, and water
B. sodium ions, chloride ions, and urea
C. glucose, proteins, and calcium ions
D. renin, aldosterone, and angiotensin

48. During the micturition reflex ___________.

sympathetic fibers conduct impulses from the brain that cause contraction of the
external urethral sphincter
sympathetic fibers conduct impulses from the spinal cord that cause relaxation of the
external urethral sphincter
parasympathetic fibers conduct impulses from the spinal cord that cause relaxation of
the detrusor muscle
parasympathetic fibers conduct impulses from the spinal cord that cause contraction of
the detrusor muscle
49. The only place in the kidney where filtration occurs is in the
A. renal corpuscle
B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. loop of Henle
D. distal convoluted tubule

50. Creatinine is produced by the breakdown of creatine phosphate in the skeletal muscles. It is
useful for determining glomerular filtration rate (GFR) because it is
A. filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted
B. filtered and extensively secreted but not reabsorbed
C. filtered and secreted to a very small extent
D. secreted but not filtered or reabsorbed

51. The urinary bladder in the female lies inferior to the

A. small intestines
B. uterus
C. rectum
D. vagina

52. The color of urine is due to the presence of a chemical called

A. urochrome
B. urea
C. creatinine
D. inulin

53. The normal kidneys are only about _____ as effective at the age of 70 as they are at the age of
A. 10 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 75 percent
1. The largest volume of body fluid is located
A. in plasma
B. in lymph
C. within cells
D. between cells

2. Bone, DNA, RNA, ATP, and cell membranes all have one thing in common. They all contain
_____ .
A. sulfur
B. calcium
C. phosphate
D. magnesium

3. Intracellular fluid has

A. a higher concentration of potassium than interstitial fluid
B. a lower concentration of protein anions than plasma
C. a higher concentration of bicarbonate than plasma
D. approximately the same concentrations of sodium, chloride, and potassium as plasma

4. Parathyroid hormone
A. is released when blood calcium level rises
B. stimulates osteoblasts and inhibits osteoclasts
C. causes the cells of the nephron to reabsorb phosphate
D. causes renal tubule cells to reabsorb calcium

5. Lower than normal blood concentration of sodium is

A. called hypernatremia
B. characterized by muscular weakness, tachycardia, and dizziness
C. characterized by thirst, restlessness, agitation, and coma
D. due to the fact that most people do not consume enough sodium

6. Levels of which of the following are regulated by aldosterone?

A. carbonic acid
B. glucose
C. magnesium
D. sodium

7. Electrolytes
A. dissociate into anions and cations
B. generally have covalent bonds
C. include glucose, urea, and creatine
D. are usually organic compounds

8. Which of the following is true concerning sodium ions?

A. They represent about 90 percent of extracellular anions
B. They combine with chloride ions in gastric glands to form hydrochloric acid
C. They are necessary for generation of action potentials
D. Excess ions are stored by the kidneys

9. Reabsorption of sodium from the tubules of the nephron establishes an osmotic gradient that
causes _____ to move back into the blood.
A. salt
B. water
C. magnesium,
D. calcium

10. The cerebrospinal fluid in the brain is classified as

A. intracellular fluid
B. lymph
C. extracellular fluid
D. plasma

11. Which one of the following chemicals is a not an electrolyte?

A. calcium phosphate
B. potassium chloride
C. sodium bicarbonate
D. glucose

12. The most abundant cation in plasma is _______.

A. phosphate
B. potassium
C. sodium
D. chloride

13. A patient whose blood pH is 7.5, whose concentration of HCO3- in arterial blood is 25
mEq/liter, and whose partial pressure of CO2 is 32 mm Hg in arterial blood is experiencing
A. uncompensated metabolic
B. compensated metabolic
C. uncompensated respiratory
D. compensated respiratory

14. Hyperventilation (breathing in and out more air than normal) during a panic attack causes an
increase in blood ________.
A. pH
B. H+
C. partial pressure of CO2
D. partial pressure of CO2 and H+

15. The most abundant buffer system inside body cells and in plasma is the
A. carbonic acid buffer system
B. phosphate buffer system
C. sodium bicarbonate buffer system
D. protein buffer system

16. The only way the body can get rid of the huge acid load produced by metabolic reactions is to
A. increase the concentration of bicarbonate ions
B. breathe faster and more deeply
C. excrete hydrogen ions in the urine
D. increase the concentration of proteins in the plasma

17. The metabolic rate of infants is about _______ as that of adults.

A. the same
B. double
C. triple
D. quadruple

1. A weakening in the abdominal wall in the inguinal region may result in

A. cryptorchidism
B. hemorrhoids
C. a hernia
D. infertility

2. Which of the following functions in both urinary and reproductive systems in the male?
A. prostate
B. Bowman's capsule
C. Sertoli cells
D. urethra

3. The function of chemicals within the acrosomal cap is to

A. protect the DNA of the sperm
B. aid the sperm in penetration into a secondary oocyte
C. provide energy for the flagellum
D. provide motility for the sperm

4. The portion of the penis which surrounds the urethra is the

A. tunica albuginea
B. corpus spongiosum
C. corpus cavernosum
D. prepuce

5. The fructose in semen is secreted by the

A. epididymis
B. vas deferens
C. seminal vesicles
D. seminiferous tubules

6. The corpus luteum secretes

A. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B. progesterone and estrogens
C. hCG and progesterone
D. estrogens and hCG

7. Sperm move by means of

A. cilia
B. microvilli
C. flagella
D. enzymes
8. After ovulation the _____ becomes the _____.
A. secondary oocyte, primary oocyte
B. zona pellucida, corona radiata
C. mature (Graafian) follicle, corpus luteum
D. amount of glucose ingested

9. The portion of the ovary that contains the ovarian follicles is the
A. mesovarium
B. germinal epithelium
C. cortex
D. tunica albuginea

10. Which female reproductive structure is located between the urinary bladder and the rectum?
A. ovary
B. uterus
C. vagina
D. prostate

11. In males, FSH

A. acts indirectly with testosterone to stimulate spermatogenesis
B. stimulates the testes to secrete testosterone
C. has no function
D. causes sperm cells to secrete inhibin

12. The cells in the testis responsible for producing testosterone are the
A. spermatogenic cells
B. spermatogonia
C. Sertoli cells
D. Leydig cells
13. The testes are covered by a dense white fibrous capsule called the
A. scrotum
B. tunica vaginalis
C. tunica albuginea
D. visceral peritoneum

14. Which of the following cells lies next to the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules?
A. spermatogonia
B. primary spermatocytes
C. secondary spermatocytes
D. spermatids

15. The perimetrium or serosa is part of the

A. parietal peritoneum
B. visceral peritoneum
C. parietal pleura
D. visceral pericardium

16. In the testis, spermatogonia divide by

A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. reduction division
D. equation division

17. The cells formed by meiosis II are called

A. spermatogonia
B. primary spermatocytes
C. secondary spermatocytes
D. spermatids
18. The daily production of sperm in the testes is about
A. 30 thousand
B. 300 thousand
C. 30 million
D. 300 million

19. Which of the hormones produced in the male directly stimulates testosterone secretion?
C. inhibin

20. In the male, the protein hormone inhibin is produced by the _____ and inhibits secretion of
A. hypothalamus; LH
B. anterior pituitary gland; testosterone
C. Sertoli cells; FSH
D. Leydig cells; GnRH

21. The longest duct of the male reproductive tract, passing from the scrotum into the pelvic cavity,
is the
A. ductus deferens
B. epididymis
C. ejaculatory duct
D. urethra

22. The ejaculatory duct attaches to the urethra in a region surrounded by the
A. seminal vesicles
B. prostate gland
C. urogenital diaphragm
D. urinary bladder
23. The epididymis and ductus (vas) deferens develop from the embryonic
A. genital tubercle
B. labioscrotal swelling
C. paramesonephric duct
D. mesonephric duct

24. A male is likely to be infertile if his sperm count is below _____ per mL of semen.
A. one thousand
B. ten thousand
C. one million
D. twenty million

25. The bulb of the penis is located at the base of the

A. corpus cavernosum
B. corpus spongiosum
C. glans penis
D. prepuce

26. At birth, hundreds of thousands of oogonia are present in each ovary at birth, but only about
_____ of these will mature and ovulate.
A. fifty
B. four hundred
C. four thousand
D. half

27. In the ovary, oocytes begin meiosis I

A. during fetal development
B. during early childhood
C. after puberty
D. after ovulation

28. The open, funnel-shaped portion of a uterine tube is called the

A. fimbria
B. ampulla
C. infundibulum
D. isthmus

29. Fertilization of the oocyte by a sperm usually occurs in the

A. vagina
B. cervix of the uterus
C. ovary
D. ampulla of the oviduct

30. The uterus is attached to both sides of the pelvic cavity by the
A. round ligaments
B. broad ligaments
C. oviducts
D. cardinal ligaments

31. A Pap smear is a test performed to detect

A. cancer of the cervix
B. pregnancy
C. infections of the ovary
D. vaginitis

32. The normal flexure of the uterus, projecting it anteriorly and superiorly over the vagina, is called
A. uterine prolapse
B. dorsiflexion
C. anteflexion
D. retroflexion

33. A hysterectomy is the

A. downward displacement of the uterus into the vagina
B. most common sterilization procedure used in women
C. surgical procedure sometime used during childbirth to open the vaginal canal
D. surgical removal of the uterus

34. The stratum basalis of the uterus

A. is shed during menstruation
B. repeatedly gives rise to a new stratum functionalis after each menstruation
C. contracts during childbirth to help expel the fetus
D. is part of the visceral peritoneum and becomes part of the broad ligament

35. The acidity of the vagina is due to

A. breakdown of glycogen that produces organic acids
B. secretion of small amounts of hydrochloric acid by cells lining the tube
C. reabsorption of bicarbonate ions, reducing their buffering action
D. secretions of bacteria that normally reside in this tube

36. The small folds that are lateral to the vaginal opening are the
A. hymen
B. clitoris
C. labia minora
D. mons pubis

37. The milk secreting glands in the breast are called

A. alveoli
B. lobules
C. lobes
D. lactiferous sinuses

38. The last tubes through which milk flows before it reaches the outside through the nipple are the
A. lactiferous ducts
B. lactiferous sinuses
C. mammary ducts
D. secondary tubules

39. The American Cancer Society recommends that a woman should have a baseline mammogram
taken, to serve as a comparison, between the ages of
A. 20 and 24
B. 25 and 29
C. 30 and 34
D. 35 and 39

40. Which of the following hormones have the greatest direct control over the changes in the uterus?
B. FSH and LH
C. estrogens and progesterone
D. inhibin and relaxin

41. The principal estrogen hormone in the nonpregnant woman is

A. beta-estradiol
B. estrone
C. estriol
D. progesterone

42. Which hormone has effects on general metabolism to increase protein production and reduce
cholesterol production as well as controlling the reproductive cycle in the female?
A. estrogens
B. progesterone

43. __________ increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis at the end of pregnancy.
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. relaxin
D. inhibin

44. The mature (Graafian) follicle continues to enlarge and increase its estrogen production during
A. menstrual phase
B. preovulatory phase
C. ovulation phase
D. postovulatory phase

45. The hormone responsible for stimulating the development of the secondary follicles in the ovary
A. progesterone

46. An over-the-counter test is now available for purchase that indicates ovulation. This test
measures the levels of
A. estrogens

47. Low levels of progesterone cause

A. menstruation
B. inhibition of GnRH
C. a sudden surge of LH
D. inhibition of FSH and LH

48. Oral contraceptive pills contain estrogens and progestin that

A. cause the developing follicle to degenerate
B. inhibit the secretion of inhibin
C. prevent the development of the endometrium
D. inhibit the release of FSH and LH

49. The birth control method that is based on knowledge of certain physiological changes that occur
during the menstrual cycle is
A. coitus interruptus
B. sympto-thermal
C. the intrauterine device
D. the cervical cap

50. Menarche is
A. the same as menopause
B. the permanent cessation of menses
C. the first menses
D. when oogenesis begins

1. The intervillous spaces of the placenta

A. are derived from the chorion
B. contain maternal blood
C. are rich in hCG and HCS
D. enlarge under the influence of relaxin

2. After implantation
A. the morula becomes the blastocyst
B. the trophoblast develops into two layers
C. the embryoblast forms the cytotrophoblast
D. the syncytiotrophoblast is replaced by the blastocoele

3. By the end of the first month of gestation

A. the fetus has fully formed head with properly located eyes and ears
B. subcutaneous fat is lost and lanugo increases in density
C. ossification is complete, blood formation ends
D. arm and leg buds form and the heart is beating

4. Amniocentesis can produce results that indicate

A. successful implantation
B. the beginning of a normal pregnancy
C. the presence of certain genetic disorders such as Down syndrome
D. the onset of labor

5. After implantation, the only tissue of the developing embryo to come in direct contact with
maternal tissue is the
A. zona pellucida
B. embryoblast
C. blastocoele
D. trophoblast

6. If a man with hemophilia marries a woman who does not carry the hemophilia gene, which of the
following concerning their children is probable?
A. All of the sons will be carriers
B. All of the sons will have hemophilia
C. All of the daughters will be carriers
D. One half of the sons will have hemophilia and one half will be carriers

7. In Down's syndrome
A. females are lacking one X chromosome
B. males have an extra X chromosome
C. there are three copies of at least part of chromosome 21
D. sickle cell disease results from an extra chromosome

8. An example of a trinucleotide repeat disease is

A. color blindness
B. fragile X syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. phenylketonuria

9. Functional changes that sperm undergo in the female reproductive tract which allow them to
fertilize a secondary oocyte are termed
A. syngamy
B. fertilization
C. capacitation
D. implantation

10. A mother with blood type B and a father with blood type A have four children. One child is type
AB, one is A, one is B, and one is type O. Which of the following represents the genotypes of
the parents?
A. IA i x IB i
B. IA IA x IB i
C. IA i x IB IB
D. IA IA x IB i

11. In the process of lactation

A. the posterior pituitary releases prolactin that initiates milk ejection
B. feeding inhibits the release of oxytocin, thus ensuring the continuation of lactation
the uterine smooth muscle returns to its normal size more rapidly in nursing than non-
nursing mothers
the estrogen and progesterone in colostrum stimulate growth of the newborn nervous

12. Fertilization in a laboratory dish and transfer of the developing embryo into the uterus is called
A. in vitro fertilization
B. embryo transfer
C. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
D. ectopic pregnancy

13. Implantation is the process where the

A. egg is fertilized by the sperm
B. sperm is deposited in the vagina
C. blastocyst attaches to and enters the endometrium
D. cervix becomes plugged with mucus to prevent the entry of more sperm

14. Implantation occurs _____ after fertilization.

A. immediately
B. a few hours
C. a day
D. about 6 days

15. Hemophilia is an example of

A. a dominant-recessive trait
B. sex-linked inheritance
C. incomplete dominance
D. multiple allele inheritance

16. The placental stage of labor ends with

A. delivery of the newborn
B. rupture of the amniotic sac
C. expelling of the after birth
D. dilation of the cervix

17. The developing embryo is surrounded by and bathed in

A. amniotic fluid
B. chorionic fluid
C. fluid in the yolk sac
D. plasma from the mother

18. The embryonic portion of the placenta develops from the

A. amnion
B. yolk sac
C. chorion
D. allantois

19. In the umbilical cord, there are

A. two arteries that carry oxygenated blood and one vein that carries deoxygenated blood
B. one artery that carries oxygenated blood and one vein that carries deoxygenated blood
one artery that carries deoxygenated blood and two veins that carries deoxygenated
D. two arteries that carry deoxygenated blood and one vein that carries oxygenated blood

20. The testes have descended into the scrotal sac of a male fetus that is
A. in the second month of development
B. in the third month of development
C. in the fifth month of development
D. full-term

21. Early pregnancy tests depend on the detection of _____ in the urine.
A. estrogen
B. human chorionic gonadotropin
C. chorionic progesterone
D. follicle stimulating hormone

22. At the end of a full-term of pregnancy, the top of the uterus reaches
A. the top of the pelvic rim
B. the level of the umbilicus (navel)
C. the lower surface of the stomach
D. nearly to the xyphoid process of the sternum

23. Chorionic villi sampling (CVS),although riskier, has an advantage over amniocentesis because
A. involves removal of fluid only
B. never has any negative side effects
C. yields test results in a few days
D. can be performed during the second week of pregnancy

24. Which of the following is NOT a change that occurs after birth, as a fetus becomes a newborn
A. the lungs fill with air for the first time
B. the umbilical arteries fill with connective tissue
C. the ductus arteriosus provides a connection to the inferior vena cava
D. foramen ovale closes and becomes the fossa ovalis
25. If pregnancy continues for two weeks beyond the due date, there is a chance of brain damage to
the fetus because of
A. breakdown of fetal red blood cells
B. an aging placenta
C. overstretching of the uterus
D. disintegration of the umbilical cord

26. A hormone called _____, released from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates the production of
milk by the mammary glands.
A. relaxin
B. oxytocin
C. prolactin
D. luteinizing hormone

27. The phenotype of an individual refers to the

A. genetic makeup of the chromosomes
B. type of mutations that are present
C. the type of dominant and recessive genes
D. physical or outward expression of a gene

28. If a couple are both heterozygous for the gene that causes phenylketonuria, the probability that
their first child will have PKU is
A. 25 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 75 percent
D. 100 percent

29. Sickle-cell disease is an example of

A. a dominant-recessive trait
B. sex-linked inheritance
C. incomplete dominance
D. multiple allele inheritance

30. How many alleles are present in humans that produce the phenotypes of the four blood types of
the ABO blood groups?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

31. An embryo develops into a normal baby girl because it

A. is exposed to very high levels of estrogen during development
B. received two X chromosomes from its mother
C. has two copies of the SRY gene
D. lacks the SRY gene

32. The gene for red-green colorblindness is represented by the symbol 'c'. The normal allele is
represented by 'C'. An individual with the genotype XC Xc would be a
A. color-blind female
B. normal carrier female
C. normal male
D. color-blind male