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SEC 21 AIR CONDITIONING / PRESSURIZATION

1). How are the four Bleed Air Isolation Valves operated?

A). By compressor delivery air pressure and electrical power..


B). By compressor delivery air pressure or electrical power.
c). By electrical power only.

2). If the APU NRV Leak annunciator is lit, the first action is:

A). APU Air OFF..


B). Monitor the system carefully.
C). The APU will Shut Down automatically.

3). When operating the pressurization system in Manual Mode, turning the knob
Clockwise from Neutral will:

A). Cause the Diff. Pressure to increase.


B). Cause the Cabin to Climb.
C). Cause the Cabin to Descend.
D). None of the above.

4). The Pack Mass Flow in the RECIR Mode is:

A). 23 Kg/min.
B). 14 Kg/min.
c). 50 Kg/min.
D). 5 Kg/min.

5). During normal flight with "RECIRC" selected the "Pack 2 HI TEMP" illuminated,
what other Overhead Panel annunciator would illuminate?

A). "ENG AIR VALVES" 3 and 4 plus "PACK 2 VALVE".


B). "PACK 2 VALVE" Plus "RECIRC VALVE".
C). "ENG 2 AIR VALVE", "ENG 2 AIR FAULT", "PACK 2 VALVE" and "RECIRC VALVE".

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6). Which Cabin conditioning being provided by engine air, PACK Auto shutdown will
occur due to:

A). Over Temp. only.


B). Over Temp. or Over Pressure.
C). Over pressure only.

7). With engine air ON, or RECIRC selected and a Pack Valve light ON, the supply will
be:

A). Operating in the "RECIRC" Mode.


B). Operating in the FRESH Mode.
C). Insufficient for cabin pressurization.
D). None of the above.

8). The APU only, is switched ON:

A). Air conditioning only is available.


B). Air conditioning and anti-ice are available.
C). Anti-ice only is available.

9). The No 1 Pack normally supplies:

A). Only the Flight Deck.


B). Only the Cabin.
C). The Flight Deck and Passenger Cabin.

10). With Engine Air switched ON and the Packs ON, is air conditioning and air frame
Anti-ice available?

A). Only engine Anti-ice is available.


B). Both are only available on the ground.
C). Both are only available in flight.
D). None of the above.

11). The Engine Air Valve will close automatically for:

A). Bleed air Over Pressure / Temperature.


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B). Air Low Temperature (Airframe anti-ice ON).
C). Both "A" and "B".
D). None of the above.

12). What is the maximum aircraft altitude at which ground level Cabin conditions can
be maintained:

A). 15 000 ft.


B). 17 000 ft.
C). 20 000 ft.

13). In the Auto Mode the Rate Knob controls Cabin Vertical Speed between:

A). 200 - 1 600 ft/min UP, 150 - 1 100 ft/min DOWN.


B). 150 - 1 100 ft/min UP, 200 - 1 600 ft/min DOWN.
C). 150 - 1 600 ft/min UP, 200 - 1 100 ft/min DOWN.

14). In order to supply Flight Deck Overheat Vents (PUNKA LOUVRES) :

A). Roof must be selected.


B). Max FWD must be selected.
C). AFT Floor must be selected.

15). The Discharge Valves open automatically on landing :

A). Only in the AUTO Mode.


B). Only in MAN Mode.
C). In AUTO or MAN.

16). With Manual selected the manual pressurization control knob controls :

A). Only the Forward Discharge Valve.


B). Only the AFT Discharge Valve.
C). Both Forward and AFT Discharge Valves.

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17). What would an Overheat or Over pressure condition of an engine air supply do :

A). It would illuminate the ENG AIR FAULT caption and automatically close the
associated Air Valve.
B). It would illuminate the ENG AIR FAULT caption and automatically close both the Air
Valves in that wing.
C). It would illuminate the ENG AIR FAULT caption only.

18). If PACK No 2 has failed, Cabin Temp. is controlled by :

A). Using Cabin temperature Auto control knob.


B). Using Flight Deck Auto control knob.
C). Using Cabin temperature Manual control switch.
D). Both A and B.

19). The electrical equipment Bay Cooling Fan operates when :

A). Essential DC is energized.


B). Emergency AC is energized.
C). AC 1 or AC 2 energized .

20). On landing with the Pressurization System in Auto, the Discharge Valves will :

A). Go toward Open.


B). Go toward Closed.
C). Remain in the position they were in on landing.

21). What is the mass flow rate in the FRESH Mode?


A). Hi Flow.
B). Low Flow.
C). Mid Flow.

22). Where are the air supplies for Air Conditioning taken from :
A). Inboard Engines and APU.
B). Outboard Engines and APU
C). All Engines and APU.
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23). The Discharged Valves automatically close, when the Cabin altitude reaches :

A). 13 250 ft.


B). 9 300 ft.
C). 10 500 ft.
D). 15 000 ft

24). Before Take Off for a planned cruise altitude of 31 000 ft, the Baro Scale of the
pressure controller is set to 1013 mb and the rate knob is set in its detent, What
should be altitude setting be?

A). Cabin ALT 8 000 ft.


B). Flight ALT 31 000 ft.
C). Flight ALT 8 000 ft.

25). In RECIR Mode :

A). Pack Valves close by 2/5.


B). 60% of cabin air is re-circulated.
C). Cabin RECIR Fans operate .

26). What will automatically accompany a PACK HI TEMP warning?

A). Closure of the appropriate Pack Valve.


B). Closure of both Pack Valves.
C). Closure of both air Valves on that side.

27). If a Pack is switched ON, but there is low flow through the Pack :

A). The Cabin Altitude will climb.


B). The Cabin will descend.
C). Pack NIPS (Not In Position Selected) light will illuminate intermittently with no
change in Cabin Altitude.

28). With No 2 Pack Valve failed, the Cabin temperature is controlled by :

A). The Flight Deck temperature control.


B). The Cabin Temp in Auto.
C). The Cabin temperature in Man, and held at cool for 20 Seconds.
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29). When Ditch is selected on the pressurization Panel :

A). The Discharged Valves close and remain closed.


B). The Discharged Valves open and remain open.
C). The Discharged Valves open allowing water to close the Discharged Valves.

30). The Cabin HI ALT warning illuminates at ?

A). 13 250 ft Cabin ALT.


B). 9 300 ft Cabin ALT.
C). 15 000 ft Cabin ALT.

31). The No 2 Pack normally supplies :

A). Only the Flight Deck .


B). Only the Cabin.
C). The Flight Deck and Passenger Cabin.

32). In the Auto Pressurization Mode with the Rate Knob in the detent, Cabin Rates of
change are :

A). 525 ft/min UP , 375 ft/min DOWN.


B). 325 ft/min UP , 252 ft/min DOWN.
C). 575 ft/min UP , 325 ft/min DOWN.

1 A 5 B 9 C 13 A 17 A 21 A 25 A 29 C
2 A 6 A 10 C 14 C 18 B 22 C 26 A 30 B
3 B 7 B 11 A 15 A 19 C 23 D 27 C 31 B
4 B 8 A 12 A 16 C 20 A 24 A 28 A 32 A

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SEC 22 AUTO FLIGHT

33). If the amber CAT II annunciators are lit, as the aircraft descends through 500 ft :

A). A CAT II approach may continue.


B). Only the Captain may continue a CAT II approach.
C). A CAT II approach may not continue.

34). Disengagement of the Autopilot will:

A). Extinguish or inhibit both Green and Amber annunciators and disarm the excess
deviation warnings from the monitor Computer.
B). Extinguish the Green annunciators but leave the annunciators lit and disarm the
excess deviation warning from the monitor unit.
C). Extinguish or inhibit both Green and Amber annunciators and allow the excess
deviation warnings from the monitor unit to operate.

35). Second pressure on the Pitch switch of the Autopilot controller will :

A). Reset the 1/second liter to allow a pitch rotation of 2/second .


B). Produce a command signal to cause a rotation of lo/second but also to double the
response of the servo loop.
C). Cancel the Audio Warning.

36). Pressing the ADI Test Button will indicate::

A). Sphere Level, FD bars climb and right, ATT, F.D LOC and G.S Flags.
B). Sphere Climb and right, F.D bars level with LOC G.S and ATT Flags.
C). Sphere 10 Climb and 20 right bank, FD bars full up and Full right with ATT and F.D
Flags.

37). What are the indications of the CAT II approach monitoring system :

A). Green and Amber CAT II annunciators and amber Loc deviation annunciators, all
steady lights .
B). Flashing Green and Amber CAT II annunciators only. (steady), and flashing.
C). Green and Amber CAT II annunciators only Green and and flashing LOC/GSL deviation
annunciators.

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38). The Flight Director may be displayed :

A). With or without the Autopilot engaged.


B). Only with the Autopilot engaged.
C). Only when TURB Mode is selected.

39). At what height will the Radio discrete to the CAT II inhibit both ILS excess deviation
warnings:

A). Less than 1000 ft. RAD. ALT .


B). Less than 100 ft RAD ALT .
C). 500 ft RAD. ALT.

40). If the aircraft gets out of trim in roll, while the Autopilot is engaged:

A). The roll channel will disengage.


B). The Autopilot will disengage.
C). A warning light will show on the mode annunciator panels.

41). The barometric datum for the Altitude selector is:

A). Always with reference to the captains altimeter BARO setting .


B). Always with reference to the captains altimeter BARO setting.
C). The BARO. setting of whichever altimeter is selected on the ATC transponder control
panel.

42). The Yaw Dampers can be engaged by:

A). Pressing the YD Button on the Autopilot controller.


B). Turning ON the YD Master switches on the roof panel.
C). Turning ON the YD Master switches and pressing the YD button on the Autopilot
controller.

43). The Altitude Hold Mode:


A). Can be engaged manually on the ALT mode button and automatically after selecting
the altitude on the altitude alert selectors provided ALT ARM is selected.
B). Can be engaged manually on the ALT mode button and manually on the ALT ARM
button after the flare.
C). Can be engaged automatically by pressing the synchronize button.
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44). If one of the Yaw Damper System develop a Failure or Fault:

A). The other system can be used, but with only half of the authority.
B). Both systems cut out and cannot be restored whilst the fault persists.
C). The good system can be used provided that the autopilot is engaged.

45). The Autopilot can be disengaged by:

A). Pressing the A.P. button on the Autopilot controller.


B). Pressing the cut out button on either of the Control Wheels.
C). Either A or B above .

46). The elevator trim servo motor can be used as an electric trim facility using buttons
on the control wheels:

A). When the Autopilot is disengaged.


B). While the Sync' buttons are pressed.
C). Either A or B.

47). Radio NAV signals to the Autopilot come from:

A). NAV 2 selector only .


B). NAV 1 selector only.
C). Whichever NAV is supplying No 1 HSI.

48). A continuous Audio Warning will be given if the Autopilot is disengaged by:

A). Pressing the captains cut out button.


B). Pressing the AP button on the autopilot controller.
C). Pressing the first officers cut out button.

49). If the Flight Director is in use and engaged on the height lock, when the Autopilot is
engaged it will:

A). Engage in the Pitch Hold Mode and re-set the Flight Director to pitch hold .
B). Engage into Height Lock Mode and fly the aircraft to reduce height error to ZERO.
C). Disengage the Flight Director.

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50). With TURB Mode selected and Autopilot engaged:

A). VS and Mach Hold are unaffected.


B). The FD Bars are biased out of view.
C). The FD Bars are biased out of view but the roll bar may be re-selected by pressing
HGD Mode.

51). The Autopilot will engage:

A). Only with the Flight Director displayed.


B). Only with the Flight Director OFF.
C). With or without the Flight Director displayed

52). Engagement of the Autopilot is indicated by :

A). A Green legend IN on the Autopilot controller and Green triangles on the Mode
Selector
B). A Green legend IN on the Autopilot controller and ELEV and AIL on the Mode
Selector.
C). A Green legend IN on the Mode Selector and AP IN or the Mode annunciators

53). After an ELEV. disconnect you do:

A). Engage the Autopilot.


B). Not engage the Autopilot.
C). Monitor the Autopilot.

54). Where Modes can be pre selected, the armed states are indicated by:

A). A White lit legend in the appropriate mode annunciator window.


B). A Green lit legend in the appropriate mode annunciator window.
C). A White triangle lit on the appropriate mode selector button.

55). Radio NAV Signals to the Autopilot come from:


A). No 1 VHF NAV only.
B). No 1 HSI Radio input.
C). No 2 VHF NAV only.
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56). The switch for Yaw Damper engagement is:

A). On the Overhead Roof Panel.


B). On the AP/YD Mode Selector.
C). On the Autopilot Controller.

57). Radio Deviation Signals are routed to the A.F.G.S via the avionics switching Unit
controlled by:

A). V/L Button on the Mode Selector.

B). HDG Button on the Mode Annunciator.

C). The Selector switch on the NAV Selector Unit.

58). With the Autopilot engaged and the required height set and armed on the altitude
selector the aircraft will:

A). Climb or Dive to preselected height and then lock on to it.


B). Climb or Dive to preselected height and then return to it.
C). Flare onto the preselected height if the aircraft is flown by another lock towards it.

59). The Flight Director may be engaged by:

A). The FD Bars switches on the Glare shield.


B). Pressing the FD Button on the Mode Selector.
C). Pressing the FD Button on the Autopilot Controller.

60). Operation of the Turn Control on the Auto controller :

A). Is not possible when Heading lock is selected.


B). will disengage HGD lock if selected.
C). Is only possible with the aircraft level.

61). The Autopilot will automatically disengage if:

A). Bank Angle exceeds 42.


B. Bank Angle exceeds 25.
C). Bank Angle exceeds 19 not on ILS captured.

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62). The pilot may manually override the Autopilot through the torque limiters on:

A). The Elevators only.


B). The Elevators and Ailerons.
C). The Elevators, Ailerons and Elevator Trim.

63). First pressure on the Pitch switch on the Autopilot controller will cause:

A). A pitch change of 1 per second.


B). A pitch change of 1/2 per second.
C). A pitch change of 2 per second.

64). The Yaw Damper System consists of:

A). Two separate systems used together and continually compared .


B). One of Sensors, two computer and two actuators.
C). One of Sensors, one computer and two actuators

65). If the bank angle of the aircraft was 15 at the time of Autopilot engagement:

A). The aircraft will roll level .


B). The bank angle will reduce to 10 .
C). The aircraft will maintain 15 bank angle.

66). The Altitude Selector is used:

A). For pre-select height operation.


B. For altitude alert operation.
C). Both A and B.

67). Engagement of the Yaw Dampers is indicated by:

A). A Green legend YDI and YD2 on the auto controller YD switch .
B). A Green IN ON the Mode selector YD window .
C). Both A and B.

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68). The Flight Director when switched ON, will:

A). Give a Straight and Level demand.


B). Follow the Autopilot modes if Autopilot selected ON.
C). Give basic Roll and Pitch Modes if no modes selected.

69). The Heading selection to both HSI are controlled by :

A). The NAV 1- Split / NAV 2- Control.


B). Separate selectors for HSI No 1 and HSI No 2.
C). A single heading selector knob on the navigation selector.

70). Below 500 ft the Autopilot may be engaged:

A). In pitch, IAS or VS Modes of the rate of descent is less that 1000 ft/min .
B). In pitch IAS or VS Modes if altitude change is zero and there are no pitch inputs.
C). Temporary disengage Elevator, Elevator Trim and Roll Servo clutches.

71). Operation of the Synchronizing Button on either control wheel WILL:

A). Temporary disengage Elevator, Elevator Trim and Roll Servo clutches.
B). Synchronize the Flight Director with the Autopilot.
C). Cause the Autopilot to level the aircraft in Pitch and Roll.

72). With Autopilot engaged and Synchronize Button pressed :

A). The Autopilot clutches will disengage and manual and electric trims are available.
B). The Autopilot clutches will disengage and electrical trim is not available.
C). The Autopilot clutches will disengage and altitude hold mode is degraded.

73). The Autopilot is engaged by pressing the AP Button ON:


A). The Mode Selector.
B). The Navigation Selector.
C). The Autopilot Controller.

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74). The RNAV/NAV Switch by the captains mode annunciator panel is used to select :
A). Which HSI is used to control the Autopilot .
B). Whether the HSI displays RNAV signals or VHF NAV signals .
C). Whether VHF NAV 1 or VHF NAV 2 is used .

33 C 38 A 43 A 48 B 55 B 60 B 65 C 70 C
34 A 39 B 44 B 49 B 56 C 61 A 66 C 71 A
35 A 40 C 45 C 50 B 57 C 62 C 67 A 72 A
36 C 41 A 46 C 53 B 58 C 63 A 68 C 73 C
37 C 42 C 47 C 54 A 59 A 64 A 69 C 74 B

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SEC 23 COMMUNICATION

75). When the Cabin Call Button is pressed in the Cockpit the response is:
A). A chime, green aisle lights (Steady) and crew call button light illuminated blue on
cabin attendants intercom panels.
B). A chime, green aisle, lights (Flashing) and crew call flashing red on cabin attendants
intercom panels .
C). A chime, green aisle lights (Steady) and crew call flashing red on cabin attendants
intercom panels.

76). When the E.I.C Button is pressed in the cabin the response is:

A). A chime and cockpit Emergency Call Button illuminated red.


B). A triple chime and cockpit Cabin Call Button illuminated blue.
C). A triple chime and cockpit Emergency Call Button illuminated red.

77). If the Emergency Call Button in the Cockpit is pressed the response is:

A). triple chime, green aisle lights (flashing) and Crew Call flashing red on cabin
attendants intercom panel.
B). A chime, red aisle lights (steady) and Crew Call flashing red on cabin attendants
intercom panel.
C). A chime, green aisle lights (flashing) and Crew Call flashing red on cabin attendants
intercom panel.

78). The Cockpit Voice Recorder may be erased :

A). Only when the Park Brake is set.


B). Only when the Park Brake is set and an upper door is opened.
C). Only when the aircraft is on the ground and an upper door is opened.

79). The PA System:


A). Gives the Cockpit priority over the Cabin Crew.
B). Gives the Cabin Crew priority over the Cockpit .
C). Gives neither one priority .

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80). To transmit (Normal) on VHF COMM 1 with headset :
A). Press in VHF COMM 1 Button and rotate to adjust the Volume then press either R/T
switch on the Control Wheel or Radio Selector Unit .
B). Press in VHF COMM 1 receive Button and press either R/T switch to R/T on Radio
Selector Unit.
C). Press in VHF 1 transmit Button and rotate to adjust the Volume, press VHF 1
TRANSMIT Button and press either R/T switch to R/T on the Control Wheel or Radio
Selector Unit.

81). The Cockpit Inter phone makes a direct line, between :


A). The Flight Deck and cabin Crew.
B). The Cabin Crew and ground Crew.
C). The Flight Deck and a jack on the AC ground supply panel.

82). When mask is selected on the Audio Selector Panel :


A). Only the Oxygen Microphone becomes live.
B). The Oxygen Mask microphone becomes live and the overhead speaker automatically
comes on regardless of the speaker switch position.
C). The Oxygen Mask microphone becomes live and the pilot must replace his headset to
hear the audio.

75 A 76 A 77 C 78 B 79 A 80 C 81 C 82 B
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SEC - 24 ELECTRICAL

83). If the aircraft Battery is FLAT it may be recharged :

A). Putting the External Ground AC Power on line and putting Battery switch to ON.
B). It cannot be charged from flat in the aircraft, it must be removed from charging.
C). It would be recharged in the aircraft any time the emergency DC Bus Voltage is
greater than the Battery Voltage.

84). If No 1 GCU Sensor over current and its Bus Fault Relay operates :

A). AC Bus 1 and Essential AC are lost.


B). Only AC Bus 1 is lost.
C). AC Bus 1, Essential AC and Emergency AC are lost.

85). Maximum Amperage drawn during main engine start would be approximately :

A). 1 000 Amps.


B). 1 200 Amps.
C). 2 000 Amps.

86). With the Standby Generator switch selected to arm, the Standby Generator will
operate :

A). When Generators 1 or 4 fail.


B). When AC Bus 1 and AC Bus 2 are OFF line.
C). When Generators 1 or 4 fail and the APU is not available.

87). With the External AC Ground Power connected and switched ON, if the AC Bus Tie
is set to open:

A). AC Bus 2 will be de-powered.


B). AC Buses 1 and 2 will be powered normally .
C). AC Bus 1 and Essential AC will be de-powered.

88). What electrical power will the Standby Generator supply?

A). Three Phase AC power only.

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B). Three Phase AC plus 28 Volts DC power.
C). Three Phase AC plus 36 Volts DC power.

89). From which Bus Bar is the Battery normally charged up?

A). Emergency DC.


B). ESS DC.
C). EMERG A via STANDBY GEN.

90). In normal flight the APU Generator limitations are

A). 140 Amps up to 20 000 ft and 100 Amps to 25 000 ft.


B). 140 Amps up to 17 000 ft and 90 Amps to 25 000 ft.
C). 90 Amps up to 17 000 ft and 65 Amps to 25 000 ft.

91). The Starter operating light extinguishes :

A). When power to the starter is removed.


B). When the Starter stops rotating.
C). When the Starter Master switch is put to OFF.

91). The Starter operating light extinguishes :

A). When power to the starter is removed.


B). When the Starter stops rotating.
C). When the Starter Master switch is put to OFF.

92). What powers the warning light Bus Bar?

A). EMERG DC and / or DC 1 Bus Bar.


B). EMERG DC and / or DC 2 Bus Bar.
C). EMERG / BATT Bus Bar.

93). What the DC System is operating in parallel and DC load is low (Below 50 Amps)?

A). Both T.R.U.S share the load equally.


B). One T.R.U normally takes the full load.
C). One T.R.U A.C.O will open allowing the other T.R.U to take the load.
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94). If both AC Bus bars are energized but No1 TRU is U/S, the battery is serviceable
and the aircraft is in flight:

A). The APU may be started using Battery poer.


B). The APU may be started using TRU No 2.
C). The APU can not be started.

95). On ground with the APU Generator operating and engines 1 and 4 Generators not
operating, if the AC Bus Tie switch is open then:

A). The APU will supply AC Channel 1.


B). The APU will supply AC Channel 2.
C). The APU will supply both AC Channels 1 and 2.

96). In order to be powered the Warn Light bus requires :

A). Emergency DC or DC 2 to be powered.


B). Emergency DC and DC 2 to be powered.
C). Emergency DC and ESS DC to be powered.

97). If the APU Drive fail annunciator illuminated in flight :

A). The APU would Auto Shut down.


B). The APU would continue to run until it reached 110% RPM then it would over speed
shut down.
C). The APU would continue to run.

98). With aircraft Bus Bars De-powered, the Emergency Lights are illuminated, to
extinguish them you must :

A). Put the Battery switch to ON and the OFF the emergency lights.
B). Put the Emergency lights switch to the OFF position.
C). Put the Battery switch to ON, the Start Master switch to ON and then turn OFF the
emergency lights.

99). If a TRU de-energizes during engine start :

A). The start continues using other TRU.

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B). The start continues using power from the other TRU and the APU.
C). Both start contactors open and the start is discontinued.

100). Voltage is controlled :

A). Mechanically by the IDG.


B). Electrically by the GCU.
C). Electrically by the separate Voltage Regulator Unit.

101). If AC 1 and AC 2 are powered :

A). Emergency AC will always be powered.


B). Emergency AC will be powered provided Essential AC is powered.
C). Emergency AC will be powered provided Essential AC is powered and the STDBY
Inverter switch is not in the OFF position.

102). What indications would illuminate on the electrical section of the overhead panel, if
AC BUS 1 developed a fault?

A). AC BUS 1 OFF, ESS AC OFF and EMERG AC OFF.


B). AC BUS 1 OFF, ESS AC OFF.
C). AC BUS 1 OFF, EMERG AC OFF.

103). If TRU 1 is energized with battery switch selected ON and DC Bus Tie switch set to
Auto, the following Bus Bars are energized :

A). DC BUS 1, Emergency DC and DC Bus 2.


B). DC BUS 1, DC Bus 2, Emergency DC and Essential DC.
C). DC BUS 1, Essential DC and DC Bus 2.

104). The specification of the primary AC Bus system is :

A). 28 v / 200 Hz.


B). 115/200 v AC / 400 Hz.
C). 115 / 400 v AC / 200 Hz.

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105). When a GCU senses under frequency?

A). The lock out relay operates and the GEN cannot be reset.
B). The out relay operates and the GEN can be reset in the normal way.
C). The GEN will auto reconnect when the IDG reacts sufficiently .

106). During a main engine start ignition is terminated at :

A). 40% N2.


B). 50% N2.
C). 30% N2.

107). The aircraft is fitted with :

A). One main Battery.


B). One main Battery and an Emergency power supply Battery.
C). Two main Batteries and an Emergency power supply Battery.

108). What would occur if, during normal operation with both TRUs powered, TRU No 1
failed?

A). DC 2 and ESS DC Bus bars would be powered from TRU N0 2.


B). DC 2, EMERG DC and ESS DC would be powered from TRU No 2.
C). All DC Bus bars would remain powered from TRU No 2.

109). The Engine Driven Generators are cooled directly by :

A). Air blown / drawn over the generator itself.


B). The IDG oil system which is in turn cooled by air.
C). A fuel cooled IDG oil cooler.

110). The Battery temperature rises to 57 C :

A). Battery Hi TEMP enunciator illuminates.


B). Battery Hi TEMP enunciator illuminates and pilot must monitor Battery
temperature indicator and turn battery OFF at 71 c.
C). Battery Hi TEMP enunciator and BAT OFF Line enunciator illuminate immediately.

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111). Where are the 26 VAC EMERG BUS supplied normally fed from?

A). ESS AC BUS via a Transformer.


B). EMERG AC BUS via a Transformer.
C). AC BUS 1 via a Transformer.

112). The order of preference for start power is :

A). GEN 1 / 4 CROSS START, APU GEN, ECT AC and EXT DC.
B). EXT DC, EXT AC, APU GEN, GEN 1 / 4 CROSS START.
C). EXT AC, EXT DC, APU GEN and GEN 1 / 4 CROSS START.

113). How is the Battery Bus bar energized (i e HOT BATT BUS)?

A). When the battery inhibited, relay is energized.


B). When the battery master switch is selected ON.
C). Directly from the aircraft battery.

114). The No 1 or No 4 Generator is maintained at a constant 400 Hz by :

A). A solid state Generator Control Unit, controlling the frequency.


B). The Integrated Drive Generator Unit controls shaft speed to maintain 400 Hz output.
C). A separate Constant Speed Drive Unit modified the shaft speed to suit the separate
400 Hz Generator.

115). In flight if both AC 1 and AC 2 Fail, where will DC supplies be available from?

A). Standby Generator powering TRU 1 to provide DC 1 Bus.


B). Standby Generator DC output feeding ESS and EMERG DC Bus bars.
C). Standby Generator DC output feeding EMERG DC Bus bar.

116). What would illumination of a Generator DRIVE HI TEMP anunciator indicate?

A). Generator overheat and drive disconnect has operated.


B). Generator drive disconnect has operated.
C). Generator overheat switch has operated.

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117). When will the Standby Generator operate automatically?

A). If its control switch is at ARM with AC BUS 1 OFF and AC BUS 2 OFF anunciator
illuminated .
B). If its control switch is at ARM with AC BUS 1 OFF or AC BUS 2 OFF anunciator
illuminated ..
C). If its control switch is at ARM with AC BUS 1 OFF and ESS AC BUS OFF
anunciator illuminated.

118). The Standby Generator is driven by :

A). A Ram AIR Turbine.


B). A Pneumatic Motor Driven by engine bleed air.
C). By Green Hydraulic system.

119). When starting the APU the Starter Motor cuts at :

A). 50% RPM.


B). 40% RPM.
C). 60% RPM.

83 B 88 B 93 B 98 C 103 B 108 C 113 C 118 C


84 A 89 A 94 C 99 C 104 B 109 B 114 B 119 A
85 C 90 C 95 B 100 B 105 C 110 A 115 B
86 B 91 B 96 A 101 C 106 A 111 A 116 C
87 C 92 B 97 C 102 B 107 A 112 C 117 A

23
SEC - 26 FIRE PROTECTION

120). When a red Pylon o/heat warning occurs :

A). Closing the engine Air Valve will control the leak.
B). Closing the engine Air Valve may not control the leak.
C). Both engine Air Valves on that side automatically close .

121). An Engine Fire in engine zone 2 may be extinguished by:

A). Discharging one or both Fire Bottles into the engine.


B). Diving to VNE to blowout the fire.
C). Only by shutting down the engine.

122). When an engine fire test button on the ground test panel is held in the indications
are :

A). Fire handle lamp lit, fire bell, Loop fault amber caption lit, red flasher, amber
flasher, engine fire red caption and thrust lever lamp .
B). Fire handle lamp lit, Thrust lever lamp lit, engine fire red caption lit, fire bell, triple
chime, Loop fault amber caption lit, red flasher amber flasher .
C). Fire handle lamp lit, single chime, loop fault amber caption lit, fire bell, red flasher,
amber flasher .

123). When a Fire Handle is operated to its first detent :

A). Engine Air Valve is closed, and Hydraulic Pump Isolation Value or Engine Driven
Generator trips OFF line.
B). A Micro switch is operated to bring on the relevant Fire Handle white light on the
MWP.
C). The L.P Fuel Valve is closed through a system of cables and pulleys .

124). In the event of a Tail Hi-Temp Warning:

A). Both Air Conditioning Pack Valves will close.


B). Both Tail Anti-ice Valves will close.
C). The APU Air Valve will close.

24
125). When Smoke is detected in either Toilet:

A). A Toilet red Smoke MWP caption illuminates with a Triple Chime.
B). A Toilet Smoke amber MWP caption illuminates with a Single Chime.
C). No Cockpit indication is given.

126). If the aircraft is on the ground with the APU running and the APU Fire TEST is
carried out :

A). The APU will Auto shut down and the Fire Bottle will auto discharge.
B). The APU will Auto shut down and the Fire Bottle will not discharge .
C). The APU will Continue to run and the Normal fire test indications will be observed .

127). When an Air Conditioning Bay Over Heat occurs :

A). Pack 1/2 Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with the Air Condition
annunciator on the MWP .
B). The Tail Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with an AirSupply
annunciator on the MWP .
C). The Rear Bay Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with an Air COND
annunciator on the MWP .

128). When a Rear Bay Hi Temp occurs :

A). Both the Anti-ice Valves are shut down.


B). No Automatic shut down occurs .
C). Full Automatic shut down of the affected side occurs .

129). When the APU Fire TEST Button on the ground TEST Panel is held in the
indications are :

A). Fire Bell, APU Red Fire; Caption MWP, APU ; Amber MWP caption Red Flasher,
Amber Flasher, APU Fire Red annunciator, APU Loop Fault Amber annunciator .
B). Triple Chime, Red APU Fire caption, Amber APU caption, Red flasher, Amber
flasher, APU Fire Red annunciator, APU Loop Fault Amber annunciator .
C). Fire Bell, Red APU Fire caption, Amber APU caption, Red Flasher, Amber Flasher,
Single Chime, APU Fire Red annunciator, APU Loop Fault Amber annunciator .

25
130). When an Engine Fire Warning occurs the Red, MWP Engine Fire Light will be
extinguished :

A). Only when the Fire has gone out.


B). When the Red Flasher is pressed.
C). When the Fire Handle is pulled.

131). The first action in the event of a main Engine Fire is :

A). Pull the Relevant Fire Handle .


B). Relevant Thrust Lever Fuel OFF.
C). Turn Relevant Fire Handle to discharge the Extinguisher.

132). If both Zone Temp detect switches are selected to both Loops and on the ground
test panel zone loop A is pressed :

A). Left and right Zone Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with associated
warnings.
B). Left Zone Hi-Temp annunciators will illuminate together with associated warnings .
C). No additional indications will be given.

133). If an Overheat is detected in Pylon Zone 2 :

A). A Red Pylon O/heat Warning occurs with Thrust Lever light, Triple Chimes and Alert
flashers with no Auto shut down.
B). L/R Zone Hi Temp amber caution occurs with Single Chime and Amber flashers and
full Automatic shut down.
C). L/R Zone Hi Temp' Amber caution occurs with Single Chime and Amber Flashers and
no Automatic shut down.

134). An Engine Detector Failure will give the following indications:

A). Loop Fault Light on MWP, and Amber Flashers.


B). Amber Flashers, a Triple Chime and Loop fault Light on MWP.
C). Fire Bell, Amber Flashers, and MWP Loop Fault Light.

26
135). The Engine Fire Detection System continuously monitors for a Fault in the fire wire
by:

A). Checking the Resistance Value to see if a short circuit has occurred.
B). Checking the Reference Pressures to see that no gas has leaked out.
C). Checking the Reference Pressures to dielectric to ensure that the wire hasn't broken

120 B 122 A 124 B 126 B 128 B 130 A 132 C 134 A


121 C 123 B 125 C 127 C 129 C 131 B 133 B 135 B

27
SEC - 27 FLIGHT CONTROLS

136). How is Pitch Control after an Elevator Cable run has Jammed maintained :

A). By pulling the Elevator disconnect on the center console first.


B). By moving the un-jammed Control Column to operate the instinctive breakout and
maintain control then pulling the Elevator disconnect handle.
C). By pulling the free control and pushing the Jammed Column to create an instinctive
break out of the roller and disconnect strut.

137). The Lift Spoiler Warning may be cancelled by :

A). Pressing the Horn Cancel Button on the pedestal .


B). Pressing the Master Warning System amber flasher .
C). Pressing either amber Glare shield Lift Spoiler button light .

138). With the aircraft parked, wind and Storm damage to the Elevators and Ailerons is
prevented by :

A). Control locks fitted manually.


B). Automatic gust dampers .
C). Manually engaged gust dampers.

139). with the Elevator disconnected after a jam in the left control circuit you lost:

A). Q Feel and Autopilot.


B). G Weight and Spring .
C). G' Weight and Autopilot.

140). For a Stick Push to occur:

A). Left and Right Stall Warning summing units must be activated .
B). Operation of either stall identification summing unit in isolation will cause a stick
push .

C). One Stall Warning and the opposite vane stall identification summing unit must be
activated .

28
141). Which Spoiler System has a time delay built into its control System :

A). Green Spoiler System .


B). Yellow Spoiler System.
C). EMERG. Yellow System.

142). Pulling the Control Column fully back on the ground with zero Wind:

A). Will not move the Elevator .


B). Only moves the inner Tab Down .
C). Moves the inner Tab down and Elevator Up.

143). If a STALL IDENT annunciator illuminated in normal flight and the pilot pressed
and inhibited it, then :

A). No Stall Warning or Stick push is now available .


B). Stall Warning is available but stick push is not available.
C). Both Stall Warning and stick push are still available.

144). The Elevator Disconnect Handle when operated disconnects the elevator systems
by :

A). The action of a Micro Switch on the Handle operating an electrical disconnect device
.
B). Separating them at the input to the Hydraulic Power Control Unit .
C). Mechanically uncoupling the two sides of the System

145). The MAN Spoiler Fault annunciator will illuminate:

A). If the pilot has selected Spoilers when he shouldn't.


B). When there is a Fault in a Spoilers selected valve.
C). When there is a Fault in one of the squat switch systems.

146). If the CONFIG caption lights at the start of the Take Off. What is the first action?

A). Press the CONFIG TEST.


B). Check that the park brake is off and continue.
C). Select all thrust levers to ground idle.
29
147). The MWS RUDDER LIMITER caption could illuminate if:

A). Only reduced Rudder authority is available below 160 knots.


B). Too much Rudder authority is available for the airspeed .
C). Both A and B are correct.

148). What conditions are the ailerons and elevators in when the aircraft is parked:

A). Locked by the gust dampers .


B). Never locked .
C). Locked manually.

149). The Aileron Disconnect Device is located:

A). In the Captains cable compensator unit .


B). Between the captains and First Officers Control Columns in the primary control cable
circuit.
C). In the Aileron interconnect cable circuit.

150). What audible warning accompanies a CONFIG" Warning Red caption on the MWP
and Red Alert flashes on the Glare Shield :

A). A Continuous Warning Horn.


B). A Triple Chime Audio Warning.
C). An Intermittent Warning Horn.

151). If a mechanical disconnect Fault occurs in the Flap -drive System:

A). Flap Fault will illuminate and flaps will operate at half speed.
B). Flap Fault will illuminate and flaps will be locked .
C). Flap INOP will illuminate and flaps will be locked.

152). If one Yaw damper fails:

A). The Yaw damper system now operates at half speed.


B). The other Yaw Damper maintains full operation of the Yaw Damper System.
C). The Yaw Damper system is inoperative.

30
153). The Air Brake is operated by :

A). The Yellow Hydraulic System .


B). The Green Hydraulic System .
C). Either Hydraulic System.

154). The function of the G Weight is:

A). To make the controls heavier under conditions of applied G.


B). To make the controls lighter under conditions of applied G.
C). To statically mass balance the Elevator.

155). Which are the gated and baulked Flap positions:

A). 18 and 30.


B). 18 and 24.
C). 24 and 30.

156). If a Green Hydraulic Sys. failure occurs, what effect will this have on Flap
operation:

A). No warnings will be given by the Flap system and the Flaps will operate at full speed .
B). Flap Fault will illuminate and Flaps will operate at half system .
C). Flap INOP will illuminate and Flaps will be locked.

157). If the Lift Spoilers unlocked warning light is on and landing distance is not critical
it is recommended :

A). To land with 24 Flap and expect 20% increase in landing distance.
B). To land with normal 33 Flap.
C). To land with 18 Flap and expect a 40% increase in landing distance.

158). When the aircraft is parked in windy conditions :

A). Control locks prevent control surface movement and damage.


B). Gust Dampers limit control surface movement and damage.
C). The controls are Hydraulically locked in the neutral position.

31
159). The M.W.S RUDDER VALVE caption will illuminate if:

A). Any Servo Unit Control Valve should stick.


B). Either or both Hydraulic Systems should fail or loose pressure .
C). Both A and B are correct.

160). If a Jam occurs in the Aileron interconnect circuit:

A). The Hand Wheels will be jammed until the system is broken out or Uncoupled.
B). The Hand Wheels will both be free to move moving the aileron Tabs only.
C). The Hand Wheels will both be free to move moving the ailerons directly since the
tabs are jammed.

161). Rudder Trim Wheel movement :

A). Operates the Rudder trim tab mechanically .


B). Provides an input to the Rudder Trim actuator (Hydraulic) .
C). Provides an input to the Rudder actuators and adjusts the Q POT datum position

162). What happens if No 1 STALL WARN TEST Button is pushed on its own :

A). The captains control column only will shake .


B). Both controls will shake.
C). Neither control column will shake.

163). What Hydraulic Power is supplied to the Flap Control Unit:

A). Yellow and Green Hydraulics .


B). Yellow Hydraulics only.
C). Green Hydraulics only.

164). What is the function of the Elevator Q POT?

A). To restrict Elevator travel with increase in speed.


B). To increase Elevator feel force with increase in speed.
C). To decrease Elevator feel force with increase in speed.

32
165). When the Aileron pull disconnect handle is pulled the effect on the detent strut is :

A). The disconnect device in the detent strut operates to allow it to become a sliding
strut.
B). The disconnect Handle has no direct affect on the detent strut.
C). A Micro Switch operates to electrically operate the disconnect device in the detent
strut to allow it to slide.

166). When the aircraft is parked how are the Ailerons and Elevators locked:

A). They are locked by Hydraulic Gust Dampers.


B). They are locked by External Control Locks .
C). They Are not locked.

167). Rudder Feel is provided by:

A). The Pneumatic Q POT.


B). A Spring Strut .
C). The Yaw Damper System.

168). If the Yellow spoiler FAIL annunciator is lit in flight, you should:

A). Select Lift Spoiler YEL to OFF.


B). Switch on AC pump and PTU.
C). Expect Yellow Spoiler operation on landing with weight on wheels.

169). How are the Primary Flight Controls operated :

A). Ailerons and Elevators manually, Rudder hydraulically.


B). Elevator and Rudder manually, aileron hydraulically.
C). All manually.

170). In the event of a jam in the Aileron control circuit when will the AIL/EL UNCPLD
annunciator illuminate:

A). When the Jam occurs.


B). The annunciator is signaled directly by detent strut breakout.
C). As a result of the disconnect device in the interconnect circuit being uncoupled.
33
171). If the Flap INOP caption is lit:

A). Maintain Green System Hydraulic pressure.


B). Select the Flap Lever to a greater setting.
C). Maintain Yellow Hydraulic, ESS AC and ESS DC supplies to ensure Asymmetry
protection.

172). The Flap Asymmetry Brakes are powered by :

A). Yellow Hydraulic System .


B). Both Yellow and Green Systems.
C). Green hydraulic System.

173). If unselected deployment of a Lift Spoiler occurs the warning will be :

A). Glare shield amber Lift Spoiler light.


B). Overhead panel Spoiler Unlocked annunciator.
C). Visual indication of deployment on the spoiler gauges on the main instrument panel.

174). With the R/H Elevator Jammed, the L/H Channel retains :

A). A G Weight and Spring.


B). A Q Feel System.
C). A Speed Switch.

175). The Cockpit Control Wheels are mechanically connected directly to:

A). The Ailerons.


B). The Aileron Power Control Units.
C). The Aileron Servo Tabs.

176). The function of the Blow Back Spring in the control circuit:

A). So that the TAB will only become effective at high airspeeds when it is difficult to
move main controls .
B). To limit the authority of the TAB in accordance with airspeed.
C). To prevent the Ailerons moving excessively when the aircraft is parked in windy
conditions.
34
177). The Take Off CONFIG Warning circuit is activated by:

A). Pressing the CONFIG Check Button .


B). Advancing any Thrust Lever to Take Off position.
C). Selecting Take Off Flap.
D). Answers A and B are correct

178). Selection of Flaps to A ,B, or C will not cause a CONFIG Warning to operate for Take
Off, which?
A). 0, 18, 24.
B). 18, 24, 33.
C). 18, 24, 30.

179). The Primary Control which is Hydraulically operated is :

A). Elevator.
B). Aileron.
C). Rudder.

180). The AIL/ELEV UNCPLD Caption on the MWP should illuminate for uncoupled
ailerons as a result of:

A). Instinctive break our occurring at the detent strut.


B). The AIL Pull Disconnect Handle being pulled.
C). When either A or B occur.

181). The Rudder is operated by:

A). One Servo Unit, i.e. one actuator.


B). Manual movements of its Servo TAB.
C). Two Servo Units operating together.

182). Elevator Feel is provided by:


A). The Pneumatic Q POT.
B). A Spring Strut.
C). The G weight.
D). Answers A and C are correct.
35
136 B 142 C 148 B 154 A 160 B 166 C 172 A 178 C
137 C 143 C 149 C 155 B 161 C 167 B 173 B 179 C
138 B 144 C 150 C 156 B 162 B 168 A 174 B 180 C
139 A 145 C 151 C 157 C 163 A 169 A 175 C 181 C
140 C 146 C 152 C 158 B 164 B 170 C 176 B 182 D
141 A 147 A 153 B 159 C 165 B 171 C 177 D

36
SEC - 28 FUEL

183). The APU normally receives its fuel supply from :

A). The right hand inner pump .


B). The right hand outer pump .
C). The left hand inner pump.

184). When an Engine Fire Handle is pulled the LP Fuel Valve is operated via:

A). Micro switches in the handle which close the valve electrically.
B). A solenoid valve which operates to allow fuel muscle pressure to close the LP
valve.
C). A Cable and pulley system to close the valve.

185). During refueling it is important that the Right Inner Fuel Pump is OFF :

A). To reduce back pressure against the Bowser.


B). If the Pump is left on the RH Tank will not fill.
C). If the Pump is left on the RH Tank could overfill.

186). The Electric Power supply for the No 1 engine Fuel Pump is:

A). AC 2 .
B). AC 1.
C). EMERGENCY AC.

187). The Max Usable Fuel quantities are :

A). 2500 Kg Each wing and 4400 Kg Center Tank.


B). 1015 Kg each wing and 550 Kg Center Tank.
C). 3683 Kg each wing and 1996 Kg Center Tank.

188). Fuel may be transferred from one Wing to another:

A). Only in flight .


B). Only on the ground.
C). On the ground and in flight.
37
189). Can the Engine be supplied with fuel under pressure from the hydraulically
operated Standby Pumps:

A). Yes.
B). NO.
C). Yes, but the Cross feed valve must be open.

190). The Max Usable Fuel contents are :

A). 9 362 Kg.


B). 7 366 kg.
C). 1 015 Kg.

191). Standby Fuel Pumps are driven by:

A). Yellow Hydraulic Pressure.


B). Green Hydraulic Pressure .
C). Essential Power.

192). The White Fuel Transfer annunciator on the MWP will illuminate:

A). During Refueling.


B). When Cross Feeding 28.
C). When moving fuel from the Center Tank to the Wing Tanks.

193). The Fuel Feed Open annunciator on the MWP will illuminate:

A). Only when the Cross Feed Valve is open.

B). Only when the common Feed Valve is open.


C). When either a common Feed or Cross Feed Value is open.

194). When Refueling using Load pre selector the Center Tank:

A). Must be filled first.


B). Must be filled after the wings.
C). Either tank may be filled first.

38
195). Which Engines can be supplied with fuel under pressure from the Hydraulically
operated Standby Pumps?

A). Engine 2 and 3.


B). All engines.
C). None.

196). When transferring the fuel remaining in the Center Tank after Auto transfer :

A). Select open on the Center Tank transfer switch then auto when it is empty.
B). Select open on the Center Tank transfer switch then shut when it is empty.
C). The fuel is not transferable.

197). Max Fuel Asymmetry allowed is:

A). 680 Kg.


B). 1 500 Kg .
C). 550 Kg.

198). The Center Tank transfer jet pumps are normally energized by:

A). Fuel Pressure from Outer and Inner Pumps together.


B). Fuel Pressure from Outer Pumps.
C). Fuel Pressure from Inner Pumps.

199). The purpose of the Jet Pumps in the inner feed tanks are:

A). To transfer fuel to the Outer Feed Tanks.


B). To transfer fuel to the Inner Tank Pump compartments.
C). To pump fuel to the Inboard engines.

200). Under which circumstances will the Standby Fuel Pumps operate:

A). With the control switch set to NORMAL and an Electrical Failure to the appropriate
Inner Fuel Pump.
B). With the control switch set to NORMAL and an Electrical Failure to the appropriate
Outer Fuel Pump.
C). With the controls switch set to NORMAL and an Electrical Failure to both MAIN AC
Bus Bars.
39
201). Standby Fuel Pumps are driven by :

A). Standby DC Electrical Power (SDC).


B). Green Hydraulic System.
C). Yellow Hydraulic System.

202). Which Electrical Fuel Pumps are normally powered from AC 2 Bus bar:

A). Left Inner and Right Outer.


B). Right Inner and Left Outer .
C). Right Inner and Right Outer.

203). With Fuel Quantity in a feed tank below 130 kg :

A). Carry out a 24 Flap landing and accept a 40 % increase in landing distance .
B). Carry out a 24 Flap landing and accept a 25 % increase in landing distance.
C). Do not land.

204). How is each Fuel Low Pressure Valve closed:

A). By operating its associated Fire Handle.


B). By operating the associated Valve Switch on the Overhead Fuel Panel.
C). Both A and B are correct.

205). Where is Fuel for the APU taken from :

A). The LH Inner pump via the Cross Feed Pipe in the Wing Center area.
B). A separate APU Feed Tank .
C). The RH Cross Feed Valve.

206). Maximum De fuel pressure is:

A). - 11 PSI .
B). - 50PSI.
C). - 35 PSI.

40
207). What indications will be given if the refuel control station hinged panel in the
underside of the right wing leading edge, is open :

A). The REFUEL SELECTED annunciator light in the Overhead Fuel Panel is OUT.
B). The REFUEL SELECTED annunciator light in the Overhead Fuel Panel is ON.
C). The REFUEL SELECTED annunciator light will not come on until the refuel MASTER
switch is set to ON.

208). The Fuel Gauges fitted on the Flight Deck are:

A). Two Wings and one Center.


B). Two Wings, one Center and Two feed.
C). Two Wings, one Center and Four feed

209). When landing with a Feed Tank Quantity less than 130 Kg use:

A). Flap 33 landing .


B). Flap 24 landing .
C). Flap 18 landing.
210). Maximum Refuel Pressure is:

A). 35 PSI .
B). 50 PSI.
C). 11 PSI.

211). When will the amber L FEED LO LEVEL annunciator illuminate:

A). When the Fuel Feed compartment is empty.


B). When the Fuel Feed compartment is slightly less than full.
C). When the Fuel Feed compartment fuel level falls to 50 Kg.

212). How are the Standby Fuel Pumps operated:

A). They are Hydraulically operated (I e. driven by Hyd. motors).


B). They operate Automatically when primary AC power fails (I e .AC 1 and AC 2 FAIL).
C). Both A and B are correct.

41
213). Which Jet Pumps will the Hydraulically Driven Standby Fuel Pumps operate:

A). The jet pumps in the Outer feed compartments.


B). The jet pumps in the Inner and outer feed compartments.
C). The jet pumps in the Inner feed compartments.

214). During Refueling the Left Inner Fuel Pump may be left on:

A). To ensure the Center Tank fills first.


B). To assist the Bowser to fill the Wing Tanks quickly .
C). To provide positive fuel pressure to the APU.

215). with Auto Transfer selected fuel will transfer from the Center Tank:

A). On the ground and in flight .


B). In flight only.
C). On the ground only.

183 C 189 B 195 C 201 C 207 B 213 C


184 C 190 A 196 B 202 A 208 C 214 C
185 C 191 A 197 A 203 B 209 B 215 B
186 B 192 C 198 C 204 A 210 B
187 C 193 C 199 B 205 A 211 B
188 B 194 B 200 C 206 A 212 C

42
SEC - 29 HYDRAULAICS

216). What effect will the STDBY GEN Switch to O/RIDE have on the Hydraulic Systems :

A). The Green System services will be lost.


B). The Yellow System reduce to half pressure.
C). The Green System is unaffected.

217). The Green System Hydraulic Accumulator :

A). Stores fluid under pressure for emergency landing gear extension.
B). Stores fluid under pressure for emergency brakes.
C). Just provides damping when P.T.U or Standby Generator operate.

218). When the Standby Generator is operating, the following indications will be given
along the MWP indications :

A). Standby GEN on light and Green System pressure indicating below 1 500 PSI with AC
1 and AC 2 Off line.
B). Standby GEN on light and Green System pressure indication below 1 500 PSI and
Green System LOW PRESSURE light on with AC 1 and AC 2 Off line.
C). Standby GEN on light and Green System pressure indication 2 500 to 3 100 PSI with
Green System LOW PRESSURE light on with AC 1 and AC 2 OFF line.

219). If the Green System Pump has failed the PTU will develop :

A). 3 100 PSI in the Green system.


B). 1 750 PSI in the Green system.
C). 2 600 PSI in the Green system.

220). Normal (Hydraulic) System pressure is:

A). 2 600 PSI.


B). 3 500 PSI.
C). 3 100 PSI.

43
221). With a Green Hydraulic System Low Quantity situation :

A). PTU must be selected OFF to prevent loss of Yellow System pressure and services.
B). Yellow System is unaffected by loss of Green system fluid.
C). PTU must be selected OFF to prevent loss of Fluid from the Yellow System.

222). The Brake Accumulator Low Pressure annunciator will illuminate at


approximately:

A). 2 500 PSI.


B). 1 500 PSI.
C). 1 750 PSI.

223). If in flight with AC Pump in the AUTO position and PTU ON, what warning will be
given for a main Hydraulic pump Failure :

A). HYD. System LOW PRESS light and HYD caption on MWP.
B). HYD caption on MWP and relevant pump Fail light on Overhead Panel.
C). Probably no Warning would be given.

224). The Hydraulic HI TEMP annunciator illuminates :

A). When the Engine Driven Pump temperature reaches 204 C .


B). When the temperature of the Fluid at the Pump Outlet reaches 95 C.
C). When the temperature of the Fluid at the Tank Outlet reaches 95 C.

225). Overpressure Relief at:

A). 2 600 PSI.


B). 3 500 PSI..
C). 3 100 PSI.

226). The Emergency Main Landing Gear lock down circuit may be supplied with Fluid
under pressure from :

A). Green System Engine Driven Pump only .


B). Yellow System Engine Driven Pump only.
C). Yellow System EDP , AC Pump or DC Pump.

44
227). When Emergency Yellow is selected :

A). The DC Pump must also be selected to BATT .


B). The main Wheel Brakes will operate normally .
C). The DC Pump runs automatically but Anti/Skid is not available.

228). When a Hydraulic Filter becomes Clogged/Partially clogged:

A). A White Filter Clogged annunciator is illuminated on the MWP .


B). A Filter Clogged Magnetic Indicator Latches on the maintenance annunciator Panel.
C). A small Red Pin extends to the exposed position on the filter housing in the bay.

229). Yellow and Green System Reservoirs each have a capacity of approximately of :

A). 5.0 Gals .


B). 3.4 Gals .
C). 8.0 Gals .

230). BAE-146 Hydraulic Fluid is colored:

A). RED.
B). PURPLE.
C). YELLOW.

231). The Green System provides Hydraulic power to Flaps, Rudder, Lift Spoiler (4) and :

A). Landing Gear, Air Brakes, Air Stairs, Wheel Brakes and Nose Wheel Steering.
B). Landing Gear, Roll Spoilers , N.W Steering and Air Brakes.
C). Landing Gear, Retract Brakes, N.W Steering and Air Brakes.

232). The (HYD) System LOW PRESSURE annunciator will illuminate at approximately :

A). 2 600 PSI.


B). 1 500 PSI..
C). 1 750 PSI.

45
233). What does the AC Pump Fail annunciator indicate :

A). Pump Overheating.


B). Pump fails when switched ON or runs when switched OFF.
C). Pump Failure only.

234). When the Standby Generator is operating :

A). Full GREEN services are available.


B). All other Green services are lost.
C). Normal Landing Gear extension and Nose Wheel Steering are available.

235). If the Yellow System Pump has failed the AC Pump will develop :

A). 2 600 PSI.


B). 1 750 PSI..
C). 3 100 PSI.

236). With only No 2 ENG Pump ON, AC Pump ON and PTU ON, what will the System
pressures read :

A). Yellow 2 600 +50 PSI, Green 3 100 +25 PSI.


B). Yellow 3 100 +50 PSI, Green 2 600 +200 PSI.
C). Yellow 3 100 +50 PSI, Green 3100 +50 PSI.

216 A 219 C 222 A 225 B 228 C 231 C 234 B


217 C 220 C 223 C 226 C 229 B 232 B 235 C
218 C 221 A 224 C 227 C 230 B 233 B 236
46
SEC - 30 ICE / RAIN PROTECTION

237). What will cause an Auto shut down of the airframe anti-icing :

A). Tail HI TEMP .


B). Zone HI TEMP.
C). Air Lo Press.

238). If two engines fail on the same wing it's ice protection is provided by:

A). By air from the opposite wing.


B). By air from the APU.
C). Ice protection is lost on that wing .

239). When Taking Off in Icing conditions with Engine Anti-ice on:

A). No performance corrections are required.


B). Add 12 C to actual air temperature before entering RTOW/Airport analysis data or
use A-ice on scale.
C). Add 12 C to max TGT allowed on Take Off.

240). When the Rain Repellent Button is pressed:

A). Fluid is applied for as long as the button is held.


B). A pump operates to pump the correct amount of repellant onto the windscreen from
the reservoir.
C). A timing cycle is initiated allowing the correct amount of fluid from a pressurized
canister onto the window.

241). In flight when ice detected caption goes out :

A). Turn off all airframe ice protection i:rriInediately.


B). Wait one minute before turning off airframe ice protection.
C). Put inner wing de-ice on for one minute before turning off airframe ice protection.

47
242). What is the minimum % N2 to be used for flight in icing conditions?:

A). 60% N2.


B). 70% N2.
C). 67% N2.

243). When Electrical Power to an Engine Anti-ice Valve fails the Valve :

A). Fails closed.


B). Fails open.
C). Fails in the selected position.

244). The Waste Water Drain Masts are:

A). Heated by cabin air being vented overboard.


B). Electrically heated and controlled by a switch on the ice protection panel.
C). Electrically heated and controlled automatically.

245). When electrical power is lost to a wing or tail anti-ice Valve :

A). The Valve fails closed.


B). The Valve fails open.
C). The Valve fails in the selected position.

246). With screen heat selected on the ground:

A). All screens are electrically heated to full power.


B). A and B screens only are heated to full power.
C). A screens are heated to 1/3 power and B screens to full power.

247). Wing not De-iced annunciator will illuminate :

A). When Inner Wing and Outer Wing ice protection is OFF and ice is detected.
B). When Outer wing ice protection is selected on and Inner Wing selected OFF.
C). When Outer Wing is selected on and Flaps are extended to 18 or more with Inner
Wing selected OFF.

48
248). The air low temperature annunciator could illuminate :

A). Whenever any engine air switch is in the ON position.


B). Whenever the air from the ACM into the distribution duct is too Cold.
C). Only when airframe ice protection is in use.

249). How is control to the VANE HTRS achieved :

A). Automatically via the Weight on Wheels switches.


B). By Land R PITOT heater switches.
C). By two Switches which also control the right and aux pi tot heaters.

250). Which Flight Deck window has outer facing plies of glass :

A). Panel B.
B). Panel A.
C). Panel C.

251). How will failure of the left PITOT Heater be shown :

A). MWS white ON caption .


B). An amber FAIL annunciator.
C). An ammeter.

252). With the Ice-detected caption illuminated (and the flaps are :

A). Engine anti-ice should be switched on.


B). Inner wings, outer wings and the tail should be switched on.
C). Outer wings and the tail should be switched on.

253). Inner wing De-ice is provided :

A). By air from the inner wing, engines 2 and 3 only.


B). By air from the outer wing, engines 1 and 4 only.
C). By air from the inner or outer wing, engines 1 and 2 or 3 and 4.

254). At 500 ft on approach in icing conditions the sequence for turning off airframe ice
protection is:

49
A). Outer Wings and Tail then inner wings.
B). Inner Wings then Outer Wings and Tail.
C). Tail then Inner Wings then Outer Wings.

255). The power supplies to the PITOT heaters are :

A). Right 115V / Left 115V / Aux 115V.


B). Right 115V / Left 28V / Aux 115V.
C). Right 115V / Left 115V or 28V / Aux 115V.

256). In flight with Screen Heat selected on :

A). A, B and C screens are Electrically heated to full power.


B). A and B Screens only are Electrically heated to full power .
C). A Screens heated to full power and B screens to 1/3 power.

257). When selected airframe ice protection is operating :

A). On the ground and in flight .


B). Only when the ice detected caption illuminates in flight.
C). At any time in flight.

258). Tail Ice Protection may be provided by:

A). LH horizontal Stabilizer by ENGS 3 and 4, R.H. by ENGS 1 and.


B). LH horizontal Stabilizer by ENGS 1 and 2, R.H. by ENGs 3 and.
C). LH and RH Stabilizer by ENGS 1,2,3 and 4.

237 B 240 C 243 B 246 C 249 C 252 C 255 C 258 C


238 C 241 C 244 C 247 C 250 B 253 C 256 B
239 B 242 C 245 C 248 C 251 B 254 A 257 C

50
SEC - 31 FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

259). Failure of Mechanical Counter Pointer Altimeter is indicated by :

A). An Orange Flag with a V Symbol.


B). A Black and White hatched Flag.
C). No indication.

260). The appearance of a DAYGLO Colored SSC Flag in the Servo Altimeter indicates :

A). Failure of the Air Data Unit Static Source correction.


B). Failure of the Servo Drive System.
C). Failure of the Vibrator which prevents Sticking.

261). The Cabin ALT /DIFF /VSI Gauge is supplied with Static from :

A). Static System No 1.


B). Static System No 2.
C). Static System No 3.

262). The Q Pot Probe is a :

A). Combined Pitot-Static Probe.


B). Static only Probe.
C). Double Pitot Probe.

263). Servo Altimeter Failure indication is given by:

A). An Orange OFF Flag appearing across the readout.


B). Blue wavy lines on a White Flag.
C). An Orange SSC Flag.

264). The integrity of the Q pot probe is monitored by :

A). One Pitot and one Dynamic pressure switch.


B). One static and one Dynamic pressure switch .
C). Two Dynamic pressure switches.

51
265). The Altitude Alerting System provided:

A). A visual warning of approach to a preselected altitude and an audio and visual
warning of deviation from the attained selected altitude .
B). AD audio and visual warning of approach to a selected altitude and visual warning of
deviation from the attained selected altitude .
C). An audio and visual warning of approach to a selected altitude and an audio and
visual warning of deviation from the attained selected altitude.

266). The captains flight instruments which require Pitot and Static are supplied from:

A). Pi tot 1 and Static 1.


B). Pitot 1 and Static 2.
C). Pitot 2 and Static 2.

267). The 220 Kts Flap Baulk Airspeed switch received dynamic pressure from :

A). PITOT 1.
B). PITOT 2.
C). PITOT 3.

268). The Red and White pointer on the CSI indicates :

A). The VMO / MMO of the aircraft at all altitude .


B). The VMO / MMO of the aircraft on the air only.
C). The VMO / MMO of the aircraft on the ground only.

269). The Altitude output from the Servo Altimeter to the Transponder is :
A). Affected by the Barometric setting knobs.
B). Not affected by the Barometric settings knobs.
C). Only affected by the Barometric setting Knobs of the altimeter that is selected.

270). The command speed pointer on the mach airspeed indicator :


A). Commands the autopilot to fly at that speed when IAS mode is in use.
B). Is moved by a knob on the LH side of the instrument and also provides reference for
the speed pointer on the ADI.
C). Provides the reference speed for the V bars when the aircraft is being manually
flown in IAS Mode.
52
271). The Standby Attitude indicator is powered by :

A). Emergency AC.


B). Emergency DC.
C). Essential DC .

272). What indications are given by the Altitude Alerting System for a deviation of more
than 300 ft from an established selector altitude:

A). Steady Amber lights.


B). Steady Amber lights and a 1.5 sec Audio Tone.
C). Flashing Amber lights and a 1.5 sec Audio Tone.

273). In the event of Servo Failure in a Servo Altimeter :

A). A V Flag appears to show that the vibrator is operating to prevent a sticking display,
but altitude reporting is U/S.
B). A Red and Black Warning Bar obscures the Altitude read out.
C). A DAYGLO SSC Flag appears (Servo System Compensation).

274). Location of P 2 and P 3 heads is:

A). P 2 on the L H side of the nose P 3 on the RH side of the Nose.


B). Both on the LH side of the Nose.
C). Both on the RH side of the Nose.

259 C 261 C 263 A 265 C 267 C 269 B 271 B 273 B


260 A 262 A 264 B 266 A 268 A 270 B 272 C 274 C

53
SEC - 32 LANDING GEAR and BRAKES

275). What is the Maximum Brake Pressure :

A). Reduced to 2 000 PSI.


B). Reduced to 2 500 PSI.
C). The same as the selected system pressure.

276). When the Nose Gear is retracted the wheels each contact pads which :

A). Stop the Wheels rotating.


B). Are spring loaded to act as free fall assisters.
C). A and B are both correct.

277). When the Landing Gear Emergency Extension Handle is operated :

A). Green System dump valve opens Yellow pressure provided to the combined assister
jack, 6 up locks are broken one for each gear and one for each gear door assembly.
B). Green Systems dump valve opens Yellow pressure provided to each down lock
actuator, 5 Up-locks are broken one for' each gear and one for each main gear door
assembly.
C). Green System dump valve opens, Yellow pressure provided to the combined assister
jack, 5 Up-locks are broken, one for each gear and one for each main gear door
assembly.

278). When are the Nose Gear Bay Doors closed:

A). When the Gear is retracted.


B). When the Gear is extended.
C). When the Gear is retracted or retracted.

279). If after Take Off the undercarriage selector lever cannot be moved to the UP
position :

A). The Electrical Override Lever must be operated.


B). The Mechanical Override Lever must be operated .
C). The Hydraulic Override Lever must be operated.

54
280). Pushing the TEST Button on the Brake Temperature indicator Panel will cause :

A). The display will indicate 750 C and all 4 Red Overheat Lamps will illuminate.
B). The display will indicate 650 C and the Max button will illuminate .

C). The display will indicate 650 C and all 4 Red Overheat Lamps will illuminate .

281). The Park Brake may be set and released from :

A). Either pilots side.


B). Only the Captains side.
C). Only the First Officers side .

282). Which condition would produce a lit Gear selection lever and a warning horn that
cannot be cancelled :

A). Gear not in position selected.


B). Gear not down and flaps selected to more .
C). Gear not down, speed below 148 Kts and one or more Thrust Levers below cruise
power.

283). During Retraction and while the Gear is UP :

A). The normal brakes are automatically reapplied using yellow hydraulic pressure to
stop the wheels rotating.
B). The brakes are applied using green system pressure in the normal brake pistons.
C). Smaller retraction brakes are applied using green hydraulics to stop the wheels
rotating.

284). What is the significance of an ANTI-SKID FAULT annunciator illuminated on the


Overhead Panel :

A). There is no significant effect upon system efficiency.


B). There is a significant effect upon system efficiency.
C). System efficiency is not affected unless the warning persists with Green or Yellow
selected.

285). Optimum conditions for Landing Gear Emergency lowering are (35B) :

A). 160 Kts , Flap 18.


55
B). 190 Kts , Flap UP.
C). 250 Kts , Flap UP.

286). The supply of Hydraulic Fluid to the Steering System is:

A). Only available when the Nose Wheel Steering System Master is selected to ON .
B). Only available when the Steering Solenoid Valve is operated by a weight on Wheels
switch.
C). Only available when the Gear is selected down, Using Fluid from the Gear down
supply

287). The Red Light in the normal Landing Gear selector will illuminate :

A). Flaps greater than 10 and Gear not locked down.


B). Airspeed < 148 Kts, one or more Thrust Levers below cruise power and gear not
locked down.
C). Either the Gear or the Gear selector Valve is not in the position selected.
D). A, B, and C are all correct.

288). If a Main Gear is not locked down after normal down selection IT may be assisted to
lock by :

A). Gently apply Rudder on the side of the locked leg.


B). Apply Rudder on the side of the unlocked leg.
C). Making gentle applications of G.

289). When the Brake fans are selected to auto :

A). They operate when the aircraft is on the ground and the brake temperature is greater
than 200 C.
B). They operate whenever the nose, Gear is locked down.
C). They operate whenever the main Gears are locked down.

290). Anti-Skid braking is available:

A). On Green System and yellow system.


B). On the Yellow pull to park only.
C). On the pull to park or push to Emergency Yellow.
56
291). The Park Brake may be set with either Green or Yellow Hydraulics selected and :

A). Pressure will be applied to the brakes from which ever system Ls selected.
B). Yellow hydraulics must be selected before setting the park brake .
C). When the park brake handle is pulled yellow Hydraulics will automatically be
provided to the brakes.

292). The Back Up Gear System indicators adjacent to the Emergency selector will
illuminate when pressed :

A). Only when the Gear is selected down.


B). Only when the respective Gear leg is locked down.
C). When the gear is up or down in order to test the bulbs.

293). Whilst Towing the aircraft the Nose Wheel Steering :

A). Torque links must first be disconnected.


B). Must not exceed 70 either side .
C). Automatically disconnects the pinion from rack above.

294). Anti-skid is available:

A). When wheel speed increases above 33 Kts and until speed decreases below 15 Kts.
B). On landing 5 seconds after weight on wheels or sufficient wheel spin up occurs.
C). Both A and B are correct.

295). It is important to release the Brake Pedals before changing the brake selector
because:

A). The Brake Valve will not change over whilst the pedals are pressed.
B). The Brake Valve will get jammed with the brakes in the applied position .
C). Large quantities of fluid can get passed from one system to the other.

296). Maximum Speed for flight with the Gear extended is :

A). 250 Knots.


B). 205 Knots.
C). 220 Knots.
57
297). The Nose Wheel is steerable through :

A). 90 either side of center.


B). 140 either side of center.
C). 70 either side of center.

298). If an Electrical Failure occurs causing loss of DC1 busbar :

A). The brakes will remain powered by which ever system was selected.
B). The Solenoid Valves will be de-energized so Green hydraulics only will be available for
braking.
C). The Solenoid Valves will be de-energized so Yellow Hydraulics only will be available
for braking.

299). Which Hydraulic System supplies the Nose Whee1 Steering System and when is it
available:

A). Green with the gear selected down and the wheels are within the steering range.
B). Green or yellow when the gear is down and the wheels are within the steering range.
C). Green or yellow when the gear is down and the wheels are within the steering range.

300). If Anti - Skid is INOP landing distance may be increased by up to :

A). 40%.
B). 50% .
C). 60%.

275 C 279 B 283 C 287 D 291 C 295 C 299 A


276 C 280 A 284 A 288 B 292 B 296 B 300 C
277 C 281 B 285 B 289 B 293 C 297 C
278 C 282 B 286 C 290 A 294 C 298 B

58
SEC - 34 NAVIGATION

301). A Compass System failure can be verified by:

A). Checking the Compass Card of the HSI showing the heading flag with the Standby
Compass.
B). Checking the two HSI Compass Cards.
C). Checking to ensure that the HSI and the opposite RMI both show Compass Fault.

302). When the Navigation Selector Knob is set to NAV 2 and the First Officers Course
Selector Knob is rotated then :

A). Both Captains and First Officers HSI Course Bars will move.
B). Only the First Officers Course Bar will move.
C). Only the Captains Course will move.

303). The VHF NAV1 primary power supply is:

A). Emergency DC.


B). Essential AC .
C). Emergency AC.

304). Failure of the Radio Altimeter System is denoted b:


A). The Red Flag appearing in a window at the side of the readout.
B). The DH light illuminating .
C). A Red Bar obscuring the D.H readout.

305). When Testing the Radio Altimeter (By pressing the PUSH/TEST Knob on the
indicator) the sequence of figures would be for the first two seconds :
A). All 8's followed by a TEST Altitude and then the Decision Height.
B). The TEST Altitude followed by the Decision Height and then all the 8's .
C). The Decision Height followed by a TEST Altitude and then all the 8's.

306). with ANT Mode selected on the ADF controller :


A). The ADF Bearing Pointers PARK horizontally.
B). will remain in their previous position.
C). will take up a Relative Bearing of 225 .
59
307). The illumination of the amber ALERT light on the VHF Control Panel means :

A). That the VOR or ILS Navigation signal is lost.


B). That there is a Fault in the display controller .
C). That in DME Hold Mode, the DME has lost power.

308). Altitude information for the ATC Transponder Altitude Reporting function is
supplied from :

A). The Captains Servo Altimeter.


B). The First Officers Servo Altimeter.
C). Whichever Altimeter is selected on the ATC Control Panel.

309). With 'TEST' selected on the ADF controller :

A). The ADF pointers PARK Horizontally.


B). Will remain in their previous position .
C). Will take up the 8 Oclock position and an audio tone is emitted.

310). The Heading Selections to both HSI's are controlled by :

A). The NAVI /Split / NAV 2 control.


B). Separate selectors for HSI No 1 and HSI No 2.
C). A single Heading Selector knob on the Navigation Selector .

311). The Feed to the R.M.I Compass Cards is :

A). Slaved to the Same HSI.


B). Slaved to the Opposite HSI.
C). Slaved to the Opposite RMI.

312). A Ground Crew Jack is connected directly to the flight crew intercom system and is
located at :

A). The AC Ground Power receptacle.


B). The Refuel Panel on the standard wing.
C). The Avionics Bay.

60
313). Within the G.P.W.S , what occurrence would cause all the modes to be inhibited?

A). Detection of a Stall Condition.


B). Selection of Landing Gear down.
C). Pressing one of the Glide Slope annunciators .

314). The Public Address System input priority is :

A). Cabin Attendants, FLT Deck, Recorded Announcements.


B). Flight Deck, Recorded Announcements, Cabin Attendants.
C). Flight Deck, Cabin Attendants, Recorded Annunciator.

315). A satisfactory TSET of the ATC Transponder System will be indicated by :

A). The Amber Fault light extinguishers.


B). The Green Reply light illuminates.
C). The Code Digits displaying 8.8.8.8.

316). No 1 Compass Information is fed to :

A). No 1 R.M.I and No 1 H.S.I.


B). No 1 H.S.I and No 2 R.M.I.
C). No 2 H.S.I and No 2 R.M.I.

317). Erasure (Erase) of the data on the Flight Recorder :

A). Is possible when the aircraft is on the ground and the park brake is on.
B). It is not possible.
C). It is possible when the aircraft is on the ground and either a PAX or service door is
open.

318). The CVR Tape can be bulk Erased :

A). At any time.


B). Only after the aircraft has landed and the parking brake is applied.
C). Only after the aircraft has landed and an upper door has been opened .

301 C 304 C 307 C 310 C 313 A 316 B


302 A 305 C 308 C 311 B 314 C 317 B
303 A 306 A 309 C 312 A 315 B 318 C

61
SEC - 35 OXYGEN

319). Min. Oxygen System dispatch pressure for two flight deck crew and 110 PAX is :

A). 1 025 PSI.


B). 1 325 PSI.
C). 1 525 PSI.

320). The Oxygen System Pressure Regulator, regulates pressure to :

A). 50 PSI and relieves at 70 PSI.


B). 70 PSI and relieves at 100 PSI.
C). 18.5 PSI and relieves at 19.5 PSI.

321). The BARD Valve Reset can be used to isolate the Passenger System from the
supply:

A). Below 12 000 ft.


B). Below 15 000 ft .
C). Below 13 250 ft.

322). The Oxygen Bottle Over Pressure Relief ruptures at:

A). 2 300 - 2 500 PSI.


B). 1 850 - 1 950 PSI.
C). 1 325 - 1 450 PSI.

323). The Oxygen System Cylinders and charging equipment are located :

A). In the Electrical Compartments under the flight deck floor.


B). Behind an Access Panel on the forward right hand side of the Forward cargo
compartment.
C). Behind an Access Panel in the forward RH side of the hydraulic Bay .

324). How is the Flow of Oxygen to a Crew Mask indicated :

A). A Flow Indicator on the mask stowage box shows Black.


B). A Flow Indicator on the mask stowage box shows a Yellow Star.
C). An Expander Bag on the Mask Inflates.

62
325). When the Fight Deck Oxygen Mask is selected to the Normal (N) position :

A). 100% Pure Oxygen is supplied to the mask under pressure.


B). 100% Pure Oxygen is supplied to the mask on demand A mixture of oxygen and
ambient air is supplied on demand.
C). A Mixture of Oxygen and ambient air is supplied on demand.

326). To check oxygen availability through a flight deck mask with the mask in the box
make sure the main valve is on and :

A). Push the RESET/TEST slider and the yellow flow star will blink.
B). Press the Red Emergency pressure control knob and check that oxygen flows.
C). Push the RESET/TEST slider and also press the red emergency knob - check the yellow
star visible and oxygen flows to the mask.

327). The Passenger Oxygen Masks will drop out if the Cabin Altitude rises to:

A). 9 300 ft.


B). 15 000 ft .
C). 13 250 ft.

319 B 321 A 323 B 325 C 327 C


320 B 322 A 324 B 326 C
63
SEC - 36 PNEUMATIC

328). If the Air Low Temperature annunciator illuminates, how will the pilot know which
engine causes it?

A). The relevant ENGINE AIR VALVE will be illuminated.


B). The relevant ENGINE AIR FAULT will be illuminated.
C). The relevant ENGINE VALVE NOT SHUT will be illuminated.

329). If one of the APU supply duct NRV fails open the indication will be:

A). APU VLV not shut.


B). APU NRV Leak..
C). Tail Valve 1/2.

330). A Temperature Sensor downstream of the flow limiting Venturi controls bleed air
temperature to :

A). 255 C.
B). 255 C.
C). 300 C .

331). Air to operate the FRESH / RECIC Mode Selector Valve is supplied from:
A). Engines 1 and 2 and A.P.U (LH Bleed Syst.).
B). Engines 2 and 3 only.
C). Engines 3 and 4 and A.P .U. (RH Bleed syst.).

332). Pneumatic Air to the Stall Warning and Identification System is provided from:
A). All Engines and APU.
B). Downstream of No 2 and No 3 Engine Isolation Valve .
C). Upstream of No 2 and No 3 Engine Isolation Valves.

333). The function of the Engine Bleed Temperature sensor is to :


A). Modulate the Isolation/Pressure reducing Valve to control temperature.
B). Modulate the Temperature Control Valve allowing more or less Fan Air across the
pre-cooler.
C). Control the Mixing of Fan Air with H.P air to regulate the temperature .
64
334). The Over Pressure switch will cause the Isolation Valve to close at:

A). 41 PSI.
B). 55 PSI.
C). 120 PSI.

335). The Engine Air Fault Annunciator will illuminate for :

A). Air over pressure, over temperature and with airframe anti-ice on air low
temperature conditions.
B). Only over pressure and over temperature conditions.
C). A Valve which is selected off, but remains open.

336). The Over Temperature switch operates at :

A). 300 C.
B). 225 C.
C). 340 C.

328 B 330 B 332 C 334 B 336 B


329 B 331 C 333 B 335 A

65
SEC - 49 APU

337). On the ground when shutting down the APU, it is recommended :

A). To remove loads one by one allowing TGT to stabilize before stopping the APU.
B). To shut the APU down from the load at which it is running to prevent series of
Thermal shocks.
c). To allow the APU to run at no load governed speed for 1 minute before shutting
down.

338). Max. APU TGT during running is :

A). 746 C.
B). 870 C.
c). 974 C.

339). The APU will AUTO shut down on the ground or in flight for :

A). Engine Over Speed, Over Temperature or Over Current.


B). Engine Over Speed, Fire or loss of RPM signal.
c). Generator Oil Low Pressure, Generator Oil High Temperature or APU Fire.

340). After starting the APU, the APU power available annunciators will come ON :

A). 4 Seconds after the APU reaches 95%.


B). 1 minute after the APU reaches 95%.
c). 40 Seconds after the APU reaches 100%.

341). The APU incorporates SHAFT PRIORITY load limiting this means :

A). In order to maintain shaft speed electrical loads will be reduced first.
B). In order to regulate the TGT air loads are reduced first .
c). Electrical loads will be reduced first to maintain TGT within limits.

342). The indicators of APU Auto shut down are :


A). APU FAIL annunciator on APU panel and APU caption on MWP.
B). APU OIL LO PRESS on APU panel and APU caption on MWP.
c). APU FUEL LO PRESS on APU panel and APU caption on MWP.

66
343). Which Fuel Pump normally supplied the APU :

A). Left Outer.


B). Left Inner.
c). Right Inner.

344). The approximate Fuel Flow of the APU at Sea Level under the load is :

A). 180 Kg/hr.


B). 80 Kg/hr.
c). 50 Kg/hr.

345). To observe APU shut down :

A). Press APU STOP switch and observe APU run down on the % RPM gauge.
B). Press APU OVER SPEED switch on GRND. Test panel and 0bserve run down on % RPM
gauge then put APU switch to stop.
c). A and B are both correct.

346). The Maximum altitude for using APU Air is :

A). 10 000 ft.


B). 15 000 ft.
c). 17 000 ft.

347). The Maximum Relight altitude for APU is :

A). 20 000 ft.


B). 17 000 ft.
c). 15 000 ft.

348). Emergency Stop switches for the APU are located :

A). In the Air Conditioning Bay, in the Main Landing Gear Wheel well area and at the
Refuel control panel.
B). In the External AC panel, at the Refuel control pane and in the Hydraulic Bay.
c). In the Air Conditioning Bay and on the Refuel control panel.
67
349). After starting the APU, it must be allowed to run at no load Governed Speed :

A). For 4 minutes before application a Bleed Air Load.


B). For 1 minutes before application a Bleed Air Load.
c). For 1 minutes before application an Electrical Load.

337 B 339 A 341 B 343 B 345 B 347 A 349 B


338 A 340 A 342 B 344 B 346 B 348 C
68
SEC - 58 EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

350). The Protective Breathing Smoke Hood is located behind the Co-pilot, it can supply
Oxygen for:

A). 5 minutes Breathing.


B). 10 minutes Breathing.
C). 20 minutes Breathing.

351). When the Cabin Emergency lights are in the armed position, the toilet standby
lights illuminate and :

A). If the supply from the Essential DC Busbar is interrupted the emergency lights will
illuminate and toilet standby lights extinguish.
B). If the supply from the Essential AC Busbar is interrupted the emergency lights will
illuminate .
C). The Emergency lights will only illuminate when the aircraft Main Battery falls below
18V.

352). What indications are given if the PILOT EMERG Call is initiated from the cabin
attendants panel :

A). The call will be repeated over the P.A. system.


B). It will illuminate the EMERG CALL light on the flight deck and initiate an audio signal.
C). It will illuminate all call system red lights through a flashing-warning system.

353). When the Cabin Emergency Lights are selected on:

A). The internal batteries in the power packs power the floor proximity lights, exit signs
and aisle lights.
B). 28v DC from the aircraft main battery is converted to 6V DC to light the floor
proximity lights, exit signs and aisle lights but if -main supply is less than 18V lights
will now be powered from internal batteries.
C). The internal batteries in the power packs power the floor proximity lights exit signs
and aisle lights, until the pack voltage drops below 18V then if the main aircraft
battery voltage is greater it will power the emergency lights.

69
354). For Emergency Communications, mega-phones are installed:

A). Behind each pilots seat.


B). In overhead bins at he front and rear of the cabin.

C). In the stowage boxes immediately below the front and rear cabin attendants seats.

355). When the cockpit emergency call is pressed the response is :

A). A Chime, chime, green aisle lights (steady), cabin call button light flashing red.
B). A Chime, green aisle lights (flashing), pilot emergency button flashing red .
C). A Chime, green aisle lights (flashing), crew call button light flashing red.

356). What actions are required to dispense smoke from the air conditioning in the
passenger cabin below 10,000 ft :

A). Select man and open and do not open the flight deck windows.
B). Operate the pressurization in auto and open the flight deck windows .
C). Select MAN and open and fully depressurize, and open the flight deck windows .

357). The Cockpit Fire Extinguisher is located :

A). Behind the First Officers seat.


B). Behind the Captains Seat.
C). Beside the Observers mask stowage box on the First Officers side.

358). After flight and before opening a passenger or service door . the cabin attendant
must :

A). Push the lever to Disarm the slide.


B). Pull the lever to Disarm the slide .
C). Pullout the internal door handle to disarm the slide.

359). When the cabin emergency lights are set to arm the toilet standby lights are
supplied from :

A). Power units containing their own batteries .


B). Directly from the Aircraft Bus bars (SDC) .
C). The Hot battery bus .
70
360). The Crash Axe is located :

A). On the bulkhead behind the captains seat .


B). Behind the First Officers seat .
C). Attached to the rear face of the torch and goggle box on the captains side.

361). When opening a passenger or service door from the outside if the slide is armed :

A). It cannot be disarmed.


B). It must first be disarmed from within or the door will not open.
C). It will disarm when the external handle is pulled out of its recess.

362). Escape ropes are located in the Cockpit :

A). In the torch and goggle box beside each pilot.


B). Behind a panel above each 'C' window.
C). Behind a panel above each sliding 'B' window.

363). In order to switch off the emergency lights when the aircraft busses are
depowered place the:
A). Cabin Emergency light switch to off, and cockpit emergency light switch to off.
B). Cabin switch off, cockpit switch off ,battery switch off ,battery on and start power to
norm .
C). Cabin switch off, cockpit switch off, battery switch and start master to on and then
off .

350 C 352 B 354 C 356 A 358 B 360 B 362 B


351 A 353 B 355 C 357 B 359 A 361 C 363 C

71
SEC - 72 ENGINES

364). Engine Anti-Icing is :

A). Not to be selected ON for T/O.


B). Selected ON with Temp + 10 C or less and advise moisture .
C). Operated through the WOW switch.

365). During Engine Start, what action is required to put the fuel ON :

A). At 10% N1, move Trigger Down and Push Thrust Lever Forward.
B). At 15% N1, move Trigger Down and Push Thrust Lever Forward.
C). At 10% N2, move Trigger Down and Push Thrust Lever Forward.

366). The TMS actuators in Take Off Mode will freeze at :

A). 80 Knots.
B). 75 Knots.
C). 85 Knots.

367). When Take Off Mode is selected the TMS actuators may :

A). Move between centered and Retard.


B). Move between centered and Extend.
C). Move either direction from Centered.

368). When should you check the Oil contents :

A). Immediately after shut down.


B). Greater than 20 minutes after shut down.
C). Before flight.

369). Then Red OIL LO PRESS caption on the MWP will illuminate :

A). If engine oil pressure falls below 20 PSI.


B). If the pressure should fall into the amber section the gauge.
C). A and B are both correct.

72
370). How is the GO-AROUND Mode of the TMS selected :

A). By pressing the Mode button labeled TO/GA.


B). By pressing the disconnect buttons on 1or 4 Thrust Levers .
C). By pressing the GA buttons on the control column.

371). If the Master Engine fails while operating in N1 Sync. :

A). Other engines also run back to fall extent of actuator movement or the Mode
FLOOR limit is reached.
B). When the system detects a failure it immediately swops to the other possible Master
engine .
C). When system detects a failure all actuators freeze except the failed engine which
centers.

372). On Ground, whilst retarding the Thrust Lever to Fuel OFF :

A). Trigger down to cross the flight idle bulk and then the ground idle bulk whilst
retarding the Lever to Fuel OFF.
B). It is only necessary to trigger down to cross the ground idle bulk since the flight idle
bulk has been removed.
C). It is not necessary to trigger down whilst retarding the Thrust Lever, it is only
necessary when moving it from the Fuel OFF position.

373). Fuel from the aircraft Tanks is delivered :

A). Directly to the Main Fuel Pump and Control Unit.


B). Directly to the Dual Heat Exchanger and Main Fuel Filter.
C). To an Engine Mounted Fuel Boost Pump.

374). If when Go-Around Mode is selected, an actuator does not center:

A). The Green G/A Mode Arrow will not illuminate.


B). The Blue / White Arrow for the particular engine will flash.
C). Both A and B are correct.

73
375). After engine start, if the Hydraulic AIR LO PRESS annunciator remain lit do you :
A). Shut the engine down.
B). Switch on the AC Pump and PTU.
C). Increase relevant engine RPM until caption goes out.

376). If then engine Oil Quantity reads full before engine start then at full power, it will
read:
A). Full Oil Quantity.
B). 3/4 Oil Quantity.
C). 1/2 Oil Quantity.

377). Then Engine Ecology Tank :

A). Drains fuel from Combustion Chamber area during shut down.
B). Collects Oil and Fuel from various engine drains.
C). Both A and B are correct.

378). What does the TMS SYNC. Mode use :

A). No 2 or 3 engine as Master, Synch CTRL set to N1 or N2.


B). No 1 or 2 engine as Master, Synch CTRL set to N1 only.
C). No 1 or 2 engine as Master, Synch CTRL set to N1 or N2.

379). If the TMS Disconnect Button in power Levers one or four is pressed, the TMS
system will:

A). Revert to G/A Mode and all actuators GO to Full extend.


B). Revert to Descent Mode.
C). Revert to G/A Mode and all actuators will center.

380). If TGT Sync is selected with N1 :


A). The Master engine is Synchronized to the TGT selected and the other engines are also
Slaved to match this TGT.
B). The Master engine is Synchronized to the TGT selected and the other engines are also
Slaved to its N1 speed.
C). The TGT of the Hottest engine is Synchronized to the selected TGT and the other
engines are also Slaved to N1.
74
381). Illumination of an MWP FUEL LO PRESS caption indicates :

A). Airframe electric pump output low pressure.


B). Engine mounted fuel boost pump low delivery pressure.
C). Failure of the engine Fuel Control Unit.

382). Then TGT indicator shows :

A). Temperature of the Exhaust Gas behind the LP Turbine.


B). Inter Turbine Gas Temperature.
C). Combustion Chamber Gas Temperature .

383). When flight start is selected :

A). The engine anti-ice valve will open.


B). Both ignition systems will come on.
C). Both A and B are correct.

384). A small residual N1 might appear on the N1 gauge when electrical power is
available and the engine is shut down, this is :

A). The N1 rated thrust bias signal.


B). An error in the gauge.
C). An indication of a faulty N1 sensor.

385). When the TMS is signaling for a Thrust Lever to be opened, then it displays :

A). A Blue Arrow.


B). A White Arrow.
C). A Green Arrow.

386). Minimum RPM for Relight is :

A). N1 of 6%.
B). N2 of 8%.
C). N2 of 10%.

75
387). Minimum N2 for Icing condition is :

A). 67%.
B). 60%.
C). 78%.

388). In MCT Mode the Max. TGT allowed is :

A). 857 C.
B). 785 C.
C). 875 C.

389). The engine Vibration amber annunciator on the MWP will illuminate :

A). If Vibration Level exceeds 0.3 I.P.S.


B). If Vibration Level exceeds 1.2 I.P.S..
C). If Vibration Level exceeds 3.0 I.P.S.

390). During engine start, which of the following would call for the start to be Aborted :

A). If the engine starts in less than 30 seconds.


B). If the ENG VLV NOT SHUT White annunciator illuminates momentarily.
C). If above 45% N2 the STARTER OPERATING (White), and the ENG IGN A or B
(Green) annunciator remain lit.

391). What are the immediate actions on the event of an engine LO OIL PRESSURE
warning:

A). OIL PSI confirm red sector; THRUST LEVER FUL OFF.
B). OIL LO PRESS annunciator ; PRESS TO TEST; THRUST LEVER FUEL OFF, if annunciator
serviceable.
C). Retard Thrust Lever to flight idle; operate engine with care.

392). In the climb with TMS in TGT and SYNC Mode, if the Slave engine exceeds the
selected TGT, the TMS will:
A). Operate TGT thumb wheel to bring the Slave engine within limits.
B). Trim the Slave engine only.
C). The TMS will only control the temperature of the Master engine.
76
393). The L.P Turbine drives:

A). Only the Fan through a Planetary Reduction Gear.


B). The Fan and the LP Compressor through the Reduction Gear .
C). The Fan and the LP and HP Compressor Axial Stage.

394). The L.P Turbine Over Speed occurs at:

A). 110% N2 with automatic engine shut down.


B). 104% N2 with automatic engine shut down.
C). 104% N1 with automatic engine shut down.

395). How do you replenish the main engine Oil:

A). Through the Filler Cap only.


B). Pressure Re-oil only.
C). Through the Filler Cap and Pressure Re-oil.

396). If TGT Mode is selected :

A). It become active immediately.


B). It does not become active until sync is also selected.
C). It delays 2 seconds before becoming active.

397). The engine Relight envelope is :

A). Up to 2 500 ft , Speed 185 240 KTS.


B). 0 - 2 500 ft , Speed 210 300 KTS.
C). Up to 20 000 ft , Speed 185 240 KTS.

398). The engine contains of how many Modules :

A). 2 modules; Cold Compressor Section and Hot Turbine Section.


B). 3 modules; Compressor Module, Turbine Module and Accessory Gear Box Module.
C). 4 modules; Fan Module, Gas Producer Module, Combustor Turbine Module and
Accessory Gear Box Module.

77
399). If the N % / C display is flashing when Take Off Mode is selected, then :

A). The Bleed Air Condition is incorrect.


B). A Thrust Lever Actuator has failed.
C). The figure presented is that for a FLEX Take Off.

400). When doing an OVER SPEED shut down TEST on the engine, it will not shut down
unless :

A). 30% of N1 is set using the Thrust Lever.


B). The Thrust Lever is at the Ground Idle position.
C). At least 80% N1 is set using the Thrust Lever.

401). The IDG Oil System is :

A). Part of the Accessory Gear Box Oil System.


B). Part of the Engine Oil System.
C). A completely Separate Independent Oil System.

402). The TMS :

A). N1 REF is displayed above 15 000 ft.


B). Is inhibited above 75 KTS on T.O Mode.
C). T REF C requires adjustment if environmental control is being supplied from No 4
engine.

403). IN descent Mode with Air Conditioning ON and Airframe Anti/De-icing selected
OFF, you would expect the TMS to :

A). Advance all 4 actuators to satisfy bleed demands.


B). Advance the inner two actuators only with the outer two at flight idle.
C). Advance the outer two actuators only with the inner two at flight idle.

404). The Bypass Ratio of the Engine is :

A). 7.5 to 1.
B). 5.7 to 1.
C). 4.0 to 1.
78
405). The first recall item in the event of a Hot or Hung Start is :

A). Starter Master - OFF.


B). Starter Selector - OFF.
C). Thrust Lever Fuel - OFF.

364 B 370 B 376 C 382 B 388 A 394 C 400 A


365 C 371 B 377 A 383 C 389 B 395 A 401 C
366 B 372 B 378 C 384 A 390 C 396 C 402 B
367 B 373 C 379 C 385 A 391 A 397 C 403 B
368 B 374 C 380 C 386 B 392 C 398 C 404 B
369 A 375 C 381 B 387 A 393 B 399 A 405 C

79
SEC - 84 MISCELLANEOUS

406). How is access to the Rear Water Drain Valve achieved?

A). Via the Hydraulic Bay.


B). Via the Rear Cargo Bay.
C). Via the Rear Galley.

407). The Red Light within the GRND OP Button will be lit when :

A). The knob is in the pushed condition only.


B). Only when the system is in the muted condition.
C). A fault has occurred in the muting of the system.

408). Pressing the Annunciator Control Test Button on the Overhead Panel will light all
the annunciators:
A). At full brilliance.
B). At the brilliance level set by the dimming control.
C). Check the dimming monitor circuits and all the trigger circuits.

409). In order to Drain the Water System completely you would :

A). Open the Drain Valve at the external Water Service panel .
B). Open the Drain Valves in the forward and AFT Cargo Compartments.
C). Open the Drain Valves in the hydraulic Bay and AFT Cargo Compartments .

410). If an MWS DIM FAIL annunciator appears on the Master Warning Panel, the
correct action is:

A). Immediately select MWP control switch to O/RIDE .


B). Notify, as only the dimming circuit is faulty.
C). Select both the overhead and MWP Normal/Override switches to Override.

411). Hydraulic retraction of the Air Stairs requires :


A). Green hydraulic Pressure .
B). Yellow Hydraulic Pressure.
C). DC Pump Pressure .
80
412). The flight deck emergency lights will illuminate automatically :

A). With the flight deck emergency lights switch on the arm position when the
emergency D.C. bus is depowered.
B). With the flight deck emergency lights switch in the arm position when the essential
DC bus is depowered.
C). With the flight deck emergency lights switch in the arm position and the essential AC
bus is depowered.

413). When will the Instrument Panel Storm Lighting be brought into operation :

A). At the same time as the Emergency Lighting.


B). Through the Left and Right instruments Panel Dimmer switches.
C). Automatically under conditions of heavy precipitation.

414). When the NO Smoking switch is selected to AUTO, the NO Smoking Signs will be
illuminated only when:

A). The Nose Gear Down lock is made .


B). The Nose Gear Up lock is broken.
C). The Main Gears are locked Down.

415). Maximum Total Weight authorized is :

A). 43 910 Kg.


B). 43 381 Kg.
C). 43 318 Kg.

416). Heated tap water is available :

A). At each Galley and at each Toilet Sink Unit.


B). Only at the front and rear Galleys .
C). Only at the front and rear Toilet Sink Units .

417). If a Second Category Amber Warning is presented on the MWP, pressing either of
the Amber Caution lights on the Glare shield will :

A). Extinguish the Amber Warning .


81
B). Initiate the dimming circuit and dim the Amber Warning.
C). Do nothing as only the high category Amber Warnings are processed through the
amber caution lights.

418). In the event of an MWS FAULT indication on the Master Warning Panel, the Fault
is :

A). A Dimmer Failure .


B). A partial Master Warning System Failure .
C). A fault in the Master Warning Panel 'Bright Up' facility.

419). How many access doors are there into the 146 pressurized area:

A). 10 Doors.
B). 8 Doors .
C). 4 Doors.

420). V.F.E for Flap 30 is :

A). 170 Knots .


B). 210 Knots .
C). 150 Knots .

421). Flight Deck Entry Lights may be controlled by :

A). An ON/OFF switch located on the Overhead lights and notices panel.
B). An ON/OFF switch located on the top R.H side of the Flight Deck entrance aisle .
C). Both A and B.

422). On the MWP a Fault has been presented, acknowledged and dimmed to a desired
level and then an amber ELECT Fault occurs. In addition to the ELECT repeater
being at full brilliance and the caution lights flashing :

A). The existing MWP, Fault would bright up, but the Fault indicated on the O/Head
Panel would be at dim level .
B). The existing Fault would remain dim, but the Fault indicated on the O/Head panel
would be at full brilliance.

82
C). The existing Fault and the new Fault would be at the dim Value.

423). Ground Idle %N2 is :

A). 60 %N2 .
B). 67 %N2 .
C). 50 %N2 .

424). Maximum Speed For Extending Landing Gear Is :

A). 200 Knots .


B). 210 Knots .
C). 205 Knots .

425). If the Cabin Door Not Shut caption on the MWP illuminates the pilot must :

A). Check on the O/Head Panel to see which door is at Fault.


B). Check on the Cabin Attendants panel to see which door is at Fault.
C). Not reduce the Cabin Differential Pressure.

426). The capacity of the Water Tank is(imp gals) :

A). 24 gals.
B). 68 gals.
C). 20 gals.

427). Maximum Asymmetric Fuel Loading is :

A). 680 Kg .
B). 860 Kg.
C). 1500 Kg .

428). If the Push/Pull GRND OP switch was left in the pulled condition on Take Off :

A). A Red Light integral with the switch will flash .


B). An OLEO switch would override the GRND OP selection.
C). An OLEO switch would illuminate a GRND OP annunciator.

83
429). The Water Tank is located :

A). In the Electrical Bay.


B). In the Hydraulic Bay .
C). In the Forward Cargo Compartment.

430). Maximum Height for APU Generator Operation is :

A). 17 000 ft .
B). 20 000 ft.
C). 25 000 ft.

431). The Instrument Panels Storm Lighting may be illuminated by :

A). Pressing the Storm Light buttons on the left hand and right dimmer panels .
B). Rotating the Panel Flood Dimmer knobs to the storm detent on the left and right
dimmer panels.
C). Placing the Flight Deck Emergency lights switch on the o/head panel to ON.

432). Max Operating Speed VMO is :

A). 305 Knots IAS .


B). 325 Knots IAS .
C). 295 Knots IAS.

433). A RED HAZARDOUS condition (except Fire and CONFIG) is annunciated by a red
indication:

A). On the MWP only.


B). On the MWP, RED FLASHING alert light and Triple Audio tone.
C). On the MWP, AMBER FLASHING caution lights and a Single Audio Tone.

434). Maximum T.G.T. for Take Off is:

A). 882 C .
B). 865 C .
84
C). 849 C .

435). What is the normal operating sequence for opening a passenger door from the
inside :

A). Rotate Door Handle clockwise and push arming handle .


B). Pull Arming Handle and rotate door handle.
C). Push Arming Handle and rotate door handle clockwise.

436). Maximum Main Engine T.G.T. For Starting is :

A). 849 C .
B). 870 C.
C). 749 C .

437). With all the cabin lighting switches selected to OFF on the Cabin Attendants Panel
and ground power plugged in but not selected on:

A). The cabin will be in total darkness .


B). Front vestibule filaments will be providing subdued lighting .
C). If the Ground service power switch is selected on then the vestibule filaments will
also extinguish .
D). Answers B and C are correct.

438). If there is a Fault in the Lower Door indication system :

A). The 'Cabin Door Fault' caption will illuminate.


B). The 'Lower Door Fault' caption will illuminate.
C). The Pilot may have no indication of this fault.

439). Maximum Height for APU Bleed Operation is :

A). 20 000 Feet.


B). 15 000 Feet.
C). 25 000 Feet.

440). If an amber annunciator appears on the overhead panel and then goes out:

85
A). There is a Fault on the MWS .
B). There is a Fault with the repeater annunciator .
C). There is no Fault and the annunciator was lit during a transition phase.

441). Maximum Speed below 8 000 ft is:

A). 235 Kts .


B). 295 Kts .
C). 250 Kts.

442). The Aircraft is equipped with Air Stairs which are:

A). Deployed and stowed Hydraulically.


B). Deployed Hydraulically and stowed manually.
C). Deployed manually and stowed hydraulically.

443). Maximum Take Off WT is :

A). 43 318 Kg .
B). 43 091 Kg.
C). 40 381 Kg.

444). If the external DC Door is open :

A). The lower door not shut indication will illuminate.


B). The external power door not shut indication will illuminate.
C). No indication is given .

445). Maximum APU T.G.T. for starting is :

A). 746 C.
B). 870 C.
C). 794 C.
446). Maximum Operation Mach Number is:

A). 0.72 .
B). 0.68 .
86
C). 0.74.

447). The Water Tank is serviced :

A). Through connections behind a Water service panel on the lower RH side of the
aircraft.
B). By gaining access to the connections through the Hydraulic Bay.
C). At the service point on the lower LH side of the aircraft.

448). The Water Tank is pressurized with air from :

A). Engines 1 and 2 and the APU or a ground connection.


B). Engines 3 and 4 and the APU or a ground connection.
C). All engines and the APU or a ground connection.

449). Toilet Flush may be supplied with Air from :

A). Engines 3 and 4, the APU and ground connection .


B). All engines, then APU and ground connection.
C). Engines 1 and 2, the APU and ground connection .

450). Maximum %N1 for Take Off is :

A). 96.9% .
B). 98.8% .
C). 96.7%.

451). Maximum Altitude for main Engine Relight is:

A). 20 000 Feet .


B). 25 000 Feet .
C). 15 000 Feet .

452). Maximum ZERO FUEL Weight is:

A). 37 648 Kg .

87
B). 37 153 Kg.
C). 35 606 Kg .

453). The Main Landing Gear position indicators on the Center Instrument Panel have :

A). Two levels of controlled brilliance (Bright/Dim).


B). A controlled variable level of brilliance.
C). No controlled brilliance level .

454). Minimum N2 for Main Engine Relight is:

A). 10% N2.


B). 7% N2.
C). 8% N2.

406 B 413 B 420 A 427 A 434 A 441 C 448 C


407 B 414 B 421 C 428 B 435 B 442 C 449 C
408 A 415 C 422 A 429 B 436 A 443 B 450 C
409 C 416 C 423 C 430 C 437 D 444 C 451 A
410 A 417 B 424 B 431 B 438 C 445 B 452 C
411 B 418 B 425 B 432 A 439 B 446 A 453 A
412 B 419 B 426 C 433 B 440 C 447 B 454 C

88