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1. The device which converts the variable input speed provided by an aircraft's engine into a constant
output speed

A CSD
B IDG
C VDG
D VSCF

7. Integrated Drive Generators (IDG) provides an elegant solution for supplying _________ frequency
________electrical power to the aircraft.

A Constant, DC
B Constant, AC
C Variable, AC
D Variable, DC

13. IDG's will auto-disconnect with a

A High oil temperature


B Low oil temperature
C High oil pressure
D High oil temperature and low oil pressure

19. When the plane of loop of wire is parallel to magnetic lines of force, the voltage induced in the loop is

A Minimum
B Zero
C Maximum
D None

25. When the plane of loop of wire is perpendicular to magnetic lines of force, the voltage induced in the
loop is

A Minimum
B Zero
C Maximum
D None

31. A basic DC generator is obtained by replacing

A Slip rings with commutator


B Commutator with slip rings
C Carbon brushes with slip rings
D Slip rings with carbon brushes

37. The process of commutation in a DC generator is sometimes called

A Inversion
B Rectification
C Electrification
D Conversion

43. The brushes in a DC generator is placed

A Where the generated e.m.f is zero

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B Where the generated e.m.f is maximum


C Perpendicular to neutral plane
D At an angle with neutral plane

49. In each rotation, the voltage generated by a basic DC generator varies from zero to its maximum value

A Once
B Twice
C Three times
D Four times

55. The variation of DC voltage from zero to maximum value in a DC generator is called ripple and can be
reduced by

A Increasing rotational speed


B Decreasing speed
C Decreasing number of loops or coils
D Using more number of loops or coils

61. The output voltage of a DC generator is determined by

A Number of turns per loop


B Total flux per pair of poles in the machine
C Speed of rotation of armature
D The product of all the above

67. The generators used in aeroplanes have field windings which are connected

A Either in shunt or in series


B Either in series or in compound
C Either in shunt or in compound
D Series-shunt

73. Mark the correct statement

A The field coils of series generators are composed of few turns of large wire
B The field coils of shunt generators are composed of many turns of small wire
C Series generators have very good voltage regulation under changing load
D Both A and B

79. Mark the correct statement

A The output voltage of series wound generator may be controlled by a rheostat in parallel with field
windings
B The terminal voltage of shunt wound generator can be controlled by means of a rheostat in series
with field windings
C In a shunt generator, induced voltage is equal to the terminal voltage
D Both A and B

85. Mark the correct statement

A Shunt generators are not suitable for rapidly fluctuating loads, if constant voltage is desired
B Series generators have very good voltage regulation under changing load
C The terminal voltage of compound generator may increase or decrease regardless of load
D The flat compound generator is the one in which no load and full load voltages are different

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90. Mark the correct statement

A Shunt generators are suitable for rapidly fluctuating loads, if constant voltage is desired
B Series generators have very poor voltage regulation under changing load
C The terminal voltage of compound generator may increase or decrease regardless of load
D The flat compound generator is the one in which no load and full load voltages are different

96. Mark the correct statement

A Shunt generators are suitable for rapidly fluctuating loads, if constant voltage is desired
B Series generators have very good voltage regulation under changing load
C The terminal voltage of compound generator may increase or decrease regardless of load
D The flat compound generator is the one in which no load and full load voltages are same

102. Mark the correct statement

A Full load and no load voltages are same in flat compound generators
B Full load voltage is less than no load voltage in under compound generators
C Full load voltage is higher than no load voltage in over compound generators
D All the above

108. In a compound generator, changes in terminal voltage with increasing load depends upon

A Degree of compounding
B Series field strength
C Shunt field strength
D Series-shunt field current

114. Mark the correct statement

A Series generators are used where voltage regulation is prime importance


B Compound generators are used where voltage regulation is prime importance
C Shunt generators are used where voltage regulation is prime importance
D Both A and B

120. Generally DC generators are classified according to

A The value of output voltage


B The value of output current
C The ways of excitation of their fields
D Rotational speeds

126. Dynamos in motor cycles are

A AC generators
B DC generators
C Permanent magnet DC generators
D Shunt generators

132. The generators whose field magnets are energized by some external DC source such as battery are
known as

A Permanent magnet DC generators.


B Separately excited DC generators
C Self excited DC generators
D Constant current generators

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138. The generators whose field magnets are energized by the current supplied by themselves are known as

A Permanent magnet DC generators.


B Separately excited DC generators
C Self excited DC generators
D Constant current generators

144. Mark the correct statement

A In a compound wound generator, the shunt field is stronger than the series field
B In a compound wound generator, series field assists the shunt field, generator is said to be
differentially compound wound
C In a compound wound generator, series field opposes the shunt field, the generator is said to be
commutatively compound wound
D In a compound wound generator, the series field is stronger than the shunt field

150. Mark the correct statement

A In a compound wound generator, the shunt field is stronger than the series field
B In a compound wound generator, series field assists the shunt field, generator is said to be
commutatively compound wound
C In a compound wound generator, series field opposes the shunt field, the generator is said to be
differentially compound wound
D All the above

156. Series DC generator is called

A Constant voltage DC generator


B Constant current DC generator
C Variable voltage DC generator
D Variable current DC generator

162. A DC generator is typically rated in

A VA
B KVA
C Power output
D Voltage and power output

168. A modern inverter is a solid-state device that converts

A DC power into AC power


B AC power into DC power
C DC power into DC power, but to a higher voltage
D DC power into AC power, but to a higher voltage

174. When removing the battery cables, the ______________ cable should be removed first.

A Positive
B Ground
C Center
D Outside

180. Battery cells are filled with a solution of ____________________________ and


________________________ which is known as electrolyte.

A water and sulphuric acid

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B electrolyte and water


C distilled water and soda
D nitric acid and sulphur

186. The ______________ is used to test the specific gravity of a battery.

A voltmeter
B hydrometer
C ammeter
D Duocheck

192. A ________________ is defined as a device used in an electrical circuit for making, breaking, or
changing connections.

A Circuit breaker
B Switch
C Fuse
D Rheostat

198. When adding water to batteries, the electrolyte level in the cells of a battery should be
_____________________________ .

A to the top of the filler hole


B just covering the top of the plates
C up to the bottom of the split ring
D halfway between the plates and the vent

204. Battery vent caps should be _________________________ .

A inspected for damaged or missing gaskets


B painted red for identification
C checked for cleanliness and serviceability
D installed snugly to prevent spillage of electrolyte

210. When testing battery state of charge, you test _________ .

A the center cells


B before adding water
C after adding water
D any one cell

216. 8. When mixing electrolyte, you should ____________________ .

A pour water into the acid


B pour water and acid together
C pour acid into the water
D pour acid and water alternately

222. The number of cells in a battery is determined by the _____________________________ .

A voltage that is desired


B amperage that is required
C space designated for the battery
D components the battery supports

228. The simplest protective device in an electrical system is the _________________________

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A Switch
B circuit breaker
C Fuse
D relay

234. In an alternator, voltage drops occurs in

A armature resistance only


B armature resistance and leakage reactance
C armature resistance, leakage reactance and armature reaction
D armature resistance, leakage reactance, armature reaction and earth connections

240. The magnitude of various voltage drops that occur in an alternator, depends on

A power factor of the load


B load current
C power factor x load current
D power factor x (load current)2.

246. In an alternator, at lagging power factor, the generated voltage per phase, as compared to that at unity
power factor

A must be same as terminal voltage


B must be less than the terminal voltage
C must be more than the terminal voltage
D must be 1.41 time the terminal voltage.

252. The power factor of an alternator depends on

A Load
B Speed of rotor
C Core losses
D Armature losses

258. Salient poles are generally used on

A high speed prime movers only


B medium speed prime movers only
C low speed prime movers only
D low and medium speed prime movers

264. The frequency of voltage generated in an alternator depends on

A number of poles
B rotative speed
C number of poles and rotative speed
D number of poles, rotative speed and type of winding

270. The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 8 poles and rotating at 250 rpm is

A 60 Hz
B 50 Hz
C 25 Hz
D 16 2/3 Hz

276. As the speed of an alternator increases

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A the frequency increases


B the frequency decreases
C the frequency remains constant but power factor decreases
D none of the above

282. For an alternator when the power factor of the load is unity

A the armature flux will have square waveform


B the armature flux will be demagnetising
C the armature flux will be cross-magnetising
D the armature flux will reduce to zero

288. The driving power from the prime mover driving the alternator is lost but the alternator remains
connected to the supply network and the field supply also remains on. The alternator will

A get burnt
B behave as an induction motor but will rotate in the opposite direction
C behave as a synchronous motor and will rotate in the same direction
D behave as a synchronous motor but will rotate in a reverse direction to that corresponding to
generator action

294. For 50 Hz system the maximum speed of an alternator can be

A approximately 3600 rpm


B approximately 3000 rpm
C 3600 rpm
D 3000 rpm

300. The resistance of armature winding depends on

A length of conductor
B Cross sectional area of the conductor
C Number of conductors
D All of the above

306. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed, then
which winding will give the higher e.m.f?

A Lap winding
B Wave winding
C Either of (a) and (b) above
D Depends on other features of design

312. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means

A neutralising residual magnetism


B creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
C making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
D increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles

318. In case of a flat compounded generator

A voltage generated is less than the rated voltage


B generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
C voltage remains constant irrespective of the load
D speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator

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324. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on noload?

A Series generator
B Shunt generator
C Compound generator
D Separately excited generator

330. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is

A almost zero
B less than no load terminal voltage
C more than no load terminal voltage
D equal to noload terminal voltage

336. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is

A negligibly low
B equal to noload terminal voltage
C more than noload terminal voltage
D less than noload terminal voltage

342. Lead-acid batteries vary in type principally

A In their weight and size


B In their electrolyte
C In the thickness of their plates and type of separators employed
D In the number of cells and terminal voltage

348. For lead acid batteries which are to be used in climates where the temperature frequently exceeds 32
deg C manufacturers sometime recommend the use of an electrolyte of

A Reduced relative density


B Higher relative density than usually used
C Increased density
D Decreased density

354. Lead acid batteries requiring different charging rates

A Should not be charged in series


B As in A and if it is not possible the limiting current should be that of the battery requiring
lowest charging current
C As in A and if it is not possible the limiting current should be that of the battery requiring highest
charging current
D As in A and if it is not possible the limiting current should be that of the battery requiring lowest
charging voltage

360. During whole period of charging of lead acid batteries

A Vent plugs should be completely removed


B Vent plugs should be completely unscrewed and lifted, but left in vent hole
C As in B and should remain in this position for the whole period of charging
D As in A and should be replaced after the period of charging

366. When ready to charge the lead acid battery, before switching ON the charging unit, the variable
resistance in charging unit is to be set at

A Maximum resistance (i.e.) minimum current

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B Minimum resistance( i.e.) maximum current


C Intermediate resistance
D Neither maximum nor minimum resistance

372. ________ should be checked during charging period frequently and must not exceed its specified value
given by the battery manufacturer while charging of dry and uncharged lead acid battery.

A Voltage
B Relative density
C Electrolyte temperature
D Density of electrolyte

378. If the maximum temperature of electrolyte is exceeded during charging of lead acid battery which is
received dry and uncharged, then

A The charging should be stopped till temperature falls below 12 deg C (22 deg F)
B Charging current may be halved and charging time doubled
C Either A or B
D Continue charging without any change in charging current and charging time

384. A lead acid battery, on reaching its fully charged condition

A The terminal voltage ceases to rise and remains steady


B The specific gravity of electrolyte ceases to rise and remains constant
C Both sets of plates gas freely
D All the above

390. A capacity test of a lead acid battery should be carried out

A After initial charge


B After initial charge and thereafter at interval of 3 months
C AS in B and any time the capacity of battery is in doubt
D Every year

396. Insulation resistance test of a lead acid battery is done

A At the periods specified in approved maintenance schedule


B Any time that the electrolyte leakage is suspected
C Both A and B
D Every year

402. Insulation resistance value obtained during insulation resistance test of a lead acid battery should be

A Not less than one megohm


B Not more than one megohm
C Not less than two megohm
D Not less than three megohm

408. Leakage test of a lead acid battery is done with application of pressure of _____ PSI through vent port
of cell and there should be no detectable leakage after a period of not less than ____ seconds.

A 3, 20
B 15, 45
C 2, 15
D 1, 30

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414. In aircraft using batteries in parallel , it is important to ensure that all batteries are at

A Same terminal voltage


B Fully charged state
C Same power rating of same model
D Same state of charge

420. The storage life of a lead acid battery is

A 5 years in temperate climate for charged or uncharged batteries


B 2 to 3 years in tropical climate for uncharged batteries
C 18 months in tropical condition for charged batteries
D All the above

426. The capacity test of a lead acid battery while on storage should be done at

A Every 6 months for new battery


B Every 3 months for batteries returned from service
C As in A and B
D Every year

432. Each cell of an aircraft lead acid battery contains

A positive plates of lead peroxide, negative plates of spongy lead


B positive plates of spongy lead, negative plates of lead peroxide
C positive plates of nickel hydroxide, negative plates of cadmium hydroxide
D positive plates of cadmium hydroxide, negative plates of nickel hydroxide

438. In a lead acid battery the positive and negative plates are so assembled that

A each negative plate is between two positive plates


B positive plate is followed by negative plates
C each positive plate is between two negative plates
D negative plate is between two positive plates

444. During discharge of a lead acid battery,

A lead sulfate (PbSO4) is formed on both the positive and negative plates
B acid content of the electrolyte is decreased
C water content is increased
D All the above

450. When a cell is being charged in a lead acid battery

A lead sulfate is removed from both the positive and negative plates
B water content of the electrolyte is decreased
C Density of the electrolyte is increased.
D All the above

456. The open circuit voltage of a lead-acid cell, that is, its voltage when there is no load drawing current, is
approximately

A 2.2 volts
B 1.8 volts
C 3.4 volts
D 2.8 volts

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462. Mark the correct statement in case of a lead acid battery

A Connecting batteries in parallel increases ampere-hour capacity


B Connecting batteries in series increases the ampere-hour capacity
C Connecting batteries in series increases the total voltage
D Both A and C

468. In multiengine airplanes, where more than one battery is used, the batteries are usually connected in

A parallel
B Series
C Series parallel
D Parallel and series

474. When the batteries are connected in parallel

A The voltage is equal to that of one battery, and the ampere-hour capacity is increased
B The total capacity is the sum of the ampere-hour ratings for the individual batteries
C As in A and B
D Internal resistance is increased

480. In a new, fully charged aircraft storage battery, the electrolyte is approximately

A 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by mass)


B 70 percent acid and 30 percent water (by mass)
C 70 percent acid and 30 percent water (by volume)
D 30 percent acid and 70 percent water (by volume)

486. Mark the correct statement

A A specific gravity reading between 1.300 and 1.275, a high state of charge
B A specific gravity reading between 1.275 and 1.240, a medium state of charge
C A specific gravity reading between 1.240 and 1.200, a low state of charge
D All the above

492. When a battery is tested using a hydrometer, the _______ of the electrolyte must be taken into
consideration.

A Density
B temperature
C Concentration
D Specific gravity

498. Mark the correct statement

A No correction is necessary when the temperature is between 70 F and 90 F, since the variation is
not great enough to be considered.
B When temperatures are greater than 90 F or less than 70 F, it is necessary to apply a correction
factor.
C Correction factor is always added
D Both A and B

504. Mark the correct statement

A A storage battery may be charged by passing direct current through the battery in a
direction opposite to that of the discharge current.

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B A storage battery may be charged by passing direct current through the battery in the same
direction to that of the discharge current.
C A storage battery may be charged by passing alternating current through the battery in a direction
opposite to that of the discharge current.
D A storage battery may be charged by passing alternating current through the battery in same
direction to that of the discharge current.

510. The alternators for aircraft power systems are constructed with

A Rotating field and stationary armature


B Stationary field and rotating armature
C Rotating field and armature
D Stationary field and armature

516. In an aircraft DC alternators

A Six diodes rectify the ac voltage produced


B There are 3 positive and 3 negative diodes
C All six diodes must be replaced as one assembly
D All the above

522. The rotor winding of an alternator can be tested with

A An ohmmeter or continuity tester


B Megger
C Ammeter or continuity tester
D Voltmeter or continuity tester

528. Grounding of an alternators rotor winding can be tested by

A Connecting one probe of ammeter to rotor shaft and other probe to one of the slip rings
B Connecting one probe of voltmeter to rotor shaft and other probe to one of the slip rings
C Connecting one probe of megger to rotor shaft and other probe to stator winding
D Connecting one probe of ohmmeter to rotor shaft and other probe to one of the slip rings

534. The stator windings of an alternator can be tested by

A Checking between the stator leads with ohmmeter


B Checking between the stator leads with ammeter
C Checking between the stator leads with voltmeter
D Checking between the stator leads and rotor with ohmmeter

540. While testing the stator and rotor windings of an aircraft alternator with ohmmeter, the readings should
be

A Low resistance
B High resistance
C Infinite resistance
D Low resistance or within the limit specified by manufacturer

546. To test for grounded windings in stator of an alternator, the ohmmeter is connected between

A One stator lead and the rotor


B One stator lead and the stator frame
C One stator lead and the one of the slip rings
D One stator lead and other to another stator lead

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552. While performing the test for grounded windings in an alternator with ohmmeter, the reading should be

A Low resistance
B High resistance
C Infinite resistance
D Low resistance or within the limit specified by manufacturer

558. To test for open windings in stator of an alternator with ohmmeter, one test probe is connected to
auxiliary terminal or to stator winding center connection and the other is connected to

A Field winding
B Slip rings
C Each of the three stator leads, one at a time
D Stator frame

564. If current flow is indicated, during the test for grounded winding in rotor of an alternator

A The winding is to be replaced


B The rotor is to be replaced
C The rotor is to be rewound
D The alternator is to be replaced

570. Mark the correct statement

A DC generator has a rotating armature where as DC alternator has a stationary armature


B DC alternator has a rotating armature where as DC generator has a stationary armature
C DC generators are lighter and more efficient than DC alternators
D Dc generators has the smaller and long lasting brushes than DC alternators

576. For DC alternators the reverse current flow cut-out relay is not needed, because

A Slip rings resists reverse flow of current into armature


B Rectifiers resists reverse flow of current into armature
C It is inbuilt into the voltage regulator unit
D Alternator control unit (ACU) has inbuilt feature to prevent reverse current

582. Voltage regulator of a DC alternator is

A A vibrating type
B Transistorised unit
C Either A or B
D Neither A nor B

588. DC alternator has a voltage regulator that controls

A Output voltage and output current


B Input voltage and input current
C Output voltage, output current and reverse current flow
D Output voltage, input current

594. Mark the correct statement

A Increasing the field circuit resistance decreases the alternators output


B Decreasing the field circuit resistance increases the alternators output
C Both A and B
D Neither A nor B

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600. DC alternator requires only

A A voltage regulator and current limiter


B A current limiter and reverse cut-out relay
C A voltage regulator, current limiter and reverse cut-out relay
D A voltage regulator and reverse cut-out relay

606. DC generators require

A A voltage regulator and current limiter


B A current limiter and reverse cut-out relay
C A voltage regulator, current limiter and reverse cut-out relay
D A voltage regulator and reverse cut-out relay

612. Transistorised voltage regulators for DC alternator is generally considered more accurate and reliable
because

A It is a solid state device


B It is robust in construction
C It has no moving parts
D It has solid contact points

618. If the alternator is turned ON, and bus voltage fails to increase approximately 2-4V above battery
voltage, then

A Voltage regulator is defective


B Current limiter is defective
C Indicator is defective
D The charging system or related circuitry is defective

624. Permanent magnet rotor in the aircraft alternator is not used because

A Strength of the field flux always remains same


B Voltage regulation cannot be accomplished
C Both A and B
D Inferior to electromagnet

630. Alternators are classified according to

A Voltage and amperage


B Voltage, amperage and phase
C Voltage, amperage, phase and power output
D Voltage, amperage, phase, power output and power factor

636. Typically brushless alternators are

A Three phase and Y-connected armature


B Single phase and Y-connected armature
C Three phase and Delta-connected armature
D Single phase and Delta-connected armature

642. The voltage across any main terminals of a three phase aircraft alternator is

A 115V
B 120V
C 208V
D 450V

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648. The modern brushless generators are called as

A PMG
B IDG
C VSCF
D PMA

654. The modern brushless generators are actually three separate generators within one case, they are
namely

A Permanent magnet generator, exciter generator and the main generator


B Integrated drive generator, exciter generator and the main generator
C Permanent magnet generator, exciter generator and the auxiliary generator
D Permanent magnet generator, auxiliary generator and the main generator

660. In a modern brushless alternator, the main field winding receives a DC input from

A GCU
B Rotating slip rings
C Rotating rectifier assembly
D Exciter armature

666. In a modern brushless alternator, exciter field winding receives a DC input from

A GCU
B Rotating slip rings
C Rotating rectifier assembly
D Exciter armature

672. In a modern brushless alternator, the output frequency of permanent magnet generator is

A 400 Hz
B 600 Hz
C 1200 Hz
D 1800 Hz

678. 1200 Hz AC armature current of a PMG is fed to

A GCU
B As in A and rectified into DC voltage and further fed to exciter field winding
C As in A and rectified into DC voltage and further fed to main field winding
D As in A and rectified into DC voltage and further fed to main armature winding

684. In a modern brushless generator the rotor consists of

A Permanent magnet, rectifier and main generator field winding


B Permanent magnet, exciter armature, and main generator field winding
C Permanent magnet, exciter armature and rectifier
D Permanent magnet, exciter armature, rectifier and main generator field winding

690. In a modern brushless generator, the generator control is achieved by

A Regulating exciter field current


B GCU
C Controlling main field current
D Vibrating type voltage regulator

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696. The state of art IDG contains

A A brushless generator and CSD


B A brushless generator and CSD in one unit
C A brushless generator and CSD as separate units
D A brushless generator and PMG

702. The use of oil cooling in IDG allows

A Higher rotor speed


B As in A and lighter and more compactness of generator
C Generator to operate at lower temperature
D Generator to run at maximum temperature limit without failure

708. The GCU regulates the generator output by sensing the aircraft systems voltage and comparing it with

A Output voltage
B Output current
C A reference signal
D Armature current

714. In the case of generator system failure the GCU senses a partial loss of electric power and
automatically sends the appropriate signal to the

A Warning units in the flight deck


B Power management system
C Flight management system
D Bus power control unit

720. In the event of a generator failure during flight, the BPCU

A Automatically disconnects any defective generator from bus


B Automatically reconnects the load bus to another power source
C Automatically disconnects any defective generator and reconnects the load bus to another
power source
D Generates appropriate warning to the pilot

726. Regarding rotary inverters used in aircraft, mark the correct statement

A Employs constant speed DC motor driving an AC generator


B The motor and alternator are mounted on dynamically balanced same rotor shaft
C Fans are also mounted on the shaft to provide air cooling
D All the above

732. Output of a rotary inverter is

A 115V single phase 400 Hz


B 115V three phase 400 Hz
C 200V three phase 400 Hz
D All the above

738. Mark the correct statement

A Modern aircraft employ static inverters than rotary because of their reliability, efficiency and
weight savings
B Static inverters has no moving parts and subject to less maintenance problems than rotary inverters

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C Static investors are relatively small and light in weight than rotary inverters
D All the above

744. VSCF electrical system is more flexible compared to CSD/IDG systems as

A Its components can be distributed throughout the aircraft


B It does need a CSD to produce constant frequency current
C It does not need a CSD to produce constant frequency current
D It uses solid state devices

750. The VSCF consists of three main units, they are

A AC-DC converter, DC link and DC-AC inverter


B AC-DC converter, CSD and DC-AC inverter
C AC-DC converter, AC link and AC-DC inverter
D None

756. Match the following

Device mission
A Transformers 1 convert AC into DC
B Rectifiers 2 modify the AC voltage, while keeping the frequency constant
C Inverters 3 modify the DC voltage
D Choppers 4 convert DC into AC

A A-2, B-1, C-4 and D-3


B A-4, B-1, C-2 and D-3
C A-2, B-4, C-1 and D-3
D A-2, B-1, C-3 and D-4

762. In almost all aircraft electrical systems a battery has the following principal functions

A To help maintain the dc system voltage under transient high load current.
B To supply power for short-term heavy loads when generator, or ground power, is not available: e.g.
engine starting.
C To supply power for essential services, under emergency conditions.
D All the above

768. If cells are connected in series, the total voltage across the arrangement is

A the sum of each cell voltage


B the product of each cell voltage
C as for one cell
D None

774. If cells are connected in series, the capacity is

A the sum of each cell capacity


B the product of each cell capacity
C as for one cell
D None

780. If cells are connected in parallel, the total voltage is

A the sum of each cell voltage


B the product of each cell voltage
C as for one cell
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D None

786. If cells are connected in parallel, the total capacity of the arrangement is

A the sum of each cell capacity


B the product of each cell capacity
C as for one cell
D None

792. In a lead acid battery, there are more negative plates than positive plates. This is because

A positive plates may buckle under discharge


B As in A and negative plates do not buckle so when the cell is complete
C As in B and positive plates are completely enclosed by negative plates, keeping buckling to a
minimum
D None

798. During discharge of the cell in a lead acid battery, i.e. when an external circuit is completed between
the positive and negative plates

A electrons are transferred through the circuit from lead (negative plates) to lead peroxide
(positive plates)
B electrons are transferred through the circuit from lead (positive plates) to lead peroxide (negative
plates)
C The negative plate dissolves in the electrolyte and positive plate gains weight
D The positive plate dissolves in the electrolyte and negative plate gains weight

804. During discharge of the cell in a lead acid battery, the net result of the chemical reaction is that

A The negative plate dissolves in the electrolyte and positive plate gains weight
B The positive plate dissolves in the electrolyte and negative plate gains weight
C As in A and gassing occurs
D Lead sulphate (PbSO4) forms on both plates

810. During discharge of the cell in a lead acid battery

A Lead sulphate (PbSO4) forms on both plates


B molecules of water are formed
C weakening of the electrolyte solution happens
D All the above

816. The lead acid cell may be recharged by connecting the positive and negative plates, respectively, to

A the positive and negative terminals of a D.C. source


B the negative and positive terminals of a D.C. source
C As in A and voltage should be slightly higher than the cell
D As in B and voltage should be slightly higher than the cell

822. The nominal voltage of a lead acid cell is

A 2.2V
B 2V
C 1.8V
D 1.2V

828. In a lead acid battery electrolyte level is checked

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A one hour after battery is removed from charge


B 10 min after battery is removed from charge
C 30 min after battery is removed from charge
D Ten hour after battery is removed from charge

834. The electrolyte in a Ni/Cd cell is

A Potassium permanganate
B Potassium chloride
C Potassium Hydroxide
D Potassium sulphate

840. Ina nickel-cadmium cell, the plates are made from

A Plastic/nylon material
B Wire screens sintered with nickel powder
C Nickel sulphate and cadmium oxide
D Pure nickel and cadmium oxide

846. In a nickel/cadmium cell, during charging

A the negative plates lose oxygen and become metallic cadmium


B the positive plates lose oxygen and become metallic cadmium
C the negative plates lose oxygen and become metallic nickel
D the positive plates lose oxygen and become metallic nickel

852. In a nickel/cadmium cell, during charging

A the positive plates lose oxygen and become metallic cadmium


B the positive plates pick up the oxygen to form nickel oxides
C the negative plates lose oxygen and become metallic cadmium
D As in B and C

858. Nickel-cadmium battery emits gas

A During charging process only


B During charging as well as discharging
C End of the charging process, and during overcharging
D As in Band C

864. The electrolyte in a Ni/Cd cell does not play an active part in the chemical reaction; it is used only to
provide

A a path for current flow


B Oxygen and hydrogen
C Hydrogen
D oxygen

870. In a nickel-cadmium cell, the electrolyte is

A unaffected by state of charge


B affected by state of charge
C Diluted during charging
D Diluted during discharging

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876. In a Ni/Cd battery the cell cap is fitted with a non-return valve to allow

A Air to enter inside


B Internal pressure to be build up during charge
C Gas to vent but not allow air to enter
D Electrolyte to escape

882. During servicing of Ni/Cd batteries

A A digital voltmeter is used


B Analogue voltmeter is used
C A digital voltmeter with accuracy of two decimal places must be used
D Voltmeters are not necessary

888. Constant current charging is always used in the battery workshop over constant potential (voltage)
charging because

A it maintains cell balance and capacity


B It avoids thermal runaway
C Charging is too fast
D It is simple and easy to maintain

894. The electrolyte level is adjusted in a Ni/Cd battery

A During servicing
B Before start of charging
C During the last thirty minutes of charge
D After charging

900. If the Ni/Cd battery fails to achieve 80% capacity, then

A A cell balancing procedure is carried out to restore the capacity


B it is immediately rejected
C Defective cell is repaired
D Capacity test is repeated

906. During emergency use, e.g. main power failure, batteries must be able to sustain essential services for
at least

A 10 mins
B 20 mins
C 25 mins
D 30 mins

912. Batteries, L/A or Ni/Cd, proved to have less than 80% capacity should be

A Rejected for aircraft use


B Subjected to cell balancing
C Serviced at regular interval
D Maintained carefully

918. The battery system on certain types of turboprop aircraft are designed so that the batteries may be
switched from a parallel configuration to a series configuration for the purpose of

A Emergency power supply to aircraft system


B Engine starting from battery power
C Voltage reduction

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D Increased duration

924. Larger aircraft have transistorized voltage regulators which use a

A Diode
B Zener Diode
C Thermistor
D Transistor

930. Electrolytic corrosion found on lead acid battery can be neutralised by

A 10 percent sodium bicarbonate and water solution


B 20 percent sodium bicarbonate and water solution
C 30 percent sodium bicarbonate and water solution
D 50 percent sodium bicarbonate and water solution

936. Electrolytic corrosion found on Ni/Cd battery can be neutralised by

A 3 percent solution of acetic acid


B 13 percent solution of acetic acid
C 30 percent solution of acetic acid
D 33 percent solution of acetic acid

942. Stranded _________wire should be used as a grounding strap to avoid shock hazard to equipment and
personnel

A 8 AWG
B 16 AWG
C 18 or 20 AWG
D 40 AWG

948. Bus bars that exhibit corrosion, even in limited amounts,

A Should be replaced
B should be disassembled, cleaned and brightened, and reinstalled
C Should be polished and painted with conductive coating
D Should be repainted with appropriate conductive coating

954. Storage batteries are usually identified by

A Their rating
B Current rating
C Color
D The material used for the plates

960. Operation of storage batteries beyond their ambient temperature or charging voltage limits can result in

A excessive cell temperatures leading to electrolyte boiling


B rapid deterioration of the cells
C battery failure
D All the above

966. Thermal runaway can result in a chemical fire and/or explosion of the NiCad battery under recharge by

A a constant-voltage source
B a constant-current source
C Either A and B

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D Both A and B

972. Pulsed-current battery chargers are sometimes provided for

A NiCad batteries
B Lead acid batteries
C Lithium ion batteries
D None

978. If potassium hydroxide contacts the skin,

A neutralize with 9 percent acetic acid, vinegar, or lemon juice and wash with water
B neutralize with 19 percent acetic acid, vinegar, or lemon juice and wash with water
C neutralize with 100 percent acetic acid, vinegar, or lemon juice and wash with water
D neutralize with 50 percent acetic acid, vinegar, or lemon juice and wash with water

984. If potassium hydroxide contacts the eyes,

A wash with a weak solution of boric acid or a weak solution of vinegar and flush with water
B Immediately flush with water
C Immediately flush with cold water
D None

990. A circuit breaker must be rated so that it will open before

A the current rating of the wire attached to it is exceeded


B before the cumulative rating of all loads connected to it are exceeded
C As in A or B and whichever is lowest
D As in A or B and whichever is highest

996. Mark the correct statement

A Circuit breakers are designed as circuit protection for the wire, not for protection of black boxes or
components
B Use of a circuit breaker as a switch is not recommended
C Use of a circuit breaker as a switch will decrease the life of the circuit breaker
D All the above

1002. An internal failure of the spring loaded type switch may allow the switch to remain

A Open even though the toggle or button returns to the off position.
B Closed even though the toggle or button returns to the off position.
C Intermediate and intermittently ON/OFF
D Either A or B

1008. With the power off, suspected aircraft electrical switches should be checked in the ON position for
opens (high resistance) and in The OFF position for shorts (low resistance), with

A An ohmmeter
B Voltmeter
C Ammeter
D Special type of instrument designed foe the purpose

1014. Mark the correct statement

A We can use AC derated switches in DC circuits

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B AC switches will not carry the same amperage as a DC switch


C AC switches can substitute DC switches
D All the above

1020. To find the nominal rating of a switch required to operate a given device, multiply the continuous
current rating of the device by

A the derating factor corresponding to the voltage and type of load


B Its voltage
C Its internal resistance
D Derating factor

1026. To find the continuous rating that a switch of a given nominal rating will handle efficiently, divide the
switch nominal rating by

A the derating factor corresponding to the voltage and type of load


B Its voltage
C Its internal resistance
D Derating factor

1032. Switches rated for use at 28 VDC or more, and at 1.0 amp or more, generally have.

A carbon contacts
B copper contacts
C gold contacts
D silver contacts

1038. High-voltage high-current applications may require the use of

A carbon contacts
B copper contacts
C Silver Nickel contacts
D silver contacts

1044. Mark the correct statement

A Most relays are used as a switching device where a weight reduction can be achieved, or to
simplify electrical controls.
B Relay is an electrically operated switch, and therefore subject to dropout under low system voltage
conditions.
C Relays are complicated electromechanical assemblies and most are not repairable.
D All the above

1050. When replacing relays in alternating current (ac) applications, it is essential to maintain proper

A Current rating
B Voltage rating
C Power rating
D Phase sequencing

1056. When switches or relays are to be used in applications where current or voltage is substantially lower
than rated conditions

A Additional intermediate testing should be performed to ensure reliable operation.


B No special tests are required to be performed
C No special procedures are required to be followed
D None

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1062. Mark the correct statement

A Aluminium wire should not be attached to engine mounted accessories


B The use of sizes smaller than #8 is discouraged for aluminium wires
C Use of aluminium wire is also discouraged for runs of less than 3 feet
D All the above

1068. Mark the correct statement

A all aircraft wiring has a coating of tin, silver, or nickel


B Tin coated copper wire is a very common
C Silver-coated wire is used where temperatures do not exceed 200 C (392 F).
D All the above

1074. Mark the correct statement

A all aircraft wiring has a coating of copper plating


B Tin coated copper wire is a rare
C Nickel coated wire retains its properties beyond 260 C,
D Silver-coated wire is used where temperatures do not exceed 500 C

1080. Wires and cables are supported by suitable clamps, grommets, or other devices at intervals of not more
than

A 12 inches
B 24 inches
C 34 inches
D 50 inches

1086. RF cables should not bend on a radius of less than ____ times the outside diameter of the cable.

A Six
B Three
C Four
D seven

1092. The minimum separation between wiring and movable controls must be at least_____ inch when the
bundle is displaced by light hand pressure in the direction of the controls

A 1
B
C
D 2

1098. Mark the correct statement

A Spacers or washers should not be used between the tongues of copper terminal lugs.
B Spacers or washers should not be used between the tongues of aluminium terminal lugs.
C Both A and B
D None

1104. The wire identification marks should consist of a combination of letters and numbers that

A identify the wire


B the circuit it belongs to, its gauge size
C any other information to relate the wire to a wiring diagram.

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D All the above

1110. Identification markings should be placed at each end of the wire and at

A 5-inch maximum intervals along the length of the wire.


B 10-inch maximum intervals along the length of the wire.
C 15-inch maximum intervals along the length of the wire.
D 20-inch maximum intervals along the length of the wire.

1116. Mark the correct statement

A Wires less than 3 inches long need not be identified


B Wires 3 to 7 inches in length should be identified approximately at the center
C The individual wires inside a cable should be identified within 3 inches of their termination
D All the above

1122. _________ sleeving should be used in areas where resistance to solvent and synthetic hydraulic fluids
is necessary.

A plastic
B Nickel
C polyester
D Polyolefin

1128. Conduit size should be selected for a specific wire bundle application to allow for ease in maintenance,
and possible future circuit expansion, by specifying the conduit inner diameter (I.D.) about

A 5 percent larger than the maximum diameter of the wire bundle.


B 15 percent larger than the maximum diameter of the wire bundle.
C 20 percent larger than the maximum diameter of the wire bundle.
D 25 percent larger than the maximum diameter of the wire bundle.

1134. In most types of aircraft, the output from the generating sources are coupled to one or more low
impedance conductors referred to as

A Terminals
B Conducting bars
C Bus bars
D superconductors

1140. In the event that one generator fails during flight,

A it is automatically isolated from its respective busbar


B all busbar loads are taken over by the operative generator
C Both A and B
D Neither A nor B

1146. In the event of both generators fail,

A the non-essential services are no longer provided with power,


B the batteries automatically supply power to the essential busbar to supply the essential services
C The batteries will maintain the essential busbar for a period calculated on consumer load
requirements and the battery states of charge
D All the above

1152. The vital services are connected directly to

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A The battery
B Main busbars
C Emergency busbar
D Auxiliary generator

1158. The services which would be required after an emergency wheels-up landing, e.g. emergency lighting
and crash switch operation of fire extinguishers are termed as

A Vital services
B Emergency services
C Essential services
D Non-Essential services

1164. The services which are required to ensure safe flight in an in-flight emergency situation is termed as

A Vital services
B Emergency services
C Essential services
D Non-Essential services

1170. Essential services of an aircraft

A are connected to D.C. and A.C. busbars appropriate


B can always be supplied from a generator or from batteries
C Are supplied from only battery
D Both A and B

1176. Non-Essential Services are those which can be isolated in an in-flight emergency for load shedding
purposes, and

A are connected to D.C. and A.C. busbars, as appropriate


B Supplied from a battery
C supplied from a generator
D As in A and C

1182. Mark the correct statement

A Non-Essential Services; are those which can be isolated in an in-flight emergency


B Essential Services; are those required to ensure safe flight in an in-flight emergency situation
C Vital Services; are those which would be required after an emergency wheels-up landing
D All the above

1188. In a two D.C. Generator Distribution System, each generator has its own busbar to which are connected

A the Non-essential consumer services


B the Essential consumer services
C the vital consumer services
D All the above

1194. In a two D.C. Generator Distribution System, the Essential consumer services are connected to

A Right Dc gene
B Left DC gene
C Both DC generators and battery
D None

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1200. In Split Bus-Bar A.C. Generation System,

A The main busbars are normally isolated from each other (i.e. the generators are not paralleled)
B If however one of the generators should fail, the busbars are automatically inter-connected by the
energising of the Bus-Tie breaker
C Both the main and essential D.C. busbars are automatically interconnected by an isolation relay
D All he above

1206. The Generator Control Unit (GCU) performs

1. Voltage Regulation.
2. Current Limiting.
3. Protection for out-of-tolerance Voltages.
4. Protection for out-of-tolerance Frequencies.
5. Crew Alerting

A 1,2 and 5
B 1,2and 3
C 1,2,3 and 5
D All 1 to 5

1212. In split Ac busbar system, BUS-TIE BRAKER energised and interconnects No. 1 and No. 2 Busbars, in
the event of

A No. 1 generator failure


B No. 2 generator failure
C Either A or B
D Static inverter failure

1218. In split AC busbar system, the essential AC loads are supplied from the essential Busbar which is
connected to

A No. 1 main busbar via changeover relay under normal conditions


B Static inverter in the event of both generator failure as changeover relay is de-energised
C Static inverter in the event of both generator failure as changeover relay is energised
D As in A or B

1224. In the event of both generators failure in split AC busbar system, AC essential loads are connected to
static inverter via

A Isolation relay
B Battery relay
C Bus-tie baker
D Changeover relay

1230. In split AC busbar system changeover relay de-energises in the event of

A No. 1 generator failure


B No. 2 generator failure
C Either No.1 or No. 2 generator failure
D Both No. 1 and No. 2 generator failure

1236. In split AC busbar system isolation relay de-energises in the event of

A No. 1 generator failure


B No. 2 generator failure
C Either No.1 or No. 2 generator failure

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D Both No. 1 and No. 2 generator failure

1242. In split AC busbar system de-energising the isolation relay will cause

A Isolation of defective generator


B Isolation of battery from DC busbar
C Isolation of main DC busbar from essential DC busbar
D Isolation of essential DC busbar from static inverter

1248. Aircraft busbars are made of

A Thin copper strips/rods


B Thick copper strips/rods
C Carbon piles
D Nickel alloy strips

1254. The most common busbar systems used in aircraft electrical system power distribution are

A Essential, non-essential and main


B Parallel, split and split parallel
C Series, parallel, and series parallel
D AC, DC and vital

1260. Parallel busbar system is normally found on

A Single engine light aircraft


B Twine engine transport aircraft
C Three engine aircraft
D Single engine propeller aircraft

1266. The main disadvantage of constant frequency parallel AC system is

A Expensive protection circuitry is needed


B Readily absorbs large transient loads
C Provides a continuity of electrical supply
D Generators are normally run on full load

1272. The main advantage of constant frequency parallel AC system is

A Generators are normally run on part load, that prolongs life


B Readily absorbs large transient loads
C Provides a continuity of electrical supply
D All the above

1278. In split AC busbar system normally the generators are

A Paralleled
B Not paralleled
C As in B and are mostly found on twin engine aircraft
D As in C and do not need advanced circuit necessary for paralleling

1284. In split AC busbar system

A Generators can run with slightly different frequency


B Generators run in parallel
C Generators run in series parallel combination
D None

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1290. The protection circuitry that are provided in battery charger to give protection against

A over voltage, current limiting and overcharging


B Overcharging, over voltage and overheating
C Overheating, overcharging and current limiting
D Over voltage, overheating and battery disconnection

1296. Mark the correct statement

A If battery charger overheats it automatically shut down but resets itself when cooled
B If battery is disconnected the charger cannot be switched ON
C If battery over-volts, the charger automatically switched OFF and reset by a bush-switch situated
on the front of battery charger
D All the above

1302. In case of total generator failure, the aircraft battery feeds

A Essential DC consumers
B Through static inverter essential AC consumers
C Power for 30min or more
D All the above

1308. The constant current method of charging the aircraft batteries in workshop, uses

A Constant DC current
B Constant DC voltage
C Both constant DC current and DC voltage
D Variable DC voltage and Constant DC current

1314. The constant voltage method of charging the aircraft batteries in workshop, uses

A Constant DC current
B Constant DC voltage
C Both constant DC current and DC voltage
D Variable DC current and Constant DC voltage

1320. The battery charger employed in aircraft for charging the batteries are of

A Constant current type


B Constant voltage type
C Both constant current and voltage type
D Variable voltage type

1326. In split parallel system

A A split system breaker links left and right sides of distribution system
B Any generator can supply any load busbar
C Any combination of generators can operate in parallel
D All the above

1332. The DC motor of most aircraft inverters is essentially a

A Series wound motor


B Shunt wound motor
C Series-shunt wound motor
D Synchronous motor

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1338. Transformer rectifiers have no moving part other than a

A Rotor shaft
B Rotary rectifier
C Vibrating contacts
D Cooling fan

1344. Which of the following factors determines the frequency of an ac generator?

A The field strength and rotor rpm


B The number of conductors and field strength
C The number of conductors and rotor rpm
D The number of magnetic poles and rotor rpm

1350. Variable Speed Constant Frequency (VSCF) ______________convert directly the variable frequency
AC input power into AC form with fixed frequency and amplitude, three-phase 115V/400Hz

A Cycloconverters
B Converter
C Inverter
D Three phase inverter

1356. What unit is used to connect meters to high voltage/current systems?

A Autotransformers
B Full wave rectifiers
C Brush
D Instrument transformers

1362. The autotransformer is like an ordinary transformer, except that it has

A One winding that is common to both primary and secondary


B Two winding on primary
C Two windings on secondary
D None

1368. The autotransformers offers

A savings in both size and cost over conventional units


B savings that are greatest when the turn ratio is less than 2 to 1 (either step-up or step down)
C Savings that diminish to insignificance when the turn ratio increases beyond 8 to 10
D All the above

1374. In autotransformers

A There is no isolation between primary and secondary positions


B There is two windings primary and secondary
C There is isolation between primary and secondary positions
D None of the above

1380. An autotransformer offers its greatest savings at a turn ratio of ________.

A 1 to 1
B 2 to 1
C 3 to 1
D 4 to 1

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1386. What are the three most common aircraft batteries in use today?

A Wet-cell, vent-sump, and lead-acid


B Vented, cadmium, and silver-zinc
C Lead-acid, nickel-cadmium, and silver-zinc
D Storage, lead-acid, and cadmium

1392. The ram-air generator is powered by ________.

A air caused by aircraft moving through atmosphere


B air-pressure surrounding aircraft
C variable pitch blade
D three-phase emergency generator

1398. What are the two common methods used for voltage regulation?

A Maintaining the voltage to the generator exciter winding and decreasing the load on the generator
B Varying the current to the generator exciter winding and maintaining a constant load on the
generator
C Varying the current to the generator and varying the load on the generator.
D Increasing the voltage and the load on the generator exciter windings

1404. Aircraft electrical power system operates at 400 Hz instead of conventional 50 Hz / 60 Hz. Because of
this

A Equipments will be larger, lighter and efficient


B Equipments will be smaller, lighter and efficient
C Equipments will be smaller, heavier and efficient
D Equipments will be smaller, lighter and less efficient

1410. Mark the correct statement

A A block diagram is used as an aid for troubleshooting complex electrical and electronic systems.
B A pictorial diagram helps the maintenance technician visualize the operation of a system.
C A schematic diagram is used to illustrate a principle of operation, and therefore does not show
parts as they actually appear or function.
D All the above

1416. Mark the correct statement

A In a pictorial diagram, pictures of components are used instead of the conventional electrical
symbols found in schematic diagrams
B In a block diagram, pictures of components are used instead of the conventional electrical symbols
found in schematic diagrams
C In a wiring diagram, pictures of components are used instead of the conventional electrical
symbols found in schematic diagrams
D In a line diagram, pictures of components are used instead of the conventional electrical symbols
found in schematic diagrams

1422. An automatic switch that stops the flow of electric current in a suddenly overloaded or otherwise
abnormally stressed electric circuit is called

A Switch
B relay
C fuse
D Circuit breaker

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1428. In a parallel electrical system, all A.C. generators are connected to one distribution bus called the

A Tie-Bus
B Main bus
C Bus tie breaker
D Hot bus

1434. In case of parallel electrical system used in aircraft

Statement 1: Parallel system maintains equal load sharing for three or more generators.
Statement 2: Since the generators are connected in parallel to a common bus, all generator voltages,
frequencies and their phase sequence may not be within very strict limits to ensure proper system
operation. Which of these are correct?

A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D None

1440. Statement 1: A split parallel electrical system allows for the flexibility in load distribution but
maintains isolation between systems when required.
Statement 2: The split system breaker connects all generators together when closed or isolates the right
and left systems when open.
Which of these statements are correct regarding split parallel electrical system?

A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D None

1446. Transformers are usually rated in

A Volt-Amperes
B Kilovolt-Amperes
C Volt/amperes
D Either A or B

1452. The difference between the output terminal voltages at full load and no-load, with a constant input
voltage is called the

A Regulation of the transformer


B Power of the transformer
C Apparent rating of the transformer
D Power factor

1458. Regulation of a transformer becomes negative when the load is

A Inductive in nature
B Resistive in nature
C Capacitive in nature
D Maximum

1464. If a transformer is used at a frequency lower than that for which it was designed, there is a risk of

A Excessive heat generation at the primary windings and subsequent burn out
B Low voltage regulation
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C Loss of cooling oil


D Damage to secondary windings

1470. Statement1: A transformer designed for low frequency can be used with higher frequencies.
Statement 2: A transformer designed for higher frequency can be used with lower frequencies.
Which of these statements are correct?

A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both
D None

1476. The transformer rectifier unit consists of

A An autotransformer and two three-phase bridge rectifier assemblies


B A transformer and three three-phase bridge rectifier assemblies
C A transformer and six three-phase bridge rectifier assemblies
D A transformer and two three-phase bridge rectifier assemblies

1482. Statement 1: The transformer has conventional star-wound primary winding.


Statement 2; The transformer has secondary winding wound in both star and delta configurations.
Statement 3: Each secondary winding is connected to individual bridge rectifier assemblies made up of
six silicon diodes, and connected in parallel.
Statement 4: No protection of unit for overheats condition.

Which of these statements are true for a TRU.

A 1 and 2
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1 and 3
D 1, 2 and 4

1488. The output of rotary inverter is

A 26V 400 Hz AC
B 115V 400 Hz AC
C Either A or B
D 115V DC

1494. When the rotary inverter is switched on, D.C. is supplied to the

A Motor armature and shunt filed winding


B The excitation field winding of the generator
C External loads
D Both A and B

1500. Mark the correct statement

A Inverters are usually built to supply current at a frequency of 400 cps


B Some inverters are designed to provide more than one voltage
C One inverter can produce 26 volt ac in one winding and 115 volts in another
D All the above

1506. Mark the correct statement

A An inverter is used in some aircraft systems to convert a portion of the aircraft's dc power to ac
B There are two basic types of inverters: the rotary and the static

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C Either type can be single phase or multiphase.


D All the above

1512. Mark the correct statement

A Inverters convert a portion of the aircraft's ac power to dc


B Inverters cannot be designed to provide more than one voltage
C Inverters supply power to aircraft only when on ground
D The multiphase inverter is lighter for the same power rating than the single phase

1519. In a permanent magnet rotary inverter

A Generator has 6 poles


B Generator has 4 poles
C Generator has 12 poles
D Generator has 8 poles

1525. Static inverters, referred to as solid state inverters, are manufactured in a wide range of types and
models, which can be classified by

A The shape of the dc output waveform and the power output capabilities.
B The shape of the ac output waveform and the power output capabilities.
C The shape of the ac output waveform and the output voltage produced.
D Single phase, three phase and poly phase

1531. The size of the wires used in any given circuit is determined by

A The amount of voltage the wires are expected to carry under normal operating conditions.
B The amount of current the wires are expected to carry under normal operating conditions.
C The amount of power the wires are expected to carry under normal operating conditions.
D The amount of impedance the wires are expected to offer under normal operating conditions.

1537. To protect aircraft electrical systems from damage and failure caused by excessive current, the
protective devices which are installed in the systems are

A Fuses,
B Circuit breakers,
C Thermal protectors, and arc fault circuit breakers
D All the above

1543. Circuit protective devices, as the name implies, all have a common purpose

A To protect the units


B To protect the wires in the circuit
C To protect the units and the wires in the circuit
D None

1549. Fuses are used to protect the circuit from

A Over voltage conditions


B Over temperature conditions
C Over power conditions
D Over current conditions

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1555. Statement 1: The fuse is installed in the circuit so that all the current in the circuit passes through it
Statement 2: In most fuses, the strip of metal is made of an alloy of tin and bismuth, which will melt
and open the circuit when the current exceeds the rated capacity of the fuse.
Statement 3: aircraft fuses are rated in Amps.

Which of these statements are true?

A Only 1
B Only 3
C 1 and 2
D All are correct

1561. The type of fuse holder used in aircraft for small and low current values are

A Plug-in holders" or in-line holders


B Clip" type holders
C As in B and also used as current limiters
D None

1567. Mark the correct statement

A Aircraft fuses are made of copper-zinc alloy


B Plug-in holders" or in-line holders are used for small and low capacity fuses.
C Clip" type holders are used for heavy high capacity fuses and current limiters.
D Both B and C

1573. Mark the correct statement

A The schematic symbol for the current limiter is the same as that for the fuse.
B The current limiter is used in an over current condition in heavy current circuits such as 30 amp or
greater.
C The current limiter link is usually made of copper and will stand a considerable overload for a
short period of time.
D All the above

1579. The current limiters are used primarily to

A High current carrying circuits


B Medium current carrying circuits
C Limit only AC current
D Sectionalize an aircraft circuit or bus.

1585. Statement 1: The rheostat is used to vary the voltage in a circuit.


Statement 2: The potentiometer is used to vary the current in a circuit.
Statement 3: the potentiometer is two terminal device.
Which of these statements are true?

A Only 1
B Only 2
C Only 3
D None

1591. The potentiometer is considered a

A Three terminal device


B Two terminal device
C Four terminal device

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D Five terminal device

1597. Potentiometers are used in

A Current limiters
B Volume controls on an audio panel and input devices for flight data recorders
C Static inverter
D Relays

1603. A relay is simply an electromechanical switch where a

A Small amount of force can control a large amount of force.


B Small amount of voltage can control a large amount of current.
C Small amount of current can control a large amount of voltage.
D Small amount of current can control a large amount of current.

1609. Statement 1: Switch guards are covers that protect a switch from unintended operation.
Statement 2: Prior to the operation of the switch, the guard is usually lifted.
Statement 3: Switch guards are commonly found on systems such as fire suppression and override
logics for various systems.

Which of these statements are true?

A 1 , 2 and 3
B 1 and 3
C 2 and 3
D 1 and 2

1615. A microswitch will open or close a circuit with a very small movement of the tripping device by

A A distance 7/16 inch or less


B A distance 9/16 inch or less
C A distance 1/4 inch or less
D A distance 1/16 inch or less

1621. Microswitches are usually pushbutton switches. They are used primarily as

A On off switches in flight deck


B Limit switches to provide automatic control of landing gears, actuator motors, and the like.
C Cut off switches in generators
D Control switches in lighting circuits

1627. Lighted pushbutton switches can also be used in applications where a switch is not required and the
optics is only for indications. This type of indicator is commonly called

A Master warning indicator


B Master caution indicator
C An annunciator
D None

1633. Equipments used on aircraft to provide secondary power supply includes

A Inverters, TRUs and transformers


B Inverters, TRUs and DC generators
C Inverters, AC generators and transformers
D generators, TRUs and transformers

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1639. In the given figure of electronic voltage regulator, the diode D1

A Provides protection against back EMF induced in the field each time TR 3 is switched
B Provides protection against back EMF induced in the field each time TR 2 is switched
C Provides protection against back EMF induced in the field each time TR 1 is switched
D Provides protection against back EMF induced in the field each time D2 is switched

1645. In the above given figure (Q-274) of electronic voltage regulator , the trimming resistor RV1 is used to

A Adjust the nominal voltage output of the regulator


B Adjust the nominal voltage output of the Zener diode Z
C Adjust the nominal voltage output of the generator
D Adjust the nominal voltage output of the diode D2

1651. In the above given figure (Q-274) of electronic voltage regulator

A TR 1 is switched many times per second


B TR 2 is switched many times per second
C TR 3 is switched many times per second
D TR 1, 2 and 3 are switched many times per second

1657. In the above given figure (Q-274) of electronic voltage regulator, when

A TR 1 is OFF TR 2 & TR 3 are ON


B TR 2 is OFF TR 1 & TR 3 are ON
C TR 3 is OFF TR 1 & TR 2 are ON
D Zener diode stops conducting TR 1, 2 and 3 are OFF

1663. In the above given figure (Q-274) of electronic voltage regulator when

A Output voltage reaches its specified valve Zener diode conducts and turns ON TR 1
B Generator voltage falls Zener diode stops conducting and turns OFF TR 1
C TR 1 is ON TR 2 and TR 3 are shorted out
D All the above

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1669. The accuracy of the vibrating contact voltage regulator depends on

A Resistor value
B Spring tension
C Both A and B
D Contact points

1675. DC generators are less common on modern aircraft due to

A Low power to weight ratio


B Poor performance at low RPM
C High servicing costs
D All the above

1681. The current transformer which is present on neutral line of a three phase AC generator is to

A Detect an out-of-balance condition


B An over load condition
C Under load condition
D Overheat condition

1687. The output of the three phase generator is supplied via current transformers (one for each phase) which
monitors

A Load current in each line


B Nominal voltage in each line
C Maximum voltage in each line
D Frequency in each line

1693. In the given figure of vibrating contact voltage regulator, the resistor R is bypassed, when

A Both Contact points are in closed position


B Both Contact points are in open position
C Left contact point is closed and right contact point is open
D Left contact point is open and right contact point is closed

1699. Constant output frequency of a generator can be achieved by

A CSD
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B VSCF
C Varying no of poles
D Both A and B

1705. The slip-rings in an AC generator provide a means of:


.
A connecting an external circuit to a rotating armature winding
B supporting a rotating armature without the need for bearings
C periodically reversing the current produced by an armature winding
D None

1711. Decreasing the current in the field coil of a DC generator will

A increase the output voltage


B decrease the output voltage
C increase the output frequency
D Increase out put power

1717. In a star-connected three-phase system, the line voltage is found to be 200 V. Which one of the
following gives the approximate value of phase voltage?

A 115 V
B 67 V
C 208V
D 346 V

1723. A single-phase AC generator has twelve poles and it runs at 600 RPM. Which one of the following
gives the output frequency of the generator?

A 50 Hz
B 60 Hz
C 120 Hz
D 400 Hz

1729. The brushes fitted to a DC motor/generator should have:

A Low coefficient of friction and low contact resistance


B High coefficient of friction and low contact resistance
C Low coefficient of friction and high content resistance.
D None

1735. Self-excited generators derive their field current from

A the current produced by the armature


B a separate field current supply
C an external power source
D the current produced by the stator

1741. In a shunt-wound generator

A None of the armature current flows through the field


B Some of the armature current flows through the field
C The entire armature current flows through the field.
D No current flows through the field

1747. When combined with a CSD, a brushless three phase AC generator is often referred to as:

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A a frequency wild generator


B an IDG
C a compound generator
D Series generator

1753. An out-of-balance condition in an AC three phase system can be detected by means of

A A voltmeter
B voltage sensors connected across each output line
C a dedicated field coil monitoring circuit
D a current transformer connected in the neutral line

1759. In a simple cell, electrons are


.
A removed from the (positive) cathode and deposited on the (negative) anode
B removed from the (negative) cathode and deposited on the (positive) anode
C removed from the (negative) anode and deposited on the (positive) cathode
D removed from the (positive) anode and deposited on the (positive) cathode

1765. In a lead acid battery, oxidation and reduction occurs at

A Anode and cathode respectively


B Cathode and anode respectively
C Negative plate and positive plate respectively
D Electrolyte and electrode respectively

1771. The energy storage capacity of a cell is determined by the:

A terminal voltage
B electrolyte specific gravity
C amount of material available for chemical reaction.
D All the above

1777. When mixing electrolyte:

A acid is always added to the water


B water is always added to the acid
C it is not important how water and acid are mixed.
D Acid is weighted first and then water is added

1783. Servicing equipment used for lead-acid batteries

A can also be used for nickel-cadmium batteries


B must not be used for nickel-cadmium batteries
C Are suitable for other types of batteries
D must be disposed of after use.

1789. The only accurate and practical way to determine the condition of the nickel-cadmium battery
is with a

A specific gravity check of the electrolyte


B measured discharge in the workshop
C check of the terminal voltage.
D All the above

1795. A cell that can only be charged once is called a

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A secondary cell
B metal-hydride cell
C primary cell
D Non-rechargeable cell

1801. The only time that water should be added to a Ni-Cd battery is

A when fully charged, and the volume of electrolyte is high


B when fully discharged, and the volume of electrolyte is high
C when fully charged, and the volume of electrolyte is low
D when fully discharged, and the volume of electrolyte is low

1807. When taking specific gravity readings from lead acid cells, the acid sample should always

A Be discarded
B Be preserved for future measurement
C Be returned into the same cell.
D Any one of the above

1813. The gasses liberated from the plates of sealed lead acid battery during charging are absorbed by

A An absorbent glass mat


B Electrolyte
C Negative plates
D Positive plates

1819. In a sealed lead acid battery (SLA)

A The glass mat absorbs and immobilizes the acid while keeping the electrolyte in contact with the
plates
B As in A and this allows a fast reaction between and electrolyte and plate material during
charge/discharge.
C As in B and there is no disintegration of the active materials leading to a short-circuit
D The lead plates support their own weight

1825. The sealed lead acid (SLA) battery cells

A Have lower internal resistance than flooded cells


B can handle higher temperatures
C self-discharge more slowly
D All the above

1831. The sealed lead acid (SLA) battery cells

A Are more tolerant to the attitude of the aircraft


B inherently safer than the flooded cell due to reduced risk of spillage, leakage and gassing
C Maintenance requirements are for a capacity check only.
D All the above

1837. Mark the correct statement regarding the sealed lead acid (SLA) battery cells

A The overall capacity-to-weight ratio of sealed lead-acid batteries is superior to flooded lead-acid
batteries
B can be shipped as non-hazardous material via ground or air as they are sealed
C The lead plates are purer (99.99%) than flooded cell materials
D All the above

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1843. The Ni-Cd battery cells

A can withstand higher charge/discharge rates


B have a longer life
C Can maintain a relatively steady voltage during high discharge conditions
D All the above

1849. The disadvantages of nickel-cadmium batteries are

A More expensive than lead-acid batteries


B As in A and have a lower voltage output per cell
C As in B and their physical volume is larger than a lead-acid battery
D None

1855. In the construction of Ni/Cd battery, the technology that is used to form the porous base-plates called
Plaques is

A Sintering process
B Soldering process
C Anodizing process
D Powder metallurgy

1861. Mark the correct statement

A Ni-Cd battery is more susceptible to freezing compared to lead-acid.


B Ni-Cd battery is less expensive as compared to lead-acid.
C Ni-Cd batterys cell volume is smaller than lead-acid batterys cell volume
D Ni-Cd battery is less susceptible to freezing compared to lead-acid.

1867. Electrolyte used in lead-acid and nickel cadmium batteries are

A Sulphuric acid
B Actively corrosive
C Potassium hydroxide
D Highly flammable

1873. Lithium-ion batteries offer several advantages compared to lead-acid and nickel-
cadmium products, which includes

A Longer life and less weight


B Low maintenance
C Reduced charging time
D All the above

1879. Lithium-ion batteries offer several disadvantages compared to lead-acid and nickel-
cadmium products, which includes

A Higher product cost


B Electrolyte is extremely flammable
C Higher temperatures results in faster ageing.
D All the above

1885. The nominal cell voltage of a lithium-ion cell is,

A 1.8V
B 2.2V
C 3.6 V
D 1.2V
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1891. Lithium-ion battery charging requires a constant voltage of 4.2 V with associated current limiting. When the
cell voltage reaches 4.2 V, and the current drops to approximately

A 7% of the initial charging current, the cell is fully recharged


B 10% of the initial charging current, the cell is fully recharged
C 14% of the initial charging current, the cell is fully recharged
D 17% of the initial charging current, the cell is fully recharged

1897. Charging or discharging a Li-Ion battery involves an exchange of

A oxygen ions between the electrodes


B lithium ions between the electrodes
C hydroxide ions between the electrodes
D carbon ions between the electrodes

1903. Circuits needing only small step-up/down ratios employ:

A auto-transformers
B transformer rectifier units
C inverters
D Current transformer

1909. Inverters are used to convert what forms of electrical power?

A AC into DC
B AC into AC
C DC into AC
D DC to DC

1915. The accuracy of the vibrating contact regulator depends on the:

A Input voltage
B Generator output current
C Resistor value and spring tension.
D Output power

1921. The voltage coil of a carbon pile regulator contains a:

A large number of copper wire turns connected across the generator output
B low number of copper wire turns connected across the generator output
C large number of copper wire turns connected in series with the generator output
D low number of copper wire turns connected in series the generator output

1927. Transformer rectifier units (TRU) are often used to

A convert battery power into AC power


B charge batteries from AC generators
C connect batteries in series.
D Convert DC into AC

1933. Stepping a power supply down from 115 to 26 V AC would normally be achieved by a

A Transformer rectifier unit


B Inverter
C Transformer
D Autotransformer

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1939. The desired output frequency of a rotary inverter is determined by the

A AC input voltage
B input frequency
C DC input voltage
D Output power

1945. Inverters and transformer rectifier units (TRU) are sources of

A emergency power
B secondary power
C primary power
D Essential power

1951. Higher generator output increases the current in the carbon pile regulator, this

A Reduces compression on the pile thereby increasing its resistance


B Increases compression on the pile thereby increasing its resistance
C Reduces compression on the pile thereby decreasing its resistance.
D Increase compression on the pile thereby decreasing its resistance

1957. TRUs are used to convert what forms of electrical power

A AC into DC
B AC into AC
C DC into AC
D DC into DC

1963. Match the following

Units Output
1 Transformer A DC
2 Inverter B AC, same frequency
3 TRU C AC or DC
4 Generator D AC

A 1-b, 2-d, 3-a and 4-c


B 1-d, 2-a, 3-b and 4-c
C 1-c, 2-d, 3-a and 4-b
D 1-b, 2-d, 3-c and 4-a

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1969. Figure shows the carbon-pile regulator connected into the generators regulating circuit. The ballast resistor
has a low-temperature coefficient and minimizes the effects of

A Temperature on the voltage coil.


B Higher voltage on the voltage coil.
C Higher current on the voltage coil.
D Over loading condition on generator

1975. Figure (Q-329) shows the carbon-pile regulator connected into the generators regulating circuit. The ballast
resistor has

A a low-temperature coefficient
B a high-temperature coefficient
C a negative-temperature coefficient
D a higher-temperature coefficient

1981. Figure (Q-329) shows the carbon-pile regulator connected into the generators regulating circuit. The
331. trimmer resistors (in series with the ballast resistor) allow the generator output voltage

A to be increased on the aircraft.


B to be decreased on the aircraft.
C to be increased on the ground.
D to be trimmed on the aircraft.

1982. Figure (Q-329) shows the carbon-pile regulator connected into the generators regulating circuit. The
boost resistor is normally shorted out, if the switch is opened it allows

A a slight increase in generator output


B As in A and to meet short-term increases in loading
C a slight decrease in generator output
D As in C and to meet long-term increases in voltage

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1988. The figure shows a rotary inverter schematic diagram. trimming resistor (R v ) connected in series with
the DC motor field

A Varies the motor speed


B sets the correct speed
C Varies the field voltage
D Varies the AC generator voltage

1994. A typical inverter used on a large commercial aircraft can produce

A 1 kVA
B 0.5 kVA
C 2 kVA
D 10 kVA

2000. Input to a TRU is

A 115/200 V 400 Hz
B 26 V 400 Hz
C 28 V DC
D 26 V DC

2006. The windscreen heating circuit of an aircraft uses

A Transformer
B Current transformer
C Single phase autotransformer
D Three phase autotransformer

2012. Auxiliary power unit (APU) is

A Small gas turbine engine, typically located in the tail cone of the aircraft.
B Designed to supply electrical power
C Designed to supply bleed air to the aircrafts air distribution system
D All the above

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2018. Once APU is started, it

A Runs at constant speed


B Can be controlled by a throttle
C Runs at the speed as determined by the pilot
D Runs throughout flight phase

2019. In Boeing 787 dreamliner aircraft, the APU provides

A electrical power, hydraulic pressure and air conditioning


B electrical power, and air conditioning
C electrical power, and hydraulic pressure
D electrical power only

2025. Some APUs on larger four-engined aircraft are

A Smaller in size and weight


B Producing loud noise and high emission
C Not certified for use while the aircraft is in flight.
D Not certified for use while the aircraft is on ground.

2031. Wires and cables that carry high power and/or high frequencies are shielded to prevent

A the wire or cable being the cause of electromagnetic interference


B the wire or cable being affected by electromagnetic interference
C wet arc tracking
D Current leakage

2037. Two or more separate wires within the same insulation and protective sheath is referred to as a

A screened wire
B coaxial cable
C cable
D bundle

2043. Fuses have a rating that determines the

A maximum current it can carry without opening


B minimum current it can carry without opening
C time taken for the fuse to rupture
D minimum voltage it can carry without opening

2049. Conductors must have low insulation resistance to minimize

A current surges
B electromagnetic interference
C IR losses
D Voltage drop

2055. The combined effects of insulation damage and fluid contamination gives rise to

A electromagnetic interference
B wet arc tracking
C current surges
D Voltage drop

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2061. For a given AWG, the wire will have a specified

A diameter and hence a known conductance


B length
C screening
D resistance

2062. Coaxial cables are normally used for

A digital signals
B motors and generators
C radio-frequency (RF) signals
D Voltage signals

2068. Trip-free circuit-breaker contacts

A can always be closed whilst a fault exists


B cannot be closed whilst a fault exists
C are only used during maintenance
D Automatically rests and breaks

2074. Limiting resistors are connected

A momentarily in series
B momentarily in parallel
C permanently in series
D permanently in parallel

2080. The white collar just below a circuit-breaker button provides visual indication of the

A circuit-breaker trip current


B system being protected
C circuit-breaker being closed or tripped
D Faulty circuit breaker

2086. Mark the correct statement

A wiring is just one of many components installed on the aircraft


B electrical wire interconnection system relates to any wire, wiring device, or combination of
these, including termination devices,
C Once installed, the wires and cables must be protected from overload conditions that could lead to
overheating,
D All the above

2092. Cables can be defined as

A two or more separate wires within the same insulation and protective sheath
B two or more wires twisted together
C any number of wires covered by a metallic braid, or sheath
D All the above

2098. Copper conductors are used extensively on aircraft due to the materials:

A low resistivity andhigh ductility


B high tensile strength
C ease of soldering
D All the above

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2104. Mark the correct statement

A Aluminium conductors are sometimes used in aircraft; however, the majority of installations are
copper.
B The choice of conductor material is a trade-off; the first consideration is the materials resistance over a
given length
C Resistivity of copper is less than the aluminium
D All the above

2105. Mark the correct statement

A Copper is more ductile than aluminium


B Aluminium is 60% lighter than copper
C Aluminium is generally more inexpensive when compared to copper conductors.
D All the above

2111. Mark the correct statement

A Aluminium has 61 percent of the conductivity of copper, but has only 30 percent of the weight of
copper.
B Oxidation process of Aluminium is much quicker than that of Copper
C Individual strands of copper need to be coated to prevent oxidation
D All the above

2117. Wire sizes used on aircraft are defined in accordance with the

A American Wire Gauge


B Diameter
C Diameter and thickness of insulation
D All the above

2123. Mark the correct statement

A The largest wire size is 0000 AWG


B the smallest is 40 AWG
C Selection of wire size depends on the specified current to be conducted.
D All the above

2129. The most recent DC power supply voltage that has been developed is

A 14V
B 26V
C 28V
D 270V

2135. The use of larger wire diameter in aircraft applications

A Adds weight
B As in A and offers less voltage drop for a given length
C As in B and lower heating effect due to I2R losses.
D None

2141. Limiting resistors are used to limit current surges, primarily

A In transformers
B In AC circuits
C In DC circuits
D In circuit breakers
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2147. Limiting resistors which are connected in series with in a DC circuits are

A Acting as a circuit breakers


B Automatically shorted out once the circuit current has stabilized.
C Filters any surge of voltage in the circuit
D Automatically come in parallel once the circuit current has stabilized

2148. Limiting resistors are used


1. in engine starting circuits
2. in voltage regulators
3. in fire extinguishing system to prevent inadvertent operation of squib
4. to protect devices such as diode in electronics.
Of these which are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3
B 1, 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4
D 1, 2, 3 and 4

2154. For any aircraft type, the distribution system will comprise the following items:

1. Busbar
2. protection and control
3. wiring and loads
4. Generators, inverter and battery

Of these which are correct?

A 1, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 2, 3 and 4

2160. Protection devices, whether fuses or circuit-breakers, are connected in series with a specific system; they
will remove the power from that system

A If voltage is low
B if an overload condition arises
C As in B and a means of protecting the power source and feeder lines to the busbar
D as in A and protects generators

2166. Circuit breakers and fuses acts to protect the system

A before the individual circuit protection devices.


B after the individual circuit protection devices.
C before the power supply failure
D before the low voltage condition occurs

2172. The current limiter reduces generator output if its maximum safe load is exceeded; if the fault condition is
removed

A the generator automatically becomes available again


B the generator can be connected manually again
C the generator automatically becomes available for limited use
D the generator automatically goes out of service again

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2178. Given figure is distribution system of a Simple twin engine equalizing system
schematic diagram the No 11 and 12 are.

A Equalising resistors
B Regulator voltage coils
C Carbon pile regulators
D Reverse current relays

2184. Given figure (Refer Q-368) is distribution system of a Simple twin engine equalizing
system schematic diagram the No 1 and 2 are

A Equalising resistors
B Regulator voltage coils
C Carbon pile regulators
D Reverse current relays

2190. Given figure (Refer Q-368) is distribution system of a Simple twin engine equalizing
system schematic diagram the No 3 and 4 are

A Equalising resistors
B Regulator voltage coils
C Carbon pile regulators
D Reverse current relays

2191. Given figure (Refer Q-368) is distribution system of a simple twin engine equalizing
system schematic diagram the No 5 and 6 are

A Equalising resistors
B Regulator voltage coils
C Carbon pile regulators
D Reverse current relays

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2197. Given figure (Refer Q-368) is distribution system of a simple twin engine equalizing
system schematic diagram the No 7 and 8 are

a Regulator equalising coils


b Trimming resistors
c Reverse current relays
d Equalising switches

2203. Given figure (Refer Q-368) is distribution system of a simple twin engine equalizing
system schematic diagram the No 9 and 10 are

A Regulator equalising coils


B Trimming resistors
C Reverse current relays
D Equalising switches

2209. Given figure (Refer Q-368) is distribution system of a simple twin engine equalizing
system schematic diagram the No 13 and 14 are

A Regulator equalising coils


B Trimming resistors
C Reverse current relays
D Equalising switches

2215. Given figure (Refer Q-368) is distribution system of a simple twin engine equalizing
system schematic diagram the No 15 is

A Battery switch
B Regulator equalising coils
C Trimming resistors
D Reverse current relays

2221. Mark the correct statement

A APU is normally a constant speed device in its own right; therefore an IDG is not required
B Secondary power is derived from step-down transformers to provide 26 V AC;
C Transformer rectifier units (TRU) provide 28 V DC for the DC busbars and battery charging.
D All the above

2227. Mark the correct statement

A External AC power cannot be paralleled with the aircraft generators


B External AC power can be paralleled with the aircraft generators
C Inverter provides power supply for battery charger during emergency
D Transformers provide 28 V DC for battery charging

2233. All generator voltages, frequencies and phase relationships must be controlled to very close tolerances. Any
attempt to connect generators in parallel before these conditions are met could result

A In loss of power from all generators and inverters


B Loss of generator power due to large circulating currents.
C Transformer failure and instrument malfunction
D An emergency situation due to complete power loss

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2234. Given figure is Large aircraft electrical power hierarchy, in which A and B
are

A A-TRU and B- Inverter


B A- Inverter and B- TRU
C A-transformer and B- Inverter
D A-TRU and B- transformer

2240. On a four-engined aircraft, the normal power source is

A the main AC bus number 1


B the main AC bus number 2
C the main AC bus number 3
D the main AC bus number 4

2246. Hot battery busbars that are connected directly to the battery, i.e.

A without any switching


B With a switch
C Hot battery
D Hot wiring

2252. The reverse current relay is needed on any DC generation system to prevent the:

A battery from feeding excess current back through to the generators armature
B generator from feeding excess current back through to the battery
C battery from feeding excess current to the starter motor
D Battery from high generator voltage

2258. The current limiter device:

A increases the output from a DC generator under fault conditions


B reduces the output from a DC generator under fault conditions
C reduces the output from a DC generator under normal conditions
D Limits current to generators field winding
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2264. Battery charge/discharge current is monitored via which type of instrument?

A voltmeter
B contactor
C ammeter
D megger

2270. Referring to Fig. different size pins are used on external DC power connectors to:

A prevent a reverse polarity voltage being applied


B prevent excessive power being applied
C prevent power being applied when the battery is discharged.
D align international standard external plug

2276. The main distribution bus is sometimes called the

A essential bus
B emergency bus
C non-essential bus
D hot bus

2277. The split bus system is sometimes called a:

A non-parallel system
B parallel system
C standby and essential power system
D Hot bus system

2283. Inductive or capacitive loads consume:

A Real power
B DC power
C Reactive power.
D Apparent power

2289. Essential DC power could be supplied from a:

A transformer rectifier unit (TRU) powered from the essential DC bus


B transformer rectifier unit (TRU) powered from the essential AC bus
C inverter powered from the essential AC bus
D None
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2295. Referring to Figure the apparent power which is measured in:

A volt-amps (VA)
B watts (W)
C volt-amps-reactive (VAR).
D volt-amps-apparent

2301. The third pin on external DC power connectors is used to:

A charge the battery


B energize the reverse current relay
C energize the ground power relay.
D earth aircraft to ground

2307. Mark the correct statement

A A power factor of one (unity) is for a purely resistive circuit;


B A power factor of zero is for a purely reactive circuit.
C Aircraft generators and inverters are rated in kVA, with a stated power factor over a given range.
D All the above

2313. Mark the correct statement

A Resistive loads consume real power


B Inductive or capacitive loads consume reactive power
C Apparent power consumed by entire circuit
D All the above

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2319. Referring to Fig. this is a schematic diagram for a

A contractor
B current transformer
C auto-transformer
D volume tuner

2320. Referring to Fig. this device is a

A external power relay


B current limiter
C reverse current relay
D Voltage limiter

2326. Mark the correct statement

A true power is a function of a circuits dissipative elements, usually resistances (R).


B Reactive power is a function of a circuits reactance (X).
C Apparent power is a function of a circuits total impedance (Z).
D All the above

2332. Mark the correct statement

A The combination of reactive power and true power is called apparent power
B As in A and it is the product of a circuits voltage and current, without reference to phase
angle
C As in A and it is the product of a circuits voltage and current, with reference to phase angle

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D As in A and it is the product of a circuits voltage and current

2338. Mark the correct statement

A Apparent power is measured in the unit of Volt-Amps (VA)


B Reactive power is measured in a unit called Volt-Amps-Reactive (VAR)
C True power is measured in Watts (W)
D All the above

2344. A capacitor and inductor will cause a

A 30 degree phase shift between voltage and current


B 60 degree phase shift between voltage and current
C 90 degree phase shift between voltage and current
d 120 degree phase shift between voltage and current

2350. A capacitive load will introduce

A Negative reactive power


B Positive reactive power
C As in A and voltage lags the current waveform by 90
D As in B and voltage leads the current waveform by 90

2356. An inductive load will introduce

A Negative reactive power


B Positive reactive power
C As in A and voltage lags the current waveform by 90
D As in B and voltage leads the current waveform by 90

2362. Power that is the result of a purely resistive load is known as

A True power
B Apparent power
C Reactive power
D None

2363. Non-essential loads are not required for the safe continuation of flight; these loads include

A the galleys, in-flight entertainment (IFE) system


B main cabin lights
C Flight deck instruments and lights
D Both A and B

2369. Mark the correct statement

A Nonessential loads are not required for the safe continuation of flight
B Essential loads are required for the safe continuation of flight
C Emergency loads are required for the safe landing of the aircraft, e.g. radios, fuel control, landing
gear and fire protection
D All the above

2375. A ____________ suppresses arcing of coil current across the contacts in a circuit breaker.

A Zener diode
B Transistor
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C Resister
D Capacitor

2381. Given figure is of Differential current protection circuit of a generator (for


single phase only).
The CT1 and CT2 are

A Autotransformers
B Current transformers
C Control transistors
D Control testers

2387. Given figure (Q-406) is of Differential current protection circuit of a generator (for
single phase only). The function of this circuit is

A To detects short-circuits in AC generator feeder lines or busbars


B To protect the generator from overheating and burning out.
C Both A and B
D None

2393. Given figure (Q-406) is of Differential current protection circuit of a generator (for
single phase only). If a fault were to develop between the generator and busbar,

A The difference between CT1 and CT 2 is IF


B CT2 detects total generator output current
C CT1 detects total generator output current
D Both A and C

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2399. Given figure is a Phase protection circuit (Merz Price circuit). This circuit protects
against faults

A Between phases,
B Individual phase to ground faults.
C Either A or B
D None

2405. Given figure (Q-409) is a Phase protection circuit (Merz Price circuit).
Where

A CT 1 monitors the current output from the generator


B CT 2 monitors the current into the distribution system.
C Both A and B
D None

2406. Match the following

Type Character
1 Autotransformer A Step down transformer
2 Current transformer B 1:1 ratio safety transformer
3 Isolation transformer C Single winding
4 Instrument transformer D Series transformer
5 Ideal transformer E Parallel transformer
6 Potential transformer F No loss imaginary transformer

A 1-E, 2-F, 3-B, 4-A, 5-D & 6-C


B 1-C, 2-A, 3-E, 4-D, 5-F & 6-B
C 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A, 5-E & 6-F
D 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A, 5-F & 6-E

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2412. Match the following

Type Use
1 Autotransformer A Sense current for control, protection and indication
applications
2 Current transformer B Employed in circuits which needs small step
up/down ratios
3 Isolation transformer C An imaginary transformer which does not have any
loss in it
4 Instrument transformer D 1:1 power transformer used for safety
5 Ideal transformer E Parallel connected type of instrument transformer
used to measure voltage
6 Potential transformer F Used in measurement of AC electrical quantities
voltage, current, power, energy, power factor and
frequency

A 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-F, 5-C & 6-E


B 1-F, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B, 5-A & 6-E
C 1-E, 2-A, 3-F, 4-D, 5-C & 6-B
D 1-C, 2-E, 3-D, 4-F, 5-B & 6-A

2418. The number of circuits that can be linked by a single switch operation is called the

A Pole
B Throw
C Position
D Contact

2424. The simplest switch has two contact surfaces that provide a link between circuits; these links are referred to
as

A Pole
B Throw
C Position
D Contact

2430. Switches are characterized by:

A number of poles
B number of switched positions
C type of switched contacts (permanent or momentary).
D All the above

2436. Micro-switches are used to sense the

A Presence of an object
B Mechanical displacement of a variety of devices
C Voltage in the circuit
D Temperature variations of circuits

2442. Mark the correct statement

A Polarized relays use magnetic forces to attract and repel the armature instead of a spring
force.
B The number of circuits that can be linked by a single relay operation is called the throw
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C Slugged relays have delayed operating times and are needed in specialized applications.
D All the above

2448. The linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) is a transducer used for measuring

A Small linear displacements.


B Small variable voltages
C Large linear displacements
D Small differential currents

2449. EI sensor is used to measure

A Small variable voltages


B Large linear displacements
C Small differential currents
D Very small movements in control systems

2455. The number of circuits that can be linked by a single switch operation is called the:

A pole
B throw
C NO/NC contacts
D position

2461. The bi-metallic temperature sensor consists of:

A two strips of metal with different coefficients of thermal expansion


B two strips of metal with the same coefficients of thermal expansion
C two wires welded into a junction
D Alloy of two metal rods

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2467. Match the following

Switch description

Single pole double


1 A throw

Double pole single


2 B throw

Push switch normally


3 C open

Single pole single


4 D throw

Double pole double


5 E throw

A 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-E & 5-C


B 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E & 5-C
C 1-B, 2-E, 3-D, 4-A & 5-C
D 1-E, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D & 5-C

2473. When a foil strain gauge is deformed, this causes:

A an electromotive force (EMF) to be generated


B its electrical resistance to change
C different coefficients of thermal expansion.
D Difference in voltage and current

2479. Metal elements used in RTDs have a temperature coefficient that is:

A negative, temperature increases cause an increase in resistance


B positive, temperature decreases cause an increase in resistance
C positive, temperature increases cause an increase in resistance
D None

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2485. The rotors of an torque synchro transmitter and receiver are supplied from:

A the same power supply (normally 26 V AC)


B different power supplies (normally 26 V AC)
C the same power supply (normally 26 V DC).
D None

2491. The thermocouple principle is based on the See-beck effect; when heat is applied:

A a change of resistance is measured


B this causes the element to bend
C an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is generated.
D A resistive force is generated

2492. A rheostat performs the same function as a:

A resistance temperature detector


B potentiometer
C Wheatstone bridge
D thermistor

2498. The solenoid is a type of transducer that converts:

A electrical energy into linear motion


B linear motion into electrical energy
C electrical energy into thermal energy
D Mechanical energy into electrical energy

2504. Proximity switches perform the same function as:

A micro-switches
B relays
C toggle switches
D Toggle switches

2510. The linear variable differential transformer (LVDT) is used for measuring:

A small rotary displacements


B variable resistance
C small linear displacements
D Small difference in frequency

2516. Referring to Fig. these control devices are:

A toggle switches
B micro switches
C rocker switches
D Puss-pull switches

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2522. Referring to Fig. this device is a:

A toggle switch
B micro switch
C changeover relay
D Circuit breaker

2528. Referring to Fig. this circuit is called a:

A Wheatstone bridge
B thermocouple bridge
C ratiometer
D rectifier

2534. A transformer whose primary-to-secondary coupling may be varied by physically changing the
relative orientation of the two windings is called as

A synchro
B Motor
C Phasor
D Dynamo

2535. Synchros are often used for measuring the

A Angle of a rotating machine


B Linear motion
C Differential motion
D Relative motion

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2541. Referring to Fig. this schematic is for a:

A AC magnesyn synchro
B AC torque synchro
C DC synchro
D Star wound inverter

2547. Referring to Fig. this chart shows the output of a:

A RTD
B thermocouple
C strain gauge
D generator

2553. Mark the correct statement

A Synchros are specially wound rotary transformers with the stator windings typically fixed.
B The Synchro Resolver (CS) is a form of synchro in which the windings on the stator and rotor are
displaced mechanically at 90 degrees to each other
C The simplest resolver employs a single rotor winding and two stator windings at 90 degrees to each
other
D All the above

2559. A synchro has:

A 2 primary windings
B 3 secondary windings, with each secondary winding mechanically oriented 120 apart
C 3 secondary windings, with each secondary winding mechanically oriented 90 apart
D Both A and B

2565. A resolver has:

A 2 primary windings
B 2 secondary windings, which are oriented at 90 to each other

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C 2 secondary windings, which are oriented at 120 to each other


D Both A and B

2571. A synchro is excited by an AC reference voltage applied to its rotor winding. This reference
signal is

A 115 VRMS @ 400 Hz


B 26 VRMS @ 400 Hz
C Either A or B
D Both A and B

2577. Accuracy and verification of a synchro/resolver transmitter signals are most easily and best
accomplished using

A Digital position indicator


B Precision position indicator
C Synchro tester
D Angle Position Indicator (API)

2578. Calibration of synchro/resolver upto calibration grade accuracy of up to 2 arc seconds,


requires

A Angle Position Indicator (API)


B Phase Angle Voltmeter (PAV)
C A synchro/resolver bridge and Phase Angle Voltmeter (PAV)
D Synchro tester

2584. Selsyn and Desyn are trade names of a

A DC synchro
B AC dynamo
C AC synchro
D Torque meter

2590. The given figure is of a

A DC synchro
B AC synchro
C AC torque synchro
D None

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2596. The starting sequence for a gas turbine engine is to

A (i) develop sufficient airflow to compress the air, (ii) turn on the ignition, and (iii) open the
fuel valves.
B (i) turn on the ignition, (ii) develop sufficient airflow to compress the air and (iii) open the fuel
valves.
C (i) open the fuel valves. (ii) turn on the ignition, and (iii) develop sufficient airflow to compress the
air
D None

2602. The carbon pile voltage regulator depends on the resistance of a number of carbon disks arranged in a
pile or stack. The resistance of the carbon stack varies

A Inversely with the pressure applied.


B Inversely with the current applied.
C Directly with the pressure applied.
D Inversely with the voltage applied.

2608. The items powered by hot battery bus

A Entry door lighting and aircraft clock


B Items of critical in nature to slight safety such as fire extinguishers, fuel shut off, and fuel pumps.
C Cabin and galley equipments
D Both A and B

2614. The symbol of given figure is of a

A Diode
B Triode
C Current limiter
D Circuit breaker

2620. The external power is often used in an aircraft to

A Start an engine
B Maintenance activities
C Either A or B
D Battery charging only

2621. While connecting external power source to an aircraft, the accidental reverse polarity connection is
prevented by

A A diode
B A relay
C A switch
D None

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2627. The symbol of given figure is of a

A pushbutton switch, normally open


B pushbutton switch, normally closed
C pushbutton switch
D Relay

2633. The symbol of given figure is of a

A pushbutton switch, normally open


B pushbutton switch, normally closed
C pushbutton switch
D Relay

2639. When only external power source is connected and available for use, the DC power is provided by

A A TRU
B A separate TRU for this purpose
C A rectifier
D battery

2645. Standby power from the standby power bus is

A AC
B DC
C Both
D Battery and inverter power

2651. Mark the correct statement

A A circuit breaker can be reset to resume normal operation


B Fuses once operated has to be replaced
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C Automatic reset CBs which resets automatically by themselves are not to be used in aircraft
D All the above

2657. If a circuit breaker in any system of an aircraft trips off

A It can be reset one time


B As in A and if it trips off again there exists a circuit fault
C As in B and the fault should be eliminated before further reset
D It can be reset again and again

2663. In new aircraft designs, Mechanical CBs are replaced by a

A Electrical CBs
B Electromechanical CBs
C Digital circuit protection architecture
D Polarizer relays

2664. A fuse is placed in ______________ with the _______________ source and all current must flow
through it.

A Parallel, voltage
B Series voltage
C Parallel, battery
D Series as well as parallel

2670. When installing equipments, fuse and circuit breakers to be used are specified by

A Manufacturer of equipment
B Repair agency
C Installation guide
D Wire diameter used

2676. The voltage that causes the Shockley diode to conduct current is known as

A Breakdown voltage
B Breakover voltage
C Breakup voltage
D Breakoff voltage

2682. The given figure is the symbol of a

A Two layered diode


B Four layered diode
C Shockley diode
D SCR

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2688. The given figure is the symbol of a

A Two layered diode


B Three layered diode
C Shockley diode
D SCR

2694. The silicon controlled rectifiers are often used in

A Power switching, phase control, and battery chargers


B Inverter circuits, and welding power supplies
C Lighting dimmer system
D All the above

2700. The iron loss in a transformer is

A Hysteresis loss
B Eddy current loss
C Both A and B
D Copper loss

2706. The current transformer is

A A ring type transformer


B The one in which current carrying power lead is primary winding
C Stamped H1 and H2 on the base, and installed H1 side towards generator in the circuit
D All the above

2707. The transformer can be used with

A AC power
B DC power
C Pulsating DC
D Both A and C

2713. A transformer works on the principle of

A Self induction
B Mutual induction
C Ampere's Law
D Faraday's law

2719. The ratio of transformer input voltage to output voltage is the same as

A Current ratio
B Turns ratio
C Turns ratio if it is 100% efficient
D Current to voltage ratio

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2725. Static inverters, referred to as solid-state inverters, are manufactured in a wide range of types and
models, which can be classified by

A The shape of AC output wave form and power output capabilities


B Output voltage and frequency
C No of phase and output voltage
D Weight and type of circuitry used

2731. Solid-state inverters convert

A A low DC voltage in to low AC voltage


B A low DC voltage into higher DC voltage
C A low DC voltage into higher AC voltage
D A higher DC voltage into low AC voltage

2737. A full input load change varies the output of solid state inverter by

A 1%
B Less than 1%
C Greater than 1%
D None

2743. Static inverters are commonly used to provide power for frequency sensitive instruments such as

A Altitude gyro and directional gyro


B Autosyn and magnesyn indicators and transmitters
C Rate gyro, radar and other airborne application
D All the above

2749. In a split-parallel distribution system

86. During normal flight all four engine driven generators are operated in parallel
87. The system is operated in split bus mode only under certain failure conditions or when
external power is connected
88. APU drives two generators

Of these which is true?

A 1 and 3
B 2 and 3
C 1 and 2
D 1,2 & 3

2750. In a split-parallel bus distribution system, the split system breaker (SSB)

A Is used to connect Left and Right Sync buses


B As in A and closed during a normal flight
C As in A and open during a normal flight
D None

2756. In a split-parallel bus distribution system, the generators operate in parallel when

A SSB closed, GCB closed and BTB open


B SSB open, GCB closed and BTB open
C SSB closed, GCB open and BTB open
D SSB closed, GCB closed and BTB closed

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2762. Differential relay switch, which is controlled by the difference in voltage between

A The generator 1 and the generator 2


B The APU generator and the engine driven generators
C The battery bus and the generator.
D The battery bus and the inverter

2768. The given figure is of a three unit voltage regulator. When the generator is not operating,

A spring S1 holds C1 closed; C2 is also closed by S2.


B C3 is held open by the spring S3
C C3 is held in close position by the spring S3
D Both A and B

2774. The given figure (Q-478) is of a three unit voltage regulator. When the generator is operating

A Certain minimum value of load current is necessary to cause the current limiter to vibrate.
B C3 will close when generator terminal voltage exceeds that of the battery by a predetermined value
C C1 and C2 vibrate where as contact C3 does not vibrate.
D All the above

2780. The given figure (Q-478) is of a three unit voltage regulator. When the generator is operating

A C1 opens when output voltage increase and closes when it decreases


B C2 opens when current increases and close when it decreases
C When C1 and C2 are in open position, R1 and R2 are not shorted out
D All the above

2786. The given figure (Q-478) is of a three unit voltage regulator. When the generator is operating

A L2 winding is opposed to the L1 winding


B L4 aids L5
C L3 is in series with the main line and load
D All the above

2792. The given figure (Q-478) is of a three unit voltage regulator The coil spring, S3, is so adjusted that the

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A voltage winding will not close the contact points until the voltage of the generator is in excess
of the normal
B C3 closes at lower output voltage of generator
C L4 aids L5
D L4 opposes L5

2793. The electrical power can be provided either by a ground power unit (GPU) or the APU. When both
sources are available simultaneously,

A The ground power unit has a priority to electrically supply the aircraft, if connected before APU
B The APU has a priority to electrically supply the aircraft if started before connecting EXT power
C Either A or B
D Pilot can select as he desires

2799. Mark the correct statement

A The external power is controlled from the flight compartment and can be energized with or without
the main aircraft battery
B The external power either supplies automatically all the busbars by means of the EXT PWR
pushbutton switch or separately supplies the ground service busbar.
C The ground supply receptacle is located so as to minimize the possibility of damage by normal
ground servicing equipment.
D All the above

2805. An amber warning light and a white indicator Light are located near the external ground receptacle
whose purpose are

A Amber indicates power is available and the white indicates that the power supply is not in
use.
B White indicator is for power availability amber is for power in use
C Amber is indication for over voltage and white is for normal voltage
D White and amber indicates power is connected but not available

2811. If the external power is available and if it is in use, is indicated by

A The external power pushbutton switch


B Amber warning light
C White indicator light
D Both A and B

2817. The current external power connector of an aircraft has

A Three pins, which consists of two positive and one negative


B As in A and one positive pin is shorter and smaller in diameter
C As in B and short positive pin is connected in the coil circuit of external power relay
D All the above

2823. One of the external power connector pin is shorter and smaller in size. This is

A To prevent arcing at main pins


B To disengage the external power relay before main pins are disengaged
C A safety measure when socket is pulled out live.
D All the above

2829. When external AC power is connected and not supplying the power to any AC load bus bar on the
aircraft, is indicated on control panel by

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A Illumination of White indicator light only


B Illumination of blue indicator light only
C Illumination of amber indicator light only
D Illumination of white and amber

2835. AC external power receptacle is of

A Six prong type


B As in A and 3larger prong for AC power phases and 1large prong for ground
C As in B and two small shorter prongs connect DC power for operation of interlocking relays
which connects external AC power to aircraft
D None

2836. The aircraft circuit diagram in which the circuits are normally drawn in the

A "aircraft-on-the. ground" condition with the main power supply on


B "aircraft-on-the. ground" condition with the main power supply off
C "aircraft-on-the. ground" condition with the ground power supply on
D "aircraft-on-the. ground" condition with the emergency power supply off but main supply on

2842. In general, in the aircraft circuit diagram

A Switches are drawn in the "off' position


B Relays and contactors are shown in their demagnetized state.
C Circuit breakers are drawn in the closed condition
D All the above

2848.

2854.

2860.

2866.

2872.

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2878.

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76
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**

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78