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Learning Journal!

Anatomy and Human Physiology 3

Lesson 1: Endocrine System

In general terms, what are hormones?

o Chemical signals secreted by the endocrine organs

Contrast reaction times to different hormones such as epinephrine and norepinephrine and our
reproductive hormones.

o the fight-or-flight response, occur by the release of adrenal hormonesepinephrine and

norepinephrinewithin seconds. In contrast, it may take up to 48 hours for target cells
to respond to certain reproductive hormones.

Using oxytocin as an example, explain how hormones are not necessarily specific to a singular
target and function.

o the hormone oxytocin promotes uterine contractions in women in labor. It is also

important in breastfeeding, and may be involved in the sexual response and in feelings of
emotional attachment in both males and females

Contrast the endocrine system's response time to that of the nervous system.

o the nervous system involves quick responses to rapid changes in the external
environment, and the endocrine system is usually slower actingtaking care of the
internal environment of the body, maintaining homeostasis, and controlling reproduction

o Explain the earlier "fight or flight" response to epinephrine and norepinephrine which is
pretty darn quick in conjunction with the nervous system

the two systems are connected. It is the fast action of the nervous system in
response to the danger in the environment that stimulates the adrenal glands to
secrete their hormones. As a result, the nervous system can cause rapid
endocrine responses to keep up with sudden changes in both the external and
internal environments when necessary.
You already investigated the function of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) using Interactions.
Describe the function of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus.

Explain why CRH levels would be low when ACTH levels are high.
o The release of ACTH is regulated by the corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the
hypothalamus in response to normal physiologic rhythms. A variety of stressors can also
influence its release, and the role of ACTH in the stress response is discussed later in this

From your work with Interactions you should already know that T3 and T4 affect metabolism.
With a little help from our text, explain why these are referred to as the "so
called" calorigenic effects. (Remember, search for your key word.
o The thyroid hormones, T3 and T4, are often referred to as metabolic hormones because
their levels influence the bodys basal metabolic rate, the amount of energy used by the
body at rest. When T3 and T4 bind to intracellular receptors located on the mitochondria,
they cause an increase in nutrient breakdown and the use of oxygen to produce ATP. In
addition, T3 and T4 initiate the transcription of genes involved in glucose oxidation.
Although these mechanisms prompt cells to produce more ATP, the process is inefficient,
and an abnormally increased level of heat is released as a byproduct of these reactions.
This so-called calorigenic effect (calor- = heat) raises body temperature.

Interactions Media

What are hormones

o Secretory products of endocrine cells
Describe the method of hormone transportation
o Through the blood stream
Define target cells
o Cells that have specific receptors that allow hormones to bind
What happens when a hormone binds to a receptor
o it is a signal for target cells to alter their activity
Why must hormone quantities be precisely regulated?
o Small amount of hormone can produce a large effect
Neurotransmitters, Hormones, and humoral blood components, all serve as signal molecules
that either activate or inhibit endocrine cell activity
Describe how neurotransmitters activate endocrine cells
o Directly, such as some in the adrenal medulla
o Nerve cells form junctions with endocrine cells
o Action potential reaching end of the nerve cell process stimulates the release of
o Neurotransmitters activate the endocrine cell
Describe how hormones can regulate secretions from other glands
o Hormones that target endocrine cells are called tropic hormones
o ACTH flows from the anterior pituitary to the adrenal cortex
o ACTH binds to the target endocrine cells and stimulates the release of aldosterone
Describe how blood components can regulate endocrine activity
o Changes in the blood concentrations of certain ions or nutrients
o E.g. potassium ions or glucose
o Production of hormones by an endocrine cell changes in response to the changing levels
of these concentrations
Describe up and down regulation by receptor number.
o Receptor numbers determine how sensitive a target cell is to the hormone
Describe how endocrine and target cells form a feedback loop
o One of the main mechanisms of hormone secretion
o Stimulusendocrine cell-signaling hormonetarget celltarget cells
Describe a positive feedback mechanism
o Stretching of cervixoxytocin releasedcontractions are stimulatedmore oxytocin
releasedcycle ends with birth of baby
Describe an example of a negative feedback mechanism
o Glucagon produced in pancreas in response to low blood sugar
o Stimulates liver cells to convert glycogen into glucose and release it into the blood
o Increased glucose levels inhibit glucagon production

Interactions Media: Mechanisms of Hormone Action

Hormone molecules are produced by endocrine cells and released into the bloodstream. Describe
what must happen for hormone molecules to affect target cells.
o Hormones must leave blood stream and attach to target cell receptors
o Chemical nature of the hormone determines how it will interact with the target cell
Hormones are classified as either lipid soluble or lipid insoluble. Name examples of each.
o Lipid-soluble
Steroid hormones
Thyroid hormones
o Lipid-insoluble
Peptides and proteins
Where are the lipid soluble hormone receptors located? How do lipid soluble hormone molecules
get there?
o Intracellular receptor in the cytoplasm or the nucleus
o Move easily through the lipid membrane
Describe the function of the hormone-receptor complex
o Influences gene activity resulting in DNA transcription and production of mRNA
What is the function of mRNA?
o Leave nucleus and is translated to form a new protein
How do proteins affect cellular activity?
o New proteins can affect
Cell membrane polarity and permeability
Centrioles and mitotic rates
Myosin fibers and contraction rates
Mitochondria and metabolic rates
Lysosome and secretion rates
Lipid insoluble hormone molecules cannot penetrate cellular plasma membranes like lipid soluble
hormones can. How then, do they affect cellular activity?
o Bind to receptors on the plasma membrane
o Sequence of events set off
A series of events occurs following hormone binding to the receptor on the plasma membrane.
Describe the role of the following in this sequence of events.
o G protein
Transforms the signal from the receptor and activates the amplifier enzyme
o Amplifier enzyme, adenylate cyclase
Converts ATP to cyclic AMP
o cAMP (second messenger)
activate kinase proteins
o kinase proteins
cause phosphorylation
o phosphorylated enzymes
affect different regions of the cell
Functions of all of the following
o Hypothalamus
Controls body temperature, thirst, hunger
Regulates sexual behavior, defensive reactions, circadian rhythms, and states of
Synthesizes hormones that stimulate or inhibit the secretion of pituitary
Synthesizes oxytocin and antidiuretic hormones that are stored and released in
the posterior pituitary gland
o Pituitary Gland
Human Growth Hormone stimulates nearly all body cells for growth and
Thyroid stimulating hormone stimulates the thyroid gland
Follicle stimulating hormone stimulates production of sperm, oocytes,
and estrogen
Luteinizing hormone stimulates production of estrogen, progesterone,
testosterone, and triggers ovulation
Prolactin promotes milk secretion
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex
Melanocyte stimulating hormone produces darkened skin pigmentation
Oxytocin stimulates the contraction of smooth muscle cells during
childbirth and milk ejection
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulates the conservation of body water
and raises blood pressure by constricting arterioles
o Thyroid Gland
Follicular cells secrete thyroid hormones, T3 and T4, which regulate oxygen use
and metabolic rate, cellular metabolism, and growth and development
Parafollicular cells secrete calcitonin which lowers blood calcium level
o Parathyroid Glands
Produces parathyroid hormone (PTH) which
increases blood calcium and magnesium levels and decreases blood
phosphate levels
increases rate of dietary calcium and magnesium absorption
increase bone resorption by osteoclasts
increases calcium reabsorption and phosphate excretion by kidneys,
promotes formation of hormone calcitriol in kidneys
o Liver
Releases angiotensinogen which, when converted to angiotensin II, promotes
retention of NA+ and water, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure
o Kidneys
Releases active form of calcitriol which promotes calcium absorption from food
Also releases erythropoietin which stimulates red bone marrow to increase
production of erythrocytes
Releases enzyme renin which is crucial for formation of angiotensin, a hormone
that promotes an increase in blood volume and pressure
o Small Intestine
Enteroendocrine (S) cells produce secretin which promotes secretion of
bicarbonate ionsvia pancreatic juice and bileinto the intestine to reduce
Enteroendocrine (CCK) cells produce cholecystokinin which promotes secretion
of pancreatic enzymes, causes ejection of bile from gall bladder, and promotes
the feeling of safety
o Thymus Gland
Produces the following hormones
Thymosin, thymic humor factor, thymic factor, and thymopoietin
All promote the proliferation and maturation of T cells of the immune
o Heart
Secretes atrial natriuetic peptide which increases Na+ excretion and water,
thereby reducing blood volume and pressure
o Glands
Produces mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) which increase levels of sodium and
water and decrease levels of potassium in the blood
Produces glucocorticoids which
Increase protein breakdown in muscle fibers
Promote glucose formation in the liver
Provide resistance to stress, depress immune responses
Stimulate anti-inflammatory effects
Adrenal cortex produces androgens which are a source of estrogens after
menopause in females
Adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and norepinephrine that contribute to
the fight or flight response, help in resisting stress, increase blood pressure ,
increase blood flow to the heart, liver, and skeletal muscles, dilates airways to
the lungs, increases blood levels of glucose
o Stomach
Enteroendocrine (G) cells produce gastrin which increases acidity and level of
pepsin in the stomach, relaxes pyloric and ileocecal sphincters, and increases
motility of stomach
o Pancreas
Produces insulin which reduces blood glucose levels
Produces glucagon which increases blood glucose levels
o Ovaries
Produces estrogen and progesterone which help regulate the female
reproductive cycle, regulate oogenesis, maintain pregnancy, promote
development of feminine characteristics
Produces inhibin which inhibits secretion of FSH
Produces relaxin which dilates cervix during childbirth
o Testes
Produces testosterone which regulates spermatogenesis, promotes masculine
Produces inhibin which inhibits secretion of FSH
Explain a neuroendocrine reflex.

Neuroendocrine reflexes literally unite the two regulatory systems of the body, the
nervous and endocrine. Classically, a neuroendocrine reflex begins with a stimulus
received by a nervous system receptor. This initiates an action potential to the CNS for
integration and analysis. Typically, the response is directed to the hypothalamus and a
hormone is secreted from neurosecretory cells.

A classic example is "milk let-down." Infant breast suckling stimulates the decrease in
hypothalamic release of prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH) and the increase of prolactin-
releasing hormone (PRH). PRH stimulates release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary
which, in turn, promotes milk from lactiferous glands in the breast.

The result of a neuroendocrine reflex is a hormonal response to a nervous system


Steroids & Cholesterol

You have already studied that hormones can be either water soluble or lipid soluble.
Steroid hormones fall into the lipid soluble category. Steroid hormones are derived from
cholesterol. Each steroid hormone is unique due to the presence of different chemical
groups attached at various sites on the four rings at the core of its structure. These small
differences allow diverse functions.
Lesson 2: Respiratory System

Interactions Media

Describe the following roles of the respiratory system

o Primary function
The exchange of two gases, oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmospheric
air, blood, and tissues
o Body fluid pH
Regulates body fluid pH
Name the two divisions of the respiratory system
o Conducting and respiratory
Describe the function of the following
o Pleural Membranes
Allow easy movement during ventilation as well as adhere, via pleural fluid, the
exterior of the lungs to the inner wall of the thoracic cavity
o Diaphragm & Intercostal Muscles
Provide the force for normal inspiration
o Lobule Elasticity
Provides much of the force for normal expiration
Is the nasal cavity a part of the conducting or the respiratory portion of the respiratory system?
o Part of the conducting portion because it provides a passageway for air
What is the function of the respiratory epithelium that lines the nasal cavity?
o Filters, warms, and moistens inspired air
The pharynx is also a part of the conducting system and is lined with respiratory epithelium for
the same reason. What is its role in voice?
o Provides a resonating chamber for sounds
Is the larynx part of the conducting or respiratory divisions? Why?
o Provides a passageway for air between the pharynx and the trachea
o Conducting system
Describe larynx function relative to food and water
o Epiglottis prevents food and water from entering the trachea
Describe vocal cord function
o Vocal cords vibrate to produce sound!
Are the trachea and bronchi part of the conducting or respiratory divisions? Why?
o Conducting, still provide passageways
Describe diaphragm function
o Provides much of the motive force for inspiration
Bronchioles serve both respiratory and conducting functions. How?
o Contraction and relaxation regulates air flow to the alveoli (conducting)
o Provide a small amount of gas exchange (respiratory)
Describe the function of the alveolus (Type I) cells
o Allow for gas exchange, the movement of oxygen and CO2 in and out of the blood stream
What is the function of the resident macrophages?
o Prevent invasion of air-borne pathogens
Describe the function of the Septal (Type II) alveolar cells
o Secrete surfactant, a substance reducing the tendency of alveoli to collapse

Name three vital roles of respiratory tissue

o Conditioning air
o Regulating nad maintaining airflow
o Promoting gas exchange
Classify respiratory epithelia
o Ciliated pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
Describe functions of the respiratory epithelium
o Secretes and moves mucus to cleanse, warm, and provide moisture to inspired air
What lines the trachea?
o Respiratory epithelium tissue
What is the function of the hyaline cartilage?
o Keeps the trachea open
What is the function of the smooth muscle in the bronchiole walls?
o Regulates air flow
E-Stax Conceptual

"Nose jobs" have become part of our everyday language. The more formal term rhinoplasty,
however, has not. Briefly describe the process and why it is done.
o Why
a plastic surgery procedure for correcting and reconstructing the form, restoring
the functions, and aesthetically enhancing the nose by resolving nasal trauma
(blunt, penetrating, blast), congenital defect,respiratory impediment, or a failed
primary rhinoplasty
o How
Separate the nasal skin and the soft tissues from the osseo-cartilaginous nasal
framework, correcting them as required for form and function, suturing the
incisions, and applying either a package or a stent, or both, to immobilize the
corrected nose to ensure the proper healing of the incision
Again, everyone knows the symptoms of laryngitis. Briefly describe what happens anatomically.
o Inflammation of the vocal cords, the swelling causes distortion of the air flow and
therefore distortion of resulting sounds
Describe these procedures:
o Tracheostomy - Not going into specific detail, what are the general type(s) of reasons for
performing this procedure?
an opening surgically created through the neck into the trachea(windpipe) to
allow direct access to the breathing tube and is commonly done in an operating
room under general anesthesia. A tube is usually placed through this opening to
provide an airway and to remove secretions from the lungs. Breathing is done
through the tracheostomy tube rather than through the nose and mouth. The
term tracheotomy refers to the incision into the trachea (windpipe) that forms
a temporary or permanent opening, which is called a tracheostomy, however;
the terms are sometimes used interchangeably
To bypass an obstructed upper airway
To clean and remove secretions from the airway
To more easily, and usually more safely, deliver oxygen to the lungs
o Tracheal intubation
Tracheal Intubation is the placement of a flexible plastic tube into the trachea to
maintain an open airway It is performed in critically injured, ill or anesthetized
It is an invasive and extremely uncomfortable medical procedure, intubation is
usually performed after administration of general anesthesia and a
neuromuscular-blocking drug.
o Explain nebulization , including why it is used.
Drug delivery device used to administer medication in the form of a mist inhaled
into the lungs
Commonly used for the treatment of CF, asthma, COPD, and other respiratory
Describe the structure and function of the pleurae
o parietal pleura
Outer layer that connects to the thoracic wall, the mediastinum, and the
o visceral pleura
The layer that is superficial to the lungs, and extends into and lines the lung
o pleural cavity
The space between the visceral and parietal layers
o What is pleurisy?
Inflammation of the pleural layers
Occurs when the two layers become red and inflamed, rubbing against each
other everytime your lungs expand to breathe in air
Most commonly caused due to infections such as pneumonia

Interactions Media

What is the reason for our oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production? Whats gained
out of this process?
o Oxygen is used up and CO2 is generated during the aerobic breakdown glucose and other
fuel molecules in order to produce ATP
What occurs during each of the following processes?
o Ventilation
Moves gases in and out of the lungs
o External Gas Exchange
Movement of gases into and out of the blood (occurs at the lungs)
Blood gases are transported into the lungs (pulmonary circulation)
o Internal Gas Exchange
Movement of gases into and out of the blood (occurs at the tissues)
Blood gases are transported to the organs and tissues throughout the body
(systemic circulation)
Define the following:
o Ventilation
The process of bringing air into and out of the lungs
o Inspiration
Air moves into the lungs
o Expiration
Air moves out of the lungs
Define how lung volume affects pressure and therefore air movement
o Direction of air flow is determined by changing pressures
o Air flows from high to low pressure
Explain what happens to pressure in each of the following situations
o Increasing Volume
Pressure decreases
o Decreasing Volume
Pressure increases
Describe and explain alveolar pressure change as the diaphragm flattens and the intercostal
muscles contract
o Prior to normal inspiration, atmospheric and alveolar air pressures are equal
o Volume of the thoracic cavity increases by increasing length when the diaphragm
flattens and contracts
o Contractions of the external intercostals elevate the ribs and increase volume of the
thoracic cavity by increasing width
o Causes lungs and visceral pleura to be pulled outwards, increasing lung volume
o When atmospheric pressure exceeds alveolar pressure, air moves into the lungs
Why is expiration referred to as a passive process
o Do not require effort
Describe and explain alveolar pressure change as the muscles relax and the lungs recoil
o These both decrease lung volume and increase pressure

Open E-Stax

Describe a pneumothorax.
o A collapsed lung
o Occurs when air leaks into the space between lung and chest wall
o Air pushes on the outside of your lung and makes it collapse, usually only one lobe
Alveolar fluid surface tension accounts for two-thirds of lung elastic recoil (passive exhaling).
Explain the critical role of surfactant and identify its source. Relate its importance to respiratory
distress syndrome in premature infants.
o Substance composed of phospholipids and proteins that reduces the surface tension of
the alveoli. Roaming around the alveolar wall
o Secreted by type II alveolar cells
o Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a breathing disorder that affects newborns. RDS
rarely occurs in full-term infants. The disorder is more common in premature infants
born about 6 weeks or more before their due dates.
o RDS is more common in premature infants because their lungs aren't able to make
enough surfactant (sur-FAK-tant). Surfactant is a liquid that coats the inside of the lungs.
It helps keep them open so that infants can breathe in air once they're born.

o Without enough surfactant, the lungs collapse and the infant has to work hard to
breathe. He or she might not be able to breathe in enough oxygen to support the body's
organs. The lack of oxygen can damage the baby's brain and other organs if proper
treatment isn't given.

o Most babies who develop RDS show signs of breathing problems and a lack of oxygen at
birth or within the first few hours that follow.

Define the following:

Tidal Volume (VT)

o Amount of air that normall enters the lungs during quiet breathing, which is about 500mL
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
o Amount of air you can forcefully exhale past a normal tidal expiration, up to 1200mL for
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
o Produced by a deep inhalation, past a tidal inspiration
o It is the extra volume that can be brought into the lungs during a dforced inspiration
Residual Volume (RV)
o The residual volume keeps the alveoli inflated after exhalation
o The air left in the lungs if you exhale as much air as possible
Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
o Maximum volume of air that the lungs can hold
o Sum of TV, ERV, IRV, and RV
o About 6000mL of air for men and 4200mL for women
Vital Capacity (VC)
o the amount of air a person can move into or out of his or her lungs
o is the sum of all of the volumes except residual volume (TV, ERV, and IRV), which is
between 4000 and 5000 milliliters.
Inspiratory Capacity (IC)
o the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled past a normal tidal expiration
o the sum of the tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume
Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)
o the amount of air that remains in the lung after a normal tidal expiration
o it is the sum of expiratory reserve volume and residual volume
Spirometry - Watch the video and record what "spirometry" is in your Learning Journal
o Measures lung volumes and capacities
o Nose clips and breathe into sealed tube
o Breathe normally then take a deep breath in, then exhale slowly or quickly
Anatomical Dead Space
o air that is present in the airway that never reaches the alveoli and therefore never
participates in gas exchange
Alveolar Dead Space
o air found within alveoli that are unable to function, such as those affected by disease or
abnormal blood flow
Total Dead Space
o anatomical dead space and alveolar dead space together
o represents all of the air in the respiratory system that is not being used in the gas
exchange process
Respiratory Rate
o the total number of breaths, or respiratory cycles, that occur each minute.
o Respiratory rate can be an important indicator of disease, as the rate may increase or
decrease during an illness or in a disease condition
o The respiratory rate is controlled by the respiratory center located within the medulla
oblongata in the brain, which responds primarily to changes in carbon dioxide, oxygen,
and pH levels in the blood.
o The normal respiratory rate of a child decreases from birth to adolescence. A child under
1 year of age has a normal respiratory rate between 30 and 60 breaths per minute, but
by the time a child is about 10 years old, the normal rate is closer to 18 to 30. By
adolescence, the normal respiratory rate is similar to that of adults, 12 to 18 breaths per

Respiratory Rate x Tidal Volume (VT) = Minute Respiration

o air moved in and out in 60 seconds.
Alveolar Ventilation Rate (AVR)
o Minute ventilation values provide a rough yardstick for assessing respiratory efficiency,
but the alveolar ventilation rate is a better index of effective ventilation. The AVR takes
into account the volume of air wasted in the dead space and measures the flow of fresh
gases in and out of the alveoli during a particular time interval. AVR = frequency
(breaths/min) x VT - dead space.
o AVR drops dramatically during rapid shallow breathing because most of the inspired air
never reaches the exchange sites.
o As tidal volume approaches the dead space value, effective ventilation approaches zero
regardless of how fast a person is breathing.
o A person has a tidal volume of 525 ml, dead air space of 220 ml, and is breathing at a rate
of 10 breaths per minute. Explain in your Learning Journal why alveolar ventilation is
3050 ml/min.
Minimal volume
o The air remaining if the thoracic cavity is opened and intrapleural pressure rises to equal
atmospheric pressure and forces out some of the residual volume.
o Minimal volume provides a medical and legal tool for determining whether a baby is born
dead (stillborn) or died after birth.
o The presence of minimal volume can be demonstrated by placing a piece of lung in water
and observing if it floats. Fetal lungs contain no air so the lung of a stillborn baby will not
float in water.

Interactions Media
Describe the respiratory system role with oxygen and carbon dioxide
o Uses up oxygen and generates CO2
o Responsible for the movement of these two metabolic gases
Why is oxygen needed
What generates CO2?
Define the three important continuous physiological processes that are responsible for the
movement and CO2
o Ventilation
o Gas Exchange
o Gas Transport
Explain the correlation between gas pressure and concentration
o With a compartment, gas exerts a pressure that is proportional to the concentration of
that gas
o Bigger concentration, greater pressure
o Move from high to low pressure
Define partial pressure
o The individual pressure that a gas exerts that is proportional to the concentration of that
gas within the mixture
Describe how partial pressure determines movement of specific gas molecules in a mixture
o Gas moves from a higher pressure/concentration to a lower pressure/concentration
Why would oxygen diffuse into this blood while CO2 diffuses out?
o Because the concentrations are different
Contrast External and Internal respiration
o External respiration is the gas exchange that occurs between capillaries and alveoli
o Internal respiration is the gas exchange that occurs between the blood and systemic cell
Define external respiration
What is the critical function of ventilation
Contrast PO2 in the lungs (alveoli) and in the surrounding blood capillaries
o PO2 in the lungs is high and low in the surrounding blood capillaries
Contrast the PCO2 in the lungs (alveoli) and in the surrounding blood capillaries
o PCO2 in the lungs is low and high in the surrounding blood capillaries
Gas diffusion is dependent upon the partial pressure of gases Explain the movement of the
following gasses between lung alveoli and blood capillaries as a function of their relative partial
pressures in each location
o Oxygen
Moves out of the lungs/alveoli and into the blood
o CO2
Moves into the lungs/alveoli from the blood
Define internal respiration
Contrast the P02 in the blood capillaries and in the cells of the surrounding tissues
o PO2 Is high in the blood capillaries and low in the cells of tissues
Contrast the PCO2 in the blood capillaries and in the cells of the surrounding tissues
o PCO2 is low in the blood capillaries and high in the cells of tissues
Explain the movement of the following gases between blood capillaries and tissue cells as a
function of their relative partial pressures in each location
o Oxygen
Moves into the tissues from the blood
o CO2
Moves into the blood from the tissues

Interactions Media

Summarize blood's role with regard to transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide
o Blood is the medium used for gas transport throughout the body
Contrast the two ways oxygen is transported in blood
o Dissolved in blood plasma
Not very soluble, only a small percentage is transported this way
o Bonded to hemoglobin
o 98.5%
Almost all oxygen is transported bound to hemoglobin in RBCs
Hemoglobin consists of four polypeptide chains
Each chain contains an iron bearing heme group that binds to a single oxygen
Describe the important role of the heme groups within each hemoglobin molecule
Define each of the following
o Deoxyhemoglobin
Hemoglobin without a bonded oxygen
o Oxyhemoglobin
Hemoglobin that is associated with oxygen
What is the oxygen association reaction that occurs in the lungs?
o O2+HB-H --> Hb-O2+H+
What is the oxygen dissociation reaction that occurs at the tissue cells?
o H+ + HB-O2 --> HB-H + O2
Name the factors that affect hemoglobin's saturation with oxygen. Once completely saturated,
the molecule is called oxyhemoglobin
o A greater number of oxygen molecules binding to hemoglobin increases the saturation of
o Factors that affect this
A chemical called BPG
Hemoglobin Type
PO2 is a primary factor influencing the degree of hemoglobin saturation. Explain how PO2 in the
lungs and tissue cells determines whether oxygen binding or dissociation occurs with hemoglobin
o Blood in vessels coming from the lungs is very high in PO2 so saturation is high
o Blood near skeletal muscle is very low in PO2 so saturation is low
Describe the Bohr Effect
o The ability of hemoglobin to carry oxygen in acidic blood is decreased
o Increased metabolic acids enhance dissociation of oxyhemoglobin
In contrast to the Bohr Effect how does elevated pH affect hemoglobin's oxygen affinity?
o Elevated pH increases the affinity of O2 to hemoglobin, therefore lowering the unloading
of O2 to tissue cells
Actively metabolizing cells aerobically use oxygen and produce carbon dioxide. Describe how
increasing levels of blood CO2 affect hemoglobin's oxygen affinity. Where in the body does this
o Effect of PC02 is similar to the effect of pH
o Carbon dioxide gas is temporarily converted to carbonic acid in the RBCs and then to
hydrogen and bicarbonate ions
o Result of increased carbon dioxide is decreased pH and the Bohr Effect
Explain CO2's effect on oxygen loading in the alveolar spaces
o Decreased CO2 here increases affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen and promotes oxygen
Describe how body temperature affects O2 association with hemoglobin
o Limited effect
o Elevated temperatures near metabolically active cells increases thermal motion of
molecules which promotes dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin
Explain the effect of BPG on O2 association with hemoglobin
o RBCs do not have mitochondria, only use glyclosis to generate ATP
o BPG (byproduct of glycolysis)accumulates in red blood cells in low oxygen situations
o Thyroxine, human growth hormone, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and testosterone can
increase the production of BPG
o Higher BPG levels = increased unloading of O2 from the cells
Name the three ways CO2 can be transported by the blood and the percentage for each
o 70% As bicarbonate ions in the plasma
o 23% Bound to hemoglobin
o 7% As a dissolved gas in the plasma
Explain carbaminohemoglobin formation and function
o Some carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin this way
o Formed near metabolically active cells, disassociates near lungs
o Diffuses out of blood cell, into plasma, enters alveolar air space
o Formation:
CO2 + Hb --> HB-CO2
Explain bicarbonate ion formation and how it is used to transport carbon dioxide
o Diffuses into blood cells, converted to bicarbonate
o CO2 + H2O --> H2CO3 --> HCO3- + H+
o As levels of CO2 increase, production of bicarbonate ions increases
o Bicarbonate ions diffuse out of the RBC into the plasma
Define the chloride shift and explain why it occurs
o Negatively charged chloride ions move into the cell to balance the movement of the
negatively charged bicarbonate ions out of the cell
o Chloride shift maintains the electrical balance in the red blood cell
Open E-Stax

Hypoxia - In general, what is hypoxia?

o Diminished availability of oxygen to body tissues
Hypoxia is described by its causes. Describe the cause of these four forms:
o anemic hypoxia
Due to reduction of the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood as a result of a
decrease in the total hemoglobin or an alteration of the hemoglobin constituents
o ischemic (stagnant) hypoxia
Due to the failure to transport sufficient oxygen because of inadequate blood flow
(e.g. heart failure)
o histotoxic hypoxia
Due to impaired utilization of oxygen by tissues (e.g. cyanide poisoning)
o hypoxemic hypoxia
Due to insufficient oxygen reaching the blood (e.g. high altitudes)
How does carbon monoxide poisoning occur?
o Normally when a person breathes fresh air into the lungs, the oxygen in the air binds with
a molecule called hemoglobin(Hb) that is found in red blood cells. This allows oxygen to
be moved from the lungs to every part of the body.
o When the oxygen/hemoglobin complex reaches a muscle where it is needed, the oxygen
is released. Because the oxygen binding process is reversible, hemoglobin can be used
over and over again to pick up oxygen and move it throughout the body.
o Inhaling carbon monoxide gas interferes with this oxygen transport system. In the lungs,
CO competes with oxygen to bind with the hemoglobin molecule.
o Hemoglobin prefers CO to oxygen and accepts it more than 200 times more readily than
it accepts oxygen. Not only does the hemoglobin prefer CO, it holds on to the CO much
more tightly, forming a complex called carboxyhemoglobin (COHb). As a person breathes
CO contaminated air, more and more oxygen transportation sites on the hemoglobin
molecules become blocked by CO.
o Gradually, there are fewer and fewer sites available for oxygen. All cells need oxygen to
live. When they don't get enough oxygen, cellular metabolism is disrupted and eventually
cells begin to die.

o Define each of the following breathing patterns:
Quiet breathing
Occurs subconciously
diaphragmatic breathing
Deep breathing
Requires the diaphragm to contract
costal breathing
Shallow breathing
Requires the intercostal muscles to contract
Forced breathing
Both inspiration and expiration must occur due to muscle contractions
In addition to the contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles,
other accessory muscles must also contract.
During forced inspiration, muscles of the neck, including the scalenes,
contract and lift the thoracic wall, increasing lung volume. During forced
expiration, accessory muscles of the abdomen, including the obliques,
contract, forcing abdominal organs upward against the diaphragm.
This helps to push the diaphragm further into the thorax, pushing more
air out. In addition, accessory muscles (primarily the internal intercostals)
help to compress the rib cage, which also reduces the volume of the
thoracic cavity
o The rhythmicity area of the medulla oblongata controls the basic rhythm of respiration.
Explain the respiratory function of these parts:
dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
Integrates input from the stretch receptors and the chemoreceptors in
the periphery
ventral respiratory group (VRG) - Remember, quiet expiration is passive so the
VRG does its job outside of this.
Generates the breathing rhythm and integrates data coming into the
o Explain the respiratory function of these parts of the pons:
apneustic center
a double cluster of neuronal cell bodies that stimulate neurons in the
DRG, controlling the depth of inspiration, particularly for deep breathing
pneumotaxic center
a network of neurons that inhibits the activity of neurons in the DRG,
allowing relaxation after inspiration, and thus controlling the overall rate
o Explain how a central chemoreceptor and a peripheral chemoreceptor work to monitor
blood gas content (note it is NOT oxygen that is being monitored) and how this affects
the brain respiration centers to maintain homeostasis.
A central chemoreceptor is one of the specialized receptors that are located in
the brain and brainstem, whereas a peripheral chemoreceptor is one of the
specialized receptors located in the carotid arteries and aortic arch.
Concentration changes in certain substances, such as carbon dioxide or hydrogen
ions, stimulate these receptors, which in turn signal the respiratory centers of
the brain. In the case of carbon dioxide, as the concentration of CO2 in the blood
increases, it readily diffuses across the blood-brain barrier, where it collects in
the extracellular fluid. As will be explained in more detail later, increased carbon
dioxide levels lead to increased levels of hydrogen ions, decreasing pH.
The increase in hydrogen ions in the brain triggers the central chemoreceptors to
stimulate the respiratory centers to initiate contraction of the diaphragm and
intercostal muscles.
As a result, the rate and depth of respiration increase, allowing more carbon
dioxide to be expelled, which brings more air into and out of the lungs promoting
a reduction in the blood levels of carbon dioxide, and therefore hydrogen ions, in
the blood.
In contrast, low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood cause low levels of
hydrogen ions in the brain, leading to a decrease in the rate and depth of
pulmonary ventilation, producing shallow, slow breathing.
How do these chemoreceptors override our ability to "hold our breath" which
results in rapid carbon dioxide and hydrogen ion accumulation?
o Describe how each of the following contribute to respiratory regulation.
hypothalamic/limbic system stimulation
strong emotions
o Results in increase in respiratory rate
o Increase?
o Increase in body temp causes increase in respiratory rate
o Define each of the following and describe their significance:
A condition of abnormally elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood
Triggers a reflec which increases breathing and access to oxygen
A state of reduced carbon dioxide in the blood
Results from deep or rapid breathing, known as hyperventilation
The cessation of breathing
Can occur during sleep (sleep apnea)
Central (decreased sensitivity to rising CO2 levels)
Obstructive (obstruction in the air passage)
o Explain how and why each of the following occur:
nitrogen narcosis
Anesthetic effect of certain gases at high pressures
Reversible alteration of LOC
Gas dissolving into nerve membranes and causing temporary disruption
of nerve transmissions
Acute mountain sickness
Caused by low oxygen partial pressure at high elevations
CO2 has a high diffusion out and O2 has a low diffusion into the blood
Interactions Media

Structures that control respiration

o Monitor blood gas and pH
o Send sensory signals along glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves to respiratory control
Glossopharyngeal nerve
o Sends sensory signals to the respiratory control center
Vagus nerve
o Sends sensory signals to the respiratory control center
Respiratory control center
o Determines the basic rhythmic breathing pattern
o Ventilation rate can be altered by a variety of factors including emotions, voluntary
control from cerebral cortex, blood gas, pH levels, and exercise
o Sends motor signals along the neurons of the spinal nerves to the striated muscles of
inspiration and expiration as well as along the neurons of the vagus and several
sympathetic thoracic nerves to the smooth muscles regulating the lumen diameter of
Intercostal and Phrenic nerves
o Cause intercostal muscles to contract
o Cause diaphragm to contract

Interactions Media

What regulates this continuous cycle of normal ventilation

o Various regions of the brain
Medullary rhythmicity area
Inspiratory area
Expiratory area
Apneustic area
Pneumotaxic area
Explain the role of inspiratory and expiratory areas of the brain
o During normal breathing, only inspiratory area is active
o During forced breathing, both areas are active
What is a spirogram
o Monitors air flow
o Upward deflection is inspiration
o Downward deflection is expiration
Describe inspiration stimulation by the inspiratory area of the brain
o Normal breathing, spontaneously generated by inspiratory area in medulla
o Impulses stimulate inspiratory muscles (diaphragm and external intercostals)
o Inspiratory muscles contract and air moves into the lungs
o After about two seconds, impulses from the inspiratory area cease and inspiratory
muscles relax
Describe passive expiration
o 3 seconds after inspiration, nothing is stimulated therefore the muscles relax and
expiration results
Explain the role of accessory inspiratory muscles and how they are stimulated during f inspiration
o Inspiratory activates expiratory muscles (internal intercostals and abdominal muscles)
o Expiration muscles contract, resulting in forced expiration
o Sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles contract
Explain stimulation and the role of the expiratory area during forced expiration
Describe how each of the following parts of the pons modifies ventilation rate
o Pneumotaxic
Inhibits medullary rhytmicity area
Shortens inspiration phase
Results in short rapid breathing
o Apneustic
Stimulates inspiration phase
Results in slower, deeper breathing
Prolongs the inspiration phase
Describe how the hypothalamus contributes to ventilation regulation
o Stimulates centers that then stimulate the respiratory centers in the pons, medulla,
altering the ventilation rate
Describe how the cerebral cortex supplies a limited levels of respiratory control
o Impulses from the cerebral cortex can bypass the respiratory centers in the pons and
o Allows us to consciously alter breathing patterns
Why is cortical control essential?
What is the function of chemoreceptors in the central and peripheral nervous systems
o Monitor blood pH, CO2 and O2 levels
o Changes in frequency of impulses from chemoreceptors affect respiratory rate
Describe the respiratory response to increasing CO2 and H+ as detected by chemoreceptors
o Increased impulses from chemoreceptors stimulate the inspiratory area in the medullary
rhythmicity area
o Excitation of the inspiratory area increases respiratory rate
Define hyperventilation
o Greater intensity of rate and depth of breathing
How do these adjustments contribute to homeostasis?
o Removes CO2, increases pH, increases oxygen inflow, returning values to normal
Describe the respiratory response to decreasing CO2 and H+ as detected by chemoreceptors
o Decreased impulses from chemoreceptors stimulates the inspiratory area LESS in the
medullary rhythmicity area
Define hypoventilation
o Decreased rate and depth of breathing
How do these adjustments contribute to homeostasis

Lesson 3: Digestive System

Contrast the two groups of digestive system organs

o Gastrointestinal Tract (GI)
A continuous tube from the mouth to the anus
Function is to digest food, absorb nutrients, eliminate waste
o Accessory Organs
Aid the digestive system in its functioning
What is the function of saliva?
o Lubricate, dissolve, and begin the chemical digestion process
Name five liver functions
o Metabolizes carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins
o Synthesizes bile used in the digestion and absorption of dietary fats and cholesterol in the
small intestine
o Maintains normal blood glucose levels
o Produces blood proteins
o Stores certain vitamins and minerals until needed by the body
What is the function of the gallbladder?
o Stores and concentrates bile
Describe the functions of oral cavity structures
o Provide a mechanism of manipulating and masticating food
o Incisors cut up food
o Canines hold and tear food
o Molars crush and grind food
Describe peristalsis and its function
o A progression of coordinated contractions and relaxations
o Propels food down the esophagus to the stomach
Describe chemical digestion in the stomach
o Gastric juices are secreted
Describe mechanical digestion in the stomach
o Macerates and mixes food with the gastric juices (water, digestive enzymes, and
hydrochloric acid) changing it to chyme , propels chyme forward into the duodenum of
the small intestine
Describe the function of pancreatic juice
o Includes digestive enzymes for digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, and
triglycerides in the small intestine
o Produces bicarbonate ions to neutralize acidic chyme from the stomach
Describe the function of pancreatic bicarbonate
o Neutralizes acidic chyme from the stomach
Describe large intestine function
o Feces, solid wastes, are formed from remaining chyme and defecated
Describe each of the following small intestine functions
o Mechanical digestion
Through local contractions, mixes chyme with digestive juices
o Chemical digestion
Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids completed here
o Absorption surface
Provides primary surface for absorption of above nutrients as well as vitamins,
minerals, and water

Interactions Media Digestive System Histology

Describe the general functions of digestive system histology (liver and pancreas, too)
o Liver produces bile, which is used to emulsify, or disperse, fat molecules
Hepatocytes, bile duct, hepatic portal vein, hepatic artery, central vein, sinusoids
o Pancreas produces digestive enzymes for carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic
acids. Also produces bicarbonate to neutralize gastric acid in the intestine.
Pancreas, duodenum, acinar cells, pancreatic ducts, islets of Langerhans cells
Name the four layers of the GI tract from deep to superficial
o Mucosa
o Submucosa
o Muscularis
o Serosa
What is the function of the enteric nervous system?
o Control digestive activities
What is the function of secrets and bicarbonate?
o Bicarbonate neutralizes acidic chyme from stomach
o Pancreatic enzymes digest carbs, proteins, nucleic acids, and trigylcerides
Describe the primary function of large intestine mucosa?
o To absorb water and secrete mucus
Describe the function of large intestinal mucus?
o Used to lubricate the movement of feces through the organ
Determine blood flow to the hepatic vein
o Blood goes from the hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein, through the sinusoids, to the
central vein
What is the function of bile?
o Used to emulsify, or disperse, fat molecules
o Bile flows into the bile ducts
What is the function of the stratified squamous epithelium that lines the esophagus?
o Protects the esophagus from abrasion from food particles
What is the function of the muscularis layers?
o Provides a propulsive movement that moves food into the stomach
What functions are served by the stomach mucosa?
o Secrete enzymes and gastric acid to promote digestion, hormones to regulate digestive
activities and copious amounts of mucus to provide water for digestion as well as
protection from gastric acid
What is the function of the stomach muscularis?
o Provides movements to mix food and propel the resultant chyme to the small intestine
What is the primary function of the small intestine?
o Primary digestive organ, responsible for most digestion and absorption of nutrients
What is the function of the mucosa?
o Cells of the mucosa secrete mucus and hormones
o Enzymes are embedded in the membranes of the mucosal cells

Interactions Media

Describe the peritoneuma broad serous membranous sac made up of squamous epithelial
tissue surrounded by connective tissue that holds in places the digestive organs within the
abdominal cavity
o parietal peritoneum
lines the abdominal wall
o visceral peritoneum
envelopes the abdominal organs
o peritoneal cavity
the space bounded by the visceral and parietal peritoneal surfaces
A few milliliters of watery fluid act as a lubricant to minimize friction between the
serosal surfaces of the peritoneum
Define retroperitoneal
o during fetal development, certain digestive structures, including the first portion of the
small intestine (called the duodenum), the pancreas, and portions of the large intestine
(the ascending and descending colon, and the rectum) remain completely or partially
posterior to the peritoneum
o Thus, the location of these organs is described as retroperitoneal.
Describe these peritoneal folds:
o greater omentum
apron-like structure that lies superficial to the small intestine and transverse
colon; a site of fat deposition in people who are overweight
o lesser omentum
suspends the stomach from the inferior border of the liver; provides a pathway for
structures connecting to the liver
o mesentery
vertical band of tissue anterior to the lumbar vertebrae and anchoring all of the
small intestine except the initial portion (the duodenum)
o mesocolon
attaches two portions of the large intestine (transverse and sigmoid colon) to the
posterior abdominal wall
What is peritonitis?
o Inflammation of the peritoneum

Interactions Media

Define the gastrointestinal tract (GI)

o Series of organs which food passes through starting from the mouth to the anus where
nutrients are absorbed and waste is eliminated
Identify three mechanical digestion activities
o Mastication
o Peristalsis
o Segmentation
Name two feedback loops that regulate digestive system smooth muscle responsible for
propulsive and mixing movement
o Hormonal feedback loops and neural feedback loops
Identify three neural systems that control the mechanical movements in the GI tract
o CNS reflexes
o ANS (long) reflexes
o ENS (local) reflexes
Describe the role of the CNS with regard to swallowing. What is the stimulus?
o The CNS controls voluntary swallowing movements. The presence of food is the stimulus
for voluntary digestive movements.
What are the components of the ANS (long) neural reflexes?
o A CNS control center in the spinal cord and the brain
What is the stimulus for ANS regulation?
o Distention for many involuntary digestive movements
What do ANS neurons regulate with regard to mechanical digestion? What are the possible
o They regulate involuntary smooth muscular movements
o The response is either increased or decreased contraction of the muscularis
Where are enteric nervous system plexuses located?
o They are embedded in the wall of the GI tract
o Control involuntary movement of the muscularis
Define and describe the events of mastication
o A voluntary process, regulated by the CNS and performed by the muscles above and
below the mandible
o Skeletal muscles elevate the mandible, closing the mouth and moving the mandible side
to side to chew
o During chewing, food is
Cut and ground by teach
Manipulated by the tongue, lips, and cheeks
Pushed toward the oropharynx
Define deglutition
o During the voluntary stage the tongue pushes the food bolus into the oropharynx
o During the involuntary pharyngeal stage the bolus is moved through the laryngopharynx
into the esophagus
o During the involuntary esophageal stage, the bolus travels down the esophagus via
Describe each stage of deglutition
o Voluntary stage in the mouth
o Involuntary pharyngeal
o Involuntary esophageal
Describe peristaltic movement
o The wave-like movement of contractions and relaxations that propels the food down the
GI tract
o Sphincters regulate the movement of food down the esophagus to the stomach
Explain the role of stomach stretch receptors
o Stretch receptors activate enteric reflexes that promote peristaltic movements
What is the function of stomach mixing waves
o They mix the food with stomach secretions
o Force the digesting food (chyme) toward and through the pyloric sphincter
o Most food does not exit, so it moves back and forth in a churning digestive motion
Describe the role of the parasympathetic nervous system relative to digestive movements
o Stimulates the digestive movements in the stomach
What are three functions of the enterogastric reflex?
o Triggered when more and more chyme leaves the stomach, distending the stretch
o Inhibits excessive amounts of chyme entering the duodenum
o Reduces intestinal cell erosion by limiting inflow of gastric acid
o Increases duration of digestion of chyme before it is moved to the small intestine
Determine if these motor impulses are sympathetic or parasympathetic
o Motor impulses are sympathetic
Describe segmentation and its effect
o Distension of the stretch receptors in the small intestine activates a reflex that stimulates
segmentation, a mixing movement
o During segmentation, sections of the intestine are constricted
o This movement increases digestion and absorption in the small intestine
o There is no net movement of chyme
Describe migrating motility complexes
o Peristaltic movements stimulated by a decrease in distension once most nutrients have
been absorbed
o Propel undigested and liquefied chyme toward the ileocecal valve
The ileocecal valve is normally closed. Explain the role of the gastroileal reflex.
o Normally closed so that chyme does not enter the large intestine
o Gastroileal reflex triggered when food enters and distends the stomach
o Migrating motility complexes are intensified by this reflex, forcing chyme through the
ileocecal valve into the cecum
What ultimately stimulates closing of the ileocecal valve?
o As the cecum becomes filled and distends, a local reflex causes
Closure of the cecal valve
Activation of haustral churning
Describe houstral churning and its function
o Mixes the chyme, which helps absorption of water, salts, and vitamins
o Haustral churning propels the contents of the colon along the large intestine
Describe the gastrocolic reflex and explain its function
o Also triggered when food enters and distends the stomach
o Intensifies strong mass peristalsis movements that force feces into the recturm
What is the function of rectal stretch receptors?
o To activate the defecation reflex
o They are triggered by the filling of the rectum
Describe the ANS pathway that regulates the defecation reflex
o Sensory impulses are sent to the control center in the spinal cord
o Parasympathetic impulses travel down the spinal sacral nerves
Describe the defecation reflex responses to parasympathetic reflexes
o Longitudinal contractions
Contractions of the rectum that force feces into the anal canal
o Internal anal sphincter
Relax the internal anal sphincter, allowing the feces to move toward the external
anal sphincter
o External anal sphincter
Voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter allows defecation to be

Interactions Media: Introduction to Chemical Digestion

Explain the function of chemical digestion

o Breaks down food as it moves through the digestive tract
What is the general function of digestive enzymes
o Enzymes reduce food particles into nutrient molecules that can be absorbed
Identify other chemicals needed for digestion
o Water
o Bile
o Gastric acid
o Bicarbonate
Hydrolysis is the breakdown of larger molecules to form smaller molecules. Water molecules are
used in this process
o Define substrate
Large nutrient molecules
Molecules on which an enzyme acts
o Define products
Smaller nutrient molecules
The end result after hydrolysis
Analyze the reaction shown
o Identify the enzyme
o Identify the substrate
o Identify the products
Amino acids
Glucose and Fructose
As you have just seen, water molecules are important to hydrolytic reactions critical to digestion.
Describe other critical water uses.
o Liquefaction and Transport
Liquefy digestive food stuffs to be transported down the tract
o Secretion Transport
Transports secretions from accessory digestive organs to gastrointestinal tract
o Nutrient Absorption
Aids in the absorption of nutrients
The stomach produces hydrochloric acid. How is HCl critical to the following?
o Pepsin (a gastric enzyme)
Breaks down hydrogen bonds and alters the globular shape of proteins to
promote production of pepsin
o Proteins
HCl is critical to the destruction of microbial proteins
o Enzymes more easily break down the resulting polypeptide into smaller peptides
Describe the following regarding bile
o Source (organ)
Produced by the liver
o Molecular Structure
Bile salts (from cholesterol) and water
o Primary function
Emulsification of fatty globules
o Emulsification need
Facilitates efficient break down of fat molecules by lipase enzymes
Describe bicarbonate functions
o Intestinal protections
Buffers the acidic chyme from the stomach and protect intestinal mucosa
o Intestinal enzymes
Promote an alkaline pH level in the small intestine to create a proper
environment for intestinal enzymes to function normally

Interactions Media: Carb Digestion and Absorption

Generally describe how the following are involved with digestion

o Amylases
Produced by the salivary glands and pancreas
Amylase from the parotid and submandibular salivary glands begins carb
o Brush-border Enzymes
Produced by small intestines

Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?
o In the mouth, by amylase
What enzyme and glands are involved?
o Amylase and salivary glands
How does salivary amylase affect starch and glycogen (two complex carbs)?
o Amylase converts starch and glycogen to
Maltose (disaccharide)
Maltotriose (trisaccharide)
Alpha-dextrins (starch fragments)
Why are only a few starch or glycogen molecules completely digested to maltose (a simple sugar)
by the time they enter the stomach?
o The stomachs acidic pH destroys salivary amylase
How does the pancreas contribute to carbohydrate digestion?
o Secretes amylase into the duodenum
Where does pancreatic amylase do its work? How has the pH been adjusted so this enzyme is
o In the duodenum
o Bicarbonate neutralizes gastric acid so that amylase can continue to breakdown starches
and glycogen into maltose, maltotriose, and alpha-dextrins
How do we digest cellulose (a complex plant carb)?
o Amylase has no effect
o It becomes indigestible fiber that aids in the smooth working of the GI tract
o Animals have bacteria that live in the intestine that break down cellulose
Where is carb digestion completed?
o In microvilli of the small intestine, in brush border epithelial cells
Four brush-border enzymes are involved in completing carb digestion. Describe what each of
them achieve
o Alpha-dextinase
Breaks down alpha-dextrin chains by removing glucose units
o Sucrase
Breaks sucrose into glucose and fructose
o Maltase
Breaks maltose into maltotriose into glucose
o Lactase
Breaks lactose into glucose and galactose
Specifically, what is absorbed into the blood following carb digestion?
o Glucose, fructose, and galactose
o As monosaccharides
Specifically, where does the absorption occur?
o Capillaries of the villi
Describe facilitated transport of the monosaccharide fructose
o Transports fructose from lumen into epithelial cells of intestinal villi
o Transports monosaccharides out of epithelial cells into the interstitial fluid
o The monosaccharide eventually diffuses into the blood stream without using ATP in the
Describe secondary active transport of glucose and galactose
o Transports glucose and galactose into epithelial cells of intestinal villi
o Couples transport of glucose or galactose with that of sodium ions
o Transports materials in the same direction down the concentration gradient for at least
one substance
Facilitated diffusion (transport) finishes glucose and galactose absorption into the blood. Explain.

Interactions Media: Protein Digestion and Absorption

Where does protein digestion occur?

o Stomach and small intestine
What is the role of pepsin?
o Initiates the process
What is the role of pancreatic and brush border enzymes?
o Completes the digestive process
How does HCl affect pepsinogen?
o Pepsin is created from pepsinogen in the presence of pH-lowing HCl
How do pepsin molecules affect pepsinogen molecules (catalysis)?
o Newly produced pepsin molecules then catalyze the production of more pepsin
How does pepsin affect protein molecules?
o Break down proteins into peptides
Where does chyme interact with pancreatic juice?
o In the duodenum
Name the enzymes mixed in pancreatic juice
o Trypsin
o Chymotrypsin
o Elastase
o carboxypeptidase
What is the function of trypsin, chymotrypsin, and elastase
o Help break down larger peptides into smaller peptides
What is the function of carboxypeptidase?
o Breaks the blond between the terminal amino acid and the carboxyl end of the peptide
Protein digestion is completed in the brush border. What is the function of these two brush
border enzymes?
o Aminopeptidase
Breaks peptide bond that attaches terminal amino acid to the amino end of the
o Dipeptidase
Splits dipeptides into single amino acids
Specify the end products of protein digestion
o Amino acids
o Dipeptides
o tripeptides
Where are amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides absorbed?
o At the intestinal villus
Identify the three mechanisms responsible for absorption
o Active transport
o Sodium-dependent secondary active transport
o H+-dependent secondary active transport
Briefly describe each of the following mechanisms responsible for transporting digested proteins
o Active Transport
Most amino acids enter this way

o Sodium-Dependent Secondary Active Transport
Some enter this way
o H+ Dependent Secondary Active Transport
Dipeptides and tripeptides leave this way
What happens to the peptides once they are within the epithelial cells?
o Hydrolyzed to single amino acids inside of the epithelial cells
Describe the last stage of protein absorption. How do the amino acid molecules get from inside
the epithelial cells to the blood capillaries of the villus?
o Amino acids diffuse out of the epithelial cells, through the interstitial fluid, and enter the
blood capillaries of the villus
Open E-Stax: The Stomach

Gastric Secretion: Identify the three phases of gastric secretion and using one sentence each,
describe what happens.
o Cephalic Phase
Relatively brief, takes place before food enters the stomach. The smell, taste,
sight, or thought of food triggers this phase.
For example, when you bring a piece of sushi to your lips, impulses from
receptors in your taste buds or the nose are relayed to your brain, which returns
signals that increase gastric secretion to prepare your stomach for digestion.
This enhanced secretion is a conditioned reflex, meaning it occurs only if you like
or want a particular food. Depression and loss of appetite can suppress the
cephalic reflex.
o Gastric Phase
Lasts 3 to 4 hours, and is set in motion by local neural and hormonal mechanisms
triggered by the entry of food into the stomach.
For example, when your sushi reaches the stomach, it creates distention that
activates the stretch receptors.
This stimulates parasympathetic neurons to release acetylcholine, which then
provokes increased secretion of gastric juice.
Partially digested proteins, caffeine, and rising pH stimulate the release of gastrin
from enteroendocrine G cells, which in turn induces parietal cells to increase
their production of HCl, which is needed to create an acidic environment for the
conversion of pepsinogen to pepsin, and protein digestion.
Additionally, the release of gastrin activates vigorous smooth muscle
contractions. However, it should be noted that the stomach does have a natural
means of avoiding excessive acid secretion and potential heartburn. Whenever
pH levels drop too low, cells in the stomach react by suspending HCl secretion
and increasing mucous secretions.
o Intestinal Phase
Has both excitatory and inhibitory elements
The duodenum has a major role in regulating the stomach and its emptying.
When partially digested food fills the duodenum, intestinal mucosal cells release
a hormone called intestinal (enteric) gastrin, which further excites gastric juice
This stimulatory activity is brief, however, because when the intestine distends
with chyme, the enterogastric reflex inhibits secretion.
One of the effects of this reflex is to close the pyloric sphincter, which blocks
additional chyme from entering the duodenum.
Near the end of this reference chapter under "Chemical Digestion" is a paragraph that suggests
there is only one life essential function for the stomach and its not even protein digestion. Explain
why they make this supposition.
o Because without red blood cells and normal neurological functioning, we would die

Interactions Media Lipid Digestion and Absorption

Where does lipid digestion take place?
o Primarily in the small intestine
Define lipases.
o Enzymes that break down triglycerides and phospholipids
Explain the function of lingual and gastric lipases.
o Hydrolyze a small amount of triglycerides
o End products are fatty acids and monoglycerides
Triglycerides interact with bile salts and pancreatic juice in the duodenum. Describe the effect
these secretions have on the triglyceride droplets.
o Bile salts cling to mono, di, and triglycerides of fat globules
o The breakup of the fat globules results in triglyceride emulsion droplets
Describe how triglycerides are affected by pancreatic lipase
o Pancreatic lipase produced by pancreatic acinar cells
o Catalyzes the breakup of triglyceride molecules into monoglycerides and fatty acids
o Breaks down most triglycerides in the duodenum of the small intestine
Identify the end products of triglyceride digestion
o Fatty acids and monoglycerides
Identify the need for bile salts
o They form micelles
What is the function of micelles?
o Ferry fatty acids and monoglycerides to epithelial cells
o Free fatty acids, monoglycerides, and some phospholipids and cholesterol moledcules,
diffuse freely into epithelial cells
o Micelles diffuse back into the chyme and continue transporting end products
What are chylomicrons and how are they released from the cell?
o Triglycerides then aggregate with phospholipids and cholesterol to form chylomicrons
o Chylomicrons are then coated with proteins and leave the epithelial cell via exocytosis
Explain how chylomicrons enter the bloodstream
o Enter lacteals, travel through lymphatic vessels and enter the bloodstream at the left
subclavian vein
What happens to chylomicrons once they enter the blood stream?
o Quickly removed from the blood and broken down by lipoprotein lipase in capillary
endothelial cells in the liver and adipose tissue

Interactions Media: Nucleic Acid Digestion and Absorption

Where does nucleic acid digestion take place?
o Small intestine
What enzymes are involved?
o Pancreatic nucleases
o Brush border enzymes in the small intestine
Describe nucleic acid condition in the stomach
o Enter the small intestine dissolved in gastric chyme
o As it enters the duodenum, pancreatic juice also delivers two nucleases
What is the source of two nuclease enzymes that are added to chyme entering the duodenum?
o Pancreatic juice
Explain the effect of the following nucleases
o Ribonuclease
Catalyzes the breakdown of RNA into ribonucleotides
o Deoxyribonuclease
Catalyzes the breakdown of DNA into deoxyribonucleases
Describe the function of these brush border nucleases
o Phosphatases
Catalyze the cleavage of phosphate to form a nucleoside (nitrogenous base and
pentose sugar)
o Nucleosidases
Catalyze the breaking of the covalent bond that holds the nitrogenous base to
the pentose sugar
What are the final products of the nucleic acid digestion?
o Nitrogenous bases
o Pentose sugars
o Phosphate ions
What parts of the small intestine absorb most nucleic acid end products?
o Duodenum and jejunum
Identify the two transport mechanisms that carry the products of nucleotide digestion into the
epithelial cells from the intestinal lumen
o Membrane transport proteins carry the products of nucleotide digestion into epithelial
cells from the lumen
o Some involve active transport, some involve secondary active transport
o Through diffusion, the products of nucleotide digestion are transported from the
intestinal epithelial cells
Describe the pathway taken by the products of nucleotide digestion that results in entering the
o Diffuse across the basolateral membrane
o Into interstitial fluid
o Into the blood
Once in the blood, what happens to nucleotide digestion products
o Nucleotide digestion products are transported by blood circulation to the liver and other
tissues where they undergo further degradation

Interactions Media Hormonal Control of Digestive Activities

Hormones regulate several digestive activities. As review, describe each of the following parts of
an endocrine feedback loop.
o Stimulus
A change in body condition
o Production Cell
An endocrine cell that produces a hormone after being affected by a stimulus
o Hormone
The signaling chemical
o Target Cell
A cell receptive to the hormone
o Action
What the cell does when affected by the hormone
o Response
The overall change in controlled body condition as a result of the feedback loop
Describe the two events that stimulate gastrin secretion.
o The filling of the stomach with food (especially proteins)
o Receptors sense distension and the increased gastric pH
Describe G cell function
o To secrete gastrin
o G cells are in mucosa of stomach
What are the gastrin target cells and where are they located?
o Gastric mucosa
o Parietal and chief cells
Describe the response of gastric mucosal target cells to gastrin
o Parietal Cells
Produce more HCl
o Chief Cells
Produce more pepsinogen
Describe the stomachs response to increased pepsin and gastric acid.
o The stomachs ability to digest proteins increases
What effects does gastin have on smooth muscle cells of the muscularis?
o Increased gastric motility
o Opening of pyloric sphincter
o Increased gastric emptying
Acidic chyme entering the duodenum is the stimulus.
o Identify the production cells
S cells
o Identify the hormone
What is the secretin target?
o Pancreatic acinar cells
What is the target response?
o Stimulates the pancreas to produce and deliver more bicarbonate to the small intestine
What is the effect of bicarbonate?
o Buffers acidity of chyme and protects intestinal tissue
Describe the stomach mucosas response to secretin.
o Inhibits gastric acid secretion
o As chyme approaches the small intestine, secretin also targets acid-producing parietal
cells in the gastric mucosa
What stimulates production of cholecystokinin (CCK)?
o Enteroendocrine cells of the intestinal mucosa
Identify CCK tarsecretget cells
o Pancreatic acinar cells and the biliary system
What is the target cell response?
o Delivery of pancreatic lipase and bile is increased to the small intestine
o CCK promotes the digestion of fats in the chyme
How does this endocrine loop address increased chyme fat?
Describe the enterogastric reflex.
o What stimulates the reflex?
Distended duodenum and fatty acids or undigested proteins in the chyme
o What is the CCK target and its response?
Triggers the closing of the pyloric sphincter, thereby inhibiting gastric emptying
High protein and high fat meals stimulate the secretion of CCK and consequently
take longer to digest and empty
o Explain the necessity of the enterogastric reflex


Urinary System Intro

Six general urinary system functions are discussed in this reading. Starting with the first two,
cleansing the blood and ridding the body of wastes, make an itemized list of what this system
o Cleansing the blood
o Ridding the body of wastes
o Regulation of pH
o Regulation of blood pressure
o Regulating the concentration of solutes in the blood (regulating the concentration of
o Production of 85% of erythropoietin (EPO)
What are the potential consequences of urinary system failure?
o If the kidneys fail, these functions are compromised or lost altogether, with devastating
effects on homeostasis.
o The affected individual might experience weakness, lethargy, shortness of breath,
anemia, widespread edema (swelling), metabolic acidosis, rising potassium levels, heart
arrhythmias, and more. Each of these functions is vital to your well-being and survival.
The urinary system, controlled by the nervous system, also stores urine until a
convenient time for disposal and then provides the anatomical structures to transport
this waste liquid to the outside of the body. Failure of nervous control or the anatomical
structures leading to a loss of control of urination results in a condition called

Interactions Media

Describe the important role of the Urinary System

o Homeostasis of body fluids
o Responsible for altering blood composition and pressure, forming urine, and regulating
body fluid pH
What are the general functions of the kidney?
Describe the kidneys role relative to the following
o Water-soluble blood substance levels
Helps regulate blood levels of these substances, including sodium, potassium,
calcium, chloride, and phosphate ions
o Blood volume
Regulates blood volume by conserving or eliminating water, which helps regulate
blood pressure
o pH
regulates body fluid pH
o hormones
releases hormones erythropoietin (increases hematocrit) and calcitriol
(decreases blood calcium)
o enzymes
releases the enzyme renin that is instrumental in producing the hormone
angiotensin II
Describe the functions of the following
o Ureters
Transport urine to the urinary bladder
o Urinary bladder
Urinary bladder stores and ejects urine
o Urethra
The passageway for discharging urine from the body

Interactions Media

What is a nephron?
o The functional unit of the kidney
Identify the two part of a nephron
o The renal corpuscle
o The renal tubule
Where is blood filtered?
o At the renal corpuscle
How/where is the filtrate altered?
o By reabsorption and secretion along the renal tubule
o Filtration direction
o Tubular reabsorption
o Tubular secretion
What is the most common nephron type?
o Cortical nephrons
What is the function of juxtamedullary nephrons?
o Allow kidneys to produce very concentrated urine
The order of flow through a juxtamedullary nephron
o glomerular (Bowmans) capsule
o Proximal convoluted tubule
o Descending limb of the loop of Henle
o Thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle
o Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
o Distal convoluted tubule (drains into collecting duct)
Why is fluid flow through a nephron so highly regulated?
o To ensure that appropriate levels of water and solutes are processed by the renal tubules
Describe a glomerulus
o A system of thin wall capillaries that allow filtration from blood into the capsular space
What is the function of a glomerular (Bowmans) capsule?
o A cup-like sac at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian
kidney that performs the first step in the filtration of blood to form urine
What is the function of the glomerular filtration membrane?
o Renal processing involves the filtration of plasma in the glomerulus. Glomerular filtration
is a process of bulk flow: water and low molecular weight substances move from the
lumen of the capillary, across the filtration membrane, and into Bowmans space.

Open Stax Physical Characteristics of Urine

What are glomeruli and what is their importance?

o 2 to 3 million tufts of specialized capillaries distributed equally between the two kidneys
The glomeruli make about 200 liters of filtrate every day. What is it?
o It is similar to plasma
o Ions, amino acids, vitamins, and wastes are filtered to create these composition
We would be drained dry is less than an hour if filtrate and urine were the same thing. Obviously,
this isn't what happens. What volume of final urine is normal?
o Less than 2 liters (750-2000mL/24 hour)

Microscopic Kidney Anatomy

What is the macula densa?

o The wall of the DCT at that point forms a part of the JGA known as the macula densa. This
cluster of cuboidal epithelial cells monitors the fluid composition of fluid flowing through
the DCT. In response to the concentration of Na+ in the fluid flowing past them, these
cells release paracrine signals. They also have a single, nonmotile cilium that responds to
the rate of fluid movement in the tubule. The paracrine signals released in response to
changes in flow rate and Na+ concentration are adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and

Tubular Reabsorption

What is meant by obligatory water reabsorption?

From this point to the ends of the collecting ducts, the filtrate or forming urine is undergoing
modification through secretion and reabsorption before true urine is produced. The first point at
which the forming urine is modified is in the PCT. Here, some substances are reabsorbed,
whereas others are secreted. Note the use of the term reabsorbed. All of these substances
were absorbed in the digestive tract99 percent of the water and most of the solutes filtered
by the nephron must be reabsorbed. Water and substances that are reabsorbed are returned to
the circulation by the peritubular and vasa recta capillaries. It is important to understand the
difference between the glomerulus and the peritubular and vasa recta capillaries. The glomerulus
has a relatively high pressure inside its capillaries and can sustain this by dilating the afferent
arteriole while constricting the efferent arteriole. This assures adequate filtration pressure even
as the systemic blood pressure varies. Movement of water into the peritubular capillaries and
vasa recta will be influenced primarily by osmolarity and concentration gradients. Sodium is
actively pumped out of the PCT into the interstitial spaces between cells and diffuses down its
concentration gradient into the peritubular capillary. As it does so, water will follow passively to
maintain an isotonic fluid environment inside the capillary. This is called obligatory water
reabsorption, because water is obliged to follow the Na+

Interactions Media: Regulation of Fluid Volume & Composition

How does the body indirectly measure blood volume?

o By measuring blood pressure
o Often reflects blood volume and is measured by baroreceptors in the aorta and carotid
What role do the kidneys have in regulating blood volume homeostasis?
o When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors send more frequent action potentials to
the central nervous system, leading to widespread vasodilation. Included in this
vasodilation are the afferent arterioles supplying the glomerulus, resulting in increased
GFR, and water loss by the kidneys. If pressure decreases, fewer action potentials travel
to the central nervous system, resulting in more sympathetic stimulation-producing
vasoconstriction, which will result in decreased filtration and GFR, and water loss.
o Decreased blood pressure is also sensed by the granular cells in the afferent arteriole of
the JGA. In response, the enzyme renin is released. You saw earlier in the chapter that
renin activity leads to an almost immediate rise in blood pressure as activated
angiotensin II produces vasoconstriction. The rise in pressure is sustained by the
aldosterone effects initiated by angiotensin II; this includes an increase in Na+ retention
and water volume. As an aside, late in the menstrual cycle, progesterone has a modest
influence on water retention. Due to its structural similarity to aldosterone, progesterone
binds to the aldosterone receptor in the collecting duct of the kidney, causing the same,
albeit weaker, and effect on Na+ and water retention.
What affect do diuretics such as caffeine and alcohol have on the kidney?
o Caffeine
Promotes vasodilation in the nephron, which increases GFR
o Alcohol
Increases GFR by inhibiting the ADH release from the posterior pituitary,
resulting in less water recovery by the collecting duct
In one or two sentences each, summarize how the kidneys regulate the following:
o Sodium Ion
Sodium has a very strong osmotic effect and attracts water. It plays a larger
role in the osmolarity
of the plasma than any other circulating component of the blood. If there is
too much Na+ present, either due to poor control or excess dietary
consumption, a series of metabolic problems ensue. There is an increase in
total volume of water, which leads to hypertension (high blood pressure).
Over a long period, this increases the risk of serious complications such as
heart attacks, strokes, and aneurysms. It can also contribute to system-wide
edema (swelling).
Mechanisms for regulating Na+ concentration include the reninangiotensin
aldosterone system and ADH (see [link]). Aldosterone stimulates the uptake
of Na+ on the apical cell membrane of cells in the DCT and collecting ducts,
whereas ADH helps to regulate Na+ concentration indirectly by regulating the
reabsorption of water.
o Potassium Ion
Potassium is present in a 30-fold greater concentration inside the cell than
outside the cell. A generalization can be made that K+ and Na+ concentrations
will move in opposite directions. When more Na+ is reabsorbed, more K+ is
secreted; when less Na+ is reabsorbed (leading to excretion by the kidney), more
K+ is retained. When aldosterone causes a recovery of Na+ in the nephron, a
negative electrical gradient is created that promotes the secretion of K+ and Cl
into the lumen.
o Chloride Ion
Chloride is important in acidbase balance in the extracellular space and has
other functions, such as in the stomach, where it combines with hydrogen ions in
the stomach lumen to form hydrochloric acid, aiding digestion. Its close
association with Na+ in the extracellular environment makes it the dominant
anion of this compartment, and its regulation closely mirrors that of Na+.
o Calcium & Phosphate Ion
The parathyroid glands monitor and respond to circulating levels of Ca++ in the
blood. When levels drop too low, PTH is released to stimulate the DCT to
reabsorb Ca++ from the forming urine. When levels are adequate or high, less
PTH is released and more Ca++ remains in the forming urine to be lost.
Phosphate levels move in the opposite direction. When Ca++ levels are low, PTH
inhibits reabsorption of HPO42 so that its blood level drops, allowing Ca++ levels
to rise. PTH also stimulates the renal conversion of calcidiol into calcitriol, the
active form of vitamin D. Calcitriol then stimulates the intestines to absorb more
Ca++ from the diet.
o pH
The acidbase homeostasis of the body is a function of chemical buffers and
physiologic buffering provided by the lungs and kidneys. Buffers, especially
proteins, HCO32 and ammonia have a very large capacity to absorb or
release H+ as needed to resist a change in pH. They can act within fractions
of a second. The lungs can rid the body of excess acid very rapidly (seconds
to minutes) through the conversion of HCO3 into CO2, which is then exhaled.
It is rapid but has limited capacity in the face of a significant acid challenge.
The kidneys can rid the body of both acid and base. The renal capacity is
large but slow (minutes to hours). The cells of the PCT actively secrete
H+ into the forming urine as Na+ is reabsorbed. The body rids itself of excess
H+ and raises blood pH. In the collecting ducts, the apical surfaces of
intercalated cells have proton pumps that actively secrete H+ into the luminal,
forming urine to remove it from the body.
As hydrogen ions are pumped into the forming urine, it is buffered by
bicarbonate (HCO3), H2PO4 (dihydrogen phosphate ion), or ammonia
(forming NH4+, ammonium ion). Urine pH typically varies in a normal range
from 4.5 to 8.0.
o nitrogen wastes
Nitrogen wastes are produced by the breakdown of proteins during normal
metabolism. Proteins are broken down into amino acids, which in turn are
deaminated by having their nitrogen groups removed. Deamination converts the
amino (NH2) groups into ammonia (NH3), ammonium ion (NH4+), urea, or uric
acid (Figure). Ammonia is extremely toxic, so most of it is very rapidly converted
into urea in the liver. Human urinary wastes typically contain primarily urea with
small amounts of ammonium and very little uric acid.
o drugs & foreign substances
Water-soluble drugs may be excreted in the urine and are influenced by one or
all of the following processes: glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, or tubular
reabsorption. Drugs that are structurally small can be filtered by the glomerulus
with the filtrate. Large drug molecules such as heparin or those that are bound to
plasma proteins cannot be filtered and are not readily eliminated. Some drugs
can be eliminated by carrier proteins that enable secretion of the drug into the
tubule lumen. There are specific carriers that eliminate basic (such as dopamine
or histamine) or acidic drugs (such as penicillin or indomethacin). As is the case
with other substances, drugs may be both filtered and reabsorbed passively
along a concentration gradient.

Interactions Media: Renal Filtration

Identify the three processes responsible for urine formation

o Glomerular filtration
o Tubular reabsorption
o Tubular secretion
What occurs during filtration?
o A filtrate is formed within the renal tubule
What occurs reabsorption?
o the conserving of water and many solutes by moving them back into the blood stream
What occurs during secretion?
o Moving unfiltered substances into the filtrate
Where does filtration physically occur?
o At the renal corpuscle
Hydrostatic fluid pressure physically forces fluid across the filtration membrane. Identify the
actual filtering membrane within the glomerulus.
o The membrane of the glomerular capillaries
What elements remain in the bloodstream?
o Larger elements
What is in the filtrate?
o Water
o Glucose
o Amino acids and small proteins
o Ions (K+, Cl-, H+, HCO3, Na+)
o Urea
Define the glomerular filtration rate
o The amount of filtrate formed per minute within the renal corpuscle
Describe each of the three pressures that determine filtrate movement.
o Glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure (GBHP)
The pressure within the capillaries
Dependent on blood pressure
o Capsular hydrostatic pressure (CHP)
Back pressure from the fluid already in the glomerular capsule
o Blood colloidal osmotic pressure (BCOP)
The tendency of blood proteins to draw water back into blood
Define the Net Filtration Pressure (NFP)
o The sum of all three pressures (GBHP, CHP, BCOP)
Why must normal glomerular filtration rates be normal?
o As blood pressure increases so does GFR
o A normal NFP insures a normal amount of glomerular filtration
o Must be maintained to regulate the composition of body fluids
Describe the consequences if glomerular pressure is too high
o If GFR is too fast, filtrate races through the renal tubule too quickly for reabsorption
o Important substances are lost from the body to the urine
Describe the consequences if glomerular pressure is too low
o If GFR is too slow, filtrate stop moving through the renal tubules and urine production
o Wastes build up in the blood
What are the two main ways glomerular filtration rate can be adjusted?
o Blood flow in and out of the glomerular capillaries
o Surface area of glomerular capillaries
o Renal autoregulation
o Nervous regulation
o Hormonal regulation
What is renal autoregulation?
o When the kidneys themselves regulate blood flow
Two auto-regulatory mechanisms maintain normal GFR. Describe how each of them can increase
or decrease GFR.
o Myogenic mechanism
As systemic blood pressure goes up, the smooth muscle cells in the afferent
arterioles stretch
The smooth muscle fibers of the afferent arterioles respond to stretching by
contracting, reducing blood flow to the glomerular capillaries
GFR decreases
As systemic blood pressure goes down, the smooth muscle cells in the afferent
arteriole relax
The relaxation of the afferent arteriole allows greater blood flow to the
GFR increases
o Tubuloglomerular feedback
When blood pressure is above normal, rapid filtrate flow reduces ion retention
so filtrate in tubule has more Na+, Cl- , and water
It is believed that vasoconstricting chemicals from the juxtaglomerular cells are
released when the macula densa cells detect higher water and ion levels in the
These chemicals cause vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole, thereby
reducing blood flow to the glomerular capillaries
GFR decreases
Slow filtrate flow increases ion retention so filtrate in the tubule has less Na+, Cl-,
and water
Macula densa cells detect lower water and ion levels in the tubules, inhibit the
release of vasoconstricting chemicals from the juxtaglomerular cells
The afferent arteriole vasodilates, increasing blood flow to the glomerular
GFR increases
Compare sympathetic stimulation with autoregulation of glomerular filtration while at rest
o Sympathetic stimulation is weak and renal autoregulation is the dominant mechanism for
controlling GFR
When is sympathetic stimulation of glomerular filtration important
o Most important during extreme rises or falls in blood pressure
Describe sympathetic stimulation effects on the following with an extreme drop in blood pressure
o Afferent arterioles
o Juxtaglomerular cells
Secrete renin
A chemical that promotes formation of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor
o What is the net result of these two effects and how do they maintain homeostasis
A reduction of blood flow to the glomerular capillariesa decrease of GFR
Eventually reduces urine output, conserving water
With dropping blood pressure, the walls of the renal arterioles collapse causing the
juxtaglomerular cells to produce rennin which in turn stimulates angiotensin II secretion. What is
the effect of angiotensin II?
o Promotes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles, reducing blood flow to the glomerular
With a sudden increase in blood pressure, the heart atria secrete ANP. What is its effect on
glomerular filtration?
o Causes the mesangial cells of the glomerulus to relax, increasing the surface area of the
o Increased filtering area increases GFR

Interactions Media

Where does renal absorption and secretion occur?

o The proximal convoluted tubule
o Further reabsorption occurs in the rest of the nephron, providing more fine control of
water and ion homeostasis
Define what happens during these processes
o Absorption
o Secretion
What part of the tubule achieves most of the reabsorption?
o Proximal convoluted tubule
Where does further reabsorption and fine tuning occur?
o Rest of the nephron
Describe paracellular reabsorption
o Substances diffuse between cells
Describe transcellular reabsorption
o Substances pass through the cell
What kind of transport mechanisms are used for reabsorption?
o Primary active transport
o Secondary active transport
o Diffusion
o Facilitated diffusion
o Osmosis
Identify two reasons that make secretion important
o Secretion of hydrogen ions helps to regulate blood pH
o Secretion of other substances eliminates them from the body
What kind of transport mechanisms are used for secretion?
o Only active transport mechanisms
Identify 5 renal transport mechanisms
Describe the role of primary active transport with regard to sodium ions
o To move Na+ from the cytosol of the tubule cell into the interstitial fluid surrounding the
Describe the role of primary active transport with regard to potassium and hydrogen ion
o To provide the driving force to move potassium and hydrogen ions from the interstitial
fluid to the filtrate
Why is Na+ movement important with regard to movement across the membrane
o It creates a gradient between the interstitial fluid and the membranes
o Used to transport molecules into the tubule cell and towards the bloodstream
The energy stored in the sodium ion electrochemical gradient is used to transport other
molecules back toward the bloodstream (reabsorption). What nutrients are transported in this
o Amino acids, glucose, and other solutes
How does the sodium gradient affect hydrogen ion movement?
o It can drive hydrogen ions in the direction opposite to the sodium gradient (hydrogen ion
Describe the role of transporter proteins with regard to nutrient movement
o Nutrient transportation is facilitated by transporter proteins
Describe ion movement through or between the cell membranes into the interstitial fluid
o Ions diffuse through or between cell membranes into the interstitial fluid
o Ions move down their electrochem gradient with chloride ions following sodium ions
o Positively charged ions follow their electrochemical gradients out to the interstitial fluid
(ion reabsorption)
What determines the direction of water movement
o Water reabsorption moves via osmosis, following the reabsorption of solutes
Why does increased water reabsorption affect ion and urea movement
o Reabsorption of water increases filtrate solute concentrations, thereby promoting further
reabsorption of ions and urea
Describe reabsorption at the proximal convoluted tubule
o Most of the filtrate is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream, restoring plasma
concentrations of water, ions, urea, and nutrients
Describe how the sodium gradient determines reabsorption
o Reabsorption of most substances depends on a sodium gradient between the cytosol of
the tubule cell and the filtrate
How is this gradient maintained?
o Primarily maintained by primary active transport, using sodium-potassium pumps
o Sodium ions are moved out of the cytosol of the tubule cell
o Some sodium ions are also reabsorbed by secondary active transport when they are
traded for hydrogen ions in the filtrate
o Additional sodium ions are reabsorbed as they diffuse down their concentration gradient
into the interstitial fluid and the blood
Describe reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, and vitamins
o Transported, along with sodium ions, via secondary active transport into the cytosol of
tubule cells
o Nutrient molecules then move, via facilitated diffusion, into the interstitial fluid
o Glucose, amino acids, and vitamins are then carried into the bloodstream
Describe forces that facilitate reabsorption of bicarbonate
o Movement of hydrogen ions into the filtrate provides the driving force to reabsorb
bicarbonate ions
o In the filtrate, the hydrogen ions bind with bicarbonate ions to form carbonic acid
o Carbonic acid disassociates into h2o and co2 gas
o The CO2 gas diffuses into the tubule cell combining with h2o to form carbonic acid there
o The carbonic acid disassociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions
o Bicarbonate ions move into the interstitial fluid via facilitated diffusion and then diffuse
into the blood
Describe how sodium ions concentrations affect movement of other ions and nitrogenous wastes
o Reabsorption of sodium ions out of the filtrate promotes the passive diffusion of other
o At the beginning of the PCT, chloride ions follow sodium and diffuse via paracellular and
transcellular pathways into the interstitial fluid
o Positively charged ions, such as calcium, potassium, and magnesium follow the negative
chloride ion, diffusing down their electrochemical gradients
How do the ion and nitrogenous waste concentrations affect water movement?
o Nitrogenous wastes also diffuse down this gradient into the blood
o The kidneys do not remove all nitrogenous wastes from the blood
o Rather, they maintain a low enough concentration in the bloodstream to prevent
o Reabsorption of nutrients and ions into the IF and blood produces and osmotic gradient
o Water follows the solutes down the gradient into the IF and blood
o When filtrate leaves the PCT, all of the nutrients and most of the nitrogenous wastes,
ions, and water are reabsorbed
Describe reabsorption along the descending limb of the loop of Henle
o The major impact of reabsorption at the loop of Henle is to reclaim more ions and water
o Thin limb is permeable to water
o Water is reabsorbed via osmosis following the osmotic gradient produced by even more
ion reabsorption
Describe reabsorption along the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
o Thick limb is not permeable to water
o Sodium and chloride are reabsorbed
Describe reabsorption along the distal convoluted tubule
o When filtrate moves here, 80% of water has been reabsorbed
o Sodium and chloride ions are reabsorbed, via secondary active transport, using
sodium/chloride symporters
o Water follows sodium flow, via osmosis
o At the DCT calcium reabsorption is stimulated by parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Describe reabsorption via sodium/potassium pump activity along the collecting duct. Include
hormonal influences in your description.
o When filtrate is here, almost all of the water and solutes have been reabsorbed
o Sodium ions are actively pumped, using Na/K pumps from the cytosol of the principal
cells lining the collecting duct
o Sodium ions then diffuse down their concentration gradient into the IF and blood.
Potassium is extcreted
o Aldosterone enhances the activity of the Na/K pumps thereby increasing sodium
reabsorption and potassium secretion
o At the collecting duct, water reabsorption is stimulated by antidiuretic hormone
Where does secretion occur?
o PCT and the collecting duct
Describe H+ and NH4+ ion secretion into the urine.
o Primary secreted at the PCT
o Hydrogen ions are secreted into the filtrate by a sodium/hydrogen antiporter
o Ammonia within tubule cells can bind with hydrogen ions to form ammonium ions
o Sodium/hydrogen antiporters can also secrete these ions into the filtrate
What effect does removal of these ions have on blood pH?
o Makes it slightly basic
What solutes are secreted at the collecting duct?
o Potassium ions
Describe how potassium ions are secreted from the blood into the urine
o Potassium ions are actively pumped, into the cytosol of the principal cells lining the
collecting duct
o Potassium ions then diffuse down their concentration gradient into filtrate
o Removing excessive potassium ions from the blood maintains electrolyte concentrations
What happens during early filtrate processing?
o All nutrients (glucose and amino acids) are absorbed before exiting the PCT
Describe the filtrate condition by the time it reaches the distal convoluted tubule
o About 80% of the filtered water and a higher percentage of the solutes (mostly chloride
and sodium) have been reabsorbed
Contrast the osmolarity of DCT filtrate and that of blood
o Osmolarity of the filtrate when it exits the DCT is typically hypotonic to that of blood
because slightly more solutes are reabsorbed than water
Why is the reabsorption level through the DCT called obligatory?
o Because it does not vary
Describe late filtrate processing
o Filtrate processing allows for modification of urine in response to the needs of the body
and is hormonally regulated
o Increased reabsorption of water at the collecting duct promotes the formation of
concentrated urine
What regulates late filtrate processing
o hormones

Interactions Media: Hormonal Control of Blood Volume and Pressure

Identify the components of an endocrine feedback loop

o Stimulus
o Production cell
o Hormone
o Target cell
o Action
o Response
What stimulates ADH secretion from the posterior pituitary?
o Dehydration, blood loss, and low amounts of water that cause a decrease in blood
volume and pressure
Describe ADH effect on the following
o Blood vessel wall smooth muscle
o Nephron principle cells
Binds to these cells
Stimulates the synthesis of water pores (aquaporins), increases tubules
permeability to water
Increased permeability increases reabsorption of water and reduces water loss,
leading to increased blood volume
Retention of water increases blood pressure and blood osmotic pressure to
o Sweat glands
Binds to sweat glands, inhibits sweating
Secretory activity decreases, lowering the rate of water loss through perspiration
In summary, what homeostatic effect does ADH have on blood volume and pressure?
o Water reabsorption tin the nephron tubules
o An increase in total blood volume and pressure
What simulates renin secretion from the juxtaglomerular cells in kidney nephrons?
o Declining blood pressure or blood volume
Renin promotes formation of angiotensin II. What effect does angiotensin II have on the
o Blood vessels
o Renal cortex zona glomerulosa cells
promotes the production of aldosterone
What effect does aldosterone have on the nephron collecting duct reabsorption?
Aldosterone promotes reabsorption of ions from urine and indirectly
promotes reabsorption of water back into the bloodstream
o Proximal convoluted tubule
The reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions sets up on osmotic gradient
favoring the retention of water
What homeostatic effect does angiotensin/renin have on blood volume and pressure?
o Increases blood volume and blood pressure
o Less water lost in urine
Summarize aldosterones effect on reabsorption of ions and water
o Promotes reabsorption of ions and water
What stimulates ANP secretion from atrial cells of the heart?
o Increased blood volume and stretching of the atria
What effect does ANP have on the following
o Smooth muscle in the blood vessel walls
o PCT cells
Inhibits the retention of sodium ions which reduces the retention of water
o Glomerular mesangial cells
Cells relax, increasing area of the glomerular capillaries
Increased SA increases filtration rate thereby reducing water and ion
Water is lost in the urine, blood volume decreases and blood pressure returns to
o Summarize how ANP contributes to blood pressure and volume homeostasis

Interactions Media Water Homeostasis

Define blood osmolarity

o Solute concentration of blood
What is the nephrons role regarding osmolarity?
o Regulation of bloods osmolarity
o Alters urine composition and volume which maintains normal osmolarity
What two factors regulate body fluid osmolarity?
o Formation of a medullary osmotic gradient
o Amount of ADH present at the collecting ducts
Describe the collecting duct role relative to urine concentration
o If water is allowed to pass, collecting ducts form dilute urine
Identify the three factors in the nephron determine the osmotic gradient
o Differences in water and solute permeability and reabsorption in different sections of the
limbs of the loop of Henle
o Urea cycling in the medulla
o Countercurrent exchange in vasa recta
Describe ion activities along the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney medulla
o Active transport of Na+ ions drives passive reabsorption of chloride ions
o Addition of these ions to the IF increases osmolarity
Explain how/why filtrate osmolarity increases along the descending loop of Henle
o Squamous epithelial cells are permeable to water but impermeable to most solutes
o Water leaves the filtrate in the descending limb but the solutes cannot inter, increasing
the filtrate osmolarity
Explain how/why filtrate osmolarity decreases along the ascending loop of Henle
o Cuboidal epithelial cells of the ascending limb provide for active reabsorption of sodium
and chloride ions, but are impermeable to water
o Due to active reabsorption of solutes, the filtrate becomes more and more dilute
Describe how the ascending and descending limbs of the loop of Henle affect each other
consequently increasing the work being done by each
o Limbs of the loop are close enough that each influences the processes occurring in the
o Water moves out of the descending limb and produces the more salty filtrate toward the
loop bottom
o In ascending limb, solutes pumped out of the concentrated filtrate increase the
medullary osmotic gradient
o More solutes leaving the ascending limb cause more water to leave from the descending
Define the countercurrent multiplier
o The mechanism that constantly establishes the osmolarity gradient throughout the renal
medulla is called this
o These processes multiple each other until the dynamic equilibrium is achieved between
osmolarity of fluids in the different limbs of the loop of Henle and the surrounding
medullar space
Describe filtrate osmolarity as it enters the medullary portion of the collecting duct
o Urea is very concentrated
o Most water has been reabsorbed at this point in the process
Explain the urea recycling process
o Collecting ducts are highly permeable to urea, so urea diffuses into the IF making it more
o Rest of nephron tubules are not permeable, so urea goes back into them and recycles
back into the collecting duct
Explain why the shape of the vasa recta plays an important role as blood travels through these
o Shape of the vasa recta follows the limbs of the loop, providing a mechanism to maintain
the gradient
o Normal capillary would remove the solutes necessary to generate the medullary osmotic
Describe blood osmolarity changes as it descends into the kidney medulla in the vasa recta
o Blood osmolarity increases
o Highly permeable vasa recta capillaries exchange solutes with IF
Describe blood osmolarity changes as it ascends back out of the medulla toward the cortex
o Loses solutes, becomes less osmotic and goes back to normal values
What causes the small increase in blood osmolarity that is leaving the vasa recta. What does this
osmolarity increase indicate?
o Result of colloid osmolarity
o Indicates that some water is lost from the body
Why is this countercurrent exchange essential?
o Tissues are provided with nutrients and oxygen but the solutes that maintain the
medullary osmotic gradient are not transported away from the nephron
What conditions cause urine to become concentrated?
o Dehydration
o Fluid loss
Describe osmolarity changes as filtrate moves through the loop of Henle
How do the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts affect filtrate osmolarity en route to
producing dilute urine?
o As filtrate enters the distal convoluted tubule, its osmolarity is much lower than blood
o DCT and collecting ducts are not very permeable to water but permeable to solutes, so
filtrate osmolarity continues to decrease
o Urine exiting the collecting duct has lost most of its solutes and has a very low osmolarity
o Large volumes of dilute urine are formed
Describe the ADH effect on f
o Promotes the production of water pores in the cells of the collecting duct in the medulla
o As more water is reabsorbed from ducts, the filtrate osmolarity becomes higher
o Filtrate becomes more concentrated and the water eventually moves via osmosis into
the blood, increasing blood volume and decreasing blood osmolarity
Describe the consequential effect on urine concentration and blood volume
o Urine concentration goes up, blood volume goes up

Lesson 5: Electrolytes, Fluids, and Acid-Base Homeostasis

Open E-Stax

Why is an understanding of body fluids essential to an understanding of our physiology?

o Because body fluids make up about 75% of our body mass (infants), 50-60 for adults, and
about 40 for the elderly
o Chemical reactions that sustain life take place in aqueous environments, making it
necessary for us to understand our body fluids, their components, and their distribution
Describe the relationship between solutes and a solution.
o Solutes are the dissolved substances in a solution
What are electrolytes?
o Disassociated salt minerals that carry a charge (e.g. sodium and potassium ions)
Identify the two general "barriers" that separate and define intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid,
and blood plasma.
o Cell membranes and vessel membranes
What is hydrostatic pressure and what does it have to do with fluid movement?
o The force exerted by a fluid against a wall, causes movement of fluid between
o If hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic (or colloid) pressure, fluid leaves
o If hydrostatic pressure is lower than osmotic (or colloid) pressure, fluid enters

Interactions Media: Overview of Fluids

Contrast male and female total body mass content (solid/fluid)

o Female
45% solids, 55% fluids
o Male
40% solids, 60% fluids
Describe the ICF and ECF split of total body fluids
o 2/3 ICF
o 1/3 ECF
Describe the interstitial and plasma split of ECF
o 80% interstitial fluid
o 20% plasma
Identify where each of the following ions are primarily found and explain their primary
o Sodium
The most abundant extracellular positive ion
Important in determining fluid osmotic gradients that promote fluid flow
between compartments, maintaining normal extracellular fluid volume, and
generating action potentials in muscle and neuron cells
Found in plasma and interstitial fluid
o Potassium
Most abundant intracellular positively charged ion
Found in intracellular fluid
Important in maintaining normal intracellular fluid volume, repolarizing
membrane potentials, andwhen exchanged with hydrogen ionsregulates
fluid pH
o Calcium
Most abundant mineral in the body
Provides the bone matrix in the skeleton
Important in blood clotting, neurotransmitter release, maintenance of skeletal
muscle tone, and excitability of muscle tissue
o Magnesium
Also provides the hardness of bone matrix in the skeleton
Essential as a cofactor for enzymes in certain metabolic reactions
Found a little bit in intracellular fluid
o Chlorine
Most abundant extracellular negatively charged ion
Found in plasma and interstitial fluid
Moves easily between fluid compartments
Important in regulating ion concentrations (e.g. the chloride shift in carbon
dioxide transport) and essential to form gastric (hydrochloric) acid
o Bicarbonate
Found a little bit in the plasma, interstitial fluid, and intercellular fluid
Most abundant extracellulary
Essential in the regulation of extracellular fluid pH
Plays an important role in CO2 transport as well
o Phosphate
Found in the intracellular fluid
Also provides the hardness of bone matrix in the skeleton
Combines with lipids to constitute an important part of cell membranes, also part
of nucleic acids and ATP within the cell
Also important in regulating intracellular fluid pH
Water loss and water gain should equal each other. Describe each identified sources of water loss
or gain
o Metabolic water (gain)
Water formed from metabolic products (ATP production)
o Ingested food (gain)
Absorbed water from foods
o Ingested liquid (gain)
o GI tract (loss)
Water lost in feces
o Lungs (loss)
Water lost in breath
o Skin (loss)
Water lost from sweating
o Kidneys (loss)
Identify important water functions in the body
o Water is important for transport of chemicals and heat, lubrication, and hydrolysis
Interactions Media: Water and Fluid Flow

Regulation of body fluid composition is critical to homeostatic maintenance. As youve seen, body
fluids are primarily water. However, there are other molecules dissolved into it. Identify those
o Nutrients (glucose and amino acids)
o Gases (carbon dioxide and oxygen)
o Nitrogenous wastes (ammonium, NH4+)
o Electrolytes (hydrogen ions, sodium ions, potassium ions, calcium ions, chloride ions,
bicarbonate, and phosphate)
o Proteins
Identify basic roles of water in the body
o Transportation
o Participation in reactions
o Lubrication
o Temperature regulation
Explain some details about waters transportation role
o Acts as the bodys primary medium for transportation of nutrients, gases, electrolytes,
and nitrogenous wastes
o Blood and lymph act to carry water and its dissolved solutes to and from most cells of the
o Cells need these transported substances to perform their functions
Describe waters role in each of the following types of chemical reactions
o Dehydration Synthesis
Combine smaller molecules by removing water from the reactants
o Hydrolysis
Use of water to break up larger molecules
What is the chemical environment for all body reactions?
o All reactions occur within water solutions
o Without water, cells would not be able to build new molecules or get energy from fuel
Describe how water functions to regulate temperature
o Water can absorb and release large amounts of heat
o Sweating removes excessive heat with water vapor
o Body temperatures above normal are not conducive to maintaining homeostasis
Describe the lubrication role of water and serous membranes
o Water makes up most of the lubricating fluid between moving organs
o Tissues, such as serous membranes, move fluid between organs to reduce damage due
to friction
Explain the correlation between solute concentrations, osmotic pressure, and water movement
o To move water, cells must move solutes first (water follows solutes)
o Increased solutes cause an increase in osmotic pressure and relatively low amounts of
o Water flows towards fluids with higher osmotic pressures
Fluid movement is important to its function in many body locations
o How is fluid movement critical for capillary function?
Dissolved substances are exchanged between the blood and bodys cells in the
capillaries via water movement
o How if fluid movement critical for nephron function?
Nephron reclaims water and solutes from the urine and returns these substances
to the blood
As it does this, blood composition and volume are altered
o How is water critical for digestion and absorption?
Mucus, consisting mainly of water, is used in the digestive system via hydrolysis
reactions, to digest food molecules
Water, with other nutrients, is absorbed back into the mucosa
o How is water critical for respiration?
The water in mucus, produced by the respiratory mucosa, has a role in cleaning
air prior to gas exchange in the lungs

Open E-Stax: Water Balance

Generally describe the series of events that reverses dehydration

o As the blood becomes more concentrated, the thirst responsea sequence of
physiological processesis triggered (Figure).
o Osmoreceptors are sensory receptors in the thirst center in the hypothalamus that
monitor the concentration of solutes (osmolality) of the blood. If blood osmolality
increases above its ideal value, the hypothalamus transmits signals that result in a
conscious awareness of thirst.
o The person should (and normally does) respond by drinking water. The hypothalamus of
a dehydrated person also releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH) through the posterior
pituitary gland.
o ADH signals the kidneys to recover water from urine, effectively diluting the blood
o To conserve water, the hypothalamus of a dehydrated person also sends signals via the
sympathetic nervous system to the salivary glands in the mouth. The signals result in a
decrease in watery, serous output (and an increase in stickier, thicker mucus output).
These changes in secretions result in a dry mouth and the sensation of thirst.
o Decreased blood volume resulting from water loss has two additional effects. First,
baroreceptors, blood-pressure receptors in the arch of the aorta and the carotid arteries
in the neck, detect a decrease in blood pressure that results from decreased blood
volume. The heart is ultimately signaled to increase its rate and/or strength of
contractions to compensate for the lowered blood pressure.
o Second, the kidneys have a renin-angiotensin hormonal system that increases the
production of the active form of the hormone angiotensin II, which helps stimulate thirst,
but also stimulates the release of the hormone aldosterone from the adrenal glands.
Aldosterone increases the reabsorption of sodium in the distal tubules of the nephrons in
the kidneys, and water follows this reabsorbed sodium back into the blood.
What is the role of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
o ADH signals the kidneys to recover water from urine, effectively diluting the blood plasma
o Increases blood volume and decreases osmolality
Open E-Stax: Electrolyte Balance

Sodium Imbalance
o What causes hyponatremia and what are its consequences?
A lower-than-normal concentration of sodium, usually associated with
excess water accumulation in the body, which dilutes the sodium. An
absolute loss of sodium may be due to a decreased intake of the ion
coupled with its continual excretion in the urine. An abnormal loss of
sodium from the body can result from several conditions, including
excessive sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea; the use of diuretics; excessive
production of urine, which can occur in diabetes; and acidosis, either
metabolic acidosis or diabetic ketoacidosis.
A relative decrease in blood sodium can occur because of an imbalance
of sodium in one of the bodys other fluid compartments, like IF, or from a
dilution of sodium due to water retention related to edema or congestive
heart failure. At the cellular level, hyponatremia results in increased entry
of water into cells by osmosis, because the concentration of solutes
within the cell exceeds the concentration of solutes in the now-diluted
ECF. The excess water causes swelling of the cells; the swelling of red
blood cellsdecreasing their oxygen-carrying efficiency and making
them potentially too large to fit through capillariesalong with the
swelling of neurons in the brain can result in brain damage or even death.
o What causes hypernatremia and what are its consequences?
An abnormal increase of blood sodium. It can result from water loss from the
blood, resulting in the hemoconcentration of all blood constituents.
Hormonal imbalances involving ADH and aldosterone may also result in
higher-than-normal sodium values
Potassium Imbalance
o What causes hypokalemia and what are its consequences?
An abnormally low potassium blood level. Similar to the situation with
hyponatremia, hypokalemia can occur because of either an absolute
reduction of potassium in the body or a relative reduction of potassium in
the blood due to the redistribution of potassium. An absolute loss of
potassium can arise from decreased intake, frequently related to
starvation. It can also come about from vomiting, diarrhea, or alkalosis.
Some insulin-dependent diabetic patients experience a relative reduction
of potassium in the blood from the redistribution of potassium. When
insulin is administered and glucose is taken up by cells, potassium
passes through the cell membrane along with glucose, decreasing the
amount of potassium in the blood and IF, which can cause
hyperpolarization of the cell membranes of neurons, reducing their
responses to stimuli.
o What causes hyperkalemia and what are its consequences?
An elevated potassium blood level, also can impair the function of skeletal
muscles, the nervous system, and the heart. Hyperkalemia can result from
increased dietary intake of potassium. In such a situation, potassium from
the blood ends up in the ECF in abnormally high concentrations. This can
result in a partial depolarization (excitation) of the plasma membrane of
skeletal muscle fibers, neurons, and cardiac cells of the heart, and can also
lead to an inability of cells to repolarize. For the heart, this means that it
wont relax after a contraction, and will effectively seize and stop pumping
blood, which is fatal within minutes. Because of such effects on the nervous
system, a person with hyperkalemia may also exhibit mental confusion,
numbness, and weakened respiratory muscles.
Chloride Imbalance
o What causes hypochloremia and what are its consequences?
Lower-than-normal blood chloride levels, can occur because of defective
renal tubular absorption. Vomiting, diarrhea, and metabolic acidosis can also
lead to hypochloremia.
o What causes hyperchloremia and what are its consequences?
Higher-than-normal blood chloride levels, can occur due to dehydration,
excessive intake of dietary salt (NaCl) or swallowing of sea water, aspirin
intoxication, congestive heart failure, and the hereditary, chronic lung
disease, cystic fibrosis. In people who have cystic fibrosis, chloride levels in
sweat are two to five times those of normal levels, and analysis of sweat is
often used in the diagnosis of the disease.
Describe bicarbonate ions primary role
o Second most abundant anion in the blood
o Principal function is to maintain the bodys acid-base balance by being part of buffer
Calcium Imbalance
o What causes hypocalcemia and what are its consequences?
abnormally low calcium blood levels, is seen in hypoparathyroidism, which
may follow the removal of the thyroid gland, because the four nodules of the
parathyroid gland are embedded in it
o What causes hypercalcemia and what are its consequences?
Abnormally high calcium blood levels, is seen in primary
hyperparathyroidism. Some malignancies may also result in hypercalcemia
Phosphate Imbalance
o What causes hypophosphatemia and what are its consequences?
Abnormally low phosphate blood levels, occurs with heavy use of antacids,
during alcohol withdrawal, and during malnourishment. In the face of
phosphate depletion, the kidneys usually conserve phosphate, but during
starvation, this conservation is impaired greatly
o What causes hyperphosphatemia and what are its consequences?
Abnormally increased levels of phosphates in the blood, occurs if there is
decreased renal function or in cases of acute lymphocytic leukemia.
Additionally, because phosphate is a major constituent of the ICF, any
significant destruction of cells can result in dumping of phosphate into the
Summarize the water regulatory roles of the following hormones
o Aldosterone
Conserve and increase water levels in the plasma by reducing excretion of
sodium, and thus water, from the kidneys
o Angiotensin II
Causes vasoconstriction and an increase in systemic blood pressure
Increases the glomerular filtration rate, also signals an increase in the release
of aldosterone
Increases water levels in the plasma
o PTH, Calcitriol, and Calcitonin
PTH is released from the parathyroid gland in response to a decrease in the
concentration of blood calcium
Activates osteoclasts to break down bone matrix and release inorganic
calcium-phosphate salts
PTH also increases gastrointestinal absorption of dietary calcium by
converting vitamin D into calcitriol (active form of vitamin D)
PTH raises blood Ca levels by inhibiting the loss of Ca through the kidneys
PTH also increases the loss of phosphate through the kidneys
Calcitonin is release from the thyroid gland in response to elevated blood
levels of calcium. The hormone increases the activity of osteoblasts, which
remove calcium from the blood and deposit it into the bony matrix

Interactions Media: Regulation of pH

Explain the correlation between molecular dissociation and hydrogen ions

o Dissociation of the chemical substances in the body fluids can result in the production of
free hydrogen ions
Explain the function of the pH scale. How does it reflect hydrogen ion concentration (acidosis or
o The pH scale is used to measure the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution
o Normal blood pH is around 7.4
Why is pH important to enzymes
o Life sustaining chemical reactions are catalyzed by enzymes which can only function
effectively within narrow pH ranges
Explain the importance of blood pH regulation
o If pH goes up, the body goes into alkalosis
o If pH goes down, the body goes into acidosis
o Blood pH regulation maintains homeostasis
Identify 3 regulatory mechanisms for blood pH
o Chemical buffers
o The respiratory system
o The urinary system
Explain buffer action in each of the following situations
o Increased hydrogen ions/decrease pH
Chemical buffers bind to hydrogen ions when are too many so that pH remains
o Decreased hydrogen ions/increase pH
Release hydrogen ions when there are too few in a solution so that pH remains
Identify the three chemical buffer systems
o Protein system
o Phosphate system
o Carbonic acid-bicarbonate system
Explain how protein buffers accommodate dropping or rising pH conditions
o If plasma or extracellular fluid pH drops due to excessive hydrogen ions, then hydrogen
ions bind to amine groups and pH rises
o If plasma or extracellular fluid pH rises due to a shortage of hydrogen ions, then acid
groups dissociate and pH drops back to normal
Explain how phosphate buffers accommodate dropping or rising pH conditions
o Most important in regulating intracellular fluid pH
o If pH drops due to excessive hydrogen ions, then dihydrogen phosphate is formed and
intracellular fluid pH rises
o If pH rises due to a shortage of hydrogen ions, then monohydrogen phosphate ions are
formed and intracellular fluid pH drops
Explain how bicarbonate buffers accommodate dropping or rising pH conditions
o If plasma pH drops due to excessive hydrogen ions, then carbonic acid is formed and
plasma pH rises
o If plasma pH rises due to a shortage of hydrogen ions, then bicarbonate ions are formed
and plasma pH drops
The respiratory system regulates blood pH by controlling the amount of carbon dioxide in the
blood. Explain.
o Near systemic cells, carbon dioxide forms bicarbonate ions in the blood
o Hydrogen ions are also released, thereby decreasing blood pH
o At the alveolar capillaries, bicarbonate ions are converted back to carbon dioxide gas
which diffuses out into the alveolus
Explain how the respiratory center accommodates rising and falling blood pH resulting from
carbon dioxide
o Altered ventilation rates change the blood concentrations of carbon dioxide and pH
o When blood PCO2 is low, and blood pH is high, the respiratory center decreases ventilation
Less carbon dioxide is removed from the blood and blood pH goes down
o When blood PCO2 is high and blood pH is low, the respiratory center increases
ventilation rate
More carbon dioxide is removed from the blood and blood pH goes up
Describe how the tubular cells of the PCT and collecting ducts (tubules) alter blood pH
o They can alter filtrate pH and therefore blood pH
o They can affect blood pH with two coupled mechanisms
Reabsorption of bicarbonate ions
Secretion of hydrogen ions
The reabsorption of bicarbonate ions is dependent on the secretion of hydrogen
Explain how the nephron accommodates acidic conditions
o Blood pH is lowered when pCO2 is high
o Carbon dioxide molecules diffuse out of the blood into tubular cells and form carbonic
o Carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen ions and HCO3- ions
o The secretion of hydrogen ions coupled with sodium ion reabsorption, reduces acidity of
o Driven by an electrochemical gradient, the reabsorption of bicarbonate ions buffers the
acidity of blood
Explain how the nephron accommodates alkaline conditions
o Hydrogen ions are actively transported into the interstitial fluid, setting up an
electrochemical gradient
o Driven by an EC gradient, the inflow of chloride ions provide energy for bicarbonate ion
o The loss of bicarbonate ion reduces the buffering reserves of body fluids, decreasing
blood pH back to normal
Identify two main categories that cause pH imbalance
o Respiratory
o metabolic
Define the following
o Respiratory acidosis
Results from excessive carbon dioxide accumulation
o Respiratory alkalosis
Results from excessive carbon dioxide removal
o Metabolic acidosis
Results from very low bicarbonate ion blood concentrations
o Metabolic alkalosis
Results from very high bicarbonate ion blood concentrations
Describe urinary system compensation for respiratory acidosis
o Increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the urine and reabsorption of bicarbonate ions
into the blood
Describe urinary system compensation for respiratory alkalosis
o Increased reabsorption of hydrogen ions into the blood and secretion of bicarbonate ions
into urine
Describe respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis
o Increased respiratory rate and more carbon dioxide is removed from the blood
Describe respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis
o Decreased respiratory rate and less carbon dioxide is removed from the blood

Open E-Stax: Acid-Base Balance Disorders

The following were briefly addressed within our Interactions animation but let's take a closer
look. Briefly define each of the following conditions, explain how they occur, and, if provided,
what the consequences are.
o metabolic acidosis
Occurs when the blood is too acidic (pH below 7.35) due to too little bicarbonate,
a condition called primary bicarbonate deficiency. At the normal pH of 7.40, the
ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid buffer is 20:1. If a persons blood pH drops
below 7.35, then he or she is in metabolic acidosis. The most common cause of
metabolic acidosis is the presence of organic acids or excessive ketones in the
o metabolic alkalosis
The opposite of metabolic acidosis. It occurs when the blood is too alkaline (pH
above 7.45) due to too much bicarbonate (called primary bicarbonate excess).
A transient excess of bicarbonate in the blood can follow ingestion of excessive
amounts of bicarbonate, citrate, or antacids for conditions such as stomach acid
refluxknown as heartburn. Cushings disease, which is the chronic
hypersecretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) by the anterior pituitary
gland, can cause chronic metabolic alkalosis. The over-secretion of ACTH results
in elevated aldosterone levels and an increased loss of potassium by urinary
excretion. Other causes of metabolic alkalosis include the loss of hydrochloric
acid from the stomach through vomiting, potassium depletion due to the use of
diuretics for hypertension, and the excessive use of laxatives.
o respiratory acidosis
Occurs when the blood is overly acidic due to an excess of carbonic acid,
resulting from too much CO2 in the blood. Respiratory acidosis can result from
anything that interferes with respiration, such as pneumonia, emphysema, or
congestive heart failure.
o respiratory alkalosis
Occurs when the blood is overly alkaline due to a deficiency in carbonic acid and
CO2 levels in the blood. This condition usually occurs when too much CO2 is
exhaled from the lungs, as occurs in hyperventilation, which is breathing that is
deeper or more frequent than normal. An elevated respiratory rate leading to
hyperventilation can be due to extreme emotional upset or fear, fever,
infections, hypoxia, or abnormally high levels of catecholamines, such as
epinephrine and norepinephrine. Surprisingly, aspirin overdosesalicylate
toxicitycan result in respiratory alkalosis as the body tries to compensate for
initial acidosis
Discuss both respiratory and metabolic compensation for acidosis and alkalosis.
o Respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis increases the respiratory rate to drive
off CO2 and readjust the bicarbonate to carbonic acid ratio to the 20:1 level. This
adjustment can occur within minutes. Respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis is
not as adept as its compensation for acidosis. The normal response of the respiratory
system to elevated pH is to increase the amount of CO2 in the blood by decreasing the
respiratory rate to conserve CO2. There is a limit to the decrease in respiration, however,
that the body can tolerate. Hence, the respiratory route is less efficient at compensating
for metabolic alkalosis than for acidosis.
o Metabolic and renal compensation for respiratory diseases that can create acidosis
revolves around the conservation of bicarbonate ions. In cases of respiratory acidosis, the
kidney increases the conservation of bicarbonate and secretion of H+ through the
exchange mechanism discussed earlier. These processes increase the concentration of
bicarbonate in the blood, reestablishing the proper relative concentrations of
bicarbonate and carbonic acid. In cases of respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys decrease the
production of bicarbonate and reabsorb H+ from the tubular fluid. These processes can
be limited by the exchange of potassium by the renal cells, which use a K+-H+ exchange
mechanism (antiporter).
Low carb diets force the body to metabolize fats for energy and ketones are produced as a by-
product. If you look back, increased blood ketones is in the acidosis list in OpenStax. This is called
o From what you know, how would the urinary, respiratory, and buffer systems attempt to
compensate for this imbalance?
Respiratory rate would increase to dispel more carbon dioxide from the blood
Increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the blood and increased reabsorption
of bicarbonate ions into the blood

Lesson 6: Gametogensis and Reproduction

Interactions Media: Gametogenesis

Define gametogenesis
o The production of gametes, or sex cells
What cells are gametes?
o Sperm cells, produced by the male
o Secondary oocytes, produced by the female
What are the two cell division processes that occur during the cell cycle?
o Mitotic cell division
o Meiotic cell division
Define the cell cycle
o an orderly sequence of events by which a somatic cell duplicates its contents and divides
Iin two
Identify the two primary parts of the cell cycle
o Interphase
o Mitotic (M) phase
What's happening during cellular interphase?
o A state of high metabolic activity,
o Where the cell does most of its growing
o Consists of three phases
Describe cellular events during G1?
o Metabolically active
o Duplicates organells and cystolic components
Describe S phase activities?
o Centrosomes, structures that build mitotic spindles, are replicated during the S phase
o DNA is replicated, doubling the original number of 46
Describe how DNA replication begins during the S phase
o The double helix partially uncoils, and the two strands disconnect at the points where
hydrogen bonds connect base pairs
o Each exposed base of the old DNA strand then pairs with the complementary base of a
free nucleotide
o A new DNA molecule develops as chemical bonds form between neighboring nucleotides
o Uncoiling and complementary base pairing will continue until both originial DNA strands
are joined with newly formed complementary DNA strands
o As a result, the original DNA molecule has become two identical DNA molecules
Describe how new DNA strand forms and ultimately produce two identical DNA molecules
What happens during the G2 phase of interphase?
o Cell growth continues
o Enzymes and other proteins are synthesized in preparation for cell division
What is produced by the mitotic (M) phase of the cell cycle?
o Two genetically identical cells from one parent cell
What is the function of mitotic cell division?
o It is the basis of tissue growth and regeneration, and the proliferation of stem cells that
later give rise to gametes
Define the two mitotic cell processes
o Mitosis, which is nuclear division
o Cytokinesis, which is cytoplasmic division
What happens to cellular DNA during the four stages of mitosis?
o The distribution of two sets of DNA into two separate nuclei
Describe events during prophase
o Chromatin fibers condense into paired sister chromatids
o Nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear
o Each centrosome moves to an opposite pole of the cell
o Mitotic spindle appears
Describe events during metaphase
o Centromeres of chromatid pairs line up at the equatorial plane
Describe events during anaphase
o Centromeres split
o Sister chromatids separate and identical chromosomes mote to opposite poles of the cell
Describe cytokinesis
o A contractile ring forming a cleavage furrow around the center of the cell appears
o The contractile ring constricts, dividing cytoplasm into separate and equal portions
Describe events during telophase
o Nucleolus and nuclear envelope reappear
o Chromosomes resume chromatin form
o Mitotic spindle disappears
o Contractile ring of cytokinesis continues to constrict the center of the cell until Iit pinches
the cell in two
Meiosis is a cell division that creates "daughter cells" that are different from the parent cell.
o Daughter cells only have 1 set of genetic information
Somatic cells are "body cells", those other than reproductive. Contrast the chromosomes of
somatic cells and gametes
o Gametes are haploid with (n) amount of chromosomes
o Somatic cells are diploid with (2n) amount of chromosomes
o n = 23 chromosomes in humans
Contrast meiotic and mitotic cell divisions. How do they differ as processes and how are their
products different?
o Meiosis consists of two divisions, thereby producing four cells
o The daughter cells are haploid and genetically unlike in meiosis
o Mitosis
Mitosis & cytokinesis
o Meiosis
Meiosis & cytokinesis
Meiosis involves two cell divisions call Meisosis I and Meissis II. Meiosis I is mechanically similar to
mitosis with two notable exceptions:
o What is synapsis?
Sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes pair off
o What is crossing over?
Parts of non-sister chromatids of two homologous chromosomes may be
exchanged with one another
Describe a meiotic difference that occurs during Metaphase I
o Homologous pairs of chromosomes line up, not just the chromosomes individually
During interphase, the DNA has replicated so the chromosomes that appear during prophase are
actually doubled. The structure they form is called a tetrad. During mitotic anaphase, the tetrad
splits moving a copy of each homologous chromosome to each daughter cell. This produces two
daughter cells identical to each other and identical to the parent cell. This ISNT what happens in
Anaphase I of meiosis, however. Explain.
o The daughter cells produced are not identical to each other and not identical to the
parent cell, because the chromosomes moved contain different combinations of genetic
Explain why the daughter cells produced by Meiosis I are haploid.
o Because the chromatids of each chromosome do not separate. Instead, entire
chromosomes move to opposite poles of the cell. This results Iin daughter cells with half
the number of chromosomes
Why is the chromatic activity of anaphase II similar to the activity in mitotic anaphase?
o Centromeres of sister chromatids split and mote to opposite poles of the cell
Describe the chromosome complement of the meiotic daughter cells
o All 4 daughter cells have haploid numbers of chromosomes with possible genetic
The meiotic cells after Meiosis I contain both copies of one chromosome. These are called sister
Define spermatogenesis
o The formation of spermatozoa
Where does this process occur?
o In the seminiferous tubules of the testes
Describe the developmental events of the spermatogonia cells
o At puberty, the spermatogonial cells are influenced by FSH and start to undergo
maturation to spematozoa
Describe development of a primary spermatocyte
o Develop from the spermatogonia under the influence of FSH and testosterone
Describe how two secondary spermatocytes are formed
o These result from the first meiotic division of the primary spermatocyte in whichch the
number of chromosomes is halved
Describe how spermatids are formed
o Spermatids result from meiosis II division of the secondary spermatocytes. All secondary
spermatocytes are haploid and have the same number of chromosomes
Describe spermiogenesis
o Maturation of the haploid spermatids into spermatozoa. This process includes
morphological and biochemical changes of the spermatids.
Define oogenesis
o Production of female gametes
Where does the process occur?
o Ovaries
When do oogonia cells develop?
o Prior to birth
Describe production of oogonia cells
o Prior to birth, stem cells in the ovaries undergo mitotic cell division to give rise to
oogonia. All oogonia enter meiosis, giving rise to primary oocytes whichch are arrested in
prophase I of meiosis. At birth, the ovaries do not have any stem cells or oogonia, only
primary oocytes.
What is a primordial follicle?
o An oogonium and the single layer of cuboidal follicular cells surrounding it
Describe primary oocyte development
o Oogonia stem cells develop into primary oocytes and enter prophase I during fetal
Oogonia cells begin prophase I during fetal development. This division, however, is stopped prior
to birth. When is meiosis I completed?
o After puberty
Following puberty, each month a primary oocyte is stimulated to complete the first meiotic
division. Describe this development.
o During the first meiotic division, the follicular cells surrounding the primary occyte
increase in number
o Just before ovulation, the primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division forming a
haploid (n) secondary oocyte and a smaller haploid (n) first polar body
Describe secondary oocyte formation within a "graffian" follicle.
o Has 23 sister chromatids, and therefore 46 DNA molecules
o Begins second meiotic division but pauses in metaphase II
What is the function of the first polar body?
o May complete meiosis II and produce two polar bodies, which degenerate
o To take up a smaller amount of cytoplasm and allow the secondary oocyte to take up the
majority of the cytoplasm
Describe what happens to the secondary oocyte
o Begins the second meiotic division but pauses in metaphase II
o Carried down the uterine tube, toward the uterus
The secondary oocyte is suspended within meiosis II. Describe the development of this cell with
and without fertilization
o If a sperm cell penetrates the secondary oocyte, meiosis II resumes
o Penetration of the secondary oocyte by sperm triggers the completion of the second
meiotic division. This division produces
A haploid (n) ovum, containing the majority of the cytoplasm
A haploid (n) second polar body containing very little cytoplasm, which
o Without fertilization, the secondary oocyte is shed during menstruation
If fertilization occurs, a second polar body is formed which then degenerates. What is the
function of the polar body?
o Same as the first polar body
Describe zygote formation.
o When the nucleus of the ovum fuses with the nucleus of the sperm, a diploid (2n)
nucleus is formed and the cell is then known as a zygote
o The zygote Iis the first embryonic stage
o The zygote contained 46 DNA molecules, 23 from the ovum and 23 from the sperm

Open E-Stax: Anatomy & Physiology of the Male Reproductive System

Corpus cavernosum
o Anterior side of the shaft
Corpus spongosum
o Distal end of the shaft
Glans penis
o Uncircumcised tip of the penis
What is cryptorchidisim and its treatment?
o Clinical term used when one or both of the testes fail to descend into the scrotum prior
to birth
o Medical treatment
Human chorionic gonadotropin or gonadotropin-releasing hormone treatment
o Surgical treatment

Interactions Media: Hormonal Regulation of Female Reproductive System

What organs are involved in regulation of the female reproductive cycle?

o Anterior pituitary gland
o The hypothalamus
o Ovaries
o Uterus
Identify the two female reproductive cycles
o Ovarian cycle
o Uterine (menstrual) cycle
Hormones regulate this cycle. Where does this regulation begin?
o The hypothalamus
Gonadotroptin releasing hormone (GnRH) is produced by the hypothalamus. Describe its effects.
o Binds to receptors Iin the anterior pituitary
o Stimulates the release of gonadotrophins
Follicule-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
FSH Iis produced by the anterior pituitary. Describe its effects on the ovaries.
o FSH travels via blood from the anterior pituitary to the ovaries
o Promotes follicular growth
o Follicular growth promotes estrogen production
What effect does increasing estrogen have on FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary?
o Small increases in blood estrogen levels inhibit the release of GSH and LH into the blood
but promote their accumulation in the anterior pituitary
What effect do HIGH estrogen levels have on the anterior pituitary?
o Exert a positive feedback effect on both the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary
o A rush of LH and FSH is secreted
What effect does a rush of LH and FSH have on the ovary?
o Initiates ovulation (release of the secondary oocyte) and a decline in production of
estrogen by the follicle
Describe corpus luteum formation.
o LH transforms the ruptured follicle into a corpus luteum
Describe the glandular function of corpus luteum.
o Secretes both estrogen and progesterone, increasing their blood levels
o Increase ovarian hormones inhibit the release of LH and FSH
o The release of inhibin from the corpus luteum enhances this inhibitory effect
o As gonadotropin levels decline, the corpus luteum begins to degenerate, reducing
estrogen and progesterone production
o Sharp decline in ovarian hormones triggers the release of GnRH, LH, and FSH and the
cycle begins again
How does increasing estrogen and progesterone levels, as well as inhibin, affect the anterior
What effect do declining LH and FSH levels have on the corpus luteum?
As blood hormone levels all reach a low point, how does the hypothalamus respond?
Name the three phases of the ovarian cycle
o Preovulatory
o Ovulatory
o Post Ovulatory
Describe primary follicle development
o Primary follicles develop into secondary follicles
o Follicular cells surrounding the primary oocyte increase
o Estrogen secretion increases
Describe the glandular function of the primary follicle
Describe mature, or graffian follicle development
o Usually, only one of the secondary follicles becomes dominant and develops into a
mature follicle
o Secretion of estrogens from the ovary reach high blood levels
Describe the condition of the following
o Hormone levels
Secretion of estrogens reach high blood levels
FSH and LH Iin the anterior pituitary reach their peaks
o Meiosis
Primary oocyte has progressed into metaphase II and is not known as a
secondary oocyte
Describe what happens to the graffian follicle as a result of the LH surge
o The mature follicle ruptures due to the LH surge from the anterior pituitary
o Secondary oocyte is released into the pelvic cavity
Why isn't another follicle stimulated at this stage
o Secretion of estrogen decreases
o The release of LH is inhibited, suppressing the ovulation of another secondary oocyte
What happens to the graffian follicle following ovulation
o The collapsed follicle develops into the corpus luteum
Describe the glandular function of the corpus luteum
o Stimulated by LH, secretes progesterone and estrogen, preparing the endometrium of
the uterus for implantation
What effect does progesterone have on the uterus?
o Prepares the endometrium of the uterus for implantation
Contrast ovarian events if fertilization occurs, with when it does not
o If fertilization occurs, the egg implants
o If fertilization does not, then the endometrium degenerates and the egg does not
What is the function of the uterine endometrium?
Supports the embryo
What regulates the uterine cycle?
o Ovarian hormones
Identify the three phases of the uterine cycle
o Menstrual phase
o Proliferative phase
o Secretory phase
Conventionally, the beginning of the menstrual phase is marked by the monthly menstrual flow.
How does the endometrium respond to declining progesterone levels?
o Reduction of blood supply to the endometrium
o Results in shedding of the stratum functionalis layer of the uterine wall
Describe how the endometrium responds to rising blood estrogen levels during the proliferative
phase of the uterine cycle
o Stimulate the regeneration of the stratum functionalis
o Cell proliferation repairs and begins to thicken the endometrium
Describe how the endometrium responds to rising progesterone and estrogen during the
secretory phase of the uterine cycle
o Secretory phasemaximum preparedness for implantation
o Endometrium continues to thicken
o Endometrial glands secrete glycogen
o If fertilized, implantation of an embro occurs
Once again, what is the function of the fully developed endometrium?
o To nutritionally maintain the new embryo
What occurs if the secondary oocyte is not fertilized? These activities mark the beginning of the
menstrual phase which is the beginning of a new cycle
o Corpus luteum disintegrates
o Levels of progesterone and estrogen drop
o Stratum functionalis of the uterine wall sloughs off during menstruation
Describe the secretory and anatomical events during days one to five of the female reproductive
o The menstrual phase
o Progesterone and estrogen levels are low
o Menses occur
o GnRH pulses more frequently promoting FSH and LH levels to rise
o Primary follicles are stimulated to develop
Describe the secretory and anatomical events during days six to thirteen of the female
reproductive cycle
o Preovulatory and proliferative uterine phases
o Production of estrogen increases, stimulating further follicular maturation
o Endometrial cells proliferate, thereby doubling the thickness of the endometrium
o Rising estrogen levels stimulate increased pulsing of GnRH and increased secretion of FSH
and LH (positive feedback loop with estrogen)
o Primary oocyte undergoes meiosis to form secondary oocyte
Describe the secretory and anatomical events during day fourteen of the female reproductive
o Estrogen levels peak causing an LH surge
o Mature follicle ruptures and the secondary oocyte is released
Describe secretory and anatomical events during days fifteen to twenty-eight of the female
reproductive cycle
o Postovulatory ovarian phase and the secretory uterine phase
o Collapsed follicle becomes the corpus luterum, secreting greater amounts of
progesterone, estrogen, and inhibin
o Increased ovarian hormones, especially progesterone, promote endometrial proliferation
and secretion
o Endometrial glands secrete glycogen, preparing for implantation of an embryo
o Higher levels of inhibin stop the formation of LH and FSH by the anterior pituitary
o Iif the secondary oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus luteum degenerates and the cycle
begins again

Interactions Media: Hormonal Control of Male Reproductive Function

What organs are involved in hormonal control of male reproductive functions?

o Hypothalamus
o Anterior pituitary
o Testes
Describe gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) production
o Certain neurosecretory cells secrete GnRH in the hypothalamus
Describe GnRH effects on the male anterior pituitary
o Carried to the anterior pituitary via blood
o Stimulates gonadotroph cells to increase secretion of two gonadotrophic hormones
LH and FSH
What effect does luteinizing hormone (LH) have on the testes?
o Binds to receptors on Leudic (interstitial) cells between seminiferous tubules and
stimulates the secretion of testosterone
What effect does LH and FSH have on the testes?
o Sertoli cells produce androgen-binding protein (ABP) that binds and maintains high
testosterone levels near the spermatogenic cells
What is the effect of androgen-binding protein?
o Binds and maintains high testerone levels near the smermatogenic cells
What effect does testosterone have on spermatogenesis?
o Stimulates the final stage of spermatogenesis
How do testerone and DHT affect male prenatal development?
o May promote sperm cell formation
o Both bind to the same intranuclear receptors
o Both androgens together regulate male prenatal development and the development of
male sexual characteristics
Describe inhibin secretion. From where? Why? Effect?
o Sertoli cells release inhibin when the level of spermatogenesis required for male
reproductive functions has been attained
o Inhibin is delivered by the blood to the gonadotrophic cells within the anterior pituitary
o Acts on the gonadotrophs to reduce FSH secretion, decreasing the rate of
Explain the negative feedback loop that regulates spermatogenesis at homeostatic levels
o Testosterone acts in a negative feedback manner on anterior pituitary gonadotrophs to
suppress the secretion of LH
o The negative feedback effect of testosterone also involves its effect on the
hypothalamus, which results in decreased secretion of GnRH
o Decreased secretion of GnRH causes a corresponding decrease in the secretion of both
LH and FSH
o Decrease in LH causes a decrease Iin the secretion of testosterone by the Leydic cells in
the testes
o Low levels of testosterone reduce spermatogenesis
o Conversely, an excessive decrease in testosterone allows the hypothalamus to increase
its secretion of GnRH
o This secretion causes an increase in anterior pituitary secretion of LH and FSH, and an
increase in secretion of testosterone by the testes

Lesson 7: Pregnancy and Development

Interactions Media: Fertilization and Development

Define fertilization
o The process by which the two gametes from the parents fuse their genetic material to
form a new individual (zygote)
Where does fertilization occur?
o Uterine tube
Describe sperm movement relative to the corona radiate and the zona pellucida
o Penetration of the secondary oocyte occurs in the corona radiate
o Penetrated secondary oocyte enters the area of the zona pellucida
What role do digestive enzymes have in this process?
o Glycoprotein in the zona pellucida triggers the release of digestive enzymes
o These enzymes digest a path of the sperm to reach the plasma membrane of the
secondary oocyte
Define syngamy
o First sperm to penetrate the entire zona pellucida fuses with the secondary oocyte
How is polyspermy prevented?
o Changes in the membrane of the secondary oocyte triggered by syngamy
When is meiosis II completed?
o After a sperm penetrates the cell, the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II
What is the purpose of the polar body?
o To take up excess genetic material
Define the embryonic period
o The first through eighth weeks after fertilization
Define each of the following:
o Cleavage
Mitotic cell division
o Blastomeres
Each of the beginning cells
A cell formed by cleavage of a fertilized ovum
o Morula
A solid ball of blastomeres
Blastocyst forms from this
o Blastocyst
Days 5-9
Blastula in which some differentiation of cells has occurred
Day 5, morula sheds the zone pellucida and becomes the blastocyst
o How long does it take for the morula to reach the uterus?
4 or 5 days (reaches by day 4 or 5)
o Contrast the inner cell mass and the trophoblast cells
Trophoblast cells make up the outer layer
o When does the blastocyst implant into the endometrium?
By day six

Identify and/or describe the function of the following Day 8 developments

Cytotrophoblast layer
Inner layer
Synctiotrophoblast layer
Outer layer
Secretes enzymes that promote further implantation as well as human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) a hormone that acts to maintain the
o Describe formation of the bilaminar embryonic disc. Identify the hypoblast and epiblast
Cells of the inner cell mass that differentiate
Both layers together form the bilaminar embryonic disk
o Identify and describe the fluid filled amniotic cavity
During the ninth day, epiblast cells begin to multiply and migrate and form the
fluid-filled amniotic cavity
o Identify the yolk sac. Note the bilaminar embryonic disk location immediately between
the yolk sac and the amniotic cavity
Multiplying hypoblast cells begin to develop into the yolk sac
o Describe chorion formation from the extraembryonic mesoderm
12th day, differentiation of yolk sac cells form the extraembryonic mesoderm
This new layer, along with syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast layers, form
the chorion
o Describe the importance of the chorion
Grows to form the connecting stalk, which is the future umbilicus
Destined form the embryonic part of the placenta
Important in the exchange of nutrients between maternal blood and the embryo
o What is the importance of the three germ layers formed during the third week?
Provide cells for the organ formation in the following months
Formed by a process known as gastrulation, which involves rearranging epiblast
o What is the importance of the primitive streak?
As cells from the epiblast migrate, a faint groove called the primitive streak forms
on the surface of the embryonic disc
Makes it able to differentiate the head and tail of the embryo
o Describe formation of
Endoderm germ layer
Some epiblast cells migrate, differentiate, and then replace the hypoblast
to form the endoderm germ layer
Mesoderm germ layer
Other epiblast cells migrate and differentiate to form a new layer,
between the epiblast and hypoblast, identified as the mesoderm germ
Ectoderm germ layer
Remaining epiblast cells become the ectoderm germ layer
o Describe the development importance of each part of the trilaminar embryonic disk
Gives rise to all nervous tissue and the epithelium of the skin
Gives rise to blood, muscle, bone, and connective tissue
Forms into the epithelium of the gastrointestinal tract, the respiratory
system, and many organs
o Describe the origin and importance of the notochord
Further differentiation of mesodermal cells begin the formation of the notochord
The notochord is important in starting (or inducing) the specialization of other
cells, including those directly above them called the neural plate
o Describe the development importance of the neural fold, which ultimately becomes the
neural tube, and the somites
Epiblastic cells in the neural plate are induced to begin to mound up and fold into
a groove
Adjacent notochord mesodermal cells are induced to form somites, the eventual
source of cells to form skeletal and other connective tissues, and muscle tissue
Neural tube arises and its cells eventually develop to form the brain, spinal cord,
and other parts of the nervous system
o Describe primitive blood vessel and heart formation
Mesodermal cells from the primitive streak rearrange to form blood vessels in
the embryo, and a primitive heart begins to form
o Describe the function of the intervillous space
Chorionic villi projecting into the endometrium forms an exchange area called
the intervillous space
Maternal and fetal blood vessels remain separate, so maternal and fetal blood
dont normally mix
However, oxygen, antibodies, nutrients, and waste products are all exchanged via
the intervillous spaces
o Describe the organ development during the fourth week
Flat trilaminar embryonic disc undergoes embryonic folding to form a three-
dimensional cylinder shaped embryo
Most organ systems continue, or start, to develop (organogenesis)
The nervous system and chorion continue to develop
The heart and the rest of the cardiovascular system continue to form
Digestive system begins to form
o Portion of the digestive tract are now present
o Describe development during the second month
Characterized by rapid development of the head and limbs as well as continued
Fifth and sixth week
growth of the brain, and therefore head, is rapid
Hands and feet begin to form
Seventh week
Even more developments of upper and lower limbs occurs
Individual digits begin to form
End of week eight
Limbs are complete
Digits are separate
Tail disappears
Eyes are open
External genitalia begin to differentiate
Blood cells start to form in the liver
Bone ossification starts
o **At the end of the second month of development the embryo is now referred to as a
Less than an inch in size
Distinctly human characteristics
o Describe development and activity during weeks 9-12
A large head, about length of the fetus
Visible eyes and ears
Detectable heartbeat
Kidneys that form urine
Gender identification
Weak, undetectable body movements
By the end of the twelfth week
Placenta is exchanging nutrients and producing essential hormones
o Describe development and activity during the fourth month (weeks 13-16)
Face looks more human as the eyes and ears move to their final positions
Organ systems continue to rapidly develop
Gender is usually easily determined now
Fetus grows to a length of about 6 or 7 inches and weighs about 4 ounces
o Describe development and activity during the fifth month
Fetus grows to weigh about one pound
Fetal movements become perceptible
Head becomes less disproportionate as limbs and trunk grow
o What is lanugo?
Fine hair called lanugo forms over the fetus
o Describe development and activity during the sixth month
Fetus starts making some surfactant in the fetal lungs and it begins to practice
breathing movements
Eyes are almost completely developed
Fetus can respond now to noise outside the uterus
o Describe development and activity during the seventh month
Fetus increases in weight to 2 to 3 pounds as it gains body fat
Testes begin to descend
Many infants born at this time do survive with intensive medical support
o Describe the development and activity during the eighth month
Fetus continues to accumulate subcutaneous fat and reaches a weight of about 5
Fetus usually assumes and upside down position at this point in preparation for
Fetus begins to practice sucking and the mother may begin to notice the fetus
has a pattern of sleep and wakefulness
o Describe the development and activity during the ninth month
Much of the fine lanugo hair is shed
Brain continues to develop
Fetus now weighs 7 to 8 pounds and is about 20 inches long
About a quart of amniotic fluid surrounds and protects the fetus
Interactions Media: Hormonal Regulation of Pregnancy and Childbirth

Identify pregnancy and childbirth functions regulated by hormones

o Maintain the lining of the uterus and prevent menstruation
o Prepare the mammary glands for lactation
o Increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis
o Affect the mothers metabolic rate and enhance fetal growth
o Determine the timing of birth
Describe the glandular function of the corpus luteum during the first week of pregnancy
o secretes hormones that are essential to maintain the normal reproductive cycle
Describe the glandular function of the blastocyst
o secretes human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
o hCG is detectable in a womans blood and urine about 8 days after fertilization
What is the function of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
o Prevents the ovarian corpus luteum from degenerating so that it can continue to secrete
estrogen and progesterone which act to maintain the nourishing secretions of the
endometrial lining
Explain why menstruation does not occur.
o Because the levels of progesterone and estrogen are maintained
Describe the glandular role of the corpus luteum and the chorion over the first two months of
o estrogen and progesterone are secreted primarily by the corpus luteum
o Hormones act to maintain nutritional support for the embryo and fetus
o hCG production increases, peaking at 8 weeks
o hCG triggers the corpus luteum to produce ever-increasing levels of estrogen and
Identify the shift in estrogen production by the ninth week
o Placenta becomes the primary source of estrogen and progesterone
Describe hCG production changes after the fourth month
o levels decrease significantly and stay at a low level
Identify the placental produced hormones that regulate activities during months 4-9
o Placental estrogen, progesterone, relaxin, human chorionic somatomammotropin,
corticotropin-releasing hormone
Describe regulatory effects of placental produced estrogens and progesterone during months 4-9
o Estrogen increases uterine blood flow, maintaining the endometrium during pregnancy
o High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit the synthesis of milk
o Progesterone inhibits myometrial contractions of the uterus to prevent premature birth
Describe the roles of placental produced relaxin
o Inhibits myometrial contractions of the uterus
o Increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis to aid in birth
Describe the roles of human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS)
o enhances maternal breast growth by increasing protein synthesis
o Helps prepare mammary glands for lactation
o Increases maternal fatty acid use for ATP production, leaving more glucose available for
the fetus
o Inhibits glucose uptake by maternal cells, thereby leaving even more blood glucose
available to the fetus
What effect does placental produced corticotropic releasing hormone have on the fetus?
o stimulates the fetal anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone
What does ACTH, secreted by the fetal anterior pituitary gland, have on the fetal adrenal glands?
o Stimulates fetal cortisol release by the fetal adrenal glands
What effect does cortisol, secreted by the fetal adrenal glands, have on the fetal lungs?
o triggers fetal lung maturation and surfactant production
Describe CRH and Estrogen changes and functions through months 4-9
o Placental CRH levels increase greatly toward the end of the pregnancy and stimulate the
fetus and the placenta to produce more estrogens
o Increased levels of estrogen act as a timer for birth and preparation for lactation
Explain how blood levels of prolactin build throughout the pregnancy but lactation does not begin
until AFTER delivery
o Prolactin steadily increases throughout the pregnancy, however high levels of both
estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy inhibit the action of prolactin on mammary
tissue, so no milk production occurs
o Stretch receptors in the breast send nerve impulses to the hypothalamus
Describe the role of breast stretch receptors
o After parturition, the primary stimulus for prolactin production is the sucking action of
the baby
Describe hypothalamus activity resulting from suckling stimulation
o Impulses inhibit a prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH) and stimulate a prolactin-releasing
hormone (PRH)
o Increased PRH triggers the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary
o Simulate the production of oxytocin
Describe effects caused by prolactin
o Prolactin circulates to the alveoli of the mammary gland and promotes lactation
Explain production and effect of oxytocin
o Once milk is formed, it is ejected by the action of the hypothalamic hormone, oxytocin
o Primary stimulus for oxytocin production is the suckling action of the baby
o stretch receptors send impulses to hypothalamus
o Oxytocin circulates to the myoepithelial cells, surrounding the alveoli of the mammary
gland, which contract and force the milk out of alveoli into the ducts where it can be
Corticotropin-releasing hormones stimulate increased estrogen secretion just prior to birth. What
affect do these high levels of estrogen have on the uterine muscles?
o High estrogen levels overcome the inhibitory effects of progesterone on uterine smooth
muscles by
Promoting the formation of gap-junctions between smooth muscle cells in the
Increasing the number of smooth muscle cell receptors for the hormone
oxytocin, which promotes uterine contractions
o Overall result of increased estrogen and oxytocin is stronger contractions as the time for
birth nears
What effect does the increase in uterine oxytocin receptors have?
o Promotes uterine contractions
Describe the effects of relaxin
o Relaxin levels rise through pregnancy
o High relaxin levels
Promotes dilation of the cervix
Increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis
Overall result is to ease delivery of the fetus
Describe the positive feedback loop that results in childbirth (stretch receptors, nerve impulses
hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, oxytocin, and more stretch).
o Cycle begins when the baby enters the cervix
o Cervix stretches and pressure sensitive receptor cells in the cervix detect the stretch
o Input from the nerves in the cervix go to neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus
o Hormone oxytocin is released into capillaries of the pituitary gland
o Blood then carries the hormone to the uterine tissue
o Oxytocin causes smooth muscle tissue of the uterine wall to contract more forcefully
o Cervix stretches still more and sends more nerve impulses to the hypothalamus
o Cycle repeats with greater speed and intensity until the cervix is fully dilated and the
baby is born
o After the birth of the baby, stretching is halted and the positive feedback loop ceases
Describe events for each of the three stages of parturition
o Cervix dilation
Cervix completely dilates to 10cm
Amniotic membranes usually rupture
o Expulsion
Lasts from complete dilation of cervix to birth of baby
Force of uterine contractions assists the mother to expel the baby out of the
o Placental stage
Delivery of placenta (afterbirth)
Uterus contracts to prevent excessive bleeding

Interactions Media: Developmental Stages Overview

Describe primary epiderm (epiblast) and primary endoderm (hypoblast) development

o Formed from cells in the inner cell mass
Describe the bilaminar embryo location within the blastocyst
o Sandwiched between the amnion membrane, formed from part of the epiblast, and the
yolk sac, formed from part of the hypoblast
Describe chorion development and function
o The trophoblast develops into two layers (synctiotrophoblast & cytotrophoblast) that,
with extraembryonic mesoderm, form the chorion
o The chorion eventually develops into the embryonic part of the placenta
Describe the following week 3 developments:
o Gastrulation
Three embryonic layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) form the epiblast
during gastrulation
o Hollow nerve tube
Ectoderm of the trilaminar embryo begins to invaginate at the midline as a
hollow nerve tube from which the spinal cord and brain will form
o Somites
Embryonic mesoderm begins to form segmented structures called somites,
which will eventually develop into connective tissues, muscles, and bones
o Placenta
Placenta forms
Describe the following week 4 developments
o Heart tube
Begins to differentiate (derived from mesoderm) and transforms into an S-shape
By the fourth week, the heart is contracting and forcing blood through its two
o Digestive system
Begins to form
Mucosal layers develop from the endoderm and the muscularis develops from
the mesoderm
o Eyes & Ears
Begin to form
o Limb buds
Embryo elongates and folds into a 3D cylinder, limb buds also arise
Describe the following week 5-8 developments
o Head
Rapid growth of the head
Eyes, ears, fingers, and toes become obvious
o Limbs
Bones are beginning to form
o Reproductive structures
External genitalia begin to form,
By the 8th week, testes and ovaries with their specific ducts are differentiated
o Lungs & heart
Lungs begin developing from embryonic endoderm
Heart is now moving through four chambers
Describe each of the following week 9-12 developments
o When does fetal development begin?
On the 9th week
o Head development
By the end of the 12th week, head is very large
o Gender determination
Sex can be determined
o Movement & heartbeat
Fetus begins to weakly move and a heartbeat can be heard
o Ossification & system development
Continues to develop
Describe each of the following week 13-16 developments
o Head and body proportionality at this stage
Relative size of head is smaller and more in proportion with the rest of the body
o Eye and ear positioning
Move to final positions
o Movement
Further system development continues
Investigate week 17-20 development
o Describe growth during this stage
By the end of the 20th week, overall growth slows but limbs continue to lengthen
o Describe movement during this stage
Fetal movements are felt by the mother
Investigate week 21-25 development
o Describe head and body proportionality
Head is more in proportion with the rest of the body
o Describe premature birth concerns at this stage
Premature birth during this time is dangerous and complications are common
Investigate weeks 26-29
o Describe developmental events during this period
By the 30th week, significant fat and blood cell formation occurs
Testes begin to descend during this time
Type II alveolar cells begin producing surfactant
A child born prematurely after 28th week of gestation can survive because the
lungs and nervous system are developed enough to control breathing and body
Investigate weeks 30-34
o Describe developmental events during this period
Skin is pink and smooth
Fetus assumes an upside down position in preparation for birth
Most fetuses prematurely born during this time survive with adequate care
Investigate weeks 35-38
o Describe nervous system development following birth
Fetus is full term
Nervous system continues to undergo considerable development for another
year after birth

Open E-Stax Stuff:

o Normally, the blastocyst will implant in the posterior wall of the uterine body (fundus).
This places the placenta in the deep position allowing embryonic and fetal growth in the
outward direction.
What is sperm capacitation and what are its essential functions?
o It is when fluids in the female reproductive tract prepare the sperm for fertilization
o Also called priming
o Fluids improve the motility of the spermatozoa
o They also deplete cholesterol molecules embedded in the membrane of the head of the
sperm, thinning the membrane in such a way that will help facilitate the release of the
lysosomal (digestive) enzymes needed for the sperm to penetrate the oocytes exterior
once contact is made
o If the sperm reaches the oocyte before capacitation is complete, they will be unable to
penetrate the oocytes thick outer layer of cells
What are teratogens? Identify a few teratogens and their potential consequences
o Teratogen
Any environmental agent (biological, chemical, or physical) that causes damage
to the developing embryo or fetus
Mental retardation
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Abnormal cranial features
Poor judgement, poor impulse control, higher rates of ADHD, learning
issues, and lower IQ scores
Nicotine travels through the placenta to the fetus
Developing baby experiences decreased oxygen levels
Results in premature birth, low birthweight infants, and SIDS
Drugs & Medications (even OTC)
Babies can be born with heroin addictions
Radiation, viruses (HIV and herpes), and rubella
Genetics: Lesson 8

Nature vs Nurture: Craig Venter was a leading researcher on this project. What is his take on the
relative importance between genetics and environmental influence? How does the colon cancer
gene bear this out as a good example?
o He cites the example of colon cancer, which is often associated with a defective "colon
cancer" gene.
o Even though some patients carry this mutated gene in every cell, the cancer only occurs
in the colon because it is triggered by toxins secreted by bacteria in the gut. Cancer,
argues Venter, is an environmental disease. Strong support for this viewpoint appeared
last year in the New England Journal of Medicine.
o Researchers in Scandinavia studying 45,000 pairs of twins concluded that cancer is largely
caused by environmental rather than inherited factors, a surprising conclusion after a
decade of headlines touting the discovery of the "breast cancer gene," the "colon cancer
gene," and many more
Environmental Effect - Genotype is only one factor in determining phenotype. Research how
environmental factors affect final phenotype, too. (pull up a search bar in OpenStax and look for
"affected by the environment")
o Radiation, certain viruses, or exposure to tobacco smoke or other toxic chemicals can
result in mutations
Autosomal Dominant - Explain why neurofibromatosis will be passed on 50% of the time when
one parent has the genetic disorder, even though s/he has a heterozygous genotype, and the
other parent is completely normal.

o Nn and nn, parents

o Children would be Nn, Nn, nn, and nn

Autosomal Recessive - Explain how/why cystic fibrosis can occur in the offspring of two parents
that do not express the genetic disorder. (Within context of your explanation, teach the term

o Both parents must be carriers, aka Nn and Nn

o Children would be NN, Nn, Nn, and nn

o The nn child would have CF

X-Linked Dominant- Why is vitamin D-resistant rickets passed from an affected father to ALL of his
daughters but none of his sons?

o Because it is an x-linked dominant gene. The father contributes a dominant X gene to

each of his daughters but none to his sons.
o Each daughter will be heterozygous for the trait and therefore express it

X-Linked Recessive - Explain how a mother can be heterozygous for color blindness yet not be
personnally affected by the disorder but has a 50% chance of her sons being color blind and 0%
chance of her daughters expressing the disorder.

o Her daughters will receive one good allele from the father, and will therefore be
heterozygous and fine or homozygous (if a good allele is also inherited from the mother)

o The sons will only have an X from the mother, therefore 50% of them will inherit the
faulty gene and therefore express it

Incomplete Dominance - Explain this inheritance pattern with a child having wavy hair when
neither parent did.

o When the offspring represent a phenotype that is between one parent's homozygous
dominant and the other parent's homozygous recessive

o The homozygous dominant trait is therefore incompletely dominant

Polygenic Inheritance - Inherited traits that are not controlled by simply one gene, but rather by
the combined effects of two or more. This is actually the case for MOST human traits. Examples
include skin color, hair color, eye color, height, metabolism rate, and body build.

Codominance - Use A and B blood types as an example to teach codominant inheritance.

o Type O is not codominant, however. Explain its inheritance pattern relative to the other
two types within this muliple allele trait.

o Type O is recessive to both Ia and Ib but it can be expressed if one inherits ii

o A and B are codominant because IaIb genotypes have AB blood and express both
antigens equally

Recessive Lethal - Explain how Tay-Sachs is an example of this inheritance pattern. How does such
a condition remain in the gene pool? Why doesn't it simply die out?

o In recessive lethal inheritance patterns, a child who is born to two heterozygous (carrier)
parents and who inherited the faulty allele from both would not survive. An example of
this is TaySachs, a fatal disorder of the nervous system. In this disorder, parents with
one copy of the allele for the disorder are carriers. If they both transmit their abnormal
allele, their offspring will develop the disease and will die in childhood, usually before age

o It doesn't die out because parents can also have heterozygous offspring that will simply
continue to carry the disease

Dominant Lethal - Huntington's disease is an example of this inheritance pattern. Explain

how/why it is perpetuated in our gene pool.
o Dominant lethal inheritance patterns are much more rare because neither heterozygotes
nor homozygotes survive. Of course, dominant lethal alleles that arise naturally through
mutation and cause miscarriages or stillbirths are never transmitted to subsequent
generations. However, some dominant lethal alleles, such as the allele for Huntingtons
disease, cause a shortened life span but may not be identified until after the person
reaches reproductive age and has children. Huntingtons disease causes irreversible
nerve cell degeneration and death in 100 percent of affected individuals, but it may not
be expressed until the individual reaches middle age. In this way, dominant lethal alleles
can be maintained in the human population. Individuals with a family history of
Huntingtons disease are typically offered genetic counseling, which can help them
decide whether or not they wish to be tested for the faulty gene.

Chromosome Number

o Down's Syndrome (trisomy 21) is also a genetic disorder although not caused by a specific
trait allele. Explain the causal genetics behind this disorder.

Down syndrome is caused by having three copies of chromosome 21. This is

known as trisomy 21. The most common cause of trisomy 21 is chromosomal
nondisjunction during meiosis.

The frequency of nondisjunction events appears to increase with age, so the

frequency of bearing a child with Down syndrome increases in women over 36.
The age of the father matters less because nondisjunction is much less likely to
occur in a sperm than in an egg

o Explain the causal genetics behind Turner Syndrome.

Down syndrome is caused by having three copies of a chromosome, Turner

syndrome is caused by having just one copy of the X chromosome. This is known
as monosomy. The affected child is always female. Women with Turner
syndrome are sterile because their sexual organs do not mature.
What is nondisjunction?
o occurs when pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate
during meiosis. The risk of nondisjunction increases with the age of the parents.
o Nondisjunction can occur during either meiosis I or II, with different results (Figure).

o If homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis I, the result is two gametes
that lack that chromosome and two gametes with two copies of the chromosome.

o If sister chromatids fail to separate during meiosis II, the result is one gamete that lacks
that chromosome, two normal gametes with one copy of the chromosome, and one
gamete with two copies of the chromosome.

What is amniocentesis and what is its utility?

o a medical procedure used in prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities
and fetal infections, and also used for sex determination in which a small amount
of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues, is sampled from the amniotic sac
surrounding a placenta
o also known as Amniotic Fluid Test is a test that detects chromosomal
abnormalities in the fetus. A sample of amniotic fluid is taken from the amniotic
sac (amnion) surrounding the unborn baby and its DNA is examined for genetic