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Digital and Data Communications


It is defined as knowledge or intelligence that is d. All of these
communicated between two or more points.
a. Carrier 8. The FDM telephone systems accommodate
b. Sideband many channels by
c. Information a. Increasing the multiplexer size
d. Broadband b. Using many final carriers
c. Narrowing the bandwidth of each
2. What is the category of data transmission if d. Using multiple levels of
the binary pulse is maintained for the entire multiplexing
bit time?
a. Return to zero 9. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated
b. Bipolar analog signals (carrier) between two or more
c. Unipolar points in a communications system.
d. Non return to zero a. Digital modulation
b. Digital transmission
3. Which medium is the most widely used in c. Data communications
LANs? d. Pulse modulation
a. Twin Lead
b. Fiber optic cable 10. Indicate which of the following systems is
c. Twisted Pair digital.
d. Coax a. Pulse-position modulation
b. Pulse-code modulation
4. These are used for transmission of PCM c. Pulsewidth modulation
encoded time division multiplexed digital d. Pulse-frequency modulation
a. I carriers 11. Classification of protocol that interprets a
b. E carriers frame of data as a group of successive bit
c. A carriers combined into predetermined pattern of
d. T carriers fixed length, usually 8 bits each.
a. Character-oriented protocols
5. Which of the following is not a typical FDM b. Byte-oriented protocols
application? c. Bit-oriented protocols
a. Telemetry d. Character and Byte-oriented
b. Stereo broadcasting protocols
c. Telephone
d. Secure communications 12. Dividing the data block by a constant
produces a remainder that is used for error
6. A LAN device that is used to interconnect detection. It is called the
two networks that use different protocols a. Vertical redundancy check
and formats. b. Horizontal redundancy check
a. Gateways c. Block check character
b. Routers d. Cyclic redundancy check
c. Bridges
d. Hubs 13. Which of the following is not a benefit of
spread spectrum?
7. A pulse modulation technique as the width a. Jam proof
of a constant amplitude pulse is varied b. Security
proportional to the amplitude of the analog c. Immunity of fading
signal at the time the signal is sampled. d. Noise proof
a. Pulse Width Modulation
b. Pulse Length Modulation
c. Pulse Duration Modulation
14. Converting analog signals to digital is done d. FSK
by sampling and ___________.
a. Quantizing 21. Start and stop bits, respectively, are
b. Companding a. Mark, space
c. Pre emphasis b. Space, mark
d. Mixing c. Space, space
d. Mark, mark
15. It is a process of converting an infinite
number of possibilities to a finite number of 22. It is the processing of analog signals using
conditions. digital methods and includes band limiting
a. Sampling and signals with filters, amplitude
b. Coding equalization, and phase shifting
c. Quantization a. Digital communications
d. Aliasing b. Digital Signal Processing
c. Data communications
16. In T1, it is equal to the reciprocal of the d. Carrier recovery method
sample rate
a. Slot Time 23. It is a network access method used primarily
b. Transmission time with LANs configured in a ring topology
c. Frame time using either baseband or broadband
d. Bit rate transmission formats
a. Ethernet
17. What is the final output of a multiplexer? b. Token passing
a. Baseband c. Token ring
b. Composite baseband d. Token bus
c. Information
d. Composite carrier 24. A small telephone switching system that can
be used as a LAN is called
18. The baud rate a. Ring
a. is always equal to the bit transfer rate b. WAN
b. is equal to twice the bandwidth of c. UART
an ideal channel d. PBX
c. is not equal to the signaling rate
d. is equal to one half the bandwidth 25. The most common method used for
of an ideal channel sampling voice signals in PCM systems
a. unnatural sampling
19. Bit errors in data transmission are usually b. flat top sampling
caused by c. natural sampling
a. equipment failures d. free sampling
b. typing mistakes
c. noise 26. In PCM, it converts the PAM sampled to
d. poor S/N ratio at receiver parallel PCM codes
a. Analog-to-Digital converter
20. A digital modulation technique which is a b. Digital-to-analog converter
form of constant amplitude angle c. Pre-emphasis circuit
modulation similar to standard frequency d. Compander
modulation except the modulating signal is
binary signal that varies between two 27. The OSI layer that provides the control
discreet voltage levels. functions necessary to establish, manage and
a. QAM terminated the connections as required to
b. ASK satisfy the user request.
c. PSK a. Application layer
b. Network layer input is binary digital signal and there are
c. Session layer limited numbers of output phase possible.
d. Physical layer a. ASK
b. PSK
28. In PAM demultiplexing, the receiver clock is c. FSK
derived from d. QAM
a. standard radio station WWV
b. a highly accurate internal oscillator 35. The main circuit in a PSN generator is ____.
c. the PAM signal itself a. XOR
d. the 60 Hertz power line b. Multiplexer
c. Shift register
29. It is also known as digital modulation d. Mixer
a. Digital transmission
b. Digital sampling 36. The circuit that performs demultiplexing in
c. Digital radio an FDM system is _____.
d. Data transmission a. Op - Amp
b. Bandpass filter
30. Time division multiplex c. Discriminator
a. can be used with PCM only d. Subcarrier oscillator
b. combines five groups into
supergroup 37. __________ defines how a user gets control
c. stacks 24 channels in adjacent of the channel so as to allow transmission.
frequency slots a. channel access
d. interleaves pulses belonging to b. collision detection
different transmissions c. collision avoidance
d. carrier sense
31. It is a numerical indication of how
efficiently a PCM code is utilized 38. The fastest LAN topology is the
a. Coding efficiency a. ring
b. Companding b. bus
c. Pre-emphasis c. star
d. Dynamic Range d. square

32. Type of PCM which is designed to take 39. It is a the symmetrical expectation of the bit
advantage of the sample-to-sample error rate in the system
redundancies in the typical speech a. probability of errors
waveform b. error detection
a. Single bit PCM code c. error control
b. Pulse Code Modulation d. bit error rate
c. Differential PCM
d. Delta modulation 40. It is simply the data rate at which serial
PCM bits are clocked out of the PCM
33. The Basic Rate Interface (BRI) of ISDN has encoder onto the transmission line.
a total bit rate of _____. a. line speed
a. 192 kbps b. baud rate
b. 148 kbps c. output rate
c. 64 kbps d. bit rate
d. 1.544 Mbps
41. A quantizing is _______.
34. A form of angle modulated, constant a. Multiplexer
amplitude digital modulation similar to b. Demultiplexer
conventional phase modulation except its c. A/D converter
d. D/A converter 48. The slope of the analog signal is greater than
the delta modulator can maintain
42. Refers to the rate of change of a signal on a a. overload distortion
transmission medium after encoding and b. granular noise
modulation have occurred c. slope overload
a. baud rate d. peak limiting
b. phase shift
c. bit rate 49. A scheme in which several channels are
d. frequency deviation interleaved and then transmitted together is
known as
43. The magnitude difference between adjacent a. Frequency division multiplex
steps in quantization is called __________. b. Time division multiplex
a. Quantum c. a group
b. Step size d. a supergroup
c. Resolution
d. Any of these 50. The best frequency demodulator is the
a. PLL discriminator
44. It is a set of rules implementing and b. Pulse-averaging discriminator
governing an orderly exchange of data c. Foster-Seeley discriminator
between layers of two devices, such as line d. Radio detector
control units and front end processors.
a. Data Link Protocol 51. What property distinguishes digital radio
b. Network Protocol systems from conventional analog
c. Point to Point Protocol communications system?
d. File Transfer Protocol a. the type of carrier used in the
transmission of data
45. A signaling system in which each letter of b. the nature of the modulating signal
the alphabet is represented by a different c. the type of modulation of data to be
symbol is not used because used
a. it would be too difficult for an d. the nature of the transmitter and
operator to memorize receiver to be used
b. it is redundant
c. noise would introduce too many 52. The circuit switch is a _______ switch.
errors a. See through
d. too many pulses per letter are b. Transparent
required c. Vague
d. Opaque
46. A modulation process that involves
conversion of a waveform from analog to 53. A carrier recovery is needed with
digital form by means of coding. a. FSK
a. PDM b. BPSK
b. PCM c. DPSK
c. PLM d. QAM
d. PAM
54. The Hartley Shannon theorem sets a limit
47. What is the bandwidth required to transmit on the
at a rate of 10 Mbps in the presence of a 28- a. highest frequency that may be sent
bd S/N ratio? over a given channel
a. 1.075 MHz b. maximum capacity of a channel
b. 10 Mhz with a given noise level
c. 5 Mhz c. maximum number of coding levels
d. 10.5 Mhz in a channel with a given noise level
d. maximum number of quantizing 61. Which of the following is not primarily type
levels in a channel of a given of data communications?
bandwidth a. a telephone
b. teletype
55. The phase relationship between signaling c. telegraph
elements for BPSK is the optimum signaling d. CW
format and occurs only when two binary
signal levels are allowed and when one 62. Packets which is self contained and travels
signal is the exact negative of the other. through the network independent of other
a. Antipodal signaling packets of the same message by whatever
b. Carrier recovery means available.
c. Squaring loop a. Packet
d. Phase referencing b. Frame
c. Datagram
56. Pulse amplitude modulation signals are d. Data
multiplexed by using
a. Subcarrier 63. Transmitting the data signal directly over the
b. Bandpass filters medium is referred to as
c. A/D converters a. baseband
d. FET switches b. broadband
c. ring
57. It is the ratio of the transmission bit rate to d. bus
the minimum bandwidth required for a
particular modulation scheme. 64. The main reason that serial transmission is
a. Bandwidth efficiency preferred to parallel transmission is that?
b. All of these a. serial is faster
c. Information density b. serial requires only a single channel
d. Spectral efficiency c. serial requires multiple channels
d. parallel is too expensive
58. Ethernet is baseband transmission system
designed by _____. 65. Which of the following is not a LAN?
a. Thomas Murray and Robert Metcalfe a. PBX system
b. David Boggs and Thomas Murray b. Hospital system
c. Thomas Murray and Emile Baudot c. Office building system
d. Robert Metcalfe and David Boggs d. Cable TV system

59. It is a system where the digital signals are 66. A modulation technique where data rates in
placed directly on the coaxial cable. excess of 56 kbps can be achieved over
a. Broadband telephone circuits
b. Baseband a. ASK
c. CSMA/CD b. Trellis Code Modulation
d. Token ring c. GSK
d. Any of these
60. A basic group B
a. Occupies the frequency range 67. It is how the primary designates the
from 60 to 108 kHz secondary as the designation of recipient of
b. Consists of erect channels only data.
c. Is formed at the group translating a. Line turnaround
equipment b. Selection
d. Consists of 5 supergroups c. Line control
d. Control Protocol
68. It is the process of compressing and 75. T1 stands for
expanding and is a means of improving the a. Transmission one
dynamic range of communications system. b. Telecommunication one
a. Pre-emphasis c. Telex one
b. Filtering d. Transmission line one
c. De-emphasis
d. Companding 76. Involves compression in the transmitter
after the input sample has been converted to
69. The supergroup pilot is a linear PCM code and then expansion in the
a. applied to each multiplexing bay receiver prior to PCM coding
b. used to regulate the gain of a. analog companding
individual repeaters b. A law companding
c. applied at each adjustable equalizer c. Digital companding
d. fed in at a GTE d. U law companding

70. The time it takes to transmit one TDM frame 77. Mark and space refer respectively to
is called _________. a. dot and dash
a. Slot time b. message and interval
b. Frame time c. binary 1 and binary 0
c. Transmission time d. on and off
d. Any of these
78. Variation of biphase that is used for
71. It is the thermal noise power normalized to encoding SMPTE time code data and for
1-Hz bandwidth recording on video tapes
a. power density ratio a. Biphase - M
b. thermal noise b. B8Z
c. noise power density c. Manchester
d. ambient temperature noise d. UPNRZ

72. It is the procedure used to decide which 79. Pulse width modulation may be generated
device has the permission to transmit at any a. by differentiating pulse position
given time modulation
a. Flow control b. with a monostable multivibrator
b. Sequence control c. by integrating the signal
c. Line control d. with a free running multivibrator
d. Framing
80. The ISDN channel D designates _____
73. Any rounded off errors in the transmitted which contains control information.
signal are reproduced when the code is a. Data
converted back to analog in the receiver. b. Flow
a. Aperture error c. Control
b. Quantization error d. Bearer
c. Aperture distortion
d. Slope overload 81. A transmission of binary data which
involves the transmission of two non zero
74. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is voltage level
a. its inability to handle analog signals a. Unipolar
b. the high error rate which is b. Polar
quantizing noise introduces c. Bipolar
c. its incompatibility with TDM d. Non return to zero
d. the large bandwidths that are
required for it
82. Switching systems 89. An IC that contains A/D and D/A converters,
a. improve the efficiency of data companders, and parallel-to-serial
transfer converters is called a
b. are not used in data systems a. Codec
c. require additional lines b. Data converter
d. are limited to small data networks c. Multiplexer
d. Modem
83. It involves converting standard logic levels
to a form more suitable to telephone 90. Data communications refers to the
transmission lines transmission of
a. Transmission line encoding a. voice
b. Physical line encoding b. video
c. Digital line encoding c. computer data
d. Multiplexing d. all of the above

84. The primary advantage of digital 91. The number of amplitude, frequency, or
transmission phase changes that take place per second is
a. economical known as the
b. reliability a. data rate in bits per second
c. noise immunity b. frequency of operation
d. efficiency c. speed limit
d. baud rate
85. Part of the PCM system that prevents
aliasing or foldover distortion 92. The basic modulator and demodulator
a. Bandpass filter circuits in PSK are
b. Anti foldover distortion a. PLLs
c. Anti aliasing b. Balanced modulators
d. Any of these c. Shift registers
d. Linear summers
86. It is defined as the process of transforming
messages or signals in accordance with a 93. What is the result if the input of ADC is
definite set of rules. changing while performing conversion?
a. Quantizing a. Aperture error
b. Sampling b. Overload distortion
c. Coding c. Aliasing
d. Decoding d. Aperture distortion

87. The PCM code for each channel occupies a 94. Information capacity is convenient to
fixed time slot called express as
a. Frame time a. baud
b. Baud b. bits
c. Transmission time c. dot length
d. Epoch d. bits per second or bps

88. The building block of a parity or BCC 95. Which medium is the least susceptible to
generator is _________. noise?
a. Shift register a. twin lead
b. XOR b. fiber optic cable
c. 2 to 4 level converter c. twisted pair
d. UART d. coax
96. The RS 232 interface c. L600
a. interconnects data sets and the d. L400
transmission circuits
b. uses several different connectors 103. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by
c. permits custom wiring of signal lines frequency division multiplexing five
to the connector pins as desired groups containing 12 channels each for a
d. all of the above combined bandwidth of 240 kHz.
a. Supergroup
97. The ISDN channel B designates _________. b. Group
a. Bearer c. Mastergroup
b. Data d. Jumbogroup
c. Control
d. Flow 104. The result whenever the sampling rate is
less than twice the highest audio frequency
98. Data transmission of the character at a time a. peak limiting
with start and stop bits is known as what b. overload distortion
type of transmission? c. alias
a. asynchronous d. quantizing noise
b. serial
c. synchronous 105. The most critical and difficult part of
d. parallel receiving a direct sequence spread
spectrum signal is
99. Sampling technique that when the tops of a. Frequency synthesis
the sample pulses retain their natural shape b. Synchronism
during the sample interval c. PSN code generation
a. unnatural sampling d. Carrier recovery
b. flat top sampling
c. natural sampling 106. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by
d. free sampling frequency division multiplexing 10 super
groups together for a combined capacity
100. A modem converts of 600 voice band message channels
a. Analog signals to digital a. Supergroup
b. Digital signals to analog b. Group
c. Digital signals to analog and vice- c. Mastergroup
versa d. Jumbogroup
d. None of these
107. It is the transmittal of digital signals
between to or more points in a
101. It is a large scale integration chip designed communication system.
for use in telecommunication industry for a. Digital transmittal
private branch exchanges, central office b. Digital communications
switches, digital handsets and digital echo c. Digital radio
suppressors. d. Data communications
a. Vocoder
b. Modem 108. It is logically equivalent to making
c. Codec telephone call through the DDD network
d. Muldem except no direct end-to-end connection is
102. What is the type of mastergroup used for a. Normal call
low capacity microwave systems? b. Completed call
a. A600 c. Logical call
b. U600 d. Virtual call
115. For the 16-PSK and a transmission system
109. It is proposed network designed by major with a 10kHz bandwidth, determine the
telephone companies in conjunction with maximum bit rate
the ITU-T with the intent of providing a. 40,000 bps
worldwide telecommunications support for b. 80,000 bps
voice, data, video and facsimile c. 20,000 bps
information within the same network d. 16,000 bps
b. Broadband communications 116. It is an empirical record of a systems
c. ATM actual bit error performance.
d. Ethernet a. probability of error
b. error detection
110. Full duplex operation c. error control
a. requires two pair of cables d. bit error rate
b. can transfer data in both directions at
once 117. It is a function of the carrier-to-noise
c. requires modems at both ends of the power ratio and the number of possible
circuit encoding conditions used
d. all of these a. probability of error
b. error detection
111. The most widely used data c. error control
communications code is d. bit error rate
a. Morse code
b. ASCII 118. It is used to compare two or more digital
c. Baudot modulation systems that use different
d. EBCDIC transmission rates, modulation scheme or
encoding techniques
112. Ten bit error occurs in two million a. Energy per b it-to-noise power
transmitted. The bit error rate is density ratio
a. 2 x 10^-5 b. Noise power density
b. 5 x 10^-5 c. Power density ratio
c. 5 x 10^-6 d. Carrier-to-noise ratio
d. 2 x 10^-6
119. Indicate which of the following is not a
113. It is a type of FSK where the mark and binary code
space frequencies are synchronized with a. Morse
the input binary rate b. Baudot
a. QFSK c. CCITT-2
b. GFSK d. ARQ
d. GSK 120. To permit the selection of 1 out of 16
equiprobable events, the number of bits
114. A form of digital modulation similar to required is
PSK except the digital information is a. 2
contained in both the amplitude and the b. log 16 base 10
phase of the transmitted carrier. c. 8
a. ASK d. 4
b. FSK
c. QAM 121. The type of modulation most often used
d. PSK with direct-sequence spread spectrum is
a. QAM
b. SSB
c. FSK 128. Emphasizing low-level signals and
d. PSK compressing higher level signals is called
a. quantizing
122. Indicate the false statement. In order to b. companding
combat noise, c. pre-emphasis
a. the channel bandwidth may be d. sampling
b. redundancy may be used 129. Which circuit is most common to both
c. the transmitted power may be frequency-hopping and direct-sequence
increased spread spectrum transmitters?
d. the signaling rate may be reduced a. correlator
b. frequency synthesizer
123. Which of the following is not commonly c. PSN code generator
used method of error detection? d. Sweep generator
a. Parity
b. BCC 130. One of the most important aspect of any
c. CRC communication system because it is costly
d. redundancy and limited
a. bandwidth
124. Quantizing noise occurs in b. equipments
a. time-division multiplex c. time
b. frequency-division multiplex d. personnel
c. pulse-code modulation
d. pulse-width modulation 131. It consist essentially of sampling analog
information signals and then converting
125. In order to reduce quantizing noise, one those samples into discreet pulses of
must transporting the pulses from the source to
a. increase the number of standard destination over a physical transmission
amplitudes medium
b. send pulses whose sides are more a. Pulse modulation
nearly vertical b. Amplitude modulation
c. use an RF amplifier at the receiver c. Frequency modulation
d. increase the number of samples per d. Digital modulation
132. He is credited with inventing PCM in 1937
126. Companding is used a. N. S. Kapany
a. to overcome quantizing noise in b. A. H. Reeves
PCM c. E. H. Alpine
b. in PCM transmitters, to allow d. A. C. S. Van Heel
amplitude limiting in the receiver
c. to protect small signals in PCM 133. Data communications uses
form quantizing distortion a. Analog methods
d. in PCM receivers, to overcome b. Digital methods
impulse noise c. All of these
d. None of these
127. Transmitting data as serial binary word is
called _______. 134. An integrated circuit that performs the
a. digital communications PCM encoding and decoding functions
b. quantizing a. Codec
c. PAM b. Modem
d. PCM c. Muldem
d. Digital-to-analog converter
135. A synchronous transmission usually 142. What is the minimum bandwidth required
begins with which character? to transmit a 56 kbps binary signal with no
a. SYN noise?
b. STX a. 14 kHz
c. SOH b. 56 kHz
d. ETB c. 28 kHz
d. 112 kHz
136. A theory that establishes the minimum
sampling rate that can be used for a given 143. Type of PCM that uses single-bit PCM
PCM systems code to achieve digital transmission of
a. Nyquist sampling theorem analog signals
b. Nyquist minimum bandwidth a. Adaptive delta modulation
c. Nyquist minimum bandwidth b. Pulse code modulation
d. Any of these c. Differential modulation
d. Delta modulation
137. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used
to encode binary data. The channel 144. It is a delta modulation system where the
bandwidth is 36 MHz. The maximum step size of the digital-to-analog converter
channel capacity is is automatically varied, depending on the
a. 18 Mbps analog input signal.
b. 72 Mbps a. Adaptive Delta Modulation
c. 288 Mbps b. PCM
d. 2.176 Gbps c. Differential modulation
d. Delta modulation
138. Assigning PCM codes to absolute
magnitudes 145. A QAM modulator does not use ____.
a. Coding a. XNOR
b. Quantizing b. Bit Splitter
c. Sampling c. Balanced modulator
d. Any of these d. 2-to-4 level converter

139. A popular PC protocol is 146. It is a form of phase-division multiplexing

a. Parity where two data channels modulate the
b. Xmodem same carrier frequency that is shifted 90
c. CRC degrees in phase.
d. LRC a. PSK
b. FSK
140. It is the ratio of the largest possible c. QAM
magnitude to the smallest possible d. ASK
magnitude that can be decoded by the
digital-to-analog converter in the receiver 147. One eight-bit PCM code is called ______.
a. Coding efficiency a. FDM frame
b. Companding b. TDM time slot
c. Pre-emphasis c. TDM frame
d. Dynamic range d. FDM time slot

141. Devices used for digitizing speech signals 148. It is communications system that uses
only digital pulse rather than analog signals to
a. codec encode information
b. muldem a. Digital carrier system
c. vocoders b. Digital baseband system
d. modem c. Digital service system
d. Digital broadband system

149. A special device that upgrades signals

from one level to a higher level of the
hierarchy in multiplexing
a. Muldem
b. Vocoder
c. Modem
d. Codec

150. A transmission of binary data which

involves the transmission of only a single
non-zero voltage level.
a. Unipolar
b. Bipolar
c. Polar
d. Non-return to zero





1. It is a metallic conductor system capable of

radiating and capturing electromagnetic
a. transmission lines
b. antenna b. Frequency
c. waveguides c. Signal
d. load d. Wavelength

2. A directional antenna with two or more 9. The length of the ground plane vertical at
elements is known as 146 MHz is
a. folded dipole a. 1.6 ft
b. ground plane b. 1.68 ft
c. loop c. 2.05 ft
d. array d. 3.37 ft

3. The ratio of the focal length to the diameter 10. Using a small reflector to beam waves to the
of the mouth of the parabola is called _____. larger parabolic reflector is known as
a. aperture a. Focal feed
b. focal point b. Horn feed
c. foci c. Cassegrain feed
d. major axis d. Coax feed

4. The impedance of a dipole is about 11. The plane parallel to the mutually
a. 50-ohm perpendicular line in the electric and
b. 73-ohm magnetic fields is called _______.
c. 93-ohm a. wavefront
d. 300-ohm b. point source
c. isotropic source
5. A special type of transmission line that d. rays
consist of conducting metallic tube through
which high frequency electromagnetic 12. What is the beamwidth of a parabolic
energy is propagated antenna with a diameter of 5 meters and an
a. medium operating frequency of 10 GHz?
b. microstrip a. 0.5 degrees
c. stripline b. 0.675 degrees
d. waveguide c. 0.348 degrees
d. 3.48 degrees
6. Calculate the angle of declination for an
antenna using a polar mount at a latitude of 13. The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole
45 degrees is a
a. 3.2 degrees a. circle
b. 1.3 degrees b. figure of eight
c. 4.2 degrees c. clover leaf
d. 6.81 degrees d. narrow beam

7. The cone angle of the flare angle of a 14. The size of antenna is inversely proportional
conical horn antenna is approximately to _______.
a. 55 degrees a. frequency
b. 45 degrees b. power
c. 40 degrees c. radiation resistance
d. 50 degrees d. wavelength

8. Electrical energy that has escaped into free 15. A popular half wave antenna is the
space in the form of transverse a. Ground plane
electromagnetic waves b. End-fire
a. Radio waves c. Collinear
d. Dipole b. 120 ohms
c. 130 ohms
16. Calculate the gain of a parabolic antenna d. 110 ohms
using a 2.5-m radius dish operating at
10GHz. 23. Plots of field strength or power density with
a. 166.673 dB respect to the value at a reference point
b. 83.7 dB a. absolute front lobe pattern
c. 52.2 dB b. relative front lobe pattern
d. 45.6 dB c. relative front lobe pattern
d. relative radiation pattern
17. It is the ratio of the radiated to the reflected
energy 24. What must be the height of a vertical
a. Radiation resistance radiator one half wavelength high if the
b. Radiation efficiency operating frequency is 1100 kHz?
c. Radiation constant a. 120 m
d. Radiation antenna b. 136 m
c. 115 m
18. The feed mechanism in a parabolic antenna d. 124 m
that radiates the electromagnetic energy.
a. Primary antenna 25. Lobes adjacent to the front lobe
b. Reflectors a. Diagonal lobes
c. Secondary antenna b. Side lobes
d. Focal point c. Front lobes
d. Back lobes
19. It is a polar diagram or graph representing
field strengths or power densities at various 26. Lobes in a direction exactly opposite of the
angular positions relative to an antenna front lobe
a. Side lobe a. Side lobes
b. Front lobe b. Adjacent lobes
c. Radiation pattern c. Front lobes
d. Radiation constant d. Back lobes

20. For a transmit antenna with a radiation 27. Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that
resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna has a radiation resistance of 73 ohms and an
resistance of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20 effective dissipation resistance of 5 ohms
and an input power of 100W, determine the a. 98.3%
antenna gain. b. 93.6%
a. 12.55 dB c. 90.7%
b. 10.43 dB d. 95.5%
c. 11.21 dB
d. 9.78 dB 28. The line bisecting the major lobe, or
pointing from the center of the antenna in
21. The radiation pattern plotted in terms of the direction of maximum radiation is called
electric field strength or power density _______.
a. absolute radiation pattern a. line of shoot
b. relative radiation pattern b. diagonal shoot
c. absolute front lobe pattern c. bisecting shoot
d. absolute side lobe pattern d. antenna shoot
22. Calculate the characteristic impedance of a 29. The ammeter connected at the base of a
quarter wavelength section used to connect Marconi antenna has a certain reading. If
a 300-ohm antenna to a 75-ohm line this reading is increased 2.77 times, what is
a. 150 ohms the increase in output power?
a. 3.45 c. standing wave ratio
b. 1.89 d. radiation resistance
c. 2.35
d. 7.67 36. If a 500 kHz transmitter of a constant power
produces field strength of 100uV/m at a
30. Refers to a field pattern that is close to the distance of 100 mi from the transmitter,
antenna. what would be the theoretical field strength
a. Induction field at a distance of 200 mi from the transmitter?
b. Far field a. 45 uV/m
c. Radiation field b. 100 uV/m
d. Capture field c. 50 uV/m
d. 35 uV/m
31. A half-wave dipole is driven with a 5-W
signal at 225 MHz. A receiving dipole 100 37. An antenna that transmits or receives
km. Calculate the received power into a 73- equally well in all directions is said to be
ohm receiver. _____.
a. 23.5 pW a. omnidirectional
b. 7.57 pW b. bidirectional
c. 5.64 pW c. unidirectional
d. 1.26 pW d. quasidirectional

32. It is the resistance that, if it replaced the 38. It is the ratio of the power density radiated
antenna, would dissipate exactly the same in a particular direction to the power density
amount of power that the antenna radiates. radiated to the same point by a reference
a. Directive gain antenna, assuming both antennas are
b. Antenna efficiency radiating the same amount of power
c. Radiation resistance a. power gain
d. Antenna resistance b. directive gain
c. total gain
33. What is the effective radiated power of a d. system gain
television broadcast station if the output of
the transmitter is 1000W, antenna 39. If the field intensity of 25 mV/m develops
transmission line loss is 50W, and the 2.7 V in a certain antenna, what is its
antenna power gain is 3? effective height?
a. 1250 W a. 110 m
b. 2370 W b. 100 m
c. 2130 W c. 98 m
d. 2850 W d. 108 m

34. It is the ratio of the power radiated by an 40. The magnetic field of an antenna is
antenna to the sum of the power radiated and perpendicular to the earth. The antennas
the power dissipated. polarization ______.
a. radiation resistance a. is vertical
b. coupling coefficient b. is horizontal
c. antenna efficiency c. is circular
d. antenna beamwidth d. cannot be determined from the
information given

35. It is the ratio of the power radiated by the 41. If the power of a 500 kHz transmitter is
antenna to the total input power. increased from 150 W to 300 W, what would
a. antenna efficiency be the percentage change in field intensity at
b. reflection coefficient a given distance from the transmitter?
a. 141% 47. If energy is applied at the geometrical center
b. 150% of antenna, the antenna is said to be _____.
c. 100% a. center-fed
d. 133% b. end-fed
c. quarterwave-fed
42. It is the same with directive gain except that d. halfwave-fed
the total power fed to the antenna is used
and the antenna efficiency is taken into 48. For a transmit antenna with a power gain of
account. 10 and an input power of 100W, determine
a. system gain the power density at a point 10 km from the
b. power gain transmit antenna
c. directive gain a. 0.574 uW/m^2
d. total gain b. 0.796 uW/m^2
c. 1.24 uW/m^2
43. A hip-radio telephone transmitter operates d. 0.981 uW/m^2
on 2738 kHz. At a certain point distant from
the transmitter, the 2738 kHz signal is 49. For a transmit antenna with a radiation
measured field of 147 mV/m. The second resistance of 72 ohms, an effective antenna
harmonic field at the same point is measured resistance of 8 ohms, a directive gain of 20
as 405 uV/m. To the nearest whole unit in and an input power of 100W, determine the
decibels, how much has the harmonic antenna efficiency.
emission been attenuated below the 2738 a. 90%
kHz fundamental? b. 96%
a. 43.2 dB c. 98%
b. 51.2 dB d. 96%
c. 35.1 dB
d. 25.1 dB 50. The fields surrounding the antenna do not
collapse their energy back into the antenna
44. It is the equivalent power that an isotropic but rather radiate it out in space.
antenna would have to radiate to achieve the a. induction field
same power density in the chosen direction b. near field
at a given point as another antenna. c. radiation field
a. EIRP d. magnetic field
b. ERP
c. IRL 51. For receive power density of 10 uW/m^2
d. RSL and a receive antenna with a capture area of
0.2 m^2, determine the captured power.
45. When the energy is applied to the antenna at a. 0.5 uW
a point of high circulating current. b. 2 uW
a. voltage-fed antenna c. 1 uW
b. power-fed antenna d. 1.5 uW
c. current-fed antenna
d. impedance-fed antenna 52. The property of interchangeability for the
transmitting and receiving operations is
46. For a transmit antenna with a power gain of known as ______.
10 and an input power of 100W, determine a. efficiency
the EIRP in watts. b. accuracy
a. 30 dBW c. reciprocity
b. 40 dBW d. polarization
c. 50 dBW
d. 20 dBW 53. The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is _____.
a. 8.67 ft
b. 17.3 ft c. feedpoint
c. 18.2 ft d. voltage feed
d. 34.67 ft
61. A popular vertical antenna is the _____>
54. Refers to the orientation of the electric field a. collinear
radiated from an antenna. b. dipole
a. efficiency c. ground plane
b. beamwidth d. broadside
c. polarization
d. accuracy 62. The discone antenna is
a. a useful direction-finding antenna
55. At frequencies below 2 MHz, what type of b. used as a radar receiving antenna
antenna is usually used? c. circularly polarized with other
a. Marconi antenna circular antennas
b. Hertzian antenna d. useful as a UHF receiving antenna
c. Hertz antenna
d. Elementary doublet 63. The feedpoint presents and ac load to the
transmission line called
56. The angular separation between two half- a. antenna output impedance
power points in the major lobe of the b. antenna input impedance
antennas plane radiation pattern. c. feedpoint impedance
a. bandwidth d. center feed impedance
b. polarization
c. efficiency 64. A helical antenna is used for satellite
d. beamwidth tracking because of its
a. circular polarization
57. Hertz antenna are predominantly used with b. maneuverability
frequencies above c. broad bandwidth
a. 3 MHz d. good front to back ratio
b. 4 MHz
c. 5MHz 65. The simplest type of antenna.
d. 2MHz a. Elementary doublet
b. Half-wave dipole
58. Defined as the frequency range over which c. Quarterwave dipole
antenna operation is satisfactory d. 5/8 wavelength dipole
a. beamwidth
b. channel 66. Zoning is used with a dielectric antenna in
c. bandwidth order to
d. baseband a. reduce the bulk of the lens
b. increase the bandwidth of the lens
59. One of the following is not an c. permit pin-point focusing
omnidirectional antenna. d. correct the curvature of the
a. Half-wave dipole wavefront from a horn that is too
b. Log-periodic short
c. Discone
d. Marconi

60. The point on the antenna where the 67. It is an electrically short dipole
transmission line is connected is called a. short dipole
_______. b. quarterwave dipole
a. center feed c. half-wave dipole
b. end feed d. yagi antenna
68. Cassegrain feed is used with parabolic 75. It is a wire structure placed below the
reflector to antenna and erected above the ground.
a. increase the gain of the system a. ground plane
b. increase the bandwidth of the system b. counterpoise
c. reduce the size of the main reflector c. ground lines
d. allow the feed to be placed at a d. top hat
convenient point
76. Which of the following terms does not apply
69. The half-wave dipole is generally referred to to the Yagi-Uda array?
as ______. a. good bandwidth
a. Yagi antenna b. parasitic elements
b. Hertzian antenna c. folded dipole
c. Marconi antenna d. high gain
d. Hertz antenna
77. It effectively cancels out the capacitance
70. Top loading is sometimes used with an component of the antenna input impedance.
antenna in order to increase its a. ground plane
a. effective height b. top hat
b. bandwidth c. loading coil
c. beamwidth d. shunt capacitance
d. input capacitance
78. Indicate which of the following reasons for
71. What is the directivity of a Hertz antenna? the use of an earth mat with antenna is false:
a. 1.64 a. impossibility of a good ground
b. 2.18 conduction
c. 2.15 b. provision of an earth for an antenna
d. 1.75 c. protection of personnel working
72. The standard reference antenna for the d. improvement of the radiation pattern
directive gain is the _______. of the antenna
a. infinitesimal dipole
b. isotropic antenna 79. A metallic array that resembles a spoke
c. elementary doublet wheel placed at the top of an antenna, it
d. half-wave dipole increases the shunt capacitance to ground
reducing the overall antenna capacitance.
73. An antenna which is one-quarter wavelength a. loading coil
long, mounted vertically with the lower end b. top loading
either connected directly to ground or c. series capacitance
grounded through the antenna coupling d. series inductors
a. loop antenna 80. Indicate the antenna that is not wideband:
b. hertzian dipole a. discone
c. monopole antenna b. folded dipole
d. turnstile antenna c. helical
d. marconi

74. An antenna that is circularly polarized is the 81. It is formed when two or more antenna
a. helical elements are combined to form a single
b. small circular loop antenna.
c. parabolic reflector a. antenna elements
d. Yagi Uda b. antenna array
c. driven elements 88. One of the following is very useful as a
d. parasitic elements multi-band HF receiving antenna. This is
82. One of the following is not a reason for the a. conical horn
use of an antenna coupler: b. folded dipole
a. to make the antenna look resistive c. log-periodic
b. to provide the output amplifier with d. square loop
the correct load impedance
c. to discriminate against harmonics 89. A parasitic element that is longer than the
d. to prevent reradiation of local driven element from which it receives
oscillators energy.
a. driven element
83. It is an individual radiator, such as a half or b. director
quarter-wave dipole. c. parasitic elements
a. antenna element d. reflector
b. antenna array
c. reflector 90. One of the following consists of non-
d. director resonant antennas.
a. rhombic antenna
84. Indicate which of the following reasons for b. folded-dipole antenna
using a counterpoise with antennas is false: c. end-fire antenna
a. impossibility of a good ground d. broadside antenna
b. protection of personnel working 91. A parasitic element that is shorter than its
underneath associated driven element.
c. provision of an earth for the antenna a. redirector
d. rockiness of the ground itself b. director
c. reflector
85. Type of antenna element that is directly d. parasitic element
connected to the transmission lines and
receives from or is driven by the source. 92. An ungrounded antenna near the ground.
a. driven array a. acts as a single antenna near the
b. parasitic array ground
c. driven element b. is unlikely to need an earth mat
d. parasitic element c. acts as an antenna array
d. must be horizontally polarized
86. Which of the following antennas is best
excited from a waveguide? 93. It is a non-resonant antenna capable of
a. biconical operating satisfactorily over a relatively
b. horn wide bandwidth, making it ideally suited for
c. helical HF transmission.
d. discone a. turnstile antenna
b. loop antenna
87. Type of antenna element that is not c. rhombic antenna
connected to the transmission lines. d. discone antenna
a. parasitic array
b. driven array 94. A wide bandwidth multi-element driven
c. parasitic array array is the ______.
d. parasitic element a. end-fire
b. log-periodic
c. yagi
d. collinear
102. It is the ratio of the highest to the lowest
95. It is a linear array antenna consisting of a frequency over which an antenna will
dipole and two or more parasitic elements: satisfactorily operate.
one reflector and one director. a. channel ratio
a. broadside antenna b. bandwidth ratio
b. end-fire antenna c. reflection ratio
c. yagi-uda antenna d. dynamic range
d. phased array antenna
103. An antenna has a power gain off 15. The
96. An antenna which is consists of a cone that power applied to the antenna is 32 W. The
is truncated in a piece of circular waveguide. effective radiated power is ________.
a. pyramidal horn antenna a. 15 W
b. circular horn antenna b. 32 W
c. rectangular horn antenna c. 120 W
d. circular horn antenna d. 480 W

97. Which antenna has a unidirectional radiation 104. It is simply a single-turn coil of wire that
pattern and gain? is significantly shorter than one
a. dipole wavelength and carries RF current.
b. ground plane a. turnstile antenna
c. yagi b. loop antenna
d. collinear c. rhombic antenna
d. long-wire antenna
98. An antenna formed by placing two dipoles
at right angles to each other, 90 degrees out 105. A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per
of phase. 100 ft. The attenuation of 275 ft
a. discone antenna a. 2.4 dB
b. turnstile antenna b. 3.3 dB
c. bicone antenna c. 4.8 dB
d. 5/8 wavelength antenna d. 6.6 dB

99. The radiation pattern of collinear and a 106. It is group of antenna arrays that when
broadside antenna is ________. connected together, function as a simple
a. omnidirectional antenna whose beamwidth and direction
b. bidirectional can be changed electronically without
c. unidirectional having to physically move any of the
d. clover-leaf shaped individual antennas or antenna elements
within the array.
100. What is the bandwidth ration of log- a. end-fire array
periodic antenna? b. broadside antenna
a. 10:1 c. phased array antenna
b. 5:1 d. log-periodic antenna
c. 20:1
d. 1:10 107. Conductors in multi-element antennas that
do not receive energy directly from the
101. Which beam width represents the best transmission line are known as ______.
antenna directivity? a. parasitic element
a. 7 degrees b. driven element
b. 12 degrees c. the boom
c. 19 degrees d. receptor
d. 28 degrees
108. It is a broadband VHF or UHF antenna microwave radio and satellite
that is suited for applications for which communications link.
radiating circular rather than horizontal or a. helical antenna
vertical polarized electromagnetic waves b. parabolic antenna
are required. c. hyperbolic antenna
a. discone antenna d. log-periodic antenna
b. bicone antenna
c. log-periodic antenna 115. Part of a parabolic antenna that houses the
d. helical antenna primary antenna which radiates
electromagnetic waves toward the
109. Mode of propagation of helical antenna reflector.
where electromagnetic radiation is in the a. feed mechanism
direction at right angles to the axis of the b. focal point
helix. c. center feed
a. normal mode d. feed antenna
b. axial mode
c. helix mode 116. It is a passive device that simply reflects
d. helical mode the energy radiated by the feed mechanism
into a concentrated, highly directional
110. Mode of propagation of helical antenna emission in which the individual waves
where the radiation of the antenna in the are all in phase with each other.
axial direction and produces a broadband a. director
relatively directional pattern. b. parabolic segment
a. helical mode c. reflector
b. normal mode d. feed mechanism
c. axial mode
d. helix mode 117. The energy near the edge of the parabolic
dish that does not reflect but rather is
111. In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction of diffracted around the edge of the dish.
radiation is toward the a. spillover
a. director b. corona
b. driven element c. dissipated power
c. reflector d. copper loss
d. sky
118. Determines the angular aperture of the
112. It is defined as the ratio of the antennas reflector, which indirectly determines how
maximum gain in the forward direction to much the primary radiation is reflected by
its maximum gain in its backward the parabolic dish.
direction a. numerical aperture
a. side-to-back ratio b. V number
b. front-to-side ratio c. aperture number
c. back-to-side ratio d. aperture angle
d. front-to-back ratio
119. For a 2-m diameter parabolic reflector
113. The horizontal radiation pattern of a with 10W of power radiated by the feed
vertical dipole is a ____________. mechanism operating at 6 GHz with a
a. figure of eight transmit antenna efficiency of 55% and an
b. circle aperture efficiency of 55%, determine the
c. narrow beam beamwidth.
d. clover leaf a. 1.25 degrees
114. An antenna that provides extremely high b. 2.25 degrees
gain and directivity and very popular for c. 1.5 degrees
d. 1.75 degrees 126. Consists of basic antenna connected to a
transmission line plus one or more
120. Type of feed mechanism where the additional conductors
primary radiating source is located just a. parasitic array
behind a small opening at the vertex of the b. directors
paraboloid rather than at the focus. c. driven array
a. cassegrain feed d. reflectors
b. center feed
c. horn feed 127. Which of the following is not a driven
d. antenna feed array?
a. yagi
121. Discone radiation pattern is b. broadside
a. omnidirectional c. collinear
b. unidirectional d. end fire
c. figure-of-eight
d. bidirectional 128. What is used to determine phase
difference between two broadcast
122. Which is properly terminated antenna? antennas?
a. dipole a. a phase monitor
b. marconi b. a frequency monitor
c. hertz c. an amplitude monitor
d. rhombic d. a power monitor

123. An example of a marconi antenna is 129. In antennas, which gives more forward
_______. gain?
a. quarter wave vertical tower a. reflector
b. collinear b. driven element
c. yagi c. parasitic element
d. rhombic d. director

124. At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what 130. Which of the following is longer?
values of current and voltage exist a. director
compared to the remainder of the antenna? b. reflector
a. minimum voltage and maximum c. driven element
current d. parasitic element
b. minimum voltage and minimum
current 131. Which is closer to the driven element?
c. equal voltage and current a. parasitic element
d. maximum voltage and minimum b. driven element
current c. director
d. reflector
125. Radiation resistance is the ratio of ______.
a. radiated power to the antenna center 132. How much do they differ in length from a
current half-wavelength?
b. radiated power to the square of the a. 5%
antenna center current b. 10%
c. voltage to any point of the antenna c. 15%
d. square of voltage to the square of d. 20%
current at any point in the antenna
133. How much more feed-point impedance
does a folded dipole have than a normal
a. two times as much c. less acreage required
b. three times as much d. main lobe is greater than back lobe
c. four times as much
d. five times as much 141. In what direction is the null of small
diameter loop in relation to the plane of
134. How is it possible to produce 70-ohm twin the loop?
lead? a. 45 degrees angle
a. by folding more parasitic element b. 180 degrees angle
b. by manufacturing c. 360 degrees angle
c. by increasing the radiation resistance d. 90 degrees angle
d. by increasing the length of the
antenna 142. When is a loop unidirectional?
a. when horizontal
135. With similar size parabolic, plane b. when vertical
reflector, and corner-reflector beams, c. when circular
which has greater gain? d. when unidirectional
a. plane reflector
b. parabolic 143. Why are verticals sometimes top-loaded?
c. corner-reflector beam a. to resonate on high frequency
d. V-beam b. to decrease the electrical length
c. to resonate on low frequency
136. With similar size, which has the narrowest d. to look better
a. parabolic 144. Why is pi-network superior to direct
b. V-beam coupling to an antenna?
c. corner-reflector beam a. reduce harmonic radiation
d. plane reflector b. better frequency response
c. better radiation of energy
137. Why would the wires of V-beam be closer d. reduce power dissipation
together when used on higher frequencies?
a. main lobe lays farther to wire 145. Why might L networks be used between
b. main lobe lays closer to wire an antenna and transmission line?
c. secondary lobes closer to wire a. step impedance up
d. secondary lobes farther to wire b. step impedance down
c. better radiation of energy
138. How the V-beam is made unidirectional? d. reduce power radiation
a. impedance terminated
b. capacitive terminated 146. Why are antenna ammeters often shorted
c. inductive terminated out or disconnected from the antenna
d. resistor terminated except when readings are desired?
a. to replace it with dummy
139. Why might a rhombic be better than a V- b. not to interface with transmission
beam? c. for proper reception of signals
a. it is resistor terminated d. to protect from lightning
b. more acreage needed
c. less acreage needed 147. Device to split transmission line current to
d. it is unidirectional two or more antenna towers
a. splitter
140. Why is the usual rhombic not frequency b. coupler
sensitive? c. isolator
a. unidirectional d. phasor circuit
b. with its characteristic impedance
148. What method can be used to determine the
feed-point impedance of a vertical
a. resistance substitution
b. impedance matching
c. dissipated resistance measurement
d. grounding the antenna

149. In what unit is field intensity measured?

a. volts
b. amperes
c. watts/m
d. mV/m

150. How fast does low-frequency field

strength attenuate?
a. directly proportional to distance
b. inversely proportional to distance
c. directly proportional to time
d. inversely proportional to time



Broadcast Engineering

1. In stereophonic broadcast, the center c. CATV
frequency of each SCA Subcarrier shall be d. SATV
kept at all times within _______ Hz of the
authorized frequency. 8. A class A FM station is limited in antenna
a. 200 height of ______ feet above average terrain.
b. 300 a. 1000
c. 400 b. 2000
d. 500 c. 4000
d. 5000
2. Sawtooth generator circuits produce the
scanning raster but the sync pulses are 9. What circuit in the TV receiver is used to
needed for develop the high voltage needed to operate
a. linearity the picture tube?
b. timing a. Low-voltage power supply
c. keystoning b. Horizontal output
d. line pairing c. Vertical sweep
d. Sync separator
3. Which of the following camera tubes has
minimum lag? 10. The modulated picture carrier wave includes
a. Vidicon the composite video signal as the
b. Plumbicon a. Average carrier level
c. Saticon b. Symmetric envelope of amplitude
d. Iconoscope variations
c. Lower sideband without the upper
4. The service are in standard AM broadcast is sideband
described as ______ if there is no fading of d. Upper envelope without the lower
signal. envelope
a. Class A
b. Secondary 11. With which emission type is the capture-
c. Class B effect more pronounced?
d. Primary a. CW
b. FM
5. The vertical field-scanning frequency is c. SSB
______ Hz. d. AM
a. 30
b. 60 12. The hue of color sync phase is
c. 525 a. red
d. 15,750 b. cyan
c. blue
6. A 4.5-MHz signal which is equal to the d. yellow green
difference between the picture and sound RF
carrier frequencies in a 6-MHz TV channel. 13. How much is the equivalent internal
a. Audio frequency resistance of the electron beam with a 1.2-
b. Video frequency mA beam current at 25 kV?
c. Intercarrier frequency a. 48 nano ohms
d. Subcarrier frequency b. 30 ohms
c. 20.8 mega ohms
7. A system where the modulated RF picture d. 15.6 kilo ohms
and sound carrier signals are distributed in a
cable network, instead of wireless system. 14. The difference between the picture and
a. CCTV sound carrier frequencies for channel 3 is
b. MATV ______ MHz.
a. 3.58 b. broadcast
b. 64.5 c. transmit
c. 4.5 d. media
d. 6.75
22. The number of frames per second in the
15. Refers to the deviation of the operating Philippine TV system is
frequency of a crystal oscillator from its a. 60
nominal value due to temperature variations. b. 262
a. drift c. 4.5
b. flashover d. 30
c. frequency deviation
d. deviation ratio 23. It means multiple outlines of edges to the
right in the picture.
16. It is the measure of how many picture a. ghosting
elements can be reproduced b. ringing
a. definition c. fading
b. resolution d. snowing
c. detail
d. any of these 24. In the Sawtooth waveform for linear
17. A 3.58-MHz subcarrier signal for color in a. the linear rise is for flyback
television b. the complete cycle includes trace
a. Hue signal and retrace
b. Video signal c. the sharp reversal in amplitude
c. Audio signal produces trace
d. Chroma signal d. the beam moves faster during trace
and retrace
18. A class D FM station shall have an
authorized power not exceeding ______ 25. The purpose of pre-emphasis and de-
watts. emphasis in FM broadcasting is to:
a. 20 a. increase the high frequency
b. 15 amplitude
c. 10 b. improve the audio harmonic
d. 5 c. decrease the low frequency
19. Which of the following is not a benefit of d. improve the S/N ratio
cable TV?
a. Lower-cost reception 26. The part of the visible spectrum where
b. Greater stability camera pickup tubes have the greatest output
c. Less noise, stronger signal is
d. Premium cable channels a. red
b. blue
20. The width of the vertical sync pulse in the c. yellow-green
Philippine TV system is d. infrared
a. 21H
b. 3H 27. The type of modulation of the sound carrier
c. H signal is ______.
d. 0.5H a. Pulse motion
b. Phase modulation
21. Term in communication which is referred, c. Amplitude modulation
to send out in all direction d. Frequency modulation
a. announce
28. A video or audio signal that can be used c. Beam current
directly to reproduce the picture and sound. d. Shading
a. Baseband signal
b. Broadband signal 36. What is a frequency discriminator?
c. Electromagnetic wave signal a. An FM generator
d. Modulated signal b. A circuit for detecting FM
c. A circuit for filtering two closely
29. Class B FM station should have an ERP not adjacent signals
exceeding ______ kW. d. An automatic bandwidth circuit
a. 50
b. 40 37. A system used in television field operation
c. 30 to make on-the-spot video tape recordings
d. 20 using portable TV cameras and VTRs.
a. SNG
30. What technique is used to permit hundreds b. ENG
of TV signals to share a common cable? c. HAFC
a. Frequency modulation d. MATV
b. Mixing
c. Frequency division multiplexing 38. Class B FM station shall have an authorized
d. Time division multiplexing transmitter power not exceeding ______
31. Another name for the horizontal retrace in a a. 10
TV receiver is the b. 100
a. ringing c. 1000
b. burst d. 10000
c. damper
d. flyback 39. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal
32. In the Philippine color television system, the a. 3.58 MHz
intercarrier frequency, in MHz, is b. 4.5 MHz
a. 3.58 c. 6 MHz
b. 3.579645 d. 10.7 MHz
c. 4.5
d. 45.75 40. Referred to the oscillator signal leak
through from a property neutralized
33. In channel 14 (470 to 476 MHz), the 3.58- amplifier such as a master oscillator power
MHz color signal is transmitted at amplifier.
a. 471.25 MHz a. carrier
b. 473.25 MHz b. stray signal
c. 474.83 MHz c. back wave
d. 475.25 MHz d. loss wave

34. Interlaced scanning eliminates 41. Interlacing is used in television to

a. snowing a. produce the illusion of motion
b. flicker b. ensure that all lines on the screen are
c. distortion scanned, not merely the alternate
d. fading ones
c. simply the vertical sync pulse train
35. Beam alignment magnets for the camera d. avoid flicker
tube are adjusted while rocking which color?
a. Optical focus 42. Coaxial cable for distribution system has an
b. Electrical focus impedance of
a. 50 ohms high powered RF transmission and are
b. 75 ohms limited to radio frequency of about 500 kHz.
c. 150 ohms a. Arc transmitter
d. 300 ohms b. Hartley transmitter
c. Spark transmitter
43. The average voltage value of the 3.58-MHz d. Frequency transmitter
modulated chrominance signal is
a. zero for most colors 50. A technique where segments of videotape
b. close to black for yellow are joined by electronic erasing and
c. the brightness of the color recording to create a single program.
d. the saturation of the color a. masking
b. segmenting
44. When does broadcast station conduct an c. editing
equipment test? d. programming
a. during day time
b. during night time 51. A class C FM station has an authorized
c. during experimental period power not exceeding ______watts of ERP.
d. at any time a. 500
b. 750
45. It causes the picture information to spread c. 1000
out or crowded at one end of the rater d. 2000
compared to the opposite end.
a. Linear scanning 52. The assembly around the neck of a picture
b. Interlaced scanning tube that produces the magnetic fields that
c. Non-linear scanning deflect and scan the electron beams is called
d. Retrace the _________.
a. shadow mask
46. If the camera cannot be placed far away b. phosphor
enough to include everything in the scene, c. electron gun
change the lens to one with a d. yoke
a. lower f rating
b. higher f rating 53. An odd number of lines per frame form part
c. longer focal length of every one of the worlds TV systems.
d. shorter focal length This is _____________________.
a. done to assist interface
47. Type of radio communication transmission b. purely an accident
utilizing frequency modulation technique c. to ensure that line and frame
a. television video frequencies can be obtained from the
b. broadcasting in 535-1606 kHz same original source
c. single sideband HF transmission d. done to minimize interference with
d. television audio the chroma subcarrier

48. The amount of color in the picture or color 54. The difference between the sound carrier
intensity in the ______. and the color signal is
a. color level a. 4.5 MHz
b. chroma level b. 1.25 MHz
c. saturation c. 0.92 MHz
d. any of these d. 0.25 MHz

49. One of the early radio transmitters which 55. In color television, it is made for uniform
produced keyed carrier generating purer color in the raster.
waveform than spark transmitter, used for a. beam-landing adjustment
b. degaussing 63. The hue 180 degrees out of phase with red is
c. internal blanking adjustment ______.
d. background control a. cyan
b. yellow
56. Which of the following camera tubes uses c. green
lead oxide for the photoconductive target d. blue
a. vidicon 64. It is used around the phosphor dots to make
b. plumbicon a darker black which improves contrast in
c. saticon the picture.
d. image orthicon a. black masking
b. convergence adjustment
57. The number of fields is ______ per frame. c. shadow masking
a. 2 d. color parity adjustment
b. 60
c. 525 65. A lens with lower f rating is _____ lens that
d. 262.5 allows more light input.
a. slower
58. An RF carrier wave that is frequency b. wider
modulated by the baseband audio signal in c. narrower
TV broadcasting. d. faster
a. Audio signal
b. Video signal 66. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of ___
c. Intercarrier signal per second.
d. Color signal a. 30
b. 60
59. A class B FM station is limited in antenna c. 45
height of ____ feet. d. 50
a. 1000
b. 500 67. The effective radiated power of a class A
c. 250 FM station should not exceed ______ kW.
d. 100 a. 125
b. 30
60. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of c. 10
a TV receiver is generated in the d. 1
a. mains transformer
b. vertical output stage 68. In television, 4:3 represents the
c. horizontal output stage a. interface ratio
d. horizontal deflection oscillator b. maximum horizontal deflection
c. aspect ratio
61. A tap for the subscriber drop line has a d. ration of the two diagonals
a. high insertion loss
b. high tap loss 69. Titling the viseo head gaps is necessary with
c. low tap loss the
d. 300-ohm impedance a. color under
b. zero guard bands
62. Which system can be used for both c. FM luminance signal
recording and playback? d. Long play tapes
a. CED
b. VHD 70. It is a special camera tube with a test pattern
c. laser disk printed in the image plate.
d. VHS a. vidicon
b. monoscope 77. The shadow mask in color picture tube is
c. oscilloscope used to
d. iconoscope a. Reduce X-ray emission
b. Ensure that each beam hits only its
71. The number of lines scanned per frame in dots
the raster on the picture tube screen is c. Increase screen brightness
a. 525 d. Provide degaussing for the screen
b. 262
c. 20 78. The video heads rotate at high velocity to
d. 10 increase the
a. tape speed
72. One of the following is a high powered RF b. writing speed
ac basic transmitter that has two or more c. reel rotation
stages, the oscillator stage which determines d. tape tension
the frequency of operation and RF amplifier
stage or stages that develop the high power 79. How do you eliminate radio frequency
output. The purpose of which is to develop a variation of an oscillator transmitter caused
good frequency stability. by its supply voltage?
a. MOPA a. use of a regulated power supply
b. Hartley b. use of a new power supply
c. Alexanderson c. use of high capacitor in the supply
d. Goldsmith circuit
d. loosen power supply shielding
73. Camera signal output without sync is called
______. 80. The composite video signal includes the
a. black burst camera signal with the following except
b. generator lock video a. picture information
c. composite video b. sync pulses
d. non-composite video c. blanking pulses
d. camera signal
74. The tint of the color is its _____.
a. brightness 81. A lens has an 8-cm focal length and 4-cm
b. contrast diameter. Its f rating is
c. chroma a. 2
d. hue b. 4
c. 8
75. Which frequency band is the standard AM d. 32
radio broadcast?
a. HF 82. Which of the following is a possible cause
b. UHF for an abrupt frequency variation in a self
c. MF excited transmitter oscillator circuits
d. VHF resulting poor frequency stability to hold a
constant frequency oscillation?
76. The I and Q composite color signals are a. DC and RF AC heating of resistor
multiplexed onto the picture carrier by which cause a change in values
modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier using b. Heating and expansion of oscillator
a. FM coil
b. PM c. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
c. DSB AM d. Power supply voltage changes
d. Vestigial sideband AM
83. How long does it take to scan 2 picture 90. It is the light flux intercepted by a one-foot-
elements when 400 are scanned in 50 square surface that is one-foot from a one-
microseconds? candlepower source.
a. 25 microsec a. candela
b. 0.25 microsec b. footcandle
c. 2.5 microsec c. lux
d. 0.5 microsec d. lumens

84. Anode voltage for the picture tube, 91. Refers to the possible cause of an abrupt
developed from the output of the horizontal frequency variations in a self-excited
deflection circuit. transmitter oscillator circuit resulting to a
a. Yoke voltage poor frequency stability to hold a constant
b. Flyback voltage oscillator.
c. Aquadag voltage a. poor soldered connections
d. Tube voltage b. heating of capacitor in the oscillator
c. DC and AC heating of resistors
85. The channel spacing in the Philippine FM which cause change in values
broadcast standards d. Aging which cause change in
a. 400 kHz condition in parts characteristics
b. 800 kHz
c. 600 kHz 92. It is the difference in intensity between the
d. 200 kHz black parts and white parts of the picture.
a. brightness
86. What is the black-and-white or monochrome b. hue
brightness signal in TV called? c. contrast
a. RGB d. illumination
b. Color subcarrier
c. Q an I 93. The stereophonic subcarrier suppression
d. Luminance Y level in the Philippines standards
a. less than 4% modulation of the main
87. Which of the following is a midband cable carrier
TV channel? b. less than 3% modulation of the main
a. 6 carrier
b. 7 c. less than 2% modulation of the main
c. 14 carrier
d. 23 d. less than 1% modulation of the
main carrier
88. What is the primary purpose of an RF
amplifier in a receiver? 94. The sound IF in a TV receiver is
a. to vary the receiver image rejection a. 4.5 MHz
by utilizing the AGC b. 10.7 MHz
b. to provide most of the receiver gain c. 41.25 MHz
c. to develop the AGC voltage d. 45.75 MHz
d. to improve the receivers noise
figure 95. The circuit the separates sync pulse from the
composite video waveforms is
89. The color with the most luminance is a. the keyed AGC amplifier
a. red b. a clipper
b. yellow c. an integrator
c. green d. a differentiator
d. blue
96. In the CED system, the disk capacitance
varies with the
a. pit depth
b. disk size
c. speed of rotation
d. wavelength of the scanning light

97. The final power amplifier in an FM

transmitter usually operates class ______.
a. AB
b. C
c. B
d. A

98. In a picture tube, it is the total angle that the

beam can be deflected without touching the
sides of the envelope.
a. screen angle
b. tube angle
c. picture angle
d. deflection angle

99. It is necessary to time the scanning with

respect to picture information
a. flyback
b. synchronization
c. blanking
d. scanning

100. The intermediate frequency used in for

FM broadcasting Philippine standards.
a. 455 kHz
b. 10.7 MHz
c. 11.4 MHz
d. 12.5 MHz