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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
11.14. Lights (ATA 33) (37)
Q. 6. What is the arc of a landing light?.
Q. 1. With aircraft lights - which of the following is A. 15.
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true?. B. 11.
A. Starboard light green, port light red, tail light C. 20.
white. Correct Answer is. 11.
B. Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd
Red. Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1.
C. Starboard light red, port light green, tail light
White. Q. 7. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light
Correct Answer is. Starboard light green, port light is.
red, tail light white. A. 11.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd B. 140.
Edition Page 145. C. 110.
Correct Answer is. 140.
Q. 2. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd
then. Edition Page 146, and CAR 25.1387.
A. the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired.
B. the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions Q. 8. Wing navigation lights must be visible through
only. which angle?.
C. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main A. 110.
base. B. 125.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty C. 180.
to a main base. Correct Answer is. 110.
Explanation. Can fly without passengers in accordance Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page
with the MEL. No reference found. 146, and CAR 25.1387, and EEL/1-10 301 a).

Q. 3. A fluorescent tube contains.


A. orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.
B. phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury Q. 9. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the.
vapour. A. battery bus and ground services bus.
C. iodine coatings and rare gases. B. battery bus.
Correct Answer is. phosphor coatings, rare gases and C. ground services bus.
mercury vapour. Correct Answer is. battery bus and ground services
Explanation. bus.
http://www.users.mis.net/~pthrush/lighting/flour.html Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics,
Q. 4. A white steady light is required. Eismin 5th edition page 256.
A. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70
degrees either side of dead astern.
B. of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 Q. 10. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured.
degrees either side of dead astern.
C. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 A. green.
degrees either side of dead astern. B. red.
Correct Answer is. of at least 3 candelas, at the rear C. white.
of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern. Correct Answer is. red.
Explanation. CAP 393 Rules of the Air Rule 11 (2) (a) Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems
(iii). Jeppesen Page 7-2.

Q. 5. How many floor path lights can you fly with Q. 11. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are
unserviceable?. supplied by.
A. 15%. A. AC handling bus.
B. 25%. B. DC handling bus.
C. 20%. C. the battery bus.
Correct Answer is. 25%. Correct Answer is. AC handling bus.
Page

Explanation. AWN 56 2.11. Explanation. BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar)
although other aircraft (A340, B747) use 28VDC ground

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
bus.
Q. 18. In what position should the selector switch be
Q. 12. What will happen if the Master Dim and test for a standby and emergency lighting system during
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switch is switched to the on position?. flight.


A. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. A. Armed.
B. All lights will illuminate. B. OFF.
C. Dome lights will illuminate. C. ON.
Correct Answer is. Rectangular indicator lights will Correct Answer is. Armed.
illuminate. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-
Explanation. NIL. 23.

Q. 13. Escape route lighting must not have more Q. 19. The emergency lighting system must be
than. designed so that after any single transverse vertical
A. 20% obscured. separation of the fuselage during crash landing the
B. 10% obscured. maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is.
C. 15% obscured.
Correct Answer is. 20% obscured. A. 15%.
Explanation. NIL. B. 10%.
C. 25%.
Q. 14. How many emergency lights are allowed to be Correct Answer is. 25%.
inoperative?. Explanation. CAR 25.812.
A. 25%.
B. 10%. Q. 20. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light
C. None. rating of.
Correct Answer is. 25%. A. 100 candelas.
Explanation. CAR 25.812 (l) (1), and CAAIPs Leaflet 5- B. 50 candelas.
11 2.11.1. C. 20 candelas.
Q. 15. The angle of a runway turnoff light is. Correct Answer is. 20 candelas.
A. 40. Explanation. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para.
B. 60. 11 (2) (d).
C. 50. Q. 21. Service lights include.
Correct Answer is. 50. A. refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo
Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page lights.
146. B. avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage
compartment lights.
C. baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights,
Q. 16. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied refuelling lights.
with. Correct Answer is. baggage compartment lights,
A. 28 V DC. avionics bay lights, refuelling lights.
B. 115 V AC. Explanation. EEL/1-10 3.5.
C. 28 V AC.
Correct Answer is. 115 V AC. Q. 22. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe operates, how is it reset?.
Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115). A. The linkage must be repositioned and latched when
the aircraft is on the ground.
B. Select full 'RETRACT'.
Q. 17. How are passenger reading lights normally C. It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the
tested?. high stress loads experienced.
A. Each one is switched on individually at passenger Correct Answer is. Select full 'RETRACT'.
panel. Explanation. EEL/1-10 3.3.1.
B. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger
panel. Q. 23. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light
C. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin head, a time period must elapse to avoid electrical
attendant panel. shock or burning. That time period is at least.
Correct Answer is. Each one is switched on A. 2 minutes.
Page

individually at passenger panel. B. 5 minutes.


Explanation. NIL. C. 1 minute.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
Correct Answer is. 2 minutes. B. together - they are wired in series.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 5.5. C. First Officer's only in emergency mode.
Correct Answer is. together - they are wired in
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Q. 24. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, series.


in addition, must show through an inclusive angle of. Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Systems. Page
153.
A. 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum.
B. 110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum.
C. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. Q. 29. In the CWS system, the caution light is
Correct Answer is. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas coloured.
minimum. A. red.
Explanation. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para 2 B. amber.
a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-10 3.1 c). C. green.
Correct Answer is. amber.
Q. 25. Self-illuminating signs. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-10 4.4.1.
A. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are
not dark adapted. Q. 30. On a CWS, which has the highest priority?.
B. require a period of daylight, or intense artificial A. Fire warning.
light to operate. B. Hydraulic pump failure.
C. are self powered and contain phosphor and helium C. Duct overheat.
gas. Correct Answer is. Fire warning.
Correct Answer is. are instantly seen in dark areas by Explanation. NIL.
persons who are not dark adapted.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 4.8. Q. 31. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe
light?.
Q. 26. When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', A. Freon.
the resistor is in. B. Halon.
A. parallel with the light and the transistor is not C. Xenon.
conducting. Correct Answer is. Xenon.
B. series with the light and the transistor is not Explanation. NIL.
conducting.
C. series with the light and the transistor is Q. 32. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory
conducting. requirement and each light should be spaced.
Correct Answer is. series with the light and the A. at 60 inch intervals.
transistor is conducting. B. at 70 inch intervals.
Explanation. The transistor is conducting all the time C. at 40 inch intervals.
the light is switched on. Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Correct Answer is. at 40 inch intervals.
Systems. Page 153. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2.7.1.
Q. 33. Tritium Gas is used in a.
Q. 27. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that A. strobe light.
are switched on. B. landing Light.
A. because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp C. self illuminating lights.
units. Correct Answer is. self illuminating lights.
B. and the glare-shield lights are automatically Explanation. EEL/1-10 4.8.1.
dimmed.
C. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's
sight. Q. 34. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of
Correct Answer is. to reduce the effect of lightning on glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is
the pilot's sight. what?.
Explanation. NIL. A. Xenon Gas and blue-white.
http://www.flightsim.com/cgi/kds?$=main/special/real B. Helium gas and white.
777 C. Neon gas and blue.
Correct Answer is. Xenon Gas and blue-white.
Explanation. EEL/1-10 3.2.3.
Q. 28. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be
Page

dimmed.
A. individually - they are wired in parallel. Q. 35. The aircraft has a partial failure of its

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
emergency lighting system. Q. 4. Oxygen cylinder test dates.
A. continue with reduced passenger load. A. are painted in white on the cylinder.
B. ferry flight to main base for rectification. B. are variable depending on discharge.
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C. ground the aircraft. C. may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder.


Correct Answer is. continue with reduced passenger Correct Answer is. are painted in white on the
load. cylinder.
Explanation. A club66 user who got this question, Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-25 para 4.2.2.
queried it with the CAA. He was told (by the CAA
assessor)that the answer is b. However, no reference Q. 5. 02 system pressure has leaked away after
has been found. charging. What is the most probable cause?.
A. Supernumerator regular.
B. Temperature compensator.
Q. 36. Navigation lights are supplied by the following C. Breathing regulator.
circuit. Correct Answer is. Breathing regulator.
A. Dual circuit. Explanation. NIL.
B. Single circuit.
C. Individual circuits. Q. 6. If an O2 system is leaking, where would you
Correct Answer is. Single circuit. most likely find the cause?.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics A. Thermal Relief Valve.
Eismin Page 250. B. Loose connection.
C. Breathing mask.
Correct Answer is. Loose connection.
Q. 37. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate. Explanation. No TRV on O2 system. Breathing mask
A. below 10,000ft and descending. will only leak if system is turned on.
B. when landing gear doors are not closed. Q. 7. As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres.
C. when landing gear is up. A. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew
Correct Answer is. below 10,000ft and descending. activates the system from the emergency panel.
Explanation. NIL. B. the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half
way extended.
C. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew
11.15. Oxygen (ATA 35) (62) must activate the system from the cockpit.
Correct Answer is. the 02 masks deploy automatically
and hang half way extended.
Q. 1. Anoxia is due to. Explanation.
A. lack of oxygen.
B. low air pressure on the body.
C. release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood. Q. 8. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with.
Correct Answer is. lack of oxygen. A. pressure and quantity gauges.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 2.1. B. oxygen purity gauge.
C. temperature gauge.
Q. 2. The dilutor demand regulator functions. Correct Answer is. pressure and quantity gauges.
A. all the time. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4.9.
B. only when the supply valve is opened by the user.
C. when the user breathes in. Q. 9. A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle
Correct Answer is. when the user breathes in. opens.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe A. all the time.
Textbook Page 14-10. B. when breathing.
C. when 100% selected.
Q. 3. To measure moisture in an oxygen system use. Correct Answer is. when breathing.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-9.
A. a glass plate.
B. litmus paper. Q. 10. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with.
C. a hygrometer using the dew point method. A. a demand regulator.
Correct Answer is. a hygrometer using the dew point B. an overpressure indicator.
method. C. an over temperature indicator.
Page

Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-25 Para 6.4. Correct Answer is. a demand regulator.
Explanation. NIL.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-25 4.12.
Q. 11. American made crew oxygen cylinders are.
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A. black in colour with a RH thread. Q. 17. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous
B. green in colour with a LH thread. oxygen, the oxygen is.
C. green in colour with a RH thread. A. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the
Correct Answer is. green in colour with a RH temperature at approximately ambient.
thread. B. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not
Explanation. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p7 para 4.2.3 states affect temperature.
green for cylinders for American origin. (l/h threads are C. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep
for charging points). the temperature down.
Correct Answer is. passed into the bottle slowly to
Q. 12. Which connector has a left hand thread?. keep the temperature at approximately ambient.
A. N2. Explanation. A&P Mechanic Airframe Handbook Page
B. Freon. 598.
C. O2.
Correct Answer is. O2.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e). Q. 18. Where are the left handed threads found in an
oxygen system?.
A. Line valve.
Q. 13. What is the principle of an O2 generator?. B. Shut-off valve.
A. Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic C. Charging connection.
detonator. Correct Answer is. Charging connection.
B. Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e).
detonator producing O2 when mixed with air.
C. Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic
detonator. Q. 19. Portable O2 diluter demand valve works
Correct Answer is. Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by when.
an electronic detonator. A. the user breathes in.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-25 3.5.1. B. 100% is selected.
C. less than 500 psi is in bottle.
Correct Answer is. the user breathes in.
Q. 14. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-9.
pressurised to?.
A. 300 PSI.
B. 1800 PSI. Q. 20. A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is
C. 3000 PSI. used for.
Correct Answer is. 1800 PSI. A. additional flightcrew.
Explanation. AL/3-25 4.2, and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 B. changes in altitude.
3.3.1 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8. C. extra supply in case of emergency.
Correct Answer is. additional flightcrew.
Explanation. NIL.
Q. 15. Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should
be.
A. turned on by crew. Q. 21. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14,
B. turned off. 000 ft.
C. turned on and safety wire-locked. A. passenger must get mask from overhead stowage.
Correct Answer is. turned on and safety wire- B. masks drop automatically.
locked. C. attendant must drop masks.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. masks drop automatically.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 8-8.

Q. 16. A thermal compensator is used in. Q. 22. How do oxygen cylinders show over
A. a fuel system. pressure?.
B. an oxygen system. A. Green rupturing disc.
Page

C. an hydraulic system. B. Audible warning.


Correct Answer is. an oxygen system. C. Red rupturing disc.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
Correct Answer is. Green rupturing disc. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Explanation. AL/3-25 4.13. Q. 30. Pressure breathing systems must be used at
altitudes.
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Q. 23. The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is. A. above 40,000 ft.
A. 2 years. B. below 40,000 ft.
B. 10 years. C. above 30,000 ft.
C. 5 years. Correct Answer is. above 40,000 ft.
Correct Answer is. 5 years. Explanation. AL/3-25 table 1.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
Textbook page 14-8 or CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p16.
Q. 24. A discharged chemical generator is indicated Q. 31. In a diluter demand oxygen system.
by. A. oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure
A. a protruding pin. flow.
B. a change in colour. B. each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen
C. a broken tell-tale wire. supply.
Correct Answer is. a change in colour. C. each member of the crew has a regulator.
Explanation. AL/3-25. Correct Answer is. each member of the crew has a
regulator.
Q. 25. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply Explanation. AL/3-25 fig 3.
duration of at least.
A. 15 minutes.
B. 30 minutes. Q. 32. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is
C. 5 minutes. supplied.
Correct Answer is. 15 minutes. A. only when the supply has been regulated by the
Explanation. AL/3-25, and A&P Technician Airframe pilot.
Textbook 14-8 and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3.6.3 and CAR B. on passenger inhaling into the mask.
25.1439. C. when the mask is plugged into the socket.
Correct Answer is. only when the supply has been
Q. 26. The oxygen line service valve must be. regulated by the pilot.
A. wire locked open. Explanation. NIL.
B. wire locked closed.
C. only be wire locked with telltale wire.
Correct Answer is. wire locked open. Q. 33. In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection
Explanation. AL/3-25. of emergency on this regulator will result in.
A. 100% oxygen at positive pressure.
Q. 27. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft B. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.
capable of flying above. C. 100% oxygen supply as the user inhales.
A. 4,000 ft. Correct Answer is. 100% oxygen continuous flow at
B. 10,000ft. positive pressure.
C. 8,000ft. Explanation. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4.7 .
Correct Answer is. 10,000ft.
Explanation. AL/3-25 3.1.
Q. 34. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made
Q. 28. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is of.
approximately. A. aluminium.
A. 38,000 ft. B. stainless steel.
B. 25,000 ft. C. alloy steel.
C. 4,000 ft. Correct Answer is. alloy steel.
Correct Answer is. 25,000 ft. Explanation. AL/3-25 3.6.
Explanation. AL/3-25 Table 1.
Q. 35. Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged
Q. 29. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight to.
conditions, the cabin altitude must be. A. 1,800 p.s.i.
A. at a maximum of 12,000 ft. B. 2,000 p.s.i.
B. at or below 8,000 ft. C. 1,200 p.s.i.
Page

C. below 10,000 ft. Correct Answer is. 1,800 p.s.i.


Correct Answer is. at or below 8,000 ft. Explanation. AL/3-25 3.6.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
Q. 36. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in. Correct Answer is. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300
A. pounds/minute. p.s.i.
B. litres/pounds. Explanation. AL/3-25 5.5.1 ii).
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C. litres/minute.
Correct Answer is. litres/minute.
Explanation. NIL. Q. 43. What determines the material used for oxygen
pipe lines?.
A. The whims of the aircraft designer.
Q. 37. Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and B. The length of the pipe runs.
tested. C. The pressure used in the system.
A. every 3 years. Correct Answer is. The pressure used in the system.
B. every 6 years. Explanation. AL/3-25 4.3.
C. every 4 years.
Correct Answer is. every 4 years.
Explanation. AL/3-25 5.8. Q. 44. The direction of flow in an oxygen non return
valve is indicated.
A. by visual inspection.
Q. 38. Oxygen bottle capacity varies between. B. by colour coding.
A. 80 2250 litres. C. by an arrow.
B. 100 3200 litres. Correct Answer is. by an arrow.
C. 200 2250 litres. Explanation. AL/3-25 Page 8.
Correct Answer is. 80 2250 litres.
Explanation. AL/3-25 4.2. Q. 45. Oxygen filters are made of.
A. carbon fibres.
B. steel wool.
Q. 39. Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can C. sintered bronze.
be found. Correct Answer is. sintered bronze.
A. stamped on a metal label. Explanation. AL/3-25 Page 8.
B. stencilled on the bottle.
C. stamped on the neck ring. Q. 46. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is
Correct Answer is. stamped on the neck ring. indicated by.
Explanation. AL/3-25 4.2.2 and Leaflet 5-9 5.9. A. flow indicators.
B. pressure indicators.
C. lack of Anoxia.
Q. 40. After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off Correct Answer is. flow indicators.
valve is. Explanation. CAAIP's Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4.11.
A. left in the 'on' position.
B. left in the 'off' position until required. Q. 47. If a binding thread needs attention on an
C. wire locked in the 'on'. oxygen system.
Correct Answer is. wire locked in the 'on'. A. Teflon tape may be used.
Explanation. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 para 5.6.2 (h). B. distilled water may be used sparingly.
C. no lubricant may be used whatsoever.
Correct Answer is. Teflon tape may be used.
Q. 41. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders. Explanation. NIL.

A. is relieved by a bursting disc.


B. is relieved by a thermostat. Q. 48. The international marking for a breathing
C. is relieved by under pressurising the bottle. oxygen pipeline is a series of.
Correct Answer is. is relieved by a bursting disc. A. diamonds.
Explanation. AL/3-25 4.13. B. dots.
C. rectangles.
Correct Answer is. rectangles.
Q. 42. To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen Explanation. NIL.
cylinder.
A. cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p.s.i.
Page

B. cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p.s.i. Q. 49. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for
C. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i. breathing are painted.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
A. black with a white collar. Explanation. AL/3-25 3.5.2.
B. black.
C. white with a black collar.
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Correct Answer is. black with a white collar. Q. 55. When charging an oxygen bottle in situ.
Explanation. ZAL/3-25 4.2.2. A. charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure
graph.
B. charge slowly through a water trap.
Q. 50. A suitable leak detecting solution for use on C. slacken off the retaining straps first.
oxygen systems is. Correct Answer is. charge in accordance with the
A. leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B. temperature/pressure graph.
B. soapy water. Explanation. AL/3-25 5.12.2 (vi) (a).
C. grease free medical soap.
Correct Answer is. leak testing solution to Spec. MIL-
L-25567B. Q. 56. The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle
Explanation. AL/3-25 5.7.1, AL/3-21 3. indicates.
http://www.chemsol.com/chemsol/lubricants.html A. pressure.
B. temperature.
C. purity.
Q. 51. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous Correct Answer is. pressure.
oxygen, the oxygen is. Explanation. AL/3-25 4.2.
A. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep
the temperature down.
B. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at Q. 57. The application of thread lubrication tape in an
approximately ambient. oxygen system should be.
C. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not A. applied to all except the first two threads and not
affect temperature. more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
Correct Answer is. passed into the bottle slowly to B. applied to all except the first two threads and not
keep temperature at approximately ambient. more than one complete wrap of tape.
Explanation. AL/3-25 5.12.2 (vi). C. applied to all the threads and not more than one
complete wrap of tape.
Correct Answer is. applied to all except the first two
Q. 52. In areas closely associated with oxygen threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
systems, particular care must be taken to avoid Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 5.7.
leaving.
A. traces of oils or greases.
B. acrylic based plastic materials. Q. 58. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made
C. magnesium particles. of.
Correct Answer is. traces of oils or greases. A. stainless steel.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook B. aluminium alloy.
Chapter 14-19 rh column 2nd para. C. titanium.
Correct Answer is. stainless steel.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4.3.1.
Q. 53. When working in the vicinity of an oxygen
system.
A. the area must be well ventilated. Q. 59. Lubricate oxygen connector threads using.
B. no electrical power must be used. A. hellerene.
C. oil must not come into contact with the system. B. Teflon tape.
Correct Answer is. oil must not come into contact C. WD40.
with the system. Correct Answer is. Teflon tape.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.

Q. 54. A chemical oxygen generator operates at. Q. 60. How is an expended chemical oxygen generator
A. 45C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. indicated?.
B. 45F at 10 psi for 15 minutes. A. A pressure seal would be broken.
Page

C. 45K at 10 psi for 15 minutes. B. By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint.


Correct Answer is. 45C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. C. The indicator pin would be protruding.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
Correct Answer is. By a change in colour of heat drops.
sensitive paint.
Explanation. NIL.
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Q. 4. High pressure pneumatic source is a.


A. reciprocating pump.
Q. 61. Oxygen purging is a process of. B. centrifugal Compressor.
A. pressure testing the system. C. butterfly pump.
B. measuring the flow rate from the regulator. Correct Answer is. reciprocating pump.
C. removing moisture from the system. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1.
Correct Answer is. removing moisture from the
system.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p19 para 6. Q. 5. High pressure pneumatic pump is a.
A. reciprocating pump.
B. spur gear.
Q. 62. To check an oxygen system for moisture. C. butterfly pump.
A. a sniff test is used. Correct Answer is. reciprocating pump.
B. a hygrometer is used. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23 4.1.
C. pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean
glass.
Correct Answer is. a hygrometer is used. Q. 6. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open
Explanation. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 6.4.1. for a long time it will drain.
A. between the compressor and the PRV.
11.16. Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) (10) B. just the moisture trap.
C. all the system.
Correct Answer is. between the compressor and the
Q. 1. When the moisture separator is purged in a PRV.
pneumatic system, it dumps. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1.
A. just the moisture trap.
B. the whole system.
C. the system between compressor and regulator Q. 7. On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the
valve. drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods
Correct Answer is. just the moisture trap. of time, the system would.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe A. lose pressure from the compressor side only.
Textbook Page 8-54. CAIPs AL/3-22. B. lose pneumatic pressure partially.
C. lose all pressure.
Correct Answer is. lose pressure from the compressor
Q. 2. The pneumatic system pump is a. side only.
A. centrifugal type. Explanation. AL/3-22 figure 1.
B. rotor vane type.
C. piston type.
Correct Answer is. piston type. Q. 8. Two compressors driven by separate engines
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe use.
Textbook Page 8-56, Although smaller systems may have A. Interconnected to share loads.
avane type. B. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other.
C. PRVs.
Correct Answer is. NRVs to prevent compressors
Q. 3. In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will driving each other.
be fitted in supply lines to. Explanation. NIL.
A. essential equipment.
B. all equipment.
C. non-essential equipment. Q. 9. What is important about the air entering a dry
Correct Answer is. non-essential equipment. air pump?.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-22. Maintainer valves work in A. It must be filtered.
same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence the B. It must be pressure controlled.
reference). Although they protect the flow to the C. It must be temperature controlled.
Page

essential systems, they do so by being situated in the Correct Answer is. It must be filtered.
non-essential lines, and closing off if the pressure Explanation. NIL.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
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Q. 5. Drinking water pipes are prevented from


Q. 10. What type of compressor is used on a freezing by.
pneumatic system?. A. installation of neoprene foam insulation.
A. Rotary vane type. B. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons.
B. Spur gear type. C. placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping.
C. Positive displacement type. Correct Answer is. wrapping the pipes with heated
Correct Answer is. Positive displacement type. tapes or ribbons.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.

11B.17. Water/Waste (ATA 38) (9)


Q. 6. Toilets are the subject of.
A. AWN 83.
Q. 1. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat B. AWN 79.
by. C. AWN 80.
A. thermal protection. Correct Answer is. AWN 83.
B. water cooling. Explanation. All the AWNs listed have now been
C. cooling fan on timer switch. removed. Download an old copy from the Forum.
Correct Answer is. thermal protection.
Explanation. AWN 57.
Q. 7. Toilet waste valves are.
A. not spring loaded.
Q. 2. What is the purpose of thermal protection on B. spring loaded open.
electric toilet motor?. C. spring loaded closed.
A. Prevent motor overheating and become fire Correct Answer is. spring loaded closed.
hazard. Explanation. NIL.
B. Prevent toilet freezing.
C. Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer
become unserviceable. Q. 8. The heater used on a drain mast would be a.
Correct Answer is. Prevent motor overheating and
become fire hazard. A. induction heater.
Explanation. AWN 57 Para.2.3. B. hot air blower.
C. ribbon heater.
Correct Answer is. ribbon heater.
Q. 3. Waste water drain masts. Explanation. NIL.
A. are not heated.
B. are heated using low amperage in the Air and on
ground. Q. 9. A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in
C. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on flight.
ground only. A. Close toilet until landing.
Correct Answer is. are heated using low amperage B. You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical
with the aircraft on ground only. toilet.
Explanation. 737 AMM ch. 30-71 28VAC on ground and C. It can be overcome by thermal compensating
115VAC in air. device.
Correct Answer is. Close toilet until landing.
Explanation. IAW B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2, the
Q. 4. the seal of the valve is replaceable without associate lavatory system may be inop. with lav door
draining the tanks. secured closed and placard 'INOPERATIVE- DO NOT
A. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining ENTER'. Toilet recirc fan is part of the lav system.
the tanks.
B. the tank must be de-fuelled.
C. the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain 11.18.
assembly must be replaced.
Correct Answer is. the seal of the valve is replaceable Q. 1. Primary Radar is.
Page

without draining the tanks. A. for ground use only.


Explanation. NIL. B. reflected signal from aircraft's own radar.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
C. interrogation of aircraft's transponder. Explanation. The 10 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm and the
Correct Answer is. for ground use only. 0.04 ohm are the field windings. The generator output
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Explanation. NIL. is split between the 0.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load,
but only by 0.06/100x 200V = 0.12V (across the 0.06
ohm). So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer
Q. 2. A battery in situ on an aircraft charges at a to 200V than the other two answers.
fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains
constant.
A. may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low.
B. may charge at an excessive rate if initial battery
voltage is low.
C.
Correct Answer is. may charge at an excessive rate if Q. 7. On a direct current circuit, current limiters.
initial battery voltage is low.
Explanation. NIL. A. prevent excessive current to the field circuit.
B. allow excessive current to the load circuit.
C. prevent excessive current to the load circuit.
Q. 3. To parallel an alternating current generator with Correct Answer is. prevent excessive current to the
one or more other generators, phase A must be. load circuit.
A. in-phase with other generators and CBA only. Explanation. NIL.
B. 90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC.
C. in-phase with other generators and ABC.
Correct Answer is. in-phase with other generators and Q. 8. On a direct current twin generator system, the
CBA only. paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming
Explanation. NIL. generators voltage is.
A. above bus voltage.
B. below bus voltage.
Q. 4. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating C. the same as bus voltage.
current system, the phase of the second generator to Correct Answer is. above bus voltage.
be brought on line. Explanation. NIL.
A. must be in-phase prior to paralleling.
B. is important if the first generator fails.
C. is unimportant. Q. 9. On an aircraft's navigation displays, distance
Correct Answer is. must be in-phase prior to measuring equipment gives.
paralleling. A. height and range to beacon.
Explanation. NIL. B. ground range to beacon.
C. slant range to beacon.
Correct Answer is. slant range to beacon.
Q. 5. When an autopilot is Fail Passive,. Explanation. NIL.
A. the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot.
B. the pilot must resume control and land the
aircraft. Q. 10. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display
C. the autoland can continue. system, Radio deviation is shown on.
Correct Answer is. the pilot must resume control and A. EADI.
land the aircraft. B. EHSI & EADI.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control p211. C. EHSI.
Correct Answer is. EHSI & EADI.
Explanation. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. The
deviation indicator is duplicated. It is on the EHSI and
Q. 6. On the direct current short shunt generator EADI.
circuit shown, output voltage at the load is 200V. What
is the voltage across the shunt winding?.
Q. 11. On a flight management system, the database
A. 200V. is updated every.
B. 206V. A. 2 Months.
Page

C. 212V. B. 3 Months.
Correct Answer is. 200V. C. 1 Month.

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11.14 Lights (ATA 33) 11.15 Oxygen (ATA 35) 11.16 Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) 11.17 Water/Waste (ATA 38) 11.18 On Board Maintenance Systems
(ATA 45)
Correct Answer is. 1 Month. C. Total Air Temperature.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Total Air Temperature.
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Explanation. NIL.

Q. 12. The decision height light will illuminate


when.
A. the decision height is selected.
B. the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision
height.
C. the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision
height.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft's indicated altitude is
above decision height.
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 13. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system,


Mach information is derived from.
A. indicated airspeed and altitude.
B. pitot and static pressures.
C. indicated air speed and total air temperature.
Correct Answer is. indicated airspeed and altitude.
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 14. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate


of climb of an aircraft is produced in the.
A. Indicated Airspeed Module.
B. Mach Module.
C. Altitude Module.
Correct Answer is. Altitude Module.
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 15. In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is


produced from.
A. static air pressure.
B. pitot air pressure.
C. pitot air pressure and total air temperature.
Correct Answer is. static air pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 16. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC),


Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from.
A. pitot pressure only.
B. pitot and static air pressure.
C. static pressure only.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static air pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

Q. 17. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system,


True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach
information and.
Page

A. Static Air Pressure.


B. Pitot Air Pressure.

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