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1.

The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is the angle between the:


Chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow

2. The units of the density of the air (I) and the force (II) are:
(I) kg / m3, (II) N

3. The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are:
(I) N / m, (II) N / m

4. Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
F=m. a

5. The static pressure acts:


In all directions

6. Lift is generated when:


A certain mass of air is accelerated downwards

7. Consider a steady flow through a stream tube at a given constant velocity. An increase in the flow's
temperature will:
Lower the mass flow

8. Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?

The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases

9. If, in a two-dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines converge the static pressure in the
flow will:
Decrease

10. Bernoulli's equation can be written as:


(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic pressure)
pt = ps + q

11. Which of these statements about boundary layers is correct?


A laminar boundary layer is thinner than a turbulent one

12. As angle of attack is increased on a conventional low speed aerofoil at low subsonic speeds, flow separation
normally starts on the:
Upper surface near the trailing edge

13. On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack
is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a conventional transport aeroplane):
Move forward

14. The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis of the Cl - alpha graph:
Above the srcin

15. The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between:
The chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction

16. The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is:
Angle of attack

17. The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the:
Angle of incidence

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18. With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move
(II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
(I) down, (II) forward

19. On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch up" phenomenon:
Is caused by wingtip stall

20. Low speed pitch up is caused by the:


Spanwise flow on a swept back wing

21. The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
Parasite drag is equal to the induced drag

22. Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when Cl=0 is:
Negative (pitch-down).

23. On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which Cl=0 is:
Zero

24. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be:
x 0.25

25. When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes:

At same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased

26. In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be:
N greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight

27. On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, the "Full extended" position will produce:
An increase in wing area and camber

28. When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually:
Remain the same

29. When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will:
Increase

30. Trailing edge flap extension will:


Decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax

31. Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?
Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not

32. What is the most effective flap system?


Fowler flap

33. Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will:


Move aft, and then turn down

34. A slotted flap will increase the CLMAX by:


Increasing the camber of the aerofoil re-energising the airflow

35. In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the
angle of attack will:
Increase

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36. What is the purpose of an auto-slat system?
Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded

37. The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is to:
Cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer

38. Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack?
Flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended

39. An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible
efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is:
Wing roots: L.E. flaps, Wing tips: slats

40. A deployed slat will:


Increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part of the wing to the slat, so that
the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack

41. An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0, 15, 30 and 45. Slats can be selected too. Which of the
above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?
Flaps from 30 to 45

42. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why?
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag

43. Upon wing spoiler extension in straight and level flight, if the speed and load factor remain constant:
CD increases but CL remains unaffected

44. A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence.Which type of stall can
occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
Accelerated stall

45. Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
Deep stall

46. When considering a swept-back wing, without corrective design features, at the stall:
Tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-up pitching moment

47. The following unit of measurement: kgm/s is expressed in the SI-system as:
Newton

48. Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of:
CL and AR (aspect ratio)

49. One important advantage a turbulent boundary layer has over a laminar layer is that the turbulent boundary
layer:
Has less tendency to separate from the surface

50. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.3 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
59%
Lift is constant, i.e. it is the same in both cases.
2
Lift 1= 1/2 x density x S x VS x CLmax
2
Lift 2= 1/2 x density x S x (1.3xVS) x CL
Lift 1 = Lift 2
2 2 2 2 2
1/2 x density x S x VS x CLmax = 1/2 x density x S x (1.3xVS) x CL VS x CLmax = (1.3xVS) x CL VS x CLmax =
2 2 2 2 2 2
1.3 x VS x CL; CL = VS x CLmax /(1.3 ) x VS ; CL = CLmax / 1.3 ; CL = CLmax x 0.59

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51. The lift formula can be written as:
(Rho = density)
L= CL 1/2 RHO V S

52. Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct?
At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest

53. Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:


Relative wind/airflow

54. At a load factor of 1 and the aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di and
parasite drag Dp?
Di/Dp = 1

55. The correct drag formula can be written as:


(Rho = density)
D= CD 1/2 RHO V S

56. The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with the:
Square of the speed

57. An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and
the induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors:

(i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4

58. What is the effect on induced drag of an increase in aspect ratio?


Induced drag decreases, because the effect of tip vortices decreases

59. In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag alter with increasing speed?
(1) decreases and (2) increases

60. Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (assume zero wing twist)
Elliptical

61. If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually:
(flap span less than wing span)

Decrease
62. The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant mass varies linearly with:
1/V

63. Assuming no compressibility effects, induced drag at constant IAS is affected by:
Aeroplane mass

64. Which of the following will reduce induced drag?


Elliptical lifts distribution

65. Induced drag is the result of:


Downwash generated by tip vortices

66. Vortex generators:


Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer

67. How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a
straight and level flight at constant weight?
Decreasing, then increasing

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68. A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will improve:
The low speed characteristics

69. Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices will produce:
A nose-down pitching moment

70. Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall change as follows:
(1) decreases (2) increases

71. Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will:
(1) move aft, (2) move forward

72. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct?


Increasing sweepback increases stall speed

73. Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?


During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position

74. During an normal spin recovery:


The ailerons are held in the neutral position

75. Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is correct?
Just before the stall the aeroplane will have a nose-down tendency

76. Which of the following are used as stall warning devices?


Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator

77. The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the:
Stagnation point

78. The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engined aeroplane is:
Full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with rudder

79. Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall?
Swept back wings and a T-tail

80. A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall
behaviour can be:
Nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response

81. The function of the stick pusher is:


To activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack

82. Dangerous stall characteristics, in large transport aeroplanes that require stick pushers to be installed, include:
Excessive wing drop and deep stall

83. The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is:
Reduction in CLmax

84. The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are:
Decrease of CLmax and increase of drag

85. The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter.
The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor:
3

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86. The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst others on:
The airstream velocity

87. A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag
will increase with a factor:
16

88. A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreasesto half of the srcinal value.
The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor:
2

89. The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
The centre of pressure

90. The location of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil at increasing angle of attack will:
Shift forward until approaching the critical angle of attack

91. The unit of density is:


kg/m

92. The unit of measurement of pressure is:


psi

93. The boundary layer of a wing is:


A layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity

94. A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:


No velocity components exist, normal to the surface

95. Total pressure is (rho = density):


Static pressure plus the dynamic pressure

96. The (subsonic) static pressure:


Decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases

97. The true airspeed (TAS) is:

Lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below sea level
98. The lift- and drag forces, acting on an aerofoil:
Depend on the pressure distribution around the aerofoil

99. The lift force, acting on an aerofoil:


Is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil

100. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:


% chord

101. The aerofoil polar is:


A graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient

102. The aspect ratio of the wing:


Is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord

103. Dihedral of the wing is:


The angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis

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104. The induced drag:
Increases as the lift coefficient increases

105. Flap extension at constant IAS whilst maintaining straight and level flight will increase the:
Maximum lift coefficient (CLMAX) and the drag

106. During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight:
The centre of pressure moves aft

107. Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
Decreasing weight

108. The difference between IAS and TAS will:


Decrease at decreasing altitude

109. An increase in wing loading will:


Increase the stall speeds

110. Which statement is correct?


The flow on the upper surface of the wing has a component in wing root direction

111. Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be
triggered is:

Greater than VS

112. The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:
The angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow

113. The terms "q" and "S" in the lift formula are:
Dynamic pressure and the area of the wing

114. The critical angle of attack:


Remains unchanged regardless of gross weight

115. Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:

CL is much greater than CD


116. Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?
For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0

117. The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relationship between:


Lift coefficient CI and drag coefficient Cd

118. The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform is basically:
The chord of an equivalent untwisted, rectangular wing with the same pitching moment and lift
characteristics as the actual wing

119. The span-wise flow on an unswept wing is from the:


Lower to the upper surface via the wing tip

120. Induced drag may be reduced by:


An increase in aspect ratio

121. The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is:
A decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag

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122. Increasing the aspect ratio of a wing:
Decreases induced drag

123. What is the effect on induced drag of mass and speed changes (all other factors of importance remaining
constant)?
Decreases with increasing speed and decreasing mass

124. What will happen in ground effect?


The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases

125. Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur:
When the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface

126. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer:
Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer

127. Behind the transition point in a boundary layer:


The mean speed and friction drag increases

128. The stall speed:


Increases with an increased weight

129. During a steady horizontal turn, the stall speed:

Increases with the square root of load factor

130. The stall speed in a 60 banked turn increases by the following factor:
1.41

131. Trailing edge flaps once extended:


Degrade the minimum glide angle

132. When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be:
Nose down

133. Extension of leading edge flaps will:


Increase critical angle of attack

134. Slat extension will:


Increase critical angle of attack

135. High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of:
Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack

136. "A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of an aerofoil".
This definition is applicable for:
The camber line

137. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its mass of 6850 kg. What is the stall speed when the mass is
5000 kg?
67 KCAS

138. What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of:


Slats

139. What is the unit of measurement for power?


Nm/s

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140. The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because:
It delays the stall to a higher angle of attack

141. Which statement is correct?


As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile moves downwards

142. Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLMAX with trailing edge flaps extended is:
Smaller

143. A slat will


Increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack

144. The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the
Stagnation point

145. Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall?
Swept wings

146. Assuming zero wing twist, the wing planform that gives the highest local lift coefficient atthe wing root is:
Rectangular

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147. Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are correct?
1. The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat is equal.
2. The total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat is equal.
1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

148. The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the angle between:
The undisturbed airflow and the chordline

149. For a subsonic flow the continuity equation states that if the cross-sectional area of a tube increases, the
speed of the flow:
Decreases

150. If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a
tube changes? (low speed, subsonic and incompressible flow)
rho1 = rho2

151. Bernoulli's equation can be written as:


(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure)
pt - q = ps

152. Which boundary layer, when considering its velocity profile perpendicular to the flow, has the greatest change
in velocity close to the surface?
Turbulent boundary layer

153. Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the same cross section area) will have lowest drag?
Body C

154. Increasing dynamic pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane:
At speeds above the minimum drag speed, total drag increases

155. Increasing air pressure will have the following effect onthe drag of an aeroplane (angle of attack, OAT and
TAS are constant):
The drag increases

156. Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag?
Wing tip

157. Winglets
Decrease the induced drag

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158. The interference drag is the result of:
Aerodynamic interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage)

159. Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane?


Line c

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160. The diagram shows the parameter Y against TAS. If horizontal flight is considered axis Y represents:
The induced drag

161. How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V?
V1 = 0 and V2 > V

162. Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest
flow velocities occur?
Upper side

163. Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the
Relative wind/airflow

164. When an aeroplane enters ground effect:


The lift is increased and the drag is decreased

165. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance:
Increases

166. An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different
altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)
The TAS at the higher altitude is higher
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167. Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed?
Point a

168. Which statement is correct?


The lift to drag ratio provides directly the
Glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind

169. Which type of flap is shown in the figure?


Fowler flap

170. Which type of flap is shown in the picture?


Split flap

171. The high lift device shown in the figure is a


Slat

172. The high lift device shown in the figure below is a


Krueger flap

173. A plain flap will increase CLMAX by


Increasing the camber of the aerofoil

174. During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of
importance being constant)
Sink suddenly

175. During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of
importance being constant)
Climb
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176. The pitch up tendency of an aeroplane with swept back wings during a stall is caused by the:
Forward movement of the centre of pressure

177. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as....
The angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs

178. The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with:


CL

179. The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)
Pulling up from a dive

180. By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinatedturn with a bank
angle of 45?
19%

181. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt. When the aeroplane is flying a level co-ordinated turn with a load
factor of 1.5, the aeroplane will stall in this turn at:
122 kt

182. Which statement is correct?


Flap extension causes a reduction in stall speed and the maximum glide distance

183. In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical?
The rotation

184. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall
speed is:
141 kt

185. The induced angle of attack is:


The angle by which the relative airflow is deflected due to downwash

186. The following factors increase stall speed:


An increase in load factor, a forward CG shift, decrease in thrust

187. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase
when the CG moves forward

188. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Increase during turn, increased mass and forward CG location

189. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn

190. Which ratio is defined as the "aspect ratio" of a wing?


Ratio between span and mean chord

191. Induced drag on a wing is:


Greatest at the wing tip

192. The characteristic of a high aspect ratio wing has are:


Short chord, long span

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193. Bernoulli's theorem states that in a perfect and constant airstream:
The sum of static and dynamic pressure is constant

194. The wing area divided by the span of a wing is called:


"Mean chord"

195. A line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil and equidistant at all points from the upper
and lower contours is called the
Mean chamber line

196. The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the airplane is known as the angle of
Incidence

197. Aspect ratio of a wing is the ratio between:


Wing span squared and wing area

198. The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of the wing is part
of the:
Parasite drag

199. When are wing tip vortex created?


When the wing produces lift

200. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
Induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed

201. At constant velocity airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing)
Decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack

202. The most common stall sensing devices are normally located:
At or near the wing leading edge

203. The aerodynamic characteristic of an aircraft in a spin is that the:


Outer wing is partially stalled

204. With increasing altitude the following occurs:

Drag remains the same for a given indicated airspeed


205. How does stalling speed vary with load factor?
It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor

206. The following take place at the transition point on a wing:


The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer

207. Which relationship is correct when comparing drag and airspeed?


If you double the airspeed the induced drag is reduced to 1/4

208. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of
Attack

209. As it applies to airfoils, which statement is in agreement with Bernoulli's Principle?


The static pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases

210. An aerofoil at its stalling angle will have a Lift/Drag ratio which is:
Low

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211. If density is kept constant, the dynamic pressure increases proportionally with:
The square of the velocity

212. If velocity and angle of attack is kept constant and density decreases, the lift
Decreases

213. An increase in the speed at which an airfoil passes through the air increases lift because
The increased speed of air passing over the airfoil's upper surface decreases the pressure, thus creating a
greater pressure differential between upper and lower surface

214. The angle of attack of a wing controls the


Distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the wing

215. You are flying near sea level with a true air speed of 200 knots. You then climb to 10000 feet and keep the
same true speed. The drag and IAS
Are both smaller

216. How does pressure affect lift?


Lift decreases with decreasing pressure

217. An increase in angle of attack (below the stalling angle of attack) increases lift because
The lift coefficient increases

218. How does the wing's centre of pressure move with increasing angle of attack?
Forward

219. The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls:


Remains constant regardless of gross weight

220. What changes in angle of attack must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being increased?
Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing lift

221. Compared to a cambered airfoil, the zero lift angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is
Higher

222. Indicated stalling speed varies with varying temperature.

FALSE
223. The dynamic pressure increases proportionally with:
Density and the square of the velocity

224. Geometric washout means that


The tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root

225. If indicated air speed and angle of attack are kept constant and density decreases, the lift
Remains constant

226. If pressure is kept constant and temperature increases, the density


Decreases

227. With increasing altitude flying at a constant IAS will result in:
No change in the stalling angle

228. If you want to maintain a constant TAS during a climb, you should during the climb
Reduce to a lower IAS

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229. Under what circumstances is TAS equivalent to GS?
No wind

230. Flying at the maximum rate of climb speed (Vy) you will obtain maximum:
Altitude in the shortest time

231. In flight the C of P by increasing angle of attack, will reach its most forward point on an airfoil:
Just below the stalling angle

232. Increasing the angle of attack in flight will cause the:


Stagnation point to move down and aft

233. What changes in aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased?
Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift

234. A chambered airfoil with zero angle of attack will in flight produce:
Some lift and some drag

235. The construction feature of a wing called "wash out" is:


A decrease in the angle of incidence from root to tip

236. One feature of a wing is the "Mean Chord" which is the:


Wing area divided by the span

237. Dynamic pressure is expressed as


(rho/2)* V^2

238. The speed in flight at which the power required is at a minimum, is:
Below Vmd

239. Compared to a "high aspect ratio" wing a "low aspect ratio" wing will produce:
More induced drag and have a higher stalling angle

240. A wing has a "Fineness Ratio" which is the ratio of:


Thickness to the chord

241. In order to remain in level balanced flight:


The wing lift must be greater than weight, if the tailplane is giving a download for balance

242. At the tip of the wing in level flight, the air flows
From the lower surface to the upper surface and then down at the trailing edge

243. When looking at the airflow over the wing, from the wing surface and up, the air is
Accelerated to the transition point

244. Balancing of the weight component along the flight path in a glide is achieved by:
Drag

245. In a level turn with 60 lateral bank, the load factor is 2.0 and the stall speed increases by:
40 %

246. Wing tip vortices have the highest intensity during:


Take off

247. Speedbrakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft:


To increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent
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248. Given an initial condition in straight and level flight with a speed of 1.4 VS. The maximum bank angle
attainable without stalling in a steady co-ordinated turn, whilst maintaining speed and altitude, is approximately:
60

249. To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased, the speed must be:
Reduced

250. The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent...


Between the transition and separation points

251. When comparing the properties of laminar and turbulent boundary layers, which of the following statements is
correct?
Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer

252. The transition point is where the boundary layer changes from:
Laminar into turbulent

253. When considering the properties of a laminar and turbulent boundarylayer, which of the following statements
is correct?
Friction drag is higher in a turbulent layer

254. Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed?

Point D

255. Which statement is correct?


Spoiler extension increases the stall speed, the minimum rate of descent and the minimum angle of descent

256. The result of spoiler surfaces deploying are:


Drag increases and lift decreases

257. CL varies with:


Angle of attack

258. Given the following aeroplane configurations:


1) Clean wing.
2) Slat only extended.
3) Flaps only extended.
Place these configurations in order of increasing critical angle of attack:
3, 1, 2

259. The difference between the effects of slat and flap asymmetry is that ("large" in the context of this question
means not or hardly controllable by normal use of controls):
d) Flap asymmetry causes alarge rolling moment at any speed whereas slat asymmetrycauses a large
difference in CLMAX

POF - Page | 18
260. From EAS and density altitude you can derive:
TAS

261. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the centre of pressure of a
positively cambered aerofoil section:
Moves forward when the angle of attack increases

262. Assuming no flow separation, when speed is decreased in straight and level flight on a positively cambered
aerofoil, what happens to the:
1) Centre of pressure and
2) The magnitude of the total lift f orce?
1) moves forward and 2) remains constant

263. The stagnation point is the point:


Where the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero

264. An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical gust. The point on the wing, where the
instantaneous variation in wing lift effectively acts is known as the:
Aerodynamic centre of the wing

265. The point, where the single resultant aerodynamic force acts on an aerofoil is called:
Centre of pressure

266. When speed is increased in straight and level flight on a positively cambered aerofoil, what happens to the:
1) Centre of pressure and
2) The magnitude of the total lifts f orce?
1) moves aft and 2) remains constant

267. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the centre of pressure of a
symmetrical aerofoil section:
Is independent of angle of attack

268. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of
attack increases are correct or incorrect?
1) The stagnation point moves up
2) The point of lowest static pressure moves forward

1) is incorrect 2) is correct
269. Which of these statements about a stationary subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) The static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge
2) The velocity increases as the streamlines converge
1) is correct 2) is correct

270. The SI units of air density (I) and force (II) are:
(I) kg/m3, (II) N

271. The SI unit of measurement for density is:


kg/m3

272. One SI unit of measurement for pressure is:


N/m2

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273. Given:
p = pressure
rho = density
T = absolute temperature
The relationship between pressure, density and absolute temperature of a given mass of air can be expressed as
follows:
p/ (rho * T) = constant

274. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?


Weight is a force

275. What is the SI unit of measurement for power?


Nm/s

276. Assuming subsonic incompressibleflow, how will air density change as air flows through a tube of increasing
cross-sectional area? The air density:
Does not vary

277. Bernoulli's equation is:


Note:
rho = actual density
pstat = static pressure
pdyn = dynamic pressure

ptot = total pressure


pstat + 1/2 rho * TAS2 = constant

278. Given that:


pstat = static pressure
rho = density
pdyn = dynamic pressure
p tot = total pressure
Bernoulli's equation reads as follows:
pstat + 1/2 rho * TAS2 = constant

279. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same as in the throat

2) The
1) is total pressure
incorrect in the undisturbed airflow and in the throat is the same
2) is correct

280. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

281. In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure changes will occur:
Ps = static pressure
Pdyn = dynamic pressure
Ptot = total pressure
Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant

282. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat
2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow and in the throat is the same
1) is correct 2) is correct

POF - Page | 20
283. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat
2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

284. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat
2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

285. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

286. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

287. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat
2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat

1) is incorrect 2) is correct

288. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat
2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

289. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat
2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

290. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat
2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

291. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat
2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

292. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

293. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 21
294. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

295. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

296. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow
2) The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

297. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

298. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The total pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow

1) is correct 2) is correct

POF - Page | 22
299. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

300. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

301. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is correct 2) is correct

302. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow
2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

303. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow
2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow

1) is incorrect 2) is correct

304. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

305. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?
1) The static pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

306. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct?

1) The static pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

307. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?


The weight of an object depends on the acceleration due to gravity

308. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?


The mass of an object is independent of the acceleration due to gravity

309. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?


In the SI system the unit of measurement for mass is the kilogram

310. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?


The mass of a body can be determined by dividing its weight by the acceleration due to gravity

POF - Page | 23
311. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?
The weight of a body can be determined by multiplying its mass by the acceleration due to gravity

312. The angle between the direction of the undisturbed airflow (relative wind)and the chord line of an aerofoil is
the:
Angle of attack

313. When the lift coefficient CI of a positively cambered aerofoil section is zero, the pitching moment is:
Nose down (negative)

314. When the lift coefficient CI of a symmetrical aerofoil section is zero, the pitching moment is:
Zero

315. The forces of lift and drag on an aerofoil are, respectively, normal and parallel to the:
Relative wind/airflow

316. Lift is the:


Component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the undisturbed airflow

317. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is defined as the angle between the:
Undisturbed airflow and the chord line

318. A flat plate, when positioned in the airflow at a small angle of attack, will produce:

Both lift and drag

319. When the lift coefficient CI of a negatively cambered aerofoil section is zero, the pitching moment is:
Nose up (positive)

320. An aerofoil is cambered when:


The line, which connects the centres of all inscribed circles, is curved

321. Dihedral of a wing is the angle between:


The wing plane and the horizontal with the aeroplane in an unbanked, level condition

322. Wing sweep angle is the angle between:


The quarter-chord line of the wing and the lateral axis

323. The aeroplane's angle of incidence is defined as the angle between the:
Longitudinal axis and the wing root chord line

324. The mean geometric chord of a wing is the:


Wing area divided by the wing span

325. Taper ratio of a wing is the ratio between:


Tip chord and root chord

326. An aerofoil with positive camber at a positive angle of attack will have the highest flow velocity:
On the upper side

327. The aerodynamic centre of a wing is the point relative to which:


Assuming no flow separation, the pitching moment coefficient does not change with varying angle of attack

POF - Page | 24
328. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the centre of pressure of a
positively cambered aerofoil section:
Moves backward when the angle of attack decreases

329. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the aerodynamic centre of an
aerofoil section:
Is at approximately 25 % chord irrespective of angle of attack

330. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the centre of pressure of a
symmetrical aerofoil section:
Is at approximately 25 % chord irrespective of angle of attack

331. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of
attack decreases are correct or incorrect?
1) The stagnation point moves down
2) The point of lowest static pressure moves forward
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

332. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of
attack decreases are correct or incorrect?
1) The stagnation point moves up
2) The point of lowest static pressure moves aft
1) is correct 2) is correct

333. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of
attack decreases are correct or incorrect?
1) The stagnation point moves up
2) The point of lowest static pressure moves forward
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

334. The lift coefficient CI versus angle of attack curve of a positive cambered aerofoil section intersects the
vertical axis of the graph:
Above the srcin

335. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of approximately 1.2:

The speed will have increased by 30 kt


336. Which of the following variables are required to calculate lift from the lift formula?
Dynamic pressure, lift coefficient and wing area

337. A positively cambered aerofoil will generate zero lift:


At a negative angle of attack

338. Assuming ISA conditions and no compressibility effects, if an aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at
the same angle of attack at two different altitudes, the:
TAS is higher at the higher altitude

POF - Page | 25
339. The point in the figure corresponding to CL for minimum horizontal flight speed is:
Point c

340. Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil section, which statement is correct?


1) The angle of attack has a negative value when the lift coefficient equals zero
2) A nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero
1) is correct 2) is correct

341. The lift coefficient of a symmetrical aerofoil section at zero angle of attack is:
Zero

342. An aeroplane flying at 100 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases
the speed by 20 kt assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Increase to 1.44

343. Assuming standard atmospheric conditions, in order to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is
increased, an aeroplane must be flown at:
A higher TAS for any given angle of attack

344. Regarding the lift formula, if density doubles, lift will:


Also double

345. Regarding the lift formula, if airspeed doubles, lift will:


Be 4 times greater

346. If the lift generated by a given wing is 1000 kN, what will be the lift if the wing area is doubled?
2000 kN

347. If the wing area is increased, lift will:


Increase because it is directly proportional to wing area

348. If the airspeed is doubled, whilst maintaining the same control surface deflection the aerodynamic force on
this control surface will:
Become four times greater

POF - Page | 26
349. The lift coefficient CI versus angle of attack curve of a symmetrical aerofoil section intersects the vertical axis
of the graph:
At the srcin

350. The lift coefficient CI versus angle of attack curve of a positively cambered aerofoil section intersects the
horizontal axis of the graph:
To the left of the srcin

351. The lift coefficient CI versus angle of attack curve of a negatively camberedaerofoil section intersects the
horizontal axis of the graph:
To the right of the srcin

352. Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil section, which statement is correct?


1) The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero
2) A nose up pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

353. Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil section, which statement is correct?


1) The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero
2) A nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

354. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which statement is correct?


1) The angle of attack is zero when the lift coefficient equals zero
2) The pitching moment is zero when the lift coefficient equals zero
1) is correct 2) is correct

355. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which statement is correct?


1) The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero
2) A nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

356. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which statement is correct?


1) The angle of attack has a negative value when the lift coefficient equals zero
2) A nose up pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero

1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
357. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which statement is correct?
1) The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero
2) The pitching moment is zero when the lift coefficient equals zero
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

POF - Page | 27
358. The point in the figure showing zero lift is:
Point a

359. Assuming ISA conditions and no compressibility effects, if an aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at
the same angle of attack at two different altitudes, the:
IAS at both altitudes is the same

360. Assuming ISA conditions and no compressibility effects, if an aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at
the same angle of attack at two different altitudes, the:
TAS is lower at the lower altitude

361. Assuming all bodies have the same cross-sectional area and are in motion, which body will have the lowest
pressure drag?
Body 3

POF - Page | 28
362. Increasing air density will have the following effect onthe drag of a body in an airstream (angle of attack and
TAS are constant):
The drag increases

363. Minimum drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight occurs at the:
Maximum CL-CD ratio

364. Assuming all bodies have the same cross-sectional area and are in motion, which body will have the highest
pressure drag?
Body 2

365. Assuming all bodies have the same cross-sectional areaand are in motion, place these bodies in order of
increasing pressure drag. The correct answer is:
3, 4, 1, 2

366. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack increases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is correct 2) is correct

POF - Page | 29
367. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

368. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

369. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by angle of attack
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

370. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

371. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by angle of attack
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases

1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

372. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is correct 2) is correct

373. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

374. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?

1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

375. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 30
376. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack increases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

377. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

378. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

379. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

380. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by the angle of attack
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases

1) is incorrect 2) is correct

381. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases
1) is correct 2) is correct

382. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

383. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?

1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack increases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

384. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

385. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by angle of attack
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 31
386. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

387. Which statement concerning the local flow pattern around a wing is correct?
By fitting winglets to the wing tip, the strength of the wing tip vortices is reduced which in turn reduces
induced drag

388. An aeroplane transitionsfrom steady straight and level flight into a horizontal co-ordinated turn with a load
factor of 2, the speed remains constant and the:
Induced drag increases by a factor of 4

389. What is the effect of winglets on the drag of the wing?


Increase parasite drag, decrease induced drag

390. The induced angle of attack is the result of:


Downwash due to tip vortices

391. If the aspect ratio of a wing increases whilst all other relevant factors remain constant, the critical angle of
attack will:
Decrease

392. When wing lift is zero, its induced drag is:


Zero

393. Which statement, about the effects on drag of fitting external tip tanks to the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?
1) Parasite drag increases
2) Induced drag increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

394. Which statement, about the effects on drag of fitting external tip tanks to the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?
1) Parasite drag decreases
2) Induced drag increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

395. Which statement, about the effects on drag of fitting external tip tanks to the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?
1) Parasite drag increases
2) Induced drag decreases
1) is correct 2) is correct

396. Which statement, about the effects on drag of removing external tip tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is
correct?
1) Parasite drag increases
2) Induced drag increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

397. Which statement, about the effects on drag of removing external tip tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is
correct?
1) Parasite drag increases
2) Induced drag decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 32
398. Which statement, about the effects on drag of removing external tip tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is
correct?
1) Parasite drag decreases
2) Induced drag decreases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

399. Which statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?


1) An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than a rectangular lift distribution
2) Induced drag increases with decreasing aspect ratio
1) is correct 2) is correct

400. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than a rectangular lift distribution
2) Induced drag decreases with decreasing aspect ratio
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

401. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than a rectangular lift distribution
2) Induced drag increases with decreasing aspect ratio
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

402. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than an elliptical lift distribution

2) Induced drag increases with increasing aspect ratio


1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

403. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than an elliptical lift distribution
2) Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio
1) is correct 2) is correct

404. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than an elliptical lift distribution
2) Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

405. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) Induced drag increases as angle of attack increases
2) At constant load factor, induced drag increases with increasing aeroplane mass
1) is correct 2) is correct

406. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) Induced drag decreases as angle of attack increases
2) At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with increasing aeroplane mass
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

407. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) Induced drag increases as angle of attack increases
2) At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with increasing aeroplane mass
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 33
408. Which statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) Induced drag increases as angle of attack decreases
2) At constant load factor, induced drag increases with decreasing aeroplane mass
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

409. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) Induced drag decreases as angle of attack decreases
2) At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with decreasing aeroplane mass
1) is correct 2) is correct

410. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) Induced drag increases as angle of attack decreases
2) At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with decreasing aeroplane mass
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

411. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
1) Induced drag decreases as angle of attack decreases
2) At constant load factor, induced drag increases with decreasing aeroplane mass
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

412. Decreasing the aspect ratio of a wing:


Increases induced drag

413. How does the total drag change, in straight and level flight at constant mass, as speed is increased from the
stall speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE or VMO)?
Initially decreases, then increases

414. Total drag is the sum of:


Parasite drag and induced drag

415. Which drag components make up parasite drag?


1) pressure drag
2) friction drag
3) induced drag
4) interference drag
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

1, 2, 4
416. The total drag of an aerofoil in two dimensional flows comprises:
Pressure drag and skin friction drag

417. Which component of drag increases most when an aileron is deflected upwards?
Form drag

418. An aeroplane, being manually flown in the speed unstable region, experiences a disturbance that causes a
speed reduction. If the altitude is maintained and thrust remains constant, the aeroplane speed will:
Further decrease

419. If the airspeed reduces in level flight below the speed for maximum L/D, the total drag of an aeroplane will:
Increase because of increased induced drag

420. The total drag of a three dimensional wing consists of:


Induced drag and parasite drag

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421. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL increases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases
1) is correct 2) is correct

422. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL remains constant
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

423. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL increases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi remains constant
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

424. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL increases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

425. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL remains constant
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases

1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

426. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL decreases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

427. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL increases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

428. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?

1) The lift coefficient CL remains constant


2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

429. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL decreases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases
1) is correct 2) is correct

430. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL increases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi remains constant
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

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431. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL increases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

432. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL remains constant
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

433. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct?
1) The lift coefficient CL decreases
2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

434. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle increases
2) The induced angle of attack decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

435. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle remains constant
2) The induced angle of attack decreases

1) is incorrect 2) is correct

436. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle decreases
2) The induced angle of attack decreases
1) is correct 2) is correct

437. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle decreases
2) The induced angle of attack remains constant
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

438. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?

1) The downwash angle increases


2) The induced angle of attack increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

439. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle remains constant
2) The induced angle of attack increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

440. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle decreases
2) The induced angle of attack increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

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441. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct?
1) The downwash angle increases
2) The induced angle of attack increases
1) is correct 2) is correct

442. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle decreases
2) The induced angle of attack increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

443. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle decreases
2) The induced angle of attack remains constant
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

444. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle increases
2) The induced angle of attack decreases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

445. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct?


1) The downwash angle decreases
2) The induced angle of attack decreases

1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

446. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane enters ground effect:


The induced angle of attack reduces

447. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane enters ground effect:


Downwash reduces

448. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect:


The effective angle of attack decreases

449. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect:


The induced angle of attack increases

450. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect:


Induced drag increases

451. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect:


Downwash increases

452. Whilst maintaining straightand level flight with a lift coefficient CL=1, what will be the new value of CL after
the speed has doubled?
0.25

453. Whilst maintaining straightand level flight with a lift coefficient CL=1, what will be the new value of CL after
the speed is increased by 41 %?
0.50

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454. Which of these statements about the effect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or
incorrect?
1) The centre of pressure on a straight wing moves aft after the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical
angle of attack
2) The centre of pressure on a strongly swept back wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and
exceeds the critical angle of attack
1) is correct 2) is correct

455. Which of these statements about the effect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or
incorrect?
1) The centre of pressure on an unswept wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the
critical angle of attack
2) When sweep back increases the centre of pressure has an increased tendency to move aft as the angle of attack
approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

456. Which of these statements about boundary layers is correct?


A turbulent boundary layer produces more friction drag than a laminar one

457. Given an aeroplane in steady, straight and level flight at low speed and considering the effects of CG location
and thrust, the highest value of wing lift occurs at:
Forward CG and idle thrust

458. Stall speed (IAS) varies with:


Weight

459. Dividing lift by weight gives:


Load factor

460. The load factor is greater than 1 (one):


When lift is greater than weight

461. Which statement is correct?


1) Stall speeds are determined with the CG at the aft limit
2) Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the forward limit
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

462. The stall speed decreases:


(All other factors of importance being constant)
When, during a manoeuvre, the aeroplane nose is suddenly pushed firmly downwards (e.g. as in a push over)

463. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a mass of 1000 kg. If the mass is increased to 2000 kg, the new
value of stall speed will be:
141 kt

464. Wing loading is the ratio between:


Aeroplane weight and wing area

465. Which statement is correct?


1) Stall speeds are determined with the CG at the forward limit
2) Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the aft limit
1) is correct 2) is correct

466. Which statement is correct?


1) Stall speeds are determined with the CG at the forward limit
2) Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the forward limit
1) is correct 2) is incorrect
POF - Page | 38
467. Given an aeroplane in steady, straight and level flight at low speed and considering the effects of CG location
and thrust, the lowest value of wing lift occurs at:
Aft CG and take-off thrust

468. Wing twist (geometric and aerodynamic) is used to:


1) improve stall characteristics
2) reduce induced drag
3) reduce interference drag
4) increase VMO
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 2

469. The main purpose of a boundary layer fence on a swept wing is to:
Improve the low speed handling characteristics

470. Regarding deep stall characteristics, identify whether the following statements are correct or incorrect:
1) The combination of a wing with sweepback and a T-tail make an aeroplane prone to deep stall
2) A stick pusher system can be fitted to an aeroplane that exhibits abnormal stall characteristics
1) is correct 2) is correct

471. The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept back wing during a stall is due to the:
Wing tip stalling first

472. During a climbing turn to the right the:


Angle of attack of the left wing is larger than the angle of attack of the right wing

473. One disadvantage of wing sweepback is:


The tendency of the wingtip section to stall prior to the wing root section

474. Regarding deep stall characteristics, identify whether the following statements are correct or incorrect:
1) A wing with forward sweep and a low horizontal tail makes an aeroplane prone to deep stall
2) A stick shaker system can be fitted to an aeroplane to resolve deep stall problems
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

475. Regarding deep stall characteristics, identify whether the following statements are correct or incorrect:

1) An aeroplane with a low horizontal tail and wings with sweepback is normally prone to deep stall
2) An aeroplane with a canard is normally prone to deep stall
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

476. Which statement is correct?


1) A stick pusher activates at a higher angle of attack than a stick shaker
2) A stick pusher prevents the pilot from increasing the angle of attack further
1) is correct 2) is correct

477. Which statement is correct?


1) A stick pusher activates at a lower angle of attack than a stick shaker
2) A stick shaker prevents the pilot from increasing the angle of attack further
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

478. Which statement is correct?


1) A stick pusher activates at a lower angle of attack than a stick shaker
2) A stick pusher prevents the pilot from increasing the angle of attack further
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

479. Negative tail stall is:


A sudden reduction in the downward aerodynamic force on the tailplane
POF - Page | 39
480. Which statement about negative tail stall is correct?
When negative tail stall occurs, the aeroplane will show an uncontrollable pitch-down moment

481. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct?


Decreasing sweepback decreases stall speed

482. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct?


Decreasing forward sweep decreases stall speed

483. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct?


Increasing forward sweep increases stall speed

484. Ignoring downwash effects on the tailplane, extension of Fowler flaps, will produce:
A nose down pitching moment

485. Upon extension of Fowler flaps whilst maintaining the same angle of attack:
CL and CD increase

486. The main function of a trailing edge flap is to:


Increase the maximum lift coefficient of the wing

487. What is the effect on an aeroplane's characteristics of extending Fowler flaps to their fully extended position?
Wing area and camber increase
488. When trailing edge flaps are extended whilst maintaining straight and level flight at constant IAS:
The centre of pressure moves aft

489. From an initial condition oflevel flight the flaps are retracted at a constant pitch attitude. The aeroplane will
subsequently:
Start to sink

490. From an initial condition oflevel flight the flaps are extended at a constant pitch attitude.The aeroplane will
subsequently:
Start to climb

491. When Fowler type trailing edge flaps are extended at a constant angle of attack, the following changes will
occur:
CL and CD increase

492. Slat extension:


Delays the stall to a higher angle of attack

493. For most jet transport aeroplanes, slat extension has:


A greater effect on stall speed than flap extension

494. Upon extension of a wing spoiler, if the angle of attack remains constant:
CD increases and CL decreases

495. When spoilers are used as speed brakes:


At the same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased

496. Wing spoilers are deflected symmetrically in flight in order to:


Decelerate the aeroplane and/or increase its rate of descent

497. Spoilers mounted on the wing upper surface can be used to:
Assist the ailerons
POF - Page | 40
498. The transition point is the point where:
The boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent

499. While flying under icing conditions, the largest ice build-up will occur, principally, on:
The frontal areas of the aeroplane

500. The Mach number is the ratio between:


TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound of the undisturbed flow

501. How does temperature influence the speed of sound?


Speed of sound increases with temperature increase

502. Define the term "Mach number".


The ratio between TAS and the speed of sound

503. Compressibility effects depend on:


Mach number

504. How does the Mach number change during a climb at constant IAS from sea level to 40000 ft?
Increases with increasing altitude

505. Transonic speed is:


A speed at which locally around the aeroplane both supersonic and subsonic speeds exist

506. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
Lift coefficient decreases

507. During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach number will:


Increase

508. During a descent at a constant Mach number (assume zero thrust and standard atmospheric conditions):
The angle of attack will decrease

509. A both
At which transonic Mach number
subsonic is a Machlocal
and supersonic number:
speeds occur

510. The subsonic speed range:


Ends at Mcrit

511. Which of these statements about the supersonic speed range is correct?
The airflow everywhere around the aeroplane is supersonic

512. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?
Critical Mach number

513. The position of the centre of pressure on an aerofoil of an aeroplane curising at supersonic speed when
compared with that at subsonic speed is:
Further aft

POF - Page | 41
514. The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows:
Stabilizing effect

515. The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows:


Positive dihedral effect

516. When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing /
fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane will be:
Downwards

517. In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight have the highest value? (The
engines are mounted below the wing)
Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust

518. An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and
level flight when the horizontal tail loading is:
Upwards

519. If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not zero, an aeroplane would:
Experience an angular acceleration about that axis

520. During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the greatest elevator up deflection is normally required when the
flaps are:

Fully down and the C.G. is fully forward

521. Which of the following statements is correct?


Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the relevant axis

522. An aeroplane has static directional stability; in a side-slip to the right, initially the:
Nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right

523. The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the neutral point in a fixed location. Speedchanges cause a
departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following statements about the stick force stability is correct?
Increasing 10 kt trimmed at low speed has more effect on the stick force than increasing 10 kt trimmed at high
speed

524. The (1)


(1) forward stick
C.G. force stability
position and the
(2) forward (2)position
CG. manoeuvre stability are positively affected by:

525. The value of the manoeuvre stability ofan aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight is 1.
The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the load factor of 2.5 is:
225 N

526. For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located:


With a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane

527. The aft CG limit can be determined by the:


Minimum acceptable static longitudinal stability

528. Which CG position with respect to the neutral point ensures static longitudinal stability?
CG ahead of the neutral point

529. Static stability means that:


Following a disturbance from the equilibrium condition, a force and/or moment is generated that tends to
counter the effects of that disturbance

POF - Page | 42
530. Following a disturbance, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at constant amplitude. The aeroplane is:
Statically stable - Dynamically neutral

531. Which one of the following statements about the dynamic longitudinal stability of a conventional aeroplaneis
correct?
Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak

532. The "short period mode" is an:


Oscillation about the lateral axis

533. An aeroplane that has positive static stability:


Can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable

534. An aeroplane that has positive static stability:


Can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable

535. One of the requirements for dynamic stability is:


Positive static stability

536. Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct?


The "effective dihedral" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of that component to the static
lateral stability

537. In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber of the aerofoil?
No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment coefficient, independent
of angle of attack

538. Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increases static lateral stability?
High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin

539. Which wing design feature decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane?
Anhedral

540. The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:


C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit

541. The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability ofan aeroplane is as follows:
(1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional)
1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positive

542. Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is correct?
An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone
to spiral dive. (spiral instability)

543. With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional
stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will:
(1) increase (2) decrease

544. Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"?
Yaw damper

545. Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper?


Dutch roll

546. If the sum of all the moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about the:
Centre of gravity
POF - Page | 43
547. Wing dihedral:
Contributes to static lateral stability

548. A CG location beyond the aft limit can cause:


An unacceptably low value of the manoeuvre stability

549. Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when:


The static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak

550. A Mach trimmer:


Corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers

551. Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability?
The horizontal tailplane

552. Which statement about stick force per g is correct?


The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure acceptable control
characteristics

553. The tendency to Dutch Roll increases when:


The static lateral stability increases

554. Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric
dihedral of an aeroplane is increased?
The required lateral control force increases

555. An aft CG shift:


Decreases static longitudinal stability

556. The most forward CG location may be limited by:


1) insufficent flare capability
2) excessive in-flight manoeuvrability
3) insufficient in-flight manoeuvrability
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 3

557. Static directional stability is the:


Tendency of an aeroplane to recover from a skid with the rudder free

558. The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point relative to which:
Assuming no flow separation, the pitching moment coefficient does not change with varying angle of attack

559. Assuming no pilot input the motion of the aeroplane in the diagram shows:
Dynamic longitudinal stability

POF - Page | 44
560. Assuming no pilot input the motion of the aeroplane in the diagram shows:
Neutral dynamic longitudinal stability

561. Assuming no pilot input the motion of the aeroplane in the diagram shows:
Static longitudinal stability and dynamic longitudinal instability

562. For an aeroplane to possess dynamic stability, it needs:


Static stability and sufficient damping

563. A statically unstable aeroplane:


Can never by dynamically stable

564. A statically stable aeroplane:


Can show positive, neutral or negative dynamic longitudinal stability

565. Positive static longitudinal stability means that a:


Nose down moment occurs after encountering an upgust

POF - Page | 45
566. The aeroplane motion, schematically illustrated in the diagram, is an example of a dynamically:
Unstable periodic motion

567. An aeroplane that tends to return to its pre-disturbed equilibrium position after the disturbance has been
removed is said to have:
Positive static stability

568. As the stability of an aeroplane decreases:


Its manoeuvrability increases

569. The air loads on the horizontal tailplane (tail load) of an aeroplane in straight and level cruise flight are
generally directed:
Downwards and will reduce in magnitude as the CG moves aft

570. An aeroplane exhibits static longitudinal stability, if, when the angle of attack changes:
The change in total aeroplane lift acts aft of the centre of gravity

571. Which of the following statements about static longitudinal stability is correct or incorrect?
1) A requirement for positive static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane is, that the neutral point is behind the centre of
gravity
2) A wing with positive camber provides a positive contribution to static longitudinal stability, when the centre of gravity
of the aeroplane is in front of the aerodynamic centre of the wing
1) is correct 2) is correct

572. The neutral point is the point where:


The aeroplane becomes longitudinally unstable when the CG is moved beyond it in an aft direction

573. The contribution of the wing to the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane:
Depends on CG location relative to the wing aerodynamic centre

574. The contribution of the wing to the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane:
Depends on CG location relative to the wing aerodynamic centre

575. Longitudinal stability is directly influenced by:


Centre of gravity position

576. For a statically stable aeroplane, the relationship betweenthe neutral point and centre of gravity (CG) is such
that the neutral point is located:
Aft of the CG

POF - Page | 46
577. The most aft CG location may be limited by:
1) insufficent stick force stability
2) insufficient flare capability
3) excessive in-flight manoeuvrability
4) insufficient in-flight manoeuvrability
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 3

578. An forward CG shift:


Increases static longitudinal stability

579. An forward CG shift:


Decreases longitudinal manoeuvrability

580. Which line in the Cm versus angle of attack graph shows a statically stable aeroplane?
Line 3

581. Which line in the diagram illustrates an aeroplane which is statically longitudinally stableat all angles of attack?
Line 4

POF - Page | 47
582. Where on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit static longitudinal stability?
Part 1

583. Where on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit neutral static longitudinal stability?
Point 2

584. When an aeroplane has zero static longitudinal stability, the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus angle of
attack line:
Is horizontal

585. Which line in the diagram illustrates an aeroplane neutral static longitudinally stability at all angles of attack?
Line 2

586. Which line in the diagram represents decreasing positive static longitudinal stability at higher angles of attack?
Line 3

587. Which line in the diagram represents an aeroplane with static longitudinal instability atall angles of attack?
Line 1

588. Which statement is correct regarding the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus angle of attack diagram?
Line 1 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal instability at very high angles of attack

POF - Page | 48
589. Which statement is correct regarding the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus angle of attack diagram?
Line 3 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal stability at high angles of attack

590. Which statement is correct regarding the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus angle of attack diagram?
Line 3 shows an aeroplane with greater static longitudinal stability at low angles of attack than that shown in
line 4

591. Where on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit static longitudinal instability?
Part 3

POF - Page | 49
592. The pitching moment versus angle of attack line in the diagram, which corresponds to a CG located at the
neutral point of a given aeroplane at low and moderate angles of attack is:
Line 2

593. Which of these statements about the pitching moment coefficient versus angle of attack lines in the diagram is
correct?
The CG position is further forward at line 3 when compared with line 1

594. Which of these statements about the pitching moment coefficient versus angle of attack lines in the diagram is
correct?
The CG position is further aft at line 1 when compared with line 4

595. Which of these statements about the pitching moment coefficient versus angle of attack lines in the diagram is
correct?
Static longitudinal stability is greater at line 4 when compared with line 3 at low and moderate angles of attack

596. A negative contribution to the static longitudinal stability of conventional jet transport aeroplanes is provided
by:
The fuselage

597. After an aeroplane has been trimmed:


The stick position stability will be unchanged

598. Static directional stability is mainly provided by:


The fin

599. The effect of a wing sweep back to static directional stability is:
Positive

600. Which of the following provides a positive contribution to static directional stability?
A dorsal fin

POF - Page | 50
601. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) A dorsal fin increases the contribution of the vertical tail plane to the static directional stability, in particular at large
angles of attack
2) A dorsal and a ventral fin both have a positive effect on static lateral stability
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

602. The purpose of a dorsal fin is to:


Maintain static directional stability at large sideslip angles

603. An aeroplane's sideslip angle is defined as the angle between the:


Speed vector and the plane of symmetry

604. An aeroplane has static directional stabilityif, when in a sideslip with the relative airflow coming from the left,
initially the:
Nose of the aeroplane tends to yaw left

605. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from
the right, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?
1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the left
2) The initial tendency of the right wing is to move down
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

606. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from

the right, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?
1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the right
2) The initial tendency of the right wing is to move down
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

607. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from
the right, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?
1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the left
2) The initial tendency of the left wing is to move down
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

608. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from
the left, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?

1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the left
2) The initial tendency of the right wing is to move down
1) is correct, 2) is correct

609. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from
the left, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?
1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the right
2) The initial tendency of the left wing is to move down
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

610. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from
the left, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability?
1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the right
2) The initial tendency of the right wing is to move down
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

POF - Page | 51
611. Which design features improve static lateral stability?
1) High wing
2) Low wing
3) Large and high vertical fin
4) Ventral fin
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 3

612. Static lateral stability will be decreased by:


Increasing wing anhedral

613. Positive static lateral stability is the tendency of an aeroplane to:


Roll to the left in the case of a sideslip (with the aeroplane nose pointing to the left of the incoming flow)

614. Static lateral stability should not be too large, because:


Too much aileron deflection would be required in a crosswind landing

615. Excessive static lateral stability is an undesirable characteristic for a transport aeroplane because:
It would impose excessive demands on roll control during a sideslip

616. An increase in geometric dihedral in a steady sideslip condition at constant speed would:
Increase the required lateral control force

617. How can the designer of an aeroplane with straight wings increase the static lateral stability?
By increasing the aspect ratio of the vertical stabiliser, whilst maintaining a constant area

618. Sweepback of a wing positively influences:


1) static longitudinal stability
2) static lateral stability
3) dynamic longitudinal stability
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
2

619. The primary purpose of dihedral is to:


Increase static lateral stability

620. Static
Reducing winglateral stability will be decreased by:
sweepback

621. Static lateral stability will be increased by:


b) The use of a high, rather than low, wing mounting

622. Which design features reduce static lateral stability?


1) Anhedral
2) Dihedral
3) Forward sweep
4) Sweepback
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 3

623. Static lateral stability should not be too small because:


The aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to spiral dive

624. One advantage of mounting the horizontal tailplane on top of the vertical fin is:
To improve the aerodynamic efficiency of the vertical fin

POF - Page | 52
625. During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection:
Downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing

626. Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, depend on:


Elevator deflection, dynamic pressure

627. If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes:


A roll to port (left)

628. On a jet aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wing) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which of these
statements is correct about the elevator deflection required to maintain zero pitching moment?
The elevator must be deflected downward

629. The centre of gravity moving aft will:


Increase the elevator up effectiveness

630. In a mechanically controlled aeroplane,the most forward allowable position of the centre of gravity could be
limited by the:
Elevator capability, elevator control forces

631. Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:


Longitudinal axis

632. When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater
than 1 will be:
Larger

633. Which moments or motions interact in a Dutch roll?


Rolling and yawing

634. If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents:
Nose-down

635. Differential aileron deflection:


Equals the drag of the right and left aileron

636. An example
Left aileron: 5 up of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is:
Right aileron: 2 down

637. Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered flight controls?
Servo tab

638. One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with a fixed stabilizer system is that:
It is a more powerful means of trimming

639. Which statement is correct about a spring tab?


At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab

640. How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn?
Differential aileron deflection

641. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the forward limit and the trimmable horizontal
stabiliser (THS) is positioned at the maximum allowable nose down position for take-off:
Rotation will require a higher than normal stick force

POF - Page | 53
642. When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these weights will be located with
respect to the hinge of the control surface:
In front of the hinge

643. Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity and adjustable stabiliser position?
A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than compared with a tail heavy
aeroplane

644. One method to compensate adverse yaw is a


Differential aileron

645. Flaperons are controls, which combine the function of:


Ailerons and flaps

646. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:


Servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface

647. How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a speed decrease?
The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected trim tab

648. An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing,
is:
Less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes

649. A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard aileronsis cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In
this case
Only the inboard ailerons are active

650. What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft
location and on the required control deflection for a certain pitch up or down?
The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is smaller

651. Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct?
The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind

652. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:

Seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance
653. How would the exterior appearanceof an aeroplane change, when trimming for speed increase ?
Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab

654. Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?


In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum
deflection

655. When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated?


Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value

656. What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight
position?
Choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flap setting for landing

657. In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable
stabilizer instead of trimtabs on the elevator. This is because:
Effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes

POF - Page | 54
658. When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this:
Ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column

659. Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?


Adverse yaw

660. An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the elevator jams
during flight?
Pitch control reverses direction

661. A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:


To decrease stick forces

662. What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal stabilizer of an aeroplane
with fully hydraulicallyoperated flight controls that is in trim?
Elevator deflection is zero

663. What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of
them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating propellers:
More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane

664. Differential aileron deflection:


Equals the drag of the right and left aileron

665. When roll spoilers are extended, the part of the wing on which they are mounted:
Experiences a reduction in lift, which generates the desired rolling moment. In addition there is a local
increase in drag, which suppresses adverse yaw

666. In a slipping turn (nose pointing outwards), compared with a co-ordinated turn, the bank angle (i) and
the "ball" or slip indicator (ii) are respectively:
(i) too large; (ii) displaced towards the low wing

POF - Page | 55
667. The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the:
Longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane

668. Which statement about elevators is correct?


The elevator is the primary control surface for control about the lateral axis and is operated by a forward or
backward movement of the control wheel or stick

669. An aeroplane's bank angle is defined as the angle between its:


Lateral axis and the horizontal plane

670. Rotation around the lateral axis is called:


Pitching

671. Rotation around the normal axis is called:


Yawing

672. What kind of horizontal control surface is shown in the figure?


All-flying tail

673. What is the effect of an aft shift of the centre of gravity on (1) static longitudinal stability and(2) the required
control deflection for a given pitch change?
(1) reduces, (2) reduces

674. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be:
Larger for a forward CG position when compared to an aft position

675. For a given elevator deflection, aeroplane longitudinal manoeuvrability increases when:
The CG moves aft

676. Which statement about CG limits is correct?


The forward CG limit is mainly determined by the amount of pitch control available from the elevator

POF - Page | 56
677. Low speed pitch up can be caused by a significant thrust:
Increase with podded engines located beneath a low-mounted wing

678. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be:
Smaller at high IAS when compared to low IAS

679. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be:
Smaller for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position

680. For a given elevator deflection, aeroplane longitudinal manoeuvrability decreases when:
The CG moves forward

681. Aeroplane manoeuvrability increases for a given control surface deflection when:
IAS increases

682. The function of ailerons is to rotate the aeroplane about the:


Longitudinal axis

683. What are the primary roll controls on a conventional aeroplane?


The ailerons

684. Aileron deflection causes a rotation around the longitudinal axis by:
Changing the wing camber and the two wings therefore produce different lift values resulting in a moment

about the longitudinal axis

685. When a turn is initiated, adverse yaw is:


The tendency of an aeroplane to yaw in the opposite direction of turn mainly due to the difference in induced
drag on each wing

686. Rotation about the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane can be achieved by:
Aileron deflection and/or rudder deflection

687. Yaw is followed by roll because the:


Yawing motion generated by rudder deflection causes a speed increase of the outer wing, which increases
the lift on that wing so that the aeroplane starts to roll in the same direction as the yaw

688. Whentrim
A stabiliser comparing
is able a
tostabiliser
compensatetrim system
larger with an elevator
changes trim system,
in pitching which of these statements is correct?
moments

689. In straight flight, as speed is increased, whilst trimming to keep the stick force zero:
The elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards

690. What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabiliser jammed in the cruise flight position?
Choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flap setting for landing

691. In straight flight, as speed is reduced, whilst trimming to keep the stick force zero:
The elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards

POF - Page | 57
692. What is the effect on landing speed when a trimmable horizontal stabiliser jams at high IAS?
In most cases, a higher than normal landing speed is required

693. Which of these statements about a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is correct?


A trimmed aeroplane with a forward CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be lower than in the case of an
aft CG in the same condition

694. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the forward limit and the trimmable horizontal
stabiliser (THS) is positioned at the maximum allowable nose up position for take-off:
Rotation will be normal using the normal rotation technique

695. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the aft limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser
(THS) is positioned at the maximum allowable up position for take-off:
Early nose wheel raising will take place

696. Which of these statements about a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is correct?


A trimmed aeroplane with an aft CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be higher than in the case of a
forward CG in the same condition

697. An aeroplane's flight path angle is defined as the angle between its:
Speed vector and the horizontal plane

698. The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42, increase in angle of attack of 1

degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor
will be :
1.71

699. The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase of angle of attack of 1
degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor
will be :
2.13
1 g straight and level with CL = 0.4
CL with gust = 0.4 + 5 x 0.09 = 0.4 + 0.45 = 0.85
Load factor = lift/weight
Straight and level means LF = 1.0, hence lift = weight, hence CL=0.4 corresponds to weight.
Therefore: Load factor with gust = 0.85/0.4 = 2.125

700. The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase in angle of attack of 1
degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The load
factor will be:
1.45
Lift coefficient for 1g: 0.35
New lift coeff. because of gust: 0.35 + 2x0.079 = 0.508
New load factor because of gust: LF = 1g/0.35 * 0.508 = 1.45g

POF - Page | 58
701. The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three vertical speed in ft/s (clean
configuration):
25, 50, 66

702. Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration)?
50 ft/sec and VC

703. The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed:
VD

704. VMO:
Should be not greater than VC

705. What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence?
Swept wings

706. Which has the effect of increasing load factor? (All other relevant factors being constant)
Vertical gusts

707. Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance
remaining constant)?
1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases.
2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.

1 is correct and 2 is incorrect

708. Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance
being constant) ?
1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase the gust load factor.
2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor.
1 and 2 are correct

709. Which of the following statements is true?


Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a stall and the margin to the structural limitations

710. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve decreases, the gust load factor increases

2) When
1) is the wing
incorrect loading
2) is decreases, the gust load factor decreases
incorrect

711. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor decreases
2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

712. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the mass decreases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the altitude increases, the gust load factor increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 59
713. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 2*VS. If a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2,
the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.3 VS would be:
n = 1.65

714. All gust lines in the gust load diagram srcinate from a point where the:
Speed = 0, load factor = +1

715. The gust load factor due to a vertical upgust increases when:
The gradient of the CL-alpha graph increases

716. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the mass increases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

717. Which of the following statements is true?


Flight in severe turbulence may lead to a stall and/or structural limitations being exceeded

718. Which of these statements concerning flight in turbulence is correct?


VRA is the recommended turbulence penetration air speed

719. Which of these statements concerning flight in turbulence is correct?


The load factor in turbulence may fluctuate above and below 1, and can even become negative

720. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the mass decreases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor increases
1) is correct 2) is correct

721. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the mass increases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the altitude increases, the gust load factor increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

722. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the mass decreases, the gust load factor decreases

2) When
1) is the altitude
incorrect decreases, the gust load factor decreases
2) is incorrect

723. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the mass decreases, the gust load factor decreases
2) When the altitude increases, the gust load factor decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

POF - Page | 60
724. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve increases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the wing loading increases, the gust load factor decreases
1) is correct 2) is correct

725. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve increases, the gust load factor decreases
2) When the wing loading increases, the gust load factor decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

726. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve increases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the wing loading increases, the gust load factor increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

727. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve decreases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the wing loading decreases, the gust load factor increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

728. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve decreases, the gust load factor decreases
2) When the wing loading decreases, the gust load factor decreases

1) is correct 2) is incorrect

729. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the wing area increases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the EAS increases, the gust load factor increases
1) is correct 2) is correct

730. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the wing area increases, the gust load factor decreases
2) When the EAS increases, the gust load factor increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

731. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?

1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor decreases
2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor decreases
1) is correct 2) is correct

732. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

733. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

POF - Page | 61
734. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor increases
2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

735. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor decreases
2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

736. VLE is defined as the:


Maximum landing gear extended speed

737. For a fixed-pitch propeller designedfor cruise, the angle of attack of each blade, measured at the reference
section:
Is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight

738. Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?


Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that
segments speed in the
plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the aeroplane

739. Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they:
Produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range

740. If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed,
the propeller pitch will:
Increase and the rate of descent will decrease

741. If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant
speed, the propeller pitch will:
Decrease and the rate of descent will increase

742. Propeller efficiency is defined as the ratio between:


Usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power

743. An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a feathered (2) propeller.

Which statement
(1) is larger thanabout
(2) propeller drag is correct?

744. When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position:


The drag of the propeller is then minimal

745. Increasing the number of propeller blades will:


Increase the maximum absorption of power

POF - Page | 62
746. Given an aeroplane with a propeller turning clockwise as seen from behind, the torque effect during the take
off run will tend to:
Roll the aeroplane to the left

747. Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by:


Pitching and yawing

748. A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by:
High angles of attack

749. A propeller is turning to the right when viewed from behind. The asymmetric blade effect in the climb at low
speed will:
Yaw the aeroplane to the left

750. Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence?
Yes slightly

751. Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct?
The blade angle increases with increasing speed

752. Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades?
Decrease propeller efficiency

753. The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when:
RPM increases and forward velocity decreases

754. Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct?


Geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is travelling in forward direction
in one propeller revolution

755. If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will
Decrease and the rate of descent will increase

756. If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will
Increase and the rate of descent will decrease

757. The
Local air anglevector
speed of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and:

758. Where is the blade angle of a propeller measured?


At 75 % of the radius

759. Propeller blade twist is the:


Varying of the blade angle from the root to the tip of a propeller blade

POF - Page | 63
760. Refer to the figure below.
The correct sequence of cross-sections representing propeller blade twist is:
Sequence 4

761. Refer to the figure below.


The correct sequence of cross-sections representing propeller blade twist is:
Sequence 1

762. For a fixed-pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack:


Can become negative during high-speed idle descent

763. An aeroplane is fitted with a constant speed propeller. If the aeroplane speed increases while manifold
pressure remains constant (1) propeller pitch and (2) propeller torque will:
(1) increase (2) remain constant

764. During a glide with idle power and constant IAS, if the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller is pulled back
from its normal cruise position, the propeller pitch will:
Increase and the rate of descent will decrease

765. During which of the following phases of flight is a fixed pitch propeller's angle of attack lowest?
High-speed glide

766. If the propeller pitch of a windmilling propelleris decreased during a glide at constant IAS the propeller drag in
the direction of flight will:
Increase and the rate of descent will increase

POF - Page | 64
767. If the propeller pitch of a windmilling propelleris increased during a glide at constant IAS the propeller drag in
the direction of flight will:
Decrease and the rate of descent will decrease

768. Which of these statements about propellers is correct or incorrect?


1) A cruise propeller has a greater geometric pitch when compared with a climb propeller
2) A coarse pitch propeller is less efficient during take-off and in the climb, but more efficient in the cruise, when
compared with a fine pitch propeller
1) is correct, 2) is correct

769. Assuming that the RPM remains constant throughout, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller will:
Decrease with increasing airspeed

770. For an aeroplane equipped with a two-position variable pitch propeller it is advisable to select a:
Fine pitch for take-off and climb

771. For a given RPM of a fixed pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack will:
Decrease when the TAS increases

772. For a fixed-pitch propeller in flight at a given TAS, the blade angle of attack will:
Increase if RPM increases

773. A rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force F that may be resolved into two

components:
- a force T perpendicular to the plane of rotation (thrust)
- a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine power
The diagram representing a windmilling propeller is:
Diagram 4

774. A rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force F that may be resolved into two
components:
- a force T perpendicular to the plane of rotation (thrust)
- a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine power
The diagram representing a rotating propeller blade element during cruise is:
Diagram 1

POF - Page | 65
775. The diagram representing a feathered propeller is:
Diagram 3

776. Which of these statements about propellers is correct or incorrect?


1) A cruise propeller has a smaller geometric pitch compared with a climb propeller
2) A coarse pitch propeller is more efficient during takeoff and in the climb, but is less efficient in cruise, when
compared with a fine pitch propeller
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

777. Which of these statements about propellers is correct or incorrect?


1) A cruise propeller has a greater geometric pitch compared with a climb propeller
2) A coarse pitch propeller is more efficient during takeoff and in the climb, but less efficient in cruise, when compared
with a fine pitch propeller
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

778. During a glide with idle power and constant IAS, if the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller is pushed full
forward from its normal cruise position, the propeller pitch will:
Decrease and the rate of descent will increase

779. The reference section of a propeller blade with radius R is usually taken at a distance from the propeller axis
equal to:
0.75 R

780. The variation of propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller with TAS at a given RPM is shown in:
Figure 2

781. Propeller efficiency is:


The ratio of power available (Thrust * TAS) to shaft power (Torque * RPM)

782. Which statement is correct?


1) At a given RPM the propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller is maximum at only one value of TAS
2) A constant speed propeller maintains near maximum efficiency over a wider range of aeroplane speeds than a fixed
pitch propeller
1) is correct 2) is correct

POF - Page | 66
783. Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed propeller?
1) A constant speed propeller reduces fuel consumption over a range of cruise speeds
2) A constant speed propeller improves take-off performance as compared with a coarse fixed pitch propeller
1) is correct 2) is correct

784. A typical curve representing propellerefficiency of a fixed pitch propeller versus TAS at constant RPM is:
Diagram 2

785. Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed propeller?
1) A constant speed propeller reduces fuel consumption over a range of cruise speeds
2) A coarse fixed pitch propeller is more efficient during take-off
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

786. Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed propeller?
1) A fixed pitch propeller improves propeller efficiency over a range of cruise speeds
2) A constant speed propeller improves take-off performance as compared with a coarse fixed pitch propeller
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

POF - Page | 67
787. The variation of propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller with TAS at a given RPM is shown in:
Figure 3

788. Which statement about propeller icing is correct?


1) Propeller icing increases blade element drag and reduces blade element lift
2) Propeller icing does not affect propeller efficiency
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

789. Which statement about propeller icing is correct?


1) Propeller icing reduces blade element drag and increases blade element lift
2) Propeller icing reduces propeller efficiency
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

790. Which statement about propeller icing is correct?


1) Propeller icing increases blade element drag and reduces blade element lift
2) Propeller icing reduces propeller efficiency
1) is correct 2) is correct

791. Which statement about propeller icing is correct?


1) Propeller icing reduces blade element drag and increases blade element lift
2) Propeller icing does not affect propeller efficiency
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

792. A windmilling propeller:


Produces drag instead of thrust

793. Which statement is correct regarding a windmilling propeller on a multi-engine aeroplane?


The windmilling drag is much higher than for a feathered propeller

POF - Page | 68
794. Which of these statements concerning propellers is correct?
The blade angle of a feathered propeller is approximately 90 degrees

795. Which of these statements concerning propellers is correct?


A feathered propeller causes less drag than a windmilling propeller

796. If S is the frontal area of the propeller disc, propeller solidity is the ratio of:
The total frontal area of all the blades to S

797. Which statement about propeller noise is correct?


1) Propeller noise increases when the blade tip speed increases
2) For a given engine and propeller blade shape, an increase in the number of propeller blades allows for a reduction
in propeller noise
1) is correct 2) is correct

798. Which statement about propeller noise is correct?


1) Propeller noise decreases when the blade tip speed increases
2) For a given engine and propeller blade shape, a decrease in the number of propeller blades allows for a reduction
in propeller noise
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

799. Which statement about propeller noise is correct?


1) Propeller noise decreases when the blade tip speed increases

2) For a given engine and propeller blade shape, an increase in the number of propeller blades allows for a reduction
in propeller noise
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

800. Which statement about propeller noise is correct?


1) Propeller noise remains the same when the blade tip speed increases
2) For a given engine and propeller blade shape, a decrease in the number of propeller blades allows for a reduction
in propeller noise
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

801. Which statement is correct for a propeller of given diameter and at constant RPM?
1) Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption is independent of the number of blades
2) Power absorption decreases if the mean chord of the blades increases

1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
802. Which statement is correct for a propeller of given diameter and at constant RPM?
1) Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption increases if the number of blades increases
2) Power absorption decreases if the mean chord of the blades increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

803. Which statement is correct for a propeller of given diameter and at constant RPM?
1) Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption is independent of the number of blades
2) Power absorption increases if the mean chord of the blades increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

804. Which statement is correct regarding a propeller?


1) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller noise
2) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller efficiency
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

805. Which statement is correct regarding a propeller?


1) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed does not affect propeller noise
2) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller efficiency
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
POF - Page | 69
806. Which statement is correct regarding a propeller?
1) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller noise
2) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed decreases propeller efficiency
1) is correct 2) is correct

807. During the take-off roll, when the pilot raises the tail in a tail wheeled propeller driven aeroplane, the additional
aeroplane yawing tendency is due to the effect of:
Gyroscopic precession

808. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine
aeroplane?
1) Pitch down produces left yaw
2) Left yaw produces pitch up
1) is correct,2) is correct

809. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine
aeroplane?
1) Pitch down produces right yaw
2) Left yaw produces pitch down
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

810. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine

aeroplane?
1) Pitch down produces right yaw
2) Left yaw produces pitch up
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

811. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine
aeroplane?
1) Pitch up produces right yaw
2) Right yaw produces pitch down
1) is correct,2) is correct

812. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine
aeroplane?

1) Pitch up produces right yaw


2) Right yaw produces pitch up
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

813. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine
aeroplane?
1) Pitch up produces left yaw
2) Right yaw produces pitch down
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

814. The torque reaction of a rotating fixed pitch propeller will be greatest at:
Low aeroplane speed and maximum engine power

815. Which statement is correct?


1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during flight at constant aeroplane attitude
2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at low propeller RPM
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 70
816. Which statement is correct?
1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane pitch changes
2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at low propeller RPM
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

817. Which statement is correct?


1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during flight at constant aeroplane attitude
2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

818. Which statement is correct?


1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane yaw changes
2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM
1) is correct,2) is correct
819. Which statement is correct?
1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane yaw changes
2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at low propeller RPM
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

820. Asymmetric propeller blade effect is mainly induced by:


The inclination of the propeller axis to the relative airflow

821. In twin engine aeroplanes with propellers turning clockwise as seen from behind:

The left engine is the critical engine

822. The asymmetric blade effect on a single engine aeroplane with a clockwise rotating propeller:
Produces left yaw

823. Which statement about a propeller is correct?


1) Asymmetric blade effect increases when engine power is increased
2) Asymmetric blade effect increases when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc
increases
1) is correct 2) is correct

824. Which statement about a propeller is correct?


1) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when engine power is increased

2) Asymmetric blade effect increases when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc
increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

825. Which statement about a propeller is correct?


1) Asymmetric blade effect increases when engine power is increased
2) Asymmetric blade effect is independent of the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller
disc
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

826. Which statement about a propeller is correct?


1) Asymmetric blade effect is unaffected when engine power is increased
2) Asymmetric blade effect is independent of the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller
disc
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

827. Which statement about a propeller is correct?


1) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when engine power is increased
2) Asymmetric blade effect is independent of the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller
disc
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
POF - Page | 71
828. Which statement about a propeller is correct?
1) Asymmetric blade effect increases when engine power is increased
2) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc
increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

829. Which statement about a propeller is correct?


1) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when engine power is increased
2) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc
increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

830. What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a glide?
The wind and the lift/drag ratio

831. An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45. Its turning radius is
equal to:
(Given: g= 10 m/s)
2381 metres

832. A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot
has to:

Increase thrust and angle of attack

833. By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45 angle of bank, compared to straight and
level flight?
41%

834. Two identical aeroplanes A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level co-ordinated 20degree bank
turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and the TAS of B is 200 kt:
The rate of turn of A is greater than that of B

835. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
More left rudder

836. An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal, co-ordinated turn with 45 degrees of bank at 230 kt TAS. The
same aeroplane with the same bank angle and speed, but at a lower mass will turn with:
The same turn radius

837. Which statement is correct about an aeroplane that has experienced a left engine failure and continues
afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings level?
Turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral

838. The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:


TAS

839. An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this
condition:
Weight is greater than lift

840. What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50 000 N, in a horizontal
coordinated 45 degrees banked turn?
70 000 N

POF - Page | 72
841. Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate?
Point c

The graph shows a polar diagram where the lift coefficient CL is plotted versus the drag coefficient CD.
There is a prominent point, where the ratio CL to CD is best.
This point is the point for best glide and is located where the tangent from the srcin meets the curve, so it is point B.
The question asks for the "minimum sink rate" which is always located somewhat above the "best glide" point (but not

to far). The most correct point is therefore point C.


842. Which point in the diagram gives the best glide condition?
Point b

843. Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in horizontal flight?
Point a

844. What is the correct relationship betweenthe true air speed for (i) minimum sink rate and (ii) minimum glide
angle, at a given altitude?
(i) is less than (ii)

845. Which of the following increases the maximum duration of a glide?


A decrease in mass

846. Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?


Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways

847. Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic)?
The gliding angle is minimum (assume zero thrust)

POF - Page | 73
848. From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read:
The maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient

849. Which of the following statements is correct?


I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.
II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection.
I i s incorrect, II is incorrect

850. Which of the following statements is correct?


I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.
II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate
I is incorrect, II is correct

851. Which of the following statements is correct?


I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration.
II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate
I is correct, II is correct

852. The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at an angle of attack that correspondsto: (assume zero thrust)
(CL/CD) max

853. How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?
Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases

What physically determines the limit for VMCG?


It is asymmetric thrust of the running engine against the force of the fully deflected rudder. Thrust, also asymmetric
thrust, becomes less when air density is less, means at high elevation and/or high temperature. Counterforce from the
rudder (fully deflected) gets less at lower dynamic pressure (q), e.g. lower airspeed. In other words: At higher altitude
(=field elevation) and/or higher temperature the fully deflected rudder can balance the asymmetric thrust at a lower
airspeed than at low elevation and/or cold ambient temperature.
Hence: VMCG becomes less at high elevation/high temperature
Please refer also to H. Kandlbauer's performance script, paragraph 7.2.2 and to the Jeppesen/Oxford book No.13,
Principles of flight, paragraph 12.29, 12.32 and 12.33

854. A twin engined aeroplane (mass = 59'000 kg) is established on a climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-
drag ratio is 12. Each engine produces 60'000 Newton of thrust. The gradient of climb is: (assume g = 10 m/s^2)
12%

855. An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 200 kt. Its turning radius is equal to 1080m. What is the
load factor during this turn?
(Given: g= 10 m/s)
1.4

856. If an aeroplane is in a steady co-ordinated horizontal turnat a TAS of 200 kt and a turn radius of 2000 m, the
load factor (n) will be approximately:
1.1

857. Given the following characteristic points on a jet engine aeroplane's polar curve:
1) CLMAX
2) long range cruise (zero wind)
3) maximum lift to drag ratio
4) minimum rate of descent (assume zero thrust)
5) maximum range cruise (zero wind)
Arrange these points in order of increasing angle of attack:
2, 5, 3, 4, 1

POF - Page | 74
858. Assuming zero thrust, the point on the diagram corresponding to the value for minimum sink rate is:
Point 3

859. The point in the diagram giving the lowest speed in unaccelerated flight is:
Point 4

860. The point in the diagram corresponding to the minimum value of drag is:
Point 2

861. The lift to drag ratio determines the:


Horizontal glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind and zero thrust

862. The parameters that can be read from the aeroplane parabolic polar curve are the:
Minimum glide angle and the parasite drag coefficient

863. From a polar curve of the entire aeroplane one can read:
The maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient

864. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 12
Thrust per engine: 20000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is:
7.7 %

POF - Page | 75
865. Ignoring thrust effects in a steady straight climb at a climb angle "gamma", the lift of an aeroplane with weight
W is:
W * cos gamma

866. Given:
theta = pitch angle
gamma = flight path angle
alpha = angle of attack
no wind, bank or sideslip
The relationship between these three paramets is:
Theta = gamma + alpha

867. For shallow flight path angles in straight and steady flight, the following formula can be used:
Sin gamma = T/W - CD/CL

868. During a straight, steady climb and with the thrust force parallel to the flight path:
Lift is the same as during a descent at the same angle and mass

869. During a straight steady climb:


1) lift is less than weight
2) lift is greater than weight
3) load factor is less than 1
4) load factor is greater than 1

5) lift is equal to weight


6) load factor is equal to 1
Which of the following lists all the correct statements?
1 and 3

870. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 12
Thrust per engine: 60000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is:
15.7 %

871.
0.98 When an aeroplane performs a straight steady climb with a 20 % climb gradient, the load factor is equal to:

872. An aeroplane climbs to cruising level with a constant pitch attitude and maximum climb thrust (assume no
supercharger).
How do the following variables change during the climb? (Gamma = flight path angle)
Gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS decreases

873. In a straight, steady climb the thrust must be:


Greater than the drag because it must also balance a component of weight

874. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 12
Thrust per engine: 60000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the one-engine inoperative climb gradient is:
3.7 %

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875. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 10
Thrust per engine: 60000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is:
14 %

876. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 12
Thrust per engine: 21000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the one-engine inoperative climb gradient is:
4.3 %

877. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 12
Thrust per engine: 21000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is:
8.5 %

878. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 12
Thrust per engine: 28000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the one-engine inoperative climb gradient is:
2.9 %

879. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 10
Thrust per engine: 30000 N

Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is:
8.0 %

880. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 12
Thrust per engine: 28000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is:
8.5 %

881. The four forces acting on an aeroplane in level flight are:


Thrust, lift drag and weight

882. In a straight steady descent, which of the following statements is correct?


Lift is less than weight; load factor is less than 1

883. During a straight steady descent, lift is:


Less than weight, because lift only needs to balance the weight component perpendicular to the flight path

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884. The descent angle of a given aeroplane in a steady wings level glide has a fixed value for a certain
combination of
(Ignore compressibility effects and assume zero thrust)
Configuration and angle of attack

885. The maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust increases:
In a tailwind at a constant aeroplane mass compared with zero wind

886. The maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust decreases:
In a headwind at a constant aeroplane mass compared with zero wind

887. In order to maintain constant speed during a level, co-ordinated turn,compared with straight and level flight,
the pilot must:
Increase thrust/power and angle of attack

888. When is a turn co-ordinated?


When the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane at the CG is tangential to the flight path

889. What is the approximate radius of a steady horizontal co-ordinatedturn at a bank angle of 45 and a TAS of
200 kt?
1 km

890. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a

bank angle of 45 and a TAS of 200 kt?


65 s

891. An aeroplane with a mass of 4000 kg is performing a co-ordinated level turn at a constant TAS of 160 kt and a
bank angle of 45. The lift is approximately:
56000 N

892. In a skidding turn (the nose pointing inwards), compared with a co-ordinated turn, the bank angle (i) and the
"ball" or slip indicator (ii) are respectively:
(i) too small, (ii) displaced towards the high wing

893. An aeroplane with a mass of 2000 kg is performing a co-ordinated level turn at a constant TAS of 160 kt and a
bank angle of 60. The lift is approximately:

40000 N
894. In a slipping turn (the nose pointing outwards), compared with a co-ordinated turn, the bank angle (i) and the
"ball" or slip indicator (ii) are respectively:
(i) too large, (ii) displaced towards the low wing

895. An aeroplane enters a horizontal turn with a load factor n=2 from straight and level flight whilst maintaining
constant indicated airspeed. The:
Lift doubles

896. An aeroplane is in a steady horizontal turn at a TAS of 194.4 kt. The turn radius is 1000 m. The bank angle is:
(assume g = 10m/s2)
45

897. In a co-ordinated horizontalturn, the magnitude of the centripetal force at 45 degrees of bank:
Is equal to the weight of the aeroplane

898. Compared with level flight, the angle of attack must be increased in a steady, co-ordinated, horizontalturn:
To compensate for the reduction in the vertical component of lift

POF - Page | 78
899. Turning motion in a steady, level co-ordinated turn is created by:
The centripetal force

900. In a steady, horizontal, co-ordinated turn:


Thrust equals drag, because there is equilibrium of forces along the direction of flight

901. In order to fly a rate one turn at a higher airspeed, the bank angle must be:
Increased and the turn radius will increase

902. In a steady co-ordinated horizontal turn, lift is:


Greater than in straight and level flight, because it must balance the weight and generate the centripetal force

903. What is the heading change after 10 seconds of an aeroplane performing a rate one turn?
30 degrees

904. An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal, co-ordinatedturn with 45 degrees of bank at 230 kt TAS. The
same aeroplane with the same bank angle and speed, but at a higher mass will turn with:
The same turn radius, but might stall

905. Two identical aeroplanes A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level co-ordinated 20 degree bank
turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and the TAS of B is 200 kt:
The lift coefficient of A is greater than that of B

906. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect?
1) VMCG must be determined using rudder control alone
2) During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway centreline may be not more than 30 ft
1) is correct 2) is correct

907. For a given aeroplane which two main variables determine the value of VMCG?
Airport elevation and temperature

908. VMCA is certified with a bank angle of not more than 5 towards the operating engine (live engine low)
because:
Although more bank reduces VMCA, too much bank may lead to fin stall

909. Which of the following statements is correct?

I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration.


II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection
I i s correct, II is incorrect

910. Given two identical aeroplaneswith wing mounted engines, one fitted with jet engines and the other with
counter rotating propellers, which of these statements is correct about roll behaviour after an engine failure?
The propeller aeroplane has more roll tendency

911. In general, directional controllabilitywith one engine inoperative on a multi-engine aeroplane is favourably
affected by:
1) high temperature
2) low temperature
3) aft CG location
4) forward CG location
5) high altitude
6) low altitude
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 4, 5

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912. Which statement about minimum control speed is correct?
VMCA depends on the airport density altitude and the location of the engine on the aeroplane (fuselage or
wing)

913. Which of the following statements is correct?


I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.
II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection
I i s incorrect, II is incorrect

914. Which of the following statements is correct?


I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.
II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate
I i s incorrect, II is correct

915. VMCA is the minimum speed at which directional control can be maintained when, amongst others:
1) maximum take-off thrust was set and is maintained on the remaining engines
2) a sudden engine failure occurs on the most critical engine
3) flaps are in any position
4) the gear is either up or down
5) the aeroplane is either in or out of ground effect
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 2

916. Consider the following statements about VMCG:


1) VMCG is determined with the gear down
2) VMCG is determined with the flaps in the landing position
3) VMCG is determined by using rudder and nosewheel steering
4) During VMCG determination the aeroplane may not deviate from the straight-line path by more than 30 ft
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1, 4

917. In general, directional controllabilitywith one engine inoperative on a multi-engine aeroplane is adversely
affected by:
1) high temperature
2) low temperature

3) aft CG location
4) forward CG location
5) high altitude
6) low altitude
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
2, 3, 6

918. Which of these statements about the limiting value of 5 degrees bank angle during VMCA determination are
correct or incorrect?
1) As the bank angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA increases
2) When the bank angle is increased beyond 5 degrees, there is an increasing risk of fin stall
1) is correct 2) is correct

919. Which of these statements about the limiting value of 5 degrees bank angle during VMCA determination are
correct or incorrect?
1) As the bank angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA will remain approximately
constant
2) At any bank angle above 5 degrees, VMCA will decrease correspondingly
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 80
920. Which of these statements about the limiting value of 5 degrees bank angle during VMCA determination are
correct or incorrect?
1) As the bank angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA increases
2) At any bank angle beyond 5 degrees, VMCA will decrease correspondingly
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

921. Which of these statements about the equilibrium of forces and moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect?
1) Equilibrium of moments about the normal axis is provided by rudder deflection
2) Equilibrium of forces along the lateral axis requires either bank angle or side slip or a combination of both
1) is correct 2) is correct

922. Which of these statements about the equilibrium of forces and moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect?
1) Because VMCA must be determined for the case where the critical engine suddenly fails, there is no need to obtain
equilibrium of moments about the normal axis
2) Equilibrium of forces along the lateral axis does not require any side slip during a wings level condition
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

923. Which of these statements about the equilibrium of forces and moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect?
1) Equilibrium of moments about the normal axis is provided by rudder deflection
2) Equilibrium of forces along the lateral axis does not require any side slip during a wings level condition
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

924. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect?

1) VMCG must be determined using both lateral and directional control


2) During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway centreline may be not more than half the
distance between the runway centreline and runway edge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

925. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect?
1) VMCG must be determined using rudder control alone
2) During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway centreline may be not more than half the
distance between the runway centreline and runway edge
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

926. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect?
1) In order to simulate a wet runway, nose wheel steering may not be used during VMCG determination

2) During
1) is VMCG
correct 2) isdetermination,
correct the CG should be on the aft limit

927. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect?
1) In order to simulate a wet runway, nose wheel steering may not be used during VMCG determination
2) During VMCG determination, the CG should be on the forward limit
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

928. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect?
1) During VMCG determination, nose wheel steering may be used
2) During VMCG determination, the CG should be on the aft limit
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

POF - Page | 81
929. When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found:
Near the wing leading edge in front of control surfaces

930. The type of trailing edge flap named Fowler flap:


Increases camber and wing area

931. The purpose of deploying leading edge slats is to:


Increase the stalling angle

932. Flaps are used in order to:


Decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near
and at stalling speed

933. It is possible to reduce the spanwise airflow over swept wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by:
Wing fences

934. On an airfoil the centre of pressure will be most forward:


Just below the stalling angle

935. If ice is present on the leading edge of the wings, it may increase the landing distance dueto higher Vth with:
30-40 %

936. When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from take-off position tofully down position, one will

experience
A small increase in lift and a large increase in drag

937. The L/D ratio in flight will be at its highest value at:
The optimum angle of attack

938. How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport aeroplane?
Stick shaker and/or aerodynamic buffet

939. During which type of stall does the angle of attack have the smallest value?
Shock stall

940. When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur:

At the wing root segment, upperside


941. The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplanemay be : (assume no corrective devices,
straight and level flight)
Buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down

942. The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable load factor because exceeding
that altitude:
Turbulence may induce Mach buffet

943. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:
Decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation

944. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:


Decrease wave drag

945. Shock stall:


Occurs when the lift coefficient, as a function of Mach number, reaches its maximum value

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946. In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by:
The Mach Number

947. Which of the following flight phenomena can only occur at Mach numbers above the critical Mach number?
Mach buffet

948. Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number?
Dutch roll

949. The Mach trim system will:


Adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number

950. The Mach trim system will prevent:


Tuck under

951. The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence
of:
Local sonic flow

952. The critical Mach Number can be increased by:


Increasing wing sweepback

953. A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g

incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g incremental the pilot must:
Fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach-number

954. The critical Mach number of an aeroplane is the Mach number:


Above which, locally, supersonic flow exists somewhere over the aeroplane

955. The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of:
Changes in the position of centre of pressure

956. When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the
swept back wing has the advantage of:
Higher critical Mach number

957. "Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of
the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer.
(i) aft (ii) decreasing

958. How does stall speed (IAS) vary with altitude?


It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects

959. What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at different weights and altitudes

960. Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:


Somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally

961. Which of the following (1) aerofoil and (2) angles of attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values?
(1) thick and (2) large

962. In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because:
Aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing

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963. To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the:
Mach Number

964. The formula for the Mach Number is:


(a= speed of sound)
M= TAS / a

965. If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will:
Increase

966. Assuming ISA conditions, climbing at a constant Mach number up to the tropopause the TAS will:
Decrease

967. The speed of sound is determined only by:


Temperature

968. An aeroplane is flying through the transonic range whilst maintaining straight and level flight. As the Mach
number increases the centre of pressure of the wing will move aft. This movement requires:
A pitch up input of the elevator or the stabilizer

969. Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct?
The static temperature increases

970. Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are:


Thin aerofoil and sweep back of the wing

971. A normal shock wave is a discontinuity plane:


That is normal to the local flow

972. The critical Mach number for an aerofoil is the free stream Mach number at which:
Sonic speed (M=1) is first reached on the upper surface

973. At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):


Increases

974. An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed?

It increases as temperature increases


975. Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave?
The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic

976. If the Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 480 kts, what is the speed of sound?
600 kts

977. Behind a normal shock wave on an aerofoil section the local Mach number is:
Less than 1

978. When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will
Increase

979. When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will
Increase

980. When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of sound is
Increased

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981. The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that
Kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy

982. Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a
Higher compression

983. Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a
Higher loss in total pressure

984. The buffet margin:


Increases during a descent with a constant IAS

985. What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplaneweight on Mcrit at n=1, when flying at constant IAS? The value of
Mcrit:
Increases

986. The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to M = 1.3 is called the
Transonic range

987. Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at the
Upper side of the wing

988. If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper side of

the wing
Moves into trailing edge direction

989. Shock induced separation results in


Decreasing lift

990. When shock stall occurs, lift will decrease because:


Flow separation occurs behind the shock wave

991. Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number?
No, this is not acceptable

992. To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil section:

Its thickness to chord ratio should be reduced


993. The critical Mach number can be increased by
Sweepback of the wings

994. Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage. This is done to
Apply area rule

995. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will


Decrease the shock wave induced separation

996. The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the
Wave drag

997. Tuck under can happen:


Only above the critical Mach number

998. The high speed buffet is induced by


Boundary layer separation due to shock waves

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999. What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant IAS?
Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack

1000. Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct?


Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature

1001. How do
1) static pressure
2) dynamic pressure
3) total pressure
4) static temperature
5) total temperature
6) velocity
Change in a divergent inlet duct of a turbine engine flying as transonic speed?
1, 4 increase, 2, 6 decrease, 3, 5 remain constant

1002. Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitudein the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph?
Aerodynamics

1003. At an aircraft weight of 80.000lbs in 1 G level flight at FL350, yourlow speed buffet boundary will be:
222 kts

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1004. An aeroplane weighing 100 tons is turning at FL350 at constant altitude with abank angle of 50. The low-
speed buffet boundary is.... (i) and the high-speed buffet boundary is .... (ii):
(i) M 0,69 (ii) M 0,84

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1005. What are the low and high buffet onset speeds, given the following conditions?
FL350
Mass: 110.000 kg
Bank angle: 50
M 0,73 and M 0,83

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1006. Given:
Level flight (1G)
Cruise level FL340
Aircraft mass 110.000 kg
CG: 35 %
The low-speed buffet boundary is .... (i) and the high-speed buffet boundary is .... (ii):
(i) M 0,52 (ii) M 0,84

1007. The speed range from approximately M=1.3 to approximately M=5 are called the:
Supersonic range

1008. Which statement with respect to the transonic speed range is correct?
The transonic speed range starts at Mcrit and extends to Mach numbers above M=1

1009. What is the effect of aeroplane mass on shock wave intensity at constantMach number?
Increasing mass increases shock wave intensity

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1010. What will happen if a large transport aeroplaneslowly decelerates inlevel flight from its cruise speed in still air
at high altitude?
Stick shaker activation or low speed buffeting

1011. Which type of buffet will occur if a jet aeroplane slowlyaccelerates in level flight from its cruise speed in still
air at high altitude?
Mach buffet

1012. Which of these statements on shock stall is correct?


Shock stall is a stall due to flow separation caused by a shock wave

1013. Shock induced separation can occur:


Behind a strong normal shock wave, independent of angle of attack

1014. As altitude increases, the stall speed (IAS):


Initially remains constant but at higher altitude increases

1015. The increase in stall speed (IAS) with increasing altitude is due to:
Compressibility effects

1016. When altitude increases, the stall speed (IAS) will:


Increase due to increasing compressibility effects as a result of increasing Mach number

1017. Mach buffet occurs:


Following boundary layer separation due to shock wave formation

1018. The effect of increasing angle of sweep is:


An increase in the critical Mach number

1019. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?
1) Increasing wing sweepback increases Mcrit
2) Increasing wing sweepback increases the drag divergence Mach number
1) is correct 2) is correct

1020. Mcrit is increased by:


Sweepback, thin aerofoil and area ruling

1021. A supercritical wing:


Will develop no noticeable shock waves when flying just above Mcrit

1022. In comparison to a conventional aerofoil section, typical shape characteristics of a supercritical aerofoil
section are:
A larger nose radius, flatter upper surface and negative as well as positive camber

1023. One advantage of a supercritical wing aerofoil over a conventional one is:
It allows a wing of increased relative thickness to be used for approximately the same cruise Mach number

1024. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?
1) Increasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit
2) Increasing wing sweepback increases the drag divergence Mach number
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1025. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?
1) Increasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit
2) Increasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence Mach number
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

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1026. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?
1) Decreasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit
2) Decreasing wing sweepback increases the drag divergence Mach number
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1027. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?
1) Decreasing wing sweepback increases Mcrit
2) Decreasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence Mach number
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1028. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect?
1) Decreasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit
2) Decreasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence Mach number
1) is correct 2) is correct

1029. When the speed over an aerofoil section increases from subsonic to supersonic, its aerodynamic centre:
Moves from 25% to about 50% of the chord

1030. As the Mach number increases from subsonic to supersonic, the centre of pressure moves:
To the mid chord position

1031. The movement of the aerodynamic centre of the wing when an aeroplane accelerates throughthe transonic
range causes:

An increase in static longitudinal stability

1032. In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is:


Rectangular

1033. When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is:
Decreased

1034. In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are:


Within a conical zone, dependent on the Mach number

1035. The additional increaseof drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number is due to:
Wave drag

1036. The bow wave will appear first at:


A free stream Mach number just above M=1

1037. How will the density and temperature change ina supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave to
behind it?
Density will increase, temperature will increase
When a shock wave occurs in supersonic flow, pressure increases accross the shock wave, this means pressure
before the shock wave is lower than behind. This compression leads also to a temperature increase. Density is
increased by the pressure increase while the temperature rise has an opposing effect on density. But the pressure
increase has always a much stronger effect on density than the temperature increase and therefore both, density and
temperature increase across a shock wave

1038. If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight isincreased, the Mach cone angle will:
Decrease

1039. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will
Decrease

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1040. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will
Increase

1041. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will
Decrease

1042. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow?


1- The density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
2- The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
1 and 2 are correct

1043. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow?


1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind it.
2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it.
1 is correct and 2 is incorrect

1044. In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can
be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is
Small but still supersonic

1045. If a symmetrical aerofoil isaccelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed, the aerodynamic centrewill move:
Aft to approximately mid chord

1046. At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface?
The ground speed of the aeroplane

1047. The critical speed where the speed is too low and too high at the same time is called:
Coffin corner

1048. Tuck under is a phenomenon which occur:


On a/c in transonic flight

1049. Mcrit is the speed at which


Sonic flow is first achieved above the surface of the airfoil

1050. Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when:

The a/c has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category
1051. Superstall is a condition
Which is a stable stall with almost a constant pitch attitude

1052. What is the danger when recovering from an emergency descent?


Structural damage

1053. How is the Mach angle calculated?


Sin (mu) = 1/M

1054. When supersonic airflow passes through an oblique shock wave, how do (1) static pressure, (2)density, and
(3) local speed of sound change?
(1) increases, (2) increases, (3) increases

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1055. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it
2) The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it
1) is correct,2) is correct

1056. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it
2) The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1057. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it
2) The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1058. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The density in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it
2) The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it
1) is correct,2) is correct

1059. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The density in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it
2) The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it

1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1060. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The density in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it
2) The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1061. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The local speed of sound in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it
2) The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it
1) is correct,2) is correct

1062. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?

1) The local speed of sound in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it
2) The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1063. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The density behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
2) The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
1) is correct,2) is correct

1064. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The density behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it
2) The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1065. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The density behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
2) The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

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1066. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
2) The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1067. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
2) The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1068. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it
2) The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1069. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
2) The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
1) is correct,2) is correct

1070. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it
2) The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it

1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1071. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect?
1) The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it
2) The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1072. In supersonic flight, any disturbance around a body affects the flow only:
Within the Mach cone

1073. What is the value of the Mach number if the Mach angle equals 45?
1.4

1074.
Sin mu The relation between the Mach angle (mu) and the corresponding Mach number is:
= 1/M

1075. The sonic boom of an aeroplane flying at supersonic speed is created by:
Shock waves around the aeroplane

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1076. The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:
Pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack

1077. "Tuck under" is:


The tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime

1078. "Tuck under" may happen at:


High Mach numbers

1079. Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct?


A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach
number

1080. In the event of failure of the Mach trimmer:


The Mach number must be limited

1081. The dihedral construction of an aircraft wing provides:


Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis

1082. Compared to straight wings, swept back wings have


Better directional stability

1083. The phugoid motion is a long term oscillation around the

Lateral axis

1084. Which statement concerning sweepback is correct?


Sweepback provides a positive contribution to static lateral stability

1085. If an airplane has poor longitudinal stability inflight, what can be done to increase the stability?
Increase stabiliser surface area

1086. Deflecting the elevator up, when the trim tab is in neutral will cause the tab to:
Remain in line with the elevator

1087. A swept wing will for a given angle of attack and wing area:
Be more laterally stable and produce less lift

1088. Dutch roll occurs when:


Lateral stability is too great compared to directional stability

1089. Ventral fin has its greatest effect at


Low speed, high angle of attack

1090. If the radius of a turn, flown at constant IAS is increased, the angle of bank will
Decrease

1091. Which of these statements about "tuck under" are correct or incorrect?
1) "Tuck under" is caused by an aft movement of the centre of pressure of the wing
2) "Tuck under" is caused by a reduction in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser
1) is correct,2) is correct

1092. What is the effect of exceeding Mcrit on the stick force stability of an aeroplane with swept-back wings without
any form of stability augmentation?
A decrease, due to loss of lift in the wing root area

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1093. An aeroplane should be equipped with a Mach trimmer, if:
At transonic Mach numbers the aeroplane displays an unacceptable decrease in longitudinal stick force
stability

1094. Which of these statements about "tuck under" are correct or incorrect?
1) A contributing factor to "tuck under" is a forward movement of the centre of pressure of the wing
2) A contributing factor to "tuck under" is an increase in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1095. Which of these statements about "tuck under" are correct or incorrect?
1) A contributing factor to "tuck under" is a forward movement of the centre of pressure of the wing
2) A contributing factor to "tuck under" is a reduction in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1096. Consider an aeroplane with:


1) a trim tab
2) fully powered hydraulic controls and an adjustable horizontal stabiliser
For both cases and starting from a trimmed condition, how will the neutral position of the control column change, after
trimming for a speed increase?
1 moves forward, 2 does not change

1097. Consider two elevator control systems:


1) is fitted with a trim tab

2) is fitted with fully powered hydraulic controls and an adjustable horizontal stabiliser
For both cases and starting from a trimmed condition, how will the neutral position of the control column change, after
trimming for a speed decrease?
1 moves aft, 2 does not change

1098. The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forwardof the neutral point. Which of these statements about the
stick force stability is correct?
An increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at low speed has more effect on the stick force than an
increase of 10 kt from the timed position at high speed

1099. How can a pilot recognise static stick force stability in an aeroplane during flight?
To maintain a speed below the trim speed requires a pull force

1100. The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forwardof the neutral point.Which of these statements about the
stick force stability is correct?
An increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at high speed has less effect on the stick force than an
increase of 10 kt from the timed position at low speed

1101. When moving the centre of gravity forward the stick force per g will:
Increase

1102. Stick force per g:


Is dependent on CG location

1103. If an aeroplane exhibits insufficient stick force perg, this problem can be resolved by installing:
A bob weight in the control system which pulls the stick forwards

1104. Which statement is correct?


1) Stick force per g is independent of altitude
2) Stick force per g increases when the centre of gravity moves forward
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

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1105. What is the effect of elevator trim tab adjustment on the static longitudinal stability of anaeroplane?
No effect

1106. Which statement concerninglongitudinal stability and control is correct?


A bob weight and a down spring have the same effect on the stick force stability

1107. During a phugoid, the speed:


Varies significantly, whereas during a short period oscillation it remains approximately constant

1108. During a short period oscillation, the altitude:


Remains approximately constant, whereas during a phugoid it varies significantly

1109. Which statement is correct?


The short period oscillation should always be heavily dampened

1110. What is the recommended action following failure of the yaw damper(s) of a jet aeroplane, flying at normal
cruise altitude and speed prior to encountering Dutch roll problems?
Reduce altitude and Mach number

1111. If the static lateral stability of an aeroplane is increased, whilst its static directional stability remains constant:
Its sensitivity to Dutch roll increases

1112. An aeroplane is sensitive to Dutch roll when:

Static lateral stability is much more pronounced than static directional stability

1113. An example of a combined lateral and directional periodicmotion is a:


Dutch roll

1114. An example of a combined lateral and directional aperiodicmotion is a:


Spiral dive

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1115. A control surface has its limitations in movement by:
Primary stops at the surface

1116. A primary stop is mounted on an elevator control systemin order to:


Restrict the range of movement of the elevator

1117. What is the reason for mass balancing a control surface?


To move the centre of gravity forward thereby preventing flutter

1118. Rudder controls:


Yaw

1119. The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to:


Give the aeroplane sufficient longitudinal stability

1120. The pilot use the rudder to provide control around the:
Normal axis

1121. Pitch is movement around the


Lateral axis

1122. The following is true concerning a balance tab. It is:


A form of aerodynamic balance

1123. The movement of an aircraft is defined along three axes which all pass through:
The centre of gravity

1124. It is possible to have an aileron control aerodynamicallybalanced by:


Setting the hinge back into the control surface

1125. Some airplanes have spring tabs mounted into the control system: This is to provide:
A reduction in the pilots effort to move the controls against high air loads

1126. A balance tab is installed to provide:


Reduced control column movement resistance

1127. A directional
Increase yaw damperstability
is a system which:

1128. When inner and outer ailerons are mounted, outer ailerons are used:
At low speeds

1129. When ice is present on the stabilizer, deflection of flaps may cause:
The stabilizer to stall and a vertical dive

1130. The lateral axis is also called the


Pitch axis

1131. A downward adjustment of a trim tab in the longitudinal control system has the following effect:
The stick position stability remains constant

1132. Upward deflection of a trim tab in the longitudinal control resultsin:


The stick position stability remaining constant

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1133. A jet transport aeroplane exhibits pitch up when thrust is suddenly increased froman equilibrium condition,
because the thrust line is below the:
CG

1134. An aeroplane is provided with spoilers and both inboard and outboard ailerons. Roll control during cruise is
provided by:
Inboard ailerons and roll spoilers

1135. Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?


In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum
deflection

1136. In what phase of flight are the outboard ailerons (if fitted) not active?
Cruise

1137. Outboard ailerons (if present) are normally used:


In low speeds flight only

1138. The most important factor determining the required position of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabiliser (THS) for
takeoff is the:
Position of the aeroplane's centre of gravity

1139. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these

statements are correct or incorrect?


1) When trimmed for zero elevator stick force an elevator trim tab causes more drag
2) A horizontal trimmable stabiliser enables a larger CG range
1) is correct 2) is correct

1140. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) When trimmed for zero elevator stick force a horizontal trimmable stabiliser causes more drag
2) A horizontal trimmable stabiliser enables a larger CG range
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1141. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?

1) When trimmed for zero elevator stick force an elevator trim tab causes more drag
2) An elevator trim tab enables a larger CG range
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1142. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) A trim tab is less suitable for jet transport aeroplanes because of their large speed range
2) A stabiliser trim is a more powerful means of trimming
1) is correct 2) is correct

1143. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) A stabiliser trim is less suitable for jet transport aeroplanes because of their large speed range
2) A trim tab is a more powerful means of trimming
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

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1144. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) A trim tab is less suitable for jet transport aeroplanes because of their large speed range
2) A trim tab is a more powerful means of trimming
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1145. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) A stabiliser trim is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated by the high lift devices on most jet
transport aeroplanes
2) A trim tab runaway causes less control difficulty
1) is correct 2) is correct

1146. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) An elevator trim tab is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated by the high lift devices on most
jet transport aeroplanes
2) A stabiliser trim runaway causes less control difficulty
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1147. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) A stabiliser trim tab is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated by the high lift devices on most

jet transport aeroplanes


2) A stabiliser trim runaway causes less control difficulty
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1148. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) The effects of a trim tab runaway are more serious
2) A jammed stabiliser trim causes less control difficulty
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1149. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser andan elevator trim tab, which of these
statements are correct or incorrect?
1) The effects of a trim tab runaway are more serious

2) A jammed trim tab causes less control difficulty


1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1150. When comparing a stabiliser trim system with an elevator trim system, which of these statements is correct?
A stabiliser trim is less sensitive to flutter

1151. Mass balancing of control surfaces is used to:


Prevent flutter of control surfaces

1152. Control surface flutter can be eliminated by:


Mass balancing of the control surface

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1153. Wing flutter may be caused by a:
Combination of bending and torsion of the wing structure

1154. For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VAis:
The speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW

1155. A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at aconstant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit that
may be exceeded is:
MMO

1156. A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach Number with constant mass.
The operational speed limit that may be exceeded is:
VMO

1157. The relationship betweenthe stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplanecan be expressed
in the following formula:
(SQRT= square root)
VA= VS SQRT (2.5)

1158. By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%?
10% lower

1159. Which load factor determines VA?

Manoeuvring limit load factor

1160. What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA?
It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards

1161. What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram?
2.5

1162. VA is:
The maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed

1163. Load factor is:


Lift/Weight

1164. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration
is:
4.4

1165. Assuming ISA conditions, which statement with respect to the climb is correct?
At constant IAS the Mach number increases

1166. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is:
2.0

1167. Flutter sensitivity of an aeroplane wing is reduced by:


Locating the engine ahead of the torsional axis of the wing

1168. Vra is the speed recommended for:


Penetration of severe turbulence

1169. On FAR 23 airplane, the limit load factor in normal category is


+3,8 G

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1170. The significance of VA for jet transport aeroplanesis reduced at high cruising altitudes because:
Buffet onset limitations normally become limiting

1171. VMO:
Should be not greater than VC

1172. Assuming no compressibility effects, the correct relationship betweenstall speed, limit load factor (n) and VA
is:
VA>=VS*SQRT (n)

1173. A fundamental difference betweenthe manoeuvring limit loadfactor and the gust limit load factor is, that:
The gust limit load factor can be higher than the manoeuvring limit load factor

1174. Which factor should be taken into account when determining VA?
The limit lo ad factor

1175. Which statement regardingthe manoeuvre and gust load diagram in the clean configuration iscorrect?
1) The gust load diagram has a symmetrical shape with respect to the n=1 line for speeds above VB
2) The manoeuvre load diagram does not extend beyond the speed VC
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1176. The manoeuvring speed VA, expressed as indicated airspeed, of a transport aeroplane:
Depends on aeroplane mass and pressure altitude

1177. The stall speed lines in the manoeuvring load diagram srcinate from a point where the:
Speed = 0, load factor = 0

1178. The stall speed lines in the manoeuvring load diagram runs through a point where the:
Speed = VA, load factor = limit load factor

1179. The stall speed line in the manoeuvring load diagram runs through a point where the:
Speed = VS, load factor = +1

1180. Flutter of control surfaces is:


A divergent oscillatory motion of a control surface caused by the interaction of aerodynamic forces, inertia
forces and the stiffness of the structure

1181. Wing flutter can be prevented by:


Ensuring that the wing CG is ahead of its torsional axis

1182. Aileron flutter can be caused by:


Cyclic deformations generated by aerodynamic, inertial and elastic loads on the wing

1183. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?


1) Wing mounted engines extending ahead of the wing contribute to wing flutter suppression
2) Excessive free play or backlash reduces the speed at which control surface flutter occurs
1) is correct 2) is correct

1184. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?


1) Moving the engines from the wing to the aft fuselage improves wing flutter suppression
2) Excessive free play or backlash increases the speed at which control surface flutter occurs
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 102


1185. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?
1) Wing mounted engines extending ahead of the wing contribute to wing flutter suppression
2) Excessive free play or backlash increases the speed at which control surface flutter occurs
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1186. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?


1) Aero-elastic coupling does not affect flutter characteristics
2) Occurrence of flutter is independent of IAS
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1187. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?


1) Aero-elastic coupling does not affect flutter characteristics
2) The risk of flutter increases as IAS increases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1188. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?


1) Aero-elastic coupling affects flutter characteristics
2) Occurrence of flutter is independent of IAS
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1189. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?


1) If flutter occurs, IAS should be reduced
2) Resistance to flutter increases with increasing wing stiffness

1) is correct 2) is correct

1190. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?


1) If flutter occurs, IAS should be kept constant
2) Resistance to flutter increases with increasing wing stiffness
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1191. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?


1) If flutter occurs, IAS should be reduced
2) Resistance to flutter increases with reducing wing stiffness
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1192. The first action in event of propeller runaway (overspeed condition), shouldbe to:

Close the throttle


1193. A typical fixed pitch propeller (C-172) is designed to achieve its optimum angle of attack at:
Cruise speed

1194. A propeller rotating clockwise asseen from the rear tends to rotate the aircraft to the
Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis

1195. A variable pitch propeller during take-off will move towards:


Fine pitch to ensure that the engine can develop its maximum power

1196. The windmilling of a propeller will cause:


Drag to be produced instead of thrust

1197. If an increase in power tends to make the nose of the aircraft to dip, this is the result of the:
Line of thrust being above the centre of gravity

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1198. With the propeller windmilling after an engine failure, the
ATM and CTM will act in the same direction
ATM: Aerodynamic twisting moment
The aerodynamic force that acts on the propeller blade creates a twisting moment on the blade. The axis of rotation of
a blade is near the center of its chord line and the center of pressure is between the axis and the leading edge.
Aerodynamic lift acting through the center of pressure normally tries to rotate the blade to a higher pitch angle but in
case of a windmilling propeller it tries to rotate the blade to a lower pitch angle.
CTM: Centrifugal twisting moment
The force moment, acting about the longitudinal axis of a propeller blade, which tries to rotate the blade toward a low
pitch angle? As the engine rotates, centrifugal force tries to flatten the blade so all of its mass rotates in the same
plane. Centrifugal twisting moment (CTM) opposes aerodynamic twisting moment (ATM), but normally CTM is the
greater. The resultant of these two twisting moments is a force on a rotating propeller that tries to move the blades
towards a low pitch angle

1199. The output of a turboprop engine is usually indicated by,


Torque

1200. The greatest drag produced by the variable pitch propeller on a piston engine will occur when the propeller is:
Windmilling

1201. The purpose of the feathering stop on a variable pitch propeller is to:
Prevent the propeller blades from moving beyond the feather position

1202. The twisting of a propeller blade from root to tip has been made to:
Provide a constant angle of attack from root to tip

1203. A propeller is said to be "double acting" when it:


Uses oil pressure to move the blade toward fine and coarse

1204. The de-icing of a propeller by fluid is achieved through:


Slinger rings

1205. In a single engine a/c with clockwise rotating propeller,a left yaw is generated due to:
The slipstream, striking the fin on the left side

1206. The four forces of lift, weight, thrust and drag in level flight act through:

The C of G
1207. The glide range of an aircraft is affected by:
The lift/drag ratio

1208. Vmcg is defined as the minimum speed which directional control onthe ground can be recovered and
maintained under which condition:
By use of rudder only

1209. During a take-off roll with a strong crosswind from the left, a four-engine jet aeroplane with wing-mounted
engines experiences an engine failure.
The failure of which engine will cause the greatest control problem?
The left outboard engine

1210. The stick force per g or a heavy transport aeroplane is 300 N/g.
What stick force is required, if the aeroplane in the clean configuration is pulled to the limit manoeuvring load factor
from a trimmed horizontal straight and steady flight?
450 N

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1211. How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?
Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases

1212. VMCL is the:


Minimum control speed approach and landing

1213. During a take-off roll with a strong crosswind from the right, a four-engine jet aeroplanewith wing-mounted
engines experiences an engine failure.
The failure of which engine will cause the greatest control problem?
The right outboard engine

1214. When the stick force requiredto achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and leveltrimmed flight is 360
N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
180 N/g

1215. Assuming zero thrust, the point on the diagram corresponding to thevalue for minimum glide angleis:
Point 2

1216. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.6 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
39%

1217. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.1 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
83%

POF - Page | 105


1218. The load factor is less than 1 (one):
During a wings level stall before recovery

1219. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.8, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 3.00

1220. Static lateral stability will be decreased by:


The use of a low, rather than high, wing mounting

1221. Given:
Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg
Lift/drag ratio: 12
Thrust per engine: 30000 N
Assumed g: 10m/s2
For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is:
9.7 %

1222. Which statement is correct regarding thegyroscopic effect ofa clockwise rotating propeller ona single engine
aeroplane?
1) Pitch down produces left yaw
2) Left yaw produces pitch down
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1223. The speed range between high and low speed buffet:
Increases during a descent with a constant IAS

1224. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the
Mach number increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1225. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically

constant as the
1) is correct 2) Mach number changes
is correct

1226. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1227. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the
Mach number increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1228. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the
Mach number increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
POF - Page | 106
1229. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically
constant as the Mach number changes
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1230. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically
constant as the Mach number changes
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1231. An aeroplane is flying in the transonic speed range in straight and level flight.
If the Mach number decreases, what additional input or action will be required to maintain straight and level flight to
compensate for the centre of pressure's movement, whilst exiting the transonic region?
A pitch down input to the elevator or the stabiliser

POF - Page | 107


1232. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements arecorrect or incorrect?
1) Flying at M = 0.8 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset
2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is higher at
M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75
1) is correct,2) is correct

POF - Page | 108


1233. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements arecorrect or incorrect?
1) Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset
2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is lower at
M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1234. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements arecorrect or incorrect?
1) Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset
2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is higher at
M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1235. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


Determine the maximum mass with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations for FL 400:
110 tons

1236. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


Determine the maximum altitude with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations for a mass of 120 tons:
FL 380 at M = 0.80

1237. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


To avoid low speed buffet in a turn at 30 degrees of bank and at a mass of 100 tons the following conditions must be
fulfilled (approximately):
FL < = 410 at M > = 0.69 or FL < = 380 at M > = 0.64

1238. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 380 at a mass of 90 tons is approximately:
1.75g at M = 0.80

1239. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 380 at a mass of 104 tons is approximately:
1.5 g at M 0.80

1240. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 250 at a mass of 140 tons is approximately:
2g at M = 0.80

1241. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 400 at a mass of 140 tons is approximately:
1g at M = 0.80

1242. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


At a mass of 140 tons:
the buffet free range in a level 30 degree bank turn at FL 360 is from approximately M = 0.74 to M = 0.84

1243. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


At a mass of 140 tons:
Buffet free flight at 1g at FL 410 is not possible

1244. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


At a mass of 140 tons:
At FL 400 buffet free flight is possible at M = 0.80 only

1245. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


At a mass of 130 tons:
The buffet free range in 1g flight at FL 410 is from approximately M = 0.76 to M = 0.83

1246. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


A jet transport aeroplane with a mass of 90 tons carries out a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1.6 at FL 380. The
buffet free speed range extends approximately from:
M = 0.74 to M = 0.84

POF - Page | 109


1247. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.
A jet transport aeroplane with a mass of 100 tons carries out a steady level 50 degree bank turn at FL 360. The buffet
free speed range extends approximately from:
M = 0.72 to M > 0.84

1248. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range decreases
2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range does not change
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1249. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundarygraph are correct or
incorrect?
1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range increases
2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1250. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range decreases
2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1251. Which of these statements about thebuffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range increases
2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range does not change
1) is correct,2) is correct

1252. Which of these statements about thebuffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range decreases
2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1253. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range does not change
2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1254. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range increases
2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1255. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range does not change
2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1256. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed decreases the buffet free range decreases
2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1257. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed decreases the buffet free range does not change
2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 110


1258. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed decreases the buffet free range increases
2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1259. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed decreases the buffet free range does not change
2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1260. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundarygraph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed increases the buffet free range increases
2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1261. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed increases the buffet free range does not change
2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1262. Which of these statements about thebuffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed increases the buffet free range decreases
2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1263. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed increases the buffet free range does not change
2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1264. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundarygraph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When altitude increases the buffet free range increases
2) When load factor increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1265. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When altitude increases the buffet free range decreases
2) When load factor increases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1266. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When altitude increases the buffet free range increases
2) When load factor increases the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1267. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When altitude increases the buffet free range decreases
2) When load factor increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1268. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range increases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 111


1269. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1270. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1271. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range increases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1272. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases
2) When mass decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1273. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundarygraph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases
2) When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1274. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases
2) When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1275. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases
2) When mass decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1276. From the buffet onset graph of a given jet transport aeroplane itis determined that atFL 310 at a given mass
buffet free flight is possible between M = 0.74 and M = 0.88. In what way would these numbers change if the
aeroplane is suddenly pulled up, e.g. in a traffic avoidance manoeuvre?
The lower Mach number increases and the higher Mach number decreases

1277. The maximum cruise altitude can belimited by a 1.3g load factor because when exceeding that altitude:
Turbulence may induce high speed or low speed buffet

1278. Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the highest Mcrit values?
(1) thin and (2) small.

1279. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
Its leading edge radius is increased

1280. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
It is flown at higher angles of attack

1281. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
Its camber is increased

1282. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
Its thickness to chord ratio is increased
POF - Page | 112
1283. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if:
Its leading edge radius is decreased

1284. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if:
It is flown at lower angles of attack

1285. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if:
Its camber is decreased

1286. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight andlevel trimmed flight is 240
N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
120 N/g

1287. When the stick force requiredto achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and leveltrimmed flight is 100
N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
50 N/g

1288. When the stick force requiredto achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and leveltrimmed flight is 360
N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
180 N/g

1289. When the stick force requiredto achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and leveltrimmed flight is 150
N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:

75 N/g

1290. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is
150 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
100 N/g

1291. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight andlevel trimmed flight is
450 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
300 N/g

1292. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is
375 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
250 N/g

1293. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is
225 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
150 N/g

1294. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 75 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
225 N

1295. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 150 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
450 N

1296. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 125 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
375 N

1297. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 50 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
150 N

POF - Page | 113


1298. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 100 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
150 N

1299. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 300 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
450 N

1300. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight andlevel trimmed flight is
375 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
250 N/g

1301. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 250 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 2.5 from steady level trimmed flight is:
375 N

1302. The tab in the figure represents


A servo tab

1303. The tab in the figure represents:


A balance tab that also functions as a trim tab

1304. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve a given load factor greater than 1
will be:
Larger

1305. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve a decrease in load factor will be:
Smaller

1306. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve a decrease in load factor will be:
Larger

POF - Page | 114


1307. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve an increase in load factor will be:
Smaller

1308. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a transport aeroplane inthe clean configuration at VDmay not
be less than:
0

1309. The negative manoeuvring limit loadfactor for a transport aeroplane in the clean configuration upto VC may
not be less than:
-1

1310. The negative manoeuvring limit loadfactor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean
configuration may not be less than:
-1.76

1311. The negative manoeuvring limit loadfactor for a light aeroplane in the normal category in the clean
configuration may not be less than:
-1.52

1312. The negative manoeuvring limit loadfactor for a light aeroplane in the aerobatic categoryin the clean
configuration may not be less than:
-3.0

1313. The positive manoeuvringlimit load factor for a light aeroplane in the aerobatic category inthe clean
configuration may not be less than:
6.0

1314. The positive manoeuvringlimit load factor for a light aeroplane in the normal category in the clean
configuration may not be less than:
3.8

1315. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 1.75, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 2.00

1316. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.9, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 3.00

1317. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.8, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 3.00

1318. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.7 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.7, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 3.00

1319. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.6 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.6, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.6 VS with that gust

1320. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.5, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.5 VS with that gust

POF - Page | 115


1321. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.4 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.4, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.4 VS with that gust

1322. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.3 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.3, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.3 VS with that gust

1323. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.2 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.2, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.2 VS with that gust

1324. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.1 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.1, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.1 VS with that gust

1325. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 1.95 the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 2.00

1326. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 1.9, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 2.00

1327. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 1.75, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.8 VS would be:
n = 1.90

1328. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 2 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 3, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.3 VS would be:
Not greater than 1.69, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.3 VS

1329. Which definition of propeller parameters is correct?


Propeller angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and relative airflow

Which definition of propeller parameters is correct?

Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane
1330. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 2.25
The speed will have increased by 50 kt

1331. For a fixed-pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack


Decreases during the take-off

1332. The effective pitch of a propeller is the:


Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution

1333. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with little blade twist is referred to as being in fine pitch
2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1334. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch
2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect
POF - Page | 116
1335. Which statement is correct?
1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch
2) A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1336. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with little blade twist is referred to as being in fine pitch
2) A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1337. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch
2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch
1) is correct,2) is correct

1338. A rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force Fthat may be resolved into two
components:
- a force T perpendicular to the plane of rotation (thrust)
- a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine power
The diagram representing a rotating propeller blade element during reverse operation is:
Diagram 2

1339. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a
bank angle of 15 and a TAS of 530 kt?
650 s

1340. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a
bank angle of 45 and a TAS of 380 kt?
125 s

POF - Page | 117


1341. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a
bank angle of 45 and a TAS of 288 kt?
95 s

1342. Which diagram shows a right turn, where there is not enough bank for a co-ordinated turn?
6

1343. Which diagram shows a right turn, where there is too much bank for a co-ordinated turn?
4

1344. Which diagram shows a right co-ordinated turn?


5

1345. Which diagram shows a left turn, where there is not enough bank for a co-ordinated turn?

3
1346. Which diagram showsa left turn, where there is too much bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1

1347. Which diagram shows a left co-ordinated turn?


2

POF - Page | 118


1348. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 4 should use:
More right rudder

1349. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 3 should use:


Less right rudder

1350. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 2 should use:


Less left rudder

1351. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 1 should use:


More left rudder

1352. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 4 should use:


Less bank angle

1353. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 3 should use:


More bank angle

1354. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 2 should use:


More bank angle

1355. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 1 should use:


Less bank angle

1356. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turnis to

apply:
Less left bank

1357. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
More left rudder

POF - Page | 119


1358. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
More left bank

1359. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
Less left rudder

1360. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
Less right bank

1361. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
More right rudder

1362. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
More right bank

1363. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 15 seconds in a steady co-ordinated horizontal rateone
turn?
45 degrees

1364. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 30 seconds in a steady co-ordinated horizontal rateone
turn?
90 degrees

1365. Compared with a level, co-ordinated turn,in order to maintain constant speedduring straight andlevel flight,
the pilot must:
Decrease thrust and angle of attack

1366. When shock stall occurs:


There will be flow separation

1367. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?

1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines diverge


2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1368. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge
2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge
1) is correct 2) is correct

1369. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines diverge
2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1370. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines diverge
2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 120


1371. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge
2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1372. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines diverge
2) the velocity increases as the streamlines diverge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1373. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines diverge
2) the velocity increases as the streamlines diverge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1374. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge
2) the velocity increases as the streamlines diverge
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1375. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines converge

1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1376. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines converge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1377. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge
2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge
1) is correct 2) is correct

1378. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?

1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge


2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1379. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1380. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1381. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines converge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 121


1382. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1383. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1384. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1385. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity increases as the streamlines converge
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1386. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect?
1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines converge
2) the velocity increases as the streamlines converge

1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1387. An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical gust. The point on the wing, where the
instantaneous variation in wing lift effectively acts is known as the:
Aerodynamic centre of the wing

1388. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.96:
The speed will have increased by 40 kt

1389. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.69:
The speed will have increased by 30 kt

1390. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 200 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.69:
The speed will have increased by 60 kt

1391. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value 1.69:
The speed will have increased by 90 kt

1392. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value 1.44:
The speed will have increased by 60 kt

1393. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value 1.69:
The speed will have increased by 90 kt

1394. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 200 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.44:
The speed will have increased by 40 kt

POF - Page | 122


1395. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.44:
The speed will have increased by 20 kt

1396. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.21:
The speed will have increased by 10 kt

1397. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 200 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value 1.21:
The speed will have increased by 20 kt

1398. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly decreases
the speed by 100 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Decrease to 0.25

1399. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenlydecreases
the speed by 80 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Decrease to 0.36

1400. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenlydecreases
the speed by 60 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Decrease to 0.49

1401. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly decreases
the speed by 40 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Decrease to 0.64

1402. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenlydecreases
the speed by 20 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Decrease to 0.81

1403. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenlydecreases
the speed by 10 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Decrease to 0.90

1404. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases
the speed by 100 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Increase to 2.25

1405. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenlyincreases
the speed by 80 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Increase to 1.96

1406. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenlyincreases
the speed by 60 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Increase to 1.69

1407. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases
the speed by 40 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Increase to 1.44

1408. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenlyincreases
the speed by 20 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Increase to 1.21

POF - Page | 123


1409. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenlyincreases
the speed by 10 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:
Increase to 1.10

1410. Which of these statements aboutthe strenght of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices inceases as the angle of attack decreases
2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1411. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about thevariation of induced drag with changes of
speed and mass are correct or incorrect?
1) When speed decreases, induced drag decreases
2) When mass decreases, induced drag decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1412. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about thevariation of induced drag with changes of
speed and mass are correct or incorrect?
1) When speed decreases, induced drag increases
2) When mass decreases, induced drag increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1413. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about thevariation of induced drag with changes of
speed and mass are correct or incorrect?

1) When speed decreases, induced drag decreases


2) When mass decreases, induced drag increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1414. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about thevariation of induced drag with changes of
speed and mass are correct or incorrect?
1) When speed decreases, induced drag increases
2) When mass decreases, induced drag decreases
1) is correct 2) is correct

1415. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about thevariation of induced drag with changes of
speed and mass are correct or incorrect?
1) When speed increases, induced drag increases

2) When
1) is mass increases,
incorrect induced drag increases
2) is correct

1416. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about thevariation of induced drag with changes of
speed and mass are correct or incorrect?
1) When speed increases, induced drag decreases
2) When mass increases, induced drag decreases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1417. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about thevariation of induced drag with changes of
speed and mass are correct or incorrect?
1) When speed increases, induced drag increases
2) When mass increases, induced drag decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1418. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of
speed and mass are correct or incorrect?
1) When speed increases, induced drag decreases
2) When mass increases, induced drag increases
1) is correct 2) is correct

POF - Page | 124


1419. In straight and level flight at a speed of 2 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
25%

1420. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
28%

1421. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
31%

1422. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.7 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
35%

1423. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.6 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
39%

1424. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
44%

1425. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.4 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
51%

1426. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.2 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
69%

1427. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.1 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum
CLMAX, would be:
83%

1428.
VS1g The minimum speed at which lift equals weight is called:

1429. The reference stall speed is represented by the following:


VSR

1430. The stall speed in the landing configuration is represented by the following:
VS0

1431. The stall speed in a specified configurationis represented by the following:


VS1

1432. Which of these statements about theeffect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or
incorrect?
1) The centre of pressure on an unswept wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the
critical angle of attack
2) When sweep back increases the centre of pressure has an increased tendency to move forward as the angle of
attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

POF - Page | 125


1433. Which of these statements about theeffect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or
incorrect?
1) The centre of pressure on an unswept wing moves aft as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical
angle of attack
2) When sweep back increases the centre of pressure has an increased tendency to move aft as the angle of attack
approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1434. Which of these statements about theeffect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or
incorrect?
1) The centre of pressure on an unswept wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the
critical angle of attack
2) When sweep back increases the centre of pressure has an increased tendency to move aft as the angle of attack
approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1435. The load factor is less than 1 (one):


During a push-over manoeuvre

1436. The load factor is greater than 1 (one):


During a pull-up manoeuvre

1437. The load factor is less than 1 (one):


During a wings level stall before recovery

1438. The load factor is less than 1 (one):


During a steady wings level descent

1439. The load factor is less than 1 (one):


During a steady wings level climb

1440. The load factor is less than 1 (one):


When weight is greater than lift

1441. The load factor is less than 1 (one):


When lift is less than weight

1442. The load factor is equal to 1 (one):


In steady wings level horizontal flight

1443. The load factor is greater than 1 (one):


During recovery after a wings level stall

1444. The load factor is greater than 1 (one):


During a steady co-ordinated horizontal turn

1445. The load factor is less than 1 (one):


During a push-over manoeuvre

1446. The load factor is greater than 1 (one):


When weight is less than lift

1447. When flaps are extended whilst maintaining straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will:
Eventually remain the same

1448. The highest value of the CL/CD ratio of an aeroplane is obtained:


In the clean configuration

1449. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
TAS remains constant

1450. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
IAS decreases

POF - Page | 126


1451. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
Lift coefficient increases

1452. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
TAS remains constant

1453. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
IAS increases

1454. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
Lift coefficient decreases

1455. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
TAS decreases

1456. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
IAS decreases

1457. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
Lift coefficient increases

1458. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
Lift coefficient increases

1459. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
TAS increases

1460. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass,
the:
IAS increases

1461. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will:


Move aft as Mach number is increased

1462. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will:


Move forward as Mach number is decreased

1463. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will:


Move slightly forward in front of a upward deflecting aileron

1464. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will:


Move slightly aft in front of a downward deflecting aileron

1465. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD decreases above the drag divergence Mach
number
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1466. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is equal to the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD decreases above the drag divergence Mach
number
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 127


1467. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD decreases above the drag divergence Mach
number
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1468. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is lower than the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD decreases above the drag divergence Mach
number
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1469. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD increases above the drag divergence Mach
number
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1470. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is equal to the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD increases above the drag divergence Mach
number
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1471. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is lower than the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD increases above the drag divergence Mach
number
1) is correct 2) is correct

1472. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD remains practically constant above the drag
divergence Mach number
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1473. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) Mcrit is lower than the drag divergence Mach number
2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD remains practically constant above the drag
divergence Mach number
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1474. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD decreases as the
Mach number decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1475. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD decreases as the
Mach number decreases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1476. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the
Mach number increases
1) is correct 2) is incorrect

1477. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the
Mach number increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 128


1478. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the
Mach number increases
1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect

1479. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically
constant as the Mach number changes
1) is correct 2) is correct

1480. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically
constant as the Mach number changes
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1481. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect?
1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit
2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically
constant as the Mach number changes
1) is incorrect 2) is correct

1482. An aeroplane is flying in the transonic speed range in straight and level flight.
If the Mach number decreases, what additional input or action will be required to maintain straight and level flight to
compensate for the centre of pressure's movement, whilst exiting the transonic region?
A pitch down input to the elevator or the stabiliser

POF - Page | 129


1483. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements arecorrect or incorrect?
1) Flying at M = 0.8 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset
2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is higher at
M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75
1) is correct,2) is correct

1484. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements are correct or incorrect?
1) Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset
2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is lower at
M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 130


1485. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements arecorrect or incorrect?
1) Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset
2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is higher at
M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1486. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


Determine the maximum mass with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations for FL 400:
110 tons

1487. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


Determine the maximum altitude with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations for a mass of 120 tons:
FL 380 at M = 0.80

1488. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


To avoid low speed buffet in a turn at 30 degrees of bank and at a mass of 100 tons the following conditions must be
fulfilled (approximately):
FL < = 410 at M > = 0.69 or FL < = 380 at M > = 0.64

1489. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 380 at a mass of 90 tons is approximately:
1.75g at M = 0.80

1490. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 380 at a mass of 104 tons is approximately:
1.5 g at M 0.80

Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


1491. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset atFL 250 at a mass of 140 tons is approximately:
2g at M = 0.80

1492. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 400 at a mass of 140 tons is approximately:
1g at M = 0.80

1493. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


At a mass of 140 tons:
the buffet free range in a level 30 degree bank turn at FL 360 is from approximately M = 0.74 to M = 0.84

1494. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


At a mass of 140 tons:
Buffet free flight at 1g at FL 410 is not possible

1495. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


At a mass of 140 tons:
At FL 400 buffet free flight is possible at M = 0.80 only

1496. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


At a mass of 130 tons:
The buffet free range in 1g flight at FL 410 is from approximately M = 0.76 to M = 0.83

1497. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


A jet transport aeroplane with a mass of 90 tons carries out a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1.6 at FL 380. The
buffet free speed range extends approximately from:
M = 0.74 to M = 0.84

1498. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below.


A jet transport aeroplane with a mass of 100 tons carries out a steady level 50 degree bank turn at FL 360. The buffet
free speed range extends approximately from:
M = 0.72 to M > 0.84

POF - Page | 131


1499. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundarygraph are correct or
incorrect?
1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range decreases
2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range does not change
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1500. Which of these statements about thebuffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range increases
2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1501. Which of these statements about thebuffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range decreases
2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1502. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundarygraph are correct or
incorrect?
1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range increases
2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range does not change
1) is correct,2) is correct

1503. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range decreases
2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1504. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range does not change
2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1505. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range increases
2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1506. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range does not change
2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1507. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed decreases the buffet free range decreases
2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1508. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed decreases the buffet free range does not change
2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

POF - Page | 132


1509. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed decreases the buffet free range increases
2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1510. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundarygraph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed decreases the buffet free range does not change
2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1511. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed increases the buffet free range increases
2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1512. Which of these statements about thebuffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed increases the buffet free range does not change
2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1513. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed increases the buffet free range decreases
2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1514. Which of these statements about thebuffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When speed increases the buffet free range does not change
2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1515. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundarygraph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When altitude increases the buffet free range increases
2) When load factor increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1516. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When altitude increases the buffet free range decreases
2) When load factor increases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1517. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When altitude increases the buffet free range increases
2) When load factor increases the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1518. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When altitude increases the buffet free range decreases
2) When load factor increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1519. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct
POF - Page | 133
1520. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range increases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1521. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1522. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1523. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range increases
2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1524. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases
2) When mass decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1525. Which of these statements about thebuffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases
2) When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1526. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases
2) When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1527. Which of these statements about thebuffet free rangein a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or
incorrect?
1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases
2) When mass decreases the buffet free range increases
1) is correct,2) is correct

1528. From the buffet onset graph of a given jet transport aeroplane itis determined that atFL 310 at a given mass
buffet free flight is possible between M = 0.74 and M = 0.88. In what way would these numbers change if the
aeroplane is suddenly pulled up, e.g. in a traffic avoidance manoeuvre?
The lower Mach number increases and the higher Mach number decreases

1529. The maximum cruise altitude can belimited by a 1.3g load factor because when exceeding that altitude:
Turbulence may induce high speed or low speed buffet

1530. Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the highest Mcrit values?
(1) thin and (2) small.

1531. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
Its leading edge radius is increased

1532. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
It is flown at higher angles of attack
POF - Page | 134
1533. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
Its camber is increased

1534. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
Its thickness to chord ratio is increased

1535. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if:
Its leading edge radius is decreased

1536. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if:

It is flown at lower angles of attack


1537. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if:
Its camber is decreased

1538. When the stick force requiredto achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and leveltrimmed flight is 240
N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
120 N/g

1539. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 100
N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
50 N/g

1540. When the stick force requiredto achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and leveltrimmed flight is 360
N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
180 N/g

1541. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is
150 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
100 N/g

1542. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight andlevel trimmed flight is
450 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
300 N/g

1543. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is
375 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
250 N/g

1544. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is
225 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
150 N/g

1545. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 75 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
225 N

1546. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 150 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
450 N

1547. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 125 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
375 N

1548. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 50 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
150 N

1549. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 100 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load
factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
150 N

POF - Page | 135


1550. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 300 N/g. The stick force requiredto achieve a load
factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is:
450 N

1551. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is
375 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is:
250 N/g

1552. The value of the manoeuvre stability of anaeroplane is 250 N/g. The stick force requiredto achieve a load
factor of 2.5 from steady level trimmed flight is:
375 N

1553. The tab in the figure represents:


A servo tab

1554. The tab in the figure represents:


A balance tab that also functions as a trim tab

1555. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve a given load factor greater than 1
will be:
Larger

1556. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve a decrease in load factor will be:
Smaller

1557. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve a decrease in load factor will be:
Larger

1558. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve an increase in load factor will be:
Smaller

1559. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a transport aeroplane inthe clean configuration at VDmay not
be less than:
0

1560. The negative manoeuvring limit loadfactor for a transport aeroplane in the clean configuration upto VC may
not be less than:
-1

POF - Page | 136


1561. The negative manoeuvring limit loadfactor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean
configuration may not be less than:
-1.76

1562. The negative manoeuvring limit loadfactor for a light aeroplane in the normal category in the clean
configuration may not be less than:
-1.52

1563. The negative manoeuvring limit loadfactor for a light aeroplane in the aerobatic categoryin the clean
configuration may not be less than:
-3.0

1564. The positive manoeuvringlimit load factor for a light aeroplane in the aerobatic categoryin the clean
configuration may not be less than:
6.0

1565. The positive manoeuvringlimit load factor for a light aeroplane in the normal category in the clean
configuration may not be less than:
3.8

1566. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 1.75, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 2.00

1567. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.9, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 3.00

1568. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.8, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 3.00

1569. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.7 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.7, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 3.00

1570. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.6 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.6, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.6 VS with that gust

1571. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causesa
load factor of 2.5, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.5 VS with that gust

1572. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.4 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.4, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.4 VS with that gust

1573. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.3 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.3, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.3 VS with that gust

1574. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.2 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.2, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.2 VS with that gust

1575. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.1 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 2.1, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.1 VS with that gust

1576. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 1.95 the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 2.00

POF - Page | 137


1577. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 1.9, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
n = 2.00

1578. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 1.75, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.8 VS would be:
n = 1.90

1579. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 2 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a
load factor of 3, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.3 VS would be:
Not greater than 1.69, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.3 VS

1580. Which definition of propeller parameters is correct?


Propeller angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and relative airflow

1581. Which definition of propeller parameters is correct?


Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane

1582. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed.Assuming the
angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 2.25
The speed will have increased by 50 kt

1583. For a fixed-pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack


Decreases during the take-off

1584. The effective pitch of a propeller is the:


Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution

1585. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with little blade twist is referred to as being in fine pitch
2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch
1) is incorrect, 2) is correct

1586. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch
2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1587. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch
2) A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch
1) is correct, 2) is incorrect

1588. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with little blade twist is referred to as being in fine pitch
2) A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch
1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect

1589. Which statement is correct?


1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch
2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch
1) is correct,2) is correct

POF - Page | 138


1590. A rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force Fthat may be resolved into two
components:
- a force T perpendicular to the plane of rotation (thrust)
- a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine power
The diagram representing a rotating propeller blade element during reverse operation is:
Diagram 2

1591. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a
bank angle of 15 and a TAS of 530 kt?
650 s

1592. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a
bank angle of 45 and a TAS of 380 kt?
125 s

1593. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a
bank angle of 45 and a TAS of 288 kt?
95 s

POF - Page | 139


1594. Which diagram shows a right turn, where there is not enough bank for a co-ordinated turn?
6

1595. Which diagram shows a right turn, where there is too much bank for a co-ordinated turn?
4

1596. Which diagram shows a right co-ordinated turn?


5

1597. Which diagram shows a left turn, where there is not enough bank for a co-ordinated turn?
3

1598.
1 Which diagram shows a left turn, where there is too much bank for a co-ordinated turn?

1599. Which diagram shows a left co-ordinated turn?


2

POF - Page | 140


1600. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 4 should use:
More right rudder

1601. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 3 should use:


Less right rudder

1602. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 2 should use:


Less left rudder

1603. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 1 should use:


More left rudder

1604. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 4 should use:


Less bank angle

1605. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 3 should use:


More bank angle

1606. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 2 should use:


More bank angle

1607. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 1 should use:


Less bank angle

1608. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turnis to
apply:
Less left bank

1609. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turnis to
apply:
More left rudder

1610. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
More left bank

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1611. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
Less left rudder

1612. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
Less right bank

1613. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to
apply:
More right rudder

1614. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turnis to
apply:
More right bank

1615. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 15 seconds in a steady co-ordinated horizontal rateone
turn?
45 degrees

1616. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 30 seconds in a steady co-ordinated horizontal rate one
turn?
90 degrees

1617. Compared with a level, co-ordinated turn,in order to maintain constant speedduring straight andlevel flight,
the pilot must:
Decrease thrust and angle of attack

1618. During a left turn, the slip indicator is deflected to the right.
What is the reason?
The bank angle is too small or the turn rate too large

1619. During a left turn, the slip indicator is deflected to the left.
What is the reason?
The bank angle is too large or the turn rate too small

1620. During a right turn, the slip indicator is deflected to the left.
What is the reason?
The bank angle is too small or the turn rate too large

1621. During a right turn, the slip indicator is deflected to the right.
What is the reason?
The bank angle is too large or the turn rate too small

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