Engine Opt C1 C17 1

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ENGINE OPERATIONAL (APR012015)

COMPETENCE # 1-17
Question Answer
1. Which of the following statement is/are not safety Keep the valve cap off when not
precaution of gas welding in acetylene tank? in use
2. Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness that storing all items in their proper
may be kept by __________. place
3. What is the limit that each Administration shall establish for 0.05% blood alcohol level (BAC)
the purpose of preventing alcohol abuse for masters,
officers and other seafarers while performing designated
safety, security and marine environmental duties?
4. How many weeks shall an expection of 70 hours in a week 2 weeks
be granted by the administration?
5. What is the minimum number of hours of rest in a 24 hour 10 hours

period?
6. The hours of rest may be divided into no more than two 6 hours
periods, one of which shall be at least how many hours?
7. Cylinder oil is used for _________. 2-stroke engine
8. All persons who are assigned duty as officer in charge of a 77 hours in a 7 day period
watch or as a rating forming part of a watch and those
whose duties involve designated safety, prevention of
pollution, and security duties shall be provided with a rest
period of not less than ________________.
9. When the engine is running, a leaking air starting valve is hot pipe connected to the
indicated by_____. starting valve
10. While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should check any leaks in the system
for __________.
11. The expansion tank for the jacket cooling water which is a maintain constant head in a
closed cooling type is used to ___________. system
12. A good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by eliminating potential fuel sources
_________.
13. Which of the conditions listed would cause the stern tube A worn or damaged stern tube
lube oil header tank level to decrease? seal.
14. As a duty engineer you should know that some auxiliaries A steam pressure reducing valve
are not designed to handle steam at boiler pressure. Which
of the following devices is usually fitted in the branch line to
deliver steam at the correct pressure?
15. Which of the following is the most critical information that The condition and state of
the officer in an engineering watch be relayed during taking readiness of portable fire-
over a watch? extinguishing equipment and
fixed fire-extinguishing
installations and fire-detection
systems
16. When the machinery spaces are in the periodic unmanned in a ship compartment that has
condition, the designated duty officer of the engineering an alarm
watch shall be ________________.
17. To ensure that a bearing is receiving the proper oil supply, sight flow glass in the bearing oil
you should check the _______________. supply line
18. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection electric shock if the tool is
to prevent _________. shorted
19. Under what condition may the master suspend the Emergency Cases
schedule of hours of rest and require a seafarer to perform
any hours of work necessary?
20. Not properly vented main engine jacket cooling water can cause overheating
__________.
21. When maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming Notify the bridge and ask to shut
from the turbocharger casing. What action should you take the engine down
first?.
22. As an engineer which action should you normally take Observe general performance of
during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is operating? the boiler
23. If one fuel oil strainer of a duplex unit becomes clogged change the oil flow over to the
while the vessel is steaming at sea, the first action is to clean side
__________.
24. Under what condition shall the officer in charge of the Restricted visibility
engineering watch shall ensure that permanent air or steam
pressure is available for sound signals?
25. What is the most important parameter to check right after lube oil pressure
any diesel engine is started?
26. If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order to oil levels in both compressor
maintain the box temperatures, a careful watch should be crankcases
kept on the __________.
27. An auxiliary diesel generator continues to run after you try block the flow of air supply to the
to shut down. Your next course of action should be to engine
_________.
28. Dark exhaust gas from the engine is caused by ______. engine overload
29. Below are some of the causes of high exhaust gas poor quality of fuel oil
temperature except __________.
30. Cracked cylinder liner of a 2-stroke engine is indicated hunting of jacket cooling water
by___________. pressure
31. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to in a storage tank
determine the highest temperature to which the oil may be
heated __________.
32. An engine fails to start even if all temperatures and fuel is contaminated with water
pressures are normal because______.
33. The effect of too much heating in the fuel oil of main engine stuck plunger and barrel
is ___________.
34. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require Low water level main boiler
priority attention over the other conditions listed?
35. Which of the following is an example of head hazard? I. I, II, and III
Impact from falling, II. Flying Object, III. Hair entanglement
36. Which condition could cause the feed pump of an auxiliary Excessive feed water
boiler to lose suction? temperature
1 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

37. An engine with high exhaust temperature but low leaking valve
compression is due to_____________ .
38. An indication of excessive soot accumulation on boiler high stack temperature

water tubes and economizer surfaces is due to____.
39. Before using the steam soot blowers of boiler at sea, you raise the water level
should __________.
40. You would not see a flow through the sight glass of the lube the lube oil service pumps are
oil gravity tank overflow line when the __________. secured
41. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to secure loose gears
_________.
42. Prior to taking over the engineering watch, which of C/E standing orders of the day
following responsibilities shall an officer of an engineering
watch rely to the incoming watch?
43. Fuel oil enters the main engine cylinder through fuel oil injector
______________.
44. When securing a fuel oil heater, you should __________. cut out the steam before
securing the oil flow
45. Too high exhaust gas temperature in all cylinders is cause stuck-up fuel injection pump
by the following except________.
46. The watch engineer finds the refrigeration compressor has secure the compressor at once
blown the shaft seal. In this situation, he should and close the suction and
__________. discharge valves
47. Before using a boiler compressed air soot blower system, drain the soot blower pneumatic
you should __________. operating lines
48. If the fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high shut off the fuel supply
pressure fuel oil leak, you should first ______.
49. What condition shall the chief engineer officer consult with Unsheltered anchorage
the master whether or not to maintain the same
engineering watch as when under way?
50. If the engineer on watch is doubtful of the accuracy of water blow down the gauge glass
level in the boiler gauge glass, he should ____.
51. Which of the following conditions should be immediately Oil in the drain inspection tank.
reported to the engineering officer on watch?
52. In relieving watch, the outgoing duty engineer should check that the reliever is capable
________________. to carry out watch keeping duties
53. When there is sufficient reason that the relieving officer is notify the chief engineer officer
not capable of watch keeping duties, the outgoing in charge
of the engineering watch should ________________.
54. In testing the boiler water for chloride content will indicate dissolved salts from sea
the amount of ____. contamination
55. Prior to engaging the turning gear, precautions should be shut off the starting air supply
taken to________________. and open the indicator cocks
56. What is the proper way of storing an oxygen and acetylene Horizontal with the cylinder caps
cylinders? screwed on

57. The watch engineer has been unable to transfer the fuel oil call out other engineers for
to the settling tank while underway. As the tank level is assistance
becoming dangerously low, the engineer should now
__________.
58. When there is a fire in an electric motor, normally the first secure the electrical supply
step is to ___________.
59. After being rescued from the vessel accident, the people thank
agreed that they had much to ______.
60. If you do not wear goggles and helmet, your chances of hurt
being ______ will be greater
61. The ship can leave the port ______ the joint inspection after
62. How can the error be corrected when writing in the official Cross out the error with a single
log book? line and rewrite the entry
correctly
63. An accidental grounding is called _______. stranding
64. When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, record of bell book

engine speed is kept in the ______.
65. Has any person ______ on board during the voyage died
otherwise than as a result of accident
66. When oil is discharged overboardan entry is required in Oil Record Book
the ______.
67. What language shall the issuing country use in medical Official language of the issuing
certificates ? country
68. Please charge the expenses ______ the ship's account into
69. The Mariner's Handbook ______ general information gives

affecting navigation and is complementary to the Sailing
Directions
70. The accident ______ caused damage to ship's hull has
71. The most critical time during bunkering is when ______. final topping off is occurring
72. Let ______ the real fact of the accident me tell you
73. A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a On the deck outside the
ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the pumproom
combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the
pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?
74. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or ship's sweat
damage by ______.
75. Which is not a required entry in the ship's Official Logbook? Drydocking of the vessel
76. The damage to winches is due to ______. rough handling

77. In case of accident ______ the risk of sinking, all effective involving/impeding
measures shall be taken to steer clear of the fairway to
avoid ______ the traffic
78. According ______ the report, ship hit the wharf during to
berthing
79. Please get everything ready prior ______ shifting to
80. As soon as the ship is berthedyou should lower the underneath

gangway and stretch a net ______.
81. Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to- speak English

bridge radiotelephone must be able to __________.
82. He must have had an accidentor he ______ then would have been here
83. The ______ showed that said ship complied with the inspection
requirements of the Convention.
84. The patches where rust have been removed should be applied
wiped clean before paint is ______.
85. Never make commentestimate or guess in your Offical the facts

Logbookbut ______ only
86. A lashing used to secure two barges side by sidelashed scissor wire
in an "X" fashionis called a ______.
87. Steam smoke will occur when ______. extremely cold air from shore
passes over warmer water
88. An accident came ______ my mind when I saw the broken to

case
89. Which wave length applies to a frequency of 2000 kHz? 1500 meters
90. What is the maximum range of a VHF radio-set from ship to 200 Nautical Miles
ship at sea.
91. The legal type VHF-antenna has a length of__________. 1 meter
92. The typical daylight-frequencies for long distance 8 or 12 MHz-band

transmission are located in the__________
93. The squelch on the control panel of a VHF-sat serves adjust the threshold level for
to__________ admitting signals and refusing
noise
94. With the squelch mode on the VHF__________ undesirable noise is suppressed
95. Acoustic feedback can arise__________ because the volume adjustment

of the speaker is too high
96. Before a mariphone is installed on board, __________ a license must be issued

97. When onboard channel 16 is used for a shore radio- simplex
connection, you always work__________.
98. Long distance communication in the HF-bands depends satellites

on__________
99. A polarisation of a radio wave is determined by position of the aerial

a__________
100. Squelch mode serves to suppress__________ noise in speech-breaks in an

SSB-signal
101. What is meant by frequency? time lapse of vibrations.
102. Automatic amplifier regulation is used to__________ reduce distortion of weak

incoming signals
103. The sound-level of the speaker on a MF/HF radiotelephony AF-Gain

installation is adjusted through _________.
104. A VHF transmission range is mainly determined the height of the aerial
by__________
105. What is the recommended connection between antenna coax cable connection
and VHF?
106. Cylinder oil is used for _________. 2-stroke engine
107. The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon change in the amount of vapor
the__________. produced within an enclosed
chamber
108. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric heating of the air leaving the
efficiency normally results from________. cylinders
109. The dehydrator of a refrigeration system is before expansion valve

located____________.
110. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash seawater

evaporator are cooled by_________.
111. A material use to protect the internal parts of air Intake filter
compressor from solid particles which can be sucked along
with fresh air is called____.
112. The expansion tank for the jacket cooling water which is a maintain constant head in a
closed cooling type is used to ___________. system
113. Burned gas from each cylinder is directed to the exhaust 2-stroke engine
manifold which is part of___________.
114. The inlet pipe connection of dirty oil in disc type centrifugal top of the bowl cover
purifier is located at the __________.
115. The thermostatic expansion valve of a refrigeration system by refrigerant pressure and close
is opened ____________. by spring pressure
116. The purpose of expansion valve is to__________. provide an orifice between the
high pressure and low pressure
side of the system

117. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal carryover in the first- stage
between two stages of a flash type evaporator
indicates_____.
118. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically An increase in the suction
controlled refrigeration compressor to restart? pressure
119. In the refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the evaporator

latent heat of vaporization in the______.
120. A squeaking sound occurring from within an operating tight compressor bearings
reciprocating air compressor is an indication of_______.
121. The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is expansion valve to the
considered to exist from the ______. compressor
122. Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water means of heating the feedwater
distillation process as the __________.
123. The storage tank for liquid refrigerant in a refrigeration receiver

system is called __________.
124. Unloader in air compressor is use to________. prevent excessive load on the
motor during starting
125. What component of the freshwater evaporator on board Evaporator

use to boil seawater, using the main engine jacket cooling
water?
126. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle electrical conductivity of water
of measuring the____.
127. Component of an engine used to increase scavenging air is turbocharger

called ___________.
128. In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat expansion valve

absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the _________.
129. The high pressure side of the refrigeration systems starts compressor to the expansion
from the _______. valve
130. Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by compressor

the ___________.
131. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers frequently starting and stopping
to_____________.
132. Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur gasketed joints, valve stem, and
through_______. gage glass packing
133. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical the full breaking strength of the
brakes capable of holding_____. mooring line
134. The separation chamber of the purifier is called ________. bowl
135. If an air compressor intercooler pressure rises above dirty intercooler

normal, it usually indicates __________.
136. Parts of the pump used to maintain the alignment of the bearings
pump are_____.

137. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam pressure and temperature
supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure submerged fluctuations in the entire unit
tube distilling plant will cause _____.
138. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an increase compressor efficiency
aftercooler to___________ .
139. It is a form of energy which crosses the boundary of a Heat

system during a change of state produced by a difference
of temperature between the system and its surroundings.
140. The high pressure cut-out switch will stop the refrigeration a stoppage of condenser cooling
compressor when there is______. water flow
141. The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator refrigerating effect
is known as the_______________.
142. The liquid indicator sight glass is generally located in the high pressure liquid line
____________.
143. Main engine lube oil sump tank is located __________. at the bottom of the engine
144. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto cycle does not The entire fuel charge is present
occur in the theoretical Diesel cycle. for ignition.
145. A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to moisture from the system
remove _____.
146. If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated oil will be lost through the water
as a separator is not primed, the______. discharge ports
147. Fuel oil enters the main engine cylinder through fuel oil injector
______________.
148. The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to start and stop the compressor at
____________. preset operating pressures
149. A badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves constant running of the
will cause __________. compressor
150. It refers to an internal combustion engine practice, where Pre-heating

there is a necessity of heating the oil, to ensure easy flow
and good atomization.
151. One of the major components of centrifugal pump impeller
is___________.
152. The purpose of wear ring in the centrifugal pump is to minimize wear of impeller and
___________. casing
153. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering in atomizer is too produce heavy black smoke at
low, the burner will __________. any load condition
154. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate the quality of water produced
____________.
155. Type of pump which is dependent of the head centrifugal pump

is______________.
156. Breaking the fuel into fine spray to provide good atomizing
combustion is called__________.

157. A protective device use to prevent over torque during unloader
starting of an Air Compressor is called_____.
158. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water gums, varnishes, and acids
contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally______.
159. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the Heated sea water is injected into
operating principle of a flash-type evaporator? a vacuum chamber
160. Boiler fire side must be kept free of soot accumulations soot insulates the boiler heating
because ____. surfaces
161. A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type horizontal run of drain line from
steam trap would be in the__________ - the lowest point at the outlet of
the heat exchanger
162. Main component of the engine to regulate speed is the governor
___________.
163. Which of the listed types of steam traps operates on the Impulse
principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapor
pressure is reached?
164. The degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder the size of the holes in the fuel
depends primarily on _______. nozzle
165. Part of centrifugal disc purifier use to hold discs in place distributor
and directs the flow of dirty liquid to the bottom then to the
discs as the oil flows upward is called ____________.
166. Stern tube is used to__________. support and seal the propeller
shaft
167. Air compressor cylinder unloader enable the compressor start and come up to speed
to_______. before air compression begins
168. What is the theoritical lift of a pump handling fresh water at 10.35 m
atmospheric pressure?
169. What equipment is required when processing bilge slops 15 PPM Oil Content Monitor of
for overboard discharge? Oily Water Separator
170. Tubing is sized by_________. nominal outside diameter
171. The ability of lubricating oil to resist viscosity changes viscosity index number
during temperature changes is indicated by the________.
172. An emergency bilge suction is required machinery space bilges

for________________.
173. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly bilge system will lose vacuum
seat, the__________. and prevents the other bilges
from being pumped out
174. When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of Trip the three way dump valve.
the listed steps should be carried out first?
175. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with bleed off all stored energy from
accumulators, you should________. the accumulators
176. Which of the following statements represents the proper Direction of flow should be from
relative direction of flow through a globe valve? below the seat.

177. In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is first and second stage flash
vaporized in the_________. chambers
178. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is delay the compression process
to________. . until the motor is up to its speed
179. After the installation of new impeller wear rings, by pressing check the shaft and impeller
them onto the pump impeller hub, it is advisable to_____. . assembly on centers to see if the
ring surfaces are true
180. In a centrifugal pumps operating with a high suction lift, foot enable the pump and its suction
valves are primarily designed to______. . line to remain primed prior to
starting the pump
181. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil retain the lube oil as long as
sump tank should _______ . possible before it recirculates
through the system
182. The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling low pressure steam admitted to
plant is carried out by______. the feedwater heater
183. Which of the following centrifugal pump components Volute

converts the liquid velocity to pressure?
184. Which of the following statements best describes an oil No shaft liner is needed in the
lubricated stern tube bearing installation? area of the babbitted bearing
surface.
185. Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering systems axial piston type
are of the ______ .
186. An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for______. high speed continuous operation
of roller bearings
187. An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when compression set or wear
it has lost its interference fit due to____.
188. One of the main functions of wear rings, as used in a prevent wear of the pump casing
centrifugal pumps is to ____ . and impeller
189. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with pump would overheat
the discharge valve closed the____________.
190. The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a center the steam piston in the
duplex reciprocating pump is to _____ . cylinders
191. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually wear rings

over a long period of time, you should replace the _____ .
192. In order to properly remove air from the casing of a vent valve attached to the casing
centrifugal pump when starting, the pump should have at the top of the volute
a_____. .
193. A centrifugal pump requires priming____________. due to the inability of this type of
pump to lift water to cover the
suction or eye of the impeller
194. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank At least once a year.
vessels be tested ?
195. If you are operating a centrifugal water service pump with pump discharge capacity is
worn wear rings, the____ . reduced
196. Which of the listed pumps is not a positive displacement Centrifugal

pump?

197. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a Vapor pockets formed in the
centrifugal pump? suction flow stream.
198. When securing a distillate pump on a low pressure fresh Trip the three-way solenoid
water evaporator, which of the listed steps should be dump valve
carried out first?
199. If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are The compressor will vibrate
loose, which of the conditions below will occur?
200. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve The movement of any system
used in a hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by actuator will now be slower.
10 bars, which of the following statements describes the
result of the set point being lowered?
201. Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _____. the ability of oil to separate from
water
202. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically if the bilges become flooded and
used____________. they can not be emptied by any
other means
203. An important point of consideration when replacing a dry select the proper size of filter so
type intake filter on an air compressor is to____. that air flow is not restricted
204. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the stop-check valves installed in the
bilge system is prevented by______________. bilge suction manifolds
205. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with the 23.2 KW

switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kw meter
currently indicates 163.6 KW, with a power factor of 0.7. If
the power factor increases to 0.8, the KW meter reading
would increase by______.
206. An ohmmeter reading of 'zero' ohm between the ends of a continuity
wire conductor would provide a positive indication
of______.
207. A tubular fuse should always be removed from a fuse panel fuse pullers
with ________. .
208. The timer element found in a reverse power relay obtains electromagnets
its operating torque from________ .
209. Two DC drive propulsion motors provide input to a single a tripped reverse current relay
output reduction gear. Upon relieving the watch, you notice
that the starboard motor indicators show zero current
compared to normal voltage and current indicated on the
port motor. The problem with the starboard motor could
be_____.
210. The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch automatically hold the load as
functions____________. soon as current to the machine
is shut off
211. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an short the test leads and calibrate
ohmmeter, you should _____. the meter reading to zero
212. On a main switchboard, If all three ground detection lamps The bulbs are operating properly
burn with equal intensity when the test button is depressed,
which of the listed conditions is indicated?
213. The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit, provide unidirectional current to
will_________. . the load
214. A low-voltage protection circuit as used in the electric motor prevent the motor from restarting
starting equipment, will ____. automatically on restoration of
voltage

215. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps synchroscope is defective or
remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0. broken
This would indicate that the ____.
216. The Wheatstone bridge is a precision measuring instrument resistance
utilizing the principle of changes in______ .
217. An open primary coil in a simple transformer will be No voltage on the output of the
indicated by which of the listed conditions? secondary coil.
218. When insulation failure produces a low resistance current a short circuit
path between two conductors, the resulting condition is
known as ___.
219. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings static charge of the machine
of large machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes may give a false reading
before the test because the _______.
220. The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the normal temperature rise above
______________. . the standard ambient
temperature at rated load
221. Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de- short circuit the terminals to
energized circuit, or even one that is completely make sure that the capacitor is
disconnected, you should _____. discharged
222. If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating lose its load and tend to
in parallel, that alternator will ____. overspeed
223. An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal small generator mounted on the
from a_______ engine
224. A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested the ammeter in series and the
using the voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the meters voltmeter in parallel with the
should be connected with _________. resistance
225. If the bearings of an electrical generator are falling more check the bearing insulating
frequently than expected and the lubricating oil is sludging block on one end of the unit
then you should ____.
226. You can determine if a circuit breaker has tripped by ____ examining the position of the
handle
227. In general, polyphase induction motors can be started on across-the-line starters

full line voltage by means of ________ .
228. Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used with a printed required to desolder components
circuit board when______. on the board
229. You are reconnecting to a three-phase induction motor to check the supply line phase
the supply line. To prevent possible damage to the load, sequence, and motor rotation
due to the wrong direction of rotation, you should ____. with appropriate indicators, then
connect correspondingly marked
leads
230. Which of the following statements represents the main Contactors can handle heavier
difference between a relay and a contactor? loads than relays.
231. Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in an second bimetal element

area of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating
temperatures, an ambient compensating element must be
used. This element consists of a _____________.
232. In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field increase in speed
excitation will cause the DC propulsion motor to _________
.
233. While underway onboard a DC diesel-elecric drive ship, you notify the bridge that you will
notice excessive sparking of the brushes on the main need to slow down
propulsion motor. You should first_____.

234. To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter in checking hook the jaws of the instrument
current flow, you must first________ . around the insulated conductor
235. The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of transformer
electromagnetic induction is the________ .
236. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel hunting

engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a
synchronous generator operating in parallel; the generator
rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or behind its normal
position as it rotates. This condition is sometimes
called__________.
237. When a battery is continuously exposed to low keep the battery fully charged
temperature, the best procedure to keep it from freezing is
to _____.
238. In an AC synchronous motor electric propulsion plant, prime mover speed
propeller speed is controlled by varying the_____ .
239. Which of the following physical characteristics does a Slip rings

wound- rotor induction motor possess that a squirrel cage
motor has none?
240. Which of the motors for the devices listed below is fitted Winch
with an instantaneous overload relay?
241. While starting a main propulsion synchronous motor, the motor has started properly
ammeter pegs out at maximum and then returns to the
proper value after synchronization. This indicates
the_______.
242. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate severely the alternator was operating out
and eventually trips out on the reverse power relay. The of synchronism
cause of the vibration was a result of_________.
243. Which of the following statements represents an application To provide DC power for a main
of a silicon controlled rectifier? propulsion motor.
244. The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a speed control
wound-rotor induction motor provides for_______ .
245. When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a the capacitance of the windings
large motor, the initial dip of the pointer toward zero is
caused by ___.
246. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short low or zero voltage drop reading,
circuit, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor coils while the other coils will have
through the collector rings. A coil having a short circuit will higher readings
be indicated by a_____.
247. Electric propulsion coupling excitation is reduced at slow prevent coupling overheating
speed to ________ .
248. AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation cause high currents to be
without tripping the circuit breaker. This will ____. induced in the field windings
249. Autotransformer starters or compensators are sometimes reduce the voltage applied to the
used with polyphase induction motors to_______ . motor during the starting period
250. The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends increases magnetic pull on the
to trip may be decreased by raising the plunger further into plunger and requires less current
the magnetic circuit of the relay. This action ___. to trip the relay
251. A grounded switch or cables will be indicated by a zero
megohmmeter reading of ___.
252. Moisture as a result of condensation occurring inside of the using strip heaters inside the
cargo winch master switches, can be reduced by______ . switch box

253. When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field disconnect each shunt field coil
coil is grounded in a DC machine, you must____. before testing
254. The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on tendency for the motor to
the synchronous motor will result in a ____. overheat
255. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft electromagnet
iron core is the description of a simple______.
256. A hydrometer measures specific gravity by comparing the buoyancy of the indicator in the
____. liquid in water with the buoyancy
of the same indicator in the liquid
being measured
257. Magnet chatter or 'pumping' occurring in a magnetic chattering contacts on the
contactor can be caused by___________. control relay
258. If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops to the motor will continue to run if it
a single-phase (one supply line open)____. is not heavily loaded
259. If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding will burn out
starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to
open once the motor is in operation, the ____.
260. Which of the following statements represents the important Be certain that the replacement
factor that must be considered when replacing a faulty diode is the same polarity as the
diode in a generators excitation field rectifier assembly? one removed
261. Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to Trickle charging circuit
maintain a wet-cell, lead-acid, storage battery in a fully
charged state during long periods of disuse?
262. One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator is number of magnetic poles
the_______. .
263. The frequency output of an operating alternator is relative speed of the rotor poles
controlled by the________.
264. An open shunt field in a direct current machine may be one line terminal to each coil
located by connecting the field circuit to an external power lead in succession
source, equal to the rated field voltage or less, and tested
with a voltmeter from _____________.
265. When using an ohmmeter to test a semiconductor diode, short
you find a low resistance in both the forward and reverse
bias directions. This indicates that the diode has
a/an_____.
266. An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of short circuit
abnormal amount of current is known as a/an_______ .
267. Which of the damages listed can occur to the components Rapid corrosion of switch
of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket components.
becomes deteriorated?
268. Protection against sustained overloads occurring in thermal acting trip
molded-case circuit breakers is provided by a/an_______.
269. The shunt use in an ammeter should be connected series with the load and in
in_______. . parallel with the meter
movement
270. The method used to produce electron emission in most thermionic emission
vacuum tubes is known as __________.
271. The purpose of having low voltage protection for an electric prevent excessive current from
motor circuit is to ___. developing as it is attempting to
deliver its required horsepower

272. The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator is exciter output voltage
controlled by the____ .
273. Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure Transducer

and convert it to an electrical signal?
274. Which of the following statements is true concerning a The motor is started as an
polyphase synchronous propulsion motor? induction motor.
275. A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an thermistor

increase in temperature is known as a______ .
276. On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor will raising the generator engine
only attain half speed when the generator fields are fully speed
excited. Speeds above this are obtained by______ .
277. The air gap in an induction motor should be checked excessive bearing wear
periodically with a feeler gauge, to prevent possible ____.
278. Loss of residual magnetism in an alternator or generator using a storage battery or

can be corrected by _____? battery charger to flash the field
279. Which of the following electric motors would be the safest Watertight motors
and most reliable to use on the main deck of a vessel in
foul weather conditions?
280. A molded-case circuit breaker provides protection against electromagnet
short circuits by using a/an______ .
281. Any electric motor can be constructed to be ___ explosion proof
282. The leads from an ohmmeter are attached to the leads of open field coil
an AC motor field coil. A reading of infinity
indicates_______.
283. While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one The micro switch at the
ship's service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant generator throttle trip vibrated
suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring power, open, allowing the main breaker
the cause for this casualty was attributed to which of the to open via the under voltage
following faults? trip.
284. A motor using a rheostat in the motor circuit to vary the wound-rotor induction motor
speed is called______ .
285. Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering The foil wire may become loose
iron when soldering or desoldering components on a and separate from the circuit
printed circuit board? board.
286. An AC generator panel is fitted with two synchronizing the generators are out of phase
lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the and one lamp is burned out
synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one
synchronizing lamp is bright while the other remains dark,
this indicates that ___.
287. When replacing a defective transformer in a parallel The transformer connections
transformer configuration, which of the following actions must be made same as before
must be carried out to ensure proper operation of the with regard to the indicated
equipment it serves? polarity
288. Prior to using an analog type ohmmeter, the leads are The batteries should be replaced
purposely shorted together. Which of the following actions
should be taken if, when adjusting to zero ohms, the
indicating needle can not be returned to zero on the
scale?
289. An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular The temperature of the machine
piece of electric instrument. In addition to the resistance at the time the resistance
reading, what information listed below should be entered in reading was taken
the electrical log?

290. Which of the following conditions will occur if the solenoid The brake will be set by spring
coil burns on a cargo winch with an electrical brake? force.
291. Which of the following statements concerning analog and The variables in digital systems
digital devices are correct? are fixed quantities and the
variables in analog systems are
continuous quantities.
292. The number of cells in a 12 volt lead-acid battery six cells
is_______.
293. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should so as not to load down the circuit
use a high impedance multimeter _______. and obtain erroneous voltage
readings
294. Undervoltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard trip out the generator when there
circuit breakers to ___. is insufficient voltage being
delivered to distribution circuits
295. On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following Excessive vibration of the vessel
conditions would indicate that the propulsion motor had cut-
out from synchronization with the propulsion generator?
296. A full-wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open Half-wave rectified
condition, what will be the output characteristic of the
device?
297. A molded-case breaker provides protection against short electromagnet
circuits by using a/an_______.
298. A solid-state circuit is inoperative; the first action that check the DC supply voltage
should be taken is to_______.
299. As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be test all fuses and measure the
taken in checking faulty electric control devices is to______ line voltage
.
300. Controller contacts should be routinely cleaned by______. wiping with a clean dry cloth
301. Heat sinks are frequently used with____ . power transistors
302. In an impressed current cathodic protection system, the insulated from the hull and does
anode is_______ . not waste away.
303. In order to check the performance of a transistor removed ohmmeter or transistor tester
from its circuit, the instrument to be used should be
a/an_____.
304. Most three-phase induction motors of five (5) horsepower across-the-line starters
or less, are started by_______.
305. The charge of a lead-acid battery can be restored passing a direct electric current
by________. through the cell
306. The charging of lead-acid storage batteries will always a dangerously explosive gas
result in_________. . being liberated
307. The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled load-speed characteristics of the
alternators is determined by the______ . governors
308. The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of sulfuric acid

distilled water and ___________
309. Third color band on a resistor is used to indicate number of zeros following the
the_______. first two significant figures in the
resistance value

310. To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use megger
a/an _______. .
311. What precaution should be taken with a vessel's impressed The unit should remain off for
current cathodic protection system after a drydocking the specified amount of time so
period during which the hull has been painted? as not to disturb curing.
312. When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation kicking slightly down scale as
resistance, current leakage along the surface of the voltage is applied
insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer
______ .
313. When testing a capacitor with an analog type ohmmeter, a the meter deflects to a low
good capacitor will be indicated by________. resistance value and slowly
increases towards infinity
314. When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, a cold solder reheat connection with a
joint can be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once the soldering tool and recheck with
problem has been located, you should______. an ohmmeter
315. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the first step to check the voltage supply from
be taken before testing the circuit voltage is to_____. the power source
316. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should so as not to load down the circuit
use a high impedance multimeter ________. and obtain erroneous voltage
readings
317. When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading input impedance much greater
effect" can be minimized by using a voltmeter with than the impedance across
a/an________ which the voltage is being
measured
318. Which of the following precautions should you take when Lift the brushes from
securing propulsion generators and motors for an extended commutator collector rings and
period of time? use the built-in heater to prevent
moisture accumulation
319. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a Low voltage release circuit
reduction in voltage and restart it when the voltage is
restored to normal?
320. While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central Resistor's circuit must be de-
control console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. energized and at least one end
Which of the following precautions must be observed if an of the component isolated.
ohmmeter is to be used to check its value?
321. While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central Resistor's circuit must be de-
control console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. energized and at least one end
Which of the following precautions must be observed if an of the component isolated
ohmmeter is to be used to check its value?
322. Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering The foil wire bonded to the board
iron when soldering or desoldering components on a may come loosened from the
printed circuit board? board
323. A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both atmospheric pressure
above and below __________.
324. Which of the nondestructive testing methods listed is most Visible dye penetrant
often used to accurately detect external defects in welded
metals?
325. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection electric shock if the tool is
to prevent __________. shorted
326. The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or knurling

checked surface on round stock in a lathe is called
__________.
327. The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only after center drilled
the end of the work piece has been __________.
328. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers chuck
is usually held in a __________.

329. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first stop the lathe rotation
__________.
330. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for 60 thread cutting tools
checking the angle of______________ .
331. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of lead screw and head stock
threads per inch produced is determined by the speed spindle
relationship between the __________.
332. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an outside micrometer
inside caliper is to use a/an __________.
333. A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU may also be structural bulkhead

a/an_____________.
334. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you split or half-nut
should engage the __________.
335. A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a construction portfolio
MODU is called ______.
336. The test of metals which measures the resistanceof the charpy test
metal to impact is called____________.
337. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine threads on long slender shafts
__________.
338. A tool used for measuring or laying out angles is called protractor
a_______.
339. Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are excessive strain on the joints will
connected because __________. result if they are misaligned
340. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________. a large percentage of iron
341. Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the Plasti-gauge

clearances between the main engine bearings and the
crankshaft?
342. Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or Provides landing surface for the
doubler plate? sounding bob of a tank sounding
343. When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface scale deep enough to get under the
are being turned, the first roughing cut should be taken scale
__________.
344. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest Aluminum
operating lathe speed?
345. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without Brass
lubrication?
346. Regarding MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters non-structural

are generally
347. A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gauge is capable pressure and vacuum
of measuring __________.
348. Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop all locking devices have been
practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure released
__________.

349. An allowance may be made for expansion and contraction bends or loops in the line
in piping with the use of expansion joints or_________.
350. What type of gasket is used on high pressure steam flange metallic
joints?
351. The nut of the bowl assembly is confirmed when marks on the body and nut
tight___________. are aligned
352. 4/3 Way valve is a type of directional valve with 4 ports and 3 positions
___________ .
353. The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is the numerical designation found
indicated by______________. on the 'skin' of the hose
354. Good maintenance is decisive and best be achieved in the high degree of safety
engine room if there is________________.
355. What is used as a jointing materials for fresh and sea water Rubber
pipes?
356. A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used welding plan
in the construction of a MODU would be recorded in the
357. Most common type of hydraulic pump is _____. piston pump
358. Which of the following will speed up the recovery process chilling the recovery vessel and
when performing maintenance on a refrigeration system heating the appliance
_______?
359. A hydraulic system where all oil goes back to the tank is open loop system
termed as____________.
360. Before carrying-out maintenance to the engine, one should engage turning gear and switch
__________. off power
361. An aligning punch is used to_______________. line up corresponding holes in

adjacent parts
362. What factors shorten the life of valve springs? Fatigue and compression
363. Which of the fittings listed should be used for the Union
installation of piping to permit removal of the pump for
servicing?
364. A fixed displacement pump is a hydraulic pump in which discharge capacity is constant
the________.
365. The following are parts of the main bowl of purifier bolt
except___________.
366. Improper maintenance of fuel oil burner in an auxiliary decrease boiler efficiency
boiler could result to ________.
367. What will happen when there is an excessive wear on a There will be an excessive
centrifugal pump shaft? leakage past the packing gland
368. Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the Ensuring that the thermal bulb is
following procedures? in good contact with the suction
line.

369. As part of a safe and effective maintenance onboard, the Sea water outlet
first valve to be opened first after the complete assembly of
a newly ovehauled and clean big luboil cooler is the_____.
370. What will be the result of badly leaking refrigeration Continues running of the
compressor discharge valves? compressor
371. A dial indicator is used to measure________. shaft eccentricity
372. One of the four basic components of hydraulic system that pump
provides the flow of oil in the system is called__________.
373. In hydraulic system, all machines which are consumers of motor

hydraulic power equipped with ________.
374. Important check to be done during overhauling of the pump wear ring clearance against
is the______. impeller
375. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on Correct the cause of scoring and
the pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance install a new shaft sleeve.
inspection?
376. Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room changing the air filter
hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should
include__________.
377. The filter element of hydraulic oil in the system is disposable
___________.
378. Return port of a hydraulic directional valve is designated by T

letter __________.
379. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what The filters and strainers should
special attention should be given to the hydraulic system? be checked frequently.
380. An oil film of a lubricant is affected by the______. working temperature of the

engine
381. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes of 215 mm

reception facilities to be connected with the ships discharge
pipelines for residues from machinery bilges should
be_________.
382. Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a Prohibited to throw overboard
vessel if it is __________.
383. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with An oil content meter
Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped
with_________.
384. Which list is not required to be provided as part of the A list of personnel duty
appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency assignments.
Plan?
385. Why is it important for fuel oil tank not to be topped off The change in its specific
when loading cold oil? volume when heated may cause
an overflow
386. Why is it important for fuel oil tank not to be topped off The change in its specific
when loading cold oil? volume when heated may cause
an overflow
387. The Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include an explanation and purpose of
__________. the plan
388. Bilges may be pumped . overboard only through an

approved oily water separator
and oil content monitor

389. When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the at a vertical surface
stream of foam is most effective when directed .
390. The term 'discharge', as it applies to the pollution spilling, leaking, pumping
regulations, means __________.
391. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it must be more than 12 miles
it has to comply with the following conditions from the nearest coast
except_________.
392. Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur Class B
in the engine room bilges?
393. When bunkering is completed, the hoses should be drained, blanked off, and stored
__________. securely
394. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or Shut down the operation.
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action
should you take first?
395. To whom is the first report rendered in the oil pollution Port authorities
contingency plan of the vessel?
396. The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of maceration

sewage particles is known as __________.
397. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessels discharge to shore facility only
incinerator which has burned packages containing plastic?
398. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and Placing it in proper disposal
containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of facilities
the waste oil?
399. Small oil spills on deck is prevented from going overboard plugging the scuppers
by ______:
400. The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is foam extinguisher and low
through the use of a_____________ . velocity water fog
401. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by______. human error
402. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution cargoes carried and dates
regulations is NOT required to keep written records of delivered, including destinations
__________.
403. The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated After the metal surfaces have
to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the cooled down.
best time to vent the combustible products from the engine
room?
404. The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL International waters
73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel
that sails on which waters?
405. Which statement is true concerning gasoline spill? It is visible for a shorter time
than a fuel oil spill.
406. Is it possible to discharge overboard plastic material from a No, it is prohibited to discharge
vessel?
407. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be Any individual connected with
held responsible? the vessel involved in the
operation
408. With no environmental forces present, the center of gravity center of buoyancy
of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the .

409. On a tanker ship, sanitary inspections of the crew's Master and Chief Engineer
quarters are the responsibility of the __________.
410. Sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the Master and Chief Engineer
responsibility of the____.
411. Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not discharge discharging at an instantaneous
an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or rate of oil content not exceeding
cargo pump room bilge unless the vessel is_________ . 30 liters per nautical mile
412. Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage keep a record for two years
in to the sea you must __________.
413. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution and cannot be implemented
Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the without approval
Coast Guard __________.
414. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution and cannot be implemented
Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the without approval
administration __________.
415. Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records two years
must be kept for __________.
416. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the Oil mixed with dredge spoil
pollution prevention regulations?
417. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to plug the scuppers
__________
418. Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Reporting requirements
Emergency Plan?
419. Which is not a mandatory part of the Shipboard Oil Diagrams

Pollution Emergency Plan?
420. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an spread an absorbent material,
oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the such as sawdust
engineroom should first be informed and then __________.
421. SOPEP means _______. Shipboard Oil Pollution and
Emergency Plans
422. A ocean going ship having an inoperative oily water holding its slops onboard until
separator may dispose of its bilge slops they can be discharged to a
by_______________ . shore side reception facility
423. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the boom
water is__________.
424. Which statement is true for the 30,000 DWT tanker ship The IOPP Certificate is valid for
engaging in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 5 years
73/78?
425. Which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the A person falls overboard, and a
garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL plastic ice chest is thrown for
73/78? flotation.
426. Which statement is true concerning small oil spills? They may cause serious
pollution as the effect tends to
be cumulative
427. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what Contain the oil and remove as
should you do after reporting the discharge? much of it as possible from the
water
428. An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil pump the oil into the slop tanks
found in the pump room bilges is to_________ .

429. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution five years
Emergency Plan expires after __________.
430. Pollution regulation requires that each scupper in an mechanical means of closing
enclosed deck area have a __________.
431. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time final topping off is occurring
during bunkering is when __________.
432. What will happen if the displacement of a vessel increases? The detrimental effect of free
surface decreases
433. If the ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an Determine the cause before
unknown cause, What will be your first action? taking countermeasures
434. The ratio of volume of displacement to a block having the Block coefficient
same length, breadth and draft of the vessel is known
as_____.
435. Where can you take the value of KM at any draft? Hydrostatic Table
436. How can a clogged limber holes endanger a ship's By preventing water from
stability? draining to the bilge well
437. A vessel's stability normally increases when tanks are center of gravity is lowered
ballasted because the vessel's______.
438. In small angle stability, when external forces exist, the Metacenter
buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through
the center of buoyancy and through which point?
439. During counter flooding to correct a severe list or trim Immediately stop counter
aggravated by an off center load, a MODU suddenly takes flooding
a list or trim to the opposite side. What should you do?
440. What is a danger of a half full tank onboard tanker vessel? Loss of stability due to free
surface effect
441. What is a danger of a half full tank onboard tanker vessel? Loss of stability due to free
surface effect
442. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________. determine the lightweight center
of gravity location
443. What is the elevated perforated bottom of a chain locker Manger

which prevents the chain from touching the bottom of the
chain locker and allows water to flow to the drain?
444. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight concentrated high and the
of the cargo is __________. double bottoms are empty
445. Control of flooding should be addressed __________. following control of fire
446. What is the inward curvature of the ship's side? Tumble home
447. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of flowing in and out of a holed
liquids __________. wing tank
448. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability for small angles of inclination
__________.

449. What do you call a percentage of the total surface area or permeability
volume of a flooded compartment that is water damaged?
450. What do you call the volume of all watertight enclosed Reserved bouyancy
spaces above water line ?
451. What is the name of the strake next to the keel? Garboard
452. What will happen if the cargo is shifted from the lower hold Center of gravity will move
to the main deck? upwards
453. What represents the center of gravity? G
454. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that has poor stability
the vessel __________.
455. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel? She will have a large
metacentric height.
456. When making a turn, course change; on most merchant If G is above the center of lateral
ships, the vessel will heel outwards in what condition? resistance
457. What happens when you add weight to a vessel? Reduce reserve buoyancy
458. What will be the result of counter flooding into empty tanks, Decrease list or trim
if the cause of severe list, or trim is due to off-center
ballast?
459. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental decreases
effect of free surface __________.
460. What is the reason why fighting an oil rig fire in a watertight It causes a list due to the water
compartment with hoses reduces the stability of the rig ? in the compartment
461. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel? Its period of roll is long.
462. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE? It decreases at increased angles
of heel due to pocketing when a
tank is 90% full.
463. What is a metacentric height? It is an indication of a vessel's
stability for small angles of
inclination
464. In regards to the center of bouyancy, which of the following It is located in the same position
statement is correct? regardless of displacement
465. For a MODU with trim, what will happen to the angle of It will increase
inclination when there is a decrease in GMT?
466. What will be the result of counter flooding into empty tanks It will cause the unit to flop to a
if the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial greater angle
stability?
467. Which statement is correct regarding a negative It should always be immediately
metacentric height? corrected
468. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12 Press up an after, slack,
deg to port and trimmed 2.5 meters down by the head. It centerline double bottom tank
has a long, slow, sluggish roll. What action will you take
first?

469. What indicates the quality of initial stability? GM
470. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to what? Length and width of space
471. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance LBP

between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the
after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at
her deepest operating draft?
472. Which of the following will increase the height of the center Discharging weight from lower
of buoyancy of your vessel? decks
473. With no environmental forces present, where is the center center of buoyancy
of gravity of an inclined vessel vertically aligned with?
474. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a slack

vessel when it is __________.
475. What is the purpose of bilge keels? Reduce the amplitude of roll
476. What should you do In order to minimize the effects of a Place the heaviest woods in the
tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber? lower holds
477. What determines the true measure of a vessel's stability at righting moment
all angles of inclination?
478. What is the point to which vessel's center of gravity (G) Metacenter
may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive
stability?
479. What happens when there is a continual change in the list, Progressive flooding
or trim of any floating MODU?
480. Vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. What is Establish flooding boundaries
the first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel? and prevent further spread of
flood water
481. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which Draining fire-fighting water and
action is most important concerning the stability of the pumping it overboard
vessel?
482. Metacentric height is a measure of what? Initial stability only
483. The bilge keel is for the purpose of__________. reducing rolling
484. In a longitudinally framed vessel, what do you call an Web frames

athwartship members that hold in place and support the
longitudinal frames?
485. A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Tanks which are 40% full.
Which of the listed conditions would develop the greatest
adverse effect?
486. GM is a measure of______. The initial stability of the vessel
487. What must be accurately determined to assess the The integrity of the water tight
potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been boundaries
damaged?
488. Where should you pay particular attention to be able to The vertical distribution of the
maintain adequate stability in loading deck cargo? deck cargo

489. Freeboard is a measure of what? The amount of reserve bouyancy
490. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free The width of the tank
surface correction?
491. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck The GM will increase
into the lower hold of a vessel?
492. What do you call a tendency of a ship to resist a change in Longitudinal stability
trim?
493. What is a longitudinal stability indicates? The tendency of a ship to resist

a change in trim
494. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant G is above the center of lateral
ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________. resistance
495. Why is the vessel's stability increases when tanks are The vessel's center of gravity is
ballasted? lowered
496. What is an intact bouyancy? An intact space below the

flooded area
497. Why is GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all M is not fixed at large angles
angles of inclination?
498. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment? To determine the lightweight
center of gravity location
499. What is the purpose of bilge keel? To reduce rolling
500. What do you call the stress when compression is being Sagging
placed on the sheer strakes of the vessel?
501. The trim of a vessel is the___________. difference in fore and aft drafts
502. What is the trim of the vessel? Difference in fore and aft drafts
503. When a vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly, what does this Vessel has poor stability
indicate?
504. What is initial stability? Vessel's stability at small angles

of inclination
505. For a ship tank which carries liquid, when will it become When it is slack
dangerous to the stability of a vessel?
506. When is the vessel referred to as tender? __________. When the weight of the cargo is
concentrated high and the
double bottoms are empty
507. Which does NOT affect the value of the free surface Registered tonnage
correction?
508. A negative metacentric height __________. should always be immediately

corrected

509. What caused a vessel trimmed down by the bow? A greater draft forward than aft
510. How does foam extinguish an oil fire? By excluding the oxygen from
the fire
511. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a removing the fuel

shipboard fire by ______.
512. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would attach a low-velocity fog
__________. applicator with the nozzle shut
down
513. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed Space requiring largest amount
extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least
sufficient for what space?
514. When can you declare a fire is under control? The fire is contained and no
longer spreading
515. What is the definite advantage of using water as a fire Rapid expansion as water
extinguishing agent ? absorbs heat and changes to
steam
516. When using a mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the at a vertical surface
stream of foam is most effective when
directed_____________.
517. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their In the Muster List (Station Bill)
stations and demonstrate their ability to perform duties
assigned to them ________.
518. Where can you see your assigned duties during fire drill? In the Muster List or Station Bill
519. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward Put the vessel's stern into the
part of your vessel. What should you possibly do? wind
520. Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur Class B
in the engine room bilges?
521. A burning AC motor would be considered what class of Class C

fire?
522. What class of fire is a galley grease fire? Class B
523. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a_______. class A
524. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following Class A

classes of fire?
525. How can a fire in an oil rig ballast pump room be brought Shut all sources of air into the
under control with minimal impact on stability? compartment
526. In the event of fire, doors to a stair case must be closed to Convection
prevent the spread of fire in what way?
527. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self- Allow the wearer to manually
contained breathing apparatus? give himself oxygen
528. How is foam extinguishes fire? Smothering

529. Which among the choices oil fire can be best extinguished? Cutting off oxygen source
530. A cut-off valve in the fire main system of a MODU may be Freezing
closed to protect a portion of the system on an exposed
deck from which factor?
531. A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing system on a Name of the space or spaces
MODU must be marked with the what information? which it serves
532. Which one is class C fire? Electrical insulation
533. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire, what should Do not attack the fire from
they do or not do? opposite sides
534. The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is foam extinguisher and low
through the use of a___________. velocity water fog
535. What is the best way to combat an engine room bilge fire? Foam extinguisher and low
velocity water fog
536. Fuel vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screen to flames entering the tank vent
prevent________.
537. If a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, Hand portable, semi- portable
which of the following sequences should the fire CO2, then as a last resort the
extinguishing agents or systems be used? fixed CO2 system.
538. Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for Water
absorbing heat?
539. When is the best time to vent the combustible products After the metal surfaces have
from the engine room after CO2 fire extinguishing system cooled down.
has released?
540. Which among the choices is included in the Annual Weighing the cylinder and
servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher? recharging if weight loss
exceeds 10% of the weight of
the charge
541. Except in rare cases, which one is impossible when Removing the fuel
extinguishing a shipboard fire?
542. What do you call a chemical, as listed on a Material Safety Oxidizer

Data Sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required to start
or support fire?
543. A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard a MODU has lost It must be recharged
10% of its charge. What should be done?
544. Where is a class B fire would most likely to occur? Engine room bilge
545. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are should arrange to have a B-II
no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply extinguisher placed in the lower
with regulations, you__________. pumproom
546. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills? Once every month
547. Which is not a part of the fire triangle? Electricity
548. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of Chain reaction
the fire triangle to have a fire?

549. Fighting an oil rig fire in a watertight compartment with A list of the vessel due to the
hoses, what could reduce the stability of the rig? water accumutation in the
compartment
550. What activates fire alarm system thermostats? The difference in thermal
expansion of two dissimilar
metals
551. The supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed extinguishing the space requiring the largest
system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient amount
for __________.
552. What arrangement must valves on steam-smothering lines The master control valve shut
to cargo tanks be set? and valves to individual cargo
tanks open
553. A fire can spread by "convection" as a result of what? Hot combustion gases flowing
through ventilation systems
554. What is the function of the bypass valve on the self- In the event of a malfunction in
contained breathing apparatus? the equipment, the valve can be
operated manually to give the
wearer air.
555. Which is the best way to combat an engine room bilge fire? Through the use of foam
. extinguisher and low velocity
water fog
556. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical at the seat of the fire, starting at
extinguisher. The discharge should be directed the near edge
__________.
557. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical At the seat of the fire, starting at
extinguisher. Where should the discharge be directed? the near edge
558. What is the purpose of corrosion resistant sceen in the fuel To prevent flames entering the
vents? tank vent
559. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the Use a portable CO2 extinguisher
engine room. After securing the power, what should you
do?
560. The smoke detector (fire indicator) indicates fire in a cargo Close the ventilation system and
hold loaded by general cargo. What first action should be other openings to the hold in
taken? order to choke the fire
561. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as CO2
a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition
temperature?
562. When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, when is When directed at a vertical
the stream of foam is most effective? surface
563. Combustible gas indicator is operated by drawing an air over an electrically heated
sample into the instrument_______. platinum filament
564. Which among the choices is an example of class D fire? Magnesium
565. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft, you Use visual distress signals in
can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out conjunction with the EPIRB
a search pattern. What should you do?
566. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. 0.5 liter
How much water per day should you permit each occupant
to drink after the first 24 hours?
567. A life raft with a capacity of 8 people in ocean service is 12 liters of fresh water
required by regulation to carry what amount of water?
568. How often must inspection of proper working of the EPIRB week
s and SART s take place on board? Once per__________

569. On an ocean going vessel, a lifeboat without desalting kits 3 liters of water
is certified to carry what provision for each person?
570. Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to 24 hours
operate for how many hours?
571. Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat boathhook, painter, and whistle
includes______________ .
572. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use? They provide sufficient flotation
to do away with the necessity of
wearing a life jacket.
573. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. An air tank will provide about ten
Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in minutes of air for the survivors
flames? and the engine.
574. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward put the vessel's stern into the
part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________. wind
575. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to aid in its recovery
__________.
576. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. What is the greatest Hypothermia caused by cold
danger in high latitudes? temperature
577. Where must a lifeline be connected to the life raft . All around
578. Which among the choices are most lifeboats equipped Unbalanced rudders
with?
579. What should you do with your EPIRB if you are in a life raft Bring it inside the life raft and
during storm conditions? leave it on
580. How can an inflatable life raft be manually released from its By pushing the button on the
cradle? hydrostatic release
581. How can an inflatable life raft be launched? By throwing the entire container
overboard, then pulling on the
operating cord to inflate the raft
582. After having thrown the life raft and stowage container into By pulling on the painter line
the water, how is the life raft inflated?
583. How are lifelines attached to a life float? Securely attached around the
outside in bights no longer than
three feet
584. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you righting strap
should pull on the __________.
585. Which of following items shall be included in an abandon Checking that lifejackets are
ship drill? correctly donned.
586. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry? Category 1
587. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling on heavy Rigging a sea anchor
seas. In what way you can reduce the possibility of
capsizing?
588. The following information must be given on the SART the MMSI number

589. How often must inspection of proper working of the EPIRB Weekly
s and SART s take place on board?
590. If you reach shore in a liferaft, what is the first thing to do? Drag the raft ashore and lash it
down for a shelter
591. Where is the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker located? Forwardmost on the port side
592. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids in and out of a vessel that is
flowing __________. holed in a wing tank
593. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, Tie the rafts together and try to
what should you do? stay in a single group
594. In lifeboat situations, which of the following visual distress Orange smoke signal
signals is acceptable for daylight use only?
595. If you have to abandon ship and enter a life raft, What Remain in the vicinity of the
should be your main course of action? vessel
596. If for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far Remain together in the area
out at sea, what is the important thing that crew members because rescuers will start
should do? searching at the vessel's last
known position
597. If a life raft should capsize___________ . right the raft using the righting
straps
598. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon on a In such a way that it will float
cargo vessel must be stowed in what manner? free if the vessel sinks
599. What is the correct maintenance for the battery of an Load must be checked weekly
EPIRB?
600. Which statement best describe a hydrostatic release It must be submerged to a

mechanism for a life raft? certain depth to release
automatically
601. Which statement is correct about the liferaft that has It should be righted by standing
inflated bottom-up on the water? on the carbon dioxide cylinder,
holding the righting straps, and
leaning backwards
602. You have abandoned ship in a life raft. Which of the Organize a watch system, post
following actions should you take? as a lookout, tie up with other
survival craft if possible, and
stream the sea anchor
603. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor stay in the general location
from a liferaft to __________.
604. Which of the following is considered primary life-saving Lifeboat

equipment?
605. What do you call a rigid lifesaving device designed for a Buoyant apparatus
group of survivors to hold on to while in the water?
606. Where should lifejackets be stowed in? Readily accessible spaces
607. What must all personnel be familiar with in regards to Boarding and operating
lifeboats? procedures

608. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy? Freeboard
609. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival Muster and embarkation stations
craft muster and embarkation arrangements corresponds to shall be readily accessible from
the present SOLAS regulations? accommodation and work areas.
610. Which among the choices is a safety feature provided on all The use of water stabilizing
inflatable life rafts? pockets
611. Generally, which of the following gases is used to inflate life CO2
rafts?
612. Generally, what is used to inflate life rafts? Non-toxic inert gas
613. If your life raft is to leeward of a fire on the water, what Cut the line to the sea anchor
should you do first?
614. Which among the choices is part of the required equipment Painter
for a lifeboat?
615. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the Do not be alarmed unless it
raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming continues for a long period of
from a safety valve. What should you do? time
616. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members Closing of watertight doors, fire
of the crew. Which of the following duties shall be included doors, valves, scuppers, side
in the "muster list" according to present regulations? scuttles, skylights.
617. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, What Pull on the righting strap
should you do?
618. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable pull the hook release handle and
above the water, you must pull the safety pin and use the ratchet bar
__________.
619. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, what should you Stand on the CO2 bottle, hold
do to right it? the bottom straps, and throw
your weight backward
620. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has not panic since the safety valves
inflated. You should __________. allow excess pressure to escape
621. How can you check the function of the SART? Activate the SART and check
the effect on the radar screen
622. How enclosed lifeboats could maintain its upright position Passengers are strapped to their
after capsizing? seats
623. Where are fire and lifeboat stations required to be listed? Muster list
624. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water should be righted by standing on
__________. the carbon dioxide cylinder,
holding the righting straps, and
leaning backwards
625. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy Slack the tripping line and tow
surf, how can sternway be checked? the sea anchor by the holding
line
626. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a so that it will float free if the
cargo vessel must be stowed __________. vessel sinks
627. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position tested monthly
Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.

628. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot and tropical Deflate the floor panels to cool
weather, what should you possibly do? personnel
629. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to accidental unhooking when the
prevent __________. falls become slack
630. What is the center of flotation of a vessel? __________. The point in the waterplane
which the vessel lists and trims
631. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor? To aid in its recovery
632. What is the meaning of an orange colored smoke signal or We see you, we will provide help
detonating luminous signals fired at interval of one minute? as soon as possible
633. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea To stay in the general location
anchor from a liferaft?
634. What is the purpose of preventer bars fitted on lifeboat To prevent accidental unhooking
releasing gear? when the falls become slack
635. What is the purpose of storm oil? To smooth the sea
636. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a One
compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many
tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
637. What is the difference of steering oar in a lifeboat as Longer than the others and
compare to others? should be lashed to the stern
638. What is the frequency of testing for vessel's EPIRB? Monthly
639. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, When the limit switch is touched
davit arms begin moving up the tracks. Until when the
movement is stopped by itself?
640. During an evacuation from a MODU, an individual without When there is burning oil on the
the option of a survival craft or life raft should enter the water
water on the leeward side, except in what condition?
641. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the about which the vessel lists and
waterplane __________. trims
642. How are first, second, and third degree burns classified? According to layers of skin
affected
643. You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a resuscitation 5 compressions after every 1
situation. What is the rhythm of resuscitation with two First inflation
Aiders?
644. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders Airway Breathing Circulation
know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands for?
645. When should training in personal survival techniques be Before being employed
given?
646. What should you avoid when administering first aid? Unnecessary haste and
appearance of uncertainty
647. What is the first aid treatment for small cuts and open Stop the bleeding, clean,
wounds? medicate, and cover the wound

648. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of Place the injured part under
the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor burns slowly running cold water for at
and scalds? least 10 minutes, but preferably
until the pain is gone. If no water
is available, use any cold,
harmless liquid.
649. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is flood the affected area with
to immediately __________. water
650. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting There is an outlet for the smoke
situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters and heat
in a passageway. This technique should only be used when
________.
651. What do you call a device used to immobilize fractures and Splint
help prevent bone displacement?
652. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, what should Check the bilge drain plug
you do first?
653. What is the primary purpose for applying a splint when Immobilize the fracture
administering first aid?
654. A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of his right Rub the toes briskly
foot. Which of the following is not an acceptable first aid
measure?
655. What is the frequency of service for inflatable life raft , Every 12 months
inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units?
656. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia Hand or body heat the affected
may be either superficial or deep, and the affected tissues parts skin-to-skin, example
may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should be given a frozen hand in persons opposite
person with frostbite ? armpit
657. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite and Hand or body heat the affected
hypothermia may be either superficial or deep, and the parts skin-to-skin, example
affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid frozen hand in persons opposite
should be given a person with frostbite ? armpit
658. What is the most important element in administering CPR? Start the treatment quickly
659. Which of the following procedures is always recommended Have the rescuers wear an
in the rescue of an unconscious person from a approved self-contained
compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere? breathing apparatus.
660. Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the nose? Sitting on a chair, leaning
forward, with two fingers
pressing the nose together
661. First aid to poisoning bitten by spider. I. clean wound by I ,II & III
alcohol I I. lie down victim keep quiet
662. What is the primary purpose for applying a splint in first It immobilizes fractured bone
aid?
663. While underway, fire break out in the forward part of the Put the vessel's stern into the
vessel. Whenever practicable, what will be the first thing wind
you will do if your are on watch?
664. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is stop the bleeding, clean,
to___________ . medicate, and cover the wound
665. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. Check his pulse and start CPR
What you must do?
666. Which one of the listed routine test and inspections of life- General emergency alarm to be
saving appliances is not required by the regulations? tested daily

667. What is first aid? Emergency treatment at the
scene of the injury
668. What should a lifejacket be provided with? A whistle and a light
669. In reviving a person who has been overcomed by gas Giving stimulants
fumes, which of the following would you avoid doing?
670. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening Avoid subjecting the victim to
situation, what must a person giving first aid do? any unnecessary disturbance
during movement
671. A person slowly feel more sleepy and thirsty. The skin Insulin
become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath.
The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind of medicine
will the person need as soon as possible?
672. If a person suffering from possible broken bones and The person should not be
internal injuries is correctly being administered first aid, moved, unless remaining on the
what statement is true? scene is unsafe but made
comfortable until medical
assistance arrives.
673. The primary objective of First Aid is: To prevent further injury
674. What is the primary objective of First Aid? To prevent further injury
675. Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric To check for breathing and
shock, what is the first medical response? heartbeat
676. What is the most effective first aid treatment for chemical To immediately flood the
burns? affected area with water
677. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is Apply butterfly strips, then a
not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an sterile dressing.
alternative to suturing to close the wound?
678. In the event of fire in the crew's quarter, one of your first act Close all ventillation to the
is to_________. quarters
679. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting The water can be applied in a
equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray fine spray starting from the front
nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this fire in a sweeping motion.
using water?
680. When giving first aid, aside from understanding on how to The limits of your capabilities
conduct primary and secondary surveys what are the other
aspect you should consider?
681. What should you include in the first aid treatment for battery Flushing with large amounts of
acid or alkali burns, especially in the eyes? fresh water and seeking medical
attention ashore or by radio
682. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY when all other means have failed
__________.
683. When can a tourniquet be used to control bleeding? When all other means have
failed
684. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a 2

cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?
685. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a 1

cargo vessel of 900 GT?

686. What is the minimum number of immersion suits that are 3
required to be provided for each open lifeboat under
SOLAS rules?
687. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a 36 months
foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less
than __________.
688. What law governs the basic principle of vessel nationality? 1986 UN Convention of the high
Seas
689. Under SOLAS passenger ships and ships other than 3,000 GRT
passenger ships of ______ and upwards constructed on or
after 2002 must carry Voyage Data Recorders (VDR) to
assist in accident investigation.
690. Lifeboats for ocean-going vessels shall carry in excess of 50% of persons on board
the required regulation by________.
691. As per SOLAS Regulation, the minimum Fuel supply for 4 hours
fast Rescue Boat shall last for______.
692. What type of construction material should be avoided All combustible materials
regarding fire protection purposes? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.3)
693. The responsibility for safety and security rests on Keep your working area clean
everybody on board the vessel. General house-keeping and tidy.
rules should be followed. Which of the listed rules is the
most important?
694. Keeping the draft at or below the load line mark will ensure reserve buoyancy
that the vessel has adequate______.
695. Part C, Chapter VI of SOLAS deals with___________. carriage of grain
696. When you join a new ship, how are you informed about By muster lists exhibited in
safety rules, alarm instructions and your own duties in case conspicuous places
of an emergency?
697. The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting Government Chapter XI-2
with Part A & B. The mandatory requirements & guidance is
under the provisions of _______ of the SOLAS as
amended.
698. Any completed pages of the Oil Record Book must counter Master
sign by the_________.
699. Three methods of fire protection regarding internal Construction of all internal
divisional bulkheading may be adopted in accommodation bulkheads of class A divisions
and service spaces in cargo ships. Which of the given
methods do not correspond to present rules? (SOLAS II-
2/42.5)
700. Who is given the authority to carry out assessment for a Recognize Security Organization
certification as required by Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS as
amended of the ISPS Code?
701. Sludge are to be disposed off at sea disposal prohibited
702. What is defined as the inspection of the vessel authorized Port State Control
by the Philippine Coast Guard to verify the compliance to
the National Regulations and International Standards?
703. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry Oil Record Book
must be made in the __________.
704. Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a Master or Offshore Installation
vessel is the job of whose officer? Manager

705. What form of oil discharge in large quantities that affects slicks
birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these do not
disperse into the water?
706. Who is the authorize to cancel load line certificate of Ship administration
vessel?
707. A class fire divisions are those divisions formed by Insulated on both sides with
bulkheads and decks. Which of the following requirements approved non-combustible
do not comply with the rules? SOLAS II-2/3.3 material
708. According to SOLAS requirement for lifeboat fall, what Renewed
action must be taken with the fall at interval of not more
than 5 years?
709. What is contained in Annex II of MARPOL 73/78? Regulations for the Control of
Pollution by Noxious Liquid
Substances
710. At what security level is further specific protective securitySecurity level 3
measures to be maintained for a limited period of time
when a security incident is probable or imminent, although
it may not be possible to identify the specific target?
711. Under the New Regulations, what does SOLAS Chapter XI- Special measures to enhance
1 deals with? Maritime Safety
712. Annex V of MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements Garbage

pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment
of____________.
713. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at SOLAS
sea?
714. One of the many objectives of this code is to ensure the ISPS Code
early and efficient collection and exchange of security-
related information. What is this code?
715. The SOLAS 74 Chapter IX requires a mandatory ISM Code
compliance for Tankers, Bulk Carriers and Passenger
vessels until July 1998. What is this law?
716. Sanitary, ballast, bilge or general service pumps may be They are not normally used for
accepted as fire pumps provided: (SOLAS II-2/4.3.2) pumping oil
717. What is the primary purpose of a load line? To establish required GM
718. The ISM Code requires ship owners or shipping companies Safety Committee
to assign onboard their ship a ______ .
719. MARINA was created and geared towards the following To create sub-agencies for the
objectives except__________. safe transport of goods and
passengers
720. When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means 12
of communication between the pilothouse and the engine
room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of
the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours
prior to departure?
721. For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and once a month
practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched
with their assigned crew __________.
722. The most frequently used appraisal approach is ______. a superiors rating of subordinate
723. On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, the entire steering gear be
regulations require that __________. tested within 12 hours prior to
departure

724. To whom must proper familiarization of duties be given? New personnel
725. Which of the following implies that we determine the extent Measurement
of some characteristics associated with something such as
a person or an object?
726. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it must be more than 12 miles
it has to comply with the following conditions from the nearest coast
except______.
727. On board a vessel, he is an officer who gives By example
responsibilities to his followers gradually so that in the
future,they can stand on their own. Which leadership styles
is he practicing?
728. Basically onboard training programs must be while the ship is at sea on a
conducted___________. particular voyage
729. There are three learning scope for instructional objectives. Enabling Objectives
Which objective is NOT part of these learning scope?
730. In order to have an effective security plan or measures to Ships crew

take in the event of pirate attacks, which of the following
persons or groups should be informed?
731. A role behavior of a leader which refers to a persons technical skill
knowledge of proficiency in any type of process of
technique is called__________.
732. Once a problem has been defined by the management, the identify the decision objectives
next move is to__________.
733. What do you call a systematic application of management Environmental Risk

system policies, procedures and practices to the task of Management
analyzing, evaluating and controlling environmental risk?
734. In order to maintain safe working conditions on board the be attentive to all what is
vessel, every crewmember should do the following, happening in the surroundings
except___________.
735. Personnel who have not been assigned to be part of the Support squad
emergency squad, or allotted other duties and are not on
watch at the time of the emergency will be assigned to
the__________ .
736. There are three conflict methods most frequently used in compromise
managing conflicts; supervision, integrative problem solving
and_________.
737. What is the type of human factor that contribute to Organizational factors
operators committing error because of their work
environment?
738. This process which involves gaining a detailed risk assessment
understanding of a task being carried out, identifying if
there are risk factors/hazards present and eliminate risk
factors/hazards is called________.
739. Behavior of a leader that deals with long range plan, broad conceptual
relationship and ideas is called________.
740. The term used to describe accident casualty when cause is human factor
attributed to the behavior of an individual or organization
______.
741. What term is used to describe accident casualty when Human error
cause is attributed to the mistakes of an individual or
organization?
742. What are the keys to good human relations? Treat people as individual

743. Cadets are not included in the manning nor regard them as emergency situations of limited
forming part of the manning except ___________. duration
744. Ergonomics focus is on the design of work activity that suits limitation
the person in that it takes account of their capabilities and
______.
745. What is a factor that contribute to the occurrence of group factor
mistakes due to relationships among individuals.
746. Which of the following steps is not a part of the rational Identify the symptoms of the
problem solving process? problem
747. All of the following are TRUE about decision making it is needed in stable
except________. environments
748. What is the disadvantage of a matrix organization? Members require some expertise
in interpersonal relations
749. In bridge resource management, which of the following I, II, III, IV, V
statements are example of "hazardous thoughts" I.) I can
do it II.) It won't happen to me III.) Why takes chances IV.)
it's not my job V.) Don't tell me what to do VI.) We're all in
the same ship
750. Type of human error when an operator is distracted or skill-based
preoccupied with another task and allows a mistake to
occur is termed as __________.
751. The frustration of a seafarer wherein practices like disunity
regionalism, lack of concern for others and unreconciled
differences is called_________.
752. What do you call the Master's special skill in order to deliver Managerial skills
the best possible operation of his vessel within the budget
constraints?
753. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be Any individual connected with
held responsible? the vessel involved in the
operation
754. Which of the following is NOT a key to human relation? Be strict and always expect good
result.
755. What is a management system designed with the intent of Quality System
ensuring fulfillment of customers requirement?
756. The question of human relations considers ___________. managers interacting with
employees
757. The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining Chief Engineer, or engineer in
the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is charge if no chief engineer is
the __________. required
758. The appointment of a person to a higher rank gives potential authority only
__________.
759. What do you call a situation which could have lead to an Hazardous Occurrences
accident if they had developed further?
760. The method of finding out and recording the levels of the assessment
risk, with the aim of minimizing accidents, damage and ill
health on board ship is called __________.
761. This is the most effective management development Coaching
technique.
762. When a ship is expected to encounter rough seas, it is a check for items which may
good safety practice to __________. become adrift and secure loose
gear
763. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to make a visual inspection of all
__________. engine spaces and secure loose
gear
764. The routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic ship MARINA
operators are prescribed by which government agency?
765. Welding and burning are among the factors which give the The welder shall have been
highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has to be instructed in the use of the ship's
taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety rules welding plant.
may be regarded as the most important?
766. Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent Unsafe condition
accidents?
767. Providing a new crew with the information needed in order familiarization
to function comfortably in the ship is called ________.
768. When crew is given responsibility for dealing with a self-esteem

problem, he has increased in ________ ?
769. A kind of teaching- learning principle where the trainee graduated sequence
must proceed step by step and each step must be in some
way more difficult than the previous step is
called_________.
770. What do you call a person/s ashore having a direct access Designated person
to the highest level of management?
771. A kind of motivation where some people may enter the shallow motivation
world of seafaring to make a lot of money, to have fun and
adventures and to escape problems at home___________.
772. It is a value underlying the behavior as a Filipino where it gratitude
stimulates generosity and working together, but it is often
abused is called _________.
773. What is the study of human capabilities in relationship to Ergonomics
work?
774. Human performance breakdowns resulting to accident are poor conscious choice or
more likely a result of__________. decisions
775. Human memory is affected by all of the following irrationality of an event

except_____.
776. What is the first step in planning? Select goals for the ships
organization
777. The ability to get things done right is__________. efficiency
778. This is a type of human error when an operator applied a rule base
direct rule and allows a mistake occur due to lack of
familiarity with the problem.
779. Ethics concerns all of the following except _________. Charity
780. Which of the following would fit MOST on motivation? Factor that cause, channel and
sustain people's behavior
781. As an officer of an engineeting watch. What would the best Take action to start the process
thing to do, if the Chief Engineer does not or cannot take to solve the situation, but do it
the leadership? diplomatically.
782. What is the most effective example management Coaching
development technique?

783. The ability to use and exert power over followers, leader influence
role models actions and behaviours he/she wants followers
to emulate is called___________.
784. What is the hierarchical structure of efficient and effective Bureaucracy
organizations?
785. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what Contain the oil and remove as
should you do after reporting the discharge? much of it as possible from the
water.
786. Management of career is ultimately the responsibility of individual
the__________.
787. A responsible officer should be appointed to maintain recorded

appropriate records and to ensure that ballast water
management and/or treatment procedures are followed
and________.
788. Efficiency is the ability to_________. get things done right
789. When a Chief Engineer takes the leadership in approaching Yes, take full control. Do not
a problem, Will his first action be a decision that directly delegate to other officers, to
solve the problem? avoid mistake.
790. The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel 4
transfer basket is __________.
791. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, Bow into the wind and decrease
you should put the __________. speed
792. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures 5 cm
such as Fire Station No. 1, 2, 3 and others. The height of
the letters and figures must be at least __________.
793. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is Avoiding possible injury to the
__________. spinal cord by incorrect handling
794. How do you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion? Give him sips of cool water
795. When administering first aid, what should you avoid? Unnecessary haste and
appearance of uncertainty
796. When instructing a crew member concerning the right way bend his knees and lift with his
to lift a weight, you would instruct him to __________. legs
797. For the safety of personnel working with fire hoses, fire pressure gage and relief valve
pumps are fitted with ____________. on the discharge side
798. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing By smothering and also
agent when dealing with oil fires? providing some cooling
799. Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in Extinguishing attempt is started
case of a fire? immediately
800. Which of the following is NOT TRUE why there may not be Enclosed space has no proper
enough oxygen in an enclosed space or tank? circulation of air.
801. When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be drained, blanked off, and stored
__________. securely
802. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or Shut down the operation.
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action
should you take first ?

803. If you have a fire in the engine room, your first act should secure the fuel supply and
be to __________. ventilation to the engine room.
804. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard plugging the scuppers
by ______:
805. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical CO2
fires?
806. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in Oil Record Book
the __________.
807. Injuries resulting from slips and falls constitute the largest Keep the floors and decks free
percentage of accidents that occur in the catering from fat and grease.
department. What shall be done to reduce this high
accident rate?
808. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should Secure the ventilation
be the FIRST firefighting response?
809. The spread of fire is prevented by __________. removing combustibles from the
endangered area
810. Control of fire should be addressed __________. immediately
811. After an engine is started you should __________. check operating pressures and
temperatures, and check for
leaks
812. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the remove the locking pin
operator must FIRST __________.
813. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is conducts electricity

that foam_____.
814. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill? It is visible for a shorter time
than a fuel oil spill.
815. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with completely closing the
carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by__________. compartment
816. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship separate and accessible location
must be stowed in __________.
817. Before CPR is started, you should ____________. establish an open airway
818. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position? Arms above their head
819. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers one B-II
required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit is
__________.
820. A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to over pressurization of the CO2
prevent_________ . discharge piping
821. What do oil discharge in large quantities form which affect slicks
birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these do not
disperse into the water as water droplets before reaching
shore?
822. What is a contingency plan for ships? Plan for safety preparedness

823. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to plug the scuppers
__________
824. A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet sensitizer
(MSDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people
after repeated exposure is _____________.
825. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient ? Avoiding possible injury to the
spinal cord by incorrect handling
826. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an spread an absorbent material,
oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the such as sawdust
engineroom should first be informed and then __________.
827. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room evacuate all engine room
fire, you must __________. personnel
828. Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found in muster List
the __________.
829. Fire hose couplings __________. are made of bronze, brass, or

soft alloy metals
830. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should close all openings to the area
__________.
831. Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with Central gas extinguishing
least side effects in case of a large fire in the engine room? system and/or water fog.
832. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST Breathing and heartbeat
medical response is to check for __________.
833. A safety ring pin is usually inserted in the handle of a CO2 accidental discharge from the
fire extinguisher to prevent________ . extinguisher
834. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with an identification number
__________.
835. A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data water-reactive

Sheet that reacts with water or moist air, and produces a
health or physical hazard, is called _______ .
836. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the use a portable CO2 extinguisher
engine room. You should secure the power, then
__________.
837. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should not attack the fire from opposite
__________. sides
838. A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet MSDS, flammable liquid
having a flash point below 37.78C is called ________ .
839. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or Shutdown the transfer
pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU operations.
(Mobile Offshore Drilling Unit), which of the listed actions
should be taken first?
840. What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger Two paddles, a light, painter,
vessel regulations) lifeline and pendants
841. What is the most important consideration when determining Danger of shock to personnel
how to fight an electrical fire?
842. A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all any of the above conditions
tanks and pump rooms are potentially dangerous. You occur
should immediately leave an area whenever________.

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ENGINE OPERATIONAL (APR012015)

5. What is the minimum number of hours of rest in a 24 hour 10 hours

7. Cylinder oil is used for _________. 2-stroke engine

1 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

38. An indication of excessive soot accumulation on boiler high stack temperature

2 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

64. When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, record of bell book

69. The Mariner's Handbook ______ general information gives

76. The damage to winches is due to ______. rough handling

3 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

79. Please get everything ready prior ______ shifting to

80. As soon as the ship is berthedyou should lower the underneath

81. Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-to- speak English

85. Never make commentestimate or guess in your Offical the facts

88. An accident came ______ my mind when I saw the broken to

91. The legal type VHF-antenna has a length of__________. 1 meter

92. The typical daylight-frequencies for long distance 8 or 12 MHz-band

95. Acoustic feedback can arise__________ because the volume adjustment

96. Before a mariphone is installed on board, __________ a license must be issued

4 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

98. Long distance communication in the HF-bands depends satellites

99. A polarisation of a radio wave is determined by position of the aerial

100. Squelch mode serves to suppress__________ noise in speech-breaks in an

101. What is meant by frequency? time lapse of vibrations.

102. Automatic amplifier regulation is used to__________ reduce distortion of weak

103. The sound-level of the speaker on a MF/HF radiotelephony AF-Gain

106. Cylinder oil is used for _________. 2-stroke engine

109. The dehydrator of a refrigeration system is before expansion valve

110. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash seawater

5 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

119. In the refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the evaporator

123. The storage tank for liquid refrigerant in a refrigeration receiver

125. What component of the freshwater evaporator on board Evaporator

127. Component of an engine used to increase scavenging air is turbocharger

128. In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat expansion valve

130. Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by compressor

134. The separation chamber of the purifier is called ________. bowl

135. If an air compressor intercooler pressure rises above dirty intercooler

6 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

139. It is a form of energy which crosses the boundary of a Heat

150. It refers to an internal combustion engine practice, where Pre-heating

155. Type of pump which is dependent of the head centrifugal pump

7 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

170. Tubing is sized by_________. nominal outside diameter

172. An emergency bilge suction is required machinery space bilges

8 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

183. Which of the following centrifugal pump components Volute

191. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually wear rings

196. Which of the listed pumps is not a positive displacement Centrifugal

9 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

205. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with the 23.2 KW

10 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

227. In general, polyphase induction motors can be started on across-the-line starters

231. Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in an second bimetal element

11 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

236. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel hunting

239. Which of the following physical characteristics does a Slip rings

12 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

13 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL

273. Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure Transducer

275. A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an thermistor

278. Loss of residual magnetism in an alternator or generator using a storage battery or