Radiology A

1. Which imaging modality is first line for the 8. Which of the following is NOT true of spiral
evaluation of most orthopedic injuries and fractures?
arthritis? a. Result from rotational forces
a. X-ray b. Usually seen in adolescents
b. CT non contrast c. Maintain high suspicion of child abuse
c. CT with contrast when present in children <2.
d. MRI d. The fibula is a common location for this
fracture type
2. MRIs are best for evaluation of the following
disease states EXCEPT 9. T or F. Displacements are named according to
a. Meniscal tears the position of the distal bone fragment
b. Fracture fragment evaluation
c. Tumor evaluation 10. The femoral neck is a common site for this type
d. Occult fracture evaluation of fracture.
e. Rotator cuff pathologies a. Comminuted
b. Greenstick
3. Which of the following imaging modalities is c. Impacted
ideal for the diagnosis of stress fractures? d. Overriding
a. X-ray
b. CT non-contrast 11. T or F. Stress fractures on X-ray are
c. Bone scan radiolucent.
d. CT with contrast
12. This is a common site for stress fractures in all
4. This diagnostic test involves IV injection of a age groups
radioactive tracer that accumulates in bone a. Fibula
that is undergoing rapid turnover b. Tibia
a. PET scan c. Femoral neck
b. MRI with gadolinium contrast d. Calcaneus
c. Scintography
d. CT with contrast 13. Fractures due to osteoporosis are referred to as
a. Atraumatic fractures
5. Which of the following is NOT an indication for b. Comminuted fractures
Scintography? c. Geriatric fractures
a. Osteomyelitis d. Pathologic fractures
b. Osteopenia
c. Stress fracture 14. Which of the following is formed of mostly
d. Skeletal metastasis cartilage and is the weakest part of a growing
bone?
6. This type of fracture is at high risk of a. Diaphysis
osteomyelitis b. Physis
a. Simple close fracture c. Epiphysis
b. Comminuted fracture d. Metaphysis
c. Oblique fracture
d. Compound fractures

7. T or F. Subtle fractures are typically visible on

initial radiographs
15. A fracture through the physis and epiphysis is 21. This type of fracture involves a buckling of the
what stage Salter Harris fracture? cortex and has no obvious fracture line
a. I a. Torus fracture
b. II b. Greenstick fracture
c. III c. Stress fractures
d. IV d. Callus fractures
e. V
22. Which of the following is NOT a factor that
16. A fracture through the physis and metaphysis is contribute to the rate of fracture healing?
what sage Salter Harris fracture? a. Age
a. I b. Fracture type
b. II c. Gender
c. III d. Adequacy of immobilization
d. IV e. Nutritional status
e. V
23. Which of the following is NOT a cause of
17.A fracture through the physis with compression fracture nonunion?
is what stage Salter Harris fracture? a. Infection
a. I b. Age
b. II c. Inadequate immobilization
c. III d. Inadequate blood supply
d. IV e. Inadequate nutrition
e. V
24. T or F. Pain in the anatomic snuffbox is
18. A fracture thought the physis only is what stage associated with FOOSH injuries and is highly
Salter Harris fracture? suspicious for scaphoid fracture.
f. I
g. II 25. Which of the following Is NOT true of scaphoid
h. III fractures?
i. IV a. Pain in the anatomic snuffbox should
j. V raise suspicion
b. Avascular necrosis is a serious
19. A fracture through the physis, metaphysis and complication
epiphysis is what stage Salter Harris fracture? c. Often due to FOOSH injuries
a. I d. It is a fast healing injury
b. II
c. III 26. Which of the following NOT associated with
d. IV colles fractures?
e. V a. Often due to FOOSH injury
b. MC ages 15-40
20. T or F. Stage V Salter Harris fractures are the c. Sometimes accompanied by ulnar
most severe because they result in ceased bone styloid fx
growth and can cause angular deformations. d. Extension fracture of the distal ulna
27. A fracture of the distal radius with palmar
angulation of the distal fragment is referred to
as
a. Smith fracture
b. Radial head fracture
c. Collles fracture
d. None of the above

28. T or F. A fall on the back of a flexed hand often

results in a radial head fracture.

29. T or F. Radial head fractures are the most

common elbow fracture in adults

30. What mechanism of injury is most associated

with a posterior fat pad sign?
a. Fall on an outstretched arm or direct
blow to the elbow
b. Fall on an outstretched hand
c. Fall on the back of a flexed hand
d. Punching a solid object
e. None of the above

31. T or F. Hip dislocations are more common than

shoulder dislocations

32. T or F. Anterior shoulder dislocations are more

common than posterior shoulder dislocations

33. T or F. The humeral head appears superior to

the glenoid cavity on x-ray in an anterior
shoulder dislocation
Answers
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. F (some may not be visible for 7-10 days after
injury)
8. B (MC in children)
9. T
10. C
11. F (stress fractures unlike regular fractures are
radiopaque)
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. E
18. A
19. D
20. T
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. T
25. D
26. D (distal radius with dorsal angulation)
27. A
28. F (smith fracture)
29. T
30. A
31. F
32. T
33. F (posterior)
Radiology B
1. T or F. OA is the most common joint disease 10. Which of the following is the preferred imaging
and the most common cause of disability after modality for diagnosis of osteomyelitis?
age 65. a. MRI
b. Scintography
2. T or F. Almost all patients over age 65 will have c. CT without contrast
radiographic signs and clinical signs of OA. d. X-ray
e. C and D
3. All of the following are radiographic signs of OA f. A and B
EXCEPT
a. Osteophyte formation 11. Which of the following is the imaging modality
b. Lucent degenerative cysts of choice for initial screening of C-spine trauma
c. Radiopaque sclerotic bone changes a. X-ray
d. Symmetric joint space narrowing b. CT scan
c. MRI
4. T or F. The joints most commonly affected by d. None of the above
OA are the spine, knees, hips, DIPs and 1st MCP
12. Which of the following is the image modality of
5. T or F. Lateral joint space narrowing of the choice for most disease of the spine?
knee is typical for OA. a. X-ray
b. Scintography
6. Rheumatoid arthritis commonly affects which c. MRI
joints? d. X-ray
a. MCP, PIP, DIP, and wrists 13. T or F. In the setting of trauma, it is important
b. MCP PIP and wrists to follow national standard protocol of C-spine
c. PIP, MCP and DIP imaging.
d. MCP, wrists and DIP
14. Which of the following is NOT true about C-
7. Which of the following is NOT associated with spine imaging?
RA? a. There is no standard protocol for C
a. Erosions spine trauma imaging
b. MCP subluxation b. 50% of C spine trauma is secondary to
c. Osteophytes MVA
d. Osteopenia c. lateral view should reveal 3 smooth
e. Symmetric joint space narrowing kyphotic curves
d. >50% of C-spine fractures can be missed
8. T or F. Sharply marinated bone lesions on x-ray on conventional x-ray
are usually malignant
15. What are the most common sites for C-spine
9. T or F. Primary bone tumors are more common fractures (sleet all that apply)?
than metastatic lesions a. C1-C2
b. C2-C3
c. C3-C4
d. C4-C5
e. C5-C6
f. C6-C7
16. Which of the following C-spine fractures is NOT
often due to flexion injury?
a. Teardrop fracture
b. Hangman fracture
c. Odontoid process fracture
d. Stress fractures
17. Which of the following correctly defines a
teardrop fracture of the C spine?
a. More common in the elderly
b. Flexion or extension injury
c. Fracture of the posterior elements of C2
due to extension
d. Avulsion fracture due to flexion
18. Which of the following most correctly defines a
hangman fracture?
a. More common in the elderly
b. Flexion or extension injury
c. Fracture of the posterior elements of C2
due to extension
d. Avulsion fracture due to flexion
19. Which of the following is NOT an indication for
early imaging (<4wk) for c/o back pain?
a. Minor trauma in all patients
b. Recent bacterial infection, fever, or
immune suppression
c. History of CA or weight loss
d. Progressive neurological deficit
20. T or F. The number one thing we can do to
decrease costs in primary care is withhold
imaging for 4-6 weeks in patients who c/o back
pain without red flag SSx
21. T or F. 905 of acute back pain requires
diagnostic imaging and intervention for specific
disease
22. Which of the following is NOT true of
compression fractures?
a. Can occur with minimal stress in
patients with osteoporosis
b. Are most common in the c-spine
c. Are a major cause of morbidity and
mortality in the geriatric population
d. None of the above
23. A waters view radiograph is most useful to
visualize which of the following structures
a. C spine
b. Articulation of C1 and C2
c. Maxillary sinuses
d. Splenoid sinuses
24. T or F. Normal maxillary sinuses should appear
isodense on CT
25. Which of the following is NOT true of multiple
myeloma?
a. Screening for multiple myeloma is the
main application for plain film
radiographs of the head
b. Described as punched out osteolytic
lesions on imaging
c. It is the most common bone malignancy
overall
d. None of the above
26. Why is it more important to perform a CT than
an X-ray in a patient who presents with acute
head trauma?
a. Because CT provides a lower radiation
exposure to the brain
b. Because CT is better for evaluation of
skull fracture
c. Because brain injury cannot be
visualized on X-ray
d. CT can be performed but MRI is
preferred
27. T or F. Imaging of the sinus cavities is only
indicated for complicated cases of sinusitis
28. CT is the head imaging modality of choice for
all of the following presentations EXCEPT
a. Spinal cord abnormalities
b. acute hemorrhage
c. acute head/neck trauma
d. facial and skull fractures
e. sinus evaluation
29. T or F. MRI is the imaging modality of choice
for head and neck tumors.
Answers
1. T
2. F (most will have radiographic signs even if they
dont have clinical signs)
3. D
4. T
5. F (medial)
6. B
7. C
8. F
9. F
10. F
11. B
12. C
13. F (thats not a thing)
14. C (C spine is lordotic A, P and spinolaminar)
15. A, E, F
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A (minor trauma only if osteoporosis; major for
everyone elese)
20. T
21. F
22. B (MC in the middle-lower thoracic spine and
upper lumbar)
23. C
24. F (hypodense)
25. C (metastatic CA is the MC overall; multiple
myeloma is the MC primary bone CA)
26. C
27. T
28. A
29. T
Neuro Dx I
1. What is the first line imaging modality in 7. T or F. Subacute subdural hematomas are
patients who present with acute head trauma identified on CT as a hyperdense crecent
a. CT with contrast shaped mass within the subarachnoid space
b. CT non-contrast (between the pia mater and the arachnoid
c. X-ray mater)
d. MRI
8. Hypodense areas in the brain on CT most often
2. Which of the following is the best imaging correlate with what substances in the brain?
modality in patients who present with acute a. Fat
head trauma? b. CSF
a. CT with contrast c. Air
b. CT non-contrast d. A and B
c. X-ray e. B and C
d. MRI
9. Which view is most commonly used to evaluate
3. Which of the following is the best imaging the brain on CT scan
modality to detect diffuse axonal injury? a. Coronal
a. CT with contrast b. Axial
b. CT non-contrast c. Sagittal
c. X-ray d. Oblique
d. MRI
10. T or F Tissue contrast is the most helpful
4. What is the study of choice for detecting and information on CT to determine the type of
staging intracranial and spinal cord bleed.
abnormalities?
a. CT with contrast 11. Which of the following requires emergent
b. CT non-contrast referral for ventriculostomy?
c. X-ray a. Loss of tissue contrast on CT
d. MRI b. Cerebral edema
c. Shift of midline structures
5. What is the preferred imaging modality to d. All of the above
detect calcifications in lesions and cortical
bone? 12. T or F. White matter appears more hypodense
a. CT with contrast on CT as compared to gray matter.
b. CT non-contrast
c. X-ray 13. Which of the following is NOT true of epidural
d. MRI hematomas?
a. The epidural layer remains intact
6. Active bleeds and areas high in protein display b. The contour of the bleed is convex to
as what density on CT? the brain
a. Hyperdense c. The bleed crosses suture lines, sulci and
b. Hypodense gyri
c. Isodense d. They are almost always associated with
d. None of the above a fracture of the temporal bone
14. Which of the following is NOT true of subdural
hematomas?
a. Subdural hematomas are MC than
subdural hematomas
b. Acute bleeds appear hyperdense
c. Chronic bleeds appear isodense
d. Can cross suture lines and midline
15. Which of the following is a common cause of
subarachnoid hemorrhage?
a. Tangles of dilated VB that form a
communication between arterial and
venous blood systems
b. Hemorrhagic stroke
c. Ruptured aneurysm
d. Small vessel disease
e. A and C
f. B and C
16. Which of the following is NOT a common cause
of intra-parenchymal hemorrhage?
a. Ruptured aneurysm
b. Trauma
c. AV malformation
d. Hemorrhagic stroke
e. Small vessel disease
17. Coup contrecoup is most often caused by
a. Lateral blunt force trauma
b. Acceleration deceleration injuries
c. Depressed skull fractures
d. Increased ICP
18. A penetrating brain injury is defined as
a. A depressed skull fracture
b. Increased ICP
c. A linear skull fracture
d. Foreign matter disrupting the dura
19. Which of the following is NOT true of vasogenic
cerebral edema?
a. Most commonly seen in malignancy and
infection
b. Affects both white and grey matter
c. increased blood vessel permeability
leads to the accumulation of fluids in
the extracellular space
d. none of the above
20. which of the following is NOT true of cytotoxic
cerebral edema?
a. Associated with cerebral ischemia
b. Occurs as a result of increased cell
membrane permeability and apoptosis
c. Affects both gray and white matter
d. None of the above
21. What is the initial imaging modality of choice in
the setting of acute stroke?
a. MRI
b. Xray
c. CT noncontrast
d. CT with contrast
22. T or F. Patient presents 2 hours post ischemic
stroke. A normal CT on initial imaging rules out
ischemic stroke.
23. Which of the following is NOT a cause of
increased CSF in hydrocephalus?
a. Poor CSF absorption
b. Restriction of outflow
c. Cerebral edema
d. Overproduction of CSF
24. T or F. A lesion, tumor or cyst that restricts the
outflow of CSF is considered a communicating
obstructive cause of hydrocephalus.
25. T or F. A communicating obstructive cause of
hydrocephalus results in overproduction of CSF.
26. Which of the following is NOT true of normal
pressure hydrocephalus?
a. NPH is MC in patients ages 50-70
b. It is a communicating type of
hydrocephalus
c. Hallmark finding on diagnostic imaging
is enlarged hyper dense ventricles
d. CT is preferred imaging modality
 Answers
1. B (CT is quicker than MRI and more readily
available)
2. D (MRI best to detect diffuse axonal injury not
always good in trauma setting)
3. D
4. B
5. D (MRI has better soft tissue resolution/detail
compared to CT)
6. A (hyperdense active bleeds, metal, calcium)
7. F (isodense not an active bleed, blood has
mixed with CSF)
8. E
9. B
10. F (tissue contrast is helpful to ID edema; shape
of bleed is most helpful to ID bleed type)
11. D
12. T (white matter contains myelinated axons
which are fatty and therefore appear darker on
CT)
13. C (epidural hematomas do not cross these
because the bleed is outside of the dura)
14. D (subdural hematomas never cross midline but
can cross suture lines)
15. E
16. C (AVM is more associated with subarachnoid
hemorrhage)
17. B
18. A
19. B (mostly affects white matter)
20. D
21. C
22. F (changes on CT cannot be seen sometimes for
the first 12 hours post ischemic stroke)
23. C
24. F (non-communicating)
25. F (poor resorption of CSF)
Neuro Dx II
1. T or F. CT is the diagnostic TOC (test of choice)
for brain tumor?
2. Which of the following is NOT a reason CT
would be done to replace/in addition to MRI
when evaluating for brain tumor?
a. If vascular involvement is suspected
b. If metastases to the skull are suspected
c. When hemorrhage is suspected in an
unstable trauma patient
d. When patient has, an implantable
device containing iron (i.e. pacemaker),
as MRI is contraindicated
e. In patients who have a ventricular
peritoneal shunt, as MRI is
contraindicated.
3. Which of the following is NOT true regarding
the etiology of meningioma?
a. They are a slow growing malignant
intra-axial mass
b. They are most common in middle aged
women
c. They are associated with a good overall
prognosis if addressed early
d. Surgical excision is an appropriate
treatment
4. What is the most common type of primary
intra-axial mass (brain tumor)?
a. Meningioma
b. Cholestatoma
c. Gliomas
d. Brain metastases
5. Which of the following is NOT true of Gliomas
(select all that apply)?
a. They are the most common brain
tumors overall
b. They are most common in females ages
65-75
c. They are associated with a good
prognosis
d. TOC is watchful waiting
e. All of the above
6. Which of the following is NOT true of Brain
metastases?
a. Most commonly originate from lung CA,
breast CA, or melanoma
b. On imaging, lesions are round and well
defined typically near the great white
junction
c. The intensified border of these lesions
seen with addition of contrast are
referred to a stone sign
d. None of the above
7. On T1 MRI with gadolinium contrast you
discover a large, round, well circumscribed
intra-axial lesion with intensified radiopaque
border located near the great white junction.
This intensified border is a feature that often
indicates brain metastasis referred to as
a. Low signal intensity
b. Ring enhancement
c. Pseudotumor sign
d. None of the above
8. Which of the following is NOT true about
acoustic neuromas?
a. They are also called vestibular
schwannomas
b. MRI is the imaging modality of choice
c. Symptoms include balance issues,
tinnitus and hearing loss
d. It is along with CVA a common central
etiology for vertigo
e. They are often benign but can cause
damage due to mass-effect
9. Early signs of MS can be seen on T2 Sagittal MRI
as
a. Ring enhancement
b. Well circumscribed round lesions at the
great white junction
c. Flares arising from the ventricles and
deep white matter
d. None of the above
10. Which of the following describes a classic
patient presentation of MS?
a. Female in 20s with decreased vision and
paresis
b. Female in 30s with tinnitus, hearing loss
and vertigo
c. Male in 40s with painful spells of
unilateral headache that awaken them
in the night
d. Female over age 65 who presents with
no symptoms
11. Early stages of MS can be detected on T2 MRI
are described as
a. Flares from the ventricles and deep
white matter that are only seen in
coronal view
b. Flares from the ventricles and deep
white matter that are only seen in
sagittal view
c. Flares from the ventricles and deep
white matter that are only seen in
frontal view
d. Flares from the ventricles and deep
white matter that are only seen in
oblique view
12. T or F. EEGs are important because they
provide a definitive diagnosis for epilepsy
13. Which of the following is NOT an indication for
EEG testing?
a. Meningioma
b. Coup contrecoup
c. CVA
d. Sleep apnea
e. Silly rabbit, EEG is good for all of these!
14. T or F. EEGs can be abnormal in persons
without disease?
15. T or F. Adult EEGs are more variant than
pediatric EEGs?
16. Which of the following is TRUE of EEGs?
a. Patients with epilepsy exhibit persistent
abnormalities on EEG
b. Most etiologies of brain disease are
associated with EEG abnormalities
c. EEG patterns are often associated with a
specific neurological disease
d. The best application of EEGs is to
compare multiple measurements in a
single patient
17. When evaluating seizures in adults, serum
prolactin levels
a. Increase hours after absent seizures and
generalized tonic seizures
b. Increase minutes after partial seizures
and generalized clonic seizures
c. Increase hours after partial seizures and
generalized tonic-clonic seizures
d. Increase minutes after absent seizures
and partial seizures
18. Which of the following is NOT included in the
lab workup for seizures in adults?
a. CMP
b. Toxicology screen
c. TSH
d. PTT/INR
e. A and C
f. C and D
19. It is important to perform a CT before lumbar
puncture in which patients to avoid risk of brain
uncal herniation?
a. A patient who presents with tinnitus,
vertigo, paresthesia
b. A patient who presents with
papilledema, focal neurological deficits
and seizure
c. A patient who presents with bilateral
paresthesia and focal neurological
deficits
d. None of the above
20. T or F. A normal EEG rules out epilepsy
21. Which of the following diagnostic studies is
indicated for the evaluation of thoracic outlet
syndrome and myasthenia gravis?
a. Nerve conduction studies
b. EEG
c. EMG
d. Lumbar puncture
e. None of the above
22. Which of the following is NOT true of nerve
conduction studies?
a. They indicated to differentiate between
primary nerve and muscle disorders
b. Detect damage to peripheral nerves by
checking their electrical conduction
c. They are used on follow up to
determine progress or worsening
diabetic neuropathy
d. They most useful to diagnose
brachioplexopathy, myasthenia gravis,
and thoracic outlet syndrome
23. Which of the following diagnostic tests uses
needle electrodes to record action potentials in
skeletal muscles to evaluate for disease that
affect the NMJ?
a. EMG
b. EEG
c. Nerve conduction studies
d. PET scan
24. T or F. Muscle spasms are an uncommon side
effect of EEG which can be treated with muscle
relaxants
25. Which of the following is NOT an urgent
indication for lumbar puncture?
a. Suspected meningitis
b. Suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage in
patients with a negative CT scan
c. NPH
d. CNS syphilis
e. A and C
f. C and D
26. Which of the following is NOT an indication for
a non-urgent lumbar puncture?
a. Pseudotumor cerebri
b. Spinal abscess
c. MS
d. CNS syphilis
27. Which of the following is a contraindication for
lumbar puncture due to high risk of uncal
herniation?
a. Platelet count <20,000u/L or bleeding
disorder
b. Increased intracranial pressure
c. Spinal epidural abscess
d. A patient who presents with
papilledema, focal neurological deficits
and altered level of consciousness
e. B and D
f. None of the above
28. Patients with these features are at higher risk
of post lumbar puncture subdural/epidural
hematoma
a. Altered level of consciousness and
papilledema
b. Platelet count <20,000 and on warfarin
c. Papilledema and HTN
d. None of the above
29. A CT is indicated prior to lumbar puncture for
patients with which following preexisting
conditions
a. Thrombocytopenia or space occupying
spinal mass
b. Suspected spinal epidural abscess or MS
c. Suspected epidural spinal abscess or
increased ICP
d. NPH or increased ICP
30. Which of the following is the most common
complication post lumbar puncture?
a. Post LP HA
b. Post LP Infection
c. Cerebral herniation
d. Post LP Bleeding
e. Post LP Radicular numbness/pian
31. T or F. Patients with suspected meningitis and 38. T or F. Gait disturbances, urinary incontinence
increased ICP should be pre-screened with CT and dementia are a classic triad of findings in
prior to lumbar puncture. Antibiotics should be Parkinsons disease.
initiated following imaging.

32. T or F. All patients with suspected meningitis

should have LP before initiating antibiotics?

33. Which of the following best describes typical

findings of bacterial meningitis
a. Low protein
b. Low lactate
c. Low glucose
d. Low WBC

34. Which of the following represents normal CSF

a. 50mmH2O, Lymph 40%, Mono 35%,
Neutrophils 0
b. Protein 35mg/dL, Glucose 20mg/dL,
C&S no growth, RBC None
c. Lactate 15mg/dL, RBC None, Protein
25mg/dL, Glucose 50mg/dL
d. None of the above

35. Which of the following is TRUE of PET scans?

a. They are a non-contrast imaging
modality used to evaluate the
physiology of the brain
b. They use radioactive fluorine contrast
(FDG) to view glucose metabolism in the
brain
c. They use gadolinium contrast to view
glucose metabolism in the brain
d. None of the above

36. Which of the following disease states exhibits

DECREASED activity on PET scan?
a. Alzheimers disease
b. Parkinsons disease
c. Huntingtons disease
d. Epilepsy

37. Which of the following disease states exhibits

INCREASED activity on PET scan?
a. Alzheimers disease
b. Brain trauma
c. Epilepsy
d. Brain hemorrhage
Answers 34. C (Normal = pressure 50-180, RBC none,
1. F (MRI is the diagnostic TOC for brain Lymph 60-70%, mono 30-50%, Neutrophils
tumors none, C&S no growth, Protein 15-50,
2. E (Implantation of VP shunts are MRI Glucose 40-70, Lactate 10-20)
guided) 35. B (they are used to evaluate the physiology
3. A (meningioma are extra-axial and usually of the brain but usually use FDG -
not malignant) flurodioxyglucose)
4. C (Brain metastases are the MC brain 36. A
tumors overall) 37. C
5. E (gliomas are MC primary intra-axial mass; 38. F (Normal pressure hydrocephalous)
MC in males; associated with worse
prognosis than meningioma; refer to neuro
Sx)
6. C (intensified border seen on brain mets is
called ring enhancement)
7. D (aka acoustic neuroma)
8. B (MRI with contrast)
9. C (A=brain metastases)
10. A
11. B
12. F (EEG cannot be used alone to diagnose
epilepsy)
13. E
14. T
15. F (opposite)
16. D
17. B
18. F
19. B
20. A
21. C
22. D (no these are what EMG can be used for;
NCS can be used for dx of carpal tunnel,
Guillain Barre, diabetic neuropathy, and
unexplained peripheral neuropathy)
23. A
24. F (EMG)
25. F
26. B
27. E
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. F (give ABx prior to imaging in pts with
meningitis and SSx of ICP)
32. F (do LP before CT in pts with meningitis
who have no SSx of ICP)
33. C
 Ortho Dx
1. Interpret the following synovial fluid analysis
results and select the most appropriate
diagnosis: Vol 4.0, translucent, opalescent,
WBC 2,000, PMN 50%, culture negative
a. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
b. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Pyogenic bacterial infection

2. Which of the following is a contraindication for

synovial fluid analysis?
a. Arthroplasty
b. Gout
c. Clotting disorder
d. Meningitis

3. T or F. Synovial fluid analysis is indicated to rule

out infection in acute joint pain with effusion
and severe acute pain with joint ROM

4. Fluid and fat are dark on which kind of MRI

image?
a. T1
b. T2

5. Fluid and fat are bright/white on which kind of

MRI image?
a. T1
b. T2

6. T or F. The scaphoid bone is the MC site for

malunion

7. T or F. sharply marginated, justa-articular

erosions with a sclerotic border are a hallmark
finding in acute gout.

Answers
1. C
2. A
3. T
4. A
5. B
6. F (MC site for non-union)
7. F (acute gout has no findings on xray; this
describes chronic gout)
8.