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Report Summary

Score » 40 out of 100 ( 40 %)

Answered Correctly » 10 out of 25 correct
Min. Pass % » 65 %
Your Result » Fail

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Detailed Report
Incorrect 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.1) Alice, 10 years old was brought to the ER because of Asthma. She was
immediately put under aerosol administration of Terbutaline. After sometime,
you observe that the child does not show any relief from the treatment given.
Upon assessment, you noticed that both the heart and respiratory rate are still
elevated and the child shows difficulty of exhaling. You suspect:

A. Bronchiectasis (your answer)

B. Atelectasis
C. Epiglotitis
D. Status Asthmaticus (correct answer)
Status asthmaticus leads to respiratory distress and bronchospasm despite of
treatment and interventions. Mechanical ventilation maybe needed due to
respiratory failure.
Incorrect 20% answered this correctly. 80% answered wrong
Q.2) A client asks the nurse what a third degree laceration is. She was informed that
she had one. The nurse explains that this is:

that extended their anal sphincter

(correct answer)
B. through the skin and into the muscles (your answer)
C. that involves anterior rectal wall
D. that extends through the perineal muscle.
Third degree laceration involves all in the second degree laceration and the
external sphincter of the rectum. Options B, C and D are under the second degree
Incorrect 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.3) The nurse is preparing Mrs. Jordan for cesarean delivery. Which of the following
key concept should the nurse consider when implementing nursing care?
A. Explain the surgery, expected outcome and kind of anesthetics. (your answer)
Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a planned or
emergency cesarean birth. (correct answer)
Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia department to explain what to
expect post-operatively.
Instruct the mother’s support person to remain in the family lounge until after
the delivery.
A key point to consider when preparing the client for a cesarean delivery is to
modify the preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either planned or
emergency cesarean birth, the depth and breadth of instruction will depend on
circumstances and time available.
Incorrect 60% answered this correctly. 40% answered wrong
Q.4) The infant with Down Syndrome should go through which of the Erikson’s
developmental stages first?

A. Initiative vs. Self doubt

B. Industry vs. Inferiority
C. Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt (your answer)
D. Trust vs. Mistrust (correct answer)
The child with Down syndrome will go through the same first stage, trust vs.
mistrust, only at a slow rate. Therefore, the nurse should concentrate on
developing on bond between the primary caregiver and the child.
Incorrect 40% answered this correctly. 60% answered wrong
Q.5) Nurse Luis is assessing the newborn’s heart rate. Which of the following would
be considered normal if the newborn is sleeping?

A. 80 beats per minute (your answer)

B. 100 beats per minute (correct answer)
C. 120 beats per minute
D. 140 beats per minute
The normal heart rate for a newborn that is sleeping is approximately 100 beats
per minute. If the newborn was awake, the normal heart rate would range from
120 to 160 beats per minute.
Correct 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.6) Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention to reduce stress in a
preterm infant at 33 weeks gestation?

A. Sensory stimulation including several senses at a time

B. tactile stimulation until signs of over stimulation develop
C. An attitude of extension when prone or side lying
D. Kangaroo care (your answer)
Kangaroo care is the use of skin-to-skin contact to maintain body heat. This
method of care not only supplies heat but also encourages parent-child
Incorrect 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.7) Which age group is with imaginative minds and creates imaginary friends?

A. Toddler (your answer)

B. Preschool (correct answer)
C. School
D. Adolescence
During preschool, this is the time when children do imitative play, imaginative
play—the occurrence of imaginative playmates, dramatic play where children
like to act, dance and sing.
Incorrect 30% answered this correctly. 70% answered wrong
Q.8) The child with phenylketonuria (PKU) must maintain a low phenylalanine diet to
prevent which of the following complications?

A. Irreversible brain damage (correct answer)

B. Kidney failure (your answer)
C. Blindness
D. Neutropenia
The child with PKU must maintain a strict low phenylalanine diet to prevent
central nervous system damage, seizures and eventual death.
Correct 40% answered this correctly. 60% answered wrong
Q.9) Which of the following danger sings should be reported immediately during the
antepartum period?

A. blurred vision (your answer)

B. nasal stuffiness
C. breast tenderness
D. constipation
Danger signs that require prompt reporting are leaking of amniotic fluid, blurred
vision, vaginal bleeding, rapid weight gain and elevated blood pressure. Nasal
stuffiness, breast tenderness, and constipation are common discomforts associated
with pregnancy.
Correct 70% answered this correctly. 30% answered wrong
Q.10) During the first hours following delivery, the post partum client is given IVF
with oxytocin added to them. The nurse understands the primary reason for this

A. To facilitate elimination
B. To promote uterine contraction (your answer)
C. To promote analgesia
D. To prevent infection
Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland that produces intermittent
uterine contractions, helping to promote uterine involution.
Incorrect 30% answered this correctly. 70% answered wrong
Q.11) Mrs. Jimenez went to the health center for pre-natal check-up. the student nurse
took her weight and revealed 142 lbs. She asked the student nurse how much
should she gain weight in her pregnancy.

A. 20-30 lbs (your answer)

B. 25-35 lbs (correct answer)
C. 30- 40 lbs
D. 10-15 lbs
A weight gain of 11. 2 to 15.9 kg (25 to 35 lbs) is currently recommended as an
average weight gain in pregnancy. This weight gain consists of the following:
fetus- 7.5 lb; placenta- 1.5 lb; amniotic fluid- 2 lb; uterus- 2.5 lb; breasts- 1.5 to 3
lb; blood volume- 4 lb; body fat- 7 lb; body fluid- 7 lb.
Incorrect 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.12) Which of the following situations would alert you to a potentially
developmental problem with a child?

A. Pointing to body parts at 15 months of age.

B. Using gesture to communicate at 18 months. (your answer)
C. Cooing at 3 months.
Saying “mama” or “dada” for the first time at 18 months of age. (correct
A child should say “mama” or “dada” during 10 to 12 months of age. Options A,
B and C are all normal assessments of language development of a child.
Correct 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.13) Isabelle, a 2 year old girl loves to move around and oftentimes manifests
negativism and temper tantrums. What is the best way to deal with her behavior?

A. Tell her that she would not be loved by others is she behaves that way..
B. Withholding giving her toys until she behaves properly.
Ignore her behavior as long as she does not hurt herself and others. (your
D. Ask her what she wants and give it to pacify her.
If a child is trying to get attention or trying to get something through tantrums—
ignore his/her behavior.
Correct 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.14) The uterus has already risen out of the pelvis and is experiencing farther into the
abdominal area at about the:

A. 8th week of pregnancy

B. 10th week of pregnancy
C. 12th week of pregnancy
D. 18th week of pregnancy (your answer)
On the 8th week of pregnancy, the uterus is still within the pelvic area. On the
10th week, the uterus is still within the pelvic area. On the 12th week, the uterus
and placenta have grown, expanding into the abdominal cavity. On the 18th
week, the uterus has already risen out of the pelvis and is expanding into the
abdominal area.
Incorrect 20% answered this correctly. 80% answered wrong
Q.15) Mrs. Precilla Abuel, a 32 year old mulripara is admitted to labor and delivery.
Her last 3 pregnancies in short stage one of labor. The nurses decide to observe
her closely. The physician determines that Mrs. Abuel’s cervix is dilated to 6 cm.
Mrs. Abuel states that she is extremely uncomfortable. To lessen Mrs. Abuel’s
discomfort, the nurse can advise her to:

A. lie face down

B. not drink fluids
C. practice holding breaths between contractions (your answer)
D. assume Sim’s position (correct answer)
When the woman is in Sim’s position, this puts the weight of the fetus on bed,
not on the woman and allows good circulation in the lower extremities.
Incorrect 10% answered this correctly. 90% answered wrong
Q.16) Bettine Gonzales is hospitalized for the treatment of severe preecplampsia.
Which of the following represents an unusual finding for this condition?

A. generalized edema
B. proteinuria 4+
C. blood pressure of 160/110 (your answer)
D. convulsions (correct answer)
Options A, B and C are findings of severe preeclampsia. Convulsions is a finding
of eclampsia—an obstetrical emergency.
Incorrect 20% answered this correctly. 80% answered wrong
Q.17) Which is true regarding the fontanels of the newborn?

The anterior is large in shape when compared to the posterior fontanel.

(correct answer)
The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond shaped. (your
C. The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken.
D. The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8 to 12 months.
The anterior fontanel is larger in size than the posterior fontanel. Additionally,
the anterior fontanel, which is diamond shaped closes at 18 month, whereas the
posterior fontanel, which is triangular in shape closes at 8 to 12 weeks. Neither
fontanel should appear bulging, which may indicate increases ICP or sunken,
which may indicate hydration.
Correct 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.18) Betina 30 weeks AOG discharged with a diagnosis of placenta previa. The nurse
knows that the client understands her care at home when she says:

I am happy to note that we can have sex occasionally when I have no

B. I am afraid I might have an operation when my due comes
C. I will have to remain in bed until my due date comes (your answer)
D. I may go back to work since I stay only at the office.
Placenta previa means that the placenta is the presenting part. On the first and
second trimester there is spotting. On the third trimester there is bleeding that is
sudden, profuse and painless.
Correct 40% answered this correctly. 60% answered wrong
Q.19) The parent of a client with albinism would need to be taught which preventive
healthcare measure by the nurse:

A. Ulcerative colitis diet

B. Use of a high-SPF sunblock (your answer)
C. Hair loss monitoring
D. Monitor for growth retardation
Without melanin production, the child with albinism is at risk for severe
sunburns. Maximum sun protection should be taken, including use of hats, long
sleeves, minimal time in the sun and high-SPF sunblock, to prevent any
Correct 70% answered this correctly. 30% answered wrong
Q.20) Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most
frequently experience during the first trimester:

A. frequency (your answer)

B. dysuria
C. incontinence
D. burning
Pressure and irritation of the bladder by the growing uterus during the first
trimester is responsible for causing urinary frequency. Dysuria, incontinence and
burning are symptoms associated with urinary tract infection.
Incorrect 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.21) Mrs. Quijones gave birth by spontaneous delivery to a full term baby boy. After
a minute after birth, he is crying and moving actively. His birth weight is 6.8 lbs.
What do you expect baby Quijones to weigh at 6 months?

A. 13 -14 lbs (correct answer)

B. 16 -17 lbs
C. 22 -23 lbs (your answer)
D. 27 -28 lbs
The birth weight of an infant is doubled at 6 months and is tripled at 12 months.
Correct 50% answered this correctly. 50% answered wrong
Q.22) Nurse Jacob is assessing a 15 month old child with acute otitis media. Which of
the following symptoms would the nurse anticipate finding?

A. periorbital edema, absent light reflex and translucent tympanic membrane

irritability, purulent drainage in middle ear, nasal congestion and cough (your
C. diarrhea, retracted tympanic membrane and enlarged parotid gland
D. Vomiting, pulling at ears and pearly white tympanic membrane
Irritability, purulent drainage in middle ear, nasal congestion and cough, fever,
loss of appetite, vomiting and diarrhea are clinical manifestations of otitis media.
Acute otitis media is common in children 6 months to 3 years old and 8 years old
and above. Breast fed infants have higher resistance due to protection of
Eustachian tubes and middle ear from breast milk.
Incorrect 30% answered this correctly. 70% answered wrong
Q.23) Baby boy Villanueva, 4 months old, was seen at the pediatric clinic for his
scheduled check-up. By this period, baby Villanueva has already increased his
height by how many inches?
A. 3 inches (your answer)
B. 4 inches (correct answer)
C. 5 inches
D. 6 inches
From birth to 6 months, the infant grows 1 inch (2.5 cm) per month. From 6 to
12 months, the infant grows ½ inch (1.25 cm) per month.
Correct 90% answered this correctly. 10% answered wrong
Q.24) Nurse Geli explains to the client who is 33 weeks pregnant and is experiencing
vaginal bleeding that coitus:

A. Need to be modified in any way by either partner

B. Is permitted if penile penetration is not deep.
C. Should be restricted because it may stimulate uterine activity. (your answer)
D. Is safe as long as she is in side-lying position.
Coitus is restricted when there is watery discharge, uterine contraction and
vaginal bleeding. Also those women with a history of spontaneous miscarriage
may be advised to avoid coitus during the time of pregnancy when a previous
miscarriage occurred.
Incorrect 30% answered this correctly. 70% answered wrong
Q.25) Nurse Jonas assesses a 2 year old boy with a tentative diagnosis of
nephroblastoma. Symptoms the nurse observes that suggest this problem include:

A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (your answer)

B. Hearing loss and ataxia
C. Headaches and vomiting
D. Abdominal mass and weakness (correct answer)
Nephroblastoma or Wilm’s tumor is caused by chromosomal abnormalities, most
common kidney cancer among children characterized by abdominal mass,
hematuria, hypertension and fever.