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GI-HEMA-ONCO Quizzes D2012 b.

Lactase deficiency
c. Carcinoid tumor
QUIZ 1 d. Celiac sprue
1. epithelial defense of the GIT: cellular restitution 9. Which of the ff is an inflammatory cause of chronic
2. gastric acid is produced by: parietal cells diarrhea?
3. established risk factor for NSAID induced ulcer: a. Magnesium-containing medication
concomitant use of steroids b. Idiopathic Ulcerative Colitis
4. eradication of H. pylori results in: reduction in c. VIPoma
ulcer recurrence rate d. Celiac sprue
5. sudden onset of severe generalized epigastric pain: 10. Colonic diverticulosis commonly affects the:
Perforation a. Ascending colon
6. Initial symptom of esophageal cancer in majority of b. Transverse colon
patients: progressive dysphagia (*& weight loss of c. Descending colon
short duration) d. Sigmoid colon
7. The rising incidence of esophageal 11. The test to determine the cause of cobalamin
adenocarcinoma is attributed to: Barretts malabsorption is:
esophagus a. Sudan stain
8. most common histologic type of gastric CA: b. Schilling test
Adenocarcinoma c. Urinary D-xylose test
9. True of intestinal type gastric adenoCA: better d. Stool chymotrypsin
prognosis than diffuse type 12. Which of the ff responds to broad-spectrum
10. Metastasis of Gastric CA to periumbilical region: antibiotics and folic acid?
Sister Mary Joseph node a. Tropical sprue
11. Ulcer with highest rate of bleeding recurrence: b. Celiac sprue
actively bleeding c. Short Bowel syndrome
12. Treatment for acute variceal bleed: Octreotide d. Whipples disease
13. beak like narrowing on radiograph: Achalasia 13. Which of the ff endoscopic feature is in favor of
14. Long term effect treatment for Achalasia: Hellers Crohns disease?
myotomy a. Rectal involvement
15. Motor disorder of the esophagus: Achalasia b. Backwash ileitis
c. Continuous lesions
QUIZ 2 d. Cobblestoning
1. Which of the ff is associated with the highest 14. Which of the ff clinical features favors ulcerative
potential for malignancy? colitis?
a. Villous adenoma a. Gross blood and mucus in stool
b. Tubulovillous adenoma b. Abdominal mass
c. Tubular adenoma c. Intestinal obstruction
d. Hamartoma d. Fistula
2. Polyposis coli with soft tissue and bony tumors is 15. The most common location of GI tuberculosis is:
called: a. Stomach
a. Turcots syndrome b. Duodenum
b. Turners syndrome c. Ileum
c. Gardners syndrome d. Colon
d. Lynch syndrome
3. Colonic cancer is increased in inflammatory bowel QUIZ 3
disease if the IBD: 1. Liver function test for cholestasis: 5 nucleotidase
a. Has frequent exacerbation 2. Serum albumin most helpful in what disease?:
b. Is left sided Liver cirrhosis
c. Is not responsive to treatment 3. Histologic finding in chronic hepatitis C with severe
d. Has been present for 15 years necroinflammatory activity or fibrosis: Bridging
4. Patients with right-sided colonic cancer usuakky necrosis
presents with: 4. Serologic marker in hepatitis which indicates the
a. Abdominal cramps replicative phase: HBeAg
b. Obstruction 5. Autoantibody in Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis:
c. Iron deficiency anemia pANCA (Type 1: anti-actin; Type 2: anti-LKM, anti-
d. Hematochezia liver cytosol 1; Type 3: antibody to soluble liver
5. Stage 4 colon cancer means : antigen/liver pancreas antigen)
a. Tumor up to mucosa 6. Histology of autoimmune hepatitis: piecemeal
b. Tumor up to muscularis necrosis / interface
c. Lymph node metastasis 7. Most common etiology of HCC: Hep C
d. Liver metastasis 8. Not included in the CLIP staging for HCC:
6. The 5 year survival of colon cancer stage 1 is: Thrombocytopenia (*CLIP: Child Pugh score,
a. <5% Tumor size & Portal HPN)
b. 25-60% 9. X-ray finding of liver abscess: elevated right
c. 70-85% hemidiaphragm
d. >90% 10. Risk factor for alcoholic liver disease: duration and
7. The most common cause of significant lower GI amount of alcohol
bleeding in children is: 11. Discriminant function score associated with poor
a. Vascular ectasia prognosis in Alcoholic hepatitis: >32
b. Meckels diverticulum 12. iagnostic of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis:
3
c. Leiomyoma Ascitic Neutrophil Count >250/mm
d. Adenocarcinoma 13. Typical PE finding characteristic of hepatic
8. Which of the ff is a secretory cause of chronic encephalopathy: Asterixis
diarrhea? 14. Mainstay treatment for hepatic encephalopathy:
a. Magnesium-containing medication Lactulose
15. Portal pressure at risk for variceal bleeding: >12 normochromic anemia, low leukocyte alkaline
mmHg phosphatase; histamine 2ndary to basophilia;
M:E ratio)
QUIZ 4 15. Sign of disease acceleration in CML: persistent
1. Reabsorption of bile through active transport occurs splenomegaly despite continued therapy
in: Ileum
2. action of CCK: contraction of gallbladder QUIZ 6
3. Decrease in its activity will promote cholesterol 1. Type of Non-Hodgkins lymphoma that is rapidly
gallstone formation: 7-alpha-hydroxylase progressive and has an extremely high proliferative
(*decrease in MDR3 & increase in HMGCoAR will fraction: Burkitts lymphoma
promote gallstone formation) 2. Clinical risk factors in the International Prognostic
4. increases biliary secretion of cholesterol except: Index for NHL includes the ff. except: 1 extranodal
exercise (* cholesterol secretion in bile: clofibrate, site (*age >60; serum LDH elevated; performance
obesity, high caloric diet & cholesterol intake) status >2 (ECOG) or <70 (Karnofsky); Ann Arbor
5. characteristic symptom in patient with gallstone: stage III or IV; >1 extranodal site)
biliary colic 3. Most common presentation for Follicular lymphoma:
6. calcium salt deposition within the wall of a new, painless lymphadenopathy
chronically inflammed gallbladder: Porcelain 4. most common type of Non-Hodgkins lymphoma:
gallbladder Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma
7. In the natural history of asymptomatic gallstones, 5. Infectious agent associated with Burkitts
the cumulative risk for the development of lymphoma: HIV
symptoms or complications at 15 years: 18% (*10% 6. Also considered as a B cell lymphoma: Plasma cell
at 5 yrs; 15% at 10 yrs) myeloma / plasmacytoma
8. Characteristic presentation of biliary pain, jaundice 7. Most frequent extranodal site of B cell lymphomas:
& spiking fever with chills in acute cholangitis: Stomach (gastric MALT lymphoma)
Charcots traid 8. Most common cancer in childhood: Precursor B
9. Diagnostic procedure of choice to detect cell Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B cell ALL)
choledocholithiasis in a pregnant woman: MRCP 9. B cell symptoms include the ff except: Myalgia (*B
10. Therapy of choice for acute cholangitis: cell sx: lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats,
endoscopic drainage (ERCP) weight loss, fatigue)
11. tumor marker NOT elevated in cholangiocarcinoma: 10. Type of NHL susceptible to Mycobacterium avium
PSA (*elevated: CEA, CA 19-9, CA-125) intracellulare complex infections & vasculitic
12. PE finding in pancreatic cancer: palpable, syndromes: Hairy cell leukemia
nontender gallbladder (Courvoisiers sign) 11. classic triad of myeloma include: lytic bone
13. role of serum amylase in pancreatic cancer: lesions (*marrow plasmacytosis >10% & serum
establish diagnosis &/or urine M component)
14. inactive precursor of pancreatic enzymes: 12. Anemia in Multiple Myeloma (MM): normocytic
Zymogen normochromic
15. key indicators compatible with attack of severe 13. Most common symptom in MM: Bone pain
acute pancreatitis: CRP>150mg/L (*Age >70; BMI 14. Most common cause of renal failure in MM:
>30; Hct >44%) Hypercalcemia
15. True of MM: median age at diagnosis is 68 years
QUIZ 5
1. Symptom distinguishing Polycythemia vera from
other causes of erythrocytosis: Aquagenic pruritus
2. physiologic regulator of red cell production
produced and released by peritubular capillary
lining cells within the kidney: Erythropoietin
3. measure of RBC production: Reticulocyte count
4. Ferroxidase which oxidizes the iron to the ferric form for
transferrin binding; similar to ceruloplasmin, the copper-
carrying protein: Hephaestin
5. Most common preceding infection in aplastic anemia:
Hepatitis
6. Very severe aplastic anemia: ANC<200/ul (*severe
aplastic anemia ANC <500/ul)
7. Best therapy for aplastic anemia: Hematopoietic Stem
Cell Transplant
8. Mutation in the autoinhibitory, pseudokinase
domain of this tyrosine kinase causes a constitutive
activation of the kinase. This appears to have a
central role in the pathogenesis of Polycythemia
vera: JAK2 (V617F)
9. Karyotype associated with very good prognosis in
AML (and with DIC): t(15,17)
10. Type of AML associated GI bleed, intracranial
hemorrhage & intrapulmonary hemorrhage: M3
11. Karyotype associated with myeloid sarcoma in
AML: t(8,21)
12. common cause of therapy-induced AML: anti-
cancer drug
13. Karyotype associated with CML: t(9,22)
14. True of hematologic findings in CML: elevated
serum vitamin B12 (*high WBC with immature &
mature granulocytes; platelet; normocytic