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Form Number : Paper Code : 0999 DM610216004

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME


(Academic Session : 2016 - 2017)

LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE


TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2017
Test Type : ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (MAJOR) Test Pattern : AIIMS
TEST DATE : 23 - 04 - 2017

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

Important Instructions /
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.



2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.


3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.


4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.


5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each
incorrect answer.

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code and Your
Form No.

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mail

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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/Pre-Medical /AIIMS/23-04-2017
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BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

1. The direction of a vector A is reversed, what are 1. A
A | A |

?
the values of A and | A | ?

(1) 2A ,0 (2) A ,0 (3) 2A ,0 (4) A ,0 (1) 2A ,0 (2) A ,0 (3) 2A ,0 (4) A ,0
2. Five point charges each having magnitude 'q' are 2.
'q'
placed at the corners of hexagon as shown in figure.
'O'

Net electric field at the centre 'O' is E . To get
E
6 E

net electric field at 'O' to be , charge placed
6E
on the remaining sixth corner should be :-
q q q q

O q O q

q q q q

(1) 6 q (2) 6 q (1) 6 q (2) 6 q


(3) 5 q (4) 5 q (3) 5 q (4) 5 q
3. A cord is bound round the circumference of a 3.
R
(wheel)
wheel of radius R. The axis of the wheel is
horizontal and moment of inertia about it is I. A
I
mg
weight mg is attached to the end of the cord and

h
falls from rest. After falling through distance h,
the angular velocity of the wheel will be :
:

1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
2gh 2mgh 2gh 2mgh
(1) (2) 2
(1) (2) 2
I mr I mr I mr I mr

1/ 2 1/ 2
2mgh 2mgh
(3) (4) 2gh (3) (4) 2gh
I 2m I 2m

4. Sound waves in air are always longitudinal, 4.


:-
because :- (1)
(1) density of air is very small
(2) air is a mixture of several gases (2)
(3) air does not have a modulus of rigidity (3)
(4) of the inherent characteristics of sound waves
in air (4)
5. An athlete's coach told his team that muscle times 5.
speed equals power, what dimensions does he
view for "muscle"
(1) [M1L1T2] (2) [M1L2T2] (1) [M1L1T2] (2) [M1L2T2]
(3) [M1L1T2] (4) [L1] (3) [M1L1T2] (4) [L1]

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6. Point charge q1 = 2C and q2 = 1C are kept 6. q1 = 2C
q2 = 1C
at points x = 0 and x = 6 respectively. Electrical x = 0
x = 6
potential will be zero at points :-
(1) x = 2 and x = 9 (1) x = 2 x=9
(2) x = 1 and x = 5 (2) x = 1 x = 5
(3) x = 4 and x = 12 (3) x = 4 x = 12
(4) x = 2 and x = 2 (4) x = 2 x=2
7. An infinite number of point masses each equal to 7. m
m are placed at x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, x = 8... What x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, x = 8...

is the total gravitational potential at x = 0? x = 0 ?
(1) Gm (2) 2 Gm (1) Gm (2) 2 Gm
(3) 4 Gm (4) 8 Gm (3) 4 Gm (4) 8 Gm
8. A long solid cylindrical glass rod of refractive 8.
(
3/2)
index 3/2 is immersed in a liquid of refractive 3 3 / 4
index 3 3 / 4 . The end of the rod are
perpendicular to the central axis of the rod. a light
enters one end of the rod at the central axis as

shown in the figure. Find the maximum value of
angle for which internal reflection occurs inside
:-
the rod:-

1 1 1 3
1 1 3
1 (1) sin (2) sin
(1) sin (2) sin 3 4
3 4
3
(3) sin 1
3
(4) None (3) sin 1 (4)
2 2

9. A lift performs the first part of ascent with 9.


uniform acceleration a and the remainder with a
2a
uniform retardation 2a, if t is the time of ascent, t

find the depth of the shaft? (shaft)
?
at 2 at 2 at 2 at 2 at 2 at 2
at 2 at 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3)
(4)
4 3 2 8 4 3
2 8
10. Find capacitance of following combination :- 10.
:-

(1) 8 R (2) 16 R (1) 8 R (2) 16 R

0 R 0 R
(3) (4) 4 R (3) (4) 4 R
2 2

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11. A solid sphere of uniform density and mass M has 11.
M
radius 4 metre. Its centre is at the origin of the 4
co-ordinate system. Two spheres of radii 1m are 1
taken out so that their centres at P are
P(0,2, 0) Q (0, 2, 0)
(0,2, 0) and Q (0, 2, 0) respectively. This leaves
(cavity)
two spherical cavities. What is the gravitational
field at the origin of the co-ordinate axes ? ?

Z Z

Y Y
P O Q P O Q

X X

31GM GM 31GM GM
(1) (2) (1) (2)
1024 1024 1024 1024

(3) 31GM (4) Zero (3) 31GM (4)


12. The angle of incidence at which reflected light 12.
is totally polarized for reflection from air to glass
n
(refractive index n), is:- :-
1 1
(1) sin1(n) (2) sin 1 (1) sin1(n) (2) sin 1
n n

1 1
(3) tan 1 (4) tan1(n) (3) tan 1 (4) tan1(n)
n n
13. The normal component of acceleration of a 13.
particle in circular motion is due to
?
(1) speed of the particle (1)
(2) change in direction of velocity (2)
(3) change in the magnitude of velocity (3)
(4) rate of change of acceleration (4)
14. In the circuit shown figure, calculate the current 14. 6V

through 6V battery.
6V 6V

5V 4 5V 4

4V A B 4V A B

3 3

(1) (1/4) A (2) (1/8) A (1) (1/4) A (2) (1/8) A


(3) (1/2) A (4) None of these (3) (1/2) A (4)
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15. A thin hollow cylinder is free to rotate about its 15.
geometrical axis. It has a mass of 8 kg and a radius
8
of 20 cm. A rope is wrapped around the cylinder. 20
What force must be exerted along the rope to
3
/2
produce an angular acceleratin of 3rad/sec2 ?
?
(1) 8.4 N (2) 5.8 N (1) 8.4 N (2) 5.8 N
(3) 4.8 N (4) None of these (3) 4.8 N (4)
16. In Fraunhofer diffraction experiment, L is the 16.
L
distance between screen and the obstacle, b is the b

size of obstacle an is wavelength of incident
:-
light. The general condition for the applicability
of Fraunhofer diffraction is:- b2 b2
(1) 1 (2) 1
b2 b2 L L
(1) 1 (2) 1
L L
b2 b2
b2
b 2
(3) 1 (4) 1
(3) 1 (4) 1 L L
L L
17. A very flexible uniform chain of mass M and 17. M
L
length L is suspended vertically so that it lower
end just touches the surface of a table. When the (just)
upper end of the chain is released, it falls with
each link coming to rest the instant it strikes the link)
table. The force exerted by the chain on the table
at the moment when y part of the chain has already y
rested on the table is
3M M
3M M (1) yg (2) yg
(1) yg (2) yg L L
L L
2M
(3)
2M
yg (4) None of these (3) yg (4)
L L
18. Figure shows a balanced Wheatstone net. Now, 18.
P

it is disturbed by changing P to 11 . Which of 11
the following steps will not bring the bridge to
balance again ?

P = 10 Q = 100 P = 10 Q = 100

R = 20 S = 200 R = 20 S = 200

(1) Increasing R by 2 (1) R


2
(2) Increasing S by 20 (2) S
20
(3) Increasing Q by 10 (3) Q
10
(4) Making product RQ = 2200 () 2
(4) RQ = 2200 ()2

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19. A water drop of radius 102 m is broken is to 19. 102 m
1000
1000 equal droplets calculate the gain is surface
energy. Surface tension of water is 0.075 N/m :- 0.075 N/m :-
(1) 8.5 104J (1) 8.5 104J
(2) 2 103J (2) 2 103J
(3) 2.5 104J (3) 2.5 104J
(4) 12.5 104J (4) 12.5 104J
20. In a double slit experiment, when the width of one 20.
YDSE
slit is made twice as wide as the other in compared
to normal YDSE having slits of equal width.
Then, in the interference pattern
(1)
(1) the intensities of both the maxima and the
minima increase. (2)
(2) the intensity of the maxima increases and the
minima has zero intensity. (3)
(3) the intensity of the maxima decreases and that

of the minima increases.
(4) the intensity of the maxima decreases and the (4)
minima has zero intensity.
21. A box of mass 50 kg is pulled up on an inclined 21. 50
12
plane of 12 m long and 2 m high by a constant 2 100

force of 100 N from rest. It acquires a velocity
of 2 m/s when it reaches the top of the plane. The
2 /
work done against friction is (g = 10 m/s2)
(g = 10 /2)
(1) 50 J (2) 100 J (3) 150 J (4) 200 J (1) 50 J (2) 100 J
(3) 150 J (4) 200 J
22. When a current changes from 2A to 4A in 22.
0.05
2A
0.05 sec. in a coil, induced emf is 8 V. The self 4A
8

inductance of coil is :-
:-
(1) 0.1 H (2) 0.2 H (1) 0.1 H (2) 0.2 H
(3) 0.4 H (4) 0.8 H (3) 0.4 H (4) 0.8 H
23. Two substances A and B of equal mass m are 23. m
A B
6 cal s1
heated at uniform rate of 6 cal s1 under similar
conditions. A graph between temperature and
time is shown in figure. Ratio of heat absorbed
HA/HB by them for complete fusion is HA/HB
Temperature C

Temperature C

100 100
80 A 80 A
60 60
40 40
B B
20 20
0 0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 time (sec) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 time (sec)

(1) 9/4 (2) 4/9 (3) 8/5 (4) 5/8 (1) 9/4 (2) 4/9 (3) 8/5 (4) 5/8
Key

Filling

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24. The angular momentum of an electron in 24.
3h 3h
hydrogen atom is then its de Broglie
2 2
wavelength is approx :- :-
3 3
(1) 1 (2) (3) 3 (4) 10 (1) 1 (2) (3) 3 (4) 10
2 2

25. Two particles having position vectors 25. r1 (3i 5j)

r1 (3i 5j) m and r2 (5i 3j) m are moving r2 (5i 3j)
v1 (4i 3j)

with velocities v1 (4i 3j) and v 2 (ai 7j)m / s . v 2 (ai 7j)
2
If they collide after 2 second, the value of a is a

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
26. A proton is moves on circular path with its 26.
constant angular speed then correct relation
between its magnetic moment and angular
:-
momentum :-

eL eL
eL eL (1) M = (2) M =
(1) M = (2) M = 2m P 2m P
2m P 2m P

FG 2e IJ L 2e FG IJ FG 2e IJ L 2e FG IJ
(3) M =
Hm K P
(4) M =
mP
L
H K
(3) M =
Hm K P
(4) M =
mP
L
H K
27. In pressure of CO2 (real gas) in a container is 27.
CO 2 (
)
RT a RT a
given by P then mass of the gas P
2V b 4V 2 2V b 4V 2
in container is
(1) 11 g (2) 22 g (3) 33 g (4) 44 g (1) 11 g (2) 22 g (3) 33 g
(4) 44 g
28. In the photoelectric effect a metal is illuminated 28.
2
by two radiation of frequency and 2
respectively. Results are shown in the graph.
:-
What is value of work function of the metal :-
ip
ip 2
2

5V 2V voltage
5V 2V voltage
(1) 4eV (2) 3eV (3) 2eV (4) 1eV (1) 4eV (2) 3eV (3) 2eV (4) 1eV
29. Two bodies A and B have masses 20 kg and 5kg 29.
A B
20
respectively. Each one is acted upon by a force 5
4
of 4 kg-wt. If they acquire the same kinetic energy tA
tB
tA tA
in times tA and tB, then the ratio t is
t
B B

(1) 1/2 (2) 2 (3) 2/5 (4) 1/5 (1) 1/2 (2) 2 (3) 2/5 (4) 1/5
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30. A square loop made by a wire of length '' suspended 30.
between the pole pieces of a permanant magnet such

that B is in the plane of the loop. If due to a current
B
'i' in the square a torque '' acts on it, then length '' i

of wire is :-

:-

FG IJ 1/ 2
FG IJ 1/ 2
F I
(1) G J
1/ 2
FG IJ 1/ 2

(1)
H iB K (2) 4
H iB K H iB K (2) 4
H iB K
FG IJ 1/ 2
FG IJ 1/ 2

(4)
(3) 2
H iB K (4) Zero (3) 2
H iB K
31. Heat energy absorbed by a system is going 31.
through a cyclic process shown in figure is

V(litre) V(litre)
30 30

10 10
10 30 P(kPa) 10 30 P(kPa)

(1) 107 J (2) 104 J (1) 107 J (2) 104 J


(3) 102 J (4) 103 J (3) 102 J (4) 103 J
32. At t = 10s, 60% of N0 nuclei in a radioactive 32.
t = 10s N0 60%
sample are left undecayed. At t = 30s, 85% of N0 t = 30s N0 85%
have been decayed then half life period of the
:-
sample is :-
(1) 15 s (2) 10 s (3) 8.5 s (4) 6.0 s (1) 15 s (2) 10 s (3) 8.5 s (4) 6.0 s
33. A man of mass 80 kg is riding on a small cart of 33. 80
40
mass 40 kg which is rolling along a level floor 2 /
at a speed of 2m/s. He is running on the cart so
that his velocity relative to the cart is 3m/s in the

3 /
direction opposite to the motion of cart. What is
the speed of the centre of mass of the system
(1) 1.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s (3) 3 m/s (4) zero (1) 1.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s (3) 3 m/s (4)
34. A long straight wire along the z-axis carries a 34.
z-
current I in the negative z direction. The magnetic
z
z = 0
(x, y)
vector field B at a point having coordinates

(x, y) in the z = 0 plane is B

o I (yi xj)
o I (xi yj)
o I (yi xj)
o I (xi yj)

(1) 2 2 (2) 2 2 (1) 2 2 (2) 2 2
2(x y ) 2(x y ) 2(x y ) 2(x y )

o I (xj yi)
o I (xi yj)
o I (xj yi)
o I (xi yj)

(3) 2 2 (4) 2 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 2 2
2(x y ) 2(x y ) 2(x y ) 2(x y )

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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/Pre-Medical /AIIMS/23-04-2017
35. What is the ratio between the height H of a 35.
H
h
mountain and depth h of a mine if a pendulum
swings with the same period at the top of the
mountain and at the bottom of the mine ?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1 (1) 1/2 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 4 (3) 2 (4) 4
36. In a given diagram calculate power dissipated in 36.
zener diode (Given Vz = 15V) :- (
Vz = 15V) :-

500 500
I I
+ +
20V 10k 20V 10k

(1) 127.5 mW (2) 22.5 mW (1) 127.5 mW (2) 22.5 mW


(3) 150 mW (4) 8.5 mW (3) 150 mW (4) 8.5 mW
37. Electric potential is given by 37.
V = 6x 8xy2 8y + 6yz 4z2 V = 6x 8xy2 8y + 6yz 4z2
Then magnitude of electric force acting on 2C
2C
point charge placed on origin will be :-
(1) 2N (2) 6 N (1) 2N (2) 6 N
(3) 8 N (4) 20 N (3) 8 N (4) 20 N
38. An inductor and a resistor in series are connected 38.
to an A.C. supply of variable frequency. As the
frequency of the source is decreased, the phase
angle between current and the potential difference

across source will be:
L
L

R
~

~ R

(1)
(1) First increase and then decrease
(2) First decrease and then increase (2)
(3) Go on decreasing (3)
(4) Go on increasing (4)
39. A tuning fork whose frequency is n, is cut to make 39.
n
the arms of half length. New frequency of the
tuning fork will be :-
:-
(1) n (2) n 2 (3) 2n (4) 4n (1) n (2) n 2 (3) 2n (4) 4n
40. Wavelength of photon released from transition of 40. He
2+
4 2
electron from 4 2 in He2+ is equivalent to
H+
transition of electron H+ from :-
(1) 3 1 (2) 2 1 (3) 3 2 (4) 4 2 (1) 3 1 (2) 2 1 (3) 3 2 (4) 4 2

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

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41. Glass is soluble in :- 41.
:-
(1) HF (2) H2SO4 (1) HF (2) H2SO4
(3) HClO4 (4) Aqua-regia (3) HClO4 (4) Aqua-regia
42. BaCl 2
Salt A+S B white ppt. 42. A+S B
BaCl

2

A is paramagnetic In nature and contains about A


55% K
A
55% K. Thus A is :-
:-
(1) K2O (2) K2O2 (1) K2O (2) K2O2
(3) KO2 (4) K2SO4 (3) KO2 (4) K2SO4
43. Solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is 1 1011. At 43. Mg(OH)2
1 1011
pH
what pH ppt of Mg(OH) 2 will begin from 0.1 M Mg2+ Mg(OH)2
0.1 M Mg2+ solution.

(1) 9 (2) 5 (1) 9 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 7 (3) 3 (4) 7
NH2
NH2
Br2 NaNO2 C2H5OH
Br2 NaNO2 C2H5OH 44. A B C,
44. A B C FeBr3 HCl
FeBr3 HCl
0 5C
0 5C
OH
OH
Product C is :
C :
NH2 Br NH2 Br
Br Br
(1) (2) (1) (2)
OH OH

Br Br
OH OH
Br Br
(3) (4) (3) (4)
OH
OH
45. Which of the following halogen 45.
disproportionates in water ?
(1) F2 (2) Cl 2 (1) F2 (2) Cl 2
(3) I2 (4) All of these (3) I2 (4) All of these
46. Which is wrongly matched :- 46.
:-
(1) Duralumin Al + Cu + Mg + Mn (1) Duralumin Al + Cu + Mg + Mn
(2) Alnico Fe + Al + Ni + Cu (2) Alnico Fe + Al + Ni + Cu
(3) German silver Cu + Zn + Ni (3) German silver Cu + Zn + Ni
(4) Monel metal Cu + Zn + Sn (4) Monel metal Cu + Zn + Sn
47. A crystal lattice is made of alternate cations and 47.
r r
anions with radius ratio,
r
=0.524, the
=0.524
r
co-ordination number of cation is :-
:-
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 12 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 12

Take it Easy and Make it Easy


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48. Methanol is formed as product in which 48.
:
reaction: HI
(1) CH3 CH CH2 O CH3
HI
(1) CH3 CH CH2 O CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3
HI
HI (2) CH3 C O CH2 CH3
(2) CH3 C O CH2 CH3
CH3
CH3
HI
(3) CH2 = CH CH 2 O CH3 HI (3) CH2 = CH CH 2 O CH3

CH3 CH3
HI HI
(4) CH3 C CH2 O CH3 (4) CH3 C CH2 O CH3
CH3 CH3
49. Which of the following order is not correct for 49.
:-
given property :- (1) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 MP
(1) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 MP (2) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 B.P
(2) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 B.P
(3) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S B.P.
(3) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S B.P.
(4) SnH4 > GeH4 > SiH4 > CH4 B.P (4) SnH4 > GeH4 > SiH4 > CH4 B.P
50. Cinnabar is :- 50. Cinnabar :-
(1) CuS (2) Ag2S (3) ZnS (4) HgS (1) CuS (2) Ag2S (3) ZnS (4) HgS
51. The lyophilic colloid is :- 51.
:-
(1) Metal sulphide sol (2) gum (1)
(2)
(3) Ag-sol (4) None of these (3) Ag- (4)
52. Intermediate not formed in haffmann 52.
:
bromamide reaction is :
(1) R NCO (2) R CON
(1) R NCO (2) R CON
(3) R CONH Br (4) R NHCHO (3) R CONH Br (4) R NHCHO
53. Peroxide ion____ :- 53. ____ :-
(a) is diamagnetic (a)
(b) has five completely filled antibonding (b)
molecular orbitals
(c) Ne
(c) is isoelectronic with neon
(d) has bond order one (d)
(1) a,b,d (2) d,c (1) a,b,d (2) d,c
(3) a,d (4) a,b,c (3) a,d (4) a,b,c
54. 250 ml of x M solution and 500 ml of yM 54. A x M 250 ml yM
solution of a solute A are mixed and diluted to 500 ml
2
2 litre to produce a final concentration of 1.6 M.
1.6 M
If x : y = 5 : 4, calculate x and y :- x : y = 5 : 4
x y
:-
(1) x = 2.2 and y = 3.2 (1) x = 2.2 y = 3.2
(2) x = 1.94 and y = 2.8 (2) x = 1.94 y = 2.8
(3) x = 3.94 and y = 4.92 (3) x = 3.94 y = 4.92
(4) x = 4.92 and y = 3.94 (4) x = 4.92 y = 3.94

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55. In the reaction : 55.
:
FeS2 + KMnO4 + H+ Fe3+ + SO2 + Mn2+ + H2O FeS2 + KMnO4 + H+ Fe3+ + SO2 + Mn2+ + H2O
the equivalent mass of FeS2 would be equal to: FeS2
:

(1)
molar mass
(2)
molar mass


11 13 (1) (2)
11 13
molar mass

(3) molar mass (4) (3) (4)
10 10
56. Which is electrophile among the following : 56.
:

(1) R OH (2) (1) R OH (2)



(3) AlCl 3 (4) H3O (3) AlCl 3 (4) H3O
57. The forces present in crystal of Napthalene are:- 57. Napthalene
:-
(1) H-Bond (2) Vandarwall force (1) H-Bond (2) Vandarwall
(3) Back bond (4) Bridge bond (3) (4)
58. The diagram in which Aufbau principle is 58.
violated:-
(1)
(1) 2s 2p
2s 2p
(2)
(2)
2s
2s
(3) (3)
2s 2p 2s 2p

(4) (4)
2s 2p 2s 2p
59. At low pressures, van der Waal's equation is 59.
a a
written as P 2 V=RT. The P V 2 V=RT
V

compressibility factor is then equal to :
a RTV
a RTV (1) 1 (2) 1
(1) 1 (2) 1 RTV a
RTV a

a RTV a RTV
(3) 1 (4) 1 (3) 1 (4) 1
RTV a RTV a
60. Which of the following will undergoes 60.
recemisation most readily by hydrolysis :
:
(1) (CH3)3C Br (2) Ph CH Br (1) (CH 3)3C Br (2) Ph CH Br
CH3 CH3
CH3 O CH Br Br Br
(3) (4) CH3 O CH Br
CH 3 CH3 CH CH 3 (3) (4)
CH3 CH3 CH CH 3

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61. Which is the correct order of Ionisation 61.
:-
energies? (1) F > F > Cl > Cl (2) F > Cl > Cl > F
(1) F > F > Cl > Cl (2) F > Cl > Cl > F (3) F > Cl > Cl > F (4) F > Cl > F > Cl
(3) F > Cl > Cl > F (4) F > Cl > F > Cl 62. C,H O
62. An organic compound of C,H & O, contains C 1/6


hydrogen, 1/6 of carbon and 1/8 of oxygen by

1/8

mass. The molar mass of the compound is
120
1

120 gmol 1 . The molecular formula of the
compound is :-
:-
(1) C6H16O 2 (2) C4H8O4 (1) C6H16O 2 (2) C4H8O4
(3) C5H12O 3 (4) C3H6O3 (3) C5H12O 3 (4) C3H6O3

63.

Given E Ag / Ag = 0.80V, E Mg2 / Mg = 2.37V, 63.
E Ag / Ag = 0.80V,
E Mg2 / Mg = 2.37V,

E Cu 2 / Cu = 0.34V, E Hg2 / Hg = 0.79 V.
E Cu 2 / Cu = 0.34V, E Hg2 / Hg = 0.79 V.

Which of the following statements is correct (1) AgNO3
(1) AgNO3 can be stored in copper vessel (2) Mg(NO3)2
(2) Mg(NO3)2 can not be stored in copper vessel
(3) CuCl2 can be stored in silver vessel (3) CuCl2
(4) HgCl2 can be stored in copper vessel (4) HgCl2
64. An alcohol of molecular formula C4H10O gives 64. C4H10O
immediate precipitate with Lucas reagent and
KMnO4
not oxidised by KMnO4 is : :
(1) Butanol (1)
(2) Isobutanol (2)
(3) Sec. butyl alcohol (3)
(4) tert. butyl alcohol (4)
65. The second electron gain enthalpies (in KJ mol1) of 65.
e
oxygen and sulphur respectively are :- (KJ/mole)
:-
(1) 780, +590 (2) 590, +780 (1) 780, +590 (2) 590, +780
(3) +590, +780 (4) +780, +590 (3) +590, +780 (4) +780, +590
66. The occurrence of the reaction is impossible at 66.
all temperatures if :- :-
(1) H is + ve ; S is also + ve (1) H is + ve ; S is also + ve
(2) H is ve ; S is also ve (2) H is ve ; S is also ve
(3) H is ve ; S is + ve (3) H is ve ; S is + ve
(4) H is + ve ; S is ve (4) H is + ve ; S is ve
67. Correct order of Pkb among the following : 67.
Pkb :
(1) C6H5NH2 > C6H5CH2 NH2 > (C2H5)2NH (1) C6H5NH2 > C6H5CH2 NH2 > (C2H5)2NH
> C2 H5 NH2 > C2 H5 NH2
(2) C6H5 NH2 > C6H5 CH2 NH2 > C2H5 NH2 (2) C6H5 NH2 > C6H5 CH2 NH2 > C2H5 NH2
> (C2H5 )2NH > (C2H5 )2NH
(3) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5 NH2 > C6H5 CH2 NH2 (3) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5 NH2 > C6H5 CH2 NH2
> C6H5 NH2 > C6H5 NH2
(4) (C2 H5 )2NH > C6H5 CH2NH2 > C2 H5 NH2 (4) (C2 H5 )2NH > C6H5 CH2NH2 > C2 H5 NH2
> C6 H5 NH2 > C6 H5 NH2

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O O
C OH C OH
KOH CHCl3 68. NH3 KOH CHCl3
68. NH3
A B C A B C
Br2 KOH Br2 KOH

Product C is :
C :

NC NC N2Cl
N2Cl
(1) (2) (1) (2)

O O
CHO CHO
C NH2 C NH2
(3) (4) (3) (4)

69. In the isoelectronic series of metal corbonyl, 69.


CO
the CO Bond strength is expected to Increase
:-
in the order :- (1) [Mn(CO)6]+ < [Cr(CO)6] < [V(CO)6]
(1) [Mn(CO)6]+ < [Cr(CO)6] < [V(CO)6]
(2) [V(CO)6] < [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+
(2) [V(CO)6] < [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+
(3) [V(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+ < [Cr(CO)6] (3) [V(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+ < [Cr(CO)6]
(4) [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+ < [V(CO)6] (4) [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+ < [V(CO)6]
70. For reaction NO 2 + CO NO + CO 2 the 70. NO2 + CO NO + CO2
following mechanism is proposed :-
:-
Step 1 : NO2 + NO2 NO + NO3 (Slow) Step 1 : NO2 + NO2 NO + NO3 (Slow)
Step 2 : NO3 + CO NO2 + CO2 (Fast)
Kc
Step 2 : NO3 + CO
Kc
NO2 + CO2 (Fast)
The rate law for the reaction is :-
:-
(1) r = K [NO2] (1) r = K [NO2]
(2) r = K[NO2]2 (2) r = K[NO2]2
(3) r = K [NO2][CO2] (3) r = K [NO2][CO2]
(4) None of these (4)
71. Which is/are not paires of resonating 71.
:
strucutures :
O O
O O
(1) CH3 C OH CH3 C = OH
(1) CH3 C OH CH3 C = OH
O OH
O OH (2)
(2)

(3)
(3)


NH2 NH2
NH2 NH2
(4)
(4)


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72. Setzeff product will be major product in : 72.
:


OH OH

(1) N (1) N

Alc.KOH Alc.KOH
(2) Ph (2) Ph
F F


(CH 3)3C O k (CH 3)3C O k
(3) (CH 3)3C OH (3) (CH 3)3C OH
Br Br

OCOCH 3
(4) OCOCH 3 (4)

73. Which of the following pair the EAN of central 73.


EAN
metal atom is not same ?
:-
(1) [Fe(CN)6]3 & [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (1) [Fe(CN)6]3 & [Fe(NH3)6]3+
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ & [Cr(CN)6]3 (2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ & [Cr(CN)6]3
(3) [FeF6]3 & [Fe(CN)6]3 (3) [FeF6]3 & [Fe(CN)6]3
(4) [Ni(CO4)] & [Ni(CN)4]2 (4) [Ni(CO4)] & [Ni(CN)4]2
74. In the reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3, the forward 74. N2 + 3H2 2NH3
reaction is exothermic and the backward
reaction is endothermic. In order to produce

more heat it is necessary :-

:-
(1) To add ammonia
(1)
NH3
(2) To add N2 and H2 (2) N2 H2
(3) Addition of inert gas at constant volume (3)
(4) None of the above (4)
75. Arrange the following polymers in increasing 75.
order of intermolecular forces:
(1) Nylon 6,6 < Polythene < Buna-s (1)
6,6 <
<
-s
(2) Buna-s < Polythene < Nylon 6,6 (2)
-s <
<
6,6
(3) Buna-s < Nylon 6,6 < Polythene (3)
-s <
6,6 <
(4) Nylon 6,6 < Buna-s < Polythene (4)
6,6 <
-s <
76. No. of Aldehyde and ketones formed by 76. C5H10O
molecular formula C5H10 O : :
(1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 4 (1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 4


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77. Alkaline NH4Cl solution reacts with K2HgI4 77.
NH4Cl K2HgI4
(Nesseler's reagent) forming :-
(
) :-
(1) (HgNH2Cl+Hg) black (1) (HgNH2Cl+Hg) black
+1

+1
(2) Hg H brown iodine of (2) Hg H
O N I millon's base O N I
Hg H Hg H

(3) K2[OHgNH2Cl] I brown iodine of (3) K2[OHgNH2Cl] I


millon's base
(4) None of these (4)
78. For cationic hydrolysis, pH is given by - 78.
pH -
1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) pH = pk w pk a log C (1) pH = pk w pk a log C
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
(2) pH = pk w pk b log C (2) pH = pk w pk b log C
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
(3) pH = pk w pk a pk b (3) pH = pk w pk a pk b
2 2 2 2 2 2

1 1 1 1 1 1
(4) pH = pk w pk b log C (4) pH = pk w pk b log C
2 2 2 2 2 2
79. which will form benzaldehyde as major 79.
:
product:
Co+HCl
Co+HCl (1) AlCl3
(1) AlCl3

HCN + HCl
HCN + HCl (2) AlCl3
(2) AlCl3

CH3
CH3
CrO3 (CH3CO)2O
CrO3 (CH3CO)2O (3)
(3) H2O
H2O

(4) All of these (4)


+2 +
+2 +
80. Hg /H (A),
PhCCCH3
80. Hg /H (A),
PhCCCH3
(A) :
(A) is :
O Ph
O Ph Ph O
Ph O (1) (2)
(1) (2) CH3
CH3

OH
OH
Ph Ph
Ph Ph (3) (4) OH
(3) (4) OH
CH3
CH3

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81. Which of the following statements are correct 81.
for capitulum inflorescence?
(i) Most advanced type of inflorescence (i)
(ii) Florets are arranged in centrifugal order (ii)
(iii) Disc florets are unisexual female flower (iii)
(iv) Inflorescnes is covered by spathe (iv)
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (i) and (ii) (1) (i) (iv) (2) (i)
(ii)
(3) (i) (ii) and (iii) (4) Only (i) (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) (i)
82. If in a cell the amount of DNA is 2C in G2 phase 82. G2
2C
then what will be the ratio of amount of DNA
: G1
:
in metaphase : G1 phase : Anaphase ? ?
(1) 2 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 : 2 (1) 2 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 : 2
83. The retina of human eyes contains layers form 83.
outer to inner :-
(1)
(1) Sensory layer, ganglionic layer and bipolar
layer (2)
(2) Photoreceptor layer, bipolar and ganglionic
cell layer (3)
(3) Ganglionic, bipolar and photoreceptor cell
layer
(4)
(4) Optic nerve, bipolar layer and photoreceptor
cell layer

84. Most abundant element in human body is :- 84.
:-
(1) Hydrogen (2) Oxygen (1) (2)
(3) Nitrogen (4) Carbon (3) (4)
85. Identify the given diagram and select the 85.

correct option : :

(1) Epigynous flower (1)


(2) Half inferior ovary (2)
(3) Perigynous flower (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4)
(2)
(3)
86. Synaptonemal complex has a role in :- 86.
:-
(1) Chromosome pairing (1)
(2) Chromosome movement (2)
(3) Chromosome segregation (3)
(4) Chromosome breaking (4)


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87. In a 7 celled and 8 nucleate embryosac :- 87. 7
8
:-
(A) The polar nuclei are situated below the egg (A)
apparatus in central cell.
(B) Egg apparatus has two synergids and one (B)
egg cell at micropylar end.
(C) Filiform apparatus in synergid direct the
pollen tube to enter into ovule. (C)
(D) Antipodal cells are diploid but have
different genetic composition to that of egg (D)
cell.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A & B (2) A, B & D (1) A B (2) A, B D
(3) Only B (4) A, B, C & D (3) B (4) A, B, C D
88. Which of the following RNA polymerase 88.
transcribed 5s r-RNA in Eukaryotes ? 5s r-RNA
(1) RNA polymerase-I (1) RNA polymerase-I
(2) RNA polymerase-II (2) RNA polymerase-II
(3) RNA polymerase-III (3) RNA polymerase-III
(4) RNA polymerase- (4) RNA polymerase-
89. Consider the following four statements (a-d) 89.
(a-d)

and select the option which includes all the :
correct ones only : (a)
(a) Vascular cambium of dicot roots is partly
primary and partly secondary in origin (b)
(b) Heart wood becomes non-conducting
elements due to formation of tyloses. (c)
(c) Vessels of spring wood have wide lumen
(d) Cork becomes impermeable in nature due (d)
to deposition of lignin.
(1) Statements (b) (c) and (d) (1) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Statements (b) and (c) (2) (b) (c)
(3) Only Statement (b) (3) (b)
(4) Statements (a) (b) (c) (4) (a) (b) (c)
90. Select correct statement with respect to ETS in 90. ETS

mitochondria :- :-
(a) cyt c is attached to the outer surface of inner (a) cyt c
membrane
(b) Has only one mobile carrier (b)
(c) Complex III includes cyt b and cyt c1 (c) III cyt b cyt c1
(d) Complex IV has two copper centers (d) IV
Cu
Options :-
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (1) (a) (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c) are correct (2) (b) (c)
(3) Only (c) and (d) are correct (3) (c) (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a), (c)
(d)
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91. Which of the following is not a water pollinated 91.


plant ? (1) (2)
(1) Zostera (2) Vallisneria
(3) Hydrilla (4) Water lily (3) (4)
92. Factors help in the formation of new species are: 92.
(1) Competition and variations (1)
(2) Isolation and competition (2)
(3) Competition and mutation (3)
(4) Isolation and mutation (4)
93. What is common among Marchantia, Pteridium, 93.
Riccia, Funaria, Salvinia, Selaginella ?

?
(1) Independent sporophytes (1)
(2) Dependent gametophytes (2)
(3) Presence of true root, stem and leaves (3)
(4) Motile male gametes (4)
94. PGR of which of the following chemical nature, 94.
is helpful in wine production ?
?
(1) Carotenoid derivative (1)
(2) Adenine derivative (2)
(3) Indole compound (3)
(4) Terpenes (4)
95. Which of these is a condition that makes flower 95.
invariable autogamous ?
(1) Dioecy (1)
(2) Self incompatibility (2)
(3) Cleistogamy (3)
(4) Xenogamy (4)
96. The Hardy-Weinberg principle can not operate 96.
if : (1)
(1) The population is very large
(2)
(2) Frequent mutation occur in population
(3)
(3) Free interbreeding occurs among all
members of the population

(4) The population has no chance of interaction (4)
with other population
97. Which of the following group of plants, show 97.
dependent alternation of generation having
gametophyte dependent on sporophyte-
-
(1) Bryophyta (2) Pteridophyta (1) (2)
(3) Gymmosperms (4) Thallophyta (3) (4)
98. Dieback and little leaf disease are caused due 98. _____ _____
to deficiency of _____ and _____
:-
respectively:- (1) Cu, Zn (2) Zn, Si
(1) Cu, Zn (2) Zn, Si
(3) Mo, Fe (4) N, K (3) Mo, Fe (4) N, K


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99. Match the Column-I with Column-II. 99.
-I
-II
Column-I Column-II -I -II
(A) Fish (i) 3-chambered heart (A) (i) 3-
(B) Amphibia (ii) Incomplete (B) (ii)
double circulation (C) (iii) 4-
(C) Birds (iii) 4-chambered heart
(iv)
(iv) Single circulation
(v) 2-
(v) 2-chambered heart
(vi) Double circulation (vi)
(1) A(i), (ii), B(iii), (vi), C(iv), (v) (1) A(i), (ii), B(iii), (vi), C(iv), (v)
(2) A (i), (iv), B(v), (ii), C(iii), (vi) (2) A (i), (iv), B(v), (ii), C(iii), (vi)
(3) A(v), (iv), B(i), (ii), C(iii), (vi) (3) A(v), (iv), B(i), (ii), C(iii), (vi)
(4) A(iii), (ii), B(i), (iv), C(v), (vi) (4) A(iii), (ii), B(i), (iv), C(v), (vi)
100. During joint diastole :- 100.
(1) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open (1)
(2) Semilunar valves are closed (2)
(3) All the four chambers of heart are in a (3)
relaxed state.
(4) All of the above (4)
101. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by :- 101.
:-
(1) Virus (2) Fungus (1) (2)
(3) Viroids (4) Bacteria (3) (4)
102. The main region of alimentary canal in which 102.
digested food is absorbed
(1) small intestine (1)
(2) caecum and appendix (2)
(3) stomach (3)
(4) oesophagus (4)
103. Purpose of tubectomy is to :- 103.
:-
(1) Prevent the development of embryo (1)
(2) Prevent the implantation (2)
(3) Prevent the fertilization (3)
(4) Prevent the egg formation (4)
104. Which regulates reabsorption of salts from 104.
Glomerular filtrate
(1) Oxytocin (1)
(2) Vassopressin (2)
(3) Glucocorticoides (3)
(4) Aldosterone (4)
105. The abdomen in cockroach have _____ 105.
number of segments. (1) 6 (2) 10
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 8 (3) 12 (4) 8
106. The chloride shift is movement of Cl 106.
(1) From plasma to RBC (1)
RBC
(2) From WBC to plasma (2) WBC
(3) From RBC to plasma (3)
(4) From plasm to WBC (4)
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107. M.S. Swaminathan developed Sharbati Sonara 107. M.S.
variety of wheat was produced by :-
(1) x-ray (2) Gamma-ray (1) x- (2)
(3) U.V. ray (4) -ray (3) U.V. (4) -
108. Timber line is found in between :- 108. :-
(1) Pole and tundra (1)
(2) Tundra and Taiga (2)
(3) Tropical forest and desert (3)
(4) Decidous and coniferous forest (4)
109. Match column-I with column-II :- 109. -I
-II :-
Column-I Column-II -I -II
(a) Cross breeding (i) Inbreeding (a) (i)
depression (b) (ii)
(b) Interspecific (ii) Hisardale
(c) MOET (iii)
hybridisation
(d) (iv) 8-32
(c) MOET (iii) Mule

(d) Inbreeding (iv) 8-32 celled stage
(v) 6-8 celled stage (v) 6-8
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-v, d-i (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-v, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
110. The figure given below shows a small part of 110.
human lung where exchange of gases takes
place. In which one of the options given below,
A, B, C D
the one part, A, B, C or D is correctly identified
along with its function

Options : :
(1) C : arterial capillary-receive oxygen from (1) C :
lungs
(2) A : alveolar cavity-main site of transport of (2) A :
respiratory gases
(3) D : Capillary wall-exchange of O2 and CO2 (3) D :
O2
CO2
takes place here
(4) B : red blood cell-transport of CO2 mainly (4) B :
CO2
111. The majority of baculovirus used as biological 111.
control agent are in the genus of :-
(1) Nucleopolyhedro virus (1) Nucleopolyhedro virus
(2) Hepatitis B virus (2) Hepatitis B virus
(3) Tobacco mosaic virus (3) Tobacco mosaic virus
(4) Cytomegalo virus (4) Cytomegalo virus

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112. In ophrys (orchid) and bumble bee relationship, 112.
what adaptation is shown by the plant ?
(1) Pseudocopulation (2) Mimicry (1) (2)
(3) Coextinction (4) All of the above (3) (4)
113. Ctenophores are :- 113.
:-
(1) Exclusively marine (1)
(2) Radialy symetrical and diploblastic (2)
(3) Have tissue level of organisation (3)
(4) All of these (4)
114. Match column I and column II and choose 114. -I
-II

correct option from followings :- :-

Column-I Column-II
-I
-II
A H- Zone i Actinin protein A H- i
B Sarcoplasmic ii Light central area of A-band ii A-
B
Reticulum
C Z-line iii Part of meromyosin protein C Z- iii
D Cross Arm iv Store house of Ca+2 ions D iv Ca+2

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii (3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii (4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
115. The use of bioresources by multinational 115.
companies and other organization without proper
authorisation from countries and people concerned
without compensatory payment is known as :-
:-
(1) Biopiracy (2) Biopatent (1) Biopiracy (2) Biopatent
(3) Biowar (4) Biodiversity (3) Biowar (4) Biodiversity
116. Green muflur scheme is related to control of :- 116.
(1) Sound polution (1)
(2) Soil erosion (2)
(3) Water pollution (3)
(4) Radioactive pollution (4)
117. Which of the following is / are found in both 117.
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells ?
?
(A) Semi fluid matrix cytoplasm (A)
(B) Selectively permeable plasma membrane (B)
(C) 70 S ribosomes (C) 70 S
(D) Membrane bound nucleus (D)
(E) Genetic material DNA (E)
(F) Chromatophores (F)
(1) A, B, C and D (2) A, B, D and E (1) A, B, C
D (2) A, B, D
E
(3) B, D, E and F (4) A, B, C and E (3) B, D, E
F (4) A, B, C
E
Time Management is Life Management
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118. 118.

Fig (I) fp= (I)

fp= (II)
Fig (II)

dkSulk dFku vkosx lapj.k ds fy, lR; g\


S
Which statement is correct regarding conduction
of impulse :- (1) fp= (II) Hkkx B iqu%/kzqoh; voLFkk
(1) Fig. (II) site B repolarised (2) fp= (I) Hkkx A vfr/kzqoh; voLFkk
(2) Fig. (I) site A hyperpolarised
(3) fp= (II) Hkkx B vfr/kzqoh; voLFkk
(3) Fig. (II) site B hyperpolarised
(4) Fig. (I) site A depolarised (4) fp= (I) Hkkx A fo/kzqoh; voLFkk
119. Which of the following is not a ideal property 119. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d xq.k vkn'kZ laokgd Mh,u, dk ugha
of vector DNA ? gS ?
(1) Origin of replication (1) izfrfyfidj.k dk mRifk LFky
(2) Selectable marker (2) p;ukRed fpUgd
(3) Many restriction site for one restriction enzyme (3) ,d izfrca/ku ,atkbe dh ,d ls vf/kd izfrca/ku LFky
(4) One restriction site for one restriction enzyme (4) ,d izfrca/ku ,atkbe dh ,d izfrca/ku LFky
120. In "Rivet popper hypothesis" Rivet indicates :- 120. "fjosV iksij ifjdYiuk" esa fjosV n'kkZrk gS :-
(1) Ecosystem (2) Species (1) ikfjfLFkfrdh ra= (2) iztkfr
(3) Biome (4) Community (3) ck;kse (4) leq nk;
DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180 iz ' u la [;k 121 ls 180 ds fy, funs Z ' k
These questions consist of two statements each, izR;sd iz' u es a dFku rFkk dkj.k fn , x;s gSaA iz' uks a
printed as Assertion and Reason.While
dks gy djrs le; uhps fn, x, pkjks a fodYiks a es a
answering these Questions you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses. ls lgh fodYi dks pq fu,A
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the A. ;fn dFku ,oa dkj.k nks uks a lR; gaS rFkk dkj.k dFku
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason B. ;fn dFku ,oa dkj.k nksuks a lR; gaS] ys fdu dkj.k] dFku
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA
C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. C. ;fn dFku lR; gS ] ys fdu dkj.k vlR; gS A
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False. D. dFku o dkj.k nks uks a vlR; gS aA
121. Assertion :- The graph between P and Q is a 121. dFku :- tc P/Q ,d fLFkjkad g]S rks P rFkk Q ds chp
straight line, when P/Q is constant. xzkQ ,d ljy js[kk gksrh gAS
Reason :- The straight line graph means that P dkj.k :- xzkQ dk ,d ljy js[kk gksus dk vFkZ gS fd P rFkk
is proportional to Q or P is equal to constant Q lekuqikrh gS vFkok P, Q fdlh fLFkjkad ds xq.kuQy ds
multiplied by Q. cjkcj gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. Assertion : If earth shrinks to half its present 122. dFku : ;fn i`Foh fldqM+ dj vius orZeku vkdkj ls
size, length of the day would become 6 hours. vk/kh gks tk;s] rks fnu dh le;kof/k 6 ?k.Vsa gks tk;sxhA
Reason : As the size of the earth changes, its dkj.k : i`Foh dk vkdkj cnyus ij bldk tM+Ro&vk?kw.kZ
moment of inertia changes. cny tkrk gAS
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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123. Assertion :- The average speed of an object 123. :-
may be equal to arithmetic mean of individual (individual speeds)
speeds.
Reason :- Average speed is equal to total :-
distance travelled per total time taken.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. Assertion : Cars & aeroplanes are streamlined 124. :
Reason : Bernoulli's theorem hold for :
incompressible, non viscous fluids
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
125. Assertion :- The frictional force acts only when 125. :-
the bodies are in contact.
Reason :- When a bicycle is in motion, the :-
force of friction exerted by the ground on the
two wheels is always in forward direction.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion :- For monoatomic gas, the number 126. :-
3
of degrees of freedom is 3.
CP CP
Reason :- :-
CV CV
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
127. Assertion :- According to the law of conservation 127. :-
of mechanical energy change in potential energy

is equal and opposite to the change in kinetic energy.
Reason :- Mechanical energy is not a conserved :-
quantity.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion :- Snow is better insulator than 128. :-
(snow)
ice.
Reason :- Snow contains air packet and air is :- (snow)
good insulator of heat.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. Assertion :- When wheatstone bridge is 129. :-
balanced then current through cell depends on
resistance of galvanometer. :-
Reason :- At balanced condition current
through galvanometer is zero.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion :- The graph of potential energy and 130. :-
kinetic energy of a particle in SHM with respect
to position is a parabola.
Reason :- The potential energy and kinetic
:-
energy of a particle in SHM, don't vary linearly

with position.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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131. Assertion :- On going away from a point charge 131. :-
or a small electric dipole, electric field
decreases at the same rate in both cases.
Reason :- Electric field is inversely proportional :-
to the square of distance from the charge or an
electric dipole.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. Assertion :- The fundamental frequency of an 132. :-
organ pipe increases as the temperature increases.
Reason :- As the temperature increases, the :-
velocity of sound increases more rapidly than
length of the pipe.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion :- Lenz laws are consequences of 133. :-
conservation of energy.
Reason :- In a purely resistive ac circuit, the :-
current lags behind the e.m.f. in phase.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion :- A piece of paper placed at the 134. :-
position of a real image of a virtual object of
intense light will burn after sufficient time
Reason :- A virtual object is that point where :-
the incident rays appear to converge and a real
image is that point at which reflected/refracted
rays actually converge.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion :- Reduction factor (K) of a tangent 135. :-
(K)
galvanometer helps in reducing deflection to current.
Reason :- Reduction factor increases with :-
increase of current.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion :- When an objected dipped in a 136. :-
liquid is viewed normally, the distance between
the image and the object is independent of the
height of the liquid above the object.
Reason :- The normal shift is dependent of the
:-
location of the slab between the object and the

observe.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion :- A bulb connected in series with a 137. :- ac
solenoid is connected to ac source. If a soft iron
core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb will
glow brighter.
Reason :- On introducing soft iron core in the :-
solenoid, the inductance decreases.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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138. Assertion :- In the collision of electron-photon 138. :-
number of photon and number of electron must
be conserved.
Reason :- If number of photon are not conserved :-
than momentum conservation will be violated.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion :- The acceleration of a particle near 139. :-
the earth surface differs slightly from the
GM

ag =
GM R2
gravitational acceleration ag = .
R2
:-
Reason :- The earth is not a uniform sphere and
because the earth rotates.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. Assertion :- In a common emitter transistor 140. :-
amplifier the input current is much less than the
output current.
:-
Reason :- The common emitter transistor
amplifier has very high input resistance.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. Assertion :- Flourine has less negative electron 141. :- F e
Cl
affinity than chlorine.
Reason :- There is relatively greater :-
F
2p e s
effectiveness of 2p electrons in small F atom
e
Cl 3p e s
to repel the additional electron entering the e s

atom than to 3p-electrons in the larger Cl atom


(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. Assertion :- Filtration of colloidal particles is 142. :-
not possible by normal filter paper.
Reason :- Size of colloidal particles is less than :-
normal filter paper pores.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
143. Assertion :- B2 is diamagnetic. 143. :- B2
Reason :- Last filled is bonding M. O. of type. :-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D
144. Assertion :- Temperature coefficient of most 144. :-
2 3
of the reactions lies between 2 and 3
Reason :- Increase in temperature increases the :-
number of collisions.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- CoCl3.4NH3 gives two ions when 145. :- CoCl3.4NH3
ionised .
Reason :- Complex is [Co(NH3)4]Cl 3. :- [Co(NH3)4]Cl3
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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146. Assertion : An aqueous solution of NH4 Br is 146. :- NH4Br
acidic in character.
Reason : NH4Br in aqeuous solution undergoes :- NH4Br,
cationic hydrolysis.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. Assertion :- The mobility of sodium ion is lower 147. :-
than that of potassium ion in aqueos medium.
Reason :- The ionic mobilities depend on the :-
effective radius of the ion.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion : Heat of neutralization of HF(aq). 148. :-
HF(aq) NaOH(aq)
(weak acid) with NaOH(aq.) is less than
13.7Kcal, in an exothermic reaction. 13.7Kcal
Reason : Some heat is lost in the ionisation of :-
a weak acid.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. Assertion :- Poling involves reduction of metal 149. :-
oxides to metal.
Reason :- Green poles of wood release :-
hydrocrabon gases to act as reducing agent.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion :- Pyroll is more basic than pyridene 150. :-
Reason :- In pyridene lone pairs are involved :-
in resonance.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- BF3 is weaker lewis acid than BCl3 151. :- BF3
BCl3
Reason :- In BF 3 effective BF bonding is :- BF3
BF

BCl3
present in comparison to BCl3.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- Toluene reacts with Cl2 in presence 152. :- Cl

2

of sunlight and forms benzyl chloride.
Reason :- Toluene is o/p directing group due :- H-
o/p
to H-effect.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- F 2 is strongest oxidising agent. 153. :- F2
Reason :- F 2 has maximum pp repulsion :-
F2
pp
among halogen.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- Acetic acid is more acidic than phenol 154. :-
Reason :- Acetic acid forms equivalent :-
resonating structures
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- Electrolysis of molten calcium 155. :-
hydride produces hydrogen gas at anode.
Reason :- Hydrogen in calcium hydride is :-
H



present as H ion.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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156. Assertion :- Chlorobenzene on nitration gives 156. :-
o/p
o/p nitrochlorobenzene.
Reason :- Chlorine is o/p directing group :-
o/p
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. Assertion :- Benzene-toluene mixture forms 157. :-
ideal solution at low concentrations.
Reason :- Components with similar structure :-
forms generally ideal solution.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion :- Tert. butyl bromide reacts with 158. :-
sodium ethoxide to form ether as major product.
Reason :- Williamson ether reaction follows :-
SN2
SN2 mechanism
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. Assertion :- Solids having more F-centers have 159. :- F-
intense colour.
Reason :- Excess of Na+ in NaCl solid having :- F-
NaCl
Na+
F-centers make it appears to blue
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
160. Assertion :- Benzene when reacts with excess 160. :-
Cl2/FeCl3
of FeCl3 forms Benzene hexachloride
Reason :- Reaction is electrophilic substitution :-
reaction.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion :- Potato is modified underground stem. 161. :-
Reason :- Potato tuber act as organ of perennation. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- Pollen grains can be preserved for 162. :-
long time.
Reason :- Exine of pollen grain is made up of :-
sporopollenin.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- Cross fertilization found in fern. 163. :-
Reason :- Fern prothallus is monoecious with :-
protandrous.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164. Assertion :- Most common type of ovule is 164. :-
anatropous.
Reason :- Anatropous ovule is horse-shoe :-
shaped.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
165. Assertion :- Bone have a hard and non pliable 165. :-
ground substances.
Reason :- Calcium and Collagen fibre provides :-
strength to bone.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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166. Assertion :- The menstrual flow results due to 166. :-
breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus
and its blood vessels.
Reason :- Rapid fall in the level of progesteron :-
()
takes place due to degeneration of corpus luteum.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- Presence of compartmentalisation 167. :-
(compartmentalisation)
in cells is an advance character.
Reason :- Compartmentalisation of cell :-
enhances the functional efficiency of the cell.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
168. Assertion :- In Humans sperm is responsible for 168. :-
sex of child.
Reason :- Male heterogamy is seen in Humans. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Polytene chromosome has high 169. :-
amount of DNA.
Reason :- Polytene chromosome is formed by :-
repeated replication of chromosomal DNA
without separation of chromatids.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- One pair of chromosomes segregates 170. :-
independently of another pair of chromosomes.
Reason :- During meiosis, the two chromosome :-
pair can align at metaphase plate independently
of each other.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- At higher light intensities, gradually the 171. :-
photosynthetic rate does not show further increase.
Reason :- At this point factors other than light :-
become limiting factors.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- The plane of one base pair stacks 172. :-
over the other in double helix.
Reason :- The presence of thymine at place of :-
uracil also confers additional stability to DNA
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. Assertion :- NADH(H+) is oxidised to NAD+ 173. :-
NADH(H + ) NAD +
rather slowly in fermentation.
Reason :- O2 removes hydrogen in the end of :-
O2
fermentation.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- Stabilizing natural selection 174. :-
favours normal phenotype.
Reason :- In stabilizing natural selection peak :-
of curve gets higher.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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175. Assertion :- Many tube like glands are presesnt 175. :-
in the wall of small intestine
Reason :- These glands secrete enzymes :-
D.N.Ase
R.N.Ase
D.N.Ase and R.N.Ase into the intestinal juice
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- Natural passive acquired immunity 176. :-
is provided by colostrum.
Reason :- IgM is the first antibody transfered :- IgM
from mother to fetus during Intrauterine life.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. Assertion :- An increase in glomerular blood 177. :-
JG cells
pressure can activate the JG cells of kidney to
release renin. :-
- I
Reason :- Angiotensin I is a powerful vaso
constrictor.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- Cuscuta is an example of holoparasite. 178. :-
Reason :- It does not depend on other plants :-
for nutrition requirement.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- Our body secretes adrenaline in 179. :-
intense cold ?
Reason :- Adrenaline raises metabolic rate. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
180. Assertion :- Kangaroo rat can live without 180. :-
drinking water. :-
Reason :- It effectively utilizes metabolic water
and concentrated its urine.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
181. NITI in NITI Aayog stands for 181.
NITI
(1) National Initiative for Transforming India (1) National Initiative for Transforming India
(2) New Indian Thinking Initiative (2) New Indian Thinking Initiative
(3) New Initiative for Transforming India (3) New Initiative for Transforming India
(4) National Institution for Transforming India (4) National Institution for Transforming India
182. The Ashok Stambh of which place has been 182.
adopted as the National Emblem of India?
(1) Sanchi (1)
(2) Vaishali (2)
(3) Allahabad (3)
(4) Sarnath (4)
183. The death anniversary day of Rajiv Gandhi is 183.
observed as
(1) Secular Day (1)
(2) AntiTerrorism Day (2)
(3) National Integration Day (3)
(4) Peace Day (4)

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184. 'ECOMARK' is given to Indian products that are 184.
(1) Pure and Unadulterated (1)
(2) Rich in Protein (2)
(3) Economically viable (3)
(4) Environment Friendly (4)
185. What is the name of the mascot of The FIFA 185.
2017
17
U17 World Cup India 2017?
(1) Fuleco (2) Kheleo (1) (2)
(3) Zakumi (4) Zabivaka (3) (4)
186. Epigraphy means :- 186.
(1) the study of coins (1)
(2) the study of inscriptions (2)
(3) the study of epics (3)
(4) the study of geography (4)
187. Which monument in India is the memorial to 187.
the unknown soldier ?
(1) Gateway of India (2) India Gate (1) (2)
(3) Shakti Sthal (4) Veer Bhumi (3) (4)
188. Which one of the following is a land-locked state? 188.
(1) Odisha (2) Gujarat (1) (2)
(3) West Bengal (4) Jharkhand (3) (4)
189. Which one of the following is not a harvest festival 189.
of India ?
(1) Thaipusam (2) Pongal (1) (2)
(3) Lohri (4) Onam (3) (4)
190. Which city is declared as the second capital of 190.
Himachal Pradesh ?
(1) Manali (2) Shimla (1) (2)
(3) Dharamsala (4) Kasauli (3) (4)
191. Jnanpith award for the year 2016 was given to 191.
2016
whom ?
(1) Shankha Ghosh (1)
(2) Mahashweta Devi (2)
(3) Kedarnath Singh (3)
(4) Pratibha Ray (4)
192. Which airport became the first in Asia-Pacific 192.
region to attain carbon neutral status ?
(1) Veer Savarkar International Airport (1)
(2) Indira Gandhi International Airport (2)
(3) Kempegowda International Airport (3)
(4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport (4)

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193. What is the theme of 2017 World Cancer day? 193. 2017
(1) Cancer-Did you know ? (1)
(2) We can I can (2)
(3) Together it is possible (3)
(4) Debunk the myths (4)
194. Who has become the first Indian female singer 194.
to collaborate with United Nations for women
empowerment ?
(1) Shreya Ghoshal (2) Neeti Mohan (1) (2)
(3) Palak Muchhal (4) Reena Bhardwaj (3) (4)
195. The Union Government will launch which 195.
platform to leverage Information Technology?
(1) Swayam (2) Samarth (1) (2)
(3) Sandesh (4) Sangharsh (3) (4)
196. Select the missing number from the given 196.
alternatives ?

? 2
2 3
?
3 27
4
27 8
4
8
(1) 45 (2) 49
(1) 45 (2) 49 (3) 56 (4) 64 (3) 56 (4) 64
197. A father is 5 times as old as his son. His son 197.
5
is 6 years old. After how many years, will the 6

father be 4 times as old as his son ? 4
(1) 2 years (2) 4 years (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 5 years (4) 6 years (3) 5 (4) 6
198. If 'CAT' and 'BOAT' are written as 'XZG' and 198. 'CAT' 'BOAT'
'XZG'
'YLZG' in a code language, how is 'EGG' to be 'YLZG'
'EGG'
written in the same language ?
(1) UTT (2) VTT (1) UTT (2) VTT
(3) URR (4) VSS (3) URR (4) VSS
199. Flight to Delhi leaves every 5 hours from 199.
5
(
)
Mumbai. At the information counter I have
been told that the flight took off 25 minutes 25
before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m. What is 10 : 45 a.m.
the time for the next flight ?
(1) 2 : 20 a.m. (2) 3 : 20 p.m. (1) 2 : 20 a.m. (2) 3 : 20 p.m.
(3) 3 : 30 a.m. (4) 3 : 45 p.m. (3) 3 : 30 a.m. (4) 3 : 45 p.m.
200. Select the one which is different from the other 200.
three alternatives :-
(1) Ornithology : Birds (1)
:
(2) Phycology : Algae (2)
:
(3) Mycology : Fungi (3)
:
(4) Entomology : Fossils (4)
:

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

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