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7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER

Chapter 1: Introductory Topics

1. Which part of the sinewave expression 7. An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p
cannot be varied in accordance with the low- of desired signal mixed in with 45 Vrms of
frequency intelligence to create a modulated undesired noise. The load impedance is 50.
signal? What is the amplifier's output S/N level in dB?
a. Phase a. 22.9 dB
b. Frequency b. 54.9 dB
c. Time c. 45.9 dB
d. Amplitude d. 51.9 dB

2. Communication systems are most often 8. Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a
categorized by what characteristic? greater bandwidth than a 2-kHz sinewave?
a. Modulation frequency a. The square wave has a larger frequency
b. Carrier frequency than the sinewave.
c. Transmission distance b. The square wave has an infinite
d. Information transmitted number of harmonics, whereas the
sinewave has only one.
3. Voltage gain in decibels is c. The square wave is much easier to cover
a. 10 ln (V2/V1) by noise.
b. 10 log (V2/V1) d. The square wave must also include an
c. 20 ln (V2/V1) offset (dc) voltage, whereas the sinewave
d. 20 log (V2/V1) does not.

4. Which expression indicates a measurement 9. The relationship between information and

using a 1-W reference bandwidth is called
a. dBm(1) a. Information theory
b. dB1 b. Fourier analysis
c. dBW c. FFT
d. dB(W) d. Hartley's law

5. An amplifier operating over a 2-Mhz 10. Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring
bandwidth has a 75 input resistance. If it is when
operating at 22 C and has a voltage gain of a. The input frequency exceeds the
300, the noise produced at the output of this sample rate.
amplifier would be approximately b. The bandwidth is less than the input
a. 128 V frequency.
b. 7.33 pV c. The type of modulation has been
c. 1.56 V incorrectly identified.
d. 468 V d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly
6. Which of the following is not an example of
external noise
a. Fluorescent light
b. Solar emission
c. Resistor noise
d. Lightning
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 1: Introductory Topics

11. Which of the following does not hold true

for a parallel resonant circuit?
a. At the resonant frequency the
impedance of the circuit is a
b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the
same as it would be if it were a series.
c. It is commonly referred to as a tank
d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit
draws minimum current from the
constant-voltage source.

12. The oscillator design that uses a third

capacitor in the tank circuit for swamping out
the effect of the transistor's internal
capacitances is the
a. Hartley design
b. Clapp design
c. Colpitts design
d. Crystal design

13. The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its

resonant frequency is due to
a. The flywheel effect
b. Barkhausen criteria
c. The piezoelectric effect
d. Frequency synthesis

14. The Barkhausen criteria has to do with

a. Receiver noise
b. Fourier analysis
c. Oscillation
d. Troubleshooting

15. Which of the following can be called a

troubleshooting plan?
a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stages
b. Signal tracing and signal injection
c. Voltage and resistance measure
d. Substitution
e. All the above
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 2: Amplitude Modulation

1. In a modulated system, the low-frequency 7. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier

intelligence signal is not called the transmits 1188 W when modulated with a
a. Modulating signal single sinewave. If the carrier is simultaneously
b. Information signal modulated with another sinewave at 60%
c. Modulating wave modulation, calculate the total transmitted
d. Carrier power.
a. 1084 W
2. A 7.0-Mhz carrier is modulated by a voice b. 1170 W
signal that has three frequency components of c. 1350 W
100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz. What three d. 1224 W
frequencies comprise the lower sideband?
a. 6.9997 Mhz, 6.9998 Mhz, and 6.9999 8. Low-level modulation is
Mhz a. The most economic approach for low-
b. 100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz power transmitters.
c. 6.9999 Mhz, 7.0000 Mhz, and 7.0001 b. Characterized by the use of "linear"
Mhz power amplifiers to amplify the AM
d. 7.0001 Mhz, 7.0002 Mhz, and 7.0003 signal.
Mhz c. Characterized by having the carrier and
the intelligence signals mix at low power
3. The total output power of an AM transmitter levels
is measured to be 850 W. What is the total d. All the above.
output sideband power if it has a percent
modulation of 100%? 9. The main advantage of a high-level
a. 425 W modulation system compared to a low-level
b. 850 W system is that it
c. 283.3 W a. Allows more efficient amplification.
d. 141.65 W b. Allows use of low-powered intelligence
4. A 100-kHz carrier is modulated by a 20-Hz c. Provides higher modulation percentage.
2kHz signal. The upper sideband is d. Is more economical.
a. 102 kHz
b. 100.02 kHz to 102 kHz 10. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier
c. 101 kHz stage in a transmitter?
d. 100.002 kHz to 102 kHz a. It prevents transmitters from producing
spurious frequencies in the output
5. One full revolution of a phasor generates signals.
which percentage of a full sinewave? b. It provides power amplification with high
a. 25% efficiency.
b. 50% c. Its high input impedance prevents
c. 100% oscillators from drifting off frequency.
d. 200% d. It amplifies audio frequencies before
modulation occurs.
6. An AM waveform at maximum is 100 V p-p
and at minimum is 40 V p-p. The modulation
percentage is
a. 250%
b. 40%
c. 25%
d. 37.5%
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 2: Amplitude Modulation

11. The purpose of an antenna coupler is to

a. Match the output impedance of the
transmitter with the antenna's
impedance to provide maximum power
b. Allow the transmitter to be connected to
several antennas at the same time.
c. Filter out the carrier frequency from the
transmitter's AM output signal.
d. Cause the transmitter to operate at more
than one carrier frequency at the same

12. The main reason for using a dummy

antenna is to
a. Prevent damage to output circuits.
b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna.
c. Prevent overmodulation.
d. Prevent undesired transmissions.

13. A spectrum analyzer is

a. An instrument that displays amplitude
versus frequency on a CRT.
b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's
output signal is free from any spurious
c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver
with broad frequency range.
d. All the above.

14. The strategy for repair of electronic

equipment includes the following.
a. Verify that a problem exists.
b. Isolate the defective stage.
c. Isolate the defective component.
d. Replace the defective component and
hot check.
e. All the above.

15. A technique that helps you understand how

a carrier and sideband combine to form the AM
waveform is
a. The tangential method.
b. Phasor representation.
c. Keying.
d. None of the above.
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation

1. The main problem with the TRF design is 6. The image frequency for a standard
a. Lack of selectivity in receiving all AM broadcast receiver using a 455-kHz IF and
stations tuned to a station at 680 kHz would be
b. Poor demodulation of an AM station a. 1135 kHz
c. Frustration in tuning to receive more b. 225 kHz
than one station c. 1590 kHz
d. Lack of sensitivity in receiving all AM d. 1815 kHz

2. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its 7. Double conversion is used to overcome the
ability to problem of
a. Withstand shock a. Image frequency
b. Receive one station versus another b. Tracking
c. Receive weak stations c. Diagonal clipping
d. All the above d. Poor sensitivity

3. When the input to an ideal nonlinear device 8. An auxiliary AGC diode

is an AM waveform consisting of a carrier and a. Reduces selectivity
its sidebands, the output of nonlinear mixing b. Increases sensitivity
produces the original intelligence because c. Decreases sensitivity
a. The intelligence signal is one of its d. All the above
b. A dc component is also produced. 9. Which of the following would occur in a
c. The difference between the carrier and receiver not having AGC?
its sidebands is the original a. The speaker output level would
intelligence frequency. drastically change while tuning from a
d. The intelligence frequencies are the weak signal to a strong signal.
upper and the lower sideband b. Local stations would easily produce
frequencies. distorted signals in the speaker.
c. There would be a constant need to
4. An AM signal having a carrier frequency of readjust the volume control as the
940 kHz is to be mixed with a local oscillator weather and ionosphere change.
output signal in order to produce an d. All the above
intermediate frequency of 455 kHz. At what
should the L.O. frequency be set? 10. The only roadblock to having a complete
a. 455 kHz receiver manufactured on an integrated circuit
b. 1395 kHz is
c. 910 kHz a. Tuned circuits and volume controls
d. 1850 kHz b. Cost
c. Phase-locked loops
5. Diodes that have been specially fabricated to d. Ceramic filters
produce a capacitance that varies inversely
proportional to the amount of reverse bias are 11. The decibel difference between the largest
called tolerable receiver input signal and its sensitivity
a. Varactor diodes is called
b. Varicap diodes a. The decibel power gain of the receiver
c. VVC diodes b. Automatic gain control (AGC)
d. All the above c. The dynamic range of the receiver
d. The IF amplifier gain
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation

12. The simplest AM detector is the

a. Synchronous detector
b. Product detector
c. Heterodyne detector
d. Diode detector

13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is

accomplished using a
a. Trimmer capacitor
b. Padder capacitor
c. Varicap diode
d. a and b
e. All the above

14. If no stations are picked up on the lower

half of the AM band, the likely problem is
a. Low RF gain
b. Poor AGC operation
c. IF selectivity
d. LO tracking

15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the

most likely problem area is the
a. Power supply
b. RF section
c. Audio amplifier
d. AGC diode
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 4: Single Sideband Communications

1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 7. Another term for ripple amplitude for a
V p-p into a 50 load results in a PEP rating of ceramic filter is
a. 200 W a. The shape factor
b. 50 W b. The peak-to-valley ratio
c. 100 W c. The insertion loss
d. 800 W d. The quality factor

2. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard 8. Which of the following is not an advantage of
SSB system. the phase method over the filter method in
a. Maximum signal range with minimum producing SSB?
transmitted power a. The design of the 90 phase-shift
b. Easy carrier reinsertion network for the intelligence
c. Elimination of carrier interference frequencies is simple.
d. a and c b. Lower intelligence frequencies can be
economically used, because a high-Q
3. The noise advantage of SSB over AM is filter is not necessary.
a. 35 dB c. Intermediate balanced modulators are
b. 57 dB not necessary, because high-Q filters are
c. 810 dB not needed.
d. 1012 dB d. It is easier to switch from one sideband
to the other.
4. What is the difference between a balanced
modulator and a regular modulator? 9. Once an SSB signal has been generated, it
a. There is no carrier produced in the must be amplified by
output of a balanced modulator. a. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve
b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180 bandwidth
phase shift between the upper and lower b. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve energy
sidebands. c. A linear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
c. In a balanced modulator, only one d. A linear amplifier to avoid distortion
sideband is produced.
d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of 10. The advantages provided by carrier
the sidebands are suppressed. elimination in SSB do not apply to transmission
5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier a. Code
suppression is accomplished by b. Music
a. A dual-gate FET having symmetry c. Noise
b. Center-tapped transformers causing d. All the above
canceling magnetic fields
c. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are 11. Provide the approximate "outside-of-
used passband" attenuation of a Butterworth filter.
d. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages a. 3-dB slope per octave
b. 3-dB slope per decade
6. Which cannot be used successfully to c. 6-dB slope per octave
convert DSB-SC to SSB? d. 6-dB slope per decade
a. Crystal filter
b. Ceramic filter
c. Mechanical filter
d. Tank circuit
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 4: Single Sideband Communications

12. An SSB receiver recreates the original

intelligence signal by
a. Mixing the USB with LSB signals and
filtering out the resulting different
b. Filtering out the difference between
either sideband and the internally
generated carrier signal
c. Filtering out the harmonics of the
received sideband signal frequencies
d. Amplifying the dc term produced by
mixing action

13. Common types of balanced modulators

a. Ring modulator
b. Phase modulator
c. Lattice modulator
d. All the above

14. Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an

SSB transmitter's balanced modulator if it
exhibits carrier leakthrough.
a. Trapezoidal wave
b. Sinewave
c. FM wave
d. AM wave

15. The two-tone test is used to

a. Test carrier suppression
b. Test filter ripple
c. Test amplifier linearity
d. None of the above
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 5: Frequency Modulation

1. Angle modulation includes the following 7. Carson's rule is used to approximate the
types of modulation: necessary
a. FM a. Frequency deviation
b. PM b. Bandwidth
c. AM c. Capture ratio
d. All the above d. Modulation index
e. a and b
8. An FM transmitter has an output power of
2. The amount of frequency increase and 500 W when it is not modulated. When
decrease around the center frequency in an FM intelligence is added, its modulation index is
signal is called the 2.0. What is its output power with a modulation
a. Index of modulation index of 2.0?
b. Frequency deviation a. 250 W
c. Phase deviation b. 500 W
d. Bandwidth of the FM signal c. 1000 W
d. 2000 W
3. The amount of frequency deviation is
dependent on the intelligence frequency in 9. Another way to describe the modulation
a. An FM signal index is using the
b. A PM signal a. Deviation ratio
c. Both FM and PM signals b. Deviation constant
d. Neither FM nor PM signals c. Capture ratio
d. Maximum deviation
4. An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of
2 kHz and a maximum deviation of 10 kHz. If 10. The inherent ability of FM to minimize the
its carrier frequency is set at 162.4 Mhz, what effect of undesired signals operating at the
is its index of modulation? same or nearly the same frequency as the
a. 10 desired station is known as the
b. 5 a. Capture effect
c. 2 b. Signal-to-noise ratio
d. 20 c. Noise figure
d. Bessel function
5. The amount an FM carrier frequency deviates
for a given modulating input voltage level is 11. In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal
called the having a center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and a
a. Frequency deviation deviation of 69 Hz is passed through four
cascaded frequency multiplier stages: two
b. Index of modulation
triplers, one doubler, and one quadrupler. What
c. Deviation constant type of signal appears at the output of the last
d. Deviation ratio multiplier stage?
a. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and
6. Standard FM broadcast stations use a
deviation of 4.96 kHz
maximum bandwidth of
b. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz
a. 150 kHz
b. 200 kHz and deviation of 4.96 kHz
c. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and
c. 75 kHz
deviation of 69 Hz
d. 15 kHz
d. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and
deviation of 69 Hz
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 5: Frequency Modulation

12. The circuitry used to increase the operating

frequency of a transmitter up to a specified
value is called the
a. Multiplier
b. Expander
c. Pump chain
d. All the above

13. The purpose of the matrix network in a

stereo FM broadcast transmitter is to
a. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the
L R audio
b. Convert the L and R channels to L
+ R and L R channels
c. Separate the left channel from the
right channel
d. Modulate the L + R and L R signals
with the carrier signal

14. An FM signal has an intelligence frequency

of 5 kHz and a maximum deviation of 25 kHz.
Its index of modulation is
a. 125
b. 0.2
c. 5
d. 6

15. Frequency multipliers

a. Are used to multiply the frequency of
the carrier signal of an FM signal
b. Consist of a class C amplifier followed
by a tank circuit that filters out a
single harmonic
c. Are used to multiply the frequency
deviation of an FM signal
d. All the above
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 6: Frequency Modulation Reception

1. A difference between AM and FM receiver 6. Local oscillator reradiation refers to radiation

block diagrams is that the FM version includes through the
a a. Receiver's wiring
a. Limiter b. IF transformer
b. Discriminator c. Antenna
c. Deemphasis network d. All the above
d. All the above
7. Which is not one of the three stages in which
2. An FM receiver rarely works satisfactorily a PLL can be operated?
without an RF amplifier because a. Free-running
a. FM receivers typically work with b. Capture
smaller input signal levels due to c. Locked/tracking
thei noise characteristics d. Searching
b. FM receivers have a narrower
bandwidth. 8. A PLL is set up so that its VCO free-runs at
c. FM receivers do not have very much 8.9 Mhz. The VCO does not change frequency
unless its input is within 75 kHz of 8.9 Mhz.
gain in their IF amplifier stages.
After it does lock, the input frequency can be
d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages adjusted within 120 kHz of 8.9 Mhz without
to be able to decode stereo signals. having the PLL start to free-run again. The
capture range of the PLL is
3. A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain
a. 75 kHz
of 113 dB prior to its limiter. The limiter's
b. 120 kHz
quieting voltage is 400 mV. Its sensitivity is
approximately c. 150 kHz
a. 2.0 V d. 240 kHz
b. 0.1 V
9. Slope detection is seldom used due to
c. 0.9 V
a. Nonlinearity
d. 0.7 V
b. Attenuation
4 .The use of dual-gate MOSFETs in RF c. Complexity
amplifier stages d. All the above
a. Offers increased dynamic range
10. In an FM stereo receiver, what is the
over those of JFETs
purpose of the 2353-kHz filter?
b. Produces higher-frequency responses
a. To filter out the SCA signal at the
than do JFETs
output of the discriminator
c. Produces higher values of voltage
b. To filter out the L R signal at the
gain than do JFETs
output of the discriminator
d. Is not compatible with AGC
c. To filter out the L + R signal at the
5. The Foster-Seely detector design is superior output of the discriminator
to the ratio detector in that it d. To produce separate L and R signals
a. Does not respond to any undesired from the L + R and L signals
amplitude variations
b. Also provides an output AGC signal
c. Offers superior linear response to
wideband FM deviations
d. Does not need a limiter stage
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 6: Frequency Modulation Reception

11. A dual audio amplifier is rated to provide 65

dB of channel separation. If the right channel
has 4 W of output power, how much of this
power could be due to the left channel
a. 4W
b. 79 nW
c. 1.26 W
d. 2.25 mW

12. The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the

a. Range of frequencies in which it
will remain locked
b. Allowable range of dc voltage
c. Allowable range of ac input voltage
d. Satisfactory range of operating

13. The input signal into a PLL is at the

a. VCO
b. Low-pass filter
c. Comparator
d. Phase detector

14. The square-law relationship of the FETs

input versus output
a. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM
b. Provides improved noise performance
c. Reduces shot noise
d. Minimizes cross-modulation

15. When troubleshooting a stereo

demodulator, the input signal should be abouto
a. 10 Vrms
b. 100 Vrms
c. 1 mV rms
d. 100 mV rms
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 7: Communication Technique

1. Why are image frequencies somewhat less of 6. Up-conversion offers the following
a problem in FM receivers than they are in SSB advantage(s):
or AM receivers? a. Less expensive filters
a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does b. Good image-frequency rejection
FM. c. Minimized tuning range for the LO
b. FM signals have a capture effect d. b and c
c. FM mixer stages are square-law 7. The range over which the input to a receiver
devices. or amplifier provides a usable output is called
d. FM receivers do not use the the
superheterodyne design. a. Level of acceptability
b. Dynamic range
2. The tuned circuits prior to the mixer in a c. Degree of usefulness
superheterodyne receiver are called the a. d.Specified input
a. Front end
b. Tuner 8. A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5
c. Preselector Mhz bandwidth, a 6-dBm third intercept point,
and a 3-dB signal-to-noise ratio. Its sensitivity
d. All the above
3. The signal-strength meter that shows the a. 94 dB
relative signal-strength level is called the b. 82.2 dB
________. c. 79.2 dB
a. S meter d. 81 dB
b. Signal meter
9. Two-modulus dividers are used in the
c. Strength meter synthesis of frequencies into the VHF band due
d. All the above to
a. Its ability to work at practical power
4. An AM broadcast receiver has two identical
tuned circuits with a Q of 50 prior to the IF
stage. The IF frequency is 460 kHz and the b. Its ability to work at practical speeds
receiver is tuned to a station on 550 kHz. The c. The insufficient speed and power of
image-frequency rejection is the basic programmable divider
a. 41 dB designs
b. 36.2 dB d. All the above
c. 72.4 dB
d. 82 dB 10. The disadvantage of direct digital
synthesizers (DDS) over analog frequency
5. An AGC that causes a step reduction in synthesizers is
receiver gain at some arbitrarily high value of a. Its complexity and cost
received signal in order to prevent overloading b. Its limited maximum output
the receiver is known as frequency
a. Arbitrary AGC c. Its higher phase noise
b. Auxiliary AGC d. All the above
c. Delayed AGC
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 7: Communication Technique

11. The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of

a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM
and SSB modulation modes
b. A VHF commercial transceiver
using the FM modulation mode and
a channel guard unction
c. A military transceiver using all modes
on HF frequencies
d. A cellular telephone transceiver

12. The type of radio transmission that uses

pseudorandomly switched frequency or time
transmissions is known as
a. Synthesizing
b. Facsimile
c. Spread spectrum
d. Compression

13. The acronym CDMA refers to ________.

a. Carrier-division multiple-access
b. Capture-division multiple-access
c. Code-division multiple-access
d. Channel-division multiple-access

14. A typical problem encountered when

troubleshooting a frequency synthesizer is
a. A small frequency error
b. A large frequency error
c. No output
d. All the above

15. A transceiver is
a. A transmitter that can be tuned to
several bands of frequencies
b. A transmitter that transmits digital
c. A receiver that receives digital data
d. A transmitter and receiver in a
single package
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 8: Digital Communication: Coding

1. The advantage(s) of digital and/or data 7. With respect to converter circuits

communications over analog include a. DACs include an ADC
a. Noise performance b. ADCs include a DAC
b. Regeneration c. DACs and ADCs are virtually identical
c. Digital signal processing d. All the above.
d. All the above
8. The type of modulation that uses sampling
2. In a S/H circuit, the time that it must hold on one of the parameters of the transmitted and
the sampled voltage is received signal is known as
a. Aperture time a. Phase modulation
b. Acquisition time b. Pulse modulation
c. Flat-top time c. Amplitude modulation
d. Dmin d. Frequency modulation

3. Error signals associated with the sampling 9. An alphanumeric code for representing the
process are called decimal values from 0 to 9 that is based on the
a. Foldover distortion relationship that only one bit in a binary word
b. Aliasing changes for each binary step is known as
c. Nyquist rate a. ASCII
d. a and b b. EBCDIC
c. Baudot code
4. Which of the following is not a common RZ d. Gray code
a. RZ-unipolar 10. The quantizing error of PCM systems for
b. RZ-bipolar weak signals can be made less significant by
c. RZ-M a. Companding
d. RZ-AMI b. Using time-division multiplexing
c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
5. In an asynchronous data system d. Filtering out the alias frequency
a. Both sender and receiver are exactly
synchronized to the same clock 11. When the message and the BCC are
frequency. transmitted as separate parts within the same
b. Each computer word is preceded by a transmitted code, it is called a(n)
start bit and followed by a stop bit to a. Systematic code
frame the word. b. CRC
c. The receiver derives its clock signal from c. (n,k) cyclic code
the received data stream. d. Interleaved code
d. All the above.
12. The value left in the CRC dividing circuit
6. A CD audio laser-disk system has a after all data have been shifted in is the
frequency bandwidth of 20 Hz to 20 kHz. The a. Quantile interval
minimum sample rate to satisfy the Nyquist b. Codec
criteria is c. BCC
a. 20 Hz d. Syndrome
b. 20 kHz
c. 40 Hz
d. 40 kHz
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 8: Digital Communication: Coding

13. Which of the following is not an example of

code error detection and correction in a data
communication channel?
a. Parity
b. Frequency-shift keying
c. Block-check character
d. Hamming code

14. Error-correcting techniques that allow for

correction at the receiver are called
a. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC)
b. Block-check characters (BCC)
c. Forward error correcting (FEC)
d. Parity

15. Codes producing random data that closely

resemble digital noise are
a. Systematic codes
b. PN codes
c. Pseudonoise codes
d. b and c
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 9: Digital Communications

1. Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed 7. Half-duplex operation involves

received data bits that provide information on communication
noise, jitter, and linearity is called a(n) a. In one direction only
a. Constellation pattern b. In both directions, but only one can
b. Loopback talk at a time
c. Statistical Concentration c. Where both parties can talk at the same
d. Eye pattern time
d. All the above
2. Why isn't Morse code well suited to today's
telegraphic equipment? 8. A procedure that decides which device has
a. It uses an automatic request for permission to transmit at a given time is called
repetition. a. Line control
b. It has excessive redundancy built into b. Protocol
the code. c. Flow control
c. The parity bit is difficult to detect. d. Sequence control
d. Differing between various widths of
the pulses is an extremely 9. The technique that uses the BPSK vector
complicated process. relationship to generate an output with logical
0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase
3. A special digital modulation technique that of two successive data bits is
achieves high data rates in limited-bandwidth a. CSU/DSU
channels is called b. TDM
a. Delta modulation c. CVSD
b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM) d. DPSK
c. Quadrature amplitude modulation
(QAM) 10. Using radio to transmit gathered data on
d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) some particular phenomenon without the
presence of human monitors is known as
4. FSK systems are much superior to two-tone a. Radio teletype
amplitude-modulation systems with respect to b. Radio multiplexing
a. Noise performance c. Radio facsimile
b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel d. Radio telemetry
c. Ionospheric fading characteristics
d. Power consumption 11. The bit error rate is
a. The number of bit errors that occur for a
5. Which is not a type of pulse modulation? given number of bits transmitted
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) b. The most common method of referring to
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM) the quality of a digital communication
c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) system
d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM) c. Virtually the same as the error
6. PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems d. All the above
a. Noise characteristics
b. Bandwidth characteristics
c. Simplicity in design
d. Frequency response of the intelligence
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 9: Digital Communications

12. The major difficulty faced by delta

modulators is
a. Excessive noise producing errors
b. Slope overload
c. Insufficient frequency response of the
intelligence signal
d. Complexity of design

13. The capacity of a telephone channel that

has an S/N of 2047 if its bandwidth is 3.5 kHz
a. 30,000 bits per second
b. 33,000 bits per second
c. 38,500 bits per second
d. 35,000 bits per second

14. The AT&T T1 lines

a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24
voice channels
b. Use delta modulation and include 48
voice channels
c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24
voice channels
d. Use delta modulation and include 24
voice channels

15. A digital transmission has an error

probability of 1 10-5 and is 1 10-8 long. Its
expected number of error bits is
a. 1 103
b. 1 105
c. 1 104
d. 1 108
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 10: Network Communications

1. An interconnection of users that allows 7. A device interconnecting two networks that

communication with one another is known as a use different protocols and formats is called a
a. Modem a. Bridge
b. UART b. Gateway
c. Network c. Router
d. Protocol d. Node

2. A complex LC filter that removes delay 8. A device interconnecting LANs together that
distortion from signals that are traveling down usually have identical protocols at the physical
long transmission lines is called a(n) and data link layers is called a
a. a.. Delay equalizer a. Bridge
b. UART b. Gateway
c. Attenuation distortion filter c. Router
d. Trunk switcher d. Node

3. Which of the following is not a way that 9. In telephony, traffic is defined in

designers of telephone equipment are adapting a. Hundred-call seconds
to the increasing use of computers and digital b. Average number of calls in a specific
coding in telephone communication links? period of time
a. The use of shorter transmission lines c. Erlang
b. The use of computers in finding unused d. All the above
portions of multiplex systems to
maximize se 10. The Internet and the WWW are
c. The application of digital switching a. The same thing
theory to increase channel capacity b. Completely different
d. Sharing of communication links by voice c. Related
and data signals d. Local area networks

4. The advanced mobile phone services (AMPS) 11. In a telephone system, the grade of service
is an example of is
a. A cellular telephone system a. The ratio of calls lost to calls offered
b. A telephone system that uses frequency b. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offered
reuse c. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost
c. A cell-splitting telephone system d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic lost
d. All the above e. a and b

5. Which is not a major function of a protocol? 12. The following term is not a major concept in
a. Framing cellular phone systems.
b. Line control a. Frequency reuse
c. Flow control b. Cell reuse
d. Topology c. Cell splitting
e. Sequence control d. Handoff

6. The LAN that was developed by Xerox, Digital 13. In local area networks, the following
Equipment Corporation, and Intel in 1980 is topology or topologies are seldom used.
called a. Star
a. IEEE-488 b. Ring
b. Ethernet c. Bus
c. OSI a. d.a and b
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 10: Network Communications

14. The following numeric describing data rates

for copper coax and twisted pair is rarely used
a. 10 Base 2
b. 10 Base 5
c. 10 Base T
d. 100 Base FX
e. a and b

15. The xDSL service with the highest projected

data rate is
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 11: Transmission Lines

1. The chief advantage of coaxial cable over 7. A flat line indicates

open-wire line is a. No reflection
a. Minimized radiation losses b. VSWR = 1
b. Low cost c. No physical imperfections
c. Low noise pick up d. a and b
d. Low resistive losses
8. A nonlossy transmission line terminated with
2. Unshielded twisted-pair cable is a short circuit has an
a. Seldom used due to noise problems a. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in
b. Increasingly used in computer magnitude to the incident voltage
networking b. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that
c. More costly than coaxial cable is equal in magnitude to the incident
d. All the above voltage
c. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller
3. The ratio of actual velocity to free-space in magnitude than the incident voltage
velocity is called d. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is
a. Velocity factor smaller in magnitude than the incident
b. Relative dielectric constant voltage
c. Velocity of propagation
d. Delay time 9. A manufacturer's specification dealing with
crosstalk and attenuation is
4. In a balanced line, the same current flows in a. ACR
each line but is b. CAS
a. 45 out of phase c. CAA
b. 90 out of phase d. AAC
c. 180 out of phase
d. 270 out of phase 10. A 50- transmission line that has a load
impedance of 300 has a VSWR of
5. What is the length of a quarter-wavelength a. 6:1
section of RG-8A/U coaxial cable at a frequency b. 1:6
of 144.2 Mhz if its velocity factor is 0.69. c. 0.666:1
a. 52.1 cm d. 1.5:1
b. 35.9 cm
c. 143.6 cm 11. The input impedance of a quarter-
d. 2.08 m wavelength section of a 50- transmission line
that is terminated with a short is
6. A nonlossy transmission line that is a. 50
terminated with a resistive load that is equal to b. 0 (a short)
the characteristic impedance of the line c. Infinite (open)
a. Has the same impedance at all points d. 100
along the line
b. Has a VSWR of 1:1 12. A device that is used to match an
c. Has the same voltage at points along the unbalanced transmission line to a balanced
line transmission line is called a
d. Has a reflection coefficient at the load a. Quarter-wavelength matching
equal to zero transformer
e. All the above b. Balun
c. Shorted-stub section
d. Slotted line
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 11: Transmission Lines

13. A 50- transmission line with a 300- load

impedance has a reflection coefficient of
a. 6
b. 0.166
c. 0.714
d. 1.4

14. A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft and

capacitance of 1 nF/ft. The delay introduced by
a 1-ft section is
a. Not able to be calculated with the given
b. 1 10-9
c. 1 10-18
d. 2 10-9

15. A transmission line can be used as a(n)

a. Inductor
b. Capacitor
c. Filter
d. Matching section
a. e . All the above
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 12: Wave Propagation

1. An antenna can be thought of as a(n) 8. The largest frequency that will be returned to
a. Oscillator earth when transmitted vertically under given
b. Capacitor ionospheric conditions is called the
c. Transducer a. Critical frequency
d. Frequency multiplexer b. Maximum usable frequency (MUF)
c. Optimum working frequency (OWF)
2. A wave that is characterized by having its d. Skip zone
direction of propagation perpendicular to its
oscillation is known as 9. The characteristic impedance of free space is
a. Isotropic a. Not known
b. Transverse b. Infinite
c. Polarized c. 50
d. Refractive d. 377

3. Which is not an effect of our environment on 10. The area between the point where the
wave propagation? ground wave ends and first sky wave returns is
a. Radiation called the
b. Reflection a. Quiet zone
c. Refraction b. Skip zone
d. Diffraction c. Null Zone
d. All the above
4. A point in space that radiates e. a and b
electromagnetic energy equally in all directions
is called 11. The refraction and reflection action of a
a. Transverse skywave between the ionosphere and ground is
b. Isotropic point source known as
c. Omnisphere a. Space diversity
d. Shadow zone b. Skip
c. Tropospheric scattering
5. The process of waves, which traveling in d. Fading
straight paths, bending around an obstacle is
a. Radiation 12. A satellite communication system used by
b. Reflection companies such as K-Mart to quickly verify
c. Refraction credit cards and check inventory data is called
d. Diffraction a. VSAT
6 . Which is not one of the basic modes of c. SATCOM
getting a radio wave from the transmitting to d. WESTAR
receiving antenna?
a. Ground wave 13. A common type of radio wave interference is
b. Shadow wave a. EMI
c. Space wave b. Fading
d. Satellite link c. Reflections
e. Sky wave d. All the above

7. The type of wave that is most affected by the 14. Diversity reception does not include:
D, E, and F layers of the ionosphere is: a. Space diversity
a. Ground wave b. Time diversity
b. Space wave c. Frequency diversity
c. Sky wave d. Angle diversity
d. Satellite
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 12: Wave Propagation

15. When installing a receiving antenna, you

can often overcome diffraction problems by
finding a
a. Null zone
b. Downlink
c. Hot spot
d. Skip zone
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 13: Antennas

1. The process of interchangeability of receiving 7. A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300
and transmitting operations of antennas is transmission line. If a quarter-wave matching
known as transformer is to be used as the non-resonant
a. Polarization matching section, what must be the
b. Reciprocity characteristic impedance of the cable used in
c. Efficiency the matching transformer?
d. Counterpoise a. 186.5
b. 103.9
2. A half-wave dipole antenna is also known as c. 122.5
a. Marconi antenna d. 147.9
b. Hertz antenna
c. Vertical antenna 8. An impedance-matching device that spreads
d. Phased array the transmission line as it approaches the
antenna is called a
3. An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long a. Delta match
connected such that the ground acts as a b. Quarter-wave matching device
reflecting quarter-wavelength section is called a c. Director
a. Hertz antenna d. Counterpoise
b. Dipole antenna
c. Marconi antenna 9. A loading coil is often used with a Marconi
d. All the above antenna in order to
a. Tune out the capacitive reactance
4. The angular separation between the half- portion of the input impedance of the
power points on an antenna's radiation pattern antenna
is the b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion
a. Bandwidth of the input impedance of the antenna
b. Front-to-back ratio c. Raise the input impedance of the
c. Lobe distribution antenna
d. Beamwidth d. Decrease the losses of the antenna

5. The input impedance at the center of a dipole 10. Standard AM broadcast stations usually
antenna is approximately use what type of transmitting antennas?
a. 36.6 a. Driven collinear array
b. 50 b. Marconi array
c. 73 c. Yagi-Uda
d. 300 d. Log-periodic

6. As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is 11. The type of antenna often found in small
reduced below a quarter-wavelength, the AM broadcast receivers is a
radiation resistance a. Ferrite loop antenna
a. Increases b. Folded dipole antenna
b. Decreases c. Slot antenna
c. Remains the same d. Log-periodic antenna
d. All the above
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 13: Antennas

12. The folded dipole antenna has

a. Greater bandwidth than a half-wave
b. A 288- input impedance
c. Less bandwidth than a half-wave dipole
d. a and b
e. b and c

13. The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of

a. A driven director and parasitic reflector
b. A driven reflector and parasitic director
c. A parasitic director and reflector
d. All the above

14. A grid-dip meter measures the resonant

frequency of tuned circuits
a. By connection in series with the
b. By connection in parallel with the
c. Without power being applied to the
tuned circuit
d. By connection in series with the

15. When troubleshooting antennas, the level of

VSWR that indicates a problem is
a. Greater than 1
b. Less than 1
c. Greater than 1.5
d. Less than 0.5
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 14: Waveguides & RADAR

1. At a frequency of 1 Ghz and transmitter- 8. The coupling in dB of a directional coupler

receiver distance of 30 mi, which is the most that has 85 mW into the main guide and 0.45
efficient device for energy transfer? mW out the secondary guide is
a. Transmission lines a. 22.8
b. Waveguides b. 18.9
c. Antennas c. 188.9
d. None of the above d. 45.6

2. The most efficient means of transmitting a 1- 9. The resonant frequency of a cavity may be
Ghz signal 1500 ft would typically be varied by changing the cavity's
a. Transmission lines a. Volume
b. Waveguides b. Inductance
c. Antennas c. Capacitance
d. None of the above d. All the above

3. The dominant mode for waveguide operation 10. The guide wavelength is
is a. Greater than free-space wavelength
a. TE10 b. Equal to free-space wavelength
b. TE01 c. Less than free-space wavelength
c. TM10 d. All the above
d. TM01
11. The process of employing radio waves to
4. The propagation velocity of the signal in a detect and locate physical objects is known as
waveguide, when compared to the speed of light a. The Doppler effect
is b. Radar
a. larger c. Directional coupling
b. smaller d. Cavity tuning
c. the same velocity
d. either b or c 12. The use of two grounded conductors that
sandwich a smaller conductive strip with
5. Ridged waveguides are advantageous over constant separation by a dielectric material on
rectangular waveguides in their a printed circuit board for use at frequencies
a. cost above 500 Mhz is known as
b. attenuation a. Artwork traces
c. ability to work at lower frequency b. Dielectric waveguide
d. ease of construction c. Microstrip/stripline
d. MICs or MMICs
6. A circular waveguide is used for
a. Efficiency reasons 13. Second return echoes are
b. Ease of manufacture a. Echoes produced when the reflected
c. Rotating section applications beam makes a second trip
d. Greater bandwidth b. Echoes that arrive after the
transmission of the next pulse
7. Variable attenuators are used in waveguides c. Echoes caused by the PRT being too long
to d. All the above
a. Isolate a source from reflections at its
load so as to preclude frequency pulling.
b. Adjust the signal levels.
c. Measure signal levels.
d. All the above.
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 14: Waveguides & RADAR

14. The characteristic wave impedance for

waveguides is
a. 75
b. 377
c. Dependent on frequency
d. Dependent on waveguide shape
e. c and d

15. A dielectric waveguide is

a. Enclosed by a conducting material
b. A waveguide with just a dielectric
c. Dependent on the principle that two
dissimilar dielectrics can guide waves
d. b and c
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 15: Microwaves & Lasers

1. Which is not a type of horn antenna design 7. The i in P-i-N diode refers to
for microwave frequencies? a. Indium
a. Parabolic horn b. Impact
b. Circular horn c. Integrated
c. Pyramidal horn d. Intrinsic
d. Sectoral horn
8. Which is not a typical application of a ferrite
2. Cassegrain feed to a paraboloid antenna in a microwave system?
involves a a. attenuator
a. Dipole antenna b. amplifier
b. Point-source antenna c. isolator
c. Secondary reflector d. circulator
d. Any of the above
9. A low noise microwave amplifier that
3. Calculate the beamwidth of a microwave dish provides amplification via the variation of a
antenna with a 6-m mouth diameter when used reactance is known as a
at 5 Ghz. a. Maser
a. 0.49 b. Laser
b. 4.9 c. Yig
c. 7 d. Parametric amplifier
d. 0.7
10. The major difference between a laser and a
4. Zoning refers to maser is the
a. A method of producing a radome a. Frequency of the signal being
b. Changing a spherical wavefront into a amplified
plane wave b. Amplitude of the signal being amplified
c. Creating a polar radiation pattern c. Bandwidth of the signal being amplified
d. Fading into nonreality d. Phase of the signal being amplified

5. Which microwave oscillator has high gain, 11. Lasers are useful in
low-noise characteristics, and wide bandwidth? a. Industrial welding
a. Traveling wave tube oscillator b. Surgical procedures
b. Gunn Oscillator c. Distance measuring
c. Klystron oscillator d. Compact disc players
d. Magnetron oscillator e. All the above

6. Which is not an advantage of the Gunn 12. The following semiconductor is not used as
gallium arsenide oscillator? a microwave device:
a. Ease of removing heat from the chip a. PIN diode
b. Small size b. Baritt diode
c. Ruggedness c. Zener diode
d. Lack of filaments d. Tunnel diode
e. Low cost of manufacture
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 15: Microwaves & Lasers

13. Which of the following represent typical

failure mode(s) for a TWT amplifier?
a. Low gain
b. Spurious modulation
c. Poor frequency response
d. Low RF output
e. All the above

14. Which of the following is not used as a

microwave antenna?
a. Patch antenna
b. Marconi antenna
c. Lens antenna
d. Horn antenna

15. Compared to linear power supplies,

switching power supplies are
a. Less efficient
b. More efficient
c. Simpler
d. Heavier
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 16: Television

1. A television transmitter actually transmits 6. The length of time an image stays on the
two signals at once. They are screen after the signal is removed is termed
a. An amplitude-modulated video signal a. Retention
and frequency-modulated audio signal b. Flicker
b. Two amplitude-modulated signals: video c. Persistence
and audio d. Back porch
c. An amplitude-modulated audio signal
and frequency-modulated video signal 7. Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV
d. Two frequency-modulated signals: video receiver?
and audio a. The rf amplifier stage
b. The mixer stage
2. The most widely used type of TV camera is c. The local oscillator stage
the d. The video-detector stage
a. Charge couple device
b. Vidicon 8. The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the
c. Image orthicon vertical and horizontal retrace pulses from the
d. Iconoscope video signal is the
a. Video detector
3. Synchronizing pulses that consist of b. Video IF amplifier
equalizing pulses, followed by serrations, c. Sync separator
followed by more equalizing pulses at a rate of d. Sound detector
60 times per second are called
a. Color synchronizing pulses 9. The winding around the CRT yoke that
b. Horizontal retrace pulses deflects the electron beam with its magnetic
c. Vertical retrace pulses field is called the
d. Eight-cycle back-porch pulses a. Coil
b. Yoke
4. The frame frequency for U.S. television c. Deflector
broadcasts is approximately d. Magneto
a. 30 frames per second
b. 40 frames per second 10. A cumbersome series of adjustments to a
c. 60 frames per second color TV receiver in order to make sure that the
d. 100 frames per second three electron beams of the picture tube are
positioned exactly on their respective color dots
5. Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from on the face of the picture tube is called
204 to 210 Mhz. The channel 12 carrier a. Alignment
frequency is b. Convergence
Approximately c. Interleaving
a. 204.5 Mhz d. Interlacing
b. 205.25 Mhz
c. 211.25 Mhz
d. 211.75 Mhz
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 16: Television

11. A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of

normal sound and raster but no picture must
have a problem in the
a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-
voltage power supply
b. Main power supply
c. Video amplifiers following the sound
d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the
sound takeoff

12. Raster refers to

a. CRT illumination by scan lines when
no signal is being received
b. CRT resolution
c. CRT aspect ratio
d. All the above

13. The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is

obtained from the low-voltage power supply
a. Its power-line transformer
b. The yoke coil
c. The vertical oscillator
d. The flyback transformer

14. The introduction of digital television in the

United States has been hampered by
a. Delays in chip designs
b. Shortages of appropriate chips
c. Customer rejection
d. Less than ideal regulatory climate

15. When a digital picture freezes even when

there is motion in the video, it is
a. due to bandwidth problems
b. Called a pixelate
c. Due to noise
d. b and c
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 17: Fiber Optics

1. Which is an advantage of optical 7. The loss (attenuation) of signal in optical

communication links over using transmission fiber is due to
lines or waveguides? a. Scattering
a. Small size b. Absorption
b. Extremely wide bandwidths c. Macrobending
c. Immunity to electromagnetic interference d. Microbending
(EMI) e. All the above
d. Lower cost
e. All the above 8. Calculate the optical power 100 km from a
0.5 mW source on a single mode fiber that has
2. The most common light used in fiber-optic 0.10 dB per km loss.
links is a. 50 nW
a. Infra-red b. 500 nW
b. Red c. 5 W
c. Violet d. 50 W
d. Ultraviolet
9. Which is not an important characteristic of a
3. The optical band designation(s) include light detector?
a. S a. Responsitivity
b. C b. Dark current
c. L c. Power consumption
d. a and b above d. Response speed
e. All the above e. Spectral respons

4. In the telecommunications industry, the 10. The dispersion in fiber optics is termed
most commonly used fiber(s) are a. Modal
a. 50 micron b. Chromatic
b. 62.5 micron c. Polarization mode
c. 50 and 62.5 micron d. All the above
d. 125 micron e. a and b above

5. The abrupt change in refractive index from

core to cladding of fiber-optic cable is called the 11. Fiber optic connections suffer high loss due
a. Total internal reflection to
b. Numerical aperture a. Air gaps
c. Dispersion b. Rough surfaces
d. Step index c. Axial misalignment
d. Angular misalignment
e. All the above
6. A technique that is used to minimize the
pulse dispersion effect is to 12. Fiber optic technology is used in
a. Use a higher frequency light source applications of
b. Use plastic cladding a. Local area networks (LANs)
c. Minimize the core diameter b. Cable TV (CATV) systems
d. All the above c. Telephone networks
d. All the above
7th Edition by GARY M. MILLER
Chapter 17: Fiber Optics

13. The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable

caused by a portion of the light energy traveling
in the cladding is called
a. Modal dispersion
b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
d. Cable dispersion

14. Recent laser developments for fiber optic

communication include
a. Distributed feedback (DFB)
b. Heterojunction
c. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
d. a and b above
e. a and c above

15. The following consideration is important

when deciding between using a diode laser or
an LED
a. Response time
b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics
e. All the above