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Module 11.

Aeroplane Aerodynamics, Structures & Systems

11.01.1. Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls.

Question Number. 1. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure.
Option A. moves forward.
Option B. moves aft.
Option C. is unaffected.
Correct Answer is. moves aft.
Explanation. Assuming that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as it
speeds-up. This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change
theory.

Question Number. 2. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. rudder.
Option C. elevators.
Correct Answer is. ailerons.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 51. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe TextbookPage
1-12.

Question Number. 3. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?.
Option A. To the centre.
Option B. To the right.
Option C. To the left.
Correct Answer is. To the left.
Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.

Question Number. 4. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim
tab?.
Option A. Down.
Option B. Up.
Option C. Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation.
Correct Answer is. Up.
Explanation. Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43.

Question Number. 5. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?.
Option A. To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.
Option B. To re-energise the boundary layer.
Option C. To increase the lift.
Correct Answer is. To re-energise the boundary layer.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 50. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
1-32.

Question Number. 6. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?.
Option A. The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron.
Option B. The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.
Option C. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
Correct Answer is. The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves less, to reduce the induced drag
which causes adverse aileron yaw.

Question Number. 7. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-
load.
Option A. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
Option B. only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.
Option C. only when the rudder is moved.

Correct Answer is. if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
Explanation. Rudder deflection or yaw.

Question Number. 8. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in
the cockpit would be.
Option A. moved up causing the left aileron to move up.
Option B. moved up causing the left aileron to move down.
Option C. moved down causing the left aileron to move down.
Correct Answer is. moved up causing the left aileron to move down.
Explanation. Down aileron required - which requires up trim.

Question Number. 9. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to.
Option A. speed up the airflow and increase lift.
Option B. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Option C. provide housing for the slat.
Correct Answer is. act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Explanation. A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.

Question Number. 10. Large flap deployment.
Option A. has no effect on spanwise flow.
Option B. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface.
Option C. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.
Correct Answer is. causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.
Explanation. Flaps increase the pressure differential between top and bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices and
spanwise flow.

Question Number. 11. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?.
Option A. Tip stalls first.
Option B. Root stalls first.
Option C. Both stall together.

Correct Answer is. Tip stalls first.
Explanation. The tip of a swept wing stalls first.

Question Number. 12. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to
fly.
Option A. right wing low.
Option B. nose up.
Option C. left wing low.
Correct Answer is. right wing low.
Explanation. The leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise.

Question Number. 13. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will.
Option A. not be affected.
Option B. lower.
Option C. rise.
Correct Answer is. rise.
Explanation. As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases.

Question Number. 14. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?.
Option A. Increase the angle of attack.
Option B. Decrease the angle of attack.
Option C. No effect on angle of attack.
Correct Answer is. Decrease the angle of attack.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are.
Option A. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
Option B. installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
Option C. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
Correct Answer is. installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root.

Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. With reference to differential aileron control.
Option A. drag increases on the inner wing.
Option B. drag decreases on the outer wing.
Option C. drag increases on the outer wing.
Correct Answer is. drag increases on the inner wing.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett 4th Edition Page 41. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-
11.

Question Number. 17. Dutch role is movement in.
Option A. yaw and roll.
Option B. yaw and pitch.
Option C. pitch and roll.
Correct Answer is. yaw and roll.
Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291.

Question Number. 18. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable.
Option A. aircraft becomes too sensitive.
Option B. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.
Option C. C of P moves back.
Correct Answer is. aircraft returns to trimmed attitude.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. Ailerons control the aircraft in the.
Option A. longitudinal plane.
Option B. directional plane.
Option C. lateral plane.
Correct Answer is. lateral plane.
Explanation. Ailerons control the aircraft 'IN' the lateral axis, which is 'ABOUT' the longitudinal axis.

Question Number. 20. An anti-balance tab is used.
Option A. for trimming the aircraft.
Option B. to give more feel to the controls.
Option C. to relieve stick loads.
Correct Answer is. to give more feel to the controls.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-29.

Question Number. 21. Slats.
Option A. act as an air brake.
Option B. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.
Option C. increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing.
Correct Answer is. keep the boundary layer from separating for longer.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P technician airframe textbook page 1-32.

Question Number. 22. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight.
Option A. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.
Option B. nose should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA.
Option C. nose should be raised, increasing AoA.
Correct Answer is. nose should be lowered, reducing AoA.
Explanation. The main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot can lower the nose, increase decent angle
and get a better view of the runway.

Question Number. 23. Flight spoilers.
Option A. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed.
Option B. can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing.
Option C. can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn.
Correct Answer is. can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim
tab?.
Option A. Up to move elevator up.
Option B. Down to move elevator up.
Option C. Up to move elevator down.
Correct Answer is. Down to move elevator up.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. Wing tip vortices are strongest when.
Option A. flying high speed straight and level flight.
Option B. flying slowly at high angles of attack.
Option C. flying into a headwind.
Correct Answer is. flying slowly at high angles of attack.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 26. An example of a secondary flight control is a.
Option A. elevator.
Option B. flap.
Option C. spoiler.
Correct Answer is. spoiler.
Explanation. Some would consider a Flap to be a secondary flight control. It is discounted in this question as it is
technically a Lift Augmentation Device, rather than a 'control.

Question Number. 27. A balance tab.
Option A. assists the pilot to move the controls.
Option B. is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft.
Option C. effectively increases the area of the control surface.
Correct Answer is. assists the pilot to move the controls.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 1-29.

Explanation. Option A. Option B. left and right spoilers extending. 28. Question Number. high. Correct Answer is. Option C. Fowler. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more. left spoilers extending. Slot. right spoilers remaining retracted. Both wings have an equal increase in drag. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more. Option B.Question Number. high or low. high. 29. Option C. Option B. Option C. left spoilers remaining retracted. Correct Answer is. . NIL. low. left spoilers remaining retracted. Option A. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-26. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20. Explanation. NIL. 32. Option A. Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Fowler. Option A. right spoilers extending. Explanation. 31. Question Number. roll to the right is caused by. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?. Question Number. right spoilers extending. 30. Option B. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control. Split. A split flap increases lift by increasing. Option C.

Dutch roll is. Option B. Explanation. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered. NIL. Correct Answer is. decreasing tailplane incidence. the surface area. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30. a combined yawing and rolling motion. . 34. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a combined yawing and rolling motion. pitch up is caused by. the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion. primarily a pitching instability. Option C.Option A. Question Number. Explanation. decreasing wing drag. Option A. Option B. pitch nose down. a type of slow roll. up movement of the elevator trim tab. increasing the stalling angle of the wing. Option A. increasing tailplane incidence. 35. pitch nose up. Option A. Question Number. NIL. Question Number. Option A. Option C. the camber of the top surface. A leading edge slat is a device for. 33. Option C. Due to the centre of pressure moving aft. Option B. pitch nose down. 36. Correct Answer is. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane. Option B. Option C. Question Number. sink. Option B. decreasing tailplane incidence. Explanation. the aircraft will. Correct Answer is.

Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a leading edge slat which extends forward. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving. Question Number. lift decreases. what takes place?. Correct Answer is. Option B. is known as. 37. Explanation. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?. increasing the stalling angle of the wing. boundary layer. Correct Answer is. lift increases. Option C. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases. 39. Option A. Question Number. A Krueger flap is. a leading edge flap which hinges forward. NIL. none of the above are correct. camber layer. Option C. Explanation. 38. Pressure increases. Option C.Option C. . NIL. in relation to the rest of the airflow. Option A. Option B. Pressure increases. Option A. 40. Question Number. Explanation. lift increases. Option A. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior. NIL. Pressure increases. Question Number. boundary layer. Option B. Correct Answer is. decreasing the stalling angle of the wing. a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower. a leading edge flap which hinges forward. Pressure decreases. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 1-37 figure 1-64. Aspect ratio. lift decreases.

Explanation. When an aircraft stalls. Correct Answer is. increase with an increase in weight. The aircraft stalling speed will. 43. Option A. Option B. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Changes in aircraft weight.Option C. Question Number. Option C. Option B. NIL. extra lift is required. lift decreases and drag increases. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change. Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior. increase with an increase in weight. Fineness ratio. 44. will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant. Option A. lift and drag increase. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. increase with an increase in weight. lift and drag increase. Option C. be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack. cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change. Option C. Explanation. will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed. 41. extra lift is required. Explanation. 42. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. lift decreases and drag increases. NIL. Correct Answer is. In a bank and turn. Question Number. extra lift is not required. extra lift is not required if thrust is increased. .

is increased when it is heavier. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30. Correct Answer is. 46. Option B. The primary function of a flap is. Question Number. it is always constant. cannot be varied. can be varied by using flaps and slats. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Option C. 48. 47. . Question Number. The stalling speed of an aircraft. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder. is increased when it is lighter. a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators. Option B. A wing flap which has dropped or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to. to alter the lift of an aerofoil. a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons. The angle of attack at which stall occurs. Explanation. Explanation. NIL. does not change. Option C. Option B. Option C. NIL. corrected Question Number. to alter the lift of an aerofoil. Correct Answer is. to trim the aircraft longitudinally. Option C. Option A. can be varied by using flaps and slats. Explanation.Explanation. is increased when it is heavier. Option B. 45. to alter the position of the centre of gravity. depends on the weight of the aircraft.

it only affects the stalling speed on that wing. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall. decreases. Option A. Explanation. Option A.Question Number. increases the angle at which its wing stalls. lower the nose. lower the nose. may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch. NIL. Explanation. the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane. the stalling angle of a wing. Option B. Question Number. Option C. 49. . Option B. raise the nose. Correct Answer is. 51. Option C. NIL. Option A. will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch. remains the same. to maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change. Option A. Correct Answer is. will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch. Question Number. Question Number. decreases the angle at which its wing will stall. has no effect on its wing stalling angle. Option B. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps. increases. Downward displacement of an aileron. Option B. 52. Explanation. NIL. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment. decreases. 50. Option C. keep the pitch attitude constant.

NIL. Option B.000 ft. to the centre. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?. Correct Answer is. Flap and slat. 30. to the left. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Slat. moving the rudder right. to the right. decrease in gradient with wing speed. Explanation. 36. 36. Question Number. 57. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. Option A. moving the rudder right. Question Number. 53. decrease in gradient with wing speed. Option A. moving the rudder left. Option B. Flap. to the left. the trim tab on the rudder would be positioned. Option C. Option A. Slat. Option A. Option C.Question Number. 54. Option C. Option B. Instability giving roll and yaw. If an aircraft is yawing left. Explanation. 56. The tropopause exists at about. no change in gradient with wing speed.000 ft. 18.000 ft. . an increase in gradient with wing speed. Correct Answer is. 55. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is. Question Number. Option C.000 ft. NIL. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B.

58.Option A. the trailing edge. is lateral stability. Question Number. move transition point forwards. 59. is dutch roll. Option B. Option C. increase stalling angle of the wing. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the leading edge. . Sweepback will. Vortex generators are fitted to. the leading edge. Krueger flaps are on. not affect lateral stability. NIL. Option A. Leading edge flaps. advance the onset of flow separation. Option C. decrease stalling angle of the wing. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. increase stalling angle of the wing. do not change the stalling angle. Option C. NIL. move transition point forwards. Option B. Explanation. Option B. 61. Option A. Option A. Option B. Option A. increase lateral stability. 60. move transition point rearwards. is dutch roll. NIL. Question Number. is longitudinal stability. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. either the leading or training edge. Explanation. Option B.

2 Airframe Structures . A split flap. Option A. Maintenance and Repair Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22. 0. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. 63. Explanation. Question Number. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase. . Option B. does not increase the wing area on deployment. Question Number. A plain flap. Option A. decrease lateral stability. Option C. from intermediate to fully down. 62. is attached to the leading edge of the wing. 11. Explanation. Explanation. when deployed. Option C.General Concepts. forms part of lower trailing edge. does not increase the wing area on deployment. Option B. increase lateral stability.005ohms. is used only on high speed aircraft.Option C. vertical stabiliser. Option A. central fuselage. Question Number. 1. Option B. Correct Answer is. from intermediate to fully down. Explanation. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is. horizontal stabiliser. 2. Correct Answer is. NIL. NIL. increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag. Option A. NIL. increases drag with little lift coefficient increase. Zone 320 under the ATA system is. Question Number. vertical stabiliser.

4. Option C. crush or compression. copper wire. A Fuselage Station is a. lateral point on aircraft wing. 5.Option B. lateral point on aircraft fuse. Bonding Strip. Option B. 3. Correct Answer is. . Earthing Strap. Option C. Correct Answer is. twisting. Option A. 50 milliohms. elongating or stretch. Question Number. Tension is the stress of. Option A. Tension is the stress of elongation or stretch.8. Option B. elongating or stretch. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage. Bonding Strip. Option C. Bonding Strip. 6. Composite materials are bonded by. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 50 milliohms. longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage. Explanation. aluminium wire. Option C. Correct Answer is. Fuselage Stations are longitudinal measurements on the fuselage. Option B. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Option C. 1/50 ohms. special paint. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 343. Explanation. Option A. Question Number.

Question Number. Explanation.4. Question Number. lower fuselage. bonding strips. Question Number.5 in wide. 10. Option A. Explanation. Option B. special paint. Option B. Bending. An I beam is subject to Bending. . 8. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by. conductive paint. upper fuselage. Wing. Option A.5 in wide. Question Number. Option C.4. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. special conductive grease. conductive paint. Option C. although different parts of it are subject to tension (upper boom) and shear (the web).1 (a). lower fuselage. Shear. Bending. 22 AWG. Option C. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. ATA Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor). 3. 9. Correct Answer is. 0. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. ATA Zone 100 is.3. Explanation. Option C. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be. 7. at force is an I-Beam subjected to?. 0. Option A.25 in wide and 22 AWG. Correct Answer is. Tension. 0.

allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure. water lines and buttock lines. Option B. Option C. CAIPs AL/7-2 para 6. 12. 800. longitudinal. Stringer. is applied only to secondary structure. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation.Explanation. Checkout most modern aircraft Maintenance Manuals for zonal locations. Damage tolerant design. NIL. 800. Stringer. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of.5. frame stations. . Longeron. vertical lines and lateral lines. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. frame stations. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of. Option B. Option B. water lines and buttock lines. Question Number. vertical and lateral lines. 600. Explanation. 13. Option A. Spar. 11. CAIPs RL/2-5 Para 3. Answer chosen due to a stringer's duplicity. 14. 400. Option C. frame stations. Option A.

Question Number. Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. Pressure cabin. Where on the aircraft is FS245. Explanation. cross sectional area. Control surfaces. Option A. Option C. Pressure cabin. Option A. 16. pulling forces. Option C.3.Question Number. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?. Explanation. single strand copper wire 0.5 in. CAIPs AL/7-2 2. Option B. 17. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. cross sectional area. Correct Answer is. 15. CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 15. The ground cable must be. Shear stress is described as. Option C. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing. Question Number. Question Number.7.1 a (i). cross sectional area. slip away under the action of forces. The keyword is 'slip'. RWS45?. Option A. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing. Option B.5 in. copper stranded 0. single strand copper wire 0. slip away under the action of forces.5 in. compressing forces. Option A. 18. 245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing. 245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing. single strand 18 AWG. Explanation. Correct Answer is. but it is a terrible definition of shear stress. . Explanation. Wings.

shear. Option A. Strain is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause a permanent deformation. Explanation. offers good damage resistance. Special paint. Special grease on the hinges. Question Number. utilizes the safe-life design concept. Option B. 20. Option B. shear. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together. Full scale deflection. Option C. Zero. is used only for the fuselage. CAIPs RL/2-5 3. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. offers good damage resistance. Question Number. strain. CAIPs EEL/1-6 3. Correct Answer is.10. Explanation.2. 21. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?. Diverter strips. . Option C. Semi-monocoque construction. Zero. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Centre scale.2 B. what would the gauge read?. Option B. Diverter strips. Option C. Option A. Strain is 'best' of the answers. Correct Answer is. strain. 19. Jepessen A & P Technician Airframe textbook page 1-3. 22. is known as. Option C.4. Option A. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused. Option B. Question Number.

CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. Option C. horizontal line. Option C. insulated from the fuselage. Option B. Option A. Option A. Option A. bonding. 18 AWG. bonded. Secondary bonding is usually provided with. vertical line. static wicks. 18 SWG for a single wire. Option C. 24. 27. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by. 25. NIL. Explanation. Option B. Most radio aerials are. stranded copper 0. not bonded. Question Number.25 inch. Correct Answer is. bonded. Option B.Question Number. bonding. earthing. Correct Answer is. wing line. Option B.2 Fig 15.2 Page 6. Option A. single strand 0. vertical line. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is.25 inch. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-56. 26.1 (a) (ii). Correct Answer is. Explanation. 23. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. AL/7. 18 AWG.3. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than. .

1 (ii). Measurements from the centre line. torsion and shear. . Option A. compression. flying hours. Question Number. Option B. Option C. Pressure Cycles. Question Number. Option A. torsion and shear. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Flying Hours. landings. What are buttock lines?. tension. The main forces on an aircraft structure are.25. Explanation. Option A. pressurization cycle. Question Number. Option B. compression. 18 SWG for a single wire. Option C. 31. twisting and shear. tension. tension. Explanation. Vertical measurement lines. tension. Option C. Flying Hours. NIL. Landings. pressurization cycle. Explanation. 22 SWG x 0. Option B. torsion and strain. 22 SWG x 0. NIL.3. compression. The life of the structure is counted by. Option C. NIL. 30. Explanation. Horizontal measurement lines.Option B.5. Correct Answer is. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?. 28. Correct Answer is. 29. compression. Correct Answer is. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3. Question Number.

inboard from the wing upper surface. Option A.2 Page 17 Para 6. Monocoque. Explanation. 34. Option B. Explanation. Wing stations are measured. 33. bonding. outboard from the fuselage centreline. Truss type. NIL. outboard from the wing root. Correct Answer is. strut. Explanation. Option B. Measurements from the centre line.Correct Answer is. NIL. beam. Option A. Option A. Semi-monocoque. Option C. conductive paint. outboard from the fuselage centreline. partially by. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?. A member taking a compression load is called a. Question Number. 35. strut.2. . Option C. Option B. Option A. Explanation. non-conductive paint. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes. cable. CAIPs AL/7. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. conductive paint. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 32. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Semi-monocoque. NIL.

Option C. Option B. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Skin. Frame. Option C. it will be. Torsion. 36. Option A. Bending. Tensile. red. Explanation. Option C. . Tensile. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. Option A. If a colour is used to identify primary structure. Correct Answer is. Skin. NIL. 38.Question Number. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?. NIL. NIL. feet. Option C. yellow. inches. red. Correct Answer is. Option B. inches. Option B. Explanation. 39. green. Correct Answer is. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in. Option B. Stringer. Option A. feet and inches. Which of the following is primary structure?. Question Number. 37. Explanation.

is the property of a material to resist fracture. Option A. Option A. Safe-life. Explanation. is the load per unit area acting on a material. NIL. Option B. Explanation. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life. Explanation. AL/7-2 2. 41. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?. NIL. These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings. Condition monitored. Structure with built in redundancy is called. is the load per unit area acting on a material. failsafe. 42. Question Number.Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option C. is the deformation of a material caused by applied load. failsafe. . These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. 40. Explanation. Safe-life. Option C. NIL. safe life. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number.2. Correct Answer is. regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?. Option B. Option B. Option C. Option C. Fail-safe. 43. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles. wheel shields and minor component brackets etc. These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. Stress. Option B. Option A. flying hours or years. Correct Answer is. double safe.

tension and compression stresses. tension and shear stresses. NIL. Option B. These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747. torsional and compression stresses. Safe-life is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. Option B. 47. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. Grade it as secondary. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Bending stresses are a combination of. Option A. tension and compression stresses. Option C. 45. 44. Notice 89. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. Notice 79. the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs. Notice 65. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is. . the sharing of loads between adjacent members. Notice 89. Option A. Question Number.Question Number. Option C. 46. Upgrade it to primary. Explanation. Paint it red and stamp it as tertiary. Option A. Upgrade it to primary. Correct Answer is. Option A. what action should you adopt?. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either Primary or Secondary. Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is.

49. Correct Answer is. a sprayed coat of conductive paint. Correct Answer is. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the.Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option A. Tip of vertical stabiliser. Zone Line (ZL). Between rear spar and trailing edge. Option C. Option C. See zonal locations in any Maintenance Manual. 48. Explanation. Tip of vertical stabiliser. Correct Answer is. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft. Explanation. AWN 89. Explanation. 51. manufacturer. NIL. Water Line (WL). Question Number. operator. maintenance engineer. Butt Line (BL). Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. electrically connected primary conductors. Option B. Option C. a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint. electrically connected primary conductors. Butt Line (BL). . Obscure question. but the fuselage centreline is 'technically' a buttock line of sorts. Between front and rear spar. manufacturer. Option A. 50. Explanation. Option B. electricity is discharged through. Where are wing stations measured from?. Where is Zone 323?. Option A. Option B.

Option C. NIL. NIL. If a redundant structure fails it becomes. shedding. tie. A structural member intended to resist compression is a. Correct Answer is. 55. Explanation. Option B. Option B. hogging. strut. Option B. Question Number. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates.Question Number. having multiple load paths. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. failsafe. Option A. fail-safe design. sagging. . fatigued. monocoque design. 52. NIL. NIL. 54. is known as a. safe-life. Correct Answer is. Explanation. safe-life design. Correct Answer is. Option C. An aircraft structure. 53. A redundant structure is. Option A. strut. 56. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. fail-safe design. Option A. sagging. Option A. on-condition structure. failsafe. web.

Tension. Correct Answer is. primary. Explanation. water line. Stress. primary. NIL. Strain.Option B. Option C. Option B. Shear. Explanation. Compression. Tension. 58. secondary. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Compression. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. Option B. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?. An example of primary stress is. Question Number. Tension. Option C. Compression. a safe-life structure. Stress. tertiary. Option A. Compression. tension. Explanation. 57. NIL. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as. . Correct Answer is. 59. a failsafe structure. butt line. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of the fuselage is. Torsion. bending. fuselage station. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Torsion. Torsion. Torsion. water line. Question Number. 60. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Shear. a failsafe structure. NIL.

JAR 25. and if so to . 61. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. centre line. 62. ANO 25. CS 25. NIL. to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat. A line below which redux bonding can not be used. Correct Answer is. to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg. Lateral stations have station zero at the. Explanation. CS 25. centre line. NIL. Option A. JAR 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25.Option C. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. It is put through a series of crash tests. 64. nose. Explanation. Option C. tension. Explanation. left wing tip. NIL. Question Number. shear. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. 63. Correct Answer is. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in. Option B. Option C. test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity. What is the water line?. Option A. Option B. The datum from which vertical locations refer. Option C. The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured. Question Number. Option B. The datum from which vertical locations refer. This is to. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number.

Explanation. Soft rubber. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 3. he two stages in a good adhesive bond are. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding. Explanation. wetting and gripping. to determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat.2 Airframe Structures . . 11. Option C. None is required. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. 1. The purpose of a primer is to. Option A. solvent etch. Option B. Option A. Question Number.measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC). Option A. 4. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?. Option A. Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash. and if so to. Question Number. Correct Answer is. provide flexible surface for the top coat. Fire-proof grommets. wetting and Setting. Option B. wetting and Setting. 2. spreading and setting. Explanation. Option B. alkaline etch. acid etch. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'. A module 7 questions. JAR 25. Fire-proof grommets. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. acid etch.562 (b) para 5.General Concepts. NIL. we use.

7075. Question Number. Most large transport aircraft skins are. . CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra. 5056. Question Number. PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication. CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4.5. Option C. Explanation. help bonding of the topcoat. Correct Answer is.2. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. 7. Option C. Option B. Bulkheads. In semi-monocoque construction. in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?. Option A. Option B. 2024. CAIP AL/7-2 para 2.1. provide shiny surface for the topcoat. Frames. help bonding of the topcoat. Option C. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?. Option C. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8. 5. Correct Answer is. stringers. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number.6 (last sentence). Which of the following statements is correct. Option A. 6. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. Option A. 2024. Correct Answer is.Option B. PLI washers can be used more than once. compression loads are taken by. providing they are used in critical bolted joints. bulkheads. frames. Option B. Option B. Option A. stringers. Explanation. Explanation. 8.4.

What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?. Question Number. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?. Option B. Magnesium alloys. Question Number.2 para 3.3. Explanation. 11. Correct Answer is. 10. Option B. Option A. Option C. Explanation. In a monocoque structure. Zinc plating. Cadmium plating. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Skin. Stringers. Lateral alignment method. Option A. what method of measurement is normally used?. Option A. . Nickel plating. 9.Option C. Magnesium alloys. CAIPs AL/7. Explanation. Ferrous alloys. Aluminium alloys. Stringers. Steel tape and spring balance. Longitudinal alignment method. Option A. Option C. Option C. Skin. Cadmium plating. CAIPs BL/7-3. which component carries the majority of the loads?. Correct Answer is. Question Number. A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28. Stringers. Option C. CAIPs BL/7-2. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Longerons. 12. Explanation.

Option C.Correct Answer is. and remove the shank with a metal punch.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet'. Option A. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. To remove a rivet. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. chisel off the rivet head. Correct Answer is. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. because it is current. Correct Answer is.1 says 'slightly smaller'. Option B. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. should only be used once. Option B. 14. chisel off the rivet head. Option C. 16. CAIPs BL/6-20 11. Battery trays are. Explanation. Option A. chisel off the rivet head. Question Number.1. CAIPs AL/7-12 3. metal for earthing purposes. Option C. are not damaging to any aircraft parts. Explanation. chisel off the rivet head. Question Number. and remove the shank with a metal punch. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Option A. are damaging to some aircraft parts. We chose the former. Question Number. Pallett Page 24. Correct Answer is.3. and remove the. Option B. absorbent to soak up electrolyte. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Question Number. . Explanation. Option A. but CAIPs BL/6-29 para 10. are damaging to some aircraft parts. drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank. Paint remover substances. 13.7.5 i. Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is. 15. Steel tape and spring balance. to seal the cabin.

jury strut. . Edges of repair metal. also acts as a. lubricate the shank and threads. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair. Material under repair. according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.Option B. Option A. Option C. as well as acting as a skin strengthener. Question Number. to prevent corrosion. Option C. tear stopper. tear stopper. Option B. A bonded waffle doubler. 18.tpub. lubricate the collar. 17. Option B. Option A. Option C. Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156.hi-shear. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. to provide external streamlining. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt. 3. Question Number. Chapter 51 is General Practices. shear tie. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. http://www.4).htm Question Number. Explanation. Option A. 19. it is necessary to.7. NIL. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51.com/fasteners Question Number. CAIP AL/7-2 para. Option C. Explanation. to seal the cabin. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. 20. Option C. Middle of repair. http://www. Explanation. according to SB instructions. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.

Explanation. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. Option C. 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are. Why is a joggle joint used?. Explanation. 22. Option A. low strength high toughness. Option B. Smooth contour of surface. Cemented and specific.Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Option A. 23. 24. Option C. Option C.lasercom. high strength high ductility. 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%. 21. Correct Answer is. http://www. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Mechanical and specific. Smooth contour of surface.net/normajean/normajean/newpage1. Question Number. Material under repair.user. Correct Answer is. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together. Mechanical and specific. Explanation. Explanation. .htm Question Number. Question Number. Open to interpretation. high strength high toughness. BL/6-20 5. What are the types of true bonded joints?. Option A. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for. Mechanical and cemented. So countersunk rivets do not need to be used. high strength high ductility. Nil. NIL. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. Added strength. NIL. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Blind rivet. Option B. Pop rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved. 25. Question Number. Correct Answer is. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. 27. Option C. Question Number. Option C.Question Number. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached. Option A. they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft. but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'. Option B. Option A. To provide a flush fit. Explanation. 28. Blind rivet. Question Number. Explanation. Hi lock bolt. Option B. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Arguably c also. Explanation. Skin panels may be strengthened by. Why is a joggle joint used?. Option A. Option B. To provide a flush fit. To add strength. Explanation. Correct Answer is. they can be ignored. struts. stringers. they provide extra protection. To provide a smooth contour to surface. Option A. cleats. Pop rivet. which type of fastener would you use?. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids. Correct Answer is. . NIL. stringers. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. 26.

Correct Answer is. acrylics. Explanation. Option A. Two webs separated by a boom. NIL.Question Number. asphalt. Synthetic resins are made from nylon. 30. Question Number. Option C. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. acrylics. vinyl and. Explanation. cellulose. 32. Explanation. Option A. before a crack starts. to slow its rate of propagation. Two booms separated by a web. A crack stopper is fitted. 33. Option B. Determine the fuel tanks are empty. . NIL. Option C. to prevent its initiation. to slow its rate of propagation. Option A. Remove all optional equipment. after a crack starts. Option B. Option C. to slow its rate of propagation. before a crack starts. Install critical stress panels or plates. Explanation. 31. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it. before a crack starts. 29. Option A. Two booms separated by a web. Option B. Correct Answer is. Install critical stress panels or plates. Correct Answer is. One boom mounted under a web. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Question Number. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?.

Explanation. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. is easier to manufacture. vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane. Question Number. 35. Correct Answer is. failsafe joints. Option C. Explanation. NIL. NIL. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is.Option A. Explanation. stainless steel. takes all the loads in the skin. skin. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. aluminium alloy. frames. skin. 36. shares the loads. Option C. longerons. failsafe joints. Option A. all the loads are carried by the. NIL. compression ribs in cantilever wings. 34. Option A. Correct Answer is. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. Intercostals are. Question Number. secondary joints. Question Number. Option A. crack limiting joints. . Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as. Option A. the battery compartment drain pipes will be. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries. 37. In a fully monocoque fuselage. NIL. Option C. Option B. shares the loads.

help bonding for top-coat. Question Number. Explanation. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. 38. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels. Explanation. provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat. Option B. Correct Answer is. if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member. Option A. . Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member.Option C. if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location. 39. Question Number. NIL. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing. 40. Option C. too much kinetic energy on landing. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. provide a flexible surface for top-coat. NIL. help bonding for top-coat. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to. Correct Answer is. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. Symmetry checks should be carried out. too much kinetic energy on landing. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. an excessive fuel load on take-off. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2. 41. Option C. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. Option B. Option A. plastic. Option B. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels. stainless steel. Question Number. page 6-8.

Explanation. Option B. temperature. Option B. 1 in 600. Question Number. Option C. bulkheads. Option A. 42. humidity. toxic gases. Correct Answer is. Option B. 43. Explanation. Option C. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is. the visual indicator will indicate.Explanation. stringers. stringers. humidity. When an item is cocooned. Option A. Question Number. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by. compression and tensile. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13. 44. Option A. 1 in 200. NIL. 45. 1 in 400. Torsional only. Correct Answer is. compression. Bending. 1 in 600. Question Number. . longerons. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. tensile and torsion. compression and tensile. Option C. Bending. Bending. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Correct Answer is. Which loads do longerons resist?. Option A. NIL. Option C.

wetting and gripping.2.1 Airframe Structures . wetting and Setting.03. Correct Answer is.Aeroplanes . Question Number. Fire-proof grommets. The purpose of a primer is to. Option A. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are. Option C. NIL. acid etch. Option B. Question Number. Option C. A module 7 questions. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding. 3. Explanation. 1. Correct Answer is. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?. Option A. Option C. Option A. Fire-proof grommets. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. wetting and Setting. provide shiny surface for the topcoat.1. Correct Answer is.11. Option B.Fuselage (ATA 52/53/56). Option B. None is required. Option C. 4. Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash. help bonding of the topcoat. acid etch. . Explanation. spreading and setting. 2. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'. solvent etch. CAIPs BL/6-20 PAra. help bonding of the topcoat. alkaline etch. provide flexible surface for the top coat. Explanation. Option A. we use. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Soft rubber.

bulkheads. Option C. Question Number. stringers. Which of the following statements is correct.4. Correct Answer is. 5.6 (last sentence). frames. Frames. Option A. CAIPs AL/7. Question Number. Explanation. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. 7075.5. Explanation. Option A. . Stringers. 8. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8. Option B. 2024. in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?. Option A. In semi-monocoque construction. Option B. Stringers. Option B. Option C. CAIPs AL/7-8 Para 4. PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once. 2024. stringers. Option A. PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication. CAIP AL/7-2 para 2.3. Option B. Explanation. Option C. providing they are used in critical bolted joints. 5056. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Question Number. PLI washers can be used more than once. Question Number. Correct Answer is. compression loads are taken by. Bulkheads.2 para 3. 7. Most large transport aircraft skins are. 6. Explanation.

what method of measurement is normally used?. Stringers. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?. 13. Steel tape and spring balance. CAIPs AL/7-12 3. CAIPs BL/7-3. Question Number.5 i. which component carries the majority of the loads?. Question Number. Option C. Nickel plating. Longerons. Correct Answer is. Option A. A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28. Zinc plating. Explanation. Option B. Option B. Option A. 9. 10. Skin. In a monocoque structure. 12. Paint remover substances. Skin. Explanation. . CAIPs BL/7-2. Magnesium alloys. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Cadmium plating. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft. 11. Option C. Aluminium alloys. Magnesium alloys.Question Number. Steel tape and spring balance. Question Number.3. Ferrous alloys. Correct Answer is. Longitudinal alignment method. Option C. Option C. Cadmium plating. Lateral alignment method. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Option B.

to seal the cabin.htm. absorbent to soak up electrolyte. Option C. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Question Number. should only be used once. are damaging to some aircraft parts. CAIP AL/7-2 para. to seal the cabin. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint. and remove the shank with a metal punch.1 says 'slightly smaller'.tpub. Aircraft Electrical Systems. metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.Option A. drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank. Option A. Option C. chisel off the rivet head. Question Number. To remove a rivet. chisel off the rivet head. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. to prevent corrosion. are damaging to some aircraft parts. and remove the shank with a metal punch. Correct Answer is. should only be used once. Pallett Page 24.7. Correct Answer is. Option B. 3. . metal for earthing purposes. Correct Answer is.7 and http://www. Explanation.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet'. Battery trays are. chisel off the rivet head. Option C. Option B. Explanation. should only be used once. 15. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is. because it is current. chisel off the rivet head. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 14. We chose the former. and remove the shank with a metal punch. to provide external streamlining. 16. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 3. Option B.com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156. but CAIPs BL/6-29 para 10. Option A. drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank.

Explanation. Explanation. Material under repair. Why is a joggle joint used?. Option C.4). What are the faying surfaces of a repair?. also acts as a. Question Number. Option B. A bonded waffle doubler. CAIPs AL/7-2 (crack stopper band fig. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. Material under repair. 21.Question Number. . jury strut. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Option B. simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated. lubricate the shank and threads. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:. 18. Option C.hi-shear. it is necessary to. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 20. Middle of repair. Edges of repair metal. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt. 17. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. shear tie. Option C. Option B. Explanation. 19. as well as acting as a skin strengthener. Question Number. Chapter 51 is General Practices. Explanation. lubricate the collar. tear stopper. Correct Answer is. Option A.com/fasteners Question Number. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together. Question Number. Option A. NIL. according to AMM and SRM chapter 51. http://www. according to SB instructions. Option A. tear stopper. according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC. Open to interpretation.

22. Option C. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Added strength. Option C. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. Mechanical and cemented. 23. Mechanical and cemented. NIL. NIL. 15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. 20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%. Explanation. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are. Smooth contour of surface. 24. Mechanical and specific. Explanation. To provide a smooth contour to surface. Option A. Question Number. high strength high toughness. Smooth contour of surface. Option A. So countersunk rivets do not need to be used. 25. Option B. Option A.Option A. Explanation. high strength high stiffness. NIL. Option B. Option B. Option B. Mechanical and specific. low strength high toughness. . Question Number. high strength high stiffness. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for. Option B. Why is a joggle joint used?. 15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%. Question Number. BL/6-20 5. What are the types of true bonded joints?. To add strength. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.

they can be ignored. To provide a flush fit. Skin panels may be strengthened by. Two webs separated by a boom. 28. Correct Answer is. Option C. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. . but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. To provide a flush fit. cleats. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached. Option B. Blind rivet. Option C. Pop rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved. Option A.Option C. NIL. One boom mounted under a web. stringers. Pop rivet. 27. Hi lock bolt. Arguably c also. 26. Question Number. they provide extra protection. Correct Answer is. they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft. NIL. stringers. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. which type of fastener would you use?. struts. they may be harmful to the aircraft structure. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. Option A. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids. Blind rivet. 29. Two booms separated by a web. Option A. Explanation.

to slow its rate of propagation. to prevent its initiation. Question Number. after a crack starts. Two booms separated by a web. before a crack starts. Question Number. is easier to manufacture. 32. vinyl and. Determine the fuel tanks are empty. acrylics. to slow its rate of propagation. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. takes all the loads in the skin. . Option A. Option B. A crack stopper is fitted. Install critical stress panels or plates. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. acrylics. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it. Option C. Option C. Option A. 30. Explanation. 31. shares the loads. cellulose. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Synthetic resins are made from nylon. Option B. Install critical stress panels or plates. Remove all optional equipment. asphalt. Option A. 33. before a crack starts. NIL. before a crack starts. Correct Answer is.Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Question Number. NIL. to slow its rate of propagation. shares the loads.

34. Correct Answer is. stainless steel. Correct Answer is. Option C. the battery compartment drain pipes will be. frames. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as. NIL. 37. Correct Answer is. skin. In a fully monocoque fuselage. compression ribs in cantilever wings. NIL. NIL. Explanation. 36.Question Number. all the loads are carried by the. Option A. Question Number. longerons. failsafe joints. Explanation. NIL. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. . failsafe joints. aluminium alloy. Option B. longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames. Option B. Option C. skin. Option B. vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane. secondary joints. Correct Answer is. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries. crack limiting joints. stainless steel. plastic. Option A. Intercostals are. 35. Option B.

in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. 38. Correct Answer is. in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks. too much kinetic energy on landing. Option C. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member. Option C. help bonding for top-coat. provide more aerodynamic finish for top-coat. the visual indicator will indicate. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. 40. Option C. NIL. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. an excessive fuel load on take-off. NIL. Explanation.Question Number. in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels. Option A. When an item is cocooned. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. too much kinetic energy on landing. Option C. page 6-8. Correct Answer is. 39. Option A. Correct Answer is. if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member. if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member. Option B. Question Number. humidity. 41. a missed placed centre of gravity on landing. Explanation. Option B. Option A. NIL. on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels. help bonding for top-coat. Question Number. Option A. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. provide a flexible surface for top-coat. Symmetry checks should be carried out. 42. if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location. . Question Number.

Torsional only. . Option B. tensile and torsion. 11. 1 in 600. 1 in 200. bulkheads. Question Number. compression and tensile. A spar web will take loads in. Option C. 1 in 600. Bending. 44.Option B. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by. stringers. 45. Option B. Bending. 1. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-4 p13. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Question Number.2 Airframe Structures . stringers.Aeroplanes . Correct Answer is. Explanation.Wings (ATA 57). Correct Answer is. compression. Explanation. toxic gases. Correct Answer is. temperature. compression and tensile. humidity. longerons. 43. Option A. Explanation. Bending. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. NIL. Option C. NIL. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is. Which loads do longerons resist?.03. NIL. 1 in 400. Option A. Option C. Option C.

mean chord 8 ft. Aspect Ratio = span/mean chord. span 8 ft. Explanation. CAIPs AL/7-2 fig 2. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Option A. top wing of a biplane.. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by. 3. A cantilever wing is a. Explanation. swept-back wing. 5. tension. main spar. mean chord 64 ft. Correct Answer is. usual airliner wing. span squared 64 ft. Option B. Option B. Option C. Explanation. chord 8 ft. . Option A. Option B. bending. An aspect ratio of 8 could mean. Question Number. Option A. what gives the wing its profile contour?. The bending is taken by the booms (as compression-top and tension . Option C. 2. Option C.bottom) and the web takes the shear. Option A. Option C. The main spar takes the wing bending and shear loads.. spar cap. span 64 ft. 4. shear. shear. (Sometimes called a 'shear' web). mean chord 8 ft. main spar. Question Number. Option A. On a mono-spar wing. Option B. Correct Answer is. takes bending and shear. Question Number.. usual airliner wing. Milled stringers. span 64 ft.. skin. Explanation. The spar as a whole. Question Number.

. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Ribs. aircraft structure. 6. slots. Explanation. interfay. Option A. front main spar. brush coat. Explanation. Option C. Question Number.Option B. Option C. Ribs. 9. Explanation. Option B. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and. support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount. leading edge flaps. Option B. 7. provide redundant design. AL/7-2 para 4. assist the main spar with operational loads. trailing edge flaps. Question Number. Option A. The main undercarriage is attached to the. leading edge flaps. aircraft structure. Option A. The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Slots are fixed features . assist the main spar with operational loads.2. Option C. Option B. The position of the spars. rear main spar. The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called. Correct Answer is. fillet. or are produced when the slats open. Option C.no linkages. Question Number. The only wholly correct answer. Option C. Correct Answer is. 8. Option A.

support the bending loads on a fuselage. One that has no external supporting struts. maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering. injection and prepack. NIL. Option B. Option B. Option A. Option A. Option A. The principle load bearing members of the wing are. One that has external supporting struts. Correct Answer is. NIL. One that folds for access to limited space. Option B. Fillet seal is the first coat. maintain the correct contour of an aerofoils covering. bending moment is greatest at the root. NIL. 10. One purpose of a rib is to. Option C.Correct Answer is. Question Number. brush coat. Explanation. Option C. form the main lateral member in an aerofoil. shear forces are greatest at the root. bending moment is greatest at the root. struts. Option A. spars. 12. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. One that has no external supporting struts. Question Number. 13. Question Number. What is a cantilever wing?. A spar is tapered from root to tip because. Option C. . centre of lift occurs close to the root. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811. Explanation. 11. ribs. spars. Explanation. the 3 coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed as fillet. Explanation.

Explanation. AL/7-2 para 4.1.

Question Number. 14. A spar web is.
Option A. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.
Option B. an area between two spar caps.
Option C. a rib/spar joint.
Correct Answer is. a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 15. A leading edge slat is attached to the.
Option A. slat track.
Option B. wing upper skin.
Option C. front spar.
Correct Answer is. slat track.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.b737.org.uk/flightcontrols.htm

1103.3(A&B) Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Stabilisers (ATA 55).

Question Number. 1. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?.
Option A. Shear.
Option B. Tension.
Option C. Bending.
Correct Answer is. Shear.
Explanation. A 'web' always takes shear loads.

Question Number. 2. The term 'empennage' incorporates.
Option A. rudder, ailerons, spoilers.
Option B. elevators, stabiliser, ailerons.
Option C. elevators, stabiliser, rudder.
Correct Answer is. elevators, stabiliser, rudder.

Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are.
Option A. spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels.
Option B. spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.
Option C. spar, rib, longerons, skin panels.
Correct Answer is. spar, rib, stringers, skin panels.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane, the
incidence of the tailplane would be.
Option A. decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.
Option B. decreased, which is done by lowering the trailing edge.
Option C. increased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.
Correct Answer is. decreased, which is done by lowering the leading edge.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane.
Option A. may increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft C of G position.
Option B. will decrease tailplane download.
Option C. will increase tailplane download.
Correct Answer is. will increase tailplane download.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. Variable incidence tailplanes.
Option A. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb.
Option B. out and landing approach and slowly during cruise always move slowly.
Option C. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing approach and slowly at all other times.
Correct Answer is. move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and landing approach and slowly during
cruise.

Explanation. B737-400, AMM 27-41-00 PAGE 5 para 1.c, trim speed is depend on the flap position. Trim rate with
flaps retracted is 1/3 the trim rate with flaps extended.

Question Number. 7. The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane is determined
by.
Option A. a gearbox.
Option B. solenoid operated clutches.
Option C. direction of rotation of the electric motor.
Correct Answer is. solenoid operated clutches.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane incidence
changes.
Option A. if the control column is moved back or forward.
Option B. automatically if the elevator moves.
Option C. if the trim wheel is turned back or forward.
Correct Answer is. if the trim wheel is turned back or forward.
Explanation. NIL.

11.03.4. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Flight Control Surfaces (ATA 55/57).

Question Number. 1. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface
assembly.
Option A. serves as a 'servo' system of balance.
Option B. has same effect of the balance tab.
Option C. is meant to trim CG of control surfaces.
Correct Answer is. has same effect of the balance tab.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook. Jeppesen 1-24 fig 1-59, balance tab 1-23 -para 3.

Question Number. 2. The fin helps to give.

Option A. directional stability about the normal axis.
Option B. longitudinal stability about the normal axis.
Option C. directional stability about the longitudinal axis.
Correct Answer is. directional stability about the normal axis.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-22.

Question Number. 3. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?.
Option A. Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs.
Option B. Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs.
Option C. Elevators, ailerons, rudder.
Correct Answer is. Elevators, ailerons, rudder.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. Aerodynamic balance.
Option A. will reduce aerodynamic loading.
Option B. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.
Option C. will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.
Correct Answer is. will reduce aerodynamic loading.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. Flutter can be reduced by using.
Option A. servo tabs.
Option B. mass balancing.
Option C. a horn balance.
Correct Answer is. mass balancing.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. An elevator provides control about the.
Option A. horizontal stabilizer.
Option B. longitudinal axis.

Option C. lateral axis.
Correct Answer is. lateral axis.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft.
Option A. are isolated at low speeds.
Option B. are isolated to improve sensitivity.
Option C. are isolated at high speeds.
Correct Answer is. are isolated at high speeds.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure.
Option A. rearwards, resulting in too much assistance.
Option B. rearwards, resulting in loss of assistance.
Option C. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Correct Answer is. forwards, resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 9. A flying control mass balance weight.
Option A. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
Option B. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Option C. ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load.
Correct Answer is. tends to move the control surface C of G.close to the hinge line.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?.
Option A. Elevator.
Option B. Aileron.
Option C. Rudder.
Correct Answer is. Rudder.

Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to.
Option A. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
Option B. allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow.
Option C. fit bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces.
Correct Answer is. attach weights forward of the hinge line.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. Control surface flutter may be caused by.
Option A. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
Option B. high static friction in trim tab control tabs.
Option C. incorrect angular movement of trim tabs.
Correct Answer is. excessive play in trim tab attachments.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 13. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to.
Option A. provide aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move the control.
Option B. ensure aileron control is retained at high angles of attack.
Option C. equalize aileron drag in a turn.
Correct Answer is. equalize aileron drag in a turn.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved.
Option A. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
Option B. by a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface.
Option C. by weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line.
Correct Answer is. by a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.

Question Number. 15. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to.
Option A. decrease the drag when the control is deflected.
Option B. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Option C. increase stability.
Correct Answer is. assist the pilot in moving the control.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7.

Question Number. 16. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to.

Option A. prevent control surface flutter.
Option B. provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.
Option C. make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control.
Correct Answer is. Provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 25 Para 7.

Question Number. 17. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface.
Option A. operating automatically to provide feel to the controls.
Option B. operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied.
Option C. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
Correct Answer is. operating automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 18. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by.
Option A. placing a weight ahead of the hinge point.
Option B. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Option C. placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.
Correct Answer is. providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Explanation. AL/3-24 para 4.2

Option B. Explanation. make the flying controls easier to move. A control surface is mass balanced by. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line. the attachment of weights acting on the hinge line. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 20. give more feel to the control column. Correct Answer is. reduce the control load to zero. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line. Option B. Option B. the attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line. Option A. fitting a balance tab. give more feel to the control column. make the flying controls easier to move. A horn balance is. 19. Aerodynamic balance is used to. Option A. relieve stick loads. Option C. Explanation. . a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached. a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line. 22. a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end. NIL. Option C. 21. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16 Question Number. NIL.Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. trim the aircraft. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Option A. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to. Option C. prevent flutter of the flying controls. NIL.

Question Number. engine.Question Number.03. Option B. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line. Correct Answer is. Option A. Airframe Structures . Option A. Option A. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in. Explanation. Option C. roll. . Correct Answer is. Option B. A pylon structural member supports the. pitch. engine. 23. 1. tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line. Option B. Question Number. NIL. keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible. Explanation.Aeroplanes . forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure. Option B. yaw. pitch. forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure. empennage. Explanation. Correct Answer is. centre section. NIL. aluminium castings. Jet engines are usually mounted by. Question Number. Option C.Nacelles/Pylons (ATA 54). Option C. 2. Correct Answer is. Option A. tends to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line. NIL. 24. NIL. welded steel tubing.5. Explanation. A flying control mass balance weight. Option C. 11.

the cabin altitude must. This will cause. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-34. stay the same. provide increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing. decrease. and cabin pressure will increase. Explanation.04(A&B) Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21). Question Number. Option B. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks. Option A.Question Number. provide wing bending relief. . Correct Answer is. Option C. valve will close. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34. Vapour cycle. Pneumatic pump. Option A. Option B. reduce tailplane download. Vapour cycle. 11.000ft). The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. Air cycle machine. Option B. Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. it will not effect on cabin pressure. increase. 1. CAIPs AL/3-23. Option A. Option A. the cabin pressure to decrease. Explanation. provide wing bending relief. Correct Answer is. NIL. 3. the cabin pressure to increase. If line leaks . Option C. decrease. 3. Option C. the cabin pressure to increase. Question Number. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 14-22. The discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?. Correct Answer is. Option B. 2.

CAIPs AL/3-23. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant. Option B. Question Number. to control the air from the cabin to outside. CAIPs AL/3-23. Question Number. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. inlet and vary the outlet. altitude sensor. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . cabin differential pressure. 7. Option A. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-22. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is. Option B. Option C. the rate of pressurisation. inlet and outlet. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-20. to prevent an excessive pressure difference. CAIP AL/3-23 para 7. altitude sensor. A spill valve opens. outlet and vary the inlet. cabin air flow. by. to control the flow to the cabin. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control. Correct Answer is. 8. 5. to control the flow to the cabin. Option A. Explanation.Question Number. Explanation. inlet and vary the outlet. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. cabin over pressure relief valve. 4. cabin differential pressure. bellows in the outflow valve. Option A. 6.000 ft.

Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. 10. Option A. Option C. 12. more important in descent. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-20 onwards. upstream of the turbine. downstream of turbine.Option A. have a constant mass flow. per min. more important in ascent.13. the differential capsule in the pressure controller will. a warning light comes on in the cockpit.3. Option B. let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure. an inward relief valve opens. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is. a warning light comes on in the cockpit. Explanation. downstream of heat exchanger. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard. .3 fig 3. A water separator is located. downstream of turbine. Option A. Question Number. more important in descent. let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard. Option B. 9.2. equally important in ascent and descent. Question Number. Question Number. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum. CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4. Option B. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-23 para 4. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16-30 or CAIPs AL/3-24 4.4. compressor delivery is automatically boosted. Explanation. 500 ft. CAIPs AL/3-23.4. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs. Explanation. 11. Question Number.

Correct Answer is. per min. NIL. Option A. Option A.Option B. 15.5. check all pitot and static lines are fitted. Before carrying out a ground pressure check. Explanation. BCAR Section D6. the cabin pressure will be zero. after an overheat. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. per min. Option C. Option C. . The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed. per min. 16. Option B. 120 feet per second. On ground only by engineer. set altimeter to QNH. 500 ft. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. the outflow valve will be shut. Option C. On touch-down of aircraft. turn on all instruments. Question Number. the outflow valve will be fully open. 14. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system. 120 feet per second. 300 ft. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 12.2. 13. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. how is the heater reset?. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-23. Option C. 20 feet per second. 40 feet per second. After it cools the pilot resets. 100 ft. Option A. Explanation.. the outflow valve will be fully open. check all pitot and static lines are fitted.

all closed. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Setting QFE is for the automatic control of the valves. 20. AL/3-23 12. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test. . it is necessary to. Option A. The pressurisation system must be controlled manually. Ditching control is used to. CAIPs AL/3-2 fig 5 item Y. Option B. On ground only by engineer. Option C. Question Number. Option C. close the outflow valves. Correct Answer is. all open. 19. internal doors. Explanation. 18. maintain cabin pressure at sea level.Option C. Explanation. Explanation. set QFE. Option A. 17. Option B. the sub-cooler. disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes. A&P Technician Airframe pg 14-30 under Safety Features. must be. Question Number. reset/disable the pressure controller. Correct Answer is. After cooling below 300°C it auto resets. Correct Answer is. delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground. Option A. removed. close the outflow valves. is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. Question Number. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-2. all open. Option C. Question Number.4. reset/disable the pressure controller.3. Option B. cupboards etc. Option B. achieve rapid depressurisation. In typical vapour cycle system.

Option A. Option B. restricting compressor outlet. increase the temperature of air.com/content/aviation/14020/css/14020_106. is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour. Option A. Correct Answer is. 24. Best answer we can get to a bad question. In an air conditioning system. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-24 Para 2. decrease the temperature of air. Explanation. NIL. Option B. restricting compressor outlet. Explanation. Heat is added by varying the amount of compressor outlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger. An air cycle machine turbine. Used on air conditioning systems to supply air on ground. Option C. decrease the temperature of air.tpub. 23. . Correct Answer is. Turbo fan. Explanation. Option A. Option B. cools the vapour further to prevent slugging. Explanation. Turbo compressor.2. heat is added to air by. 22. Option C.htm Question Number. drives compressor to decrease temperature.Option C. drives compressor to pressurise aircraft. http://www. restricting duct outlets. 21. Correct Answer is. drives compressor to increase temperature. Which of the following can be used on the ground?. increase and decrease the temperature of air. Option A. Option C. Question Number. restricting compressor inlet. Option B. Correct Answer is. Air conditioning systems. Question Number. Option C. Turbo fan. Turbo brake.

. Explanation. Option A. Option C.Correct Answer is. cabin will not pressurise. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure. aircraft altitude. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM. Option C. If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. drives compressor to increase temperature. will have decreased pressure and temperature. Option B. Explanation. cabin remains at sea level untill maximum differential. will have increased pressure and temperature. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-23. Explanation. maximum differential is reached immediately after take-off. 25. In the flightdeck of a pressurised aircraft. Explanation. sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin. The compressor is to INCREASE the temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be extracted. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 27. Option B. Option A. cabin pressure altitude. 26. Option C. the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure. Question Number. Option A.000ft and standard barometric pressure. cabin will not pressurise. Option B. no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor. 28. will have increased pressure and temperature. Option A. Correct Answer is. there is a gauge that shows. cabin differential pressure. Correct Answer is. cabin differential pressure. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. NIL. 8.

Option A. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency. Option C.Explanation. At the inlet of the compressor. cabin ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency. Correct Answer is. if the engines are shut-down. AL/3-24 Figure 3 (effect of the Spill Valve). aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens. At the outlet of the blower. CAIPs shows it at the outlet of the turbine (not one of the answers). At the inlet of the blower. Option B. outflow valve opens immediately. Question Number. Option B. It is not affected by altitude. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. It is not affected by altitude. At low altitudes. Option B. At the inlet of the turbine. At the outlet of the blower. Question Number. Question Number. At the inlet to the cabin. Option A. NIL. At the inlet of the turbine. Question Number. Option C. Option C. 31. Correct Answer is. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?. AL/3-24 Figure 3. Option A. . 32. 30. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. At high altitudes. At the outlet of the compressor. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?. 29. Explanation. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential. B757 has an additional water trap at the inlet of the turbine. NIL. Explanation.

Explanation. Option B. Option C. Question Number. 33. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to. NIL. Correct Answer is. TCV. 40% of recirculated air. BCAR Section D.5 lbs per minute per person. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Option A. the air goes through the. 40% of fresh air. In a cabin air recirculation system. 60% of fresh air. Option A. 0. Option C. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.5 lbs per minute per person. Option A. 0. recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions. . Question Number. 1 lbs per minute per person. TCV and mixer valve. Question Number. TCV. Correct Answer is. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?. 50% of recirculated air. 10 lbs per minute per person. In an air conditioning system.Question Number. Option B. 60% of fresh air. Correct Answer is. NIL. ensure that system differential pressure is not exceeded. flow control valve. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 60% of recirculated air. 36. maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes. Explanation. control the airflow out of the cabin. 35. 50% of fresh air. before distribution. 34. Option B. NIL. 40% of recirculated air. Option C.

Option B. hottest from a compressor driven by an engine gear box. Option B. Option A. most important in descent. Explanation. the same for both the above sources. Correct Answer is. Cabin pressure is maintained by. spill valves. NIL. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin. Option B. Option A. Question Number. spill valves. Option B.5. AL/3-24 Fig. automatic control devices. 40. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by. Option C. hottest from an engine compressor bleed. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. controlling the output of the compressor. most important in descent. 3. Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is. Option C. . 41. 38. most important in ascent. Explanation. controlling the amount of air discharged from the cabin. Option A. 39.3/2. Explanation. Option A. 37. controlling the supply of air to the cabin. AL/3-24 2. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is. equally important in descent and ascent. hottest from an engine compressor bleed. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-23. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to.Question Number. engine speed variations.

Correct Answer is. Option A.2.O. limit negative differentials. reduce the air supply temperature. CAIPs AL/3-24 Fig 3. AL/3-24 4. Question Number. is less than ambient R. is more than ambient R. Option C. During normal pressurized climb following take-off. Option A. Option A.O. Explanation.C. Inward vent valves are fitted to. increase the air supply temperature. limit negative differentials. Correct Answer is. Option C. 44.Option A. Option B. varying the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger. Option C. Option A. reduce the air supply temperature. CAIPs AL/3-23 6. Explanation. 42. the cabin R. Explanation. Option B. Option B.C.2. Cabin rate of climb is shown by. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.C. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by. warning lights. 43. a double scale on the aircraft. regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system. Option C. Explanation. a double scale on the aircraft. Question Number. controlling the water vapour in the supply. provide an emergency ram air supply. CAIPs AL/3-23 Fig 3. Option B. Option B.O.O. Correct Answer is. a special instrument. limit positive differentials.C. the cabin R. increase ventilation. 45. .

S. 47. Option B. is less than ambient R. Correct Answer is. Option B. conditions. Question Number. In pressurized aircraft. Explanation.000 ft and sea level. varying cabin pressure.A. altitude at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure. Option A.S. Correct Answer is. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2. Correct Answer is. extracting heat from the pressurising air. cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude. 8. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2. cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude. adding heat to the pressurising air.2. conditions and aircraft altitude. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 2. 48. CAIPs AL/3-23 6. 49. Option C. aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft. extracting heat from the pressurising air.O. Explanation. the differential pressure is constant. Option B.C. .Option C. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. Correct Answer is. Option C. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between. Option A.C. Option A. pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I. Option C. 46. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the. Explanation. Question Number. I. Explanation. Option A. depressurising after descent. Option B. temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by. Inward vent valves will operate when. the cabin R. Option C. altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft.A.O. Question Number.

Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. only by adding heat electrically to the air supplies. Option A. NIL. Option B. Explanation. Option C. CAIPS AL/3-24 4. AL/3-24 4. NIL. Explanation. air supply heated by the pressurising process. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. 53. air supply heated by the pressurising process. Question Number. Option A. an internal oil leak will. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be. Question Number. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-24 4. despite compression heating. 51.2. contaminate the air. not contaminate the air.2. driving the units compressor. contaminate the air. lower than ambient air temperature despite compression heating. driving the units compressor. a little more than ambient air temperature. a little more than ambient air temperature. Option C. 50. Option C. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor. Option A. 52. Option B. Option C. Option B. reducing pressure and driving the units compressor. not affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard.Explanation. Question Number. reducing pressure. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. same as ambient temperature. .

0.i.I.S.s. Explanation. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a. constant mass flow.i. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-23 9. Option B. all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.i. Option C. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-23 fig 3. Option C. diff. 57. Correct Answer is. Question Number. pressure controller/dump valve combination. cabin pressure gauge. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding. Explanation. Option B. 56.5 p. Option A. NIL. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a. pressure controller/discharge valve combination.5 p.16 p. Option B. cabin V. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for. pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure. NIL. . 55.i. 0. discharge valve/inwards relief valve combination.s.Question Number. Option A. 1. 0. 54.2 p.S. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. pressure controller/discharge valve combination. Option B. Correct Answer is.I. Option A. constant mass flow. cabin V. Correct Answer is.s.s. cabin altimeter. When an aircraft has reached max. Question Number. Option C.

Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor. air supply to the cabin. airport altitude selectors. 60. at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10. Option A.2. CAIPs AL/3-23 6. Question Number. Explanation. . inwards relief valves. Option B. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting. cabin pressure differential.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. directing compressed air into a heat exchanger. Correct Answer is. safety relief valve. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be. pressurisation does not start before aircraft is above 8. safety relief valve. Option B. The function of spill valves is to control. Option C. the rate of pressurisation.000 ft. 58. Pressurisation control ensures that. 61. Option B. air supply to the cabin. Correct Answer is. 59. Question Number. 62. Option C. Option A. Question Number. expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor. the cabin is always maintained at sea level. Option A. Option C. at operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10. Option A. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-24 4. CAIPs AL/3-23.000 ft. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by. air supply to the cabin.1. Explanation.000 ft. cross connected.

and lower altitudes. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 10. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?. Option C. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-23 12. 65. . Occasionally. Correct Answer is. connected. Option A. Option B. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the. Option B. Question Number. No. Option C. discharge valve opens. outward relief valve is inoperative. Option B. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S. pressure controller should be adjusted. Option B. Question Number. to give a heating effect. Correct Answer is. Yes. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 3. connected. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is. to spill overboard excess air delivered at S. Explanation. 66. to relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere. pressure controller should be adjusted.Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. and lower altitudes. discharge valve should be adjusted. NIL. Correct Answer is. mass flow ceases through the cabin. Option C.L.L.2 iv. disconnected. 64. Explanation. Option A. discharge valve closes.2. Option C. Option A. Option A. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the. Explanation. Explanation. 63.2. Option C. discharge valve opens.5.

most undesirable because of the drag created. Option B. Closed. Pressure relief valve. 68. most desirable because it increases the air-flow. Option A.2.9. combustion heater. AL/3-23 12. Open. not effective in any way.3. Closed.10. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. AL/7-11 3. AL/3-23 12. most undesirable because of the drag created. exhaust heater. Both position. Explanation. Option B. this is an. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?. Option A. Question Number. exhaust heater. Option C. thermal heater.Correct Answer is. 69. Option B. Yes. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside the muffler. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 70.3. Question Number. Explanation. 67. Pressure discharge valve. . Explanation. Option C. Pressure regulator controller. To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?. Pressure discharge valve. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B.2.

Option A. Question Number. Conditioned air is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. lower differential pressure than the discharge valve. NIL. CAIPs AL/3-23 Para 5. temperature and pressure adjusted. Correct Answer is. air bled directly from engine or through blower. Option B. Option A. . to relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater. Option C. Option A. In a turbo fan cold air system. 72. Explanation. oxygen added. 73. Correct Answer is. ram air from ambient conditions. the heat exchanger cooling air is. Option B. Explanation. 74.3. Option C. to allow controlled pressure during descent. AL/3-24 3. ram air from ambient conditions. 71. NIL.Explanation. Option B. temperature and pressure adjusted. A safety valve will normally relieve at. negative differential pressure. Question Number. higher differential pressure than the discharge valve. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. bled from cabin air supply duct. Option C. to allow controlled pressure during descent. NIL. Option B. Explanation. higher differential pressure than the discharge valve. moisture removed. to achieve maximum pressure differential.

The principle of cabin pressurisation is. regulating the position of the outflow valve. Option A. the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced. Correct Answer is. cabin altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft. 76. maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude. the cabin climbs to a lower altitude. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained. regulating the position of the inward relief valve. Explanation.Question Number. Option A. Option A. Option B. Option C. whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the cabin climbs to a lower altitude. NIL. Option C. NIL. Explanation. all pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere. Option C. cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude. Option C. Option B. whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. ensure system operating pressure is not exceeded. Explanation. . 77. Correct Answer is. maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude. NIL. constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin. Option B. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by. Question Number. constant mass airflow is permitted through the cabin. regulating the position of the outflow valve. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to. 75. Explanation. regulating the mass flow into the cabin. ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude. 78. NIL.

30 percent. and A. Correct Answer is. NIL.U. Option B. Correct Answer is. a G. Question Number. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?. Option A. Option B. open. Explanation. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from. 82. remain closed.Question Number. Option A.P. Question Number. 83. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of. 81. Question Number. the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system. NIL. you should use. the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system. Undercarriage switches. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. not operate. Option B. 20 percent. remain closed. Throttle switches. Option C. Option C. 30 percent.P. then the outflow valve will normally. NIL. When carrying out a ground pressure test. combination. Question Number. ground trolley and clean air. NIL. . 60 percent. Option C. 80.U. Option C. Throttle switches. 79. Flap position switches. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Option A. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches overridden. Option A.

NIL. Question Number. 86. Option B. Correct Answer is.Option A. 18ºC to 24ºC. Explanation. the warm air supply is provided by. Explanation. Option B. the compressor of the gas turbine engine. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system. Option A. 85. gas turbine intake ram air. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 84. NIL. Option A. NIL. ram air at the wing leading edge. gas turbine compressor bleed air. Question Number. Question Number. Option C. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. 87. gas turbine compressor bleed air. The cabin altitude is. Option B. . the engine exhaust heat. Option A. the gas turbine exhaust. Question Number. the equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. Option B. the compressor of the gas turbine engine. NIL. 12ºC to 18ºC. Option A. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. 20ºC to 24ºC. 18ºC to 24ºC. The cabin differential pressure is. Option C. Option B.

Option B. Option A. Explanation. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. Option B. Option A. . NIL.Option C. NIL. Option B. 91. Option A. passes across an expansion turbine. Question Number. the outflow valves. the actual height of the aircraft above sea level. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by. 89. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. the difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure. the outflow valves. increases. Option B. decreases. the oxygen content. then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger. NIL. the vent valves. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine. passed across an expansion turbine. then directly to the heat exchanger. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. increases. Option C. Oxygen content increases as mass per unit volume. ISA conditions and aircraft altitude. Question Number. remains constant. 90. Question Number. When air is pressurized. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 8000 ft. cabin pressure and ambient pressure. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first. Explanation. Option C. Cabin pressure differential is the difference between. but NOT as a percentage of the other gases in air. and sea level. Explanation. Option C. 88. the dump control valves. Your interpretation of the question may differ.

. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'. Option C. a rate of descent. sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude. Explanation. Question Number. the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level. Option C. A negative differential pressure is prevented by. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet. the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure. Option B. Question Number. 93. Option C. provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits. NIL. Explanation.Correct Answer is. NIL. 95. a rate of descent. 92. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. NIL. Explanation. a rate of climb. Option A. a blow off valve. Correct Answer is. Option A. zero. Correct Answer is. 8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin pressure differential is not exceeded. an inward relief valve. Correct Answer is. 94. NIL. the cabin rate of change indicator will show. Correct Answer is.000 ft is reached. Option B. Option A. the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant. compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine. Option C. the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure. an inward relief valve. Question Number. Option B. a spill valve. If cabin pressure is increasing. Option A.

99. Option A. NIL. by surface heat exchange in the C. Option C. 96. Option B. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C. conversion of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C. Question Number.5 PSI. selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller. by compression of ambient air across a turbine. Option B. Option A.A. selected by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve. Option B. Correct Answer is.5 PSI. Option C. automatic. Correct Answer is. AL/3-23 Fig 2 Pg 3. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 770 Fig 16-34. +0. Correct Answer is. Option C. not be less than 60%. Question Number. Rate of change of cabin pressure is.5 PSI. 97. Explanation. 98. NIL.Explanation. be between 30% and 70%. Option A. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is. .U. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is.A.A. +9.25 PSI. Question Number.U.U. Option C. not be greater than 40%. Explanation. -0. be between 30% and 70%. Question Number. selected by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller. NIL. The humidity within a passenger cabin should. Option B. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of. -0.

Option B. Question Number. 5. 11. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 11. the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height. 101. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system. Question Number. 300 ft/min. apply suction to remove air and moisture. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. 102. Question Number.6 PSI. the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be. the height at which the aircraft is flying. the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height. . Option A. If the ambient pressure is 2.4 PSI. 100. Option C. BCAR Section D. Option A. NIL. NIL. pre-heat the system to 100°F. Explanation. the selected cabin height. Option C.5 PSI. flush the system with a solvent.5 PSI at cruising altitude. Option A. apply suction to remove air and moisture.9 PSI. 8. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8. 25 ft/min. 25 ft/min. 200 ft/min. NIL. Correct Answer is. Cabin differential is determined only by. Option B. Correct Answer is.Question Number.4 PSI. Option C. 103. Explanation. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than.

Option B. Option A. Question Number. A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce. Option A.5. the rate of change of pressure should be low. Question Number. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to. NIL. . 105. Explanation. Option B. Option C. the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system. Option C. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system. when cabin pressure is decreasing. Option A. remain at ground level pressure. thus increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage. maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes. decrease to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft. the noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system. Correct Answer is. To avoid discomfort. NIL.Question Number. AL/3-24 fig 3 and para 2. Option C. during descent. Correct Answer is. ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure. Explanation. Option A. 106. during descent. the cabin pressure would. Question Number. particularly. Option B. Correct Answer is. engine noise coming through the ventilators. Option B. maintain human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes. the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system. remain at ground level pressure. NIL. Explanation. decrease to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order toIf the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression. 104. Explanation. Option C. during ascent. Correct Answer is. 107.

Correct Answer is.3. Question Number. the spill valve. the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10. Question Number. Explanation.000 ft. the cabin discharge valve. AL/3-23 6. the pressurization ensures that. the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached. Option C. the cabin discharge valve. changing a liquid into a vapour. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.000 ft. to restore ground level conditions is the cabin. Correct Answer is. the flight altitude set on the pressurization . AL/3-24 para 13. Correct Answer is. Option C. 108. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling. If an aircraft is operating at 40. Option B. Option B. the cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10. Option A. Question Number. 110. when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure. An inward relief valve will operate. Explanation. Question Number. when cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure. Option C.2.2. Option A. sea level pressure is maintained in the cabin. Option C. when climbing with pressurization OFF. after an aircraft has landed. 112. When cruising near the operational ceiling. changing a vapour into a liquid. Correct Answer is. 109. Explanation. changing a liquid into a vapour. reducing the pressure of a vapour. Option B. Explanation. 111. Option B. system heat is removed from the charge air by. The pressure controller activates. Option A.Question Number. Option A.000 ft. the blower or compressor. NIL.

Correct Answer is. Explanation. safety valve operation. 114. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Explanation. inter cooler or secondary heat exchanger. Option A. extract water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere. 113. as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights. on a specific indicator. inward relief valve operation. by a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator. fan. . Correct Answer is. pressure controller hunting. Option B. fan. Option A.control panel may be 500 ft. Option C. a gauge being used. A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent. Option B. turbine. The cabin rate of climb is shown. extract surplus water from the charge air. Option C. Option B. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option C. the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system flows to the. on a specific indicator. Question Number. pressure controller hunting. 116. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. extract surplus water from the charge air. Question Number. Question Number. 115. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by. collect any rain accompanying the ram air. Option B. Option A.

Explanation. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude. 117. Option B. too high an internal pressure. 118. Question Number. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.Option A. thermal inertia and heat load. Option B. Option C. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. constant at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes. Correct Answer is. Option A. 120. Explanation. ambient ram air. air bled from the main cabin supply duct. temperature and humidity. Option C. . Option A. 119. Explanation. Question Number. a high negative differential pressure. the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is. Option C. temperature. variable. Explanation. When dissipating heat in a vapour cycle system. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of an aircraft is not subjected to. Question Number. forces which would cause the aircraft to explode. engine bleed air or blower air. Correct Answer is. humidity. a high negative differential pressure. ambient ram air. Option A. temperature and humidity. reasonably constant irrespective of altitude. Question Number. Option C. depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. In most pressurization systems. temperature only. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by.

restricting duct outlets. at high altitudes. vapour converts to a liquid. Correct Answer is. Option B. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of. Explanation. Option B. dots. restricting compressor outlet. . A cabin humidifier is operated. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. at low altitudes. Question Number. Option A. Option B. on the ground. Option C. outflow valve position. inward relief valve position. Option A.Option A. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Question Number. Correct Answer is. outflow valve position. 121. rectangles. heat is added to the air by. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Correct Answer is. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are. cabin mass air flow. Option B. 122. Question Number. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. vapour converts to a liquid. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 124. the liquid sublimates. triangles. Explanation. dots. Option C. 123. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. liquid converts to a vapour. Option A. In an air conditioning system. at high altitudes. Option C. Option A.

Question Number. not affect the charge air pressure. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by. Ditching control is used for. Option C. rapid aircraft depressurisation. Correct Answer is. closing all valves and inlets. Option A. inwards relief valve. restricting compressor outlet. Option A. Option C. decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air. ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times. Correct Answer is. closing all valves and inlets. Option A. Question Number. ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes. Option B. cabin safety relief valves. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. 128. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will. Explanation. restricting compressor inlet. Question Number. ensure that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times. Explanation. Correct Answer is. . Correct Answer is. Explanation. cabin safety relief valves. 127. Option A. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Option C. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to. spill valves. decrease pressure and temperature of the charge air. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. deploying life rafts. 125. Option B. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. allow pilot to select the desired cabin altitude. 126. increase the pressure but decrease the temperature. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para.Option C.

NIL.Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. Option B. 2. .000 ft. Option C. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?. 2 500 ft radio alt. Option B. 2 500 ft radio alt. Correct Answer is. 1 000 ft radio alt. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?. Correct Answer is. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?. 1. Option A. 3.05. Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 223. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. ASI. Option A. 10 cubic feet/minute. Option A. Question Number. 129. VSI. 500 ft. Machmeter. Option C. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at.Instrument Systems (ATA 31). Question Number.500 ft. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-20 lh column last para. 10.500 ft. Option A. 10 lbs/minute. 2. Option B. 10 cubic feet/minute. Instruments/Avionic Systems . VSI. Question Number.1. Correct Answer is. Option B. Whatever the captain sets. 11. 10 000 ft radio alt. 2. Question Number. Option C. Explanation.

Option B. Explanation. 4. Option B. Correct Answer is.jp/~jahfa/kokuningen/Q.ne. Option B. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on. Question Number. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-. cos of latitude. Option A. QDM. Altimeter. Air speed indicator. Aircraft on the ground with one engine running. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Aircraft in the air with both engines running. sin of latitude. QFU. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 103. vertical speed indicator. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. http://www2.tky. Option C. Option C. Altimeter is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure.3web.Explanation. Altimeter. Option C.html Question Number. 7. QFU. Eismin p323-324. Correct Answer is. when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?. NIL. Option A. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of. Option C. QDR. Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391. 6. tan of latitude. cos of latitude. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. . The runway heading is. Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on. 5.

Question Number. always. . EICAS. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point. IRS. move probe up. Option B. 9. Option B. 10. Accelerometer. ADI. move probe down. Where is alpha angle used?.000 ft. Aircraft Instrument and Integrated Systems . Explanation. so it operates sooner. above 10. Option C. Radio marker information is displayed on. Angle of attack. Option B. Explanation. Option A.Pallett Page 73. Move probe up. Option A. always except on the ground. HIS. Question Number. Correct Answer is. always. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 45. Rectification is to.Question Number. move probe laterally. Option A. Option B. 11. A machmeter works. Question Number. 8. Angle of attack. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 358. ADI. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Option C. move probe up.

Option B.25. Correct Answer is. Outer gimbal. NIL. Jeppesen Aircraft Instruments and Avionics Page 90. 13. 1013. Option B. Vibration monitoring signals are sent. A & P Technician Airframe Textbook Chap III page 592. 1013. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. carry out a check swing after fitment. 1013. Option C. direct to the gauge. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from. Explanation.Question Number. 14. Option B. Inner gimbal. fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was removed from. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?. align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error is induced. Explanation. . Inner gimbal. Option C.25 mb or QNE. Question Number.25. Explanation. QFE. via a half-wave rectifier to the gauge. Option A. Rotating vane. Question Number. In Airways flying. Correct Answer is. 15. via a signal conditioner to the gauge. via a signal conditioner to the gauge. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. 12. what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?. QNH. Question Number. Option A. NIL. Option A.

Correct Answer is. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195. Error warning in view. zero and positive. aft of combustion chamber. 16. Rad. Option B. Option A. goes out of view. Explanation. alt. Option A. . The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient. Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Rad. Option B. The restriction is to damp out surges in pressure. Option C. allow for calibration.500 ft. Explanation. zero and minus. prevent FOD ingestion. alt. Option A. ambient and minus. alt. Option B. 20. Option C. Correct Answer is. This is from. alt. Explanation. Option B. 19. reaches 2. dampen sudden pressure changes. flag in view. by compressed bleed air. The hot junction is the sensor. Option C. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. Correct Answer is. This is to. Explanation. The hot junction of thermocouple is. 18. Option A. 17. what happens to the display?. Question Number. When a rad. in the combustion chamber. goes out of view. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. Correct Answer is. aft of combustion chamber. Question Number. Rad. Option A.Question Number. Pitot tubes are heated. ambient and minus. in the instrument. aft of the combustion chamber. dampen sudden pressure changes.

CAIPs AL/10-1 Para 3. yellow. Question Number. electrically. a full test of the system should be carried out. Correct Answer is. Option B. Red. Option A. Option B. Pallett Page 290. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?. Explanation. Explanation. 22. below ambient pressure. Option A. The 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient. Red. Question Number. Explanation. and a quick release disconnect connection is disturbed. electrically. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. 24. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________ ________________ when close to stall. thrust levers. magenta. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. green. flap position. thrust levers. Option A. above ambient pressure. Option C. Option B.Option B. below ambient pressure. . This is. Option C. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury.2. blue. blue. Explanation. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system. cyan. Yellow. above zero pressure. green. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. blue. Red. NIL. fast/slow switch. 23. by kinetic heating. Option C. 21.

8. Option C. Option A.50 feet for instrument error. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees.eur-rvsm. radar. Option B. a full test of the system should be carried out.200 feet plus +/.Option B. Explanation. the allowances for the system should be halved. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure. ILS.htm PAra.com/library.htm PAra. attitude. +/. radar.3 Question Number. VOR. 28.50 feet for instrument errors. remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure. Explanation. ILS. VOR. Jeppesen .8. +2 degrees. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. plan.200 feet plus +/. attitude. Option C. aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised. plan. NIL. Correct Answer is. radar. map. aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns. Correct Answer is. Attitude is on the EADI. the maximum tolerance for the system would be. 27. VOR. Question Number. Option A. NIL.com/library. http://www2. Option C. Explanation. South error . ILS. Option C.500 feet for the system overall. .3 Question Number. VOR. ILS. +/. Explanation. 26. map. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM. Correct Answer is. Option B. The HSI provides information on. The coefficient C is. Option B. a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so.300 feet plus +/. The sensing element of the flux valve.50 feet for instrument error. plan. +/.Avionics Fundamentals Page 106-110. +/. Question Number. 25.2 degrees. http://www2. map.eur-rvsm.

Correct Answer is. micrometer. the maximum allowable error is. Option B. 29. on the ground only. AL/10-5 page 6 table 1 (-2)-(-2)/2 = 0. . Option C. Explanation. Tied down. 30. -2 degrees. 0 degrees. Option A.Option B. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing. both on the ground only and in the air. Explanation. Option B. 31. Explanation. NIL. an inclinometer. Option A. 3 degrees. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?. 5 degrees. 32. A radio altimeter system can be self tested. Option C. CAIPs AL/10-5 9 note. 0 degrees. Correct Answer is. 5 degrees. Question Number. 1 degrees. Displacement. Tied down. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems Pallett page 129. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with. AL/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. an inclinometer. spirit level. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. Space.

Correct Answer is. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 104. Option C. gyro friction and unbalance. gyro friction and unbalance. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. when 90 degrees apart. The apparent wander for directional gyros is. Option B. aircraft turning with an error in roll. drift. Correct Answer is. Option B. 36. when 45 degrees apart. maximum at the pole. toppling. . Option A. Explanation. Question Number. 35. when parallel to each other. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for. error in roll when aircraft is turning. both on the ground only and in the air. NIL. erection. Option A. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 192. Option A. in the air only. Option B. NIL. compensated by applying a constant torque. drift. Correct Answer is. compensated by applying a constant torque. Option B. Random drift of a gyro is caused by.Option C. 34. dependant on longitude. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. 33. when 90 degrees apart. Explanation. Option C.

NIL. Option B. on any heading. both are adjusted on each heading.Explanation. Question Number. 38. Explanation. 24 inches. AL/10-5 9.7. 20 inches. on any heading. Al/10-5 9.2. Option C. at 270 degrees. Angle between flinders bars determines their correcting influence. Correct Answer is. 40. Option A. slave adjusted. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system. Explanation. Gauge requires re-calibration.2 Note. 24 inches. master adjusted. Correct Answer is. master and slave adjusted. slave adjusted. Correct Answer is.2. Explanation. So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass. Option C. Transmitter is unserviceable. Option A. Gauge requires re-calibration. Correct Answer is. Coefficient A is adjusted. each having a corrected compass card. AL/10-5 9. Option B. Option B. each having a corrected compass card. With engine static and engine blanks fitted. Question Number. Option C. master adjusted. Option A. Explanation. EPR gauge reads just above 1. . at 360 degrees. Question Number. This is normal. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?. Option B. 39. 37. correction card for master only. Question Number. Option C. Option A.

org. what does amber indicate?. Option B. Question Number. Option B.uk/probes. Option A. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?. Question Number.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.b737. Option A. Option B. INS. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?. Option A. . Present status. Question Number. Correct Answer is. EICAS. Both. Upper. Option C. 45. When power is switched off. Option A. Avionics Fundamentals Page 185. 41. Option C. INS. Cautionary info. Which instrument shows Decision Height?. HIS. 42. Option C. the gimbal brake. Lower. ECAM. 44. Option B. ADI. Explanation. Explanation. Pitot static probes. Avionics Fundamentals Page 128. Option C. Correct Answer is.htm Question Number. Cautionary info. http://www. Upper. Explanation. Warning. ADI. Explanation. On the CWP. 43. NIL. NIL.

ASI. standby altimeter. required flight path compared with aircraft position.fiu. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?. Option A. Option C. Option C. On an EADI the command bars show the. (Note: VOR is 5° per dot. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. FMC.htm Question Number. 2. stops outer gimbal. 46. Option A. Option C. Energised off. Option B. 6°. Explanation. Option C. 48.Option A.edu/aero/FltDirS. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?. Secondary Radar is ATC transponder encoder. 47. secondary radar. Question Number. altimeter. ASI.allstar. secondary radar. required flight path compared with aircraft position. http://www. Explanation. restricts inner gimbal. Question Number. restricts inner gimbal. 49. Option B. Correct Answer is. . restricts outer gimbal. required flight path compared to planned flight path. The airdata computer inputs to. Explanation.5°. FMC. Correct Answer is. ILS is 2 1/2° per dot). FMC for nav. Used for gimbal lock prevention. 10°. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 212/213. Explanation. mach-meters. Option B. Option A. cabin rate sensors. Correct Answer is. As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer. mach meter. 10°. altimeter. required flight path compared with horizon. Option B. altimeter.

Explanation. Option A. an azimuth gyro. At what height does the rising runway appear?. Option A. no other sources. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft. 52. In a modern HSI. Question Number. what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?. Option C. 50. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips. Explanation. the displays are.Option B. an azimuth gyro. Option C. In a compass system. Correct Answer is.25mb). NIL. Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips. Explanation. course and direction. . An RMI has inputs from VOR and. As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013. Question Number. Explanation. direction and attitude. Correct Answer is. A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft. Question Number. Option C. Option C. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 303. Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 182. Option A. course and attitude. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 194. Option B. Option B. Option B. 51. course and direction. a remote compass input. Question Number. 53. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below the aircraft.

compressor outlet.co. reservoir. 200 ft. DME hold. the electric gyro runs. . Option A. same speed. Option C. Errors when aircraft banking. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 199. Compared to air driven gyros. reservoir. What is apparent drift due to?.Option A. Option C. Question Number. 55. slower. Option A. 54. Option C. Option B. DME hold. 300 ft. Explanation.uk/instruments/readout-pneumatic. compressor inlet. Explanation. Question Number. Option B.demon. Explanation. faster. Option B. Option A. faster. Correct Answer is. Option C.html Question Number. VOR hold. ILS approach. 57. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 358. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. 200 ft. 56. Correct Answer is. NIL. NIL. http://www. Option A. 500 ft.gage-technique. An H on the EHSI indicates. Correct Answer is. Earths rotation.

Gyro pivot friction. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 102. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule. Earths rotation. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer. Option C. a leak check is always required. True airspeed and speed of sound. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings. 60. Correct Answer is. the rad. pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored. True airspeed / indicated airspeed. Above 2500 ft. Option C. . Alt. Explanation. Option A. pitot to the capsule. Question Number. continues to indicate but with a warning flag. Correct Answer is. An aircraft airspeed indicator has. Question Number. 58. Correct Answer is. 61. Option B. Option C. Harris Page 20. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option A. and Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. Kermode Mechanics of Flight 10th edition p339. How does a machmeter work?. 59. pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Indicated airspeed / temperature. Option B. static to the capsule. Explanation. Option B. pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule. Option B. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance Page 189. Question Number. a leak check is not required.Option C. Explanation. True airspeed and speed of sound. Option A.

go hard over. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit. The flux detector element. this is due to insufficient de-aeration. Explanation. Option A. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude. http://www. Option C. NIL. changes heading with the heading of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. two coils and an electromagnet. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. gives heading with respect to magnetic north. NIL. Option C. changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed. this has no influence on compass readings. Explanation. this is due to insufficient de-aeration. Correct Answer is. 62. Explanation. The needle of a resolver is connected to. this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying. NIL. Option B. Question Number.se/files/compass. Option B. be sluggish. oscillate. two coils and a permanent magnet. Option B. two coils only. Question Number. 64. Option A. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. oscillate.silva. NIL. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Option C. a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.html#BUBBLES . 63. Question Number. two coils only.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. position indication will. 65. gives heading with respect to magnetic north.

Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. A measuring device. 69. Torque synchro.Question Number. 179 degrees. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?. Explanation. Compensation is not required. Servomotor. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Option A. 181 degrees. Option A. 67. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Option B. Option A. To steer a true heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer. In a Machmeter. Correct Answer is. A compass swing must be performed. Explanation. 179 degrees. No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old. Option B. The swing can be performed at a later date. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Torque synchro. AL/10-5 10. A compass swing must be performed. Explanation. Compensation is not required. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. AL/10-5 Table 1 columns 7 and 8. Option B. . what type of compensation is there?. Option B. Which of the following is correct?. Hair spring. Option C. 68. 180 degrees. 66. Explanation. Square-Law compensation.

Option A. Increase the rotor speed. increasing the rotor speed. Option A. Option C. decrease the rate of precession. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. decreasing the rotor speed. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Question Number. decrease the rate of precession. is unaffected by changes in rotor speed. Option C. 72. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?. decrease the rate of precession. Explanation. rotation of the earth. David Harris Page 33 (Real Drift). the rate of precession. Option C. Increase the rotor speed. David Harris Page 33. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Explanation. No effect. 70. Option B. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by. David Harris Page 33. Option B. Option C. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle . increases with a higher rotor speed. Correct Answer is. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro. Correct Answer is. increasing the rotor speed. Option B. Option B. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope. Question Number. 71. decreasing the mass of the rotor. David Harris Page 33. Option A. aircraft turning with an error in roll. Explanation. Explanation. Decrease the rotor speed. Random drift of a gyro is caused by. Question Number.Question Number. 74. increases with a lower rotor speed. 73. increases with a lower rotor speed. Option A. Correct Answer is. unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro.

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. David Harris Page 51 (see page 48 for 'athwartship). Explanation. during turns. decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port. Option A. increased reaction of the air from a bisected port. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis. Question Number. Option B. 76. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port. . The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the athwartships axis. Option C. give full erection control to the roll switch during a turn. Option A. Option C. 75. During the normal straight and level flight. the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch by a. Explanation. Option B. mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer gimbal rings. for the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'. Correct Answer is. Option A. increased reaction of the air from a fully open port. when the fast erection button is pressed. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. David Harris Page 49. give full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn. Correct Answer is. Option A. David Harris Page 51 bottom. 77. Option B. Option C.of. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the fore and aft axis. Explanation. Question Number. during turns.

the normal erection switch contact will burn out. Option C. 79. Question Number. excessive hunting will take place. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal. Explanation. Option B. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal.3. Option C. Question Number. the effect of the earth's rotation. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn. 80.2. a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal. AL/3-23 12. Correct Answer is. 81. Option A.2. Option B. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. bearing friction. to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn. Explanation. .3. overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur. angle through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases. the amount the gimbal ring moves would be increased if the. Option B. 78. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to. Question Number. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after switching on because. the effect of the earth's rotation. Option A. Option B. Question Number. David Harris Page 46/7. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Correct Answer is. rotor speed decreases. Option C. Explanation.Option C. Option A. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis. a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal. David Harris Page 51. Correct Answer is. AL/10-2 9. Correct Answer is. excessive hunting will take place. unbalance of the gimbals. Option A.

Option A. Option A. it would under read. Nil. In a Turn and Slip indicator. Option C. The Turn and Slip indicator employs. the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 84. rotor speed decreases. By a switch on the outer gimbal. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. Nil. Option B. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock. Explanation. Option C. . Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. 85. To prevent gyro going into gimbal lock. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a rate gyro. Question Number. Question Number. it would have no effect. Explanation. spring tension was increased. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.Option C. To ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly. Question Number. 82. a vertical gyro. a rate gyro. David Harris Page 77/78. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/. an azimuth gyro. it would under read. By a flux take-off device. David Harris Page 54. Option B. it would over read. 83. By a switch on the inner gimbal. To prevent outer gimbal rotating. Option B.85º?. By a flux take-off device.

Option C.Explanation.200 rpm. David Harris Page 50/51. 4. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon. Explanation. Option A. 88. 15 sine latitude. Option B. Nil. Question Number. change in resistance to operate. 4. Correct Answer is. Option B. change in voltage applied to operate. Option A.200 rpm. 87. the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to. 2. David Harris Page 53. change in resistance to operate. change in inductance to operate. Option A. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 37/8. Precession of a gyro depends on. Option B. Option B. Option C. David Harris Page 53. both answers (a) and (b). moment of inertia of the rotor only.500 rpm. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Question Number. angular velocity of the rotor only. 89. 15 sine longitude. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. 86. 15 sine latitude. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. In a directional gyro. both answers (a) and (b). 15 cosine latitude. Option C. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. . Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.400 rpm. 22.

The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately. Correct Answer is. directly proportional to applied force. David Harris Page 33. 92. Option C. mass. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. mass. Question Number. speed and radius of mass from spin axis. Correct Answer is. Option B. speed and radius of mass from spin axis. Option A. inversely proportional to the applied force. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor. directly proportional to applied force. Question Number. Option C. angular velocity of the rotor. generally rotate. Explanation. David Harris Page 33. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. proportional to the square of the applied force. 94. slower. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. . Explanation. Option B. Option B. Option A. mass and speed. David Harris Page 33. Gyro precessional force is. Question Number. compared to electric gyros. Air driven gyros. Question Number. and radius of mass from spin axis. 93. Option B. the same speed. faster. 91. David Harris Page 41. Correct Answer is. moment of inertia of the rotor. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.Question Number. Option A. 90. Explanation. moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on. Gyro rigidity is proportional to. mass. slower.

Option B. With a V. A V.000 ft/minute rate of climb.000 ft/minute rate of descent. Option C. 1. 15. three minutes should elapse. Question Number. David Harris Page 46. 100 ft/minute rate of climb.2 8. 1. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C.200 rpm. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that.1 c.000 rpm. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 97. Explanation. 22. Correct Answer is. AL/10.I. before moving the instrument. fifteen minutes should elapse. Question Number. Option A. 95.000 rpm. Explanation. reduce compressibility error. is connected to. static pressure. pitot pressure. 4.Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. static pressure. Option B. fifteen minutes should elapse. Option A. 96. Option C. Option B.000 rpm. David Harris Page 22/23. 98. . pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates. Correct Answer is. Option C.I. Option B.S. Question Number. 1. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to. Option A. to allow the gyro rotor to stop.000 ft/minute rate of climb. vacuum. Explanation.S. seven minutes should elapse. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 24. 15.

cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws. David Harris Page 22.I. a V. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.Option B. minimize errors caused by leaks in the system. vertically up. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would. 100. capsule.I. Option A. a rate of climb.S. Option C. A small constant leak in the case of V. On descent. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. lags the case pressure. Explanation. NIL. cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws. Question Number. is the same as case pressure. Inverting the gyro. leads the case pressure. Correct Answer is. Running gyro at low speed. Explanation. during level flight. Option B. vertically down. Option B. Option B. cause the instrument to indicate.S. Question Number. zero. Option C. David Harris Page 22. horizontal to left. Running gyro at high speed. NIL. Option A.I. will indicate. 102. Option A. horizontal to left. Option C. 99.S. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. In level flight. the pressure in a V. Running gyro at low speed. . Question Number. Explanation. leads the case pressure. 101.

Option C. Option A. 103. Explanation. An artificial horizon has. 106. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force. David Harris Page 22. Question Number. David Harris Page 33. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally. 14. Explanation. zero. 100 millibar. as long as the force is applied. Explanation. Option B. the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally. the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally. Option B. Option C.Option C. the inner gimbal pivoted vertically. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. David Harris Page 47. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 14. plane of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force. a rate of descent. Correct Answer is. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to. the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally. . plane of rotation is in line with the precessional force. the inner gimbal pivoted laterally. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically. Option A.7 PSI. 104. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro. In the directional gyro. Option A. 1 inch Hg. NIL. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 105. Option B. Option B.7 PSI. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. the precession of the rotor will continue until. Correct Answer is.

109. (Light aircraft only . Option C. hundreds of feet per minute. The units on the calibrated scale of a V. Option B. David Harris Page 53. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. The millibar is a unit of. the spin axis is lateral. atmospheric temperature. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A.I. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. capsule is evacuated and sealed. Option A. miles per hour (mph). Question Number. Question Number. the. the spin axis is longitudinal. 110. capsule is evacuated and sealed. pressure altitude. Option B. Question Number. David Harris Page 42. barometric pressure. Option C. David Harris Page 6. 108. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically. In the Turn and Slip indicator. . Option A. the spin axis is vertical. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 107. Option C.S. Explanation. capsule and case are connected via a calibrated choke. knots (kts). the spin axis is lateral. Explanation. Correct Answer is. In an altimeter. Option A. are expressed in. hundreds of feet per minute. Explanation. inside of the capsule is connected to static pressure.Correct Answer is. barometric pressure. Option C. NIL.large aircraft are 1000s ft/min). Option B.

Option C. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 131. Explanation. 360 degrees per minute. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. . Explanation. 111. more accurate. self draining non-return valve. Option A.Question Number. 360 degrees per minute. less accurate. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. David Harris Page 40. 112. Option A. a venturi. NIL. David Harris Page 55. Option B. Question Number. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is. Question Number. float valve. Option C. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. a pitot head. Option A. Option B. David Harris Page 54. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a. NACA duct. more instantaneous. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from. 90 degrees per minute. Correct Answer is. self draining non-return valve. Option B. Correct Answer is. a venturi. 114. 113. Explanation. A rate two turn is. Option C. Option A. Option B. Question Number. 180 degrees per minute. more accurate. a tapping from the induction manifold.

Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. altimeter reading to decrease. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. Correct Answer is. altimeter reading to decrease. NIL. 118. 115. Option B. David Harris Page 8. Explanation. vertical speed indicator to indicate climb. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection.5. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. in level flight. bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule. altimeter reading to decrease. Question Number. descending. . it is necessary to. Question Number. David Harris Page 22/23.Question Number. application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the. Option A. calibrate the instrument concerned. Option C. 117. Option C. 116. Option A. U-spring acting on the capsule. altimeter reading to increase. vertical speed indicator to indicate descent. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s). Explanation. Option B. climbing. AL/10-1 15. Option A. Option B. balance weight. blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply. Option C. Question Number. descending. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a. Correct Answer is. Option A. carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s). bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule. Explanation.

and 32 deg. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed. Option A. Question Number. 212 deg. whenever the pitot or static systems are disturbed. a continual precession in roll. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a. 120.5. Option B. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. Respectively. A pitot or static leak check is carried out. Correct Answer is. 100 deg. Respectively. a continual precession in roll. rate 3 turn. rate 1 turn. Question Number. only when an instrument is changed. a pitch error and gyro topple. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to. AL/10-1 15. Correct Answer is. only when a leak is suspected. Correct Answer is. and 100 deg. Question Number. Respectively. NIL. Option B. Explanation. NIL.Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option A. rate 2 turn. Option B. and 100 deg. . Option A. Option C. David Harris Page 54. 121. Correct Answer is. a roll error and gyro topple. Explanation. Option C. Option C. 180 deg. 122. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. 212 deg. and 100 deg. 123. rate 1 turn. 119. Respectively.

the angle between True North and the actual track. NIL. in degrees from the aircraft's heading. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. reduce gimbal nutation. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured. Question Number. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. the angle between True North and the desired track. Question Number. Option A. 127. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is. prevent gimbal lock. Option B. 125. by a control synchro. 32°C. . Option C. 124. Explanation. in degrees from True North. in degrees from True North. Option A. Aircraft heading (HDG) is. 15°C. NIL. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. 15°C. 14. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A.69°C. Option B. Question Number. limit the outer gimbal movement. in degrees from the desired track. prevent gimbal lock. Option B. NIL. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to. Option C. by a differential synchro. Option B. Option C. Explanation. 126. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Option A. David Harris Page 87. Explanation.

mechanical imperfections in an instrument.mil/ops/DOT/school/L23CockpitFam/magneticcompass.af. Option C. eddy current. 128. different variation. Explanation. by a control synchro. Explanation. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. add 273 degrees. zero variation.cap. variable spring or moving iron.cfm Question Number. add 273 degrees. Question Number. Option B. eddy current or air dash pot. equal variation. instrument location in the instrument panel. https://ntc. Option B. NIL. viscous. Correct Answer is. use the formula (deg C x 9/5) + 32. Option C. pitot head position. . add 112 degrees. Correct Answer is. Agonic lines link places of. zero variation. Explanation. Option C. viscous. viscous. David Harris Page 17. Option A. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin. Option B. Option A. by a torque synchro. Option A. pitot head position. Option B. Question Number. eddy current or variable spring.Option C. Question Number. 130. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20. Correct Answer is. eddy current or air dash pot. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 129. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either. Position error is caused by. Explanation. Option C. NIL. 131.

rotated faster than air driven gyros. Option A. . rotated slower than air driven gyros. and that drives it toward fsd. Option C. Explanation. by a control synchro. Correct Answer is. If the bulb circuit is broken. 134. Explanation. Question Number. Electrical driven gyros are. Question Number. the resistance will be infinite. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. 132. Question Number. With the gyro at normal running speed. outer and inner ring to move. Option A. Correct Answer is. by a differential synchro. 133. Think of it this way . full scale deflection. Option A. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. full scale deflection. by a control synchro. Option C. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is. Option B. David Harris Page 41. 135. rotated at the same speed as air driven gyros. Option C.resistance increases with temperature. no scale deflection. inner ring to move. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit.Explanation. This will give. Option C. a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will cause the. Option B. Option B. Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20. outer ring to move. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. by a torque synchro. mid scale deflection. rotated faster than air driven gyros.

. When an aircraft is descending. is alternating current at 400 c/s. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option C. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set. is direct current. David Harris Page 9. indicates that the instrument is unserviceable. indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I. Explanation. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract. Option B. above sea level. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE). indicates that the instrument is unserviceable. Correct Answer is. is alternating current at 50 c/s. is direct current. Explanation. The supply of Desynn indicating system. Option A. Option B. NIL. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. the pressure in the altimeter case. Option A. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option B. 138. standards. will not affect the aneroid capsule. will cause the aneroid capsule to contract. David Harris Page 5. Option A. Option A.S. Option B. Explanation. NIL.Correct Answer is. 137. 136. removing the static connector from its static vent. Option C. Question Number. 139. Correct Answer is. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. outer ring to move.A. indicates that the airfield is 100 ft. Question Number. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the atmosphere by. will cause the aneroid capsule to expand.

Option B. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. differential pressure.Option C. 142. gauge pressure. Option A. by the static system. David Harris Page 8. Corrects for capsule elasticity. Horizontal. by the pitot system. Corrects for capsule elasticity. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 140. Option B. Option C. . Option A. David Harris Page 5. absolute pressure. NIL. venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set. Option B. Option A. absolute pressure. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Horizontal. Option C. Explanation. Compensates for change in density. removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes. Option C. NIL. 141. Option C. An altimeter is operated. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?. Question Number. by the vacuum system. Option B. Correct Answer is. 143. Explanation. The capsule in an altimeter responds to. Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring. Correct Answer is. Both vertical and horizontal. Question Number. Vertical. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?. Explanation. by the static system. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems.

Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 36.

Question Number. 144. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the.
Option A. inner gimbal.
Option B. rotor.
Option C. instrument case.
Correct Answer is. instrument case.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 5.

Question Number. 145. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of.
Option A. airspeed and altitude.
Option B. mach number and temperature.
Option C. airspeed and temperature.
Correct Answer is. mach number and temperature.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 272.

Question Number. 146. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is.
Option A. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.
Option B. it does not require warming up.
Option C. it does not require pitot/static pressure.
Correct Answer is. it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 27.

Question Number. 147. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. remains the same.
Option C. increases.
Correct Answer is. increases.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 24.

Question Number. 148. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a.
Option A. directional gyro.
Option B. vertical gyro.
Option C. rate gyro.
Correct Answer is. directional gyro.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 149. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments.
Option A. is sodium-bicarbonate.
Option B. is silica-gel.
Option C. is anti-freeze oil.
Correct Answer is. is silica-gel.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 150. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?.
Option A. No effect.
Option B. Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Option C. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Correct Answer is. Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 151. Bourdon Tubes have.
Option A. toroidal cross section.
Option B. oval cross section.
Option C. circular cross section.
Correct Answer is. oval cross section.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182 Figure.

Question Number. 152. In a Bourdon tube.

Option A. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source.
Option B. one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere.
Option C. both ends sealed.
Correct Answer is. one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182.

Question Number. 153. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the.
Option A. Brahm's press principle.
Option B. Boyle's Law.
Option C. Charle's Law.
Correct Answer is. Brahm's press principle.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 154. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is.
Option A. anti-freeze oil.
Option B. castor-oil.
Option C. kerosene.
Correct Answer is. castor-oil.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.bcmsensor.com/pressure/datasheets/PDH.htm

Question Number. 155. The distance readout on an HSI is.
Option A. from the aircraft DME system.
Option B. dialled in by the pilot.
Option C. from the aircraft ATC system.
Correct Answer is. from the aircraft DME system.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 156. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its
gimbal restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as.
Option A. a rate gyro.

Option B. an earth gyro.
Option C. a tied gyro.
Correct Answer is. a rate gyro.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 52.

Question Number. 157. Pressure may be expressed in.
Option A. force per unit area.
Option B. weight or mass.
Option C. force per unit volume.
Correct Answer is. force per unit area.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 158. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?.
Option A. To reduce 'backlash'.
Option B. To return the pointer to zero.
Option C. To act a controlling force.
Correct Answer is. To reduce 'backlash'.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 159. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's.
Option A. attitude rate gyros.
Option B. directional gyros.
Option C. vertical gyros.
Correct Answer is. vertical gyros.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 160. One dot VOR deviation represents.
Option A. 5°.
Option B. 2 miles.
Option C. 1¼°.

Correct Answer is. 5°.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 161. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures.
Option A. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type.
Option B. has anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated.
Option C. has the Bourdon tube reversed within the case.
Correct Answer is. cannot be of the Bourdon tube type.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182.

Question Number. 162. An absolute pressure gauge measures.
Option A. the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure.
Option B. pressures extremely accurately.
Option C. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.
Correct Answer is. the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 163. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal
to.
Option A. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
Option B. atmospheric pressure minus absolute pressure.
Option C. absolute pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Correct Answer is. absolute pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 164. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative
to.
Option A. an ILS station.
Option B. an ADF station.
Option C. a VOR station.

Correct Answer is. a VOR station.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 165. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms
of absolute pressure, this represents.
Option A. 985.3 p.s.i.
Option B. 1,014.7 p.s.i.
Option C. 1,000 p.s.i.
Correct Answer is. 1,014.7 p.s.i.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 166. To fill a Dead Weight Tester.
Option A. remove platform and fill cylinder.
Option B. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir.
Option C. screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir.
Correct Answer is. screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 167. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter, the
altimeter will read.
Option A. the airfield height.
Option B. off scale.
Option C. zero.
Correct Answer is. the airfield height.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 9.

Question Number. 168. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection.
Option A. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale.
Option B. the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale.
Option C. the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale.

Correct Answer is. the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale.
Explanation. QFE is set and it should read airfield height.

Question Number. 169. The HSI compass card is positioned by the.
Option A. compass system.
Option B. aircraft ADF system.
Option C. heading select knob.
Correct Answer is. compass system.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 170. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the.
Option A. square of the speed.
Option B. square root of the speed.
Option C. cube root of the speed.
Correct Answer is. square of the speed.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 15.

Question Number. 171. The supply to an A.S.I.
Option A. is pitot pressure only.
Option B. are pitot and static pressure.
Option C. is static pressure only.
Correct Answer is. are pitot and static pressure.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 13.

Question Number. 172. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is.
Option A. climbing.
Option B. accelerating.
Option C. decelerating.
Correct Answer is. accelerating.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 13.

the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations. Question Number. 350 knots. its ground speed is. Explanation. greater than the ground speed. Option C. a. 174. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air.18 and text below. Question Number. 450 knots. Option B. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 44 fig 2. NIL. Option A. Option C. Option B.f. To provide a linear scale on an A.I.. 173. airspeed will be. 10 to 1 gearing is used. encounters a head wind of 50 knots. Option B. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 176. the difference in amplitude of the two r. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is.Question Number. the difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations. 400 knots. Explanation. the sum of the amplitude of the two modulations. equal to the ground speed. NIL. Correct Answer is. carriers. 350 knots. ranging bar and screws are fitted. . equal to the ground speed. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to. ranging bar and screws are fitted. Option A. NIL. Option C.S. less than the ground speed. Explanation. bi-metal corrector is employed. Option C. 175.

three coils. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter. below zero feet (negative altitude). A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed of. Option B. Option B. instrument case. Explanation. Question Number. positive altitude. Option B. capsule stack. David Harris Page 19. Option A. Question Number. 178. Option C. two coils. 180. below zero feet (negative altitude). pressure chamber. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013. NIL. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 186 Fig 7. Question Number. The moving element of a ratiometer has.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. the altimeter should read. Explanation. and Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 45. 177. Explanation. you are checking for leaks in the. Option C. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. the aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level. Option A.4 and para below. zero feet. . Option C. one coil. instrument case. Correct Answer is.Question Number. sound relative to the aircraft's altitude. Option C. the aircraft relative to the local sonic speed. two coils. Option A. 179.

Question Number. the required path with respect to actual path. Correct Answer is. . the actual path with respect to required path. Explanation. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is. Option C.Explanation. Option B. Option B. 300° and TO. Option B. the indications will be. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type. Option A. The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window. NIL. the relative bearing. After passing over the station. 183. Correct Answer is. 182. 120° and FROM. Option C. 181. Question Number. the magnetic bearing. 120° and FROM. precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt. Explanation. NIL. the required path with respect to actual path. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the complimentary bearing. Option A. precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type. 184. Option C. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120° and 'TO'. Option B. Option A. NIL. 300° and FROM. The command bars in a flight director system indicate. Option A. on the same course. Assuming aircraft is on the ground. true horizon. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity.

locking. 550 knots. 186. 187. David Harris Page 49 (acceleration error). Option C. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by. 188. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 81. Option B. using fluid. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. . Option C. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. NIL. Explanation. Option A. the relative bearing.Correct Answer is. equal variation. If True Airspeed is 470 knots. Option B. tying it to the case. Isogonal lines link places of. zero variation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. equal variation. what is the Equivalent Air speed?. Correct Answer is. bottom lightness of inner gimbals. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Explanation. 278 knots. 185. True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. Correct Answer is. A compass is made aperiodic by. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. 662 knots. 278 knots. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Question Number. using fluid. displacement of erection control device. different variation.

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Option C. Correct Answer is. both a) & b). Explanation. Option B. 304 knots. what is the Calibrated Airspeed?. 304 knots. Correct Answer is. longitudinal axis. 293 knots. Question Number. David Harris Page 14. David Harris Page 64/65. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. displacement of erection control device. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. bottom heaviness of inner gimbals. Explanation.Question Number. Erection Error is caused by. Option A. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of. Question Number. 296 knots. Explanation. 190. Explanation. bottom lightness of inner gimbals. Option C. longitudinal axis. Question Number. . lateral axis. NIL. Option A. Option B. Option A. 191. displacement of erection control device. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's. Option A. 189. both a) & b). both lateral and longitudinal axis. a capillary. Option C. 192. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots. Correct Answer is. In an Artificial Horizon. an orifice. Option B. Option B.

Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by. residual deviation. NIL. Explanation. carry out a new compass swing. Option C. Correct Answer is. correct heading. South error + 2 degrees. Explanation. you would. set it up the same as the one removed. The coefficient C . Option A. the ADI. Option C. residual deviation. the course deviation bar. NIL. The manual VOR input is for. series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor. Option A. Correct Answer is. the course deviation bar. carry out a new compass swing. 195. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. 193. mercury switch on outer ring. an adjustment nut on inner ring. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 45. Question Number. Question Number.Question Number. 196. Option C. After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing. Explanation. the resultant correction is known as. Option B. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees. the radio magnetic indicator. Option B. set it to zero datum. 197. an adjustment nut on inner ring. NIL. Option B. Option C. magnetic heading. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 194. Question Number. Option A. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system. Option B.

Option A. +/-50ft for instrument error.eur-rvsm.com. Option B. Explanation. . Correct Answer is. Option A. static.domingoaereo. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn. +/. Correct Answer is. Option B. pitot. 200. Explanation. Option C. Option C.200ft system. Option C. approach to or deviation from selected altitude. maximum tolerance for the system is. 199. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of. approach to or deviation from selected altitude. Question Number. This is not he same as a previous question. 0 degrees. +/. Option B. 198.hpg.br/Boeing727/Manual/warnings. Correct Answer is. Option B.300ft system. -2 degrees. Explanation. selection of altitude. AL/10-5 Table 1. +2 degrees. http://www. +/-50ft for instrument error. Option A. Option A. -2 degrees. Question Number. +/. Explanation.htm Question Number. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM. Correct Answer is. +/-50ft for instrument error. 201. pitot and static.ig. Option C.htm Question Number. NIL. altitude information. NIL.500ft system tolerance. Option A.is. http://www2. Machmeters work on. +/. when Mach 1 is exceeded.300ft system. NIL.com/library. pitot and static.

Question Number. VOR. Option A. vertical at the poles. Question Number. Question Number. 205. 204. blockage in the pitot tube. It is due to high altitude. VOR. Explanation. compression of air in the tube at high speed. Option C. NIL. The earth's magnetic field is. radar. There is an air bubble in the compass:. Explanation. when envelope limit is reached. Option A.Option B. horizontal at the magnetic equator. attitude.David Harris P17 ASI Errors (3). misalignment of pitot head. An HSI provides what information?. Option B. Option C. plan. VOR. Option B. vertical at the poles. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems . ILS. Correct Answer is. ILS. radar. Option A. . Correct Answer is. to compensate for expansion of the fluid. VOR. when Mcrit is reached. when Mcrit is reached. NIL. plan. NIL. Explanation. ILS. attitude. ILS. horizontal at the magnetic equator. compression of air in the tube at high speed. The fluid is not aerated properly. Option C. Option B. It is required. plan. map. map. 202. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by. Explanation. 203. vertical across the earth. horizontal across the earth. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. map.

However. Aerial work aircraft. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?. Correct Answer is. Light aircraft. NIL. to actuate on. Option B. Option A.05. 11. 2. It is due to high altitude. Option A. Autopilot servo brake is energised. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 189. rectified D. 1. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage. A flux detector output is a. Explanation.Avionic Systems. Option C. . Heavy passenger aircraft. Light aircraft. Option B. Correct Answer is.C. Instruments/Avionic Systems . A. Explanation. A. Explanation. A. Explanation.C. Option B. voltage.2. Question Number. at the same time as the clutch. Correct Answer is. Option C. to actuate off. Question Number.C. Option C. Option A. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 142. to actuate off. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage. prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft. Question Number.C. 206. no direct reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found.Correct Answer is. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage.

JAR OPS 1. Polyurethane. Option B. Option B. Option A. 121. 7. Correct Answer is. VHF.5 Hz.1 MHz is what frequency?.820 or 1. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna.850.5 Hz. Option B.5 Hz. 123. On a fibreglass aerial. 112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. use any paint. Correct Answer is. VOR. 5. VOR. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. Option C. ILS. Correct Answer is. 121.2. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12- 25. Emergency frequency is. 121. Not cellulose. Option C. Question Number. 4. 125. Question Number. .5 Hz. VHF. Option A. Option A. Not cellulose. what paint should be used?. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14. CAIPs RL/2-2 8.5 MHz is what frequency?. VHF. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Less than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS. Cellulose only. 118-137 MHz is VHF frequency. 3. Correct Answer is. Option B. 112.1.Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12- 13. Explanation. ILS. Option A. Option C. VOR. 6.

white. Question Number. a HF frequency. Correct Answer is. Option B. green. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-24. Four. green. Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 312. Option B. Option C. energised on.2. blue. 8. an ILS frequency.Option B. Question Number. Two. do not use cellulose paint. amber. Correct Answer is.1 MHz is. blue. Explanation. Option C. ILS marker beacon lights are. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 69 shows this as a localiser frequency. amber. white. energised at the same time as the clutch. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-36. amber. Explanation. Option A. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is. Option C. Three. 11. energised off. blue. 9. an ILS frequency. Explanation. do not use cellulose paint. Question Number. blue. Three. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is. CAIPs RL/2-2 8. Option C. use cellulose paint. Option B. white.1. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 81. 111. Option C. . 10. Option A. Option A. Explanation. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?. a VOR frequency. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12- 24. Question Number.

Low Frequency. Option C. 122. 112. 112 . a VOR frequency. Low Frequency. The aviation distress frequency is. Decca navigation is low frequency. Option A.5 kHZ. Correct Answer is. Very High Frequency. an ADF frequency.5 MHz. 13.1 MHz is. 2500 ft. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12- 25.118 MHz are VOR frequencies. Option C. Explanation. Question Number.5 MHz. energised off. 15. Correct Answer is. 2000 ft. Question Number. Option C. 12. an ILS frequency. Eismin Page 323 - 324. Pallett Page 142. Option C. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to. a VOR frequency. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 121. Option B. Option B. 100 ft. Option A. Option A. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics.820 or 1.5 MHz. High Frequency. 121.850 c. 121. JAR OPS 1. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12- 14.Correct Answer is. . 14. 2500 ft. Option B. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is.

to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway. A GPS satellite will come into view. VOR. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Loran C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to. Option B. Option B. 10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Option A. Option A. aerial work and transport category aircraft. Option C. Option A. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Pg 289. . Correct Answer is. 19. Explanation. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. to allow the pilot to override. transport category aircraft only. Loran C. Also Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell Page 101. Explanation. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Option B. Option C. private aircraft. to allow the pilot to override. Explanation. 17. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N. 16. Question Number. 18. to limit the range of control movement. Option C.Question Number. Elevation mask' is 15 degrees. DME. Option B. transport category aircraft only. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Loran C is a type of LF Navigation. Option C. Correct Answer is. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is. 20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer. Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?.

Option C. 20. Explanation. Explanation. skin to air particle collisions. Option A. Option C.2500 ft Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 223. Option C. above 10. Correct Answer is. Option B. HF aerials have weak points designed at. Correct Answer is. HF radiation. Introduction to Avionics Dale Cundy Page 82. from 0 to 2. skin to air particle collisions. Option B. both ends. 3 cm. Explanation. 23. from 1. . Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160. Question Number.Eismin page 211. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics . Question Number.500 feet. 2. 24. Option A. Correct Answer is. 22. lightning strikes. Explanation. The radio altimeter is operational from 0 . Option A. 10 m.0 to 100 feet. Correct Answer is.500 feet. Track mode of an RA is operational. 1. Option B.000 feet. Option B. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?. Option C. Question Number. Precipitation static is caused by. Question Number. from 0 to 2. 2. 5 cm. 3 cm. 3. Wavelength of band radar is. Option A. 21. Option A.Question Number.

Option C. CAIPs RL/2-2 para 2. the back end. Option B.000 ft. Explanation. increase the angle of incidence of the THS. 10. 1000 ft. Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page 199. 1090 MHz. Question Number. When flaps are lowered. 1090 MHz. Correct Answer is.2. Option A. Option B. 1000 MHz. which control surface is inhibited?. . Option A. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?. Elevators. Option A. 1200 ft. 1200 ft. Correct Answer is. Ailerons. THS. Question Number. Explanation. the back end. CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Option C. 26. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS. angle of incidence remains the same. Option B. THS. Correct Answer is. 1030 MHz. the front end. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-35. CAT 2 RVR limit is.4. the automatic trim system will. 28. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Option C. 27. Question Number. Avionic Fundamentals page 211. With autopilot engaged.Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. 25.

a pitch command input will cause. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-47 (Parallel system). Option B. Question Number. 29. Option C. . Explanation. On selection of thrust reverse. Correct Answer is. column to move and trim system to move. VOR. Option C. NIL. 32. column to move and trim system to move. On selection of thrust reverse. Option A. After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency. Question Number. Explanation. does not move. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286. the control column. 30. This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft. Correct Answer is. Option B. ILS. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. LORAN C. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Question Number. moves in pitch. Option B. Option C. In autopilot. Question Number. moves in pitch and roll. Loran C is a type of Omega Navigation. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS. Option A. Option A. Option A. A hyperbolic system is. column to move but trim system not to move.Correct Answer is. Option C. When is autothrottle disengaged?. 31. On landing. LORAN C. moves in pitch and roll. column will not move and trim system will move.

400 m. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-47 . 1200 ft = 400m Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page 199. NIL. take off. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. Two. Option A. Option A. Option A. One active and one standby. Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second. approach. Correct Answer is. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at. Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00 page 201. what is the pulse frequency?. 33. cruise. 34. Two. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 200 m. Option B. In regard to the aircraft transponder. Question Number. How many programs can a FMC store?. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 399 on. . Two. Option C. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second. Option B. 35. take off. CAT 2 RVR limit is. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 286. Option B.Explanation.This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft. Both active. One current. One active and one standby. Correct Answer is. 36. 800 m. CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Option C. Explanation. 400 m. Number of pulses per signal.

Correct Answer is. Explanation.Question Number. Option C. 37. Differentiation of laser gyro. Integration of accelerometers. Option A. Option C. Explanation. VOR. Explanation. 39. 38. Reference found in an older version of A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 700 (Not in latest edition). pitch. the static discharge occurs at lower current and . pitch. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at. Double integration of accelerometers. roll. Option B. Quote 'If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. Option B. How does an IRS calculate velocity?. In an autopilot. Option A. low current levels. low current levels. high voltage levels. Question Number. Question Number. Glideslope controls autopilot in. Correct Answer is. 40. Correct Answer is. Glideslope. what controls pitch mode?. Option A. Localizer. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187. all voltage levels. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 191. Explanation. yaw. Option B. Glideslope. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187. Option C. Option C. Option B. Integration of accelerometers.

Question Number. Most aircraft systems use about 5. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint. 3 cm. What is primary radar?. Explanation. RA. ILS. Option A.more frequently'. ILS. Indicates true airspeed. Land based. ADF. Radar that gives height and position. Option A. Ability to store 6 waypoints. C Band is 4 . Option B. Option B. Explanation. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse. Option C. Correct Answer is. 7 cm. Ref Boeing and Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-27. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint. Option A. DME. Correct Answer is. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse. Question Number.6cm. Option A. ADF. 17 m. ILS. Option B. Correct Answer is. 43. VOR. 42. An AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based). . VOR. Option C. 41. ILS. See Module 11 Forum. Correct Answer is. What is the wavelength of C band radar?. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters. Question Number. 44. Option C. Option B. Option C. 7 cm. Question Number. Explanation. What is B-RNAV?.8 cm.

course deviation bar. Option C. 100 MHz. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?. Option C. a PCU. the autopilot motor. Option B.Explanation. Explanation. Option B. B737 MM Chapter 34-31-02. Option C. NIL. Question Number. 50 MHz. Explanation. glideslope. The mach trim is initiated by. Page 231. by pilot on selector panel. 75 MHz. Question Number. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. Option B. course deviation bar. RMI. . 46. 45. TCAS is selected. Explanation. not available in cruise. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. an electric motor. 75 MHz. by pilot on selector panel. 47. by a switch. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. by a switch. Explanation. Option C. 4th Edition Page 183/4. Automatic Flight Control. Option B. Pallett. Correct Answer is. Question Number. The manual VOR input is for. Option A. automatically. 48. the autopilot motor. Option A. Option A.

49. display unit. White. 52. Amber. must be connected to the left side. aligned to the aircraft structure. interactive console.Avionics Fundamentals.Question Number. Explanation. Explanation.htm Question Number. Question Number. satellites. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?. aligned to the aircraft structure. Option B. 53. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen . 51. aligned to the true north. space. processing unit. must be connected to the left side. Explanation. Option A. control. http://www. Amber. control. space. Option C.af. Option A. must be connected to the right side. Laser gyros are. user. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99. Option B. aligned to the magnetic north. . Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Option C. Option A. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Fifth Edition Eismin Chap 13 page 271. receiver. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.mil/lkn/jssmogps. Option C. For aircraft with dual CMCs. NIL. 50. Page 219 fig 14-2. when only one CMC is available. Laser gyros. user. processing unit. Blue. it. A GPS system is formed from. Question Number.robins. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. can be connected to either side.

Option B. for yaw damping compensation. Question Number. followed by localiser. Question Number. 55. localiser first. Option A. in any order. localiser first. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99. Correct Answer is. 54. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Option C. Option C. 57.Option A. for turn coordination. followed by glideslope. 56. have movable parts. Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals page 263. VHF. do not have rotational parts. 4th Edition Page 121/122. Correct Answer is. changes with radio altitude. do not have rotational parts. changes with radio altitude. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 184-185. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Pallett. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS. Correct Answer is. What frequency are VOR and ILS?. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel. does not change. Option B. for turn coordination. for turn command back-up. changes with barometric altitude. A radio coupled approach is. Option C. Option B. Question Number. have rotational parts. Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Question Number. followed by glideslope. Option B. glideslope first. . Option C. UHF.

HF. HF communications. on right side of control wheel. UHF. Option C. VHF. Question Number. Option C. ILS and VOR operate in which range. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 286.1329 (d). Correct Answer is. Question Number. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426. HF. Option A. on left side of control wheel. Advances throttles. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Option B. An aircraft lands in autoland. Stays armed for go around in an emergency. Option C. marker beacons.Option C. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles. Explanation. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned. Option B. Option A. 61. HF communications. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. 60. . NIL. Correct Answer is. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. JAR 25. Question Number. Correct Answer is. VHF. weather radar. 58. 59. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles. Option C. Automatically switches off. Automatically switches off. What happens toautothrottle?. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for.

Option B. 65. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69. Explanation. FMC has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan. Option A. Correct Answer is. 63. Question Number. Option B. throttle'. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected. vertical steering. Explanation. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'. Question Number. Option C. in the air by the pilot. amber warning. in the air by the pilot. NIL. flaps. a localizer and a glide slope. lateral steering. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give. a localizer. Option C. red caption and aural 'pull up. Question Number. VHF. Option B. on the ground by the pilot. Option C. Question Number. a localizer and the marker beacons. 64. Option A. distance checks. Explanation. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'. Option A. Option C. Explanation. a localizer. 62. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. The components of an ILS are. In ILS. undercarriage.Correct Answer is. vertical steering. by calendar date monthly. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-1. Option B. Correct Answer is. a glide slope and the marker beacons. the glideslope provides. Correct Answer is. a glide slope and the marker beacons. .

fly right. Question Number. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in. take off. ADF. Correct Answer is. the flag. Correct Answer is. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates. 67. fly left. Explanation. 500 ft. . Explanation. 1000 ft. 68. take off. Option C. 69. cruise. VOR. Option C. 66. Option A. approach. Correct Answer is. Option A. 500 ft. Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 73. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Question Number. Option C. fly right. glideslope. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?. NIL.Question Number. Option A. NIL. the deviation indicator will show. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses. Explanation. Option B. Option B. glideslope. 750 ft. NIL. Option B. Option C.

Option C. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 116. Radio altimeter. Correct Answer is. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?. FMC via CDU. Option C. Pressure altimeter. magnetic orientation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. all gimbals. ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all. Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. outer gimbal. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Air speed indicator. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Radio altimeter. .e left. 70. The purpose being to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i. Explanation. Option A.Question Number. Option A. 72. 71. Question Number. Explanation. FMC via CDU. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:. Of the three. INS has mercury switches on. Correct Answer is. BITE. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for. all gimbals. inner gimbal. Dataplate on the FMC. It does use barometric vertical speed however. 73. location. location. aircraft type. GPWS has only connection to the RA. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B.

What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?. Explanation. Option A. Explanation.1150 KHz. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?. Option A. Question Number. . By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.95 MHz. Explanation. down. 90 Hz below the glide path.Question Number.1759 KHz. the aircraft must fly. 90 Hz right of runway centreline. Option B. Option A. 1025 . Option C. Option B. Option B.00 . 74. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106. Correct Answer is. up. 90 Hz left of runway centreline. Explanation. nowhere . Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 70. Question Number. 77. 108. Option C. 150 Hz left of runway centerline. 190 . 150 Hz above the glide path. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13. 75.1759 KHz.117. Option C. NIL. 190 . Option A. By modulation of an audio tone. Option C. By using an alternate frequency. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal. 90 Hz left of runway centreline. 150 Hz right of runway centerline. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach. 150 Hz right of runway centerline. Question Number.this is normal on an ILS approach. 76. Option B. down.

Option A.tpub. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 197.htm Question Number. Option C.dial. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather radar?.pipex. Option B. VHF and UHF. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. From VOR only. http://www.com/content/aviation/14014/css/14014_166.htm . Correct Answer is. Explanation. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance. 79. NIL. To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display. VHF. Option C. Question Number.artietheairplane. 78. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna. VHF and UHF. Explanation. To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band. Option B. From VOR and ADF systems. To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length. http://dspace. Option B. 80. http://www.Question Number. Option A. Option B. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance. From VOR and ADF systems.com/radar. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio- magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?.html Question Number. Option C. From ADF only. HF. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna. 81. Correct Answer is. To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground.com/town/pipexdsl/r/arar93/mds975/Content/aerials2.

NIL. Question Number. Option C. How does it operate?. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS).Question Number. Question Number. every 28 days. Option C. Question Number. Flaps/undercarriage. Option A. Rudder/ailerons. It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS. It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. 82. Correct Answer is. ring laser gyros. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. daily. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224. Option A. NIL. Explanation. 83. Option C. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN. 84. after a B or C check has been completed. every 28 days. ring laser gyros. Option B. Autothrottle. Option C. Flaps/undercarriage. . Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and DOWN. In an IRS system you would expect to find. an azimuth gyro system. Explanation. Correct Answer is. three strap down accelerometers. Correct Answer is. The FMS navigation database is updated. 85. Option B. Option A. Option B.

correction. communications between the aircraft and base. Correct Answer is. Option A. correction . reporting defects on the aircraft automatically. Assuming they mean a strapdown system.136 MHz. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass. Option C. 108 . What are the main areas of the autopilot?. demand. VHF frequency is. Explanation. correction.136 MHz.118 MHz. Option A. Error. 87. (Note: the mass is suspended in fluid. communications between the aircraft and base. Correct Answer is. command. suspended between two springs in a tube. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 256. Explanation. 108 . 88. in c. correction. Error. demand. a remotely mounted mass on the airframe. a mass suspended in free air. resolved. . Question Number. and is not remote). Option B. follow up. Error. Question Number. Option A. command.Explanation. NIL. (Note: in b. suspended between two springs in a tube. Option C. 86. 108 . 108 . Option C. follow up. 89. Correct Answer is. Option A. not the accelerometers. as part of the passenger telephone system. Option B. Option B. NIL. follow up.112 MHz. Question Number. Error. Question Number. it is the system which is strapdown. azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved). In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for. Option C. Option B.

NIL. Explanation. on a compass. Option B. Option A. B737. Question Number. Question Number. horn. 90. Option A. from a beacon. Option B. Question Number. hi tone chime. two tone chime. Option C. Option B. from a beacon. to a VOR.1457. 93. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 295. Channel 3 on a CVR records. HF. Option C. Question Number. first officer. Correct Answer is. 91. Correct Answer is. DME works on the frequency of. Option A. 92. JAR 25. captain. flightdeck. UHF. Explanation. A radial is referenced. Explanation. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a. hi tone chime. UHF. Option C.Explanation. flightdeck. Option A. VHF. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 310 and 278. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. .

What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop. Explanation. Option B. NIL. 98. Option B. Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Pull-up' command?. How is the next database on the FMC activated?. Correct Answer is. GPS. Question Number. Explanation. NIL.Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. Mode 3. Mode 2. Manually. 95. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance). 97. Explanation. Manually in the air. Mode 2.19. Manually in the air. Mode S. Option C. Option C. Option B. . Mode C. loop aerial. both loop and sense aerial. Option A. on the ground. Automatically by due date. Option B. Mode 6. sense aerial. Option A. Mode A. Option C. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be. 94. Mode S. ADF works by using. both loop and sense aerial. Question Number. Option A. 96.

Option A. Option C. rate gyro. red squares and amber circles. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. red diamonds and amber circles. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?. on outer gimbal ring. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Option C. on both gimbal rings. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?. displacement gyro. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches. on inner gimbal ring. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. RA. Option A. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Option B. The IRS laser gyro is a. Question Number. uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits. rate gyro. 102. . displaced gyro. White squares. NIL. on inner gimbal ring. White diamonds. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. either RA or TA. 101. Question Number. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection). TA. RA. Eismin Page 373. NIL. uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Explanation. Rate integrated gyro. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits. Explanation. 99. Option B. 100. Option B.

has a stabilized platform. 105. NIL. Explanation. does not have gimbal and rotating parts. In autopilot with THS in motion. Explanation. red diamonds and amber squares. Option B. Option B. Option B. NIL.Option C. Option A. does not have gimbal and rotating parts. Correct Answer is. Option C. 3 autopilot computers are considered. 106. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers. Correct Answer is. does not have gimbal. The laser ring gyro. White diamonds. Auto Trim is inhibited. Mach trim is inhibited. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Fail resistant. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed. Correct Answer is. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers. Explanation. elevator is inhibited. Option A. . Option C. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection). By deselecting auto-throttle first. Option A. Option C. Fail Operable. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. 103. Fail Operable. Correct Answer is. It is not possible. Eismin Page 373. 104. White circles. Auto Trim is inhibited. Question Number. red squares and amber circles. Fail Passive. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?. Correct Answer is. the.

html Question Number. Stall warning. Option A. Correct Answer is. If one FMS fails during flight. Option B. HF. Gear position warning. Option C. Correct Answer is.idirect. it has no effect. Option A. Resolution Advisories. http://webhome.com/~jproc/hyperbolic/decca. Explanation. Option A. Option C. 110. Correct Answer is. the failed FMS has a blank screen. 108. LF. Question Number. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?. Option C. Stall warning. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?. NIL. 107. Question Number. Option B. Within reach of the First Officer. Correct Answer is. Option B. because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode. Explanation. NIL. NIL. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 406. Within reach of the Captain. Option C. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. . Question Number. Within reach of both pilots. Decca navigation uses. VHF. Explanation. Explanation. LF. Within reach of both pilots.Explanation. 109. NIL. the failed FMS has a blank screen. now it is active. Option A. Option B. the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby.

a series of slots and wave guides. Option A. Option A. the ILS system. Question Number. 100 MHz. 4 satellites.asp. 6 satellites. 3 satellites. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 342. Option B. Option B. parabolic antenna. . 114. NIL. Option C. 113. Option B. Option A. 111.Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 311. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of. 4 satellites are required to provide height information as well as position. the RMI. Correct Answer is. http://www. 75 MHz. 75 MHz. Option B. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 319. 50 MHz. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. the CDI offset bar. a series of slots and wave guides. the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of. A flat plate antenna is a. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to. Correct Answer is. To obtain an accurate GPS fix. Option C. a Doppler antenna.tycoelectronics. 112. Option C. the CDI offset bar. 4 satellites. Explanation.com/gps/basics. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number.

Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286. altitude alert. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.Question Number. 116. Explanation. Option C. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 318 and 319. Option B. TCAS. Question Number. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. 115. Altitude and interrogation. Correct Answer is. . Altitude. The autothrottle system at touchdown will. The GPS satellite system consists of. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Question Number. 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite. Question Number. Avionics Fundamentals Page 211. 117. 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites. Altitude. go to idle and disconnect. Interrogation. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. alt. Correct Answer is. GPWS. Option B. When will the decision height aural warning sound?. apply reverse thrust. 119. Option C. NIL. GPWS. 118. go to idle. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites. Option C. Explanation. Option A. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:. system?. go to idle and disconnect.

122. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. . Option B. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a. NIL. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft. for the database of aircraft landing altitudes. insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS. Question Number. 123. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier. Option C. Option A. 121. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. set the altitude to be fed into the INS. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS. Option A. Option C. under CAA Rules. After decision height. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Before decision height. constant force. At decision height. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe. Option B. the pilot must. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. David Harris Page 90. Question Number. NIL. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft. David Harris Page 82. Option B. Explanation. 120. Explanation. Question Number. At decision height. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe. Question Number. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has. Correct Answer is. Option C.Option A.

Correct Answer is. 126. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 124. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. linear force. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. Option C. a differential followed by an integration. 125. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by. Option A. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform. A laser gyro output is. platform misalignment. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform. Question Number. David Harris Page 85. David Harris Page 33. 10-6 g. a single integration. Correct Answer is. In an IN system. Coriolis effect is the result of. Explanation. Option C. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to. Option B. NIL. directly proportional to frequency addition. Option A. Option C. Explanation. Option C.Option B. Question Number. directly proportional to angular turning rate. Question Number. 127. directly proportional to angular turning rate. Option A. gyro wander. Question Number. inversely proportional to angular turning rate. Option B. 10-2 g. Option A. linear force. . 10-3 g. Option B. 10-6 g. non-linear force. Correct Answer is. Option B. two successive integrations. Option C.

David Harris Page 77. torquing the gyros. Correct Answer is. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Question Number. 128. David Harris Page 81. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 131. linear spring.Correct Answer is. parallel to each other. 130. Option C. Question Number. David Harris Page. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. In an IN system. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option A. Option B. Option C. Option A. Option C. In an IN system. 120 degrees apart. re-aligning the stable platform. Explanation. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers. NIL. pendulous suspension. two successive integrations. stop the gyros from toppling. Explanation. Correct Answer is. orthogonally. force balance system. Option B. Option B. the purpose of the stable platform is to. force balance system. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers. Question Number. Correct Answer is. . David Harris Page 76. Option C. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs. the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a. Explanation. Option A. Coriolis effect is corrected for by. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted. Question Number. orthogonally. 129. provide attitude reference.

David Harris Page 37. David Harris Page 77. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a. Option B.Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. 5 degrees per hour. rate gyro. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use. azimuth gimbal. . Correct Answer is. 15 degrees per hour. displacement gyro. three gimbals. pitch gimbal. 135. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 133. roll gimbal. four gimbals. 15 degrees per hour. Question Number. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Option A. 132. In a gimbal system. Option C. Earth rate is approximately. Option B. a pitch gimbal. 84 degrees per hour. azimuth gimbal. rate integrating gyro. Option C. Option B. four gimbals. NIL. rate integrating gyro. David Harris Page 77/78. Correct Answer is. the stable platform is the. 134. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.

the C. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. When in manual mode. Explanation. Explanation.4 seconds.4 minutes. 84. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum. two minutes before the next waypoint. the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of. Option B. 137.U. perpendicular distance from the desired track. Question Number. air data computer. Correct Answer is. David Harris Page 86. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical. 84. Option C. Option B. Doppler system. thirty seconds before a track change is required. alert lamp of the IN system will flash. Explanation. . Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical. Question Number. 138. two minutes before the next waypoint.4 minutes. Question Number. TK (cross track) is the. 139. Option A. Question Number. Option C. Option A. 84. NIL. Correct Answer is. An IN system requires data from the.4 minutes. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. David Harris Page 86. 136. David Harris Page 89.Question Number. 8. 140. satellites. when an error is detected. Option B. Option C. air data computer.D. Option A. Correct Answer is. the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation.

S. great circle arc. course directed by ground station. Option B.N. 142. 90º to each other. perpendicular distance from the desired track. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. A basic I. Question Number.S. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. 141. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. Correct Answer is. rhumb line.Option B. attitude indicators. Correct Answer is. 90º to each other. 3 axis accelerometer. parallel to each other. Option A. Option C. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros. Explanation. 144. Explanation. . Option A.N. Explanation. The output of an INS can be fed to. an aircraft flies. Question Number. attitude indicators. Question Number. 143. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros. Option B. David Harris Page 85. Using I. vertical speed indicators. NIL. David Harris Page 88. 3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll). Explanation. Option C. platform has. Question Number. altimeters. angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or right of desired track. Option C. Option A. Option A. 120º apart. Correct Answer is. actual track across the earth's surface. David Harris Page 78. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control.

Explanation. standby power when airborne.N. What must be entered in to the I. switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage. before the aircraft moves?. David Harris Page 85.T. E. both when airborne and on the ground. distance perpendicular from the selected track. Option B. David Harris Page 88. Option B. Explanation. when attitude information is lost. Option A. Option A. 148. Option A. Correct Answer is.A. 146. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made. NIL. Explanation. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays. standby power only when on the ground.Correct Answer is. Question Number. For the INS. great circle arc. Option C. Option C. Question Number. both when airborne and on the ground. Correct Answer is. Option B. . difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track. Present position. 145. to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays. Option C. Explanation. 147. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. when navigation information is lost. David Harris Page 81. when navigation information is lost. Option C. Question Number.S. the Battery Unit provides. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. David Harris Page 85. Waypoints. Option A. to maintain the alignment phase. Explanation. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Option B. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Present position. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Explanation. the vectorial addition of IAS and GS. Correct Answer is. Option C. . Transport Rate compensation is achieved by. Question Number. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate. Correct Answer is. INS wind speed is calculated from. NIL. Correct Answer is. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude. NIL. Explanation. NIL. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from. the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS. NIL. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude. Option B. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by. the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis. the vectorial addition of TAS and GS.Question Number. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error. the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal. the platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. 152. Option B. Explanation. Option A. 150. the vectorial addition of TAS and GS. Option B. 151. Option C. Question Number. Option B. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine of the latitude. an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. 149. Option A. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the longitude.

Option A. 156. a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds. Option A. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment. Explanation. Option B. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the. . optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the. Option B.Question Number. NIL. David Harris Page 85. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that. Option A. Question Number. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together. Option C. NIL. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. Option B. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment. Explanation. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System). Correct Answer is. the No. David Harris Page 47. takes 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power down. Option C. Question Number. 153. Option C. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. An IRS alignment. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU. Option A. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered. Explanation. the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together. an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds. 1 and No. 154. Correct Answer is. 157. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. 155. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is.

The heading error signal used in the heading select mode. Option B. Option A.Option A. VHF nav set. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading. VHF nav set. 90 KHZ. DME system. Correct Answer is. the ILS glideslope signal modulation is. Explanation. . 160. 159. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. NIL. VHF nav system. Question Number. Option A. is the difference between the desired course and the actual course. NIL. VLF nav system. Above the glideslope. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Option B. VHF nav system. comes direct from the compass system. VHF comm system. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the. selected course counter. 161. Explanation. Option B. 90 Hz. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the. difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading. 158. Correct Answer is. Option C. flight director computer. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading. NIL. NIL.

Option C. the vertical plane. 90 Hz modulation sector. turn left. 164. Question Number. equi-signal sector. Explanation. Option A.6. 90 Hz. 90 Hz. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line. Page 72. Question Number.Option C. Automatic Flight Control. top of L/H column. 162. 150 Hz modulation sector. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of. Question Number. straight ahead. turn right. . Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation.6 and Aircraft Radio Systems. Option C. Correct Answer is. when the aircraft heading is 150° is. Option B. Option B. Option A. equi-signal sector. Question Number. 165. Explanation. It says 'as seen from the localiser transmitter'. page 181. Option A. as seen from the localiser transmitter. 150 Hz. Fig. is. Option B. 163. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the. Correct Answer is. 150 Hz. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°. 90 KHz. 150 Hz. turn right. NIL. Powell. Pallett. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is.

the vertical plane. Option B. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway. 168. page 206. page 181 (bottom of the page) and Aircraft Radio Systems. Question Number. Option A.5. Option C. the horizontal plane. 5. Option B. The glideslope transmitter is located. the vertical plane. at the approach end of the runway. VHF band. 166. Explanation. Correct Answer is. .Option B. The glideslope and localiser frequencies. are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary. 169. Option C. Correct Answer is. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. Option A. Jeppesen. Option B. the horizontal plane. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Automatic Flight Control. Explanation. the horizontal plane. NIL. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway. Question Number. Pallett. distance to touch down. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both. have to be selected separately. Explanation. distance to touchdown. Fig. at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway. Option A. The glideslope equipment operates in the. page 71 and Avionics Fundamentals. page 72. Powell. Powell. Option C. 167. Option A. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Radio Systems.

VHF band. HF band. 103. Option C. HF band. Option C. 360. Explanation. Option B. UHF band. infinite. Explanation. 170. Question Number. NIL.B. Option A. Option A. Option B. Option C. Aircraft Radio Systems.2 MHz. The localiser equipment operates in the. Explanation. Correct Answer is. the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.9 MHz. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181.Option B. 173. Question Number. Option B.Underdown and David Cockburn Page 72. 127. R. the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations. Correct Answer is. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181. 172. Option A. VHF band. 171. infinite. Correct Answer is. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing. Option C. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?.e. Correct Answer is. Option A. UHF band. 180 per quadrant. UHF band. 720 in 360°. i. Question Number. . Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids.

Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. 114. 174. not bonded. Option A. . insulated from the fuselage.95 MHz (Terminal VORs). Explanation. Option B. in phase. 177. Aircraft is due South of the station. Correct Answer is. 180° out of phase. bonded. Option A. bonded. 180° out of phase.3 MHz. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. 270° out of phase.Option C. Question Number.95 MHz (High Power VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108. Option C. Correct Answer is.00 and 111. The middle marker modulation is keyed with.3 MHz. Most radio aerial masts are. Explanation. dashes. Option B. 175. dots. Question Number. Aerial masts may be damaged by. NIL. water. Question Number. 176. Skydrol hydraulic fluids. Aircraft Radio Systems. Option C. killfrost anti-icing fluid. Powell Pages 58 All frequencies between 112. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals will be.00 and 117. Option B. NIL. Skydrol hydraulic fluids. 114. Option B.

179. NIL. Option A. alternate dots and dashes. An over station sensor (OSS) detects. http://www.htm Question Number. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 3 miles. 3000 Hz. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is. 3500 ft. 400 Hz. 400 Hz. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312. Option B. . radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter. visually. Option B. alternate dots and dashes. Option A. both visually and aurally. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion. Option C. Correct Answer is. Explanation.avionicswest. 3500 ft. both visually and aurally. The modulation of the outer marker is. Option B. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311. Option C. Question Number. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter. Option B.Option C. Option C.com/marker_beacon_receiver. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. 1300 Hz. Explanation. aurally. 7 miles. 180. 178. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 181.

184. they both have the same sensitivity. variable and reference phase signals. Option A. no indication. to. Question Number. reference phase signal. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 185. from. Option B. VOR.Explanation. NIL. the TO/FROM indicator would show. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. altitude hold and ILS. The VOR system comprises. . VOR and glidepath. 183. ILS. Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Incompatible Flight Director modes are. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is. Explanation. ILS. variable and reference phase signals. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. NIL. altitude hold and ILS. VRU and compass. Option A. from. variable phase signal. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 3o6 and 307. NIL. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Option C. 182. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station. Option C. Explanation.

. the UHF band. Frequency discriminator in receiver. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 308. Option C. frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ. 189. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems. Question Number. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Discriminator on control panel. can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot. side of the controls away from the throttles. NIL. Option A. Frequency discriminator in receiver. right of the control column. Question Number. Option B. the VHF band.Question Number. switches off after a time interval. the UHF band. 187. 188. Explanation. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. left of the control column. Correct Answer is. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?. Option C. David Harris Page 133. Correct Answer is. side of the controls away from the throttles. the audible warning. Explanation. Option B. Option B. 186. Option C. JAR AWO Para 153. Trigger pulse from ground station. The glideslope transmitter operates on. Option A. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button. Correct Answer is.

For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing. NIL. Option C. Question Number. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have. supply altitude readout. Option B. JAR AWO Para 306 b. a decision height of 50ft. side lobe suppression acts to. Correct Answer is. an autothrottle system is. Explanation. a matter of choice for the operator. the application of reverse thrust will. Option C. Option A. disconnect the autothrottle. With autothrottle engaged. mute the DME operation during transmit phase. Option B. disconnect the autothrottle. 193. Option A.Question Number. 194. mandatory. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C. 191. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver. During ATC transponder operation. 192. Option B. Option B. Question Number. a decision height depending on RVR. Correct Answer is. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds. Explanation. Option A. mute the DME operation during transmit phase. mute coms transmission during transponder operation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position. no decision height. . Option A. a decision height of 50ft. 190. Question Number. drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position.

L band DME transmits on a frequency of. 1090 MHz. Option B. Explanation. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Localizer and DME. both systems can be operated simultaneously.. 195. Explanation. NIL. Option C. Option B. 4133 MHz. 196. 2210 MHz. Glideslope and localizer. Glideslope and localizer. Which two frequencies are paired?. None of above. Option B. DME and Glideslope. . Explanation. 1090 MHz. Question Number. Option C. NIL. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation. 197. NIL.Option A. Option C. Option A. #1 HF system can transmit but not receive. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation. Option A. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon. NIL.

The aerial becomes inductively capacitive. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?. Explanation. Option A. 700 ft. Avionics Fundamentals Page 200. 700 ft. Option B. Option C. Explanation. resistive. capacitive. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. Option C. 199. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by. Correct Answer is. 70 ft. . inductive. Question Number. 201. Option C. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. 200. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. resistive. Option A. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Option B. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. NIL.Question Number. 198. Question Number. 7 ft. The aerial becomes inductively reactive. when its load is purely. NIL. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive. NIL. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency.

NIL. Option A. Question Number. to stop the motor overheating. Amber. 203. Correct Answer is. A laser gyro has moving parts (dither motor vibrates) but not rotating parts. Explanation. Question Number. Amber. Laser gyros have. Option A. 204. Blue. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force. made from non-conductive material. to give control surface feel. Option B. Explanation. Option C. 205. no rotating parts. rotating parts. NIL. Option C. Explanation. White. magnetic north. moving parts. Correct Answer is. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force.Question Number. Most aerials are. Explanation. Question Number. Option A. 206. Option A. . bonded. Option B. bonded. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?. NIL. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Option A. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is. Laser gyros are aligned to. Correct Answer is. Option B. 202. not bonded. no rotating parts.

Option B. DME. ILS. ADC. Correct Answer is. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?. Correct Answer is. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 282. Explanation. NIL. Option C. Option B. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight. Option C. ADF. ADF. FMCS does not normally utilise ADF. Option B. Option A. ILS. aircraft structure. Option B. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight. fail passive. DME. a satellite communication system. ADC. Triplex autopilot is. Option C. The altimeter. 209. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. fail operational. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises. ILS. ACARS is. 208. Option C. Question Number. a navigation system. Option A.Option B. 207. Question Number. The ATC control panel. Option A. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250. aircraft structure. 210. . Correct Answer is. fail soft. DME. Question Number. fail operational. Option C. true north. VOR. The airspeed indicator. Correct Answer is. VOR. Explanation. Question Number.

214. Cruise. The ATC control panel. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. 211. Correct Answer is. Option C. In an autothrottle system. Signal returned from a transponder.Correct Answer is.H. Roll. . Option A. 1. What is secondary radar?. when is EPR or thrust mode used?. NIL. Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft. Explanation. Take-off.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph. 2. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?.J. Option A. Explanation. Pitch. E. Signal returned from a transponder. Option B. NIL. 212. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. 213. Yaw. Option A. A backup radar on an airfield. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?. Pitch. NIL. Option B. Question Number. Approach. NIL. Take-off. 3 (one is used for redundancy). Option C. 2.

SG and voltage remain constant for specified period. excessive terrain closure rate. Option C. Option A. Option C. 2. excessive terrain closure rate. Excessive descent rate.8 and Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 23. EEL/1-1 4.Question Number. HF. Explanation. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use. 1. NIL. Explanation. cells begin to gas freely. Autopilot. 216. SG and voltage remain constant for specified period. Explanation. how many axis are used?. unsafe terrain clearance. HF. Option B. Correct Answer is. 4. 11. Question Number. Correct Answer is. . Excessive descent rate. Excessive descent rate. 215. Option A. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?.4. Question Number. VLF. NIL. Correct Answer is.180. 217. 2. when on approach to landing. Question Number. Option A. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant.06. Option B. Option B. SG reaches 1. Question Number. Option A. Option C. altitude loss after take-off. Excessive terrain closure rate. 3. VHF. NIL. Option B. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. Explanation. 3. Option C. Electrical Power (ATA 24). Correct Answer is.

Option C. Explanation. 5. what should be done?. Option C.1. PMG. Left open circuit. Resistor placed across terminals. Correct Answer is.Option A. Option B. current. Correct Answer is. Option B. Current. Current. either series or parallel depending on the design. Option A. 4. voltage. current. Terminals shorted. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 61. What does the differential sensing coil sense?. Correct Answer is. 3. power. Option B. parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption. Option A. Question Number. 6. Option C. battery is back up power for GCU. RAT. Option A. Terminals shorted. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. Option B. When a current transformer is disconnected. Option A. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Galley loads are wired in. PMG. . Where does the GCU gets its power?. Question Number. NIL. Volts. Explanation. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-5 Para 4. series. Power. Correct Answer is parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption. Question Number. Battery. Correct Answer is. Option C. PMG is main supply for GCU.

Explanation. Explanation. Option B. However. Option C. Option A. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 49. All loads on an aircraft are wired in parallel. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits. Eismin Page 99. is unimportant. Correct Answer is. over-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits. the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the others. In unparalleled AC generation systems. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. 11. busbar voltage decreases. Phase relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system (although answer b says it will be paralleled. Question Number. Question Number. 7. current consumption from the bar decreases. limits current flow to a load. Question Number. A fuse-type current limiter. . opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded. Correct Answer is. over-current and under-current protection circuits. Option A. 10. Option B. is unimportant. can be used as a radio suppressor. Explanation. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. Option A. or. Option A. 9. thereby changing the question???). Eismin. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. current consumption from the bar decreases. Load shedding reduces current consumption. Option B. over-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits. See Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 112. Option C. another type of current limiter holds the current but does and open the circuit see Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 202. Option C.Explanation. Correct Answer is. the. Page 241. When a load is shed from a busbar. the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by. busbar voltage increases. opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded. 8. Question Number. In a multi-generator system. Option B. must be BCA.

16. Option C. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. . AB.Option A. Correct Answer is. before the over voltage limit is exceeded. suppress arching when relay is opening and closing. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. automatic load shedding. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated. weak spring tension. take the temperature of the electrolyte. Generators are always controlled by adjusting the field strength. take the temperature of the electrolyte. Option A. Question Number. Changing the speed would also change the frequency and thus the phase relationship. EF. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 15. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators. 14. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72. the interlock circuit is controlled by pins. On an AC external power plug. Option C. Option B. equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators. Option A. Weak spring tension of the brushes can cause excessive sparking. Option B. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators. Option C. CD. Option B. weak spring tension. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. rotating field diode failure. A diode connected across a coil will. EF. CAIPs EEL/1-1. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 119. 13. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by. brushes positioned on MNA. Option A. allow to stabilise for one hour. Explanation. after a fixed time delay. Question Number. 12. Explanation. Option A. dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage. Option C. Explanation. carry out a capacity test.

is detected using all phases. Explanation. Question Number. Over-frequency and under-frequency. NIL. is detected using any phase. Correct Answer is. 20. Option C. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. On some aircraft. is detected on generator neutral circuit. http://homepages. Over-frequency and under-frequency. Which fault does not always trip the GCR?. prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way. Option C. Option A. Question Number. battery is disconnected from bus. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus. detects current difference between source and load. A and b are both wrong because under and over voltage will both trip the relay. battery is disconnected from bus. generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage. detects voltage difference between source and load.Option B. Option C. Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. Under-frequency and under-volts. Option B. is detected on generator neutral circuit. Differential protection in a generating system. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4. 17. under frequency will NOT trip the relay. Option B. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching.html Question Number. Explanation. Option A. & B737 Manual. Question Number. the. so c is the 'least incorrect'. 18. 21. generator voltage falls to zero.net/~paul. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Open phase sensing on a current transformer. 19. Option C.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody. If the battery is switched off in flight. Option C. To flash a generator field the. Correct Answer is. Option A. detects current difference between source and load. Over-frequency and over-volts. Option A. Explanation.which. uses the volts coil to trip the GCR. . Option B. Option B. prevent back EMF and allow faster switching.

Option B. at any time. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4. E and F. underfrequency. Question Number. generator must be stationary. . Option C. the constant speed drive. Option B. The voltage is controlled by the voltage regulator. generator tripping is initiated by. Option A. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery. generator rotates but is not on line. low electrolyte temperature. CAIP EEL/1-3 para 4. Explanation. overcurrent. Correct Answer is. the swashplate. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. undervoltage. 7-32. generator must be stationary. Question Number. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates. Option C. A and B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Page 7-31. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 72. Explanation. only in the battery workshop. Voltage is controlled by. 26. Option B. 25. C and N. Question Number. 23. the voltage regulator. The ground interlock pins are numbered. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. only in the battery workshop. Explanation. Option A. Option A. not enough charging current. Correct Answer is. when fully charged. E and F. the voltage regulator. excessive charging current. Option A. Option C. 22.Option B. During a normal engine shutdown. 24. excessive charging current. Correct Answer is.

Question Number. in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced. Boric acid. differential current protection. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. their voltages should be matched to prevent. Option B. Boric acid. generator current to busbar current. 30. in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines. 27. Explanation. generator voltage to busbar voltage.Correct Answer is. Explanation. in series so when loads are shed current is reduced. large circulating currents developing. Option A. Option C. Option B. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. . Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar. differential current protection. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares. Option C. overload protection. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 120. ambient pressure to cabin pressure. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 52. Bicarbonate of soda. Question Number. Option B. Option A. Option B. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for. 31. Option C. Question Number. 29. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?. Boric acid. generator current to busbar current. Distilled water. overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines. Correct Answer is. All loads are connected in parallel with each other. Question Number. voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits. undervoltage. Option A. 28. Explanation. Question Number. in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced. Option A. negative sequence protection. Before operating generators in parallel.

Question Number. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators. Correct Answer is. Option B. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. Option B. must be synchronised prior to paralleling. . the frequency and phase rotation. Question Number. Option C. to prevent CSD shock loading. The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar. isolate the battery from the main busbar. Option A. Option A. must be out of phase prior to paralleling. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. 36. isolate the battery from the main busbar. http://homepages.net/~paul. 34. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A.hills/Solenoids/SolenoidsBody. to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs. Option C.Question Number. uses a voltage coil in series with generator output. Option A. Option B. ensure smooth contactor operation. Option C. it is important to maintain generator outputs at the same voltage. Correct Answer is. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field. Option A. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 48. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will. is of no consequence after paralleling. Question Number. 33. 32. Explanation. Correct Answer is. to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators. speed up operation by reducing back EMF. Option C. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output. NIL. disconnect all power to the main busbar. Diodes are placed across a contactor to. In an AC generation system. prevent contact bounce. speed up operation by reducing back EMF. Explanation. NIL.html Question Number. allowing it to be charged from the generator(s). to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators. shut down the APU.which. 35.

. 40. Option B. differential protection and undervoltage. 41. Eismin page 199-200. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook . initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output. needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by. an IDG. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. Option A. overfrequency and undervoltage. low oil pressure. Explanation. initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output. high oil pressure. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. by the generator output only. page 7-50. 37. low oil pressure. 38. low oil pressure. Option C. Option A. Option C. uses a current coil in parallel with generator output. high oil temperature. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. high oil temperature. by the battery bus or rectified generator output. Correct Answer is. does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant. needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load. Question Number. Question Number. PMG is main supply for GCU. Question Number. Option B. An AC generator used with a CSD. battery is back up power for GCU. Correct Answer is. a CSD. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Explanation. an hydraulically actuated swash plate. 39. Option C. Trip signals for a GCR are. Explanation. Power to a GCU is supplied. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-24. uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.Option C. Option B. low oil temperaturelow oil pressure. NIL. Option C. low oil temperature. an hydraulically actuated swash plate. does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant. Option B. Option A. high oil temperature. Correct Answer is. Option B.

Explanation. Nomex. Question Number. Question Number.11.Option C. high oil temperature / low oil pressure. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because. Option C. Correct Answer is. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on. high oil temperature / low oil pressure. Option A. it will trip the GCR. 44. Question Number. Correct Answer is. the specified temperature. A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature. Option C. . Option B. This is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition Page 69. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 45. Explanation. it will trip the GCR. Teflon. page 7-50. High oil temperature / low oil quantity. Teflon. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. 46. Option A. 100°C below the specified. Option C. NIL. Option A. 100°C above the specified. A heat gun should be operated at. it will damage the drive shaft. NIL. it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators. Question Number. PVC. Correct Answer is.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont tradename for PTFE). differential protection and undervoltage. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with. the specified temperature. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook . Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. underfrequency and overcurrent. Also AC43 Para. 42. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of. or 100°C (approx) above the heatshrink temperature. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. 43. low oil quantity / low oil temperature. Option B. Option A.

low retentivity. Inverse time delay . A permanent magnet should have. low retentivity. Correct Answer is. B737 switches to trickle charge. with temperature. The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted. swashplate. ID unit. Option A. low coercivity. 50. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. low coercivity. see Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Figure 1. closing of fuel and hydraulic valves. Explanation. Option C. Option A. Eismin. but mass remains constant. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode. amplitude of voltage. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a. Option C. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?. The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode. Option B. decrease. remain the same.32 for charger disconnect system. Option B. Option A. decrease. NIL. page 203. Question Number. amplitude of voltage. Explanation. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery. The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery. swashplate. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a swashplate. Option B. Option C. Option C. the SG will. Option C. Since volume increases. Question Number. 47. 48. CSD unit. Option B. high retentivity. Question Number. However. Explanation.c could also be considered correct. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. high coercivity. increase. density . 49. time delay circuit. low coercivity.Option A. Question Number. Explanation. high retentivity.

0. Option C. Correct Answer is. 54. Option A. Option A. Option A. Explanation. B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares status information with the GCU's. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is. Explanation. Question Number. by CSU. an IRS. Explanation. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 7-32. 51. Correct Answer is. by angle of swash plate. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary. In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel. a BPCU. Option A. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged. 55. the electrolyte level is higher level than normal. Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by. What is the current drawn from the source?. Option B. Option B. 52. Question Number. Question Number. the electrolyte level stays the same. Correct Answer is.3 A.'. Option B. a BPCU. by IDG. 3 A. Explanation. Option B.decreases. Option C. Option B. By means of a remote trimmer. By means of a remote trimmer. Question Number. by angle of swash plate. Question Number. the electrolyte level is lower than normal. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting. 53. where would you adjust it?. The BPCU controls all electrical buses and controls load shedding. Option C. Correct Answer is. Adjusted with a remote trimmer.2 A. . Option A. Option C. 1. Control of an HPG is via a swashplate. On the GCU. a GCU. Option C.

After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks. no cause for concern. 30 minutes. Correct Answer is. Option B. one cell has low reading. What time duration would the battery be expected to power essential equipment?. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. Question Number. Option C. 58.2 A. 1. the interlock circuit. ground handling bus. the battery is faulty. 57. Question Number. Explanation. Next find current in Primary = 4 x 3/10 = 12/10 = 1. 60 minutes. 60. Option A.4. Explanation. is not allowed. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. AWN 81 para 3. NIL. Explanation. Correct Answer is. CAIPs EEL/1-3 Para 6. Question Number. Explanation. It needs topping up. is permitted. Option C. is only allowed in the shop. Explanation. 30 minutes. no cause for concern. It is defective. It must be replaced. Forever.1. Option A. Option B. an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current. Find current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A. It must be replaced.2A.2 . These are used for. Option A. the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator. This is normal. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. . Option C. there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines. 59.now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4. Option B. is not allowed. Question Number. An external power plug has two short pins. Option B.Correct Answer is. 56.

Question Number.5. Correct Answer is. CAIPs EEL/1-4 4. Question Number. 62.3. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 51 and 52. Explanation. check voltage and check the SG of each cell. Option A. Generator brush bedding. Option B. Explanation. Option B. What is the amperage at point '' to the nearest amp?. measure the discharge time. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck. Option C. can be done on the aircraft. 63. NIL. AC generators in parallel. . 64. Option C. to monitor total current load. measure the discharge time. Option A. Option C. can be done on the aircraft. Option B. 100 Amps. To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery. Question Number.6 (Does not say that it cannot be done on the aircraft .Option C. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck. Correct Answer is. should not be done on the aircraft. Explanation.7. the interlock circuit. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is. Circulating currents are associated with. subject the battery to load. Option A. a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket. AC generators in parallel. Question Number.but would be difficult). Explanation. to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.6 and 4. Question Number. subject the battery to load and check the voltage. Option A. Explanation. Option C. 61. Option B. AC and DC generators in parallel. DC generators in parallel. Pallett Page 290. 65. Option A. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done. Correct Answer is.

AC and DC electrical generators. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3. Option B. Chapter 31 Section 21. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact. DC. Option A. 67. Chapter 24 Section 31. 102 Amps. NIL. AC and DC electrical generators. In a carbon pile regulator. Option B.1. AC or DC. Option A. Option C. AC electrical generators only. Explanation. Explanation. Chapter 24 Section 21. NIL. 100 volts accross far right load. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Option A. Pitot tubes are heated by. Option B. in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length. 68. Chapter 24 Section 31. in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact. (Ohms Law) Total current at '' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA. AC or DC. Pallett 3rd edition Page 32. Option C. (Kirkchoff's Law). Option A. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 101 Amps.Option B. 101 Amps. Option C. 69. DC electrical generators only. Paralleling is used for. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. AC. Explanation. Question Number. 66. in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length. Correct Answer is. . the resistive element is. therefore 100 volts also accross 100ohm load (parallel circuit theory) I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load.

CAIPs EEL/1-2 3. Option C. Question Number. 70. Correct Answer is.3. Option A. Option A. NIL. voltage coil. Option C. Option A. transformers and transistors. 73. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. constant voltage. In a transistor voltage regulator. Option B. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is. Explanation. diodes and transformers. Option C. Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 16. Question Number. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by. NIL. constant voltage. Explanation. zeners and transistors. constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage.1. 74. Option B. Correct Answer is. fluctuating. Explanation. Question Number. pulse width modulating. voltage and current coil. Explanation. 144 degrees C. the voltage output is controlled by. current coil. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2 3. voltage and current coil. 72. 71 degrees F. Correct Answer is. 144 degrees F.Question Number. the battery is charged by. Option B. zeners and transistors. Option A.1. 18. stationary. .1. Option C. 144 degrees F. Correct Answer is. Option C. 71. stationary. constant current. 17. If an aircraft has no battery charger. Option A.

Inductive reactive load causes. reactive power from the generator that does work. Correct Answer is. NIL. 78. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated.Question Number. Differential protection in an AC system protects against. . increases output voltage and increases frequency. Option B. line-line-line. Option B. Question Number. 76. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. real power from the generator that does work. Option A. decreases frequency. Option B. Option C. increase in torque only. Pallett Page 121. Option A. increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated. Option A. NIL. Aircraft Electrical Systems. line-earth faults. apparent power from the generator that does work. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated. Explanation. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. decreases frequency. short circuits. real power from the generator that does work. line-line. 75. short circuits. Option B. 77. a reverse current flowing from the battery. Option A. decreases output voltage. Increasing the real load primarily. Explanation. Explanation.

rotating at Nsync. . the most likely consequence is. it would be an indication that the.Question Number. Option B. 82. stationary. Option A. Explanation. rotating at idle. 79. Explanation. Option B. NIL. NIL. energise the bus tie relay. Correct Answer is. phase sequence detection circuit has operated. deactivation of the field regulatory TRs. Option A. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. the engine should be. NIL. Option B. Option A. Option C. 81. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. 80. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system. enable generators to be paralleled. maintain constant load on the generator. Option B. activation of the time delay circuit. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 37. When resetting the CSD on the ground. Option A. prevent engine overload. Option C. stationary. Correct Answer is. CSD driveshaft had sheared. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight. bus tie interlock is inoperative. enable generators to be paralleled. Explanation. Option C. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to. CSD driveshaft had sheared. activation of the time delay circuit.

Assuming all systems are operating normally. How is RAT driven?. Option A. Correct Answer is. Positive to external power relay. Airstream. they are connected in. series. Pallett Page 23/26/27. Question Number. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft. Question Number. NIL. Question Number. 86. Fan. remain constant and amperage output increases. Option A. Option C. Option C. either parallel or series and switched between as an option. 85. Option B. increases and amperage output increases. decrease and amperage output increases. Pallett Page 70. Option A. Airstream. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?. . Explanation.Question Number. 83. Option B. Option B. Positive to battery relay. either parallel or series and switched between as an option. Correct Answer is. Ground or earth. Correct Answer is. Ram Air Turbine. Explanation. Option C. Aircraft Electrical Systems. generator output voltage will. parallel. Explanation. Option A. Option C. 84. Compressor. Positive to external power relay. Explanation. Correct Answer is. remain constant and amperage output increases. as aircraft electrical load increases. Option B. Aircraft Electrical Systems.

Correct Answer is. 90. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?. The short prongs are for DC only. Question Number. 91. Question Number. Option C. increased torque and speed. Question Number. To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay. Aircrfat Electrical Systems Pallett Page 21.Question Number. current regulation coil in series. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Option A. How is an aircraft battery rated?. increased torque and speed. Correct Answer is. To speed up the operation. Option B. reduced torque and increased speed. Option A. Option A. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF). Option B. Pallett pg 72. Option B. Option A. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?. Option B. Option C. voltage regulating coil in parallel. 88. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in. Pallett Page 11. current regulation coil in series. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection. Option C. Ampere hours. 87. Explanation. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a. increased torque and reduced speed. To help plug location/fit. Option A. Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electrical System. Explanation. Ampere hours. Watts. Correct Answer is. 89. Joules. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection. Option B. Question Number. . voltage regulating coil in series. Option C.

Correct Answer is. Explanation. circulating currents. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 93. neutral. the tripping circuit. To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil. Option B. Question Number. positive. circulating currents. http://www. caused by resistance of the coil. 95. Option B. provide a means of monitoring the load. 94. negative.Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 119/120. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 70. Option C. the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to. NIL. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 81. . Question Number. Question Number. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system. Option A. Option A. trips after a time delay. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude. Option A. The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off. provide interconnection between the generator load busbars. Option B. positive.com/search?q=define:Eddy+Currents Question Number. 92. Option C. Option C. trips at a set level. In an AC distribution system. The small pins in the power connector plug are. Explanation. supply essential services. Correct Answer is.google. Eddy currents are. trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude. Option A. Option C. caused by heating effect of the coil. Explanation. Explanation.

Option A. rectification. KW & KVAR. 97. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for. Correct Answer is. 99. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 11. voltage regulation. Question Number. voltage regulation. Option B. across the generator output. phase sequence monitoring. EEL/1-2 Page 5. 98. An old Module 4 question. in parallel with the field windings. load monitoring. Explanation. Correct Answer is. differential protection. voltage stabilisation. differential protection. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Option C. Option C. Option A. AC generator output indications are measured in. . Question Number. KVA & KW. Option B. Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect equipment from voltage spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage regulation. KVA & KW. Question Number. Option C. 96. in series with the field windings. in parallel with the field windings. KW. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 121. Option B.Question Number. Zener diodes are for. Option C. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Option B. Option C. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 78 Fig. less current to the busbar. how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?. Option A. more voltage to the busbar. Question Number. By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only. Pulse width modulated DC. 101. 102. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?. 5. Explanation. Variable AC. The answer here depends upon which output they are referring. Option A. Explanation. An AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power factor. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter. less current to the busbar. a DC generator is rated in KW only. By power fed from static inverter only. However. Question Number. Option B. 100. Correct Answer is. more current to the busbar. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system. from which KW can be calculated). . Option A. Load shedding allows. Correct Answer is. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?. Pulse width modulated DC. A voltage regulator has two outputs.Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load). Generator power pilot relay. Question Number.2. 103. Option B. Slightly variable DC. Option C. By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter. Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant). Question Number. Option A.

just like an AC generator. to control output current. Correct Answer is. Option B. Question Number. In what units are static inverters rated?. Option A. Question Number. Under-frequency. 104. Option C. Correct Answer is. to prevent voltage overshoot. Option A. . a stability winding is used. kW. what prevents GCR being tripped?. to prevent voltage overshoot. Option A. Option C. Not sure of the point of this question. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. reactive load by adjustment of generator fields. Under-current.5 (d). How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?. The GCR is the only one which is (sometimes) 'within' the GCU. Under-frequency. (Never heard of a 'generator power pilot relay'). EEL/1-2 3. Option C. In a generator system. 107. kVA. Question Number. Generator line contactor. 106. On engine shutdown. Real load by control of the constant speed drives. Generator control relay. Option C. VA or KVA. Correct Answer is. Generator control relay. Option A. Under-volt. Question Number. Explanation.4. Explanation. Option B. Option B. in series with the field to prevent oscillations. kVAR. 105. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 120. kVA.Option B.

Real load by control of generator fields. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and. in series with the generator field. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option B. phase rotation does not matter. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. reactive load by adjustment of generator fields. Explanation. in parallel with the generator volts coil. Option C. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is. 108. Correct Answer is. 109. after the fault has been cleared. on the ground only. Option A. CBA must equal CBA.Option B. NIL. by cycling the generator switch. in series with the generator volts coil. EEL/1-2 Fig 1. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. Real load by control of the constant speed drives. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting. Question Number. When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting. 111. Option C. Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives. on the ground only. it can be reset. When a field relay trips the generator off-line. in series with the generator volts coil. Explanation. Option A. When the alternators are fully loaded. CBA must equal ABC. Output voltage is controlled by adjustment of generator fields. When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system. Explanation. Option B. . Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system. 110. when is the charger switched off automatically?. Option A. Explanation. Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 48 and 49. Option C. Question Number.

Option C. 113. electrolyte temperature. B757 Maintenance Training Manual. Option A. During normal engine shut-down. charge. 116. bus bar current decreases. The generator warning light will come on when. NIL. Question Number. Explanation. NIL. What controls output from the generator?.Correct Answer is. breaker is tripped only. bus bar current rises. Correct Answer is. electrolyte level. Nil. Option C. breaker and control relay are both tripped. Option A. Option B. has full descriptions of all 3 units. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. bus bar voltage rises. breaker is tripped only. control relay is tripped only. BPCU. bus bar current decreases. Explanation. Explanation. Question Number. 115. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. 112. Option A. Question Number. Option C. . charge. voltage is too high. GCU. Question Number. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. CBA must equal CBA. Correct Answer is. Option B. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically. Option A. Eismin. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of. ELCU. Option A. 114. Correct Answer is. the generator. GCU.

reduces current required to hold closed. NIL. reduces current required to hold closed. reduces current required to close. Option A. voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting. decrease as the engine speed increases. When replacing a current transformer. Option B. 119. Bring the generator on-line. decrease as the engine speed increases. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will. voltage is below battery voltage. Option A. Option C. it can only be fitted one way round. increase as the engine speed increases. Option C. Option C. Bring the generator on-line. Question Number. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. 117. Correct Answer is. Option B. Control output voltage. it can only be fitted one way round. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The economy coil on a relay. Option C. . makes it cheaper to make. 118. voltage is above battery voltage. NIL. Explanation. Connect the generator to the busbar. voltage is below battery voltage. Question Number. remain constant. Option A. Option C. Option A. What is the function of the generator control relay?. NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. 120. it can be fitted any way round.Option B. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is.

Ambient temperature. NIL. Explanation.3. Electrolyte temperature. In a split bus power distribution system. Question Number. Option B. Option A. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?. restores magnetism. sodium bicarbonate. Correct Answer is. . Option A. Electrolyte temperature. Explanation. Option B. Flashing a generator field. 125. increases resistance. Question Number. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation. 121. Decreases due to the back EMF as engine speed increases. EEL/1-1 4. Question Number. Battery charge. restores magnetism. decreases resistance. what should be taken into account?. Correct Answer is. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Question Number. NIL. Explanation. Option B. Option C. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook p 7-30 refers. Question Number. citric acid. borax powder. Option C. 124. Option A. Option C. power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC. Correct Answer is.4. Option A. 123. sodium bicarbonate. generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus. Explanation.Explanation. 122. each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation.

129. Option A. modifies generator field excitation current. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed. Correct Answer is. By voltmeter in the cockpit. Option A. modifies generator field excitation voltage. Correct Answer is. . Aircraft Electrical Systems. in parallel with the generator output. a resister in parallel with the points. Question Number. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to. Question Number. NIL. Option B. Aircraft Electrical Systems. modifies generator field excitation current. modifies generator drive speed. close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts. Correct Answer is. Pallett Page 23. 128. Option C. By voltmeter connected to the battery terminal. Question Number. Option B. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system. Option C. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil. a volts coil in parallel with the points. Explanation. Question Number. a resistor in series with the points. when battery is on load. By voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load. Option C. Option A. Option B. in series with the generator output.Option A. Explanation. Option C. reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed. EEL/1-2 3. Explanation. Explanation. when battery is on load. By voltmeter in the cockpit. Option A. Pallett Page 49. 127. Correct Answer is.2. a resister in parallel with the points. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has. Option C. 126. Correct Answer is.1. in series with the current coil. Option B. Option B. prevent contact pitting and burning. in parallel with the generator output.

130. Question Number. NIL. NIL. Option B.4. no voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator frequency.1. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 131. 132. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment. An AC generator connected to a CSD requires. Question Number. Option C. Option A. only off the aircraft.3 Page 3 Para 3. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse. 134. no voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage. 133. Correct Answer is. which procedure should be followed?. a separate voltage regulator. Explanation. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are followed by a water rinse. Option B. only off the aircraft. Option A. Option C. a separate voltage regulator. Rinse the affected area thoroughly with clean water. Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are followed by a water rinse. Over charging current. Evaporation. Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?. when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in.4. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. Correct Answer is.Explanation. Option A. on the bench. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?. Undercharging current. Option A. Question Number. . Correct Answer is. Over charging current.1. Explanation. A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte temperature is above 20°C. Option C. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Option C. EEL/1-2 Figure 3. during flight.

Correct Answer is. EEL/1-2 3. Correct Answer is.take your pick). Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Thomas Eismin 5th Edition page 200. Option C. most of the acid is in the solution. 135.6. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4.3. be connected to each other when the generators are paralleled. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F. . The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation. Explanation. have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled. Option A. Correct Answer is.4 (American Text such as Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-27 specify 80°F as the standard. 137. but CAIPs specifies 60°F as standard . The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile.1. Option C. Question Number. Option A. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will. increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing.2. An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following resultant action in the voltage regulator:-. Explanation. thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution. Correct Answer is. The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation. Option C. Option A. 136. Question Number.Option B.1. CAIPS EEL/1-1 4. Option B. Explanation. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower. Option B. Option C. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because. the acid is in the plates. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower. The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field. The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the electrolyte temperature. The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is 60°F. most of the acid is in the solution.

Question Number. Option A. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source?. Option A. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes. Option B. 139. Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. The ampere-hour capacity of the battery. The total plate area of the battery. Option B. excessive gassing.1.5. Option C. Option B. increased explosion and/or fire hazard. Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. NIL. constant current and constant voltage. excessive gassing. Explanation. excessive plate sulphation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see also CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. 138. normal battery service life.2 (h). 141. Option A. constant current and varying voltage. . The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is likely to result in. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. constant voltage and varying current. Correct Answer is. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel- cadmium battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of. Option B. normal operation. Option A.Question Number. The state-of-charge of the battery. Explanation. constant voltage and varying current. contamination of both types of batteries. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 52. The state-of-charge of the battery. 140.

On a C. Option B. operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive and. 144. Option A. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. reducing the output of No. Correct Answer is. driven generator. Option A. voltage regulator. In a constant frequency AC system. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. Pallett Page 48-49.Correct Answer is.2 generator. contamination of both types of batteries.S.2 generator. generator speed. 145. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Question Number.2 generator. resetting can only be carried out on the ground. . Option B.2 (h). Aircraft Electrical Systems. it will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified. reducing the output of No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn from No. real load sharing is achieved by regulating the. Correct Answer is. If the current drawn from No. Explanation. Option C. NIL. increasing the output of No. resetting can only be carried out on the ground. Option A. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Explanation. Explanation.11. 143. it can only be reset when all loads are switched off. Question Number. Explanation.2 generator. Question Number. generator drive torque. CAIPs EEL/2-1 Page 1 Para 2. the current in the No. Option C. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication. reducing the output of No. generator drive torque.2 generator. in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil. in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil.2 generator equalizing coil will flow. 142.

Question Number. Question Number. Option C. change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level because the. Option B. Option C. Option B. for low speed. Option A. for low oil pressure. Option A. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates. fluid evaporates through vents.Option A. Explanation. for low oil pressure. Question Number. The purpose of an inverter is to convert. Option C. 147. in a discharged condition. being charged. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The purpose of 'field flashing' is to. Explanation. test the insulation resistance of a field winding with a 1000V supply. EEL/1-3 3. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is. 148. a) could also be correct. Explanation. Option B. 146. Pallett Page 4. Option A.2. Option B. under load condition.4. 149. Explanation. in a discharged condition. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates. Correct Answer is. fluid level was not periodically replenished. for when it is disconnected from the generator. Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook page 7-32 and 7-33. measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed. Aircraft Electrical Systems. change the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding. NIL.

Question Number. No adverse results since water may be added anytime.3. 150. By measuring discharge. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. The cell temperature will run too low for proper output. Correct Answer is. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?. NIL. Explanation. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle.5. In nickel-cadmium batteries. causes a decrease in internal resistance. AC to a higher frequency AC. . CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Correct Answer is. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery. causes a decrease in internal resistance. Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle. Question Number. 151. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?. Option C. DC to AC. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. By measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte. Option B. 153. Option A.5. Option A. Correct Answer is. a rise in cell temperature. Explanation.6. Option B. Explanation. causes an increase in internal resistance. Option B. Option C. By the level of the electrolyte. By measuring discharge. Question Number.8 (a). DC to AC. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. Option C. the cells emit gas only. 152. AC to DC. Option C.Option A. increases cell voltage.

155.5. Correct Answer is. 156. Explanation. becomes inoperative when the undervolt relay energises. generator speed. NIL. voltage regulator. is connected in series with the carbon pile.Option A. Question Number. Option C. voltage regulator. if they are defective. In a constant frequency AC system. Option B. Option B. Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency. Option C. Question Number. toward the end of the charging cycle. Option A. CAIPs EEL/1-3 4. reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the. Option A. . Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Option C. generator drive torque. Explanation. Explanation. toward the end of the charging cycle. 154. Correct Answer is. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator. Question Number. Correct Answer is. overheating of inductive devices.5. overheating of inductive devices. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil. when the electrolyte level is low. overspeeding of AC motors. overvoltage of capacitive devices. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause. modifies the effect of the voltage sensing coil. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48.

Correct Answer is. Option A. sulphuric acid. Question Number. The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate. Explanation. Option B. nitric acid.4. NIL. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. 157. Option A. Option B. The three voltages of a three phase generator are. 161. 158. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid. Option A.Question Number. 90 degrees apart. revolution. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per. 160. Option A. Option C. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. Option A. distilled water must be added. Option C. second. Explanation. Correct Answer is. by applying a coating of petroleum jelly. by washing with distilled water. Correct Answer is. 180 degrees apart. . sulphuric acid must be added. Option B. electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added. neutralizing may be carried out. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. 120 degrees apart. Explanation. second. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery charging. NIL. hydrochloric acid. Option B. Option B. Option C. 120 degrees apart. Option C. 159. minute. sulphuric acid. Question Number.1.

Option C. Option C. Ammeter reading will be. Option A. Option B. A 12 volt lead-acid battery. Option A. Option B. Option C. 163. Explanation.C. 5 amps. 3. phase volts equals 1. line volts equals phase volts. Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. has 6 cells. CAIPS EEL/1-1 4. Option A. has 6 cells. Correct Answer is. 5 amps. Correct Answer is. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Question Number. distilled water must be added. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. In a delta connected generator.4 amps. 164. has 12 cells. Question Number. 7 amps. number of conductors in the armature. 5 triangle in this case. 165. Correct Answer is. speed at which the armature rotates. line volts equals 1. 3. Explanation. The active component of an A.1. Explanation. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the. Question Number. 162. has 24 cells. line volts equals phase volts.Correct Answer is.6. NIL. NIL.73 phase volts. . Option B. 4. Option A.73 line volts.

Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?. S. remain constant and the amperage output will increase. otherwise b is the answer. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity). the voltage will. Option B. Explanation. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ. Option C. Option C. Option C. strength of the magnetic field. reaches 1. Question Number. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery. Question Number. and voltage remain constant for specified period. Option A. 169. Option A. Option C. decrease and the amperage output will increase. Question Number. Windscreen heating. Correct Answer is. 167. Correct Answer is.G. Option B. Windscreen heating.G. Hydraulic pump. Explanation.Option C. S. 166. and voltage remain constant for specified period.180. Explanation. Assuming no voltage regulator is considered. one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same. strength of the magnetic field.G. CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. Explanation. Option A.7. only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals. Option B. Correct Answer is. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the. Correct Answer is. . Option A. Correct Answer is. NIL. each cell should be checked as the readings may differ. Option B. 168. Standby compass. NIL. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease. decrease and the amperage output will increase. cells begin to gas freely. Question Number. S.

CAIPs EEL/1-1 4. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 173. 171. Option A.G. a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S. the electrolyte temperature must be noted. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. the connectors may be painted. Any heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild. field current. Question Number. NIL.G. . Option B. armature current. Option A. Before taking S. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. Option A. 37. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0. 24 kW. Explanation. Option C. engine speed. Explanation. NIL. to stabilize. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft. field current. 170. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections. Option B.Explanation. Option C.8 has a maximum continuous power output of. Correct Answer is. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery. copper connectors are used.5 kW. the electrolyte temperature must be noted. Question Number.2 (vi). 30 kW. petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections. 24 kW. Correct Answer is. 172. Option B. Option C. the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour.

Explanation. Option B.8 = TP/30 TP = 24. Option B. Option A. remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge. 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity. Option B. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge. Explanation. 175. Option B. the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator. 60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand. Option A. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases. Question Number. 60 amps for 10 hours. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery. 6 amps for 10 hours. Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce. 12V with 25 ampere hour capacity. Correct Answer is. the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current. 177. Explanation. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. NIL.Explanation. changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge. Option C. 6 amps for 10 hours. Correct Answer is. 12V with 50 ampere hour capacity. NIL. . Question Number. Question Number. 24V with 25 ampere hour capacity. NIL. Option A. 174. PF = TP/AP 0. Option C. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will deliver. 176. Option C. remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the electrolyte. Question Number.

for battery charging. Question Number. decrease.C. For battery charging. Correct Answer is.s. Option C. Option A. 181. a D.m. 24V e. 178.C. increase. Option A. Option A. with the same capacity as each battery. Option C. AC at 400 c. an A.m.Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. transformer and rectifier would be required. 12V e.C. decrease. 179. Question Number. Correct Answer is. with twice the capacity of each battery. AC at 50 c.p. Question Number.C. DC. When using A. Option C.f. an A.s. . Option B. 24V e. Option A. an A. Option C.p. NIL. Option B.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.m. if the load increases the generator output voltage will. Question Number. 12V e. the electrical supply connected to the battery must be.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.m. with twice the capacity of each battery. DC.C. Option B. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator. Explanation. transformer and rectifier would be required.f. Correct Answer is. 180. power on the bus bar you require 28V D. NIL. Explanation. the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases.f. remain constant. inverter would be required. Explanation. Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce. Explanation. NIL.

NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Question Number. . Explanation. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. Option A. slip rings via commutator. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability. Explanation. the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips. 184. Option B. it should be stored. Option A. 183. Correct Answer is. a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted. in the fully discharged condition. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 186. Explanation. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service. it is an indication of. NIL. Question Number. 182. the generator voltage regulator setting is too low. NIL. Question Number. NIL. the generator is not connected to the bus bar. a hydrometer must be used. slip rings. Option C. 185. thermal runaway. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming. Option C. the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed. Option B. thermal runaway. Option A.Explanation. Option B. Option B. The output from an AC generator is taken from. If a nicad battery overheats. connections on the stator. tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies. Option C. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by. Explanation. circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. connections on the stator.

add a mixture of acid and water of the same s. add acid only. 190. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge. Explanation. Question Number. increasing generator voltage. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to.g. Option B. 187. in the fully discharged condition. add distilled water only.g. Option B. Correct Answer is. by checking the specific gravity of each cell. EEL/1-3 4. in a totally dry condition. CAIPs EEL/1-3 8. increasing battery voltage. Option C. a differential voltage of 0. Question Number. litmus paper that turns black. Acid turns litmus paper red. by a complete discharge and a measured recharge. Option A. To restore electrolyte after spillage.6. Explanation. 189. by checking the voltage of each cell under load. add a mixture of acid and water of the same s. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is. Explanation.5. . as that in the battery. Explanation. 188. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by. NIL. as that in the battery. Option B. Option C. Option A. indicating paper that turns blue.5V battery voltage higher than generator. Correct Answer is. increasing generator voltage. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. indicating paper that turns red. Question Number. Option A. in the fully charged condition. Option A. indicating paper that turns red.Option B. NIL. Correct Answer is.

195. AC to DC.Eismin Page 199. hygrometer. 193. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL. hypsometer. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of. NIL. NIL. Correct Answer is. 192. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Rising voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL. Aircraft Electrical Systems. alteration of contact spring tension. Option B. An audio bell and red PFWL. the pilot will receive the following indications:-. Correct Answer is. DC to AC. When a DC generator fails. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 66. alteration of contact spring tension. hydrometer. Option A. AC to a higher frequency AC. Option A. Option B. Option C. Explanation.Question Number. Option A. Question Number. and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics . 191. Option B. adjustment of voltage coil resistance. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by. Correct Answer is. Zero current on the ammeter and a red PFWL. Option B. Pallett Page 12. DC to AC. The purpose of an inverter is to convert. hydrometer. Question Number. Battery SG is measured using a. Explanation. 194. alteration of the field resistance. Question Number. Option C. . Option C.

9.8. Explanation. Question Number.com/defense/documents/aft_manual. discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state. Option B. NIL. Explanation. Option C. the fact that as a battery discharges. measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn. discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged. Explanation. 0. Correct Answer is. When connecting aircraft batteries.5. the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate. 0. Option B. Option A. negative. Option A. Polarization in a cell is. NIL. 197. 198. 0. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. the last lead to connect is the. positive. 0. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 21. discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the time to be discharged. http://www. Question Number. Explanation. Option B. Option A.Option A. .8. Option C. the fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate. positive earth.pdf Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 43. the establishing of a potential across the cell. Battery capacity is checked by.energysys. negative. Correct Answer is. the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's. Option B. 196. Option C. Option C.

Explanation. . A frequency wild supply would be suitable for. alter the driving speed. field strength and the speed of the generator. Option A. Option C. Option C. alter the field current. NIL. 200. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. reactive load only. real and reactive load. alter the reactance of the stator winding circuit. Question Number. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between. Question Number. alter the field current. Question Number. real load only. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.Question Number. Option C. 202. real and reactive load. Option B. the phase and earth only. phases A and B only. 203. Option A. 201. NIL. Option B. Option C. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor. The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the. any phase and earth or between any two phases. In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for. number of conductors and the field strength. Option A. Correct Answer is. any phase and earth or between any two phases. Correct Answer is. it is necessary to. Explanation. Explanation. Option B. Option A. 199. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 46. Explanation. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator. whilst maintaining constant frequency. Correct Answer is. Option B.

When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries. Option C. Explanation. 206. 204. NIL. Option A. either an AC or DC motor. add water to acid. 12V 120Ah. Three 12V. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. deicing loads. an AC motor. Question Number. Option C. Option C. the method of mixing is unimportant. 36V 120Ah. Option C. Option B. An inverter can be an AC generator driven by. Explanation. 3-phase torque motors. Correct Answer is. 12V 120Ah. 205. Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is.Option A. Three 12V. a DC motor. 12V 40Ah. deicing loads. Option B. Option A. 40Ah accumulators in series would give. 36V 120Ah. a DC motor. Option B. . NIL. Option A. 36V 40Ah. 12V 120Ah. Correct Answer is. Question Number. 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give. add acid to water. instruments and navigation systems. Option A. Option B. 207. 36V 40Ah. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option C.

Explanation. Question Number. 24V. 211. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 35. 210. Kilovolts. Option C. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the. What will be the nominal battery output?. . Option A. Explanation. power factor. Option C. 1. 400 Hz alternator is. Watts. 4000. Option B. power factor. Option B. 6000.2 volt cells. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 22V. Option A. Explanation. 208. Option C. Question Number. add acid to water. 209. Correct Answer is. Option A. 20V. 8000. Apparent power is measured in. Option C. Option B. The RPM of a 6 pole. 8000. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 3. Correct Answer is. Option B. efficiency. 22V. Volt Amps. Correct Answer is. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19. power rating. Volt Amps.Correct Answer is. 400/3 x 60. Question Number. Option A.

is unimportant. Nil.52 ohms. Option B. it is paralleled with the aircraft generator. speed.52 ohms. 213.52 ohms. Option C. it supplies essential services. 2. Option B. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant. When operating two AC generators unparalleled.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. 215. Option B. NIL. Option A. Question Number. Option A.0 ohms. must be in opposition to one another. is unimportant. Correct Answer is. 0. current. When the GPU is connected to the aircraft. 214.Explanation. . NIL. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is. It says 'UNparalleled'. Question Number. Option C. must be synchronized. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2. Explanation. Question Number. voltage. Correct Answer is. the phase of each. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. current. 5. Option A. it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator. 212. Question Number. Explanation. 0. Option B. it is not paralleled with the aircraft generator.

only rotates after starting.2 V. incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit. 216. Option A. Speed of an alternator may be controlled by.2/10 = 0. A P. voltage and phase relationship. frequency.Explanation. Option A. PF = TP/AP 0. frequency. The maximum load under all conditions is 40KW. The maximum load permitted is 32KW. Question Number.2 CCV = 10 x 2 = 20. 220. Option A. Explanation. RPM and speed. Question Number. Internal voltage drop = 5. The maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA. provides initial excitation. Option B. 217.M. Option B. Option B.52. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. Option C.G (integrated drive generator). An I. incorporates the alternator and CSD as one unit. Option A. Explanation. has separate CSDU. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 43.D. Correct Answer is. 219. frequency. . RPM and phase relationship. Correct Answer is. frequency. Option C. Option C. NIL.8 lagging. OCV = 2. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same. The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0. The maximum load permitted is 32KW.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which. provides initial excitation.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 x 0. does not require a CSDU. Explanation. 218. Internal R=V/I = 5. NIL. voltage and phase relationship. Question Number. only rotates during starting.1 x 12 = 25. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number.8 = 32 KW.

Question Number. normally higher when the machine is hot. Explanation. CSDU (constant speed drive unit). Question Number. not affected by change of temperature of machine. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation.Option A. 222. Explanation. Question Number. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48. normally higher when the machine is hot. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system. 224. NIL. Correct Answer is. Question Number. inductive circuits. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles. Option B. Frequency wild' alternators supply. Insulation resistance of electrical machines is. capacitive circuits. The real load of an alternator is directly related to. output shaft torque. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Excitation form the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence. varying the field current. NIL. Permanent magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles. Option B. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. output voltage. keeping engine rpm constant. A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on line. resistive circuits. Option C. 221. Option A. Option B. . Option B. Correct Answer is. output shaft torque. CSDU (constant speed drive unit). resistive circuits. Option C. normally lower when the machine is hot. Explanation. 223. output shaft rpm. before full output is available from the voltage regulator?. Option C. Option C. Option A. NIL.

Option C. NIL. The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to. Option A. 225. cannot be checked. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator. Question Number. 228. not the same. the lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished. the lamp is maximum brightness. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and phase relationship is. Explanation. Option C. an be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator. Option A. keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures. 226. keep the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures. Correct Answer is. Pallett Page 45 and diagram. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. Option C. compensate for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings. not the same. Explanation. They will be synchronised when. Aircraft Electrical Systems. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency. 227. Option A. the lamp is extinguished. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. the same. can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel. . the outputs are constant. Correct Answer is.Question Number. NIL. the lamp is extinguished. Explanation. Option C. Option B. keep the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures. Question Number. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. Option A. Explanation. Question Number.

all normal services required by flight and ground crew. is not allowed to be adjusted. Option B. . Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Option A. ground power disconnection. Correct Answer is. Low oil press and CSD speed. Hi oil temperature and low oil press. crash engagement.Question Number. Explanation. NIL. crash engagement. Option B. is adjusted with the engine running. Option C. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. disconnection of the other alternators. An external ground power supply can be used for. The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of. Correct Answer is. is adjusted with the engine stationary. only the emergency busbar services. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Hi oil temperature and low oil press. Option A. 229. is adjusted with the engine stationary. Explanation. 232. NIL. The CSD or IDG speed governor setting. Question Number. 231. Option C. Option C. 230. Option B. Low oil temperature and low oil press. all normal services required by flight and ground crew. only the ground handling busbar services. Question Number. NIL.

The APU generator can normally be. Explanation. 234. Option C. 235. . inversely proportional to the length of cable. Question Number. connected in parallel with the ground power supply. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. A ni-cad battery is stored in the. Transformer rectifier unit (TRUs) change. proportional to the length of cable. used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails. main bus bar. Option C. Option B. Option A. Option A. Question Number. ground service bus. Option B. Galley loads are supplied from the. Explanation. http://www. Option A. Explanation. Option C. NIL. connected in parallel with the aircraft's main generators.epanorama. Question Number. Correct Answer is. fully discharged condition. used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails. not affected by length of cable. 237. Explanation. NIL. Option A. not affected by length of cable. 236. fully charged condition. The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is. NIL. battery bus bar.Question Number.net/documents/wiring/cable_impedance. main bus bar. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. fully discharged condition. dry condition. Correct Answer is. 233.html Question Number.

Correct Answer is.Option A. Option C. Replace the defective cell. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water. CAAIPS Leaflet 6-4 Page 13. 240. Question Number. Correct Answer is. 238. replace the battery. Top-up the individual cell with distilled water. Option B. A frequency wild AC generator is used for. Option A. Cell is defective. It is known as a 'flywheel diode'. NIL. Correct Answer is. single phase to direct current. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. . Option C. Option B. Class C. 239. Option A.07a. Prevent spikes. What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?. single phase to direct current. Explanation. Option C. Prevent spikes. Option A. three phase AC to direct current. Explanation. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25). Option A. 1. Correct Answer is. Option B. deicing loads. direct current to AC. Option C. deicing loads. Explanation. Question Number. fluorescent lights. Class D. To prevent current going the wrong way. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under. Question Number. instruments. Option B. 11. NIL. Prevent bounce. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?.

4. CO2. CO2. Option C. 3 inches. Explanation. Class B. Class D. JAR 25. Explanation. Question Number. All inflatable emergency equipment are inflated with CO2. Explanation. Nitrogen. 4 inches. 2. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be. Option B. Question Number. 15. Option C. helium. Question Number. 3 inches. CO2. AWN 64 Para 4. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is. CO2. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with. 5. Option A. dependant upon aircraft type. Option C. 4 b All inflatable safety equipment use CO2. oxygen. 5 inches. Correct Answer is. air. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-12.857. 3. Explanation.Option C. Option B. Question Number. Option C. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option A. Correct Answer is.3 (now in CAP747). 24. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of. .

815. Explanation. light in the cockpit.1 and CAIPs AL/3-12 4.6. When testing emergency slide bottles. 7. Explanation. 15. all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body. Question Number. BCARs. 6. Leaflet 5-2 4. Question Number. How often are life jackets inspected?. Option B. Option A. CAP 747. AWN 99. 9. light in the cockpit. Option A. all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body. In accordance with the AMM. Correct Answer is. AWN 99. Option A. Question Number. JAR 25. Testing of the cartridges is the same procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges. any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground.1. connected to a pump to pump the smoke out. Toilets must have a smoke detection. Option B. CAIPs EEL/1-73. . Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is.854 says a) or b). In accordance with the manufacturers specification. Explanation. Option C. Option C. Every 12 months. Option B.Correct Answer is. JAR 25. one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time. Question Number. Correct Answer is.3 on. aural and visual warning in the main cabin. Explanation. Explanation. ANO. In accordance with the manufacturers specification. Option A. 8. Option B. Option C.

Explanation. Option A. NIL. Question Number. With white spirit. Correct Answer is. Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which document?. the liferafts deployment will. Option C.Question Number. Option B. NIL. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts. Option B. 12. Option B. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?. Explanation. Option C. JARs. Explanation. 10. Option C. Option B. have detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket. After a successful ditching. Cabin operations manual. Explanation. Question Number. be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. 13. Schedule 4 of the ANO. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7. Question Number. Cabin operations manual. Option A. With MEK. Correct Answer is. Cabin safety on-board card. . Option A. be briefed by the cabin crew. With warm water with low alkalinity soap. Airworthiness Notice 79. NIL. 11. How do you clean seat belts?. Schedule 4 of the ANO. With warm water with low alkalinity soap. NIL.

AWN 64 Para 4. JAR 25. Option B. Option C.810. Option A. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of. 28 inches. Question Number. Option B. 15. Option C. Correct Answer is. nitrogen. JAR Ops 1. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25).1421. Option B. CO2. AL/3-12 2. Explanation. Option A. 2 megaphones are required. 15g. 26 inches.Question Number. 2 megaphones are required. The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using. 1. Option C. Cargo nets are manufactured from. 2. 3 megaphones are required. Option A. compressed air. 16. 24 inches. Option B. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 14. 9g. Question Number. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?. 11B. 1 megaphone is required. Explanation. 12g.07. 26 inches.1. Question Number. CO2. Explanation.561 and 25. . 9g. Option C.

AWN 99 para 5. the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads. the manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads. hessian. Correct Answer is. Option C.Option A. Option C. 3.2. 5. When loading a cargo aircraft. position.6. the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances. Explanation. Question Number. . does not matter as the trolleys move. Option C. Question Number. not exceed the floor loading limits. the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances. location. 4. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Explanation. Option C. Option B. Question Number. Option B. nylon. polypropylene. Option A. not exceed the floor loading limits. maximum weight. minimum equipment. Correct Answer is. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating. Correct Answer is. Explanation. flight number. Explanation. flight number. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called. 4. not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour. position. uncontrolled equipment. Option A. 6. controlled equipment.1. uncontrolled equipment. nylon. Question Number. Cargo nets are made from nylon or polyester (not polypropylene). AWN 99 4. Option A. Option B. Option B. Option B. A galley trolley will be designed to.

Question Number. Explanation. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques. you can fit seats facing forward or rearward.11.99 5. 45°C. Question Number. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above. PTV = Personal Television. Explanation. 8. a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated. Option A.2. 65°C. is not the part of maintenance schedule. has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting. the button is pushed again. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C. landing and turbulence. Must be stowed for take-off.Option C. Must be stowed for take-off. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). Correct Answer is. PTV type entertainment equipment. Option A. Question Number. To reset the light. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP). AWN 64 Para. Question Number. Option A. Explanation. . Option A. the button is pulled out. With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option B.2. 9. landing and turbulence. is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques. you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP). CAP 455 AWN No. 55°C. 10. you can only fit seats facing forward. Option C. 45°C. 7.2. Option B. AWN 99 5. Option C. Option C.

The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is. the generator goes off line. side cart guides and fore and aft latches. goes off. Option B. neither.08a. Option C. Explanation. 1. 7 inches. Question Number. the button is pushed again. Option A. AWN99 Para 4. rope. bleed air and generator goes off. 12. as it is removable. the generator goes off line.2 Dimension C. 3 inches. A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as. the light goes off. On pulling the fire handle. Option B. containerised cargo is held down by. 13. Option C. Option A. netting. Correct Answer is. Fire Protection (ATA 26). the light remains on. . 11. Explanation. an uncontrolled item. the light extinguishes. Option B. 3 inches. Option C. the aural warning. Explanation. NIL. stays on. Question Number. On large aeroplanes. a controlled item. Correct Answer is. Option A. 11. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. hydraulics. Question Number. a controlled item. CAP 747 GR No.Correct Answer is. 5 inches. side cart guides and fore and aft latches. Explanation. Option C. Option B.1. Option A. goes off.

Question Number. the system will work but not test satisfactory. CAIPs AL/3-9 Para 4. 600 psi. Option A. class A compensation. Correct Answer is. 1500 psi. Correct Answer is.. Question Number. 1250 psi. Explanation.1. Explanation. B757 AMM. Correct Answer is.857. if. In a capacitive fire detection system. the light remains on. class B compensation.2. Option A. the system will work but not test satisfactory. there is a short to earth. class D compensation. Option C. goes off. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when. Correct Answer is. 5. 2. the system will not work. Question Number.Correct Answer is. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a. Option C. the system will work but not test satisfactory. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. 600 psi. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25. class B compensation. the system is different but the extinguishant is the same. there is a break. Option C. there is a break. . Option B. Question Number. the system and the extinguishing system are the same. 4. 3. there is a break. Option C. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd EditionPage 166". Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-7. Option A. Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to. the system is the same but the extinguishant is different. Option B. Option B. the system and the extinguishing system are the same. the generator goes off line.

it checks the integrity of the contacts. 8. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder. 6. Option B. in the disposal container. JAR 25-854 a. Correct Answer is.Explanation.This is the same system the CAA call a sensor/responder system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para 2. b. Correct Answer is. water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged. Option A.4 in para d. Question Number. Option C. Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged. Option B. AWN 83 5. B737 MM 26- 24-00 pg1. Lavatories must have. the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning. Option A. a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning. Explanation. Correct Answer is. A fire detection loop must be capable of. . Jeppesen a+p Technician Airframe Textbook page 11-6 b describes a systron-donner system.2. detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the condition is no longer present.4. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out. Question Number. 9. Question Number. it checks the integrity of the contacts. Explanation. Explanation. the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder. JAR 25 1203 f2. Option A. the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material. When inspecting lavatory installations. The temperature sensitive strip changes color from white to black at the indicated temp. Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged. No Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only. Option B. 7. Option A. using master warning visual and aural signals. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged.

NIL. Option C. . Correct Answer is. Question Number. Aural. Question Number. Option C. Option B. Transport Category Aircraft Systems. 11. Option A. Option C.3. Jeppesen Page 9-22.2. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat. Both aural and a red light. DC. Explanation. AC. Both aural and a red light.8. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out. AL/3-26 2. nitrogen gas. Question Number. Option A. 10. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option B. Option C. DC. Correct Answer is. to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat. oxygen gas. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Option B. to protect against continuous flushing. What external warning is there for an APU fire?. Explanation. Option A. to protect against freezing at altitude. 12. Correct Answer is. Explanation. using master warning visual signals only. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses. Option A. every two years. Option A. 14. using master warning visual and aural signals. AWN 57 Para. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 163. 13.Option C. Red light. helium gas. AC or DC. Question Number. helium gas.

org. Option B. continuity check.Option B. Option C. calibration check. function check. Option C. Correct Answer is. . http://www.4 (d). 15. What is the contamination monitor for.b737. EEL/1-7 2. Explanation. Correct Answer is. when a sample fails. Option B. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a.uk/fireprotection. Question Number. 16. continuity check. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers. NIL. Option B. Option B. Question Number. only when equipment items fail random tests. Explanation. in a Systron Donner fire detection system?. hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers. every 5 years. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. only when equipment items fail random tests. every five years. Dirty contacts. cuts off field current. operates fire extinguisher only. Question Number. When the fire handle is operated it. Dirty contacts. NIL. Volts drop.htm Question Number. Option C. Option A. Option A. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?. when a sample fails. Explanation. 17. cuts off fuel and hydraulics. B747-400 AMM. Option C. Integrity comparator. cuts off field current.2. every 2 years. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done. 18. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power. 19. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A.

Option B. AWN 83. NIL. But a safety ohmmeter does not check voltage. 23. Trick question. 20. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 16-8 Lindberg System.Option A. Option C. D. 28VDC potential above ground. Question Number. same potential as ground. Option B. A.with a safety ohmmeter. AWN 83 . Option C. Pressure. A continuity check. Explanation. same potential as ground. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. In a gas firewire system. Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage. Option B.now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 20. what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?. Option A. Toilet fire detection issues can be found in. Option C. . Explanation. AWN 83. AWN 80. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Pressure. Option A. Option A. 115VDC potential above ground. CAAIPs. Option B. Bottles are fired. 21. Capacitance increase. 22. Question Number. Question Number. Continuity. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class. The outside casing of a firewire has. A continuity check is carried out . A continuity check. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation.

Explanation. Explanation. 24. Option A. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9. Correct Answer is. Option C. JAR 25.854. Correct Answer is. The firewire. Correct Answer is. When the fire-handle switch is pulled. Option C. sensor & controller. what would be the indication?. Question Number. Fire Protection (ATA 26). Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Question Number.857. Option B. hydraulics. B737 MM. hydraulics & fuel stays on. Option A. Audible warning in the cabin. 27. lamp detecting 2% smoke. Warning light is an indication of fire. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. Option C. Generator. a. Option C.17. Explanation. Either a light or an audible warning in the cabin. red warning light stays on.08b. Light goes off only when fire is extinguished. red warning light stays on. The outside of the firewire to earth. Light in the cabin. Pallets Aircraft Electrical System Third Edition page 163 fig 10. Smoke detectors consist of a. red warning light stays on. photoelectric cell detecting 10% smoke.2. Question Number. JAR 25. C. 11. Option A. Explanation. Generator goes offline. Option A. In a toilet smoke condition. red warning light goes off. Generator.Option C. Option B. . & fuel is cut off. photoelectric cell detecting 2% smoke. Explanation. D. The firewire. Correct Answer is. Generator. hydraulics. The firewire. Option B. 25. & fuel is cut off. 26.

Explanation.3. on head fitting.1. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. 4. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-10. on head fitting. Option A. Option A. Correct Answer is.300 people?. Check the tell-tale wire. Option B. 2. Explanation. 3 BCF. 3.3 and 7. Annually. Option A. Question Number. Option A. 1. CAIPs AL/3-10 para 6. on base of body. Correct Answer is. Every 5 years.3. Question Number. Annually. Option B. Option C.790. para 6. Option C. AL/3-10 6. Correct Answer is. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?. Option B. Weighed. on bracket. Weighed. 4 Fire Extinguishers. The weight of an extinguisher is stamped.Question Number. 4 Methyl Bromide. . What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?. AWN 60. Explanation. JAR OPS 1. Check the pressure. 4 Fire Extinguishers. Bi-annually. Option C.

5. engines only. 6. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle.500 passengers?. breaking the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?. . JAR 25. Option B. Option C. all fires in fuselage. 11. Option A. Explanation. Explanation. 6.851. 6. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Option B. Option C. Option B.Question Number. 5. 6. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Correct Answer is. JAR 25. CO2 fire extinguishers are used on. 7. Option B.851. baggage holds only. 8. Question Number. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 .3. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. all fires in fuselage. 8. Question Number. Option C. Flight Controls (ATA 27). one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty. 7. Portable fire extinguishers are operated by. Option A.09. NIL. 5. 7. turning upside down and squeeze button/trigger. AL/3-10 3.

would not prevent movement of the control column. all frequencies. Explanation. Option B. the installation of external ground locks to the main control surface. 2. Option C. Option C. . Option A. Ball bearings are used in fibre pulleys. Flight spoilers are used in flight and on the ground. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-6. only low frequencies. a ball bearing. a plain bearing. Option B. a roller bearing. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is. Option A. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by the wind. With respect to flight spoilers. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 51. only operate on the ground. However Ground spoilers can ONLY be used on the ground.Question Number. Question Number. A full time yaw damper system detects. Explanation. can operate both on the ground and in flight. would not prevent movement of the control column. can operate both on the ground and in flight. would also prevent movement of the control column. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 222 on. 4. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 3. Option C. Option B. band pass frequencies. band pass frequencies. Aircraft Flight Barnard and Philpot. only operate in flight. Option A. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs. Question Number. Option C. Second Edition Page 253 (first line). 1. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. a ball bearing. they.

Explanation. Explanation. The clearance is on the secondary stops. A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. Question Number. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed. Option A. Option A. . will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls. pulley misalignment. excessive cable tension. the secondary stops have been over-ridden. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls.Question Number. Explanation. 7. Option C. 6. Option C. with the aileron in the down position. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of. A flying control static friction check. Explanation. Option C. with the aileron in the neutral position. with the aileron in the neutral position. Question Number. demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls. when the aircraft is in level flight attitude. Option B. cable misalignment. pulley misalignment. 5. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. 8. Option A. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-40. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. Correct Answer is. a clearance exists at the secondary stops. Option B. Option C. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-45. can only be carried out during flight. the secondary stops will just be in contact. Correct Answer is. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted. Option B. Correct Answer is.

for 'up' travel movement. Explanation. Option B. for 'down' travel movement. Use of trim reduces the associated control movement direction range. Option C.30 degrees and a further 15 degrees with ailerons. would make no difference to the movement. Explanation. (nose up). decrease degree of movement at low speed. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. Option C. 10. A horn balance on a control will. Correct Answer is. range of movement of the elevator is restricted. Correct Answer is. 9. Question Number. the horn balance increases movement. 15°. Option A. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-27. Explanation. Question Number. for 'up' travel movement. 60°. For a given pilot effort. Option B. decrease degree of movement at high speed. In the air . Explanation. What is an aileron balance cable for?. . On the ground. 11. To allow the cable to be tensioned. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 5-6. Option A. increase degree of movement at high speed. Option C. To correct for wing heaviness. To allow the cable to be tensioned. 60°. Option B. Option A. increase degree of movement at high speed. Question Number. 30°. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. To allow aircraft to fly hands off. 12. spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to. Option C.Question Number. Correct Answer is.

Question Number. 13. In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator
will.
Option A. move up.
Option B. remain in line with the elevator.
Option C. move down.
Correct Answer is. move down.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing
will.
Option A. decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing.
Option B. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing.
Option C. keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant.
Correct Answer is. increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing.
Explanation. Could also be answered 'b', depending on whether it means the cause or the effect. The downgoing
aileron (the right one) has an increase in AoA locally, which makes the wing lift, thusreducing the AoA of the wing as a
whole. Choose your interpretation.

Question Number. 15. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons
will.
Option A. remain stationary.
Option B. both move down.
Option C. both move up.
Correct Answer is. both move down.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with.
Option A. integrated fuel monitoring system.
Option B. symmetrical flight control trim.
Option C. automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements.

Correct Answer is. symmetrical flight control trim.
Explanation. Probably referring to Load Alleviation Function. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-
29.

Question Number. 17. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with.
Option A. decreases sensitivity for decreased speed.
Option B. increased sensitivity for increased speed.
Option C. decreases sensitivity for increased speed.
Correct Answer is. increased sensitivity for increased speed.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 223.

Question Number. 18. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks
between the control surface and the balance tabs.
Option A. would prevent the movement of the control column.
Option B. is unnecessary since the system is irreversible.
Option C. would not prevent the movement of the control column.
Correct Answer is. would prevent the movement of the control column.
Explanation. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-29.

Question Number. 19. The two switches for pitch trim are located.
Option A. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch.
Option B. on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer.
Option C. on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch.
Correct Answer is. on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch.
Explanation. The 'split' trim switch has one half closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim motor, and to engage
the clutch. The other switch half is to supply the power to the motor. Both must be operated together, to operate the
trim.

Question Number. 20. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be.
Option A. flap tracks out of rigging.

Option B. bearing seized.
Option C. flap motor internal leakage.
Correct Answer is. flap motor internal leakage.
Explanation. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-19.

Question Number. 21. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by.
Option A. transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another.
Option B. operation of the elevator.
Option C. symmetrical application of ailerons.
Correct Answer is. symmetrical application of ailerons.
Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-2.

Question Number. 22. Yaw damping rate changes with.
Option A. airspeed.
Option B. flap position.
Option C. altitude.
Correct Answer is. airspeed.
Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals page 292.

Question Number. 23. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?.
Option A. Decrease drag on the up going wing.
Option B. Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads.
Option C. Increase drag on the up going wing.
Correct Answer is. Decrease drag on the up going wing.
Explanation. The Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron, which is on the downgoing wing. And Vise versa
on the other aileron.

Question Number. 24. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is
removed?.
Option A. Droop.

Option B. Remain in last position.
Option C. Go to neutral.
Correct Answer is. Droop.
Explanation. "The drop in pressure releases a valve which lets the fluid pass easily from one side of actuator piston
to the
other. This is to prevent a hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. Surfaces behave like manually controlled
surfaces."

Question Number. 25. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by.
Option A. fitting a tachogenerator.
Option B. feedback from the servo motor.
Option C. feedback from control surface.
Correct Answer is. fitting a tachogenerator.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control by E.H.J.Pallett 3rd edition, page-157 (feedback, para 2).
Question Number. 26. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by.
Option A. 4%.
Option B. 7%.
Option C. 10.321%.
Correct Answer is. 7%.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Edition Page-370.

Question Number. 27. A wing mounted stall warning vane.
Option A. moves down at impending stall.
Option B. moves up at impending stall.
Option C. gives a visual indication of impending stall.
Correct Answer is. moves up at impending stall.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 28. During an autopilot controlled turn.
Option A. ailerons, rudder and THS will move.
Option B. ailerons and rudder will move.
Option C. ailerons, rudder and elevators will move.

Correct Answer is. ailerons, rudder and elevators will move.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by the.
Option A. flight augmentation computer.
Option B. flight control computer.
Option C. flight management and guidance computer.
Correct Answer is. flight control computer.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26.

Question Number. 30. In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?.
Option A. Flight control computer.
Option B. Flight augmentation computer.
Option C. Flight management computer.
Correct Answer is. Flight control computer.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26.

Question Number. 31. Mass balance weights are used to.
Option A. balance the trailing edge of flying control surfaces.
Option B. counteract flutter on control surfaces.
Option C. balance the tabs.
Correct Answer is. counteract flutter on control surfaces.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. Active load control involves.
Option A. limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed.
Option B. intervention & monitoring the human pilot.
Option C. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 292.

Question Number. 33. Active load control uses.
Option A. elevator and aileron.

Option B. aileron and spoiler.
Option C. elevator and stab.
Correct Answer is. aileron and spoiler.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-29 (Load Alleviation Function).

Question Number. 34. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to.
Option A. protect the servo motor.
Option B. damp the system oscillation.
Option C. prevent control surface runaway.
Correct Answer is. prevent control surface runaway.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle.

Question Number. 35. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft
is on ground and.
Option A. brakes are deployed.
Option B. thrust reversers are deployed.
Option C. weight on ground switch is activated.
Correct Answer is. thrust reversers are deployed.
Explanation. A320 Ground Spoiler Logic diagram - also. http://www.b737.org.uk/flightcontrols.htm.

Question Number. 36. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the.
Option A. Flight Augmentation Computers.
Option B. electric flight control unit.
Option C. Flight Guidance and Management Computer.
Correct Answer is. Flight Augmentation Computers.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26.

Question Number. 37. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to.
Option A. prevent nose pitching down.
Option B. prevent nose pitching up.
Option C. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.
Correct Answer is. prevent adverse yaw in a turn.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 38. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by.
Option A. C of G movement.
Option B. pitch of aircraft in cruise.
Option C. continued pitch input.
Correct Answer is. continued pitch input.
Explanation. If the elevator is deflected over a long time, the AFCS trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the
elevator deflection load.

Question Number. 39. Differential aileron control will.
Option A. cause a nose up moment.
Option B. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
Option C. cause a nose down moment.
Correct Answer is. prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 40. On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?.
Option A. SEC.
Option B. ELAC and SEC.
Option C. ELAC.
Correct Answer is. ELAC and SEC.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-23.

Question Number. 41. In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?.
Option A. During manual control only.
Option B. During either manual or automatic control.
Option C. During automatic control only.
Correct Answer is. During either manual or automatic control.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 222 - 226.

Question Number. 42. Flutter can be prevented by.
Option A. mass balance.
Option B. trim tabs.

In an auto trim system. the ailerons are faired. Option C. NIL. servos remain stationary and provide damping. Option B. In a fully fly by wire system. Question Number. Question Number. A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew Operating Manual. 45. Option B. Correct Answer is. both ailerons are down. Explanation. Option B. servos remain stationary and provide damping. the ailerons are neutralised (faired) and the aircraft will hold the turn. the ailerons are faired. Correct Answer is.Option C. mass balance. one is up one is down. Correct Answer is. Pallett Page 213 . autopilot need not be engaged. autopilot must be engaged. autopilot need not be engaged. Option C. 46. Due to the aircraft's neutral lateral stability. 43. Question Number. . Option C. Option A. Automatic Flight Control. Autothrottle applying more power. Correct Answer is. In an autopilot coordinated turn. balance panels. if the elevator loses all electrical power. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Autothrottle applying more power. How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?. Explanation. servos lock at last position. for the trim system to operate. Question Number. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. Fast/Slow indication. when the turn angle is reached. servos move to neutral and lock. Option C.218. Reduce flap deployment. Option A. operation of the trim controls is required. 44.

T. Question Number.Question Number. flaps are extended. Electric Trim. A single failure of fly by wire.D. Question Number. a microswitch. Option C. Correct Answer is. ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward. Explanation. Option C. 51. will reduce the operational height and speed. a S. flaps are retracted.V.C. 47. NIL. an R. Option B. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?. Option A. flaps are retracted. Option A.V. NIL. has no effect on the aircraft's operation. will limit the flight profile. an R. Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B.D. NIL.T. Pitch Trim. 48. Option B. spoiler moving symmetrically upward. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is.M. Explanation. . ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Mach/Speed Trim. Mach/Speed Trim. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in. landing gear up and locked. Explanation. has no effect on the aircraft's operation. 49. Correct Answer is. Question Number. NIL. Option A. 50. Spoiler position feedback is provided by a. ailerons moving symmetrically upward. Option C. Option A. NIL.

restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed. restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. Elevons combine the functions of both. Option C. for power operated control systems. Option B. . Option C. has the actuator rams co-axial. Question Number.U. increases feel as airspeed increases. has two control surfaces under its control.Question Number. for proportional control systems. Option A. 56. Option A. minimise flutter. Question Number. NIL. 54. 55. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. compensate for aileron reversal. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Question Number. Option B. prevent adverse yaw. Rudder 'Q' limiting. Option B.F. A differential aileron system is designed to. Explanation. An artificial feel system is required.C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36. Explanation. Explanation. 52. 53. elevator and aileron. for power assisted control systems. Option B. rudder and aileron. for power operated control systems. A tandem P. rudder and elevator. Option C. elevator and aileron. Question Number. increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed. NIL. prevent adverse yaw. Correct Answer is.

Option A. operated by the standby hydraulic system. NIL. prevent overloading of the power control units. 59. Question Number. To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn. Question Number. possible. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. automatic and instantaneous. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?. Option C. Option C. ailerons and spoilers. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to. Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. . NIL. automatic and instantaneous. elevator and ailerons. NIL. Option A. ailerons and spoilers. but not recommended. To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn.Option C. 57. 60. Option B. Question Number.tpub. NIL. increasing the sensitivity of the control system. Option C. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 58. Correct Answer is. provide the pilot with simulated stick forces. has the actuator rams parallel. has the actuator rams co-axial. a requirement of the manual reversion is that it must be.com/content/engine/14105/css/14105_157. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system. Option B. Correct Answer is. elevator and stab. http://www. Explanation. Active load control uses. NIL.htm Question Number. Option B.

NIL. Explanation. The purpose of control cable regulators is to. elevato. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the. Option A. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. Option C. NIL. Option B. Question Number. rudder. to provide pressure to operate the control. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by. 63. 61. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 65. elevator. Option B. travel of the jack body. ailerons. ailerons. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. Explanation. 64. elevator. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is. Option C.Question Number. Option A. Correct Answer is. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. rudder. compensate for high temperature only. Option A. NIL. Explanation. Option C. rudder. Option A. 62. travel of the jack ram. compensate for low temperature only. Option C. Option B. . NIL. to revert the system to manual operation. maintain preset cable tensions during flight. Option B. Correct Answer is. mechanical stops in the control system. mechanical stops in the control system. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the. Option C.

Question Number. Question Number. . Correct Answer is. 68. hydraulically. Option C. Correct Answer is. helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground. due to the high longitudinal stability. NIL. Correct Answer is. either opposite each other or together. Explanation. NIL. NIL. depending on the selection. depending on the selection. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the. 67. the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability. 66. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit. rudder. Option A. Option C. vibrates the control column near stalling speed. 69. Question Number. either opposite each other or together. Option B. vibrates the control column near stalling speed. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Option A. Explanation. Option A. A stick shaker is a device which. will move.Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. opposite to each other only. Option B. An anti-balance tab is moved. Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook page 12-38. Option B. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16. Option A. the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high. ailerons. Option A. gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off. 70. elevator. Ruddervators when moved. Explanation. the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch. Question Number. to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit. ailerons. together only.

Option C. Correct Answer is. when the C. changes. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 23. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B. 74. moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops. Question Number. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces. Explanation. Option A. Explanation. operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached. 71. NIL. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops. Option B. Option B. A servo tab is operated. Explanation. increasing the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators. automatically. Correct Answer is. The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing. Option C. plain flap. via a fixed linkage. moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops. Option C. When checking full range of control surface movement. operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops. and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces. 72. Correct Answer is. . use of the rudder control. Explanation.G. Option C. NIL. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a. they must be positioned by. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. via a fixed linkage. Question Number. split flap. NIL. 73. Option A. this may be compensated for by. use of the rudder control. directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces. by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved.Option B. Option A.

Option A. Explanation. Question Number. 76. Fowler flap. Explanation. NIL. Explanation. . Question Number. Option B. Elevator. Wheel brakes. Option A. NIL. geared balance tab. Option C. Option B. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. servo tab. Option A. Option C. geared balance tab. or speed tending to rise above the Never Exceed Limit?. Tailplane. 75. Split flap. Fowler flap. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?. Tailplane. Question Number. NIL. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to the control surface is called a. Slotted flap. Fowler flap. Correct Answer is. 78. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?. Correct Answer is. Rudder. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Fowler flap. Option B.Option C. 77. Correct Answer is. trim tab. Air brakes. Explanation. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe turbulence.

when the pressure is reduced to zero. Explanation. Option B. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces. are operated by the autopilot only. Question Number. When spoilers are used asymmetrically. Question Number. What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?. 80. remain in the position they were when power was removed. Explanation. Correct Answer is. they combine with. Option B. With hydraulic ram operated flying controls. Option A. Correct Answer is. droop. ailerons. Option B. rudder. 81. Option C. Balance tabs. NIL. NIL. Option C. Option A. Lift dumpers.Option C. the flying control surfaces. Correct Answer is. Spring tabs. NIL. Trim tabs. Option A. 82. droop. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Explanation. Option A. Question Number. . stay at neutral. Correct Answer is. ailerons. 79. Air brakes. Powered flying control actuators. transmit pilot input to the control surfaces. Trim tabs. Question Number. Option C. NIL. provide feedback to the pilot. elevators. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is.

the feel required is normally supplied by. 85. Question Number. 83. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 168. Question Number. Question Number. pitot pressure only. Option B. Option C.2. Option A. 86. at the onset of the stall. air loads on the control surface. Option B. Option A. nulling of the servo valve. . Q feel units use. Option B. A stick shaker operates.1 and 8. Power 'operated'controls use a Q feel system. Correct Answer is. the jack ram being attached to structure. Option C. pitch trim is not affected. AL/3-7 8. stretching springs. air loads on the control surfaces. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. pitot and static pressures. Option C. Q feel.Question Number.1 Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. In a power assisted flight control system. air loads on the control surfaces. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed. Option B. just before the stall. Avionics Fundamentals pg 257 fig 17-31. pitot and static pressures." Option A. Question Number. Explanation. "Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is provided by. static pressure only. Correct Answer is. after the stall. Option A. Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock. just before the stall. Option B. Option A. Correct Answer is. 87. nulling of the servo valve. Explanation. 84. no yaw takes place. Option C.

Option C. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft. 89. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C.Option C. on the leading edge of the wing. 91. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. the aileron control wheel only. Correct Answer is. Lift transducer. on the elevator control system. 92. the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever. NIL. A differential aileron control system results in. "If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler . Explanation. 90. to the nose area of the aircraft. Question Number. NIL. Option C. Explanation. Spoiler panels are controlled by. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. a speed brake lever only. NIL. Option B. also known as a stall sensor. on the leading edge of the wing. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn. 88. A lift transducer is normally fitted. Question Number. Question Number. aileron drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn. because the pilot has too many tasks to perform. Option A. roll will not occur. aileron drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option A. the aileron control wheel and speed brake lever. because at low level air density is high. Option A. Explanation. Option C. pitch trim is not affected. due to the increase in speed and size of aircraft. Option B. aileron drag being compensated by small rudder movements.

Question Number. Question Number. go to full up. prevent inadvertent operation. greater than 75%. Option A. NIL. 95. Correct Answer is. 94. 93. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads. Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of. go to down if any are not already down. Correct Answer is. NIL." Option A. the spoiler panels. rolling.system. Question Number. pitch changes. Option B. greater than 75%. Explanation. yawing. Option A. the hydraulic actuator. Option C. remain where they are. go to down if any are not already down. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to. NIL. Explanation. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option A. greater than 50%. Option B. Option C. Option C. . Explanation. Option B. rolling. the pilots input. NIL. the control system computer. Correct Answer is. the hydraulic actuator. prevent inadvertent operation. Option A. Explanation. 96. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. lock the speed brakes down during flight. allow the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown. Option C. Option C. greater than 90%. In a fly-by-wire control system. Option B. Option B. the follow-up transducer is fitted to.

Correct Answer is. a larger aileron up travel than down. Option C. . elevator down. A series type yaw damper. Option C. equal aileron travel in each direction. NIL. If the control column is moved forward and to the left. A stick shaker. Option B. right aileron moves down. Option A. right aileron down. the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down. Explanation. the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down. 99. NIL. Option A. elevator down. elevator up. Explanation. left aileron moves up. Option A. AL/3-21 page 22 para 13.3. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column. left aileron moves down. Option A. left aileron moves up. moves the rudder pedals and the rudder. Correct Answer is. NIL. Option B. Correct Answer is. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up.Question Number. Question Number. When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left. 97. Question Number.2 and Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 211. a larger aileron up travel than down. 101. Explanation. the down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one. Option C. moves the rudder only. Option B. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll. left aileron moves up. right aileron down. is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column. is a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column. 100. Option B. the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up. but variable for stick movement. 98. A differential aileron control is one which gives. Option A. Question Number. right aileron up. Question Number. Correct Answer is. vibrates the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe. elevator down. Explanation. Option B. moves the rudder only.

left spoiler remaining retracted. The elevator trim tab has moved down. Option A. Option A. right spoiler extending. Correct Answer is.Explanation. The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. brass. NIL. NIL. NIL. left spoiler remaining retracted. 105. . Question Number. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree. Option C. Question Number. What was the direction of travel of the trim tab?. The elevator trim tab has moved up. Explanation. Explanation. Option C. Correct Answer is. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. Option B. Correct Answer is. roll to the right is caused by. Option A. Option B. move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up. Tufnol or aluminium alloy. right spoiler extending. Option A. The elevator trim tab has moved down. NIL. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low. both spoilers extending. move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree. Option B. move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral. an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will. Option C. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. left spoiler extending. stainless steel. right spoiler remaining retracted. Pulleys in a flight control system are made from. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control. Option B. 104. Question Number. 102. 103. Question Number.

The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's. dutch roll frequency. 110. fast/slow switch. Explanation. NIL. roll frequency. retain a set tension. Option A. 109. Correct Answer is. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to. then the. Option A. dutch roll frequency. Option B.Question Number. . Question Number. Option B. NIL. Option C. Correct Answer is. An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism. Option C. 106. flap position. throttle lever. Option A. Option B. dampens the rudder movement. 108. Explanation. retain a set tension. NIL. Correct Answer is. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. restricts movement of the throttles. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft. Explanation. locks the ailerons and elevators. throttle lever. NIL. Question Number. Option B. increase cable tension in cold weather. 107. Explanation. Option A. decrease cable tension in cold weather. restricts movement of the throttles. pitch Frequency. Question Number.

111. 112. Explanation. are isolated to improve sensitivity. A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in.10. Correct Answer is. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity. The outboard ailerons on some aircraft. Explanation. aircraft tends to go nose up. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal. Explanation. . The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by. NIL. its last position. Option B. aircraft tends to go nose up. the closed position. Option C. Explanation. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option B. 113. increase wing loading on take-off. Option C. aircraft tends to roll to the right. Question Number. Option C. increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity. NIL. the closed position. Correct Answer is. increasing the altitude of the aircraft. aircraft tends to go nose down. Option C. Question Number. Option C. decrease wing loading on landing. Fuel Systems (ATA 28). Option B. decreasing the velocity of the aircraft.Option A. Correct Answer is. 11. Option A. Question Number. prevent FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing. Correct Answer is. Option A. NIL. Option B. Ground spoilers are used to. are isolated to prevent aileron reversal. decrease wing loading on landing. Option A. NIL. are isolated at slow speeds. the open position. Question Number. 1.

4. battery. Correct Answer is. low pressure systems. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. . no change.Explanation. air or vapour systems. Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for flight. high pressure systems. Option A. Question Number.8. As fuel level increases. 3. Option B.3. no airspace. NIL. system capacitance. separate venting for each tank. by air. CAIPs AL/3-17. CAIPs AL/3-17 5. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the. increases. air spaces interconnected. by the fuel. 115 V AC. 5. Option C. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Option B. Option B. 28 V DC bus. Option A. Option A. by internal cooling. Explanation.30 pg1. A320 FCOM 28. 737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. air or vapour systems. by the fuel. Explanation. Question Number. Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on. decreases. Option A. air spaces interconnected. Correct Answer is. 2. Option B. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have. 28 V DC bus. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated. Explanation. Option C. 6. Option C.

Option C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-18. Option A. Explanation. Microbial growth is. Correct Answer is. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. The dielectric constant of kerosene is more than that of air. 7. bolts. 11. it is added to the fuel and burnt. Correct Answer is. Option A. 8. Option C. Option C. 10. When refuelling. Explanation. the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full. brown black slime.1. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option A. press type rivets. contact adhesive. Correct Answer is. Explanation.Correct Answer is. Explanation. it is applied dry and left. Question Number. 9. AL/3-15 4. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 15-38. red dots. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with.3 says press studs or cords. B757 MM Chapter 28-41-00. When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment. it is applied wet and flushed out. it is added to the fuel and burnt. . it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank. press type rivets. Option B. Question Number. brown black slime. Option C. Option A. green sludge. Option B. Question Number. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 7-3. increases. Question Number. Question Number. it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by.

JAR 25. below the fungal colonies. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. Question Number. the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity. AL/3-15 para 8. Explanation. Correct Answer is. provide overflow facility to dump fuel.14. Correct Answer is.e.957.969. 12. an expansion space is not required. Correct Answer is. NIL.3. Option C. below the fungal colonies. corrosion takes place. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight. Option B. Option C. After a tank bag has been replaced. .1. tank shut-off valve point. Option B.Option A. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. a fuel flow test should be carried out at. Option B. Option C. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel. shut off fuel before structural damage. 15. Option B. JAR 25. the top of the tank. Explanation. Question Number. In a fuel system with interconnected vents. Option A. tank outlet. Option C. tanks completely full. shut off fuel before structural damage. Option A. Question Number. the bottom 2 inches of the tank. In biologically contaminated fuel. Option A. stop engine from using tank during transfer. Correct Answer is. tanks completely empty. tanks empty apart from unusable fuel. Option C. AL/10-3 11. Explanation. engine inlet. the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity. 13. Explanation. provision must be made to. Option B. engine inlet. 14.

hard reversion. soft reversion. Option C. Question Number. JAR 25. An anti-corona device. 40 PSI. soft reversion. 16. . Option B. Option A. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vaporisation?. 40 PSI. Pressure refuelling is carried out at. Option B. left tank to right tank.969. Option A. Correct Answer is. AL/3-17 5. Correct Answer is. tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet. Option B. Explanation. 18. Fuel tanks interconnected must have. Question Number. any tank to any engine. Question Number. TTS FADEC Booklet Page 13. mechanical reversion. Option A. 20 PSI. 19. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. 15 PSI. Option A. 20. Option A. Option B. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to. Correct Answer is. Explanation. any tank to any engine. 17. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from. protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system. Correct Answer is. tank to tank. Option C. Question Number. Option C. Option C. Explanation.Question Number. B737 MM 28-22-00 Page 1. vents to allow overfueling. Explanation.4 says 'up to 50 psi'.

Integral fuel booster pumps. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?. be full. require ram air cooling. Correct Answer is. NIL Question Number. Option C.3. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. Option A. Explanation.17. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. NIL. Correct Answer is. to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently. Option B. A corona device. to ensure that all available fuel can be used. Option A. 22. Correct Answer is. be empty. have some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out. Option C. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is. Option B. Option C. An anti-corona device. Option C. Decreases. Option A. A nozzle. Correct Answer is. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 353. Question Number.Option B. Explanation. require no cooling. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. the fuel tanks should. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 6. Explanation. Decreases. 21. Increases. . Option C. lets the fuel do cooling. lets the fuel do cooling. 24. Explanation. AL/3-15 9. Depends on altitude. Question Number. 23. Option B. Question Number. to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods.

Option B. Option C. Option A. Option B.Question Number. the booster pump fails. Explanation. filter popped or pump fail. 27. the tank does not pressurise. Correct Answer is. the booster pump fails. A fuel tank suction valve will open when. Correct Answer is. Question Number. ice blockage. Option C. Correct Answer is. cabin air is bled around the tank. Question Number. a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted. By a fuel boost pump. NIL. cabin air is bled around the tank. By suction from the engine driven fuel pump. Question Number. the tank should be filled as full as possible. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. 28. 29. the fuel warning light indicates. Option A. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up. How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?. By a gravity feed pump. 25. To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank. Option A. Option A. Option C. Option B. Option B. the engine driven pump fails. both the engine driven and booster pump fail. By a fuel boost pump. Option C. NIL. the filler cap should be left open. NIL. the tank should be filled as full as possible. In a light fixed wing aircraft. Question Number. ice blockage. . 26. pump failure. ram air is circulated around the tank. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Explanation. filter popped or pump fail. Explanation. Option B. the tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible.

30. 31. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. . Option A. Question Number. Option B. two 28V DC motors. Explanation. two three-phase AC motors. NIL. the magnetic indicator would show. Flexible. green and in line. Explanation. Integral. Option C. which of the following is most prone to leaks?. the APU fuel feed. Correct Answer is. fuel jettison system. 33. Integral. Option B. Option C. Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with. Explanation. Question Number. fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister. Option A. Option B. Option A. fuel tank vent pipes. Question Number. amber and cross line. two single phase AC motors. NIL. Option A. fuel draining out of the pressure switch bleed. amber and in line. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated. NIL. Correct Answer is.Question Number. the pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. Option C. fuel leaking past the inlet screens. Option C. A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump. this could be caused by. two 28V DC motors. amber and cross line. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction. Rigid. Option B. 34. 32. Option A.

Option C. Correct Answer is. NIL. run. Question Number. Explanation. pull the fire handle. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. After first pulling teh firebottle CBs. . run. Option A. Explanation. pull the fire handle. Question Number.1. Correct Answer is. AL/3-15 page 8 para 5. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a. Option B. Option A. Explanation. NIL. Option C. Question Number. Option C.4. Option A. Water. Option C. Explanation. seep. stain. Correct Answer is. prevent the centre from being defuelled. close the cross bleed valve. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would. 38. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. Option B. prevent the dumping of the outer tanks. 36. Kerosene. fuel tank vent pipes. Question Number. 35. Methylated Spirit. 37.Correct Answer is. A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to. Water. Option B. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. close the HP fuel lock. automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time. Before installation the linen bag should be wetted with. Explanation. Option A.

Question Number. NIL. are cheaper to manufacture. Option A. Explanation. On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel. Option B. we have interpreted it as 'every engine is fed from the same system'. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. . Option B. more durable and easier to maintain." 11.11. Option A. Option A. 2.2. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. 39. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Hydraulic Power (ATA 29) (63) Question Number. Explanation. "This question can be interpreted an many ways. 40. Option A. a separate system for each engine. Option C. the same system for each engine. based upon the fact that the fuel system can feed any engine from any tank. Option B. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-21 5. A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system. Question Number. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by. However. is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions. a parallel system. Correct Answer is. is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged with fluid. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. is to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture. use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight. 1. the same system for each engine. and all three answers arguably correct. The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they.

Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. maintain a high pressure to all systems. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-31 Also known as priority valves CAIPs AL/3-21 5. Option C. Option A. allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply. Question Number. In the case drain. Option C. 4. Question Number. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?. compressing the air charge in an accumulator. Yellow. Option A. Question Number. . Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-44. Correct Answer is. Option B. Green. Increase in fluid pressure. Correct Answer is. the use of a pressure/heat exchanger. In the case drain. Option B. Option B. Fluid loss. Explanation. White. Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems 7-10 and 7-8. Option C. Explanation. dampen pressure inputs. What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?. Green.Option B. 5. Option A. Increase in fluid temperature. Option C. In the pressure line. Option C. Option A. A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will. Correct Answer is. allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7. Question Number. 3. 6. compressing the fluid in a reservoir.3. In the suction line. What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?. Explanation.

Correct Answer is. Energised Open. Option A. Explanation. Hi acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis. Pass over a tray. are only ever used in an emergency. 10. Increase acidity. Vent Reservoir to atmosphere. natural rubber. store fluid under pressure. By pressurising. store fluid under pressure. Question Number. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-16. Option B. Question Number. 11. 8. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 9. provide additional fluid if leaks occur. Explanation. Energised Closed for fail-safe. Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection. Option C. 7. Option A. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?. Question Number. The depressurising valve (sometimes called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed. By pressurising. Option B. synthetic rubber. Question Number. Option B. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of. Explanation. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?.Correct Answer is. Option A. Increase in fluid temperature. Option B. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 7. Increase acidity. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Increase viscosity. Option A. Option C. Increase in temperature is an indication of internal leaks. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?. . Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option C. Option B. to fail-safe open. Increase alkalinity. Option A. Energised Closed for fail-safe.

Correct Answer is. A normal hydraulic system will. Option B. Some systems show temperature. Correct Answer is. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by. Option B.1. Question Number. ACOV. show fluid temperature and quantity. Option B. but they are not 'normal'. 13. Option A. angle of swashplate.Option C. CAIPs AL/3-21 12. Option A. Question Number. Question Number. illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready. angle of swashplate. show pressure and source of hydraulics. acidity. show pressure and source of hydraulics. alkalinity. Correct Answer is. Pressure relief valve. Option C. Option A. IDG. . Option C. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 3. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Question Number. Return line back to pump. Explanation. butyl rubber. viscosity. Correct Answer is. ACOV.2. butyl rubber. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being used?. acidity.3. ethylene propylene or Teflon. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in. ethylene propylene or Teflon. Option A. 15. Option C. Explanation. Explanation. restriction valve. 12. Explanation. Explanation. 14. NIL. Overheating causes acidity.

3000 PSI. Correct Answer is. Option A. When replenishing a hydraulic system. Option C. 16. . use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting. 20. Option B. 18. use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting. Pass over a tray. Option C. Explanation. use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer. Option B. Option A. use any hydraulic fluid. NIL. Question Number. Vent to atmosphere. Option C. When flushing hydraulic systems.Question Number. Option C. Question Number. Explanation. flush with same hydraulic oil. Correct Answer is. 3000 PSI. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. When replacing a flexible pipe. 1800 PSI. Option B. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. Option A. 19. Explanation. Pass over a tray. do a bonding check. 300 PSI. Correct Answer is. Option A.5. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Pages 7-5 & 7-7. Question Number. Option B. flush with any hydraulic oil. flush with same hydraulic oil. AL/3-13 6. tighten only hand tight. Option A. Pass through a restriction. use the same/correct hydraulic fluid. Hydraulic systems normally operate at. Explanation. Option C. 17. Option B. flush with methylated spirit. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number.

Question Number. energised to the run position. 23. overpressure. Option A. half way position. 24. de-energised to start the pump. Option A. A duplex seal consist of. Question Number. Option A. pump cavitation. Explanation. maximum stroke. gears. maximum stroke. A variable angled pump starts at. Constant delivery is constant flow rate. Correct Answer is. Option B. regulators. Correct Answer is. Explanation. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with. NIL. used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure. reverse flow. Option C. NIL. . reverse flow. minimum stroke. Option B. Option C. Option C. Question Number. Question Number. 25. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL.Explanation. Option B. 21. regulators. Option C. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is. Question Number. de-energised to start the pump. Option A. CAIPs AL/3-23. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents. servo pressure. 22.

Option A. selector valve. a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. When is an hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?. . Explanation. Option B. AL/3-21 4. Hydraulic oil accumulator. Swash Plate & Valve Block. Option A. Correct Answer is. Drive Shaft. Option C. Swash Plate & Cylinder Block. When selected on. Option B. a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring. 28. Swash Plate & Cylinder Block. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. NIL. When selected off. Option A. Question Number. Option A. AL/3-21 12. Correct Answer is. a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings. Drive Shaft.Option A. When selected off. Option C. Option C. 29. Option B. a square section rubber ring within a steel washer. What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?. 27. Variable swashplate pump.3. there is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required.1-12. Reservoir. When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available. Explanation.2. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts. Option B. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C. filter. AL/3-21 Figure 2. Swash Plate & Valve Block. Drive Shaft. pump. most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit. pressure is maintained at the selector valves at all times. Question Number. An hydraulic closed system is one where. Question Number. 26. Option B.

Explanation. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run. . Option C. rapid fluctuations of instruments. rapid depressurisation of system. prevent a leak back of pressure. A thermal relief valve is fitted to an hydraulic system to. 32. Option C. Thermal relief valves relieve the pressure build-up due to excessive temperature. pump. Reservoir. Option A. Option C. relieve excess pressure. Correct Answer is. If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be. relieve excess pressure. 30." Option A. Option B. relieve excess pressure. Option B. Correct Answer is. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run. selector valve. Jeppeson A & P Technician Airframe P8-15 Question Number. absorb pressure surges. Correct Answer is. NIL. the thickness of the wall on the pipe. Explanation. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. Explanation. the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe. 31. 33. Option A. absorb pressure surges. Question Number. "One reason for fitting an accumulator in an hydraulic system is to. NIL. Option B. prevent excess temperature. NIL. pump cavitation. A marker number on a pipe indicates. filter. Explanation. Option C. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. rapid fluctuations of instruments. Option B.Correct Answer is. Question Number.

safety switches. preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack. NIL. Explanation.2. accumulator. Correct Answer is. 37. Option A. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. . Option A. Option B. 35. Option C. The purpose of a non-return valve is to. Explanation. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. Option C. landing gear and doors. maintaining fluid press when the emergency system fails. Option B.Question Number. 36. Option A. control the rate of system operation. The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. 38. 34. landing gear and doors. restrict the movement of components. control the rate of system operation. change over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure. isolate one component from another. Question Number. Option A. restrict the rate of pressure build up. Question Number. Option C. NIL. selector. Option A. limit the maximum pressure. Option B. brake anti-skid units. engine driven pump. A shuttle valve is used for. accumulator. Question Number. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is. Explanation. Explanation. AL/3-21 6. Correct Answer is.4 Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to. Option C. AL/3-21 6.

Explanation. AL/3-21 Page 10. Question Number. system pressure. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by. NIL. Option C. two NRVS fitted. When the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the. 41. low accumulator pressure. Option B. 3000 PSI. Explanation. 1000 PSI.Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. 3000 PSI. prevent incorrect installation. AL/3-21 Page 10. the air pressure is. Option A. Question Number. 39. Option A. low accumulator pressure. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. During a leak test of an hydraulic system. Option B. relief valve. 42. two NRVS fitted. Option A. 43. NIL. Option B. Question Number. Correct Answer is. . Option A. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-21 Page 6. direct fluid to the hydraulic actuator. piston ram displacement. allow a full flow from the valve. Option C. 40. 4000 PSI. moisture in the fluid. Question Number. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air pressure of 1000 PSI. facilitate bleeding of the system. Option C. prevent incorrect installation. The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to. relief valve set too high.

Explanation. Option A. before a pressure gauge. . Option B. a striker pin. a striker pin. Option B. 47. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 44. Option A. Question Number. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps. all air must be bled from the system. Option B. Option C. Option A. Option C. AL/3-21 13. Option A. the fluid pressure must be released. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. before a pressure relief valve. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system.3. NIL. Pressure relay valves are fitted. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. must be minimum working. the fluid pressure must be released. the reservoir must be checked for correct level. Explanation. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator. Option B. Question Number. must be at maximum. NIL. are self idling. require an automatic cut-out valve in the system. is not important. Mechanical sequence valves are operated by. Explanation. the pilot. before a pressure gauge. the operation of a NRV.2. before a pressure sequence valve. 46.Option A. NIL. must be at maximum. 45. Question Number. require an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system.

Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. maintain a constant fluid level. NIL. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an. Question Number. Option C.Explanation. . NIL. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system. 51. any fluid of the same specific gravity. only the specified fluid. Question Number. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. An automatic cut-out valve will. Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. prevent the hydraulic lock forming. any hydraulic fluid available. 50. In aircraft hydraulic systems. 48. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. provide a reserve of stored energy. Question Number. limit pump wear. to maintain a back pressure to the accumulator. Option A. 52. raise fluid boiling point. Question Number. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to. only the specified fluid. Question Number. Option B. prevent the hydraulic lock forming. Option C. it is permissible to use. accumulator and relay valve. Correct Answer is. CAIPs AL/3-21 Para 15 Page 7. NIL. Option C. minimize the possibility of pump cavitation. accumulator and shuttle valve. 49. Explanation. Explanation. accumulator and automatic cut-out valve. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Option A.

Correct Answer is. A RAT hydraulic pump is for. Option A. the same type of fluid as used in the system. Option B. Option C. 56. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is.Option B. Explanation. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. senses fluid pressure. Explanation. 53. Option B. Synthetic Rubber. Explanation. methylated spirits. Butyl Rubber. 55. . Option C. NIL. Option B. Question Number. A thermal relief valve. Option A. Option C. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?. relieve excessive pressure to return. Question Number. provides cooling for the fluid. NIL. Explanation. 54. Explanation. any clean hydraulic fluid. Correct Answer is.3. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 8-14 Question Number. nose wheel steering. Option A. the same type of fluid as used in the system. senses fluid temperature change. flying controls if hydraulic power lost. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with. Option C. AL/3-21 3. Natural Rubber. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option A. Butyl Rubber. Question Number. senses fluid pressure. to ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure. landing gear and auto-brake systems. NIL.

Option B. 58. has two control surfaces under its control. Option C. Option C. To enable an hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures. AL3-21 8. Explanation. area * pressure. Question Number. low pressure. Question Number. 59. Correct Answer is. Explanation. area * volume.Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option B. NIL. a stack pipe higher than the normal level. Option B. single acting. 57. Option B. 61. has the rams parallel. Option C. Explanation. the bottom of the reservoir. Option C. a pressure reducing valve is used. Correct Answer is.1. Option C. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to. Option A. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally. pressure * stroke. 60. Jeppeson A & P technician Airframe P8-23. Option B. the bottom of the reservoir. . Question Number. Correct Answer is. area * pressure. Option A. double acting. double acting. Option A. Correct Answer is. a pressure regulating valve is used. A tandem PFCU. has the actuator rams co-axial. Explanation. a pressure reducing valve is used. NIL. has the actuator rams co-axial. a tap into a convenient return line. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from. Question Number. Option A. a pressure relief valve is used. Option A.

Windshield heating provides. increases strength to resist cabin pressure. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Option A. NIL. 63. Question Number. Explanation.12.Explanation. Retard rotation [of the detector] with slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver. Option A. Screwdriver torque test. impact resistance enhancement. By a motor load test. expands in length and diameter. Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30) (25) Question Number. Option B. Option C. NIL. Screwdriver torque test. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with. 2. impact resistance enhancement. Explanation. . contracts in length and diameter. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 13-6 (last paragraph). Explanation. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation. Option C.' Ref: CAIPs AL/11-6. 11. a fixed volume pump. Option B. pressures above 3000 PSI. 62. is a flexible hose under pressure. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?. Option C. 1. Option C. Option A. a variable volume pump. thermal expansion for a tighter fit. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. contracts in length and expands in diameter. Question Number. Explanation. Motor test and go/no-go gap measurement. Correct Answer is. Option A. A&P Mechanics General Handbook page 115. Option B. a fixed volume pump. Option B.

paint the surface. Option C. Correct Answer is. Page 178. 70°C at 100 PSI.2. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. 6. CAIPs AL/11-3 5. 70°F at 10 PSI. all the time. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed.2. Option A. CAIPs AL/11-1 4. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. it is switched on. Pallett.2. Option C. one system for both sides but with the same power source. Option A. Aircraft Electrical Systems. 7°F at 100 PSI. Explanation. Option A.2. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is. the windshield wiper system is. . Option A. aerodynamic shape is not disturbed. less of a fire hazard. Explanation. remove all paint. On large transport aircraft. independent on each side with different power sources. 4. 5. Question Number. 70°C at 100 PSI. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?. Option B. Explanation. Question Number. Option B. 7. Option A. Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must. shave rivet to prevent further abrasion.Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Option C. independent on each side with different power sources. Option B. independent on each side but with the same power source. 3. Question Number. Option B. more efficient. remove all paint. Correct Answer is.

Question Number. when selected by the crew. Correct Answer is. Option C. the autotransformer. goes out after one more cycle. 10. In a cockpit window heater system. In which case the answer is b).1. Option B. CAIPs AL/3-24 fig 1. Option C. 9. Option C. Explanation. Correct Answer is. AL/11-6 3. goes out after a set period of time. prevent electrical static build up. Option B. supplies DC power for heating. when selected by the crew. AL/11-6 2 Question Number. Option A. prevent electrical static build up.2. ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing. provide more efficient deicer cycles. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to. Explanation. Option A. Option A. CAIPs AL/11-6 3. Correct Answer is. 8. Explanation. 11. Option B.4 (unless they mean 'bonded' as in cemented. air from the cabin. Question Number. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced. CAIPs AL/11-1 3. Ice formation on wings is due to. Question Number. Option A. Option B. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by. provide smoother airflow over leading edge. goes out after a set period of time. sealed window. suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing. 12. . Explanation.Option B. Option A.1. when in the air. air from the cabin. goes out immediately. Option C. Explanation. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing. Correct Answer is. the warning lamp on the flight deck. an electrical heating element. supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing.4. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Option C.

step up voltage. Option C. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 13-18. Correct Answer is. Question Number. steps up output for severe weather conditions. Explanation.b737. the shaft end. AL/11-4 4. when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured. are not permitted on large transport aircraft. step up voltage. Explanation. Option B. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen.htm Question Number. blade attachment end. NIL. the shaft end. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers. Option B. Windshield rain repellent is applied.Option B.uk/iceandrain. supplies AC Power for heating. Option A.org. 15. Option B. Option B. use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers. Option C. Windscreen autotransformers. http://www. Question Number. are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions. use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen. Correct Answer is. step down voltage. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is. steps up output for severe weather conditions. 14. . before rain and spread on window surface by wipers. when rain is on windows and spread by wipers.2. Option A. Explanation. Pneumatic rain removal systems. centre point of the blade. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 62/63 (Note: a transformer cannot 'supply'. Jeppesen. Option C. A&P Airframe Textbook Page 13-17. 16. Explanation. Option C. Explanation. Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at.2. 13.

they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability. page173.Question Number. Option C. Option A. 19. via a rectifier. . Option B. Option B. Pallett. they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe. Option A. frequency wild generator. Option B.10-29. page 174. frequency wild generator. rime Ice. Option C. Correct Answer is. NIL. 20. A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Windscreen heating is supplied from. frequency wild generator. tough and sticks closely to the surface is called. direct to the windscreen. Pallett. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing. Option B. Correct Answer is. When testing pitot head heaters. ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. glaze Ice. glaze Ice. Option A. and which is dense. they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings. Option C. 18. Option C. Aircraft Electrical Systems. fig. Correct Answer is. Question Number. they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability. Question Number. Aircraft Electrical Systems. NIL. Explanation. DC generator. OR increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit. direct to the windscreen. hoar Frost. Question Number. via a transformer. Explanation. 17. Option A.

NIL. Option B. Option B. 25.2. When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground. air conditioning ducting. Question Number. Question Number. a short circuit. Option B. Option A. Option A. use water as lubricant when operating. Correct Answer is. CAAIPs Leaflet 6-8 para 5. Option C. The most probable cause would be. What is run-back ice?. 22. Question Number. Option A. a short circuit. stainless steel. Question Number. Monel. Option C. Glaze ice. use water as lubricant when operating. Option C. Explanation. . an open circuit. make sure to. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection being made. Correct Answer is. Rime ice. engine compressors. 21. 24. place soft cloth between blade and window. Explanation. Option A. 23. engine compressors. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from. NIL. Option B. Explanation. Option A. use slow wiper only. Option C. nylon.Question Number. NIL. The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system. normal. Explanation. Correct Answer is.1. Option B. Correct Answer is. a combustion heater. nylon.

Explanation. Option B. Explanation. wheel flange. Glaze ice. brake drum. Correct Answer is. internal leakage. vertically. decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes. wheel flange. Option A. wheel hub. AC20-147. Question Number. www. Tubeless tyres are stored.I. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option C.adtl. Option C.army. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly. 1. Correct Answer is. Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the.Option C.html Question Number.mil/cgi-bin/atdl/fm/1-509/ch10. Option B. Option B. applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly. NIL.13. Explanation. A brake debooster valve is provided for. air in the system. increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly. at 15 to 20 P. air in the system.S. Option A. Question Number. Explanation. Correct Answer is. 2. Spongy brakes are usually a result of. Glime ice. . Option C. horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top. external leakage. CAAIPs 5-8 Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-31. 4. 11. Option A. Correct Answer is. Landing Gear (ATA 32) (68) Question Number. vertically. 3. Option C.

top of the wheels are closer together. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. What does the 10. Option A. When servicing an oleo. A tyre specification 32 x 10. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-13. 8.733. 15% by volume. Question Number. Option C. produce a loss of fluid. Question Number. 5% by volume. be serviceable.1. Option B. wear brake pads too quickly. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?. 5% by volume. bottom of the wheels are closer together.Explanation. 5% by pressure. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will. Option B. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Overall diameter. Option A. AWN 70. Separator plate stuck open. front of the wheels are closer together. Option C. Bead diameter. Leaking air/oil seals. bottom of the wheels are closer together. Section Width. Option A. 5. Explanation. Option B. Option A.75-14. Badly corroded brakes should be replaced. 9. Option C. 7. The leg is serviceable . positive camber is when the. Question Number. and should be replaced. . Correct Answer is. and JAR 25. fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?.the separator has bottomed. Section Width. Option C. Option A. Explanation. Option C. and should be replaced. wear brake pads too quickly. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-47 CAIPs AL/3-18 15. Question Number. Explanation.75 refer to. and provide better grip.1. On a wheel bogie unit. 6.

CAIPs AL/3-6. heat generated in operation of the system. separate the oil from the air. Option C. . Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. 10. Option C. restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage. The leg is serviceable .the separator has bottomed. Option A. damp the rebound. Jeppesen A&P technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-5. Question Number. speed up the flow in one direction. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. Option C. Option B. may be used to slow down undercarriage extension. Question Number. Option B. Option B. Option C. Made up wheels should be stored. restrict the compression of the air. A restrictor valve. damp the rebound. Option B. Option A.Correct Answer is. 14. Option A. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. 11. CAIPs AL/3-6 Page 7&8. Explanation. heat generated in operation of the system. Explanation. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Question Number. type of fluid most readily available. Question Number. absorb the landing shock. 13. permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension. Explanation. Option A. NIL. the type of seal material. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon. vertical at working pressure. Correct Answer is. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon heat generated in operation of the system. 12. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to. ensure the separator does not bottom.

Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Explanation.6. the light part of the tyre. Explanation. tracking. symmetry. A+P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-13. . vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. Option A.1. Correct Answer is. vertical at 20/30 PSI charge. Inner diameter.Option B. camber." Option A. "After MLG down and securely locked. Explanation. Option A. twist. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option B. These markings are found on a tyre32 x 10. horizontal no more than 4 high. camber. Correct Answer is. symmetry. out of adjustment sensor.4. Correct Answer is. When checking for alignment of a MLG. 18. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents. Explanation. symmetry. Outer diameter. Correct Answer is. shorted sensor. wiring problem. breather points. Option C. Outer diameter.45 R 14. Option A. a red light is illuminated n the flight deck. 17. Option B. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 2. splay. Question Number. 15. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. qwidth. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. military reference. CAIPS AL3-18 para 15-1 and 15-3. Option C. symmetry. Question Number. tracking. 16. tracking. Option B. check. Option C. The possible causes are. breather points. out of adjustment sensor. Option B. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 176. Option C.What does the number 32 mean?. tracking.

for overpressure protection. Question Number.2 Fuse plugs protect the tyre from explosion due to overpressure. Option A. In detachable flange type wheels. Option B. 21. . CAIPs AL/3-18 4. to provide a wear indication. a lock ring. military reference. Question Number. to provide strength. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are. caused by a leaky seal.com/tyrecare/dm1172/dm1172. Option B.1. Option C. AL/3-19 3. Option A. AL/3-6 3.dunlopaircrafttyres. NIL. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging. this is.1. 20.Question Number. 23.7. to deflate the tyre before removal. Option C. to indicate the position for tyre levers. Correct Answer is. Explanation. for overpressure protection. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means. normal. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. due to excessive charging pressure. Option C. the flange is secured by. www. a retainer plate.3 iii. Option A. a lock ring. albeit the overpressure as a result of temperature rise. 19. Option A. Option B.pdf Question Number. Option B.3. for over temperature protection. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is. Explanation. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. bolts. Question Number. to provide strength. caused by a leaky seal. 22. the light part of the tyre.

Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away athigh temperatures. NIL.Option C. When an undercarriage is lowered. on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve. Option C. Dunlop Aircraft Tyres General Servicing Instructions Para 3.2. breather points. Explanation. Option B. . 24. it tends to creep back up. Option A. 27. Composite brake units. The cause is. Option B. Correct Answer is.2. On selection of MLG down. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-20 'Carbon Brakes'. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. a faulty selector valve. 28. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 3. to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension.7. CAIPs AL/3-18 3. Correct Answer is. the light part of the tyre. Option A. Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-6 4. When fitting a tyre. the emergency system. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures. Explanation. to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction. Option B. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. Option A. 26. Explanation. 25. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A. adjacent to the charging valve. adjacent to the charging valve. a faulty actuator. have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures.10. to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension. Option A.1. gear lowered at too high an airspeed. a faulty selector valve. opposite the charging valve. have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures. the gear extends then begins to retract again. Option C. A restrictor valve can be used. Question Number. the red dot should be positioned. Correct Answer is. Question Number. The fault could be.6. Question Number.

Explanation. Option C. 200°C. Explanation. AL/3-18 2. What is tyre creep related to?. Option B. tubeless tyres. tubed and tubeless tyres. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-42 says both tubed and tubeless. tubed tyres. Description and Operation 32-42-82 Part AHA1648 . Option C. Vertical movement of the tyre. Question Number. 32. a leaky selector valve. a stuck relief valve. Question Number. Explanation. 31. Option A. Correct Answer is. Leaflet 5-7 Para 9 . Option A. Boeing 757 Carbon Brake wheel. Option C. Question Number. 250°C. Vents holes are found on. for alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension. tubed and tubeless tyres. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A.Option B. Correct Answer is. NIL. The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is. 30. a leaky selector valve. NIL. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?. Tyre moving around the wheel. Explanation. Horizontal movement of the tyre. Option A. Explanation. Option B. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction. Option C. part of the shimmy damper.4. to align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction. 150°C.Yellow Plug Temperature 390°F. Option C. 29. 200°C. Option B. Question Number. Tyre moving around the wheel. So does Dunlop General Servicing Instructions. Option B.

. Explanation. NIL. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 10-37. Correct Answer is. The material of the leg. Correct Answer is. Option B. Explanation. 36. Explanation. oil level too high. To reduce vibration and shimmy. any oil can be used. lowering slats. The types of seals the leg uses. Correct Answer is. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking.Question Number. brakes release on rising torque. 33. NIL. increased flaring. NIL. Option C. 35. Option C.Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?. an anti-skid device. Explanation. Option A. 37. To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection. In an anti-skid system. brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking. brakes release on falling torque. Correct Answer is. Option A. To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection. . the likely cause is. Option A. Option C. To reduce vibration and shimmy. Option A. Question Number. The types of seals the leg uses. Question Number. If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection. Question Number. Option B. Aquaplaning' can be reduced by. 34. Option C. Neither. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?. Option A. an anti-skid device. Question Number. Option B.

Question Number. the rate of descent is too high. Option C. Skid control. the airspeed is too high. return line from the landing gear selector. The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land. Option C. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Self centring landing gear. the landing gear is not locked down. to slow the rate of extension. Question Number. Option B. A Maxaret is used in what system?. Explanation. landing gear up line. Tyre inflation. Question Number. 40. loss of pressure/leakage.Option B. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 10-12.this is a well known error in CAIPs. Correct Answer is. landing gear down line. 38. 39. Option A. air pressure too high. Option B. Correct Answer is. Skid control. air pressure too high. Option C. CAIPs AL/3-6 fig 4 sows them in the down line . Option A. Option B. Question Number. 41. Correct Answer is. A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the. Explanation. The restrictor is placed in the retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the jack on extension. NIL. The most likely reason for this warning is. NIL. Explanation. the landing gear is not locked down. Option C. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems. landing gear up line.

tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking. normal braking will not be available. between the tread rubber and the casing piles.1.3 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 9-6. to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped. the control column. Explanation. emergency braking will not be available. 44. Option C. CAAIP Leaflet 5-7 fig 1. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Explanation. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment. brakes seizure. Question Number. Question Number. Option B. to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment. to ensure the aircraft is still rolling. neither system will be available. NIL. Option A. Option C. tyre bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking. Question Number. NIL. 42. Option B. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted. . Option C. Explanation. Option A. Option C. between the tread rubber and the casing piles. Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by. between the bead and the casing piles. If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position. if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures. Option B. A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents. 43. rudder pedals. Correct Answer is. Option B. between the apex strip and the casing piles. emergency braking will not be available. Correct Answer is.Option A. 45. a separate pilot operated control. Option C. Option A. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-8 para 3. over inflation of tyres during servicing. Question Number.

49. NIL. Option A. Option C. a separate pilot operated control. the base of the tie bar. the top of the tie bar. 47. Option C. NIL. Question Number. Option C. Explanation. Question Number. Question Number. Option A. Option A. Option B. spread the weight over a large area. a. prevent skidding. Option C. Explanation. excessive toe-in. Option B. Option B. absorb increased landing shock. Explanation. melt at a specified elevated temperature. Correct Answer is. bogie type undercarriages are used to.Correct Answer is. . Explanation. under-inflation. Correct Answer is. NIL. Question Number. eliminate the need to check air pressure Correct Answer is. the top of the tie bar. melt at a specified elevated temperature. 50. Correct Answer is. Option B. spread the weight over a large area. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to. 46. 1 mm from the rib base. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing. over-inflation. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will. Option A. NIL. Explanation. under-inflation. facilitate servicing of the wheel assembly. castoring damper is used. Question Number. NIL. On large aircraft. Option A. 48. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of.

51. anti-skid units. braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. hop damper is used. 53. Explanation. is not pressurized. is subject to cabin pressure. Explanation. snubber is used. is not pressurized. Correct Answer is. is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure. Explanation.6. reduce the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. Option B. brake control valves. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option C. 52. A modulator is fitted in conjunction with. Option B. Option C. 54.733 (e). non-return valve. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Option A. NIL.Option B. Option C. Explanation. Option B. Question Number. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. nitrogen. Correct Answer is. Question Number. AL/3-21 6. Option A. increase the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes. JAR 25. . the nose-wheel bay. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air. Brake deboosters. On large aircraft. In the case of pressurized aircraft. Option A. hop damper is used. anti-skid units. Question Number. assist the operation of the anti-skid unit. an argon and CO2 mixture. Explanation. NIL. NIL. nitrogen and not more than 5% of air.

Top of wheels closer to fuselage.2. Option C. Explanation.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. When the landing gear is locked up. up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points. Question Number. The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is. up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points. Explanation. red light.html Question Number. Option B. Option C. Option B. the cockpit indicator shows. 58. Option B. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type. what is positive camber?. no indication.2. http://www. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. Correct Answer is. Articulated. up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads. Correct Answer is. Option A. horizontally. Bottom of wheels closer to fuselage. Option C. 8.Question Number. http://www. 9. Direct Acting. up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top.1 and 15. horizontally. Correct Answer is. Option A. Tubed tyres are stored. . green light. Option A. Option A.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.desertrides.com/reference/terms. Option B. Question Number.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi. Correct Answer is.com/page13. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-7 15. 57. Hydro Mechanical.2. Option C. Explanation. Option C. NIL. Direct Acting. Option A. 55. On a main landing gear.6 times the tyre pressure in bar. Explanation.php#C Question Number. 59. 56. Option B. horizontally.gremline. 8. Front of wheels closer to fuselage. horizontally. 8.

splay. no indication. 62. 63. symmetry. 64. check. Correct Answer is. heat the valve stem gently with a blow torch. Option C. symmetry. Option A. Option B. twin contact. symmetry. Option A. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem. under pressure. A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have. NIL. . vertically. under pressure. water dispersing treads. Question Number. camber. Option C. carry on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation. Question Number. 61. Option C. tracking. 60. tracking.Correct Answer is. tracking. When checking the alignment of a main landing gear. Option A. symmetry. Explanation. Correct Answer is. camber. NIL. Option B. Option B. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored. Question Number. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Explanation. wait for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation. twist. Option C. NIL. overpressure. Question Number. Tyre creep could be caused by. NIL. Option A. Option B. Option A. a plain tread. tracking. water dispersing treads. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 10-12. Explanation. excessive wear. Question Number.

the valve assembly. Correct Answer is. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician textbook page 9-12. Question Number. 67. On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters. Explanation. NIL. heavy spot. Explanation. opposite side to the valve assembly. Option C. using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate. horizontally. Option B. the red spot on the tyre should be in line with. Correct Answer is. 68.1. Question Number. 65. Option A. Lights (ATA 33) (37) . Correct Answer is. the valve assembly. Option B. Option A. light spot. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used. Correct Answer is. in the manufactures boxes. Dunlop component maintenance manual Ch. brake wear is checked by. Option C. 32-42-98. Option C. balance indicator. maker's serial number. Option A. measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released. keep the wheel in track. Question Number.Option B. vertically. 11. assist the wheel to castor. A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate. the torque links will. Option A. allow the wheel to shimmy. Explanation. Option C. application of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion. Correct Answer is. 66. Option B. Option B. When fitting a tyre to a hub. Jeppesen A & P Airframe Technician Textbook page 9-49. Explanation. keep the wheel in track. Explanation. AL/3-18 15. Option C. heavy spot. Question Number.14.

phosphor coatings. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option A. Option B. tail light white. Question Number.net/~pthrush/lighting/flour. of at least 3 lumens. 20%. Starboard light green. 3. CAP 393 Rules of the Air Rule 11 (2) (a) (iii). at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern.html Question Number. then. . orange coatings. rare gases and mercury vapour. of at least 3 candelas.11. 1. port light red. phosphor coatings. AWN 56 2. Option A. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. 25%. Option B. Option A. No reference found. Starboard light red. Option C. Option B. Option B. Can fly without passengers in accordance with the MEL. at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern. Option A. 4. 25%. Correct Answer is. Option A. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative.which of the following is true?. at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern. rare gases and mercury vapour. http://www. rare gases and mercury vapour. at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern. 15%. Explanation.mis. Explanation. Starboard light green.users. A fluorescent tube contains. Explanation. port light green. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. Correct Answer is. iodine coatings and rare gases. Explanation. tail light white. of at least 3 candelas. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 145. Starboard light red. With aircraft lights . port light green. Question Number. 2. tail light Red. port light red. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base. tail light White. the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired. 5. Option C. A white steady light is required. the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base. of at least 3 candelas.Question Number. the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?. Question Number.

Option A. Option C. 8. Explanation. Option B. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146. Correct Answer is. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1. 11°. Option C. battery bus. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C.1387. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is. battery bus and ground services bus. Correct Answer is. 140°. 180°. 110°. 15°. Question Number. 10. Option A. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Option C. 125°. 11°. . and EEL/1-10 301 a). Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146. Option A. 110°. 11°. 110°. Option B. What is the arc of a landing light?. and JAR 25. Option B. and JAR 25. 20°. 9. Eismin 5th edition page 256. Question Number. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?. Correct Answer is. ground services bus.1387. 7.Question Number. Explanation. Question Number. battery bus and ground services bus. 6. 140°. Explanation.

812 (l) (1). AC handling bus. 13. Option A. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. Option B. Explanation. 10% obscured. 25%. 20% obscured. NIL. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?. Option A.Option A. Option A. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 7-2. Option C. Correct Answer is. the battery bus. NIL. JAR 25. Option B. None. Option A. Question Number. red. 20% obscured. green. AC handling bus. . 12. Option C. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. B747) use 28VDC ground bus. 11. Option B. Question Number. All lights will illuminate. Question Number. DC handling bus. 10%. Option B. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?. Escape route lighting must not have more than. Option C. Dome lights will illuminate. Explanation. 25%. 15% obscured. 14. Explanation. BAe 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar) although other aircraft (A340. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option B. white. Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate. red. Correct Answer is. and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2. Option C.11.1. Correct Answer is. Explanation.

Armed. Explanation. Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 146. Question Number. 15%. Option B. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115). OFF. 50°. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with. Option A. 28 V AC. 50°. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is. Option A. Correct Answer is. 115 V AC. Option A. 18. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?. 15. By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel. Option B. Option C. Option B. Correct Answer is. 40°. 16. Explanation. Option C. 60°.Question Number. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during flight. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B. Explanation. Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel. Option A. Question Number. Armed. Correct Answer is. NIL. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-23. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Option C. . The angle of a runway turnoff light is. 17. Option C. 28 V DC. ON. 19. 115 V AC.

Select full 'RETRACT'. Explanation. avionics bay lights. Select full 'RETRACT'. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option C. refuelling lights. avionics bay lights. Option B. logo lights. 100 candelas. 20 candelas. baggage compartment lights. engine scanning lights. 22.5. Option C.5. 11 (2) (d). 23. Option C. Option B. 2 minutes. Correct Answer is. 21.1. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head. That time period is at least. JAR 25. baggage compartment lights. Option A. 1 minute. 20. Option B. Option B. EEL/1-10 3. refuelling lights.812. Explanation. how is it reset?. EEL/1-10 5. 2 minutes. EEL/1-10 3. refuelling lights. in addition. Option A. 25%. avionics bay lights. The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground. 25%. a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock or burning. must show through an inclusive . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. 50 candelas. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para. Correct Answer is. It cannot. engine scanning lights. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and.Option B. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced. Option A. baggage compartment lights. 20 candelas. Question Number. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of. Explanation. Question Number. Explanation. 10%. Question Number. Question Number. 5 minutes. Service lights include. Explanation.3. 24.

110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum. Option A.8. Option A.angle of. series with the light and the transistor is not conducting. Correct Answer is. Option B. individually . Option B. Option A. First Officer's only in emergency mode.flightsim. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted. 110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum. the resistor is in.they are wired in parallel. 27. Pallett . 26. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. http://www. require a period of daylight. . Option B. are self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas. Option B. Explanation. Option C.1 c). series with the light and the transistor is conducting. Option A. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed. 25. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight. parallel with the light and the transistor is not conducting. Option C. and the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed. Option C. Explanation. Question Number.they are wired in series. series with the light and the transistor is conducting. because lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units. to reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight. The transistor is conducting all the time the light is switched on.Aircraft Electrical Systems. or intense artificial light to operate. together . 28. Option B.com/cgi/kds?$=main/special/real777 Question Number. Page 153. NIL. When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM'. CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para 2 a iii and CAIPs EEL/1-10 3. Correct Answer is. Explanation. are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted. EEL/1-10 4. Option C. Question Number. 140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum. Option A. Explanation. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on. Option C. Self-illuminating signs.

Question Number. In the CWS system.1. Option B. NIL. Fire warning. Option C.7. Xenon. On a CWS. strobe light. the caution light is coloured. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2. Explanation. CAIPs EEL/1-10 4. landing Light. Option C. 33. amber. Xenon. Option B. 30. Option B. 32. Option C.1. Correct Answer is. amber.Correct Answer is. Question Number. Explanation. at 60 inch intervals. Option A. . Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced. Option A. together . green. Explanation.Aircraft Electrical Systems. Correct Answer is. Duct overheat. Question Number.they are wired in series. Explanation. Question Number. Hydraulic pump failure. 31. Correct Answer is. Tritium Gas is used in a. Option A. at 40 inch intervals. Option A. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?. Correct Answer is. Pallett . NIL. at 70 inch intervals.4. Page 153. Option B. 29. at 40 inch intervals. Option B. Fire warning. Option C. Halon. Question Number. Freon. which has the highest priority?. Option A. Explanation. red.

A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is what?. . Dual circuit. Option A. Xenon Gas and blue-white. Option A. Option B. queried it with the CAA. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250. Correct Answer is. Option C. Helium gas and white. 36.2. Correct Answer is.Option C. A club66 user who got this question. Option C. Option B. Option B. Option A. no reference has been found. self illuminating lights. ground the aircraft. continue with reduced passenger load. Explanation. 34. Explanation. self illuminating lights. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate. EEL/1-10 4. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system. Option C. Single circuit.000ft and descending. He was told (by the CAA assessor)that the answer is b. Question Number. Question Number. Explanation. Xenon Gas and blue-white. ferry flight to main base for rectification. 35. continue with reduced passenger load. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit. Single circuit. However. below 10. Correct Answer is. Question Number. when landing gear doors are not closed. Option B. EEL/1-10 3. 37. Option A.3.8.1. Explanation. Individual circuits. Correct Answer is. Neon gas and blue. Question Number.

Option C. when landing gear is up.
Correct Answer is. below 10,000ft and descending.
Explanation. NIL.

11.15. Oxygen (ATA 35) (62)

Question Number. 1. Anoxia is due to.
Option A. lack of oxygen.
Option B. low air pressure on the body.
Option C. release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood.
Correct Answer is. lack of oxygen.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 2.1.

Question Number. 2. The dilutor demand regulator functions.
Option A. all the time.
Option B. only when the supply valve is opened by the user.
Option C. when the user breathes in.
Correct Answer is. when the user breathes in.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 14-10.

Question Number. 3. To measure moisture in an oxygen system use.
Option A. a glass plate.
Option B. litmus paper.
Option C. a hygrometer using the dew point method.
Correct Answer is. a hygrometer using the dew point method.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-25 Para 6.4.

Question Number. 4. Oxygen cylinder test dates.
Option A. are painted in white on the cylinder.
Option B. are variable depending on discharge.
Option C. may be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder.
Correct Answer is. are painted in white on the cylinder.

Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-25 para 4.2.2.

Question Number. 5. 02 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?.
Option A. Supernumerator regular.
Option B. Temperature compensator.
Option C. Breathing regulator.
Correct Answer is. Breathing regulator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 6. If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?.
Option A. Thermal Relief Valve.
Option B. Loose connection.
Option C. Breathing mask.
Correct Answer is. Loose connection.
Explanation. No TRV on O2 system. Breathing mask will only leak if system is turned on.
Question Number. 7. As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres.
Option A. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel.
Option B. the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended.
Option C. the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit.
Correct Answer is. the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended.
Explanation.

Question Number. 8. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with.
Option A. pressure and quantity gauges.
Option B. oxygen purity gauge.
Option C. temperature gauge.
Correct Answer is. pressure and quantity gauges.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4.9.

Question Number. 9. A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens.
Option A. all the time.
Option B. when breathing.
Option C. when 100% selected.

Correct Answer is. when breathing.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-9.

Question Number. 10. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with.
Option A. a demand regulator.
Option B. an overpressure indicator.
Option C. an over temperature indicator.
Correct Answer is. a demand regulator.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. American made crew oxygen cylinders are.
Option A. black in colour with a RH thread.
Option B. green in colour with a LH thread.
Option C. green in colour with a RH thread.
Correct Answer is. green in colour with a RH thread.
Explanation. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p7 para 4.2.3 states green for cylinders for American origin. (l/h threads are for
charging points).

Question Number. 12. Which connector has a left hand thread?.
Option A. N2.
Option B. Freon.
Option C. O2.
Correct Answer is. O2.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e).

Question Number. 13. What is the principle of an O2 generator?.
Option A. Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.
Option B. Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air.
Option C. Sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.
Correct Answer is. Sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-25 3.5.1.

Question Number. 14. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?.
Option A. 300 PSI.
Option B. 1800 PSI.
Option C. 3000 PSI.
Correct Answer is. 1800 PSI.
Explanation. AL/3-25 4.2, and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3.3.1 and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8.

Question Number. 15. Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be.
Option A. turned on by crew.
Option B. turned off.
Option C. turned on and safety wire-locked.
Correct Answer is. turned on and safety wire-locked.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. A thermal compensator is used in.
Option A. a fuel system.
Option B. an oxygen system.
Option C. an hydraulic system.
Correct Answer is. an oxygen system.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-25 4.12.

Question Number. 17. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is.
Option A. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient.
Option B. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.
Option C. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.
Correct Answer is. passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient.
Explanation. A&P Mechanic Airframe Handbook Page 598.

Question Number. 18. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?.
Option A. Line valve.

Option B. Shut-off valve.
Option C. Charging connection.
Correct Answer is. Charging connection.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 5-9 para 5.13.3(e).

Question Number. 19. Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when.
Option A. the user breathes in.
Option B. 100% is selected.
Option C. less than 500 psi is in bottle.
Correct Answer is. the user breathes in.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-9.

Question Number. 20. A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for.
Option A. additional flightcrew.
Option B. changes in altitude.
Option C. extra supply in case of emergency.
Correct Answer is. additional flightcrew.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 21. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft.
Option A. passenger must get mask from overhead stowage.
Option B. masks drop automatically.
Option C. attendant must drop masks.
Correct Answer is. masks drop automatically.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems 8-8.

Question Number. 22. How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?.
Option A. Green rupturing disc.
Option B. Audible warning.
Option C. Red rupturing disc.
Correct Answer is. Green rupturing disc.

Explanation. AL/3-25 4.13.

Question Number. 23. The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is.
Option A. 2 years.
Option B. 10 years.
Option C. 5 years.
Correct Answer is. 5 years.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 14-8 or CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p16.
Question Number. 24. A discharged chemical generator is indicated by.
Option A. a protruding pin.
Option B. a change in colour.
Option C. a broken tell-tale wire.
Correct Answer is. a change in colour.
Explanation. AL/3-25.

Question Number. 25. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least.
Option A. 15 minutes.
Option B. 30 minutes.
Option C. 5 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 15 minutes.
Explanation. AL/3-25, and A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-8 and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 3.6.3 and JAR 25.1439.

Question Number. 26. The oxygen line service valve must be.
Option A. wire locked open.
Option B. wire locked closed.
Option C. only be wire locked with telltale wire.
Correct Answer is. wire locked open.
Explanation. AL/3-25.

Question Number. 27. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above.
Option A. 4,000 ft.
Option B. 10,000ft.
Option C. 8,000ft.
Correct Answer is. 10,000ft.

Explanation. AL/3-25 3.1.

Question Number. 28. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately.
Option A. 38,000 ft.
Option B. 25,000 ft.
Option C. 4,000 ft.
Correct Answer is. 25,000 ft.
Explanation. AL/3-25 Table 1.

Question Number. 29. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude must be.
Option A. at a maximum of 12,000 ft.
Option B. at or below 8,000 ft.
Option C. below 10,000 ft.
Correct Answer is. at or below 8,000 ft.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-23.
Question Number. 30. Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes.
Option A. above 40,000 ft.
Option B. below 40,000 ft.
Option C. above 30,000 ft.
Correct Answer is. above 40,000 ft.
Explanation. AL/3-25 table 1.

Question Number. 31. In a diluter demand oxygen system.
Option A. oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow.
Option B. each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply.
Option C. each member of the crew has a regulator.
Correct Answer is. each member of the crew has a regulator.
Explanation. AL/3-25 fig 3.

Question Number. 32. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied.
Option A. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot.
Option B. on passenger inhaling into the mask.

Correct Answer is. 2. NIL. Option C.800 p.i. pounds/minute. when the mask is plugged into the socket. alloy steel.6.s. stainless steel.i. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure. Question Number. 100% oxygen supply as the user inhales.s.Option C.s. Correct Answer is. 36. alloy steel. Option C. litres/pounds. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure. Option B. 1. Option C.s. 34. . 100% oxygen at positive pressure. NIL. 33. Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to.7 ©. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in. Explanation. Option A. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option A. Option B.i. Explanation. Option B. Explanation. Explanation.i. Question Number. litres/minute. Explanation.200 p. Question Number.000 p. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot. Question Number. 35. Option B.800 p. Option C. 1. In the diluter demand oxygen system. Option A. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4. selection of emergency on this regulator will result in. Correct Answer is. litres/minute.6. Option A. 1. AL/3-25 3. aluminium. AL/3-25 3.

2. 38. Explanation. Oxygen bottle capacity varies between.2. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders. Option A. every 4 years. every 6 years. stamped on the neck ring. Option C. every 4 years. 100 3200 litres. stencilled on the bottle. 41. 39. Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested. AL/3-25 4. . Question Number. the oxygen bottle on/off valve is. Correct Answer is. stamped on a metal label.8. Option A. Option B. After installation. Question Number. Option B. every 3 years. Option B.2 (h). 37. left in the 'off' position until required.9. stamped on the neck ring. 200 2250 litres. AL/3-25 4. 80 2250 litres. Correct Answer is. Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 5-9 para 5. 40. Option A. Option C. wire locked in the 'on'. Option C. Option A. AL/3-25 5.Question Number.2 and Leaflet 5-9 5. Question Number. Explanation. left in the 'on' position. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Question Number. 80 2250 litres. Option B. Option C. Explanation.6. Correct Answer is. wire locked in the 'on'.

Question Number.5. is relieved by a bursting disc. Option C. carbon fibres.s. by visual inspection. The whims of the aircraft designer. steel wool. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option B.i. AL/3-25 5. AL/3-25 4. 43. 45. Question Number. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.i. Option A. The pressure used in the system. AL/3-25 Page 8. AL/3-25 4. is relieved by a bursting disc. Option B.Option A. Explanation.1 ii).i. Correct Answer is. Question Number. Correct Answer is. The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated. To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder. .3. Explanation. Oxygen filters are made of. by colour coding. 42. by an arrow. is relieved by a thermostat. Option A. cylinder pressure is left at 200/300 p.13. Explanation. cylinder pressure is left at 100/200 p. Option B.s. Option C. Option C. sintered bronze. The pressure used in the system. cylinder pressure is left at 300/400 p. by an arrow. Option B.i. The length of the pipe runs.s.s. Option C. Option C. Correct Answer is. Option A. 44. Question Number. Option A. is relieved by under pressurising the bottle. What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?.

Option C. rectangles. flow indicators. Option A. white with a black collar. Question Number. Explanation. black. sintered bronze. NIL. Option A. lack of Anoxia. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted. black with a white collar. Option C. NIL. 46. flow indicators.11. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of. Option B. Correct Answer is. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by. ZAL/3-25 4. Correct Answer is. Explanation. rectangles.Correct Answer is. 48. dots. AL/3-25 Page 8.2. If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system. Teflon tape may be used. Option B. Option B. Question Number. Option A. Question Number. . Explanation. black with a white collar. Correct Answer is. Option B. Option A.2. no lubricant may be used whatsoever. Explanation. diamonds. CAAIP's Leaflet 5-9 p9 para 4. 49. Correct Answer is. Explanation. distilled water may be used sparingly. Option C. Teflon tape may be used. pressure indicators. Question Number. Option C. 47.

NIL. http://www. AL/3-25 5. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient.Question Number. leak testing solution to Spec. Correct Answer is.1. Question Number.2 (vi). Option C. Option C. Option B.12. grease free medical soap. . Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Option C.html Question Number. Explanation. When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system. AL/3-21 3. the area must be well ventilated. oil must not come into contact with the system. acrylic based plastic materials. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Chapter 14-19 rh column 2nd para.7. Explanation. MIL-L-25567B. Option B. particular care must be taken to avoid leaving.chemsol. Option B. Option A. magnesium particles. 54. Option C. passed into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient. 53. A chemical oxygen generator operates at. Option A. Explanation.com/chemsol/lubricants. MIL-L-25567B. Question Number. traces of oils or greases. AL/3-25 5. 50. oil must not come into contact with the system. traces of oils or greases. 51. Question Number. A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is. passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature. passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down. Option B. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen. 52. Option A. Option A. In areas closely associated with oxygen systems. Correct Answer is. the oxygen is. soapy water. no electrical power must be used. Explanation. leak testing solution to Spec.

Option C. applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape.7. Option C. AL/3-25 4. 45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes. Option B. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.12. AL/3-25 5. Option C.2. Question Number. Explanation. stainless steel.2. . Question Number. Question Number. purity. aluminium alloy. slacken off the retaining straps first. Explanation.5. When charging an oxygen bottle in situ. Correct Answer is. Option A. 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. 45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes.Option A. Option B. Explanation. 45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes. pressure. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of. charge slowly through a water trap. Option A. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. Option B. charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph. 57. Correct Answer is. The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be. 58. pressure. charge in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape. Correct Answer is. The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates. 56. Option A. AL/3-25 3. 55. Option A. applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape. Option C. temperature. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 Para 5.2 (vi) (a). Option B. Correct Answer is.

Option C. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint.Option C. Option A. Option B. Option B.1. 62. removing moisture from the system. Option A. . Option C. Explanation. pressure testing the system. titanium. Teflon tape. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 59. Option A. Question Number. By a change in colour of heat sensitive paint. Explanation. Explanation. pass 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass. a sniff test is used. Option B. How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p8 para 4. hellerene. Lubricate oxygen connector threads using. Question Number. Correct Answer is. a hygrometer is used. measuring the flow rate from the regulator. Option A. Question Number. CAAIPs Leaflet 5-9 p19 para 6. Oxygen purging is a process of.3. The indicator pin would be protruding. WD40. stainless steel. Question Number. Option B. To check an oxygen system for moisture. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. Option C. 61. A pressure seal would be broken. NIL. Teflon tape. a hygrometer is used. removing moisture from the system. 60.

Explanation. CAAIP\'s Leaflet 6. CAIPs AL/3-22.1.4. CAIPs AL/3-22. 11. . Option A. Although smaller systems may have avane type. all equipment. Option C. they do so by being situated in the non-essential lines. piston type. 2. Although they protect the flow to the essential systems. Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36) (10) Question Number. Option C. rotor vane type. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system. Correct Answer is. Maintainer valves work in same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence the reference). Question Number. just the moisture trap. Option A. High pressure pneumatic source is a. centrifugal type. the whole system. and closing off if the pressure drops. Question Number. 1.16. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-56. Explanation. essential equipment. Option A. piston type. reciprocating pump. non-essential equipment. In a pneumatic system. Option B. it dumps. Question Number. Explanation. the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to. 3. 4. Option B. just the moisture trap. non-essential equipment. the system between compressor and regulator valve. Option B. The pneumatic system pump is a.Explanation. Option A. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 8-54. Option C.

On a high pressure pneumatic system. High pressure pneumatic pump is a. Option B. Option C. centrifugal Compressor. between the compressor and the PRV. all the system. CAIPs AL/3-23 4. Option A. Question Number. Option B. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain.Option B. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. Option A. Explanation. Option A. Option C. Correct Answer is.1. Question Number. CAIPs AL/3-22 Fig 1. Option B. Two compressors driven by separate engines use. AL/3-22 figure 1. Correct Answer is. Correct Answer is. Question Number. . CAIPs AL/3-23 4. Question Number. Explanation. reciprocating pump. Explanation. if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of time. between the compressor and the PRV. 8. Explanation. Option A. lose pressure from the compressor side only. 5. 6. spur gear. lose pneumatic pressure partially. reciprocating pump. the system would. reciprocating pump. Option B. Option C. lose all pressure. Correct Answer is. Option C. butterfly pump. just the moisture trap. butterfly pump.1. Interconnected to share loads. 7. lose pressure from the compressor side only.

Correct Answer is. NIL. thermal protection. http://www. Spur gear type. Positive displacement type. Option A. Question Number. water cooling. Option A. It must be temperature controlled. Rotary vane type. Explanation. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard. Question Number. cooling fan on timer switch. Option B.com/news/maint/182905-1. NIL. Correct Answer is. It must be filtered. Option B. NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other. What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?. 11B. 1. Option C. Option B. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?.Option C. What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?. Option A. Correct Answer is. 2. PRVs. Correct Answer is. Option B.html Question Number. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by. Option C. 9. Explanation. Option A. Positive displacement type. Prevent toilet freezing. thermal protection.avweb. . Explanation. NIL.17. AWN 57. 10. It must be filtered. Option C. It must be pressure controlled. Water/Waste (ATA 38) (9) Question Number. Explanation.

installation of neoprene foam insulation. AWN 79. Correct Answer is. are not heated. Correct Answer is. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only. 737 AMM ch. Option B. Correct Answer is. Option C. AWN 83. 4. Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard. NIL. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. AWN 83. Option C. Option B. Option C. the seal is not replaceable. are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only. Explanation.Option C. Question Number. Explanation. Option A. NIL. Option C. 6. Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by. Correct Answer is. Waste water drain masts. Question Number. AWN 80. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons. Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable. Option A. AWN 57 Para. the tank must be de-fuelled. Question Number. Option B. Explanation. are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground. Question Number. 3. the whole drain assembly must be replaced. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping. wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks. Option B. 5.2. Option A.3. Toilets are the subject of. 30-71 28VAC on ground and 115VAC in air. Option A.

Explanation. You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet. with lav door secured closed and placard 'INOPERATIVE. All the AWNs listed have now been removed. Option A. induction heater. Option B. ribbon heater.DO NOT ENTER'. reflected signal from aircraft's own radar. . the associate lavatory system may be inop. hot air blower. for ground use only. Option B. 11. Question Number. The heater used on a drain mast would be a. spring loaded open. Close toilet until landing. Toilet waste valves are. Explanation. NIL. Option B. NIL. 9. Correct Answer is. IAW B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2. Option C. Correct Answer is. ribbon heater. Option A.18. Close toilet until landing. interrogation of aircraft's transponder. 7.Explanation. 8. Option A. Option A. Question Number. Primary Radar is. Question Number. Explanation. It can be overcome by thermal compensating device. Correct Answer is. Toilet recirc fan is part of the lav system. Option C. spring loaded closed. Option C. Option B. spring loaded closed. Option C. not spring loaded. Download an old copy from the Forum. 1. Question Number. A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.

. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators. NIL. 4. Question Number. 2.. may charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low. Explanation. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system. Question Number. Option B. in-phase with other generators and CBA only. 5.Correct Answer is. NIL. A battery in situ on an aircraft charges at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains constant. may charge at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low. Option B. in-phase with other generators and ABC. Option C. Option A. phase A must be. for ground use only. must be in-phase prior to paralleling. Correct Answer is. the phase of the second generator to be brought on line. the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft. in-phase with other generators and CBA only. 3. Option A. NIL. is important if the first generator fails. NIL. Option A. Option C. Question Number. Option A. may charge at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low. When an autopilot is Fail Passive. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Explanation. Option B. must be in-phase prior to paralleling. Explanation. 90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC. Option B. is unimportant. the aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot.

the pilot must resume control and land the aircraft. 200V. below bus voltage. 6. The 10 ohm shunt. allow excessive current to the load circuit. Question Number. What is the voltage across the shunt winding?. Option B. Explanation. Correct Answer is. Option A. Explanation. Question Number. 212V.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load. the same as bus voltage. current limiters. Option A. Option C. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown. So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer to 200V than the other two answers. output voltage at the load is 200V. prevent excessive current to the load circuit. prevent excessive current to the field circuit. . 0. 7. Option A. On a direct current circuit.06 ohm). On a direct current twin generator system. above bus voltage.04 ohm are the field windings.12V (across the 0. Question Number. Pallett Automatic Flight Control p211. prevent excessive current to the load circuit. but only by 0.Option C. Explanation. 206V. NIL. Correct Answer is. the paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming generators voltage is. The generator output is split between the 0. 8. the autoland can continue. Option C.06/100x 200V = 0. Option C. 200V. Correct Answer is. Option B.06 ohm and the 0. Option B.

Explanation. Radio deviation is VOR or ILS. NIL. The deviation indicator is duplicated. 12. the decision height is selected. NIL. Option A. Option B. height and range to beacon. Correct Answer is. EHSI. Correct Answer is. Explanation. 2 Months. On a flight management system. Explanation. 11. Question Number. The decision height light will illuminate when. Question Number. the database is updated every. Option C.Correct Answer is. 9. Option B. 3 Months. Option A. Option A. It is on the EHSI and EADI. NIL. Correct Answer is. Option C. 1 Month. 10. On an aircraft's navigation displays. Question Number. Radio deviation is shown on. Question Number. EHSI & EADI. Option A. Explanation. distance measuring equipment gives. . EADI. the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height. slant range to beacon. EHSI & EADI. slant range to beacon. the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system. the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height. Correct Answer is. Option C. NIL. Option C. Option B. above bus voltage. Option B. 1 Month. ground range to beacon. Explanation.

Option A. Option B. NIL. Mach information is derived from. Explanation. static pressure only. NIL. Option A. Correct Answer is. Option C. Explanation. 15. Question Number. Option C. Correct Answer is. Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from. 13. Altitude Module. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC). pitot pressure only. Option B. indicated air speed and total air temperature.Question Number. pitot and static air pressure. In a Central Air Data Computer. Question Number. NIL. static air pressure. pitot and static air pressure. altitude is produced from. Altitude Module. static air pressure. Option C. indicated airspeed and altitude. Option B. pitot air pressure. Indicated Airspeed Module. pitot and static pressures. indicated airspeed and altitude. 14. 16. NIL. Explanation. . Explanation. Correct Answer is. the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the. Correct Answer is. Option A. Question Number. Mach Module. Option C. Option A. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system. pitot air pressure and total air temperature. Option B. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC).

Total Air Temperature. Static Air Pressure. . In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system. Option C. NIL. Total Air Temperature. Explanation. True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach information and. Option B. Pitot Air Pressure. 17. Correct Answer is.Question Number. Option A.

james cristineNovember 1. 2017 at 1:10 AM Nice blog. Looking for more updates in future. Thanks for sharing the information.Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to FacebookShare to Pinterest 1 comment: 1. Thin Ball Bearings Reply Home . it provides many informative and helpful articles.

Mathematics  Module 02. Electrical Fundamentals  Module 04. Physics  Module 03. Human Factors  Module 10.Maintenance Practice  Module 08. Structures & Systems  Module 15. Materials & Hardware  Module 07.Digital Techniques  Module 06.Subscribe to: Posts (Atom) Pages  Home  Module 01. Propeller . Aeroplane Aerodynamics.(B1) Electronic Fundamentals  Module 05. Gas Turbine Engine  Module 17.Aviation Legislation  Module 11.Basic Aerodynamics  Module 09.

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