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Multiple Choice Practice Questions & Answers on

Environmental Science & Ecology

1. Ecology deals with the study of:

a) Living beings
b) Living and non living components
c) Reciprocal relationship between living and non living components
d) Environment

2. Autecology deals with

a) Ecology of species
b) Ecology of many species
c) Ecology of community

d) All the above

3. Synecology deals with

a) Ecology of many species
b) Ecology of many populations
c) Ecology of community
d) None of the above

4. Ecotype is a type of species in which environmentally induced

variations are

a) Temporary
b) Genetically fixed
c) Genetically not related
d) None of the above

5. The term ‘Biocoenosis’ was proposed by

a) Transley
b) Carl Mobius
c) Warming
d) None of the above

6. The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is
a) Always upright
b) May be upright or invented
c) Always inverted
d) None of the above

7. Energy flow in ecosystem is

a) Unidirectional
b) Bidirectional
c) Multidirectional
d) None of the above

8. An ecosystem must have continuous external source of

a) minerals

b) energy
c) food
d) All of the above
9. The source of energy in an ecosystem is
a) ATP
b) Sunlight
c) D.N.A

d) R.N.A

10. Trophic levels are formed by


a) Only plants
b) only animals
c) Only carnivorous
d) Organisms linked in food chain

11. Biotic potential is counteracted by

a) Competition with other organisms

b) Producer is the largest
c) Limitation of food supply
d) None of the above

12. Definition of ecosystem is
a) The community of organisms together with the environment in which
they live
b) The abiotic component of a habitat
c) The part of the earth and its atmosphere which inhibits living
d) A community of organisms interacting with one another

13. In a food chain of grassland ecosystem the top consumers are

a) Herbivorous
c) Bacteria

d) Either carnivorous or herbivorous

14. MAB stands for

a) Man and biosphere

b) Man, antibiotics and bacteria
c) Man and biotic community
d) Mayer, Anderson and Bisby

15. Species that occur in different geographical regions separated by

special barrier are:

a) Allopatric
b) Sympatric

c) Sibling
d) None of the above

16. Which one is true?

a) symbiosis when neither population affects each other

b) symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the populations
c) commensalism when none of the interacting populations affect each
d) commensalism when the interaction is useful to both the populations

17. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

a) mutualism
b) Intraspecific competition
c) Interspecific competition
d) Predation on one another

18. Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example for

a) mutualism
b) parasitism
c) amensalism
d) commensalism

19. Pencillium does not swallow the growth of

bacterium Staphylococcus. This sort of relationship is called

a) commensalism
b) predation
c) amensalism
d) mutualism
20. Symbiosis is shown by

a) E.coli

b) Cuscuta
c) Rafflesia
d) Monotropa

21. When both partners are affected negatively the nature of

interaction is

a) commensalism
b) competition
c) predation
d) amensalism

22. An association between two individuals or populations where

both are benefitted and where neither can survive without the other
a) competition
b) commensalism
c) mutualism
d) protocoperation

23. Which of the following interactions will not promote co


a) commensalism
b) mutualism

c) parasitism
d) interspecific competition

24. The effect of interspecific competition on niches is to make
them re
a) larger
b) smaller
c) more triangular
d) change location

25. Mycorrhiza represents


a) symbiotic association between a fungus and liverworts

b) parasitic association between a fungus and an alga
c) parasitic association between a fungus and roots of plants
d) symbiotic association between a fungus and roots of higher plants .

26. The pioneers in xerach succession is the

a) crustose lichen
b) mosses
c) foliose lichen
d) shrubs
27. The final stable community in an ecological succession is called

a) final community
b) ultimate community
c) climax community
d) seral community

28. The process of successful establishment of the species in a new

area is called

a) sere

b) climax
c) invasion
d) ecesis

29. The order of basic processes involved in succession is
a) Nudation->Invasion-> competition and co action->reaction-
b) Nudation->stabilization-> competition and co action->Invasion-
c) Invasion-> Nudation->competition and co action->Reaction-

d) Invasion->stabilization-> competition and co action->Reaction-


30. The formation of a climax community from an abandoned farm

land is a an example of

a) Autogenic succession
b) allogenic successsion
c) primary succession
d) secondary succession

31. Succession initiated on large sand deposits or deserts is called

a) hydrosere
b) psammosere
c) xerosere
d) oxylosere
32. The development of a bare area without any life form is called

a) nudation
b) ecesis
c) sere
d) reaction

33. The conversion of a pond to a climax forest community is an

example of

a) xerarch succession
b) mesarch succession

c) hydrarch succession
d) all of these

34. The intermediate developmental stages in the ecological
succession is called re
a) sere
b) ecesis
c) climax
d) nudation

35. All the statements are correct regarding ecological succession



a) It is a random process

b) Species diversity increases as succession proceeds

c) The food chain relationships becomes more complex
d) The role of decomposers becomes more and more important

36. The order of succession in a lithosere or xerosere is

a) Foliose lichen stage->Crustose lichen stage->moss stage->herb stage-
>shrub stage->forest stage (climax community)
b) Crustose lichen stage->Foilose lichen stage->moss stage->herb stage-
>shrub stage->forest stage (climax community)
c) Moss stage ->Foilose lichen stage-> Crustose lichen stage ->herb
stage->shrub stage->forest stage (climax community)
d) Crustose lichen stage->Foilose lichen stage->moss stage-> ->shrub
stage-> herb stage->forest stage (climax community)
37. The order of succession in a hydrosere is

a) Rooted aquatic plants-> phytoplankton->Free floating stage->Reed

swamp stage->Sedge Meadow stage-> wood land stage-> Climax forest
b) Rooted aquatic plants-> phytoplankton->Free floating stage-> Sedge
Meadow stage-> Reed swamp stage-> wood land stage-> Climax forest
c) phytoplankton->Rooted aquatic plants->Free floating stage->Reed
swamp stage-> wood land stage-> Sedge Meadow stage-> Climax forest
d) phytoplankton->Rooted aquatic plants->Free floating stage->Reed
swamp stage->Sedge Meadow stage-> wood land stage-> Climax forest

38. The pyramid of numbers is inverted in the case of

a) parasitic food chain

b) Grassland ecosystem
c) Forest ecosystem re
d) lake ecosystem

39. The concept of ecological pyramid was first proposed by


a) E.P. Odum
b) A.G. Tansley

c) Juday
d) Charles Elton

40. The pyramid of energy in terrestrial ecosystem is

a) upright
b) inverted
c) spindle shaped
d) irregular

41. Which of the following ecological pyramid is always upright?

a) Pyramid of energy
b) Pyramid of number
c) Pyramid of biomass
d) none of these

42. The pyramid of numbers in a single tree is

a) upright
b) inverted
c) spindle shaped
d) none of these

43. A graphic representation of number of individuals of different

species belonging to each trophic level in a an ecosystem is known

a) ecological pyramid
b) pyramid of biomass re
c) pyramid of number
d) pyramid of energy
44. The pyramid of biomass is inverted in

a) forest ecosystem

b) grassland ecosystem
c) fresh water ecosystem

d) tundra

45. In pond ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is

a) upright
b) inverted
c) spindle shaped
d) none of these

46. In grassland ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is

a) upright
b) inverted
c) spindle shaped
d) none of these

47. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding

ecological pyramids
a) The pyramid of energy is inverted in ocean ecosystem
b) The pyramid of biomass is inverted in aquatic ecosystem
c) The pyramid of numbers is upright in grass land ecosystem
d) The pyramid of biomass is upright in grass land ecosystem

48. Organisms having the potential for interbreeding and producing
fertile offspring is called

a) Class
b) Order re
c) Genus
d) Species
49. A group of individuals of a plant or animal species, inhabiting a
given area is called

a) Biome
b) Population

c) Ecosystem
d) Community

50. Climate includes

a) Seasonal variation
b) General patterns of atmosphere conditions
c) Average weather of an area
d) All of these

51. The maintenance of relatively constant internal environment is

a) Homeostasis
b) Exotherms
c) Homeobox
d) Endotherms

52. Ultraviolet radiation which is not lethal but harm to the

organism is

a) 0.1 to 0.28 µm
b) 0.28-0.32 µm

c) 0.32-0.4 µm
d) 0.4-0.5 µm

53. Ecological niche of an organism represents

a) The resource it utilizes

b) Functional role in the ecological system
c) The range of conditions that it can tolerate
d) all of these

54. Respiratory roots are known as


a) velamen

b) pneumatophores
c) hydathodes
d) prop roots

55. The gradual physiological adjustment to slowly changing new

environmental conditions is known as

a) Selection
b) Introduction
c) Acclimatization
d) Quarantine
56.Upper layer of water in a single body of water is known as

a) Hypolimnion
b) Epilimnion
c) thermocline
d) Hydroline

57. The lower limit of water availability is soil is known as

a) field capacity
b) Hypolimnion

c) thermocline
d) wilting point

58. MAB program stands for

a) Man and biotechnology

b) Material and biology
c) Man and Biology
d) Man and Biosphere

59. Red data book contains data of


a) all plant species

b) all animal species
c) economically important species

d) threatened species

60. IUCN (The International Union For Conservation Of Nature And

Natural Resources) headquarters is at

a) Morges, Switzerland
b) Paris, France
c) Vienna, Austria
d)NewYork, USA

61. IUCN is also called as

a) Man and Biosphere program

b) World Conservation Union
c) World Conservation Consortium
d) World Wide Conservation Union

62. Which of the following region has maximum diversity

a) mangrooves
b) temperate rainforest
c) taiga
d)coral reefs

63. Approximately, 50% of total world species are present on

a) tropical rain forest

b) temperate rain forest
c) temperate deciduous forest
d) coral reefs

64. Biodiversity re
a) increases towards the equator
b) decreases towards the equator
c) remains same throughout the planet
d) has no effect on change in latitude

65. The most important reason for decrease in biodiversity is


a) habitat pollution
b) introduction of exotic species

c) over-exploitation
d) habitat destruction

66. Dodo is

a) endangered
b) critically endangered
c) rare
d) extinct

67. Blue whale is placed under

a) endangered
b) critically endangered
c) rare
d) extinct

68. Conservation within the natural habitat is

a) insitu conservation
b) exsitu conservation
c) invivo conservation
d)exvivo conservation

69. All are insitu conservation efforts except

a) National parks

b) Sanctuaries
c) Zoo
d) biosphere reserves

70. Ex situ conservation includes re
a) Zoo
b) Botanic garden
c) Germplasm bank
d) all of the above

71. Hot spots are regions of high


a) rarity
b) endemism

c) critically endangered population

d) diversity

72. Endemic species are

a) rare species
b) species localised in a specific region
c) cosmopolitan in distribution
d) critically endangered species

73. What is the animal symbol of W. W. F (World Wildlife Fund) ?
a) Red Panda
b) Giant Panda
c) Tiger
d) Kangaroo

74. The most important human activity, leading to the extinction of

wildlife, is

a) Pollution of wildlife, is
b) Hunting for valuable wildlife products
c) Introduction of alien species
d) Alternation and destruction of the natural habitats

75. If we uncover half of the forest, covering of the earth, what
crisis will be produced at most and at first?

a) Some species will be extincted
b) Population and ecological imbalance will rise up
c) Energy crisis will occur
d) Rest half forests will maintain this imbalance

76. When is the World Wildlife week ?


a) First week of September

b) Last week of September

c) First week of October

d) Last week of October

77. Red Data Book Provides data on

a) Red flowered plants

b) Red colored fishes
c) Lists of plants and animals
d) Endangered plants and animals

78. Wild life is continuously decreasing. What is the main reason of


a) Predation
b) Cutting down of forest
c) Destruction of habitat
d) Hunting
79. What is the major cause of diminishing wildlife number?

a) Felling of trees
b) Cannibalism
c) Habitat destruction
d) Paucity of drinking water

80. Viable material of endangered species can be preserved by

a) Gene bank
b) Gene library
c) Gene pool

d) Herbarium

81. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of

endangered species?

a) Mammals
b) Fishes
c) Birds
d) Reptiles

82. Which of the following is mainly responsible for the extinction

of wild life

a) Pollution of air and water

b) Hunting of flesh

c) Destruction of Habitats
d) All of these

83. The unfavourable alteration of environment due to human

activities is termed as

a) ecological disturbance
b) catastrophe
c) ecological degradation
d) pollution
84. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution

a) bryophyte
b) pteridophyte
c) Lichen
d) algae

85. Heavy dust can cause

a) leaf blights
b) opening of stomata

c) closure of stomata
d) browning of leaves

86. Which of the following is the major cause of pollution
a) plants
b) man
c) fungi
d) hydrocarbon gases

87. Minamata disease was caused by pollution of water by


a) mercury
b) lead
c) tin
d) methyl iso cyanate

88. BOD stands for

a) biotic oxidation demand

b) biological oxidation demand
c) biological oxygen demand
d)biochemical oxygen demand
89. A river with high BOD value is

a) highly polluted
b) highly clean
c) highly productive
d) none of these

90. 5th June is observed as

a) world forest day

b) world environment day

c) world wildlife day
d) world population day

91. Cement factory labourers are prone to

a) leukemia
b) bone marrow disease
c) asbestosis
d) cytosilicosis

92. Noise is measured using sound meter and the unit is


a) hertz
b) decibel

c) joule
d) sound

93. The undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological

characteristics of air, land and water is referred as

a) pollutants
b) ecodestructions
c) pollution
d) all of these

94. Radiation can cause
a) cardiac disease
b) Haemophilia
c) leukemia
d)bone marrow diseases

95. Which of the radioactive material is largely associated with bone


a) radium-226
b) thorium-232
c) Strontium-90
d) iodine

96. Lead poisoning

a) reduces O2 carrying capacity of haemoglobin in blood

b) increases O2 carrying capacity of haemoglobin in blood
c) reduces O2 carrying capacity of myoglobin in muscles
d) increases O2 carrying capacity of myoglobin in muscles
97. Acid rain contains
a) sulphuric acid
b) nitric acid
c) both a and b

d) sulphuric acid, nitric acid and hydrochloric acid

98. The occurrence of pesticides like DDT in higher trophic levels is


termed as

a) bioremediation
b) biomagnification
c) biological enhancement
d) biopollution

99. Earth summit was held in

a) Stockholm in 1972
b) Rio de Jeneiro in 1992
c) Paris in 1992
d) New York in 1972
100. All are physical pollutants except

a) heat
b) sound
c) radiations
d) soot

101. All are primary pollutants except

a) Ammonia
b) Peroxy Acyl Nitrate (PAN)
c) sulphur dioxide
d) hydrogen sulphide

102. Pollutants that are introduced into the environment by human
activity are called as

a) qualitative pollutants
b) quantitative pollutants
c) anthropogenic pollutants
d) all of these
103. Air pollution is severe in

a) Cities
b) Industrialised areas
c) Densely populated areas

d) all of these

104. Particulate pollutants are

a) are small solid particles and liquid droplets

b) liquid droplets in atmosphere
c) are small solid particles released into the atmosphere
d) all of these

105. All are particulate pollutants except

a) dust
b) ozone
c) soot
d) smoke

106. Fine organic or inorganic particles suspended in air is called

a) particulate pollutant
b) gaseous pollutant
c) aerosol
d) none of these

107. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant

a) CO2

b) CO
c) O3
d) SO2

108. Air pollution can be of re
a) natural origin
b) artificial or man made origin
c) both a and b
d) b only

109. Mobile combustion accounts


a) 10-20% of air pollution

b) 40-50% of air pollution

c) 50-60 % of air pollution

d) 5-10 % of air pollution

110. The true statement about ‘green house effect’ is that it is

a) caused by combination of many gases

b) caused by CO2
c) caused only by CO2, CFC, CH4 and NO2 gases
d) None of these

111. The supersonic jets cause pollution by the thinning of

a) CO2 layer
b) SO2 layer
c) O3 layer
d) O2 layer

112. Carbon mono oxide is a pollutant because

a) it reacts with O2
b) it inhibits glycolysis
c) makes nervous system inactive
d) reacts with haemoglobin

113. A population is a group of

a) individuals in a species

b) species in a community
c) communities in an ecosystem
d) individuals in a family
114.What is the most important factor for the success of animal
a) natality
b) adaptability

c) unlimited food
d) inter species activity

115. The formula for exponential population growth is


a) dN/dt = rN
b) dt/dN = rN
c) dN/rN = dt
d) rN/dN = dt

116. Human population growth curve is a:

a) S shaped curve
b) parabola curve
c) J shaped curve
d) zig zag curve
117. Exponential growth occurs when there is

a) a great environmental resistance

b) no environmental resistance
c) no biotic potential
d) a fixed carrying capacity

118. A human population is small, there is a greater chance of :

a) gene flow
b) genetic drift
c) natural selection
d) mutation

119. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called as

a) carrying capacity
b) biotic potential
c) birth rate
d) fertility rate
120. The concept that 'population tends to increase geometrically
while food supply increases arithmetically’ was put forward by

a) Adam Smith
b) Charles Darwin
c) Thomas Malthus

d) Stuart Mill

121. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of

every population. One of them is related to the ability to reproduce
at a given rate. The force opposite to it is called

a) fecundity
b) mortality
c) environmental resistances
d) biotic control

122. The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its

a) population growth rate
b) natality
c) mortality
d) limiting resources

123. The major pollutant from automoblie exhaust is

a) NO
b) CO
c) SO2
d) Soot

124. The green house gases, otherwise called radioactively active

gases includes

a) Carbon dioxide
b) CH4
c) N2O
d) All of these
125. Algal bloom results in

a) Global warming

b) Salination
c) Eutrophication
d) Biomagnification

126. A high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates that:

a) water is pure
b) absence of microbial action
c) Low level of microbial pollution
d) High level of microbial pollution

127. The effects of radioactive pollutants depends upon

a) Rate of diffusion
b) energy releasing capacity
c) rate of deposition of the contaminant
d) all of these

128. The range of normal human hearing is in the range of

a) 10 Hz to 80 Hz
b) 50 Hz to 80 Hz
c) 50Hz to 15000 Hz
d) 15000 Hz and above

129. The pollution which does not persistent harm to life

supporting system is

a) Noise pollution

b) Radiation pollution
c) Organochlorine pollution re
d) All of these

130. Soap and detergents are the source of organic pollutants like:

a) glycerol
b) polyphosphates

c) sulphonated hydrocarbons
d) all of these

131. Growing agricultural crops between rows of planted trees is

known as
a) Social forestry
b) Jhum
c) Taungya system
d) Agroforestry

132. The main atmospheric layer near the surface of earth is

a) troposphere
b) mesophere
c) ionosphere
d) stratosphere

133. Man made sources of radiation pollution are:

a) mining
b) explosion of nuclear weapons
c) nuclear fuels and preparation of radioactive isotopes
d) all of these

134. The cutting down of trees and setting them on fire and raising
crops on the resulting ash is called:

a) Pyrolysis

b) Jhum
c) Taungya system
d) Shift cultivation
135. Percentage of forest area recommended by the the national
forest policy for plains is

a) 33%

b) 67%
c) 30%
d) 10%

136. Example of primary pollutant

a) SO2
b) NO2
c) CO

137.Commonly used radioactive isotopes in scientific research

a) 14 C
b) 125 I
c) 32 P
d) all of these

138. Drinking of fluoride containing water results :

a) fluorosis
b) chlorosis
c) minemata
d) methaemoglobinema

139. Chipco movement is a public agitation that occurred in

a) Mansbal area in Kashmir
b) Silent valley in Kerala

c) Sundarban area in Bengal
d) Tehri Garhwal area of Uttar Pradesh
140. High biological oxygen demand indicates:

a) absence of microbial pollution

b) moderate microbial pollution

c) intense level of microbial pollution

d) all of these

141. Ozonosphere seen in

a) ionosphere
b) thermosphere
c) mesophere
d) stratosphere

142. Harmful trace metals in fly ash:

a) antimony
b) cadmium
c) arsenic
d) all of the above

143. In a pyramid of numbers, in a grassland ecosystem, the largest

population is that of

a) Producers
b) Tertiary Consumers
c) Secondary consumers
d) Herbivores
e) Primary consumers

144. Which of the following group of gases cause photochemical


a) Ozone, PAN and CO

b) HC, NO and PAN
c) O2, PAN, and NO2
d) O2, PAN and NO2 (e) O3, PAN and NO2
145. Which of the following statements regarding species
interdependence are true?
A) An association of two species where one is benefitted and other
remains unaffected called mutualism

B) An interspecific association where both partners derive benefit from

each other is called commensalism
C) A direct food relation between two species of animals in which one

animals kills and feed on another is referred as predation

D) A relationship between two species of organism where both the
partners are benefitted from each other is called symbiosis.

a) A and B only
b) C and D only
c) A and C only
d) B and C only
e) B and D only

146. The species of plants that play a vital role in controlling the
relative abundance of other species in a community are called
a) Edge species
b) Link species
c) Pioneer species
d) Successional species
e) Keystone species

147. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species

invasion and co extinction are causes for

a) Population exploitation
b) Pollution
c) Migration
d) Ecological succession

e) Biodiversity loss

148. The formula of growth rate for population in given time is

a) dt/dN=rN
b) dt/rN=dN
c) dt/rN=dt
d) dN/dt=rN

149. One greenhouse gas contributes 14% to total global warming

and another contributes 6%. These are respectively identified as

a) N2O and CO2

b) CFCs and N2O

c) Methane and CO2

d) Methane and CFCs
e) CFCs and CO2

150. Which of the following is false?

a) Quantity of biomass in a trophic level at a particular period is called as

standing crop
b) The energy content in a trophic level is determined is determined by
considering a few individuals of a species in that trophic level.
c) The succession that occurs in newly cooled lava is called primary
d) Rate of succession is faster in secondary succession
e) phytoplanktons are the pioneers in the aquatic ecosystem
151. Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in sea water
and vice versa mainly because of the

a) Change in N levels
b) Change in the levels of thermal tolerance
c) Variations in light intensity
d) Osmotic problems
e) Spectral quality of solar radiation

152. Which of the following regarding ecological pyramids is not


a) In most ecosystems, the pyramid of numbers and biomass are up
b) In tree dominated ecosystem the pyramid of numbers is inverted

c) The pyramid of energy expresses mainly the rate of food production
d) In deep water ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is upright
e) The total energy flow at successive tropical level always decreases
1. c 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. b
6. a 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. d

11. d 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. a

16. b 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. a
21. b 22. c 23. a 24. b 25. d

26. a 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. d

31. b 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. a
36. b 37. d 38. a 39. d 40. a
41. a 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. b
46. a 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. d
51. a 52. b 53. d 54. b 55. c
56. b 57. d 58. d 59. d 60. a
61. b 62. d 63. a 64. a 65. d
66. d 67. a 68. a 69. c 70. d
71. b 72. b 73. b 74. d 75. a
76. c 77. d 78. c 79. c 80. a
81. a 82. d 83. d 84. c 85. c
86. d 87. a 88. c 89. a 90. b
91. d 92. b 93. c 94. c 95. c
96. a 97. c 98. b 99. b 100. d
101. B 102. a 103. d 104. a 105. b
106. c 107. c 108. c 109. c 110. c
111. c 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. a
116. c 117. b 118. b 119. c 120. c
121. b 122. d 123. b 124. d 125. c
126. d 127. d 128. c 129. a 130. d
131. c 132. a 133. d 134. b 135. a
136. d 137. d 138. a 139. d 140. c
141. d 142. d 143. a 144. e 145. b
146. e 147. e 148. d 149. b 150. b
151. d 152. a