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AIIMS MAY 2013-QUESTIONS PHYSIOLOGY AND MEDICINE

ANATOMY 9. Transport of carbon monoxide is diffusion limited
because
1. Taste sensation from tongue is not carried by A. High affinity of CO for haemoglobin
A. Vii nerve B. Alveolar membrane is less permeable to CO
B. Ix nerve C. CO crosses epithelial barrier slowly
C. X nerve D. On exposure to air there is sudden increase in
D. V nerve partial pressure

2. Taste sensations from circumvallate papilla are 10. 28 years female with history of recurrent abortion,
carried through bleeding from joints and pain in calves for 4 years
A. Facial nerve has deficiency of
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve A. Factor 13
C. Trigeminal nerve B. Protein C
D. Vagus nerve C. Plasmin
D. Thrombin
3. Muscle responsible for mouth opening
A. Masseter 11. A 60 year old male with uncontrolled
B. Lateral pterygoid hypertension and sign of renal failure on biopsy
C. Medial pterygoid shows medial thickening of arteries with onion
D. Temporal skin appearance
A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
4. TMJ develops at age of B. Thromboangitis obliteratans
A. 3 week C. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
B. 8 week D. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
C. 10 week
D. 18 week 12. In an experiment, a scientist injected myeloid
stem cells in an ablated animal. At the end of
5. Dangerous zone of scalp is incubation period he found colonies of
A. Pericranium A. Erythrocytes
B. Subcutaneous junction B. T lymphocytes
C. Muscular aponeurosis C. Fibroblasts
D. Loose areolar tissue D. Hematopoetic stem cells

6. Deepest layer of deep cervical fascia 13. Neuroimaging in tuberous sclerosis shows all
A. Carotid sheath except
B. Vertebral A. Subependymal nodes
C. Visceral B. Giant cell astrocytoma
D. Prevertebral C. Ependymoma
D. White matter lesion
7. In facial nerve injury just above the branching of
chorda tymphanic nerve, which is not seen 14. In pregnancy maximum cardiac output is seen at
A. Paralysis of facial muscles A. 20 week
B. Decreased salivation B. 22 week
C. Loss of taste sensation C. 28 week
D. Hyperacusis D. 34 week

8. Which of the following is not true about facial 15. 4 year old girl presented with history of viral
nerve infection and vomiting for five days and
A. Secretomotor to submandibular gland hospitalized with cerebral edema, liver biopsy
B. Large motor and small sensory root will reveal
C. Supplies anterior belly of digastrics A. Necrosis
D. Parasymphathetic innervations to palatal and B. Non alcoholic steatohepatitis
nasal glands C. Central hemorrhagic necrosis

Micro vesicular steatohepatitis B. None C. Better levels of factor VIII are achieved by D. Arginine 25. Streptomycin B. Arterial contraction infusion of A.90* and 45* D. 85* and 110* 22. Which of the following can be D. 10 roengten C. Peliosis heaptis C. None lymphoma D.5 billion 26. Glycine B. Down C. 6. 29.2 billion mandibulofacial dysostosis A. having type II DM and hyperlipidemia undergoes liver biopsy. what can structures of chromosomes is known as be the possible diagnosis A. 1. Tricuspid bulging 16. Nodular lymphocytic Hodgkin lymphoma 19. A 32 year old lady having painless palpable left C. Granulomatous giant cell lesion A.5 billion ORAL PATHOLOGY. Penicillin G 27. Halo effect surrounding the root of teeth on IOPA which of the following will be seen x-rays suggests A. size and fine CD 30 positivity on immumochemistry. nausea. Fresh frozen plasma A. In the jugular venous pulse the C wave indicates A. Maximum recommended dose for dental x ray B. Non alcoholic steato-hepatitis A. Karytyping B. Sulfisoxazole operator in a week C. Turner D. Vertical maxillary excess 20. 300 roengten headache. A 70 year old patient comes with complain of D. Autoimmune hepatitis D. 3 billion RADIOLOGY C. Fresh blood B. Mandibular prognathism prescribed to him A. Chromosome mapping A. Lymphocytic predominant Hodgkin D. 100 roengten 21. Acute liver cirrhosis B. Normal vision with coloboma penicillin. D. tenderness over temporal region diagnosis is 28. 110*. Widening of PDL C. Anaplastic large cell lymphoma C. Reactive nodular hyperplasia B. 100 milliroengten D. Giant cell arteritis B. Leaucine supraclavicular lymph node revealed acidophilic D. Klinefelter 17. Which of the following is best angulation for A. Genotype C. Mandibulofacial dysostosis A. Amino acid both glycogenic and ketogenic D. Horizontal root fracture B. An obese female 40 yrs of age. Sulfasalazine A. Periapical periostitis 23. Which of the following is characteristic of D. Rapid ventricular filling . ORAL MEDICINE AND B. Atrial filling C. A 25 years old person with history of repeated B. Cryoprecipitate 24. Which of the following syndromes have 45 B. 4. The process of studying the shape. Desmopressin chromosomes C. Aneurysm diagnosis of vertical root fractures B. 45* C. 45* and 90* D. Normal hearing episodes of rheumatic fever is hypersensitive to C. No of base pairs in human genome DNA A. Isoleucine double nuclei owl eye appearance of lymph node on histopathological examination with CD15 & 18. Root caries D.

Silicon putty C. 8 mg/kg body weight molar D. Zone of bacterial invasion B. Zone of decomposed dentin hours C. Nerve fibres seen in dental pulp A. Ketamine A. Verapamil D. Bleomycin C. Manifestation of poisoning occurs after 24-30 D. Sound waves 42. Impression plaster 40. Sodium valproate D. premolar before D. Lithium interfers with non depolarizing muscle D. 3 days C. 1 day A. 1 year A. It is amide linked LA type . Medazolam B. 3 year C. Eruption of permanent mandibular incisor 31. Zone of decalcification A. which fibres are responsible for pain A. Which of the following is false about paracetamol A. 10 mg ingested dose is safely tolerable 34. Bite mark of an offender in case of child abuse should be recorded with PHARMACOLOGY A. Laser light C. 12 year D. Carbamazapine 33. 50 mg/kg body weight C. Which drug does not cause gingival hyperplasia B. Pascal’s law B. N acetyl cysteine is used as antidote C. 1 year C. Eruption of maxi 2nd molar before max 2nd B. Both b and c C. Motor fibres B. 2 days B. 5 mg/kg body weight B. 3 years D. None 32. 3 years C. Tetracycline prescription should be avoided in A. 21 year 39. In dentinal caries which of the following zone on histopathology show no bacteria 41. 4 days D. Visible light prevents its toxicity B. Symphathetic and afferent nerve fibres children below what age B. 2 years D. 30. Parasymphathetic nerve fibres A. C fibres C. Enamel maturation is not completed at birth it A. Halothane D. 6 months takes additional-----years to complete B. N acetylcysteine binds to glutathione and A. Beers law D. Polyvinyl siloxane B. Suxamethonium is available as clear liquid has a shelf life 36. Pulse oximetry in based on A. In EPT. 8 year D. Nanotechnology for detection relaxant should be stopped how many days prior to surgery 35. Which of these is clinically not significant A. A gamma D. Articane is used in children not true about it is 38. Which of the following can be given through nasal drop in conscious sedation in children 37. Eruption of maxillary canine. Doppler’s law C. Which of the following used in diagnodent D. Minimum dose of tetracycline to cause staining is before permanent mandibular molar A. Diazepam C. 2 years B. Poiselle law DENTAL ANATOMY AND HISTOLOGY 43. C fibres 45. Alginate A. Dentinal sclerosis poisoning B. 20 mg/kg body weight premolar C. A delta B. 4 years 44.

What is its dosage A. None all except A. More potent A. Pont’s 50. Class 3 . 350 D. Arch dimensions remain stable through out B. True about midazolam over diazepam in sedation D. Toxicity is decreased due to rapid breakdown mandible in plasma 53. Which of the following drug causes malignant cleft palate is hyperprexia A. Hyosine butyl bromide B. Suxamethonium 55. Plasma half life 90 min B. Anterior open bite A. All of the following assumptions are considered 48. 250 59. 6 year B. Peck and peck more avidity C. Cleft lip and plate repair should be carried out at 46. Increased interincisal angel is feature of 51. 0.5 mg/kg 54. Rotated anteriors C. class II type D is B. Binds to benzodiazpne receptors with 3-4 times B. 3 months D. 8 year A. Ashley howe D. 125 C.01 mg/kg B. 14 year old boy with class III div 1 malocculsion blood which model analysis method is used to decide to B. Retrognathic maxilla and Retrognathic D. Unilateral or bilateral posterior cross bite D. Growth of maxilla is by B. Class 2 div 2 A. Labio columellar angle decreases in A. Class 2 div 1 52. Anterior deep bite B. Atropine A. Prognathic maxilla and orthognathic mandible C. 12 month C. Hyosine hydrobromide growth C. Bimax cases mandible D. Most common sequel of surgical correction of 47. 0. Less thrombophlebitis due to low solubility in 56. Drift and displacement C. 0.2 mg/kg D. Class II div I created how much distal force on molars B. Cis-Atracurium D. Prediction tables are not valid 49. Propofol C. Orthognathic maxilla and orthognathic C. 0. More plasma binding and less toxicity do extraction or not C. 75 D. 90 degree activation of pendulum appliance A. Cis atracurium is one of the f10 isomers of the age of atracurium. Gingival hyperplasia is seen in all except A. Bleomycin 57. Bolton’s D.15 mg/kg C. Apposition D. B. Sodium valproate A. Glycopyronium bromide populations C. Class III cases C. Verapamil B. Class II div II A. Prediction tables are most valid for all D. Moyers classification. Bimax cases B. Thiopentone B. Resorption ORTHODONTICS 58. Orthognathic maxilla and Retrognathic mandibular deciduous molars and more mandible effective than block D. Carbamazapine C. Drift only D. Infiltration is sufficient for removal of C. All of the following crosses blood brain barrier true when doing space analysis for calculating except space discrepancy except A.

015-0. Increase the dose from 1. Acts as a partial barrier 61. Cross longitudinal 63. Other parameters of C. Clean and curette root surface and reimplant A. Annealing C. Hawley appliance for 6 months D. Is an ester derivative C. do RCT and reimplant B. Tin hydroxyl phosphate 60. Acute apical periodontitis A. Mothers caries incidence best reply A. Advice ap view to check for tooth buds A. 16 yrs B. Role of placenta in fluoride transport to foetus.8 ml to 3. In children most suggestive caries risk index is A. B. Not true about aspartame B. Hawley appliance for 12 months reaching foetus is higher.25 stainless steel CONSERVATIVE DENTISTRY AND ENDODONTICS C. Secondary caries D. In caries assessment in children. 0. Chronic caries of DFG shows A. Gapping A.016-0.018-0. General hypoplasia D. Incipient caries 73.22 stainless steel B. Wait and watch 70. For root canal therapy to increase success of IANB mellitus which of the following should be done A. Clean root surface. Stanous triphosphate from 1:100000 to 1:50000 . Initial demineralization D. At normal temperature. Can be given to patients with type I diabetes 74. which one is not A. Intervention A. An 8 yr old child got trauma and got his central D.6 ml 67. Longitudinal D. Clean root surface with saline and reimplant high risk factor B. DMF and previous caries experience 62. Calorific value is 4 kcal D. Necrotic pulp which is asymptomatic 65.25 TMA 71. C. White opalescent areas on the tooth C. 0. Cross sectional C. Periapical inflamamtion B. Advice opg 2 check for tooth buds evaluated on different parameters at point of time C. Fluoride concentration in the area growth are in normal range. condensation or cohesion D. Wedging 66. Stannous diflouride A. No need of retainer as it is self corrected D. Regulator of fluoride and concentration diastemma which retainer should be used reaching foetus is lower than maternal levels A. 200 times more sweeter than sugar D. Pediatric consultation B. Lip gains it complete thickness or width of lip C. Atomic attraction B. Scrubbling of root surface and reimplant C.017-0. than maternal levels C. Regulator of fluoride and concentration B. 0.22 TMA incisor avulsed 20 minutes back which got PEDODONTICS AND PREVENTIVE DENTISTRY contaminated with debris the child rushes to the dental clinic with avulsed tooth the treatment is 64. Increase the concentration of the adrenalin A. Calcium triflouuride reaches maximum at D. In case of orthodontically treated midline C. 25 A. Saliva composition and flow teeth have not yet erupted. Lingual bonded retainer 69. 0. Dental caries cause due to pre-eruptive enamel B. 18 68. Occult caries C. No role of placenta B. In SnF2 metallic taste is due to B. Growth of the children of different age is B. Child with special problem or needs 72. 24 which one is false D. Acute periapical abscess defect C. Parents of a 10 month old child are worried as the B. Gjessing’s canine retractor is made up of D. What will be your D. Most common cause of the endodontic flare ups A.

22-41% B. 24 hrs A. 3-12% plaque in humans B. Sodium Benzoate B. 2. Patient with circulatory shock antigens D. D. Russel A. Submental space C. 0. 2% formalin is used fofixation D. 0. 1-2 hrs B. Makes tissue rigid disease. Kills microorganisms 78. Perforation trauma from occlusion A. Vertebral artery 80. Periodontal pockets with maxillary right lateral incisor that tooth is . T-lymphocytes sensitized to bacterial plaque antigens 84. Diameter of bristles used in soft tooth brushes is D. Pt with head injury B. Soluble immune complexes within involved A. Airway problem C. C. Most common cause of epidural hematoma C. Root resorption D. Na paraben 77. Preservative used in local anaesthesia in India is D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is caused due to B. To identify the key microorganism in periodontal D. 2-4 hrs the disc C. Pterygoid venous plexus D. Spirochetes are evident microscopically D. After enamel has been exposed to bacteria. Plasma cells B. In Gingivitis. Percentage of two canals in mandibular central 82. Agenesis 81. the role of immunoglobulins is C. Basilar artery irreversible bacterial colonization takes place in about 88. Anterior cerebral artery C. None C. Which is the characteristic feature of incisor supragingival plaque but not for subgingival A. Socransky 86. Slow the speed of injection D. Koch’s postulates have been modified by A. Make the solution carbonated C. Gram negative bacteria are predominant D. Bacterial composition is altered by dietary PERIODONTICS sugar consumption 76. Vermillon B.012 inch 87. A patient has an infectious process associated B. IgG antibodies reactive with plaque bacterial C. 0. All A. In bus accident which patient will be given because subjects with periodontitis have priority to be taken to the hospital A.5% lignocaine consistent with the increased number of D. Submandibular space A. Widening of periodontal ligament space 75. Fibroblasts B. Hypercementosis 89. It causes autolysis C. Motile bacteria are prominent C. Middle meningeal artery D. In Initial clicking of TMJ position of condyle is A.009 inch B. Maxillary sinus 79. Retruded position of the condyle posterior to D. Severe bleeding in patient with fracture leg gingival tissue B.007 inch B. Neutrophils 85. Epinephrine A. Few minutes the disc C. 0. Glikman spread of infection through C. It is likely that cell mediated immune reactions GENERAL SURGERY AND ORAL SURGERY (delayed hypersensitivity) occur in periodontitis 83.014 inch A. Which of following is not a radiographic sign of D. 12-22% A. Protruded position of the condyle anterior to B. Lymphocytes A. Not true about formalin? C.

Buccinator on superior constrictor C. Masseteric notch in lower impression is due to action of A. Masseter on buccinator D. Incision and Drainage D. Antibiotics. treatment for the patient should be A. Aspiration B. Superior constrictor on buccinator B. the patient has not been able to chew for the past 24 hours. Buccinator on masseter . The patient cannot open his right eye. on palpation the area is soft. The right side of the face is swollen. Antibiotics of Heat only C. deeply carious and non restorable. heat and fluid PROSTHODONTICS 90. His temperature is 102◦ ◦F. painful to touch and tissue rebound when palpated.