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Group II
Humanities and Social Sciences

GEOGRAPHY ..................................................................................................................... 2
Paper 0460/01 Paper 1 ................................................................................................................................. 2
Paper 0460/02 Paper 2 ................................................................................................................................. 5
Paper 0460/03 Paper 3 ................................................................................................................................. 8
Paper 0460/05 Alternative to Coursework..................................................................................................... 9

Paper 0460/01
Paper 1

General comments

The general performance on this Paper reflected that of former years. A wide range of marks was evident
with most candidates revealing that they had been entered for the most suitable option. As formerly, a few at
the top end of the mark distribution might have benefited by being entered for the Extended Paper (Paper 2).

Presentation of scripts was generally very satisfactory with most candidates clearly labelling their responses.
Most of the scripts presented this year continued to show improvements in the general standard of English,
although a number of candidates were clearly handicapped by language difficulties which affected their
reading and interpretation of individual questions and the effectiveness of their responses.

Previous reports on this examination have commented on the trend in some Centres for candidates to
answer more than the required number of questions, indeed some produce superficial responses for all six
questions. This practice should be discouraged as the candidates concerned invariably produce less detail
in the three answers which count towards the script total. On the whole candidates confined their attention to
the general paper rubric and produced three answers. Generally candidates do seem to be paying more
attention to the sub marks printed on the Question Paper in gauging the amount of detail and length of their
responses to the marks on offer. Candidates are also making better use of command words and phrases
used in questions. It would appear that they are becoming more aware of the content of the glossary in the
Notes for Guidance produced to accompany the IGCSE Syllabus for Geography.

All of the questions on the Paper include resources. These are designed to stimulate the knowledge and
understanding of the topics assessed. They are presented in a variety of formats for candidates to use in
formulating their responses to individual questions. The analysis and interpretation of these resources are
important skills tested in the questions. Satisfactory to good use was made of the resources on this Paper,
more detail will be provided in the second part of the report when individual questions are discussed in detail.

The most popular questions were Questions 1, 2 and 6.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Answers to all three parts of (a) scored well.

(a)(iii) Most candidates noted the trend of future population growth but few observed the extended time
period for the increase of each billion. Surprisingly many candidates did not accurately count the
number of African countries expected to have a population over 100 million in 2050 compared with
1998. Instead of three, many stated four or five.

(b)(ii) Many correctly identified the country as India but the computation of the increase of population over
the time period was frequently incorrect.

(iii) Responses were satisfactory although in B many did not observe that both Japan and Russia are
expected to show a population decline by 2050.

(iv) Most candidates commented on the relative trends of birth and death rates and produced good
answers. Others analysed the population changes completely in terms of migration and in
consequence presented irrelevant responses.

(c) Candidates were generally aware of the problems associated with an ageing population and
produced thorough explanations of the motives for international migration in (d). Answers to the
latter part question were often illustrated by well selected examples.

Question 2

(a)(i)(ii) A large number were able to identify and describe the distribution of buildings in each of the three
types of rural settlement shown on the maps in Figure 3. On other scripts there was confusion over
the terms used to describe the different patterns of settlement shown and there was some
confusion between rural and urban settlement with references being made to a town in describing

(iii) This part discriminated well between those who could identify reasons for differences in rural
settlement patterns and those who found this part question too difficult.

(b)(i) Interpretations of the graph (Figure 4) were generally satisfactory.

(ii) Explanations were frequently well stated in terms of rush hour traffic and increased car ownership.
Fig. 5 showing the effect of charges on the traffic flow in Singapore City was variously interpreted.
Most could identify the steep decline in both morning and evening peak traffic flows but other
features shown by the line graphs were commonly missed.

(c)(ii) There were some useful descriptions of measures taken to reduce traffic congestion in towns and
cities. Some, however, concentrated upon ways of reducing pollution and not traffic congestion.

Question 3

This was not a popular question.

(a)(i) There was a good response to the naming of physical features. Although spit was a common
answer to A, very few noted that it was a bar.

(ii) There were few correct answers. Candidates did not use the scale shown on Figure 6 with
sufficient care and the instruction ‘to the nearest kilometre’ was invariably ignored.

(iii) On many scripts this question was either omitted or only partly answered. The straightness of the
coastline was generally not noted but many gave its correct orientation.

(iv) There was little attempt to describe the shape of the hills and valleys, most only gave a contour
reading from the sketch map provided.

(b)(i) Apart from reference to longshore drift, little else was usually presented.

(ii) Most found this part too difficult.

(iii) By contrast, most gave this part a satisfactory answer referring to the hard or resistant nature of the
rock along that part of the coastline.

(c)(i)(ii) Additions to Figure 7 were generally accurate.

(iii) Few could successfully describe the contrast between the two slopes shown on either side of the
stream channel in Figure 7. In consequence little of relevance was produced in (c)(iv).

(v) Explanations of ox-bow lakes were often inaccurate, although a minority produced a series of well
labelled diagrams to account for their formation.

Question 4

(a)(i) The correct natural hazards were usually named although a number named ‘non-natural’ as a
natural hazard.

(ii)(iii) Satisfactory understanding of earthquakes, volcanoes and drought was shown in most answers.
Few candidates were able to name areas where the natural hazards occurred in the two parts of

(iv) The effects of drought were well stated.

(b)(i) Most could recognise the main features of a tropical storm from the cross section presented on
Figure 9.

(ii) Most offered heavy rainfall as a cause of flooding but few other reasons were stated.

(iii) The serious effects of river flooding was thoroughly answered.

Question 5

(a)(i) A and B were generally correctly stated but little was made of the relationship in C.

(ii) It was not always appreciated that two of the regions shown in Figure 11 had a deficit and the
‘Middle East’ had a surplus therefore stimulating world trade in oil.

(iii) This was well answered with most candidates recognising the great worldwide need for oil for
industry, transport and power production. Some noted the importance of oil as a result of the
decline of coal and the present insufficient role played by alternative sources of energy.

(iv) ‘Non-renewable’ was better understood than ‘fossil fuel’. This accounted for the failure of many to
name two fossil fuels in (a)(v).

(b)(i) The significance of the newspaper extract was understood.

(ii) Many appreciated the safety concerns associated with nuclear power.

(iii) The siting and locational factors were less well understood.

(c) Some interesting and relevant descriptions were offered by a number of candidates. Others merely
confined their attention to one source of power, usually hydro-electricity, and concentrated upon
the renewable character of this power source and its largely pollution-free character.

Question 6

This question proved to be very popular and parts were very well attempted.

(a)(i) The definition of ‘global warming’ was satisfactory.

(ii) In A and B most candidates were content with noting the general increase over time without noting
in A the steady increase up to 1950 and the rapid increase to 2000. Likewise in B the fluctuating
changes in temperature were not always described.

(b)(i) The percentage figure given was generally correct and useful attempts were made to compare the
production of CO2 per person in the USA and India in (b)(ii).

(iii) Candidates were well aware of the role of industry and transport. Figure 14 was very well
interpreted and allied with other information possessed by the candidates. Very successful
answers were provided in all parts of (c).

(d)(i) Sound knowledge was displayed although candidates generally struggled in (d)(ii) to quote
sufficient difficulties for the marks available. It was anticipated that reference might have been
made to cost, the reluctance by some to recognise the problem of global warming, difficulties of
reducing the increases in transport and industry, the continued dependence upon fossil fuels and
the problems in controlling forest clearance.

Paper 0460/02
Paper 2

General comments

The general performance of candidates entered for this Paper was very pleasing, with a number at the top
end of the mark distribution producing excellent scripts. In general candidates coped well with the demands
of the Paper. Many of the candidates demonstrated a sound knowledge and understanding of the concepts
assessed, combining these skills with a proficient interpretation of information presented by the various
resources included within questions. A relatively small number of entrants found this Paper too difficult and
would have been better suited to the demands of Paper 1. This was unfortunately characteristic of
candidates from some of the newer Centres.

Resource materials were used well in stimulating responses. This was especially noticeable in answers to
Questions 1, 2 and 6. More could have been forthcoming from other resources such as Photograph A in
Question 3 and Figure 6 in the same question. When candidates were required to complete diagrams, for
example, Question 3 (b)(i) and (ii) and draw labelled diagrams as in (b)(iv) in the same question, some very
useful accurate and useful information was presented.

Overall the presentation of scripts was good with clear well-labelled responses. The interpretation and use
of geographical terminology was very satisfactory and the general standard of written English was generally
very good. Scope is provided on this Paper for extended writing within parts of questions and it was very
encouraging to see candidates responding fully to part questions where a significant number of marks were
on offer. Many of the candidates were well aware of the value of sub marks in guiding their level of response
when answering various parts of questions. Some however did not always produce the detail required,
presenting instead lists and brief statements, where clearly the sub marks indicated that more was expected.
In parts of Questions 4 and 5 particularly some candidates produced insufficient reasoning to match up with
the sub marks on offer. By carefully noting the guidance offered by the sub marks printed on the Question
Paper, candidates can help themselves greatly by producing the level of detail suggested by these marks.

Rubric errors were not as prevalent as in some former years, with very few candidates attempting more than
the requisite three answers. The majority produced three well-balanced answers and there appeared to be
little problem in providing a full complement of responses in the time available.

The interpretation of command words and phrases continues to improve. Candidates are becoming more
aware of the definitions listed in the Notes for Guidance which accompanies the Syllabus. It was generally
apparent on the majority of scripts that candidates were noting the specific command words used within
questions and in consequence there was less irrelevance in responses.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

Most candidates answered this question. As in former examinations, the question on population proved a
very popular question. In general the resource material provided in Figure 1 provided a useful stimulus in
guiding responses in (a) and (b).

(a)(i) This was well attempted with candidates recognising the differences shown on the graph in the
rates of growth of the world’s population over the time period 1804 to 1999. Most recognised the
major difference in growth pre 1927 where growth was steady over a significant period of time and
the accelerated growth through the middle and latter part of the 20th century. The decreasing
number of years for each extra billion characterised most responses. Inevitably a minority merely
repeated details from the graph without further elaboration. Others included irrelevant explanations
of the changes in population growth recognised.

(ii) There was a good understanding of the requirement in this part with candidates offering thoughtful
reasons as to why there may be changes in the growth rate of the world’s population in the future.
Reasons for possible changes in the birth and death rates were well stated, including an
awareness as to the impact of AIDS on the death rate in certain world areas.

(b)(i) Useful descriptions were given from the map provided (Figure 2) as to the expected population
changes from the situation in 1998 and forecasts shown for 2050. Descriptions were better made
in A than in B. It was not always realised by candidates that the populations of both Russia and
Japan are forecast to decrease over this time period. A common feature of some responses was
the mistaken idea that China was a developed country because it had embarked upon a policy for
birth rate control.

(ii) Reasons for differences shown between population changes shown for the developed and
developing countries of the world were fully explained.

(c) Most candidates were familiar with a number of the features of an ageing population as suggested
by the data provided for Italy.

Question 2

(a)(i) This was a reasonably popular question with the majority recognising the three settlement patterns
shown on Maps X, Y and Z in Figure 3. If there was a problem here it was that a number of
candidates were unsure about the nucleated pattern shown on Map Y.

(ii) Candidates did not always use the map details provided sufficiently to earn the marks available -
reference in X to the lack of pattern shown, some locations along roads and hillsides, the
concentration of the settlement in Y around the road junction, nucleation in a valley and in Z the
distribution along the roads at a height generally below 30m.

(iii) Satisfactory responses were provided often aided with apt references to illustrations from studies
made as well as to the details shown on the three maps. If there was a weakness in answers here
it was that candidates sometimes referred to urban rather than rural settlements.

(b)(i) A very good interpretation was often made of the graph shown on Figure 4 showing the effect of
charges on traffic flow in Singapore City over a recent period of time.

(ii) Candidates were well aware of measures taken to reduce the problem of traffic congestion. Most
responses were influenced to a great degree by the personal experiences of candidates as well as
studies made in preparing this topic. Some very useful illustrations characterised a large number
of answers to this part question.

Question 3

This question was unpopular and the resource materials provided for (a) namely the photograph and Figure
5 were not used as effectively as they might have been.

(a)(i) Candidates were more concerned with identifying some of the physical features shown at the
expense of commenting on scale and orientation as required by the question. Even the physical
features shown on the photograph and sketch map were sometimes misinterpreted, the majority
referring to A as a spit rather than a bar. Very little reference was made to the relief of the coastal
area shown. A number included irrelevant details of the human geography displayed on the

(ii) Explanations were very sketchy. Apart from detailed description of longshore drift only passing
reference was made to the part played by deposition by both waves and the stream in explaining
the formation of features A - C.

(b) Completion of Figure 6 in (b)(i) and (ii) was generally accurate.

(ii) The main failing was in this part where candidates showed a reluctance to fully shade the area
where the water speed was greater than 40 centimetres per second. Frequently only the part of
the stream between 40 centimetres and 60 centimetres per second was shaded with the area
above 60 centimetres left unshaded.

(iii) This was generally successful although some candidates confused the concave and convex sides
of the meander.

(iv) Very good use was made of labelled diagrams in explaining the formation of ox-bow lakes.

Question 4

Candidates found parts of this question difficult.

(a)(i) Candidates were not always familiar with reasons for the wider distribution of the two natural
hazards of flooding and strong winds. They were more at ease in accounting for the more
restricted distribution of natural hazards such as earthquakes and volcanoes.

(ii) A number of candidates gave alternative names for strong winds such as hurricanes, tornadoes
and typhoons when a wide variety of other natural hazards might have been named such as
tsunamis, avalanches, bush fires, mudflows, blizzards, etc.

(b)(i) Candidates were more adept at describing the features of a tropical storm than in explaining its

(ii) There were some creditable responses with references to heavy concentrated rainfall, storms,
snow melt, deforestation and increased urbanisation aiding overland flow. Some, however, simply
described monsoon development or provided details of coastal flooding without any reference
being made to rivers.

(c) Good knowledge was evident in answers to (c) although candidates frequently referred to both
tropical storms and river flooding in spite of the directive in the question to select one of these.

(d) As with (c) some very good relevant details were also provided.

Question 5

(a)(i) Many candidates did not appear to understand this part, offering three separate and often lengthy
descriptions of the three regions outlined in Figure 10. It was anticipated that candidates would
use the information provided to suggest why oil is a major commodity in world trade. Answers
usually included details more relevant to (a)(ii). The differences between production and use in the
three regions shown should have stimulated comment on reasons for differences in the scale of
production of crude oil, and the different requirements by manufacturing industries in the three
regions. The transportability of crude oil could also have been discussed.

(ii) Those candidates who realised what was required gave some good detail.

(b)(i) Candidates did not always include comment on ‘international concern over protecting the
environment’ although the incidents referred to in the two newspaper extracts (Figure 11) were
generally well understood. The question was not exclusively related to the two situations described
in the newspapers but invited a broadening of problems for the environment by use of the directive
‘such as’ in the question.

(ii) Good answers were rare with candidates often reticent to link increased energy production with
raising living standards, increased industrialisation, population increases and transport
developments. Useful references were made to alternative sources of energy. A number of
candidates did, however, overelaborate on siting requirements which were not always relevant to
the question.

Question 6

This question on global warming industry was very popular and generally well attempted. Very good use
was made of the stimulus material provided.

(a)(i) Definitions were generally accurate.

(ii) Maximum marks were commonplace and a useful interpretation of the bar graphs was given by
most in answering (a) (iii).

(b) Good thoughtful responses also characterised answers to the first two parts of (b). Again good use
was made of the resource provided on stages in the flooding of an island but fewer made sufficient
use of the details on the world map.

(iii) Candidates were generally aware of the difficulties involved in achieving measures to reduce global
warming. Some were well aware of contemporary developments such as the reluctance of certain
developed nations to comply with resolutions outlined at international conferences such as Kyoto
and Johannesburg. Others made good distinctions between short term and longer term measures
and difficulties of getting nations to agree. The majority recognised the conflict between what was
desirable and what was practical.

Paper 0460/03
Paper 3

General comments

A wide range of marks was achieved in the November 2002 examination. Many candidates had been
carefully prepared for the examination and they found the Paper to be very accessible. Some 15% of the
entry displayed sound geographical ability and, of these, some 5% presented scripts which contained
evidence of skill in practical exercises and sound descriptive and reasoning detail in other answers.
However, there was still a large proportion of the entry, some 25%, who displayed little ability and a lack of
understanding of the questions set. The Paper discriminated well between candidates of different abilities.
Many candidates found the survey map interpretation question very demanding and, consequently, marks
gained on this question were, generally, low. Candidates should be encouraged to spend more time
preparing for Question 1 as it carries one third of the total marks available on the Paper. A low mark gained
for Question 1 often results in a low mark for the Paper as a whole.

The quality of presentation of some scripts was poor and some candidates penalised themselves by
presenting work which was almost impossible to read. Candidates could improve the presentation of their
answers by numbering their answers clearly and leaving a small space between each of their responses.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

In (a)(i) the grid reference was answered less well than in previous examinations. The common error was to
give the sixth figure as 3 rather than 2. The distance was measured accurately, in (ii), but a significant
number of candidates presented the answer in kilometres rather than metres as the question asked. Part
(iii) was well answered. Most candidates gave two satisfactory recreational facilities, in (b)(i), which included
sports field, golf course, hotel and race track, but, in (b)(ii), very few candidates were able to identify the
relief features influencing the site and layout of Zvishavane. The common error was to refer to either mining
or the River Shavi. In (c) many candidates realised that the railway was kept level by embankments but few
could give a second valid way. Tunnels were frequently given, probably because candidates used the key to
the map rather than the map itself. Part (d) resulted in few correct answers, even though an initial correct
calculation was made, as few expressed their answers in terms such as 1 in 182 or as a fraction or as a
percentage. The mining features were recognised in part (e) but few responses contained references to
other industrial features such as cooling towers, electricity line and railways. There were some very good
answers to part (f) which referred to direction of flow, gradient, meanders, braiding and rapids. Weaker
answers discussed features of the surrounding landscape and human features such as weirs. There were
some excellent answers to part (g) which related settlement to relief, cultivated land and transport features.
Weaker answers described the geographical features of the area without linking the features to where
settlement is or is not found.

Question 2

This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. The common responses were (a) 5%, (b) A
and (e) A. Part (c) proved to be slightly more difficult as candidates failed to realise that 20% of the
population of A was aged 0 - 4 years and not 10%. A common error in (d) was to give 30 - 34 years rather
than 5 - 9 years.

Question 3

Parts (a) and (b) resulted in good answers. In (a) most recognised the meander and, in (b), the process was
usually given as erosion and it was attributed to the rapid current of the outside bend. In (c) the collapsed
fence was noted but the steep river cliff was ignored. The response to (d) was variable. Sections were not
well drawn and the labelling was often reversed. Some candidates either omitted the slip off slope or it was
shown above the river cliff on the same side of the river. Another common error was to draw a map rather
than a cross section.

Question 4

Photograph reading was, generally, poor. Few candidates recognised the season as either the winter or the
dry season and only a minority could name the system of agriculture as subsistence agriculture. It was
disappointing that few candidates could identify the contour bunds, contour ploughing, the steps or terraces,
arable farming and the small number of farm buildings. Indeed, some candidates concentrated on the
settlement pattern and the area of bush in the background of the photograph.

Question 5

This question resulted in some good answers. In (a)(i) towns A, B and C were identified correctly as
manufacturing, holiday and mining respectively and, in (b)(i), the correct percentage was given, apart from
those who referred to Table 1 rather than Fig. 5 and gave the answer as 40%. There were many excellent
answers to (b)(ii). A minority of candidates, however, failed to use the key provided, as the question asked
and, consequently lost marks. Part (b)(iii) was answered correctly and in (iv) most answers resulted in
correct differences being given. A was noted as having more services, more manufacturing and less
agriculture than B. Weak candidates concentrated on differences within the centres rather than between

Question 6

Candidates who were familiar with the max/min thermometer presented good answers. Unfortunately, it was
obvious that many had neither seen nor used this weather instrument. In part (a)(i) the index was known but
many confused mercury and alcohol. The minimum temperature was given correctly as 15°C by many.
Others read from the wrong end of the index and gave the answer as 10°C. The response to (a)(iii) was
variable. Many knew that the purpose of the magnet was to reset the instrument but others invented
answers about ‘moving the mercury’ and ‘to keep the mercury balanced’. Some thought that the instrument
was reset to zero. More able candidates correctly answered Day 4 but weaker candidates chose Day 2. In
(b)(ii) those who answered (b)(i) correctly gave the right answer of 9°C, although some lost marks through
failing to quote units. Answers to (b)(iii) rarely received full reward. Many knew that measurements were
taken from the bottom of the indices but few referred to taking measurements at eye level and at the same
time each day.

Question 7

The parking and pedestrianised areas were recognised in (a) as solutions to traffic congestion but some
discussed the road pattern in fairly vague terms. In (b) many good answers referred to shops, banks,
offices, government, hotels and the embassy. Some candidates strayed from Fig. 8 and referred to land
values and building heights.

Paper 0460/05
Alternative to Coursework

General comments

Centres had generally prepared their candidates well for this examination and Examiners were particularly
impressed by the improved standard of accuracy in the completion of graphs contained in the Insert.
Candidates generally showed a greater familiarity and confidence with the use of data leading to analysis
and conclusions. They demonstrated a good grasp of both investigations. The use of the actual figures as
evidence should be encouraged more strongly and candidates should take note of the command words of
describe and explain more carefully for achievement to be improved.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

(a) The ideal location for a rain gauge was well known with the most popular answer being ‘in an open
area away from trees and buildings’. For full marks to be awarded, this statement needed further
qualification to explain how these obstructions may increase or decrease water in the gauge;
appropriate comments on interception by leaves or splash from the surface of the ground scored
the marks.

(b) The construction of the four bars on the graph were accurately completed by most candidates.

(c) The cloud recorder is a simple instrument for measuring cloud cover which could be used by
Centres in preparation for this Paper. The question introduces candidates to the necessity of
collecting data in a reliable manner to allow comparability of data. The instruction to ‘look vertically
up into the sky’ when using the recorder is to ensure a comparable area of sky is observed on each
occasion. This would enable the results to be compared reliably but does not make the recording
‘more accurate’. The ‘same time of day’ instruction also would enable the data to be compared
with confidence and more candidates scored marks for commenting that the weather conditions
changed during the day and an equal time span between readings was necessary to allow
meaningful comparisons. Most candidates were able to complete the cloud cover graph correctly
on Fig.1.

(d) This question assessed the ability of candidates to identify the patterns in the data, interpret the
data and to link the findings of the investigation with the stated hypothesis. In (i), the required
patterns in the data for marks to be awarded were the recognition that no rain fell when the cloud
cover was 4 oktas or less and that rain fell when the cloud cover was 5 or greater but that total
cloud cover did not necessarily produce the highest rainfall. Each relationship statement needed to
be supported by quoting the evidence of the figures to gain full marks. Often scores were limited
by the lack of data used and achievement would improve greatly if all candidates were instructed to
state the data figures when describing any pattern in data in preparation for this Paper.

In (ii) the candidates were required to use their knowledge of cloud types and causes of rainfall to
explain the relationships shown in Fig.1. Although some candidates showed confidence by naming
different cloud types, Examiners reported a disappointing understanding of cloud formation, the
methods of rain formation and how these may relate to cloud cover.

(iii) allowed those candidates who had recognised the patterns between the cloud cover and
rainfall to justify their decision in terms of the hypothesis. Most candidates appropriately partly
agreed with the statement and were able to give reasons for the judgement. The Mark Scheme
also allowed for candidates to criticise the date collection methods although this was rarely seen.

(e) The completion of the temperature line graph in (i) was accurately undertaken and the standard
was impressive with entire Centres gaining full marks. However, the successful description of the
pattern of maximum temperature again depended on the ability of the candidate to use and state
the data clearly.

(f) Two sources of weather statistics could be local newspaper reports or weather station data,
internet information or television statistics. More often the candidates had not understood the
question sufficiently and restricted their responses to weather elements or meteorological

Question 2

(a)(i) Most candidates answered this question with understanding and it was obvious that many had
experienced being members of groups collecting data. Sometimes the responses indicated the
social advantages/disadvantages to the group dynamics rather than the fieldwork results and there
were many brief ‘more accurate’ or ‘faster’ responses which were too vague to gain the marks. (ii)
required candidates to evaluate the data collection methods to understand the investigation. Many
candidates appropriately suggested that multipurpose buildings were difficult to classify on the land
use maps and also that it would be difficult to judge which buildings were used by tourists.

(b) The candidates clearly expressed how to calculate the angle size using the data. Many either used
an example or a word equation to gain the two marks. The division of the circle was accurately
completed with only occasional lack of keys or careless errors.

(c) The candidates were required to study the results shown on the map and describe the distribution.
The key word in this question was ‘distribution’ and the candidates needed to recognise that the
tourist facilities were clustered into two areas of the town, in the south west and the north east.
The standard of describing this distribution was reported as disappointing by Examiners and
candidates clearly require more practise at this skill to score higher marks. In (ii) if candidates
identified the location of the hotels and the other tourist facilities then they were confident in
explaining that many tourists would want ‘peace and quiet’ away from the busy area or that the
park ‘improved the view’. Other more geographical reasoning concerned with the price of land was
also pleasing to read. In (iii) candidates’ understanding of tourist seasons was good and the
impact of closure on the town produced well developed answers to often gain full marks.

(d) The key to successfully answering this question was to recognise that only 24 out of the 120 non
residential buildings surveyed were classified as used by tourists - this was shown both as a
divided circle and in the data. Candidates gained the marks if this was stated and commented

(e) This provided candidates with an opportunity for extended writing concerning the impact of another
hotel on the town residents and the environment. Examiners commented that most candidates
produced well developed answers referring to both people and the environment in detail. The
better answers were written in sentences rather than bullet points or lists. Candidates who
qualified the vague response of ‘pollution’ for a more specific comment for example ‘noise pollution
from more tourists’ gained more marks and candidates should always be encouraged to be specific
in their answers to ensure marks are awarded.