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CENTER for the DESIGNED

ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Theory

Name___________________________________________________ Section_________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).
1. Term given to the kind of architecture that grows and develops according to the
context
a) organic architecture c) eclectic architecture
b) evolutionary architecture(?) d) environmental architecture

2. Kind of architecture that reflects a combination of styles from various historical


periods
a) informal architecture c) eclectic (?)
b) ekistics d) evolving architecture

3. Movement that resulted to contextual architecture and veered away from global
architectural movements or standards
a) Fordism c) Post-Fordism
b) International Style d) Non-global architecture

4. The study of creative processes especially as applied to the stating and solution
problems that involves free use of metaphor and analogy in informal interchange
within a small group of diverse individuals.
a) proxemics c) semantics
b) tectonics d) synectics

5. A deviation from the normal or expected form, order or arrangement


a) variation c) chaos
b) anomaly d) variance

6. A point representing the intersection of the central axis of vision and the picture plane
in linear perspective.
a) station point c) center of vision
b) cone of vision d) sightline

Theory 1/2
CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Theory

Theory 2/2
MODULE 1: ARCHITECTURAL PRACTICE
REFRESHER
1. Architectural Programming is one of the architect’s services that falls under:
a) Specialized Allied Services c) Design
b) Pre-design d) Design-build
2. One of the methods of compensating the services of the architect, which is
applicable only to non-creative work such as accounting, supervision and data
gathering
a) Professional fee plus expenses c) Per diem plus reimbursible expenses
b) multiple of direct personnel expenses d) percentage of construction cost.
3. I will open my hands to___________ that I may skillfully turn point, line and plane
to the support and protection of man’s body, to the nourishment of his hope, to the
preservation of his culture.
a) aesthetics b) patience c) functionality d) artistry
4. Professional fee paid by the owner to the architect for coordinating with the
landscape architect commissioned by the owner to undertake the landscape works
for the project.
a) 10% of total project cost b) 5% of cost of landscape works c) 5% of total
project cost d) 2% of cost of landscape works.
5. Percentage of the total basic professional fee for regular services that is paid by the
owner to the architect after completion of the project.
a) 15% b) 5% c) 20% d) 30%
6. The range of all services offered by the environmental planner from data base
gathering to environmental impact statements up to the formulation of the Master
Development Plan.
a) project management b) specialized allied services c) environmental
management d) comprehensive planning
7. Part-time construction supervision is falls under the following services of the
architect:
a) design services b) regular services c) specialized allied services d)
management services

8. Which of the following statements is not true.


a) The construction supervisory group shall enter into the field of the contractor’s
project superintendent
b) The construction manager can make decisions on the project’s design matters.
c) based on the civil code, the Project Manager has no legal responsibility insofar
as design and construction is concerned.
d) The Project Manager’s Agreement should stipulate that none of his inspection
work will relieve any Contractor of his responsibility to provide acceptable
materials or to properly perform the work in accordance with the drawings and
specifications.

9. The art and science of ordering the use of land and siting of buildings and
communication routes to secure the maximum practicable degree of economy,
social amenities, convenience and aesthetics.
a) site utilization studies c) land use planning
b) environmental impact study d) physical planning
10. Based on the standard owner-architect agreement, one of the following items
should be paid by the architect and not by the owner. Which is this item?
a) miniature models used for used for design studies
b) tax that the government may impose on the Architect as a consequence of the
services performed for the project.
c) travel allowances for project-related travels beyond the radius of 100 kilometers
from the architect’s office
d) extra sets of contract documents

11. The project manager acts as overall coordinator and is compensated on a


percentage basis of _______ of estimated project cost
a) 5-10% c) 2%
b) b) 10-15% d) 18%

12. ________ means to build in, mount in positions, connect or apply any object
specified ready for the intended use.
a) furnish c) install
b) b) build d) provide

13. ____refers to the additonal information on contract documents issued to bidders


before date of bidding.
a) bid bulletin c) special provisions
b) notice to bidders d) instructions to bidders.

14. The approved form of security furnished by the Contractor and his Surety as a
guarantee to the quality of materials and equipment installed and the workmanship
performed by the Contractor.
a) Performance Bond c) Security Bond
b) Payment Bond d) Guarantee Bond.

15. Printed documents stipulating the procedural and administrative aspects of the
contract.
a) specifications c) General Conditions
b) contract documents d) Supplementary Conditions.

16. Which of these statements is true?


a) The project owner shall provide all temporary facilities and enclosures before
construction starts
b) No reparation shall be made to the Contractor for the damages to the work
resulting from rain, wind, flood or natural phenomenon of inconsequential
degree for the locality.
c) The words APPROVED, DIRECTED AND ACCEPTABLE in the General
Conditions shall always mean approved, directed by or acceptable to the
Owner.
d) The term WORK of the Contractor or sub-contractor includes labor and
materials and excludes equipment and transportation.

17. In the three-part section format for writing specifications, all but one of these fall
under Part III: Execution a) product handling b) adjusting c) patching d)
installation
18. Which of the following stipulate that “acceptance of the building after completion
does not imply waiver of any of the causes of action by reason of any defect”
a) Republic Act 545 c) The Architect’s National Code
b) Letter of Instruction 1000 d) Article 1723 of the Civil Code of the
Philippines

19. Which of these is not included in the types of buildings that Maestro de Obras
cannot design for?
a) buildings for public gatherings c) buildings of concrete
b) mass housing d) buildings of more than two storeys.

20. Article 1723 of the Civil Code stipulates that any legal action against the architect
resulting from collapse of a building must be brought forward within:
a) 10 years c) 6 months
b) 15 days d) 15 years

21. Three of the following items are stipulated in LOI 1000. Which one is not among the
LOI’s provisions?
a) the rationale for professional organizations
b) prioritization of members in hiring and engagement of services
c) the number of members and composition of the professional organization
d) the need for continuing education.

22. Which of the following do not constitute the Project Manual.


a) architectural drawings c) contract conditions
b) bidding requirements d) specifications

23. One of the following is not cited by RA 545 as among the grounds for suspension
or revocation of an architect’s license:
a) signing and sealing of documents not prepared or supervised by him/her
b) not actively practicing in the past 10 years
c) paying extra money to secure a Certificate of Registration
d) aiding in the practice of unauthorized persons.

24. Which of the following is not part of Architectural practice?


a) teaching architectural subjects c) furniture design
b) construction d) none

25. Which of the following is not true?


a) Any full time supervisor can stop any work which is not being done in
accordance with plans.
b) The Construction Manager reports directly to the Owner and is, therefore,
responsible to the owner on aspects of coordination, programming, quality and
cost control
c) The in-house architect sees to it that all parts of the building are in good
working condition and are properly maintained.
d) The Project Manager has no legal responsibility insofar as design and
construction are concerned.

26. Which of the following is not true?


a) construction management services fall within project management services
b) construction by administration fall within project management services
c) pre-design services fall within project management services
d) project management services fall within construction management
services
27. All except one of these are documents for bidding
a) general conditions c) instructions to bidders
b) technical specifications d) invitation to bid

28. Which of the following methods of compensation is not covered by UAP Document
208?
a) percentage of construction cost c) multiple of direct personnel
expense
b) commission on cost of materials d) per diem plus reimbusibles

29. A full-time PRC Commissioner must be at least 40 years old and has a term of
____years.
a) 10 c) 3
b) 5 d) 9

30. The Professional Regulation Commission’s powers include all except which of
these:
a) prescribe academic requisites c) supervise practicing foreigners
b) act on violations of rules d) regulate use of business
names

31. In a CPM, the maximum amount of time that an activity can be delayed without
extending the completion time of the whole project.
a) free float c) maximum float
b) total float d) absolute float

32. Division 5 of the Master format for technical specifications corresponds to


a) metals c) wood and plastics
b) masonry d) concrete

33. Executive Order No. 1008 covers


a) project bidding c) construction arbitration
b) economic housing d) contractor-architect relations

34. “May the Architect be _____________; not arrogant, but faithful; Just, and easy to
deal with, without avarice; Not let his mind be occupied in receiving gifts, But let
him preserve his good name with dignity…” Marcus Vitruvius Pollio
a) humble c) intelligent
b) high-minded d) perceptive

35. Basic rate for physical planning for building sites for the first 50 hectares or less
a) P10,000 per hectare c) P15,000 per hectare
b) P20,000 per hectare d) P5,000 per hectare
36. On top of the basic rate for physical planning, an additional fee of _____ percent of
the cost of the development is to be charged for the preparation of detailed
engineering drawings and specifications on roads, drainage, sewerage, power and
communication system.
a) 4 c) 10
b) 6 d) 7

37. The basic rate for residential subdivision planning for rugged sites with steep
terrain shall be increased by
a) 15% c) 20%
b) 30% d) 10%
38. ________________ services is the range of all services offered by the
environmental planner from data base gathering to environmental impact
statements up to the formulation of the Master Development Plan
a) comprehensive planning c) environmental analysis
b) urban planning d) master planning

39. Manner of payment for construction management services whereby the owner pays
a fixed fee. The fee will be unaffected by variations between the estimate and the
bids or by change orders during the construction phase unless the owner initiates
an increase in scope
a) Fixed Price Incentive b) Cost Plus Fixed Fee
c) Construction Manager Fixed Price d) Firm Fixed Fee

40. The UAP Document that regulates Architectural design competitions


a) UAP Doc 209 b) UAP Doc 208
c) UAP Doc 211 c) UAP Doc 206

41. The 3-D wheel of a building project consists of all but one of these
a) decision to build by the owner c) design concept by the architect
b) provision of materials by suppliers d) delivery system by the contractor

42. UAP Document 200 is also known as


a) Technical Writing c) Contractor-Owner Agreement
b) Code of Ethical Conduct d) Design-Build Services

43. The first architectural association organized in the Philippines


a) Philippine Institute of Architects c) Philippine Architects Society
b) United Architects of the Philippines d) Philippine Architects Association

44. ____________ is a technique whereby a manager considers not only first cost
(including research, advance planning, design and construction), but also such
later expenses as installation, training, operation, maintenance, inventory and
disposal.
a) comprehensive costing c) package costing
b) first and final costing d) life cycle costing

45. Cost estimating method that involves costing of individual elements by reference to
recognized standards and costs
a) unit method c) elemental cost analysis
b) volume method d) volume method

46. The qualifications of members of the Board of Examiners for Architecture include
all but one of the following:
a) Filipino citizen c) in active practice
b) not a faculty of any architectural school d) conferred fellow by the United
Architects of the Philippines
47. The following need not be registered architects:
a) draftsmen working under the supervision of an architect
b) construction managers
c) consultants doing architectural programming and other pre-design studies
d) none of the above

48. Buildings that can be designed by Maestro de Obras should, at the most, be ____
storey/ies
a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4

49. Board re-examinations are allowed for ___ consecutive times.


a) 2 c) 5
b) 4 d) 3

50. The Board of Architecture is required to report the results of the exams within
_______ days.

a) 30 c) 60
b) 120 d) 90

51. A mode of supply under the GATS where the professional and client do not meet
each other. Means of trade is communication through the information technology.
a) cross border c) consumption abroad
b) commercial presence d) mobility of natural person

52. The profession with the following scope of work: development of a community,
town, city or region, development of a site for particular needs, land use and
zoning, pre-investment/ feasibility studies.
a) urban planner c) community planner
c) land use planner d) environmental planner

53. The following are the four phases of the _____________ services of the architect:
schematic design, design development, contract documents, construction.
a) comprehensive c) project management
b) regular design d) construction management

54. For regular design services, the architect is paid a cumulative total of _______% of
the basic fee upon completion of the contract documents.
a) 85 c) 50
b) 60 d) 75

55. The Architect’s National Code categorize interior design services, acoustic,
communication and electronic engineering services, landscape design services,
physical planning services, comprehensive planning services as:
a) related services c) specialized allied services
b) specialty fields services d) architecture support services

56. The fee for an architect/ full-time supervisor is_______% of the project construction
cost.
a) 1-1.5 c) 1.5-2
b) 1-2 d) 2-3
57. The bidding requirements, contract forms, contract conditions and specifications
make up the:
a) contract documents c) owner-contractor agreements
b) project manual d) all of the above

58. A process of settling a dispute arising from or connected with construction


contracts in the Philippines (except labor disputes), by referring it to a panel of
persons, whose task is to elucidate the facts after hearing the parties and
endeavoring to bring them to an agreement based on its proposals for a settlement.
a) mediation c) conciliation
b) negotiation d) reconciliation

59. Which of these does not constitute the project construction cost, on which the
Architect’s basic fee is based?
a) plumbing cost c) cost of landscaping
b) cost of finishes d) elevators

60. Architect’s minimum basic fee for Group 5 projects that include monumental
buildings and other facilities requiring consummate design skill and much precise
detailing.
a) 12% of project construction cost c) 10% of project construction cost
b) 5% of project construction cost d) 14% of project construction cost
MODULE 2: BUILDING LAWS
REFRESHER

1. Any physical change made on a building/ structure to increase its value, utility
and/or to imrove its aesthetic qualities a) addition b) conversion c) renovation
d) alteration

2. Type of permit not covered by the National Building Code of the Philippines a)
Occupancy permit b) Temporary Utilities Permit c) Land Use Conversion Permit
d) Fencing Permit

3. Structure exempted from building permits include open terraces directly resting on
the ground not exceeding a) 20sq.m. b) 12 sq.m. c) 25sq.m. d) 15sq.m.

4. Not included in the category of occupancies used for computing building permit
fees is a) ancillary buildings b) transport facilities c) agricultural

5. Building permits are invalidated due to suspension or abandonment of construction


for more than a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 120 days d) 360 days

6. Based on the National Building Code of the Philippines, outermost edge of eaves
should be at least __mm. from the side and rear of property lines a) 750 b) 1200
c) 1500 d) 800

7. Length of time in hours a material can withstand being burned a) flame spread
rating b) time period rating c) fire-resistive rating d) none of the above

8. Least dimension of an interior court a) 2 meters b) 1.8 meters c) 2.5 meters d) 3


meters

9. Maximum gradient of curb cut-out as prescribed by BP 344 a) 1:20 b) 1:12 c)


1:15 d) 1:18

10. Tapping rail height prescribed by BP 344 a) .30m. b) .35m. c) .40m d) .45m

11. Fire line system with constant water supply and installed for the use of the fire
service and the occupants of the building a) wet standpipe b) dry standpipe c)
combination standpipe d) fire department house connection

12. Class A ramp specified in PD 1185 a) 5-7% b) 10-15% c) 5-10% d) 8-10%

13. Minimum number of risers in any flight of stairs a) 3 b) 5 c) 10 d) 7

14. As stipulated in PD 1185, a single door in a doorway shall not be less than .71m.
and not more than ____m. a) 1.20 b) 1.22 c) 1.25 d) 1.28

15. Class C fire in PD 1185 corresponds to a) flammable liquids and gases b)


energized electrical equipment c) ordinary combustible materials such as paper
d) combustible metals
16. When a door discharges to the outside, change in floor level shall not be more than
____m. a) .208 b) .205 c) .206 d) .210

17. Occupancy classification that includes Residential- Restrained Care


a) Health b) Residential c) Institutional d) Assembly

18. Assembly areas for 600 or more people should have at least _____ doors
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

19. Way of passage from one building to an area of refuge in another building on
approximately same level
a) egress system b) exit passageway c) exit discharge d) horizontal exit

20. Maximum travel distance to exit if not protected by automatic fire suppression
system
a) 61m. b) 45m. c) 65m. d) 46m.

21. The Urban Development Housing Act of 1992 is also known as


a) RA 7279 b) PD 7279
c) RA 7379 d) PD 1723

22. In BP 220, the minimum prescribed R.O.W. of interconnecting roads for interior
subdivisions is
a) 8 m. b) 12 m. c) 10m. d) 15 m.

23. BP 220 requires an alley for block lengths of more than


a) 400m. b) 200m. c) 300m. d) 450m.

24. House and Lot packages priced at maximum of P500,000


a) socialized housing b) economic housing c) medium-cost housing d) low-cost
housing

25. In BP 220, firewalls are required for intervals of ____ houses comprising
rowhouses.
a) 5 b) 6 c) 4 d) 8

26. PD 957 prescribes a minimum frontage of ____meters for interior lots


a) 3 b) 4 c) 3.5 d) 4.5
27. The Presidential Decree that defines open spaces in residential subdivisions
a) PD1216 b) PD 1151 c) PD 1152 d) PD 1218

28. Minimum corridor width prescribed by BP 220


a) 1m b) 1.1m c) 1.2m d) 1.25m

29. Minimum lot area for socialized rowhouses


a) 30 sq.m. b) 35 sq.m. c) 32 sq.m. d) 28sq.m.

30. Maximum block lengths for rowhouses under BP 220


a) 50m. b) 100m. c) 150m. d) 80m.

31. The law that regulates the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines
a) PD 1594 b) PD 1308 c) RA 546 d) RA 544
32. The law that governs bidding out of government infrastructure projects
a) PD 1594 b) PD 1308 c) PD 1151 d) PD 1508
33. The type of intervention that covers the technical, legal, administrative and social
aspects of heritage preservation
a) restoration b) conservation c) heritage planning d) all of the above

34. Minmum staiway width for dwelling units, prescribed by the National Building Code
a) .60m b) .70m c) .80 d) .55m.

35. High-rise buildings have heights of ____ measured from the floor level of the
topmost story.
a) 20m b) 15m. c) 22m. d) 25m.

36. PD 1185 describes ________ as “a liquid mixture which, when applied properly
improves the fire-resistant quality of fabrics and other materials.
a) fire-retardant coating c) fire mixture
b) organic coating d) fabric coating

37. A ___________is designed to prevent spread of fire, having fire resistance of not
less than 4 hours with sufficient structural stability.
a) fire wall c) dampers
b) fire protective assembly d) fire stoppers

38. Emergency lighting shall be arranged to maintain the specified level of illumination
in the event of failure of the normal lighting for a period of at least ___ hours in
buildings more than 36.5 metersin height.
a) 2 c) 1.5
b) 3 d) 2.5

39. For places of assembly, the main exit must accommodate ___ of the occupant
load.
a) ½ c) ¼
b) 100% d) 75%

40. PD 1185 prescribes a minimum of ____ risers in any one flight.


a) 4 c) 2
b) 3 d) 5

41. Multiple seating without dividing arms must allow a width of at least ____ meters
per person.
a) 0.50 c) 0.65
b) 0.60 d) 0.75

42. Occupant load of classrooms as prescribed by Division 8, Rule 1 of PD 1185.


a) 2 sq.m./person c) 2.5 sq.m./person
b) 1.5 sq.m./person d) 1.8 sq.m./person

43. Places of assembly for 1000 or more persons must have at least ____ exits.
a) 4 c) 5
b) 3 d) 2

44. Buildings over ____ meters shall be provided throughout with automatic sprinkler
protection.
a) 20 c) 15
b) 25 d 12

45. Minimum headroom clearance for stairways required by PD 1185


a) 200 cm c) 180 cm
b) 250 cm d) 195 cm
46. Dry standpipes should be able to withstand a water pressure of:
a) 25 kg/ sq.cm. c) 21 kg/ sq.cm
b) 31 kg/ sq.cm d) 26 kg/sq.cm

47. A device that contains fluids or gases for extinguishing fire, the means for
application of its contents for that purpose, and is capable of being readily moved
from place to place.
a) fire hose c) fire cabinet
b) fire extinguisher d) fire suppression assembly

48. The minimum average amount allowed on a floor and determined by the type of
occupancy or use
a) live load c) uniformly distributed load
b) dead load d) unit live load

49. The ratio of the maximum demand of a system, or part of a system, to the total
connected load of a system or the part of the system under consideration
a) demand factor c) demand ratio
b) demand load ratio d) none of the above

50. The permanent joining of metallic parts to form an electrically conducive path which
will assure electrical continuity and the capacity to conduct safely any current likely
to be imposed.
a) welding c) bonding
b) knotting d) volting

51. The NBC describes dangerous buildings as


a) fire and structural hazards c) improperly occupied
b) architectural eyesores d) all of the above

52. Either a stranded conductor with or without insulation and other covering or a
combination of conductors insulated from one another.
a) electrical wire c) circuit
b) cable d) metallic series

53. A combination of all or of a portion of component parts included in an electrical


apparatus, mounted on a supporting frame or panel and properly interwired.
a) assembly c) electrical series
b) circuit d) cable

54. A secondary building/ structure located within the same premises, the use of which
is incidental to that of the main building/structure.
a) annex c) ancillary building
b) wing d) extension

55. Remedial work done on any damaged or deteriorated portion/s of a building/


structure to restore its original condition.
a) repair c) renovation
b) restoration d) retrofitting
56. Plans and specifications are not required for permits to build all except one of
these:
a) traditional indigenous dwellings intended for use and occupancy of owner’s
family
b) traditional indigenous dwellings of native materials
c) single-detached dwellings up to 20 sq.m.
d) multi-purpose halls for use by not more than 30 people

57. Which of these types of projects are exempted from the payment of building permit
fees?
a) public buildings owned, occupied, operated by offices performing purely
government functions
b) construction by civic organizations and charitable institutions to be donated to
government for public use
c) all of the above
d) none of the above

58. Grounds for non-issuance or revocation of Certificates of Occupancy include all but
one of these:
a) unauthorized change in type of construction
b) failure to engage services of a licensed architect or civil engineer to do full-time
supervision
c) failure to submit Certificate of Completion and As-built plans
d) failure to complete within the projected construction schedule

59. Minimum floor-to-ceiling clearance prescribed by the National Building Code for
naturally ventilated ground floor rooms.
a) 2.8 m c) 2.7 m
b) 2.1 m d) 2.4 m

60. Minimum width prescribed by the National Building Code for temporary walkways
during construction or demolition.
a) 1.2 m c) 1.5 m
b) 1.1 m d) 1.3 m

61. Subdivision projects with direct access to a main public road must provide setbacks
of _______________ on both sides of the subdivision entrance to accommodate
loading and unloading of passengers.
a) 2 meters deep by 4 meters long c) 1.5 meters deep by 3 meters
long
b) 3 meters deep by 5 meters long d) 3 meters deep by 6 meters long

62. Contiguous subdivision projects to be developed by phases shall be provided with


inter-connecting road with a minimum right-of-way of ________ meters.
a) 10 c) 20
b) 15 d) 12

63. Minimum water supply requirement for household connections for socialized and
economic housing.
a) 180 liters per capita per day c) 200 liters per capita per day
b) 150 liters per capita per day d) 175 liters per capita per day

64. BP 220 requires that bathroom windows be at least ______ of the bathroom floor
area.
a) 1/10 c) 1/20
b) 1/25 d) none of the above
65. The wall between the bottom of the window sill and the ground
a) socalo c) mullions
b) window panel d) ventanilla

66. A parcel of land unobstructed from the ground to the sky, more than 3.00 meters in
width, appropriated to the free passage of the general public.
a) pedestrian way c) public way
b) easement d) roadway

67. Any masonry forming an integral part of a wall used as a finished surface.
a) veneer c) plaster
b) facing d) all of the above

68. A movable shelter supported entirely from the exterior wall of a building and of a type
which can be retracted, folded, or collapsed against the face of a supporting
building.
a) canopy c) temporary roofing
b) awning d) all of the above

69. Descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air.
a) pyrophoric c) cryogenic
b) oxidizing substance d) Hypergolic

70. The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient
concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air.
a) ignition level c) flash point
c) vaporizing point d) burning point

71. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an electric current
across a space between two conductors or terminals due to the incandescense of
the conducting vapor.
a) electrical arc c) electrical spark
b) current path d) current link

72. Any dormitory divided into suites of rooms, with one (1) or more bedrooms opening
into a living room or study which has a door opening into a common corridor
serving a number of suites, is classified as _________________ in the PD 1185.
a) a residence hall c) an apartment building
b) a lodging house d) a living unit

73. Candleholders for burning candles used in connection with any public meeting or
gathering shall have a maximum height equal to _____ the diameter of the base.
a) 2x c) 3x
b) 1.5x d) none of the above

74. Bonfire or rubbish fire must be at least _______ meters from any structure.
a) 5 c) 15
b) 10 d) 20

75. An air compartment or chamber to which one or more ducts are connected and which
form part of an air distribution system
a) vent c) plenum
b) dampers d) junction box
76. Presidential Decree 1151 is also known as :
a) The Philippine Environmental Policy c) Philippine Environment Code
b) Environmental Impact Assessment d) Land Use Code of the
Guidelines Philippines

77. The Tourism Development Guidelines and Standards prescribe a shoreline


minimum setback of _______meters inland to extend from the high water mark.
a) 45 c) 20
b) 30 d) 15

78. Maximum gradient for rural roads prescribed by the Tourism Development
Guidelines is:
a) 12 percent c) 15 percent
b) 5 percent d) 18 percent

79. Subjects of examination for the environmental planning exam include all except:
a) social planning c) economic planning
b) physical planning d) land use planning

80. _________ means the average atmospheric purity as distinguished from discharge
measurements taken at the source of pollution. It is the general amount of pollution
present in a broad area.
a) ambient air quality c) atmospheric ratio
b) ambient atmospheric quality d) ambient air ratio

81. The Local Government Code of 1991 is also known as:


a) Republic Act 6840 c) Republic Act 7160
b) Republic Act 7270 d) Republic Act 7760

82. The Architectural Code defines ____________ as a single building enclosing a


number of tenants and occupancies such as retail stores, drinking and dining
establishments, entertainment and amusement even recreational facilities, offices
and other similar uses wherein two or more tenants have a main entrance into one
or more malls.
a) department store c) commercial building
b) covered mall d) shopping center

83. Percentage of gross area required by BP 220 for parks and playgrounds in
socialized housing.
a) 9 c) 2
b) 6 d) 7

84. Allocation for parks and playground is mandatory for socialized housing
subdivisions of ____ hectare/s and above.
a) 2 c) 1
b) 3 d) 5

85. A neighborhood multi-purpose center, health center, talipapa/commercial center,


elementary and high schools are required by BP 220 for subdivision projects with
__________ saleable lots/dwelling units.
a) 1000-1500 c) 1500-2000
b) 2500-3000 d) 2000-2500
86. Major road right-of-way required by BP 220 for socialized and economic housing of
2.5 hectares and below.
a) 6 meters c) 10 meters
b) 12 meters d) 8 meters

87. Maximum length of alleys and pathwalks that serve as block breakers in socialized
housing.
a) 20 meters c) 60 meters
b) 50 meters d) 30 meters

88. For BP 220 medium-rise housing, provision of elevators is mandatory for ____
stories and above.
a) 5 c) 4
b) 6 d) none of the above

89. Maximum landing to landing height prescribed by BP 220


a) 3.6 meters c) 4 meters
b) 2.8 meters d) 3.8 meters

90. Minimum lot area for duplexes/single-attached units in the open market category
under PD 957.
a) 100 sq.m. c) 96 sq.m.
b) 102 sq.m. d) 98 sq.m.

91. The required number of seats allocated for the disabled in regular buses.
a) 5 c) 3
b) 4 d) 10

92. RA 7277 is the ______________.


a) Urban Development and Housing Act c) Magna Carta for the Disabled
b) Subdivision Law d) Environmental Law

93. A fire protection feature that consists of a combination of an automatic or smoke


detection system, automatic exhaust system and an automatic water curtain.

a) spray nozzle system c) fire-alerting systm


b) fire-arresting method d) sprinkler vent method

94. A kiosk designed to provide an effective barrier to the spread of smoke from floor to
floor.
a) rolling shutter c) partial enclosure
b) fire-stoppers d) smoke enclosure

95. Minimum curb cut-out width


a) 0.90 m. c) 1.00 m.
b) 0.80 m. d) 1.20 m.

96. In BP 344, the minimum dimensions of rest stops or turning space on busy or long
walkways.
a) 1.20 m. x 1.20 m. c) 1.80 m. x 1.80 m.
b) 1.50 m. x 1.50 m. d) 1.70 m. x 1.70 m.
97. Maximum clear gap between gratings on walkways
a) 13 mm. c) 18 mm.
b) 15 mm. d) 20 mm.

98. Garden pools for cultivation of water plants and/or aquarium fish not exceeding
______mm depth are exempted from the building permit requirement.
a) 600 c) 700
b) 500 d) 800

99. Type E buildings categorized by occupancy


a) hazardous buildings c) business and mercantile
c) assembly buildings for less than d) institutional
1000 occupants

100. Maximum lot occupancy for corner lots in group A dwellings prescribed by Chapter
7 of the National Building Code.
a) 80% c) 90%
b) 70% d) 85%
MODULE 3: ARCHITECTURAL THEORY
REFRESHER
1. Philosophy based on the belief that the human being is the most important entity in
the universe a) Anthropomorphism b) Anthropocentrism c)
Anthropometrics d) all of the above
2. Act of staking claim to places. It is also a manifestation of desire for control and
expression a) individualization b) identification c) personalization d)
territorialization
3. The ability of individuals to control their visual, auditory and olfactory interactions
with others a) anonimity b) social control c) privacy d) space control
4. The state in which a person employs psychological barriers to control unwanted
intrusions a) defense mechanism b) reserve c) isolation d) none of the
above
5. Components of an architectural system a) Technology b) Context c) a
and b d) none of the above
6. A primary element of design that has no direction a) color b) point c)
texture d) line
7. Refers to the brightness or dullness of color a) tonal value b) shade c)
hue d) chroma
8. Anything that serves as a reference for defining and organizing space a)
axis b) datum c) fulcrum d) point
9. Theory of proportion that is based on modular mats a) grid b) modulor c)
ken d) golden section
10. A theory on perception that is based on the belief that objects observed has innate
qualities that make them independent of the perceiver and the environment
a) ecological b) gestalt c) speculative c) formal
11. Design stage that involves synthesis and bringing together a variety of
considerations a) Evaluation b) programming c) proposal-making d)
initiation

12. Consists of a structured set of surfaces of various qualities of enclosure, aesthetics


and affordance a) buildings b) form c) built environment d) geometry
13. Spatial qualities that create sensations through texture, temperature and sound
a) psychological qualities b) perceptual qualities c) environmental
qualities d) kinesthetic qualities
14. Design process that involves analysis of existing state and projection of what the
future state should be a) proposal making b) architectural programming c)
data analysis d) preparation
15. Spaces where layouts encourage face-to-face interactions a) communal
spaces b) socio-petal spaces c) socio-fugal spaces d) socio-culture
enhancers
16. A composite system of thought made up of views selected from various other
systems. a) Comprehensive system b) eclecticism c) baroque d) rococo

17. The architect who claimed that : The ultimate goal of the new architecture was ‘the
composite but inseparable work of art, in which the old dividing line between
monumental and decorative elements will have disappeared forever’
a) Frank Lloyd Wright b) Le Corbusier c) Walter Gropius d) MiesVan de
Rowe
18. Principle of design that is based on repetitive elements a) patterns b)
organization c) symmetry d) rhythm
19. Proportion based on inherent properties of materials a) natural proportion
b)manufactured proportion c) structural proprtion d) none of the above
20. The architect who said that the exterior of a building is a result of the interior
a) Mies Van de Rohe b) Le Corbusier c) Frank Lloyd Wright c) William
Ruskin

21. “The man of learning… can fearlessly look down upon the troublesome accidents
of fortune. But he who thinks himself as entrenched in defenses not of learning but
of luck, moves in slippery paths, struggling through life unsteadily and insecurely.”
is a quote from:
a) The Ten Books of Architecture by Vitruvius
b) Five Points Towards a New Architecture by Le Corbusier
c) Space, Time and Architecture by Sigfried Gideon
d) The Poetry of Architecture by John Ruskin

22. The book that explores Renaissance use of ideal geometric figures and ratios in
their designs. Also discusses why they believed that such figures and ratios were
powerful.
a) Five Points Towards a New Architecture by Le Corbusier
b) Space, Time and Architecture by Sigfried Gideon
c) Architectural Principles in the Age of Humanism by Rudolf Wittkower
d) The New Architecture and the Bauhaus by Walter Gropius

23. A property of perception in which there is a tendency to see parts of a visual field
as solid, well-defined objects standing out against a less distinct background
a) ecological perception c) three-dimensional field
b) figure-ground d) gestalt

24. Stable combinations of activity and place


a) activity systems b) behavior settings
c) built environment d) milieu

25. An applied science concerned with the characteristics of people that need to be
considered in the design of devices and systems so that people and things interact
effectively and safely.
a) industrial engineering c) architectural manufacturing
c) ergonomics d) anthropometrics

26. He claimed that there is humanism in Architecture and that the concept of beauty is
based on order of numbers and Euclidean geometry.
a) Alberti c) Da Vinci
c) Euclid d) Vitruvius

27. The study of the symbolic and communicative role of the spatial arrangements as
they relate to environmental and cultural factors.
a) semiotics c) proxemics
b) ekistics d) tectonics

28. ____________ is the type of proportion where the sizes and proportions of
architectural and structural members are determined by the commercially available
sizes.
a) manufactured proportion c) industrial proportion
b) mass proportion d) commercial proportion
29. The kind of theory that explains phenomenon or events; they are neutral and do not
lean towards any ideology.
a) objective theory c) descriptive theory
b) rational theory d) positive theory

30. The distant view and the first phase of the circulation system during which we are
prepared to see, experience and use the building.
a) entrance c) entourage
b) approach d) facade
CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Building Laws

Name___________________________________________________ Section_________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).
1. Any floor, wall or roof ceiling construction having the required fire-resistance rating
to confine the spread of fire
a) fire safety space c) crawl space
b) fire separation d) horizontal exit

2. A compound used to raise the ignition point of a flammable material, thus making it
more resistant to fire
a) Spread retardant c) Flame retardant
b) Ignition retardant d) Fire Compound

3. A vent designed to open automatically in order to remove smoke and heat from a
building
a) fire vent b) smoke vent c) stack vent d) flame vent

4. The National Building Code says that a building is a structural hazard if


a) the building, exclusive of the foundations, shows 33% or more damage or
deterioration of its supporting member or members
b) the building, exclusive of the foundation, shows 50% damage or deterioration of its
non-supporting members, enclosing or outside walls or coverings
c) a & b
d) none of the above

5. For failure to pay the inspection fee within 30 days from the prescribed date, the
building official is authorized to impose a surcharge of _____ % of the inspection fee
a) 30 b) 20 c) 25 d) 10

6. Any person, firm or corporation who shall violate any of the provisions of the code
and its IRR and/or commit any act hereby declared to be unlawful shall upon
conviction, be punished by a fine of not more than _____ or by imprisonment.
a) Php 20,000 b) Php 50,000 c) Php 100,000 d) Php 120,000

7. _____ is the vacant space left between the building and lot lines less than 2.00 meters.
It may be considered as an open space provided it allots a permanent public open
space without any separation between them which obstructs the free flow of light
vehicles.
a) yards b) easements c) setbacks d) garden

8. For buildings of not more than 3 storeys, a minimum setback of _____ meters from
any building line to any lot adjoining another property shall be required if windows
are to be provided for overlooking the adjacent property as mandatory easement for
light and view as per Philippine Civil Code.
a)3.0 b) 2.0 c) 1.5 d) 1.8

Building Laws 1/2


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Building Laws

9. No sign or sign-structure shall project into any public ally below a height at _____
meters above established sidewalk grade, nor project more 800 mm.
a) 4.0 b) 2.5 c) 3.0 d) 3.5

Building Laws 2/2


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: BUILDING TECHNOLOGY

Name ___________________________________________ Section _____________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).

1. A brand name for aluminum cladding is:


a) ALMOND c) ALPOLIC
b) ALCOLIC d) None of the above

2. Type of water pipe which can be fused together by heat:


a) POLYPROPELENE c) POLYVINYL
b) POLYETHELENE d) POLYCARBONATE

3. TTC is an acronym for a cabinet for:


a.) Transport c.) Public Address
b.) Telephone d.) INTERCOM

4. An external support built to stabilize a structure by opposing its outward thrusts:


a) Column c) Buttress
b) Brace d) Transverse arch

5. A subordinate vertical structure terminating in a pyramid or spire to add weight to


a buttress pier:
a) Dome c) Dead weight
b) Gargoyle d) Pinnacle

6. A vault having a circular cross section that is larger at one end than the other:
a) Conical c) Rampant
b) Barrel d) Anvular

7. Resembling glass, as in transparency, hardness, brittleness, luster, or having low


or no porosity:
a) Polycarbonate c) Homogenous
b) Vitreous d) Burnt

8. The property of light by which colors of an object is classified as heavy red,


yellow, green, or blue:
a) Hue c) Value
b) Chroma d) Color

9. One of the pair of opposing colors on a color wheel perceived as completing or


enhancing each other:
a) Analogous c) Complementary
b) Advancing d) Achromatic

Building Technology 1/4


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: BUILDING TECHNOLOGY

10. A narrow deposit of sealant applied to a building joint:


a) Bead c) Filler
b) Bond d) Substrate

11. A continuous separation formed in concrete to form a plane of weakness and thus
regulate amount of crashing.
a) Control joint c) Expansion joint
b) Contraction joint d) Isolation joint

12. The projection of a figure or form from the flat background on which it is formed:
a) BAS c) EMBOSS
b) APPLIQUE d) RELIEF

13. A steel rod serving as a king post of a truss:


a) KING ROD c) TRUSS ROD
b) KING BOLT d) VERTICAL ROD

14. A pitch truss having vertical members in tension and diagonal web membranes in
compression:
a) PRATT c) WARREN
b) HOWE d) FINK

15. A pitch truss having vertical members in compression and diagonal web
membranes in tension:
a) PRATT c) WARREN
b) HOWE d) FINK

16. Name of metal tile section of DN Steel:


a) INTRAMUROS c) STILE
b) MADRID d) SPANISH

17. Another name of BARREL clay roof tile:


a) PAN TILE c) MISSION TILE
b) TUSCAN TILE d) SPANISH TILE

18. Distance of purlins for metal roof tile.


a) 1000 mm c) 100 mm
b) 300 mm d) 500 mm

19. Given the following photographs, name the materials as indicated:

Building Technology 2/4


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: BUILDING TECHNOLOGY

1. __________________
a. Granular Fill No. 67
b. Riprap
c. Gravel Fill No. 68

2. __________________
a. Filter blanket
b. Pond Liner
c. Geonet

3. __________________
a. Topsoil
b. Borrow Fill
c. Choker Aggregate

4. __________________ 5. __________________
a. Polycarbonate a. Steel
b. Gypsum b. Aluminum
c. Lime c. Copper

Building Technology 3/4


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: BUILDING TECHNOLOGY

20.

Building Technology 4/4


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Building Utilities

Name___________________________________________________ Section_________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).
1. What does HQI in architectural lighting means?
a) c)
b) METAL HALIDE d)

2. The component of a refrigeration system in which the refrigerant absorbs heat from a cooling medium
and changes from a liquid to a gas.
a) compression c) condenser
b) evaporation d) refrigerant

3. Equivalent to 12,000 BTU/hr (3.5 KW)


a) ton of refrigeration c) centigrade
b) horsepower d) Fahrenheit

4. A device for maintaining or increasing the amount of water vapor in the air of a room.
a) Thermometer c) Humidifier
b) Damper d) Chiller

5. An air-conditioning assembly containing the fans, filters, and other components necessary to heat and
distribute conditioned air to specific zones in a building.
a) Package type c) Air-handling unit
b) Split type d) Fan coil unit

6. Ohm’s Law is:


a) I = V/R c) R = VI
b) V = IR d) I = RV

7. The underground position of service conductors extending from a main power line or transformer to a
building:
a) Direct burial cables c) Service lateral
b) Underground service conductor d) Service drop

8. The SI unit of illumination equal to one lumen per square meter.


a) Lux c) Candelar
b) Footcandle d) Candlepower

9. What is a multifaceted reflector bulb for tungsten halogen lamps called:


a) TB bulb c) MR bulb
b) Halogen d) PL lamp

10. A fluorescent lamp designed to operate with ballast having a low-voltage winding for continuous
heating of the cathodes.
a) Rapid-start c) Pre-heat
b) Instant-start d) Constant-heat

Building Utilities 1/2


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Building Utilities

11. A high intensity discharge lamp similar in construction to a mercury lamp.


a) HP sodium c) Metal halide
b) LP sodium d) mercury

12. Any class of synthetic fabrics used to separate soil materials from a drainage medium
a) GEOTEXTILE c) GRAVEL DRAIN
b) DRAINAGE MAT d) FILTER

13. A groove cut or formed in a vertical surface to receive flashing:


a) TAG c) REGLET
b) WEDGE d) LANT

14. What is an efficient and economical type of electric used for perimeter security lighting.
a) FLUORESCENT
b) PAR
c) METAL HALIDE
d) LP SODIUM

15. Mid frequency unit used in acoustical design of theaters.


a) 500 Hz c) 1000 W
b) 60 dB d) 120 V

16. Height of telecommunications service entrance wire from pavement.


a) 5.0 M c) 3.5 M
b) 3.0 M d) 7.5 M

17. At

Building Utilities 2/2


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-Board Examination: Filipino Architecture

Name ____________________________________________ Section _______________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).
1. Which of the following vernacular house types belongs to the Isneg boatpeople?
a) Binayon
b) Binuron
c) Binangiyan
d) Torogan

2. Which of the following vernacular house types can be octagonal or rectangular in


shape?
a) Binayon
b) Binuron
c) Binangiyan
d) Torogan

3. Which of the following vernacular house types exclusively belongs to datus?


a) Binayon
b) Binuron
c) Binangiyan
d) Torogan

4. Which of the following churches was built in the Spanish Baroque style?
a) Loboc Church
b) Laoag Church
c) San Sebastian Church
d) Morong Church

5. Which of the following churches was built in the Gothic style?


a) Loboc Church
b) Laoag Church
c) San Sebastian Church
d) Morong Church

6. Forts in Spanish settlements were called __________.


a) Moog
b) Baluarte
c) Ijang
d) Kuta

7. An open terrace found in the “Bahay na Bato.”


a) Aljibe
b) Zaguan
c) Azotea
d) Caida

Filipino Architecture 1/3


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-Board Examination: Filipino Architecture

8. Which of the following vernacular terms refers to scaffolding?


a) Bolado
b) Biento
c) Estanyo
d) Andanyo

9. Which of the following vernacular terms refers to a wiring knob?


a) Masilya
b) Kabilya
c) Poleya
d) Trankilya

10. Which of the following buildings was not designed by Cesar Concio?
a) Church of the Holy Sacrifice
b) Melchor Hall
c) Children’s Hospital
d) Insular Life Building

11. Which of the following buildings was designed by Juan Arellano?


a) Agriculture Building
b) Finance Building
c) Legislative Building
d) all of the above

12. Which of the following buildings was not designed by Felipe Mendoza?
a) Development Academy of the Philippines
b) Philippine Heart Center
c) Batasan Complex
d) none of the above

13. Who is the architect of the Quezon Institute?


a) Juan Nakpil
b) Tomas Mapua
c) Antonio Toledo
d) Juan Arellano

14. The phenomena of sound waves of the same frequency reinforcing or canceling
each other.
a) standing waves c) interference
b) attenuation d) sympathetic vibration

15. Sound reflections maintaining the overall sound in a space even after the direct
sound has stopped.
a) reflection c) echo
b) reverberation d) sympathetic vibration

Filipino Architecture 2/3


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-Board Examination: Filipino Architecture

ANSWERS:
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. A
14. B

Filipino Architecture 3/3


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-Board Examination: Filipino Architecture

Name ____________________________________________ Section _______________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).
1. Which of the following vernacular house types belongs to the Isneg boatpeople?
a) Binayon
b) Binuron
c) Binangiyan
d) Torogan

2. Which of the following vernacular house types can be octagonal or rectangular in


shape?
a) Binayon
b) Binuron
c) Binangiyan
d) Torogan

3. Which of the following vernacular house types exclusively belongs to royalty?


a) Binayon
b) Binuron
c) Binangiyan
d) Torogan

4. Which of the following churches was built in the Spanish Baroque style?
a) Loboc Church
b) Laoag Church
c) San Sebastian Church
d) Morong Church

5. Which of the following churches was built in the Gothic style?


a) Loboc Church
b) Laoag Church
c) San Sebastian Church
d) Morong Church

6. Which of the following vernacular terms does not refer to part of the floor system?
a) Soleras
b) Reostra
c) Dotal
d) Guililan

7. Ang Kantero ay hindi nakikialam sa __________.


a) Asinta
b) Ladrillo
c) Kaballete
d) Paupo

Filipino Architecture 1/3


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-Board Examination: Filipino Architecture

8. Which of the following is not a person found on the construction site?


a) Piyon
b) Kontratista
c) Kapatas
d) Prigadero

9. Which of the following vernacular terms refers to scaffolding?


a) Bolado
b) Biento
c) Andanyo
d) Estanyo

10. Which of the following vernacular terms refers to a wiring knob?


a) Masilya
b) Kabilya
c) Poleya
d) Trankilya

11. Which of the following buildings was not designed by Cesar Concio?
a) Church of the Holy Sacrifice
b) Melchor Hall
c) Children’s Hospital
d) Insular Life Building

12. Which of the following buildings was designed by Juan Arellano?


a) Agriculture Building
b) Finance Building
c) Legislative Building
d) all of the above

13. Which of the following buildings was not designed by Felipe Mendoza?
a) Development Academy of the Philippines
b) Philippine Heart Center
c) Batasan Complex
d) none of the above

14. The phenomena of sound waves of the same frequency reinforcing or canceling
each other.
a) standing waves c) interference
b) attenuation d) sympathetic vibration

15. Sound reflections maintaining the overall sound in a space even after the direct
sound has stopped.
a) reflection c) echo
b) reverberation d) sympathetic vibration

Filipino Architecture 2/3


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-Board Examination: Filipino Architecture

ANSWERS:
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. B

Filipino Architecture 3/3


CDEP
Center for the Designed Environment Professions

Mock Examination: Plumbing and Sanitary Services


Arch. Alex Ray P. Evangelista

Name_______________________________________________Date_________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer)
1. Section 4 of Republic Act 1378 is known as
a. the Plumbing Code of the Philippines b. the Plumbing Law
c. the National Master Plumbers Association d. the National Plumber’s Code
2. Any pipe in the plumbing system provided to ventilate a house drainage system and to
prevent trap siphonage and back pressure
a. waste pipe b. vent pipe c. soil pipe d. house trap
3. A vent used in a battery of plumbing fixtures where the vent is installed in-front of the
last fixture of the battery
a. yoke vent b. stack vent c. relief vent d. circuit vent
4. A type of pump which comprises essentially an impeller of set vanes enclosed in a
housing or casing coupled with the pump motor
a. piston pump b. jack pump c. centrifugal pump d.
turbines
5. A female G.I. threaded reducer fitting used to connect a reducing branch from a main
water distribution
a. bell reducer b. tee reducer c. elbow reducer d. coupling
reducer
6. What does PE pipe stand for?
a. Polyethylene Pipe b. Polythylene Pipe
c. Polyvinyl Extra Pipes d. Plastics Extra Pipe
7. method of water treatment wherein denser objectionable elements settle on the bottom
of the basin for easy separation
a. filtration b. sedimentation c. filtering d. limestone
straining
8. the following valves have only one side which can be used as a water inlet, except for
a. horizontal check valve b. angle valve c. swing check valve d. gate
valve
9. preferred type of fitting used to connect two pipes when adjusting the distance of these
pipes is necessary
a. coupling b. socket c. union d. adapter e.
reducer
10. The standard size of a wet standpipe outlet for each floor
a. 38mm (1 ½”) b. 32mm (1 ¼”) c. 51mm (2”) d. 64mm (2 ½”)
11. A type of fitting for yoke vent
a. elbow b. wye c. tee d. crowfoot
12. What is the minimum size of trap or branch of a bidet
a. 75mm (3”) b. 51mm (2”) c. 64mm (2 ½”) d. 38mm (1 ½”)
13. Term applied to the interconnection of the same fixtures in one soil or waste branch
with one branch vent
a. battery of fixtures b. multiple fixtures c. series of fixtures d.
fixture unit
14. A common term for a two-way Fire Service Connection
a. siamese connection b. wet standpipe c. dry standpipe d. combination
wye
15. pipe material which allows the installation of one diameter size smaller than the
specified size as calculated by the master plumber/sanitary engineer
a. G.I. b. wrought iron c. PVC d. cement e. none of the
above
16. Full-way valve is another term for
a. check valve b. gate valve c. globe valve d. lift valve e. none of the above
17. plumbing fixture classification of kitchen sinks
a. soil b. water c. scullery d. bathing e. none of the above
18. faucet with exterior threading at its mouth usually located outside a building
a. key cock b. compression cock c. self closing faucet d. hose
bibb
19. the Air pressure System for water distribution serves zones of how many floors
a. 5 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15 e. none of the above
20. system of water distribution by which water is delivered to and through the building
by normal pressure from the public water main
a. upfeed b. overheadfeed c. downfeed d. air pressure
21. type of fire protection system wherein water is immediately available in case of fire
I. automatic dry pipe II. wet standpipe with siamese connection
III. wet standpipe IV. automatic wet pipe V. dry standpipe
a. I, II, and III b. II, III, and IV c. II and III d. II only e. III
only
22. A fitting installed at the base of a soil stack and a building drain
a. ¼ bend b. wye and 1/8 bend connection c. long sweep bend d. double
1/8 bend
23. Which in the list is not a standard commercial size of GI pipe for water supply
a. 3/8” b. 1 ¼” c. ¾” d. 2 ½”
24. Passing through it can treat hard water
a. zeolite b. chlorine c. iron d. limestone
25. Collection line of a Plumbing system is sometimes referred to as
a. floor drain b. house drain c. storm drain d. sanitary
drain
26. Types of plastic pipes of fittings other than polybutylene and polyethylene
a. polyvinyl chloride b. nylon c. g.i. pipe d. neoprene
pipe
27. Level III type of water service refers to
a. artesian well b. individual shallow well
c. hand pump d. individual house pipe-in connection with meter
28. type of well construction used so as not to affect the foundations of adjacent buildings
a. dug well b. bored well c. driven well d. jetted
well
29. A cause of trap seal loss that only occurs in fixtures at the bottom of soil stacks
a. direct siphonage b. momentum siphonage c. back pressure d. capillary
attraction
30. A chemical present in the sanitary system which, if removed, can prevent or at least
minimize acid formation
a. carbon b. nitrogen c. hydrogen d. iron e. none of the
above
31. That portion of the vent pipe system that directly ventilates two fixture traps
a. unit vent b. dual vent c. common vent d. a and b e. all of the
above
32. That portion of the vent pipe system which ventilates the main soil and waste stack
and connecting branches, rather than the fixture traps themselves
a. circuit vent b. main vent c. relief vent d. unit vent e. wet
vent
33. The minimum size of a swimming pool drain
a. 51mm (2”) b.76mm (3”) c. 102mm (4”) d. 153mm
(6”)
34. Prevents water hammer
a. water meter seal d. gate valve c. check valve d. air
chamber
35. A pipe which conveys only liquid waste, free of fecal matter
a. waste pipe b. soil pipe c. vent pipe d. gray pipe
36. Method of ventilation commonly used in spaces without partitions such as beauty
parlors and barber shops
a. loop vent b. looped vent c. yoke vent d. local vent e. none of the
above
37. The preferred type of pipe used when only a portion of its length is required
a. standard pipe b. single hub pipe c. double hub pipe d. hubless
pipe
38. A general term used for any vertical line of soil, waste, or vent piping
a. stand pipe b. riser c. soil pipe d. stack
39. In buildings with basements much deeper than the city sewer, wastes are conveyed to
the house sewer after it has been collected in a
a. septic tank b. garage trap c. basement trap d. house drain e. sump
pit
40. The lighter organic matter in the septic tank which is less dense than water
a. sludge b. scum c. effluent d. bacteria e. none of the
above
41. The only type of valve used in the sanitary system
a. back flow valve b. pressure valve c. back pressure valve d. gate
valve
42. The pipe used for waste pipe installation during the early 1970’s
a. g.i. pipe b. copper pipe c. cast iron pipe b. pvc pipe
43. The equivalent of 1 Fixture Unit (F.U.)
a. o.23 l/sec b. 0.52 l/sec c. 7.52 l/sec d. 7.5 gals/min e. 75
gals/min
44. The diameter given in tube or tubing specification is referred to its
a. inside diameter b. outside diameter c. yielding tolerance d. threading cut
45. Water column that seals the escape of unhealthy gases in the sanitary drainage system
a. siphon level b. trap or water seal c. air lock d. air chamber
46. A pipe fitting, usually short with inside thread used to connect pipes with outside
threaded ends
a. union b. cross pipe c. coupling d. nipple
47. fixtures directly mounted on walls or ceilings
a. pendant mounted b. recessed mounted c. surface mounted d. flushed
48. an underground tank reservoir to store water
a. overhead tank b. underground tank c. sump d. cistern
49. Coverage of one sprinkler head for light hazard occupancy type buildings
a. 5.0 sqM b. 10 sqM c. 20 sqM d. 25 sqM e. 50
sqM
50. term used in the construction industry to specify the installation of all pipes in a
plumbing system
a. roughing-in b. plumbing layout c. piping network d. piping works
CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Plumbing

Name___________________________________________________ Section_________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).
1. As defined by the National Plumbing Code, a Bidet is called:
a) a water closet c) a sitz bath
b) a private bath d) none of the above

2. The minimum number of showers per person for dormitories:


a) 1 per 8 c) 1 per 5
b) 1 per 10 d) 1 per 12

3. The size of a cleanout connecting to a 38mmØ pipe:


a) 25 mm c) 38 mm
b) 32 mm d) 50 mm

4. G.I. pipes ate threaded outside.


a) true b) false c) varies

5. A hole in the ground curbed with stones, bricks, concrete hollow blocks laid to allow
raw contaminated sewage to leach into the soil:
a) STP c) privy
b) septic tank d) cesspool

6. The slope of the digestive chamber of a septic tank:


a) 1:18 b) 1:10 c) 1:12 d) 1:20

7. A fitting to the water main shaped so as to prevent snapping due to extreme pressure
from the city water supply:
a) gate valve c) goose neck
b) check valve d) 45 deg. Elbow

8. Form of water treatment that exposes water to oxygen to get rid of noxious gases:
a) aeration c) sedimentation
b) chlorination d) filtration

9. Which of the following fittings can not be used for a straight connection of two G.I
pipes:
a) coupling c) cap
b) union d) nipple

10. Type of water distribution system where water is first delivered to an overhead tank
before it is delivered to individual taps:
a) upfeed c) air pressure
b) downfeed d) none of the above

Plumbing 1/2
CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Architectural Practice

11. Which of the following is a vent stack:


a) main soil and waste vent c) wet vent
b) main vent d) local vent

12. What dies upvc stand for?


a) underutilized poly vinyl chlouride c) unvitrified poly vinyl chlouride
b) unusual poly vinyl chlouride d) unplasticized poly vinyl chlouride

13. On December 21, 1999, President Joseph Estrada approved section 4 of R.A. 1378 as
the:
a) plumbing code c) plumbing act
b) plumbing law d) plumbing rules

14. Water source for domestic use that provides soft and pure water:
a) rain water c) ground water
b) natural surface water d) water table

15. An objectionable element in water that is highly corrosive, stains clothing, and picks
up lead:
a) calcium b) magnesium c) algae d) acid

16. Type of sanitary fitting used when connecting pipes from 3 different directions:
a) wye b) tee c) crowfoot d) coupling

17. Type of fitting threaded inside on one side and outside on the other:
a) coupling b) male adapter c) union d) female adapter

18. System of water distribution that does not require the use of pumps or tanks:
a) upfeed b) downfeed c) overhead feed d) air pressure

19. All of the following are coagulants except:


a) ferric chloride b) ferrous sulfate c) aluminum sulfate d) copper sulfate

20. Method of water treatment wherein denser objectionable elements settle on the
bottom of the basin for easy separation:
a) filtration c) filtering
b) sedimentation d) limestone straining

21. Type of fire protection system wherein water is immediately available in case of fire
I. automatic dry pipe III. wet standpipe
II. wet standpipe with siamese IV. automatic wet pipe
connection V. dry standpipe
a) I, II, and III b) II, III, and IV c) II and III d) III only

Architectural Practice 2/2


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Professional Practice

Name___________________________________________________ Section_________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).
1. Name the new Architecture Law
a) RA 9160 c) RA 9266
b) RA 545 d) RA 546

2. MMDA Resolution authorizing the MMDA and local government units to clear the
sidewalks, streets, avenues, alleys, buildings, parks and other public places in Metro
Manila:
a) MMDA Resolution 02-28 c) MMDA Resolution 04-16
b) MMDA Resolution 03-31 d) MMDA Resolution 02-30

3. What is Executive Order # 1008 issued on February 4, 1985?


a) Contractor’s Law c) Building Administration Law
b) Construction Industry Arbitration d) Building Maintenance Law
Law

4. The Architecture Act of 2004 was passed by Senate on:


a) March 17, 2004 c) January 1, 2004
b) January 29, 2004 d) March 30, 2004

5. To be qualified as having passed the licensure examination for architecture, a


candidate must obtain a weighted general average of _____ percent with no grade
lower than _____ percent in any given subject
a) 60 and 50, respectively c) 70 and 50, respectively
b) 75 and 50, respectively d) 50 and 50, respectively

6. In RA 9266, _____ is defined as a duly notarized written contract or equivalent public


instrument stipulating the scope of services and guaranteeing compensation of such
services to be rendered by an architect registered under the act
a) contract agreement c) contract documents
b) service agreement d) service agreement

7. The Board may, after the expiration of _____ years from the date of revocation of a
Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card or Special/temporary
permit.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1.5

8. Any person who shall entice or coerce an architect to perform/undertake any service
under the general practice of architecture shall upon conviction be sentenced to a fine
of not less than _____ or suffer imprisonment for a period of not exceeding _____
year(s).
a) 250,000 / 2 c) 200,000 / 2
b) 200,000 / 5 d) 500,000 / 1

Architectural Practice 1/2


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Architectural Practice

9. A firm, company, partnership, corporation, or association may be registered or


licensed as such for practice. Registered and licensed architects shall compose of at
least _____%of the owners, shareholders, members, incorporators, directors,
executives, offices.
a) 50 c) 80
b) 60 d) 75

Architectural Practice 2/2


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: STRUCTURAL DESIGN

Name ___________________________________________ Section _____________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).

1. A point in each normal section of a member through which the axis passes and
about which the section twists
a.) centroid c.) center of gravity
b.) shear center d.) none of the above

2. When a beam is loaded, the new position of its longitudinal centroid axis is called:
a.) Deflected Shape c.) Elastic Curve
b.)Parabolic Curve d.) Inelastic Curve

3. A structure in which the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient to


determine the reactions or the internal stresses.
a.) Statically determinate structure
b.) Statically indeterminate structure
c.) Static equilibrium
d.) Stable structure

Structural Design 1/1


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Tropical Design

Name ___________________________________________ Section _____________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).

1. The angular elevation of a celestial body above the horizon is known as the
a) Azimuth b) Equinox c) Altitude d) Horizon Differential

2. The tendency of air or gas in a shaft or other vertical space to rise when heated,
creating a draft that draws in cooler air or gas from below is known as
a) Vertical Gas Draft c) Air Change
b) Chimney Effect d) Shaft Exchange

3. Human comfort as determined by the ability of the body to dissipate the heat and
moisture it produces by metabolic action is known as
a) Vertical Gas Shaft c) Comfort Differential
b) Cooling Effect d) Thermal Comfort

4. The time of the year, on or about June 21 when the sun reaches its northernmost point
on the celestial sphere, marking the beginning of summer in the northern hemisphere
is known as
a) Equinox c) Winter Solstice
b) Summer Solstice d) Horizon Differential

5. The side of a building the receives the most solar radiation and therefore the hottest
side is the
a) Northeast facing side of the building c) Southeast facing side of the building
b) Northwest facing side of the building d) Southwest facing side of the building

6. For East Facing side of a building it is best to use __________ type of sunshades to
protect the building from unnecessary heat gain due to direct solar radiation.
a) Eggcrate b)Bris Soleil c) Vertical d) Horizontal

7. For Southwest Facing side of a building it is best to use __________ type of


sunshades to protect the building from unnecessary heat gain due to direct solar
radiation.
a) Eggcrate b) Vertical c) Horizontal d) Horizontal Louvers

8. To produce a relatively high wind speed in MOST of the room, the.


a) The air inlet must be the same size as the outlet
b) The air inlet must larger than the outlet

Tropical Design 1/4


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Tropical Design

c) The air inlet must be smaller than the outlet


d) There must be no outlet

9. The prevailing wind in the Philippines from November to April, also known as the
Amihan comes from the
a) Southwest b) Northeast c) Northwest d) Southeast

10. Which of the following configuration of fins produces the best wind circulation
within a room?

a) Fig. a
b) Fig. b
c) Fig. c
d) None of the above

11. Based on Fig. T.1.A (page 3), what is the sun’s altitude on October 16, 10 am?
a) 75 degrees
b) 45 degrees
c) 52 degrees
d) None of the above

12. Based on Fig. T.1.A (page 3), what is the sun’s azimuth on October 16, 10 am?
a) 93 degrees
b) 298 degrees
c) 120 degrees
d) None of the above

Tropical Design 2/4


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Tropical Design

FIG. T.1.A SUN PATH DIAGRAM (MANILA)

Tropical Design 3/4


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Tropical Design

13. Based on Fig. T.1.A, what is the required width of sunshade for the figure below on
October 16, 10am?

a. 0.87m
b. 1.85m
c. 1.10m
d. None of the above

14. Based on Fig. T.1.A, what is the sun’s azimuth on June 22, 4pm?
a. 289 degrees
b. 203 degrees
c. 182 degrees
d. None of the above

15. Based on Fig. T.1.A, what is the sun’s altitude on June 22, 4pm?
a. 57 degrees
b. 32 degrees
c. 72 degrees
d. None of the above

Tropical Design 4/4


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Urban Design and Planning

Name___________________________________________________ Section_________

Multiple Choice (encircle the letter that corresponds to the best answer).
1. The main proponent of the urban realms model of urban development:
a) E.W. Burgess c) Charney Harris
b) Homer Hoyt d) James Vance

2. Designer of Laguna West in California


a) Peter Kafz c) Andres Duany
b) Peter Calthorpe d) Edwin Hall

3. Point references external to observer that may vary widely in scale


a) paths d) nodes
b) edges e) landmarks
c) districts

4. The smallest in geographical size among Metro Manila’s cities and municipalities
a) Pateros c) Taguig
b) Marikina d) Manila

5. City shape that develops its form from transportation spines or natural valleys
a) sheet c) branch
b) radiocentric d) linear

6. Author of the “New Town’s Act” in England in the 1940’s


a) Gruen b) Silken c) Sitte d) Abercrombie

7. The traditional Roman house with a central atrium


a) curia b) domus c) insulae d) polis

8. Early type of settlement in the Americas taken after the “baug” (military town) and
“fauborg” (citizen’s town) of the medieval ages:
a) medieval organic city d) the European Planned City
b) medieval bastide e) the speculator’s town
c) laws of the Indies towns

9. Concept coined by Jean Gottman for urban complexes in the Northeastern United
States.
a) metropolis b) acropolis c) megalopolis d) polis

10. The most important key to this element is singularity


a) paths b) districts c) nodes d) landmarks

Urban Design and Planning 1/2


CENTER for the DESIGNED
ENVIRONMENT PROFESSIONS
Pre-board Examination: Architectural Practice

11. One of Bentley’s 7 levels of responsive environments that can be translated to space
flexibility:
a) variety c) robustness
b) legibility d) richness

12. Which of the following is not an example of the European planned community of the
settlements of Americas?
a) Boston c) Williamsburg
b) Savannah d) Charleston

13. Covered markets in early Roman Cities that later became law courts; integral element
of the Roman Forum:
a) domus b) insulae c) curia d) basilica

14. The design of this city in France highlighted the emergence of landscape architecture
as an urban design component:
a) Karlsruhe b) Versailles c) Vienna d) Paris

15. The ideal population size of the mother city in the garden cities cluster:
a) 25,000 b) 30,000-32,000 c) 58,000-65,000 d) 80,000-100,000

16. Who was the architect/planner of Philamlife Homes?


a) Juan Arellano c) Amang Parica
b) Carlos Arguelles d) William Parsons

17. Landscape architect involved in the master plan of Quezon City:


a) Harry Frost c) Frederick Law Olmstead
b) Louis Croft d) Zeny Galingan

18. Filipino architect involved in the master plan of Quezon City:


a) Juan Arellano c) Cesar Concio
b) Carlos Arguelles d) Juan Nakpil

19. First introduced housing variations and specialized buildings into town planning:
a) Romans c) Egyptians
b) Greeks d) feudal lords

20. Emerged during the medieval times as the first “university town”.
a) Venice b) Versailles c) Genosa d) Vienna

21. Renaissance city that epitomized Landscape design as an integral part of town
designs:
a) Venice b) Versailles c) Genosa d) Vienna

Architectural Practice 2/2


URBAN DESIGN QUESTIONS

1. acknowledged as the oldest city in the history of settlements


a. Babylon
b. Eridu
c. Constantinople
d. Mohenjo-Daro
2. acknowledged as the oldest continually inhabited city in the world
a. Babylon
b. Eridu
c. Damascus
d. Athens
3. the largest city of the Yellow River Valley of China
a. Anyang
b. Gheijin
c. Sunru Ghin
d. Beijing
4. the first noted urban planner because of his design of the city of Miletus
a. Vitruvius
b. Hippodamus
c. Damascus
d. Paleo
5. the first city that signified the rise of the church, with the church being an integral
part of its urban design
a. Rome
b. Constantinople
c. Madrid
d. Versailles
6. the military towns of Spanish settlements
a. laws of the indies
b. pueblo
c. presidio
d. missions
7. designer of the European Planned City of Savannah in Georgia, USA
a. Frederick Law Olmstead
b. Col. Frank Nicholson
c. Charles Fourier
d. James Oglethorpe
8. the best representation of the “speculators town” of the settlements in early
America
a. Charleston
b. Williamsburg
c. Philadelphia
d. New York City
9. Leader of the Reform Movements during the Industrial Revolution
a. Robert Owen
b. Ebenezer Howard
c. James Oglethorpe
d. Soria Y Mata
10. Author of “Tomorrow: a Peaceful Path to Social Reform” and main proponent of
the Garden Cities
a. Robert Owen
b. Ebenezer Howard
c. James Oglethorpe
d. Soria Y Mata
11. The first garden city designed by Raymund Unwin and Barry Parker
a. Welwyn
b. Hampstead
c. Letchworth
d. Windsor
12. Designed the Garden City of Welwyn
a. Unwin and Parker
b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Louis de Soisson
d. Clarence Perry
13. world fair in Chicago in 1891, setting off the City Beautiful Era
a. the Columbian Exposition
b. the White City
c. World Cities Expo
d. City Beautiful Movement
14. designed the reconstruction of Paris using the principles of the city beautiful
movement
a. John Nash
b. Daniel Burnham
c. Charles Buckingham
d. Baron Hausmann
15. designed Brasilia, the new capital of Brazil during the City Beautiful era
a. Albert Meyer
b. Edward Lutyens
c. Le Corbusier
d. Lucio Costa
16. Frank Lloyd Wright’s project proposal that would allot one acre of land to each
American family
a. Le Contemporaine
b. Unite D Habitation
c. Broadacres
d. Acreville
17. Proposed the Linear City that would serve as a satellite to the city of Madrid
a. Jose Marseilles
b. Diego San Andres
c. Soria Y Mata
d. Geoffrey Selecios
18. Proposed the “Arcology Alternative” or 3D city
a. Soria Y Mata
b. Paolo Soleri
c. Frank Lloyd Wright
d. Kiyonori Kikutake

19. Proposed the first “Floating City” as an alternative to land reclamation


a. Soria Y Mata
b. Paolo Soleri
c. Frank Lloyd Wright
d. Kiyonori Kikutake
20. Believed that planning should first start at the micro level and thus designed the
“neighborhood unit”
a. Clarence Perry and Clarence Stein
b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Frank Lloyd Wright and Louis Sulliven
d. Louis Kahn
21. Urban Planner and Designer famous for his words “Make little plans, they have
no magic to stir men’s blood”
a. Le Corbusier
b. Daniel Burnham
c. Parsons
d. Ebenezer Howard
22. acknowledged as the icon of middle class suburbanization during the 1950s
a. projects 1 to 8
b. Philam-life Homes
c. Forbes Park
d. Quezon City
23. largest in land area among Metro Manila’s 12 cities
a. City of Manila
b. Kalookan City
c. Quezon City
d. Muntinlupa City
24. among Lynch’s elements of the city, these are defined as lateral references that
are not coordinate axes
a. paths
b. edges
c. nodes
d. districts
25. among Lynch’s elements of the city, these are defined as intensive foci from
which the observer is traveling
a. paths
b. edges
c. nodes
d. districts
26. the third level of Ian Bentley’s responsive environments; important in terms of
physical form and activity patterns
a. permeability
b. legibility
c. robustness
d. richness
27. according to Ian Bentley, responsive environments that focus on details, with a
wide vocabulary of visual cues possess
a. legibility
b. variety
c. visual appropriateness
d. personalization
28. the shape of urban cities formed by two corridors of intense development
crossing the center
a. radiocentric
b. rectilinear
c. articulated sheet
d. linear
29. economist who developed the sector model of urban growth and development
a. E.W. Burgess
b. Homer Hoyt
c. Chauncey Harris
d. James Vance
30. the urban model of growth and development that presents the emergence of self-
sufficient sectors
a. concentric zone model
b. sector model
c. multiple nuclei model
d. urban realms model
31. density control method that regulates the proportions between the built area of
the building and the lot area
a. number of occupants per square meter
b. number of occupants per floor
c. floor area ratio
d. floor space index
32. urban design control that allows builders and developers more space if they
provide desirable features such as plazas, arcades, and other open spaces
a. flexible zoning
b. incentive zoning
c. cluster zoning
d. land use planning
33. a general term to describe the idea of consciously renewing the outworn areas of
towns and cities
a. historic preservation
b. urban renewal
c. adaptive reuse
d. urban gentrification
34. a mixed use community with an average 670 meter distance of a transit stop and
commercial core area
a. transit oriented development
b. traditional neighborhood development
c. planned unit development
d. new urbanism
35. a group of architects, planners, and urban designers formed to educate citizens
worldwide of the benefits of new urbanism
a. the Council for New Urbanism
b. the Congress for New Urbanism
c. the New Urbanism Movement
d. the Association of New Urbanists

36. according to the theory of New Urbanism, neighborhoods must have a


discernible center within a five minute of walk of all dwellings, and equivalent to
a. 200 to 300 meters
b. 300 to 500 meters
c. 600 to 700 meters
d. approximately 1 kilometer
37. minimum width of sidewalks, according to New Urbanism principles
a. 1.20 meters
b. 2.00 meters
c. 2.50 meters
d. 3.00 meters
38. designed Seaside, which signified the start of the New Urbanism movement
a. Peter Katz
b. Peter Calthorpe
c. Andres Duany and Elizabeth Plater-Zyberk
d. David Sucher and Daniel Solomon
39. run down industrial area in San Jose, California redeveloped by Peter Calthorpe
a. Laguna West
b. Jackson-Taylor
c. Kentlands
d. Windsor
40. Architect and Urban Designer who worked on the design of Shanghai; author of
“Designing Cities”.
a. Edmund Bacon
b. Jane Jacobs
c. Camillo Sitte
d. Peter Wong
41. pioneer of city center pedestrian shopping areas in America
a. Patrick Abercrombie
b. Walter Griffin
c. Victor Gruen
d. John Nash
42. the study of the classification of types and uses of soil for site analyses
a. geology
b. geomorphology
c. physiography
d. hydrology
43. rocks produced by crystallization from a liquid
a. igneous rocks
b. sedimentary rocks
c. metamorphosed rocks
d. none of the above
44. the allowable bearing capacity, measured in psf, of massive crystalline bedrock,
e.g. granite and gneiss
a. 20,000
b. 30,000
c. 80,000
d. 200,000

45. the allowable bearing capacity, measured in psf, of stiff dry clay
a. 5,000
b. 8,000
c. 15,000
d. 25,000
46. the approximate size of one sand particle
a. 0.50 mm
b. 0.75 mm
c. 1.00 mm
d. 1.25 mm
47. the rate of at which water penetrates the soil surface (usually measured in cm or
inches per hour)
a. drainage
b. infiltration
c. percolation
d. permeability
48. the rate at which water within the soil moves through a given volume of material
(measured in cm or inches per hour)
a. drainage
b. infiltration
c. percolation
d. permeability
49. angle at which soil can be safely inclined and beyond which it will fail
a. angle of incidence
b. angle of repose
c. right angle
d. 45 degree angle
50. angle of slopes considered gently rolling and moderately buildable
a. 0 to 5%
b. 5 to 10%
c. 10 to 15%
d. 15 to 20%