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ENTRANCE EXAM (MEDICAL) SAMPLE PAPER

FOR MOVING CLASS XI
(ACADEMIC SESSION-2018-19)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper has 15 printed pages excluding Answer Sheet. Please ensure that the copy of

the question paper you have received contains all pages.

(ii) The question paper contains 100 questions. The Question paper consists of 4 PARTS.

Nature of No. of
Q.No. Subject Marks Negative Total
Questions Questions
PART-A
1 to 25 25 3 0 75
PHYSICS
PART-B
26 to 50 25 3 0 75
CHEMISTRY
PART-C SCQ
51 to 80 30 3 0 90
BIOLOGY
PART-D
81 to 100 MENTAL 20 3 0 60
ABILITY
Total 100 Total 300

(vi) Each question contains four alternatives out of which only ONE is correct.

(v) Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your answer sheet.

(vi) For rough work, use the space provided at the bottom of each page. No extra sheet will be provided

for rough work.

(vii) Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.

Name of the candidate Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator
PART-A (PHYSICS)
1. A man running with a uniform speed 'u' on a straight road observes a stationary bus at a distance 'd' ahead
of him. At that instant, the bus starts with an acceleration 'a'. The condition that he would be able to catch the
bus is
u2 u2 u2 u2
(1) d  (2) d  (3) d  (4) d 
a 2a 3a 4a
2. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a given velocity 'u' such that it rises for T seconds (T > 1). What is the
distance traversed by the ball during the last one second of ascent (in meters)? (Acceleration due to gravity
is g m/s(2))
1 2 1 g 1
(2) T  g[T 2  (T  1) 2 ] (3) (4) g[T  (T  1) ]
2 2
(1) gT
2 2 2 2
3. The radius of a planet A is twice that of planet B. The average density of the material of planet A is thrice that
of planet B. The ratio between the values of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet A and that on
the surface of planet B is
2 3 4
(1) (2) (3) (4) 6
3 2 3
4. A small spherical ball of mass 'm' is used as the bob of a pendulum. The work done by the force of tension
on its displacemetn is W 1 The same ball is made to roll on a frictionless table. The work done by the force of
normal reaction is W 2 Again the same ball is given a positive charge 'g' and made to travel with a velocity v in
a magnetic field B. The work done by the force experienced by the charged ball is W 3 If the displacements
in each case are the same, we have
(1) W 1 < W 2 < W 3 (2) W 1 > W 2 > W 3
(3) W 1 = W 2 = W 3 (4) that W 1, W 2, W 3 cannot be related by any equation

5. The variation in the kinetic energy (K.E.) adn the potential energy (P.E.) of a particle moving along the x-axis
are shown in the graphs below. Which one of the following graphs violates the law of conservation of energy?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

6. The disc of a siren containing 60 holes rotates at a constant speed of 360 rotations per minute. The emitted
sound is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency
(1) 270 Hz (2) 360 Hz (3) 480 Hz (4) 540 Hz

7. A tuning fork is excited by striking it with a padded hammer. What would be the nature of the vibrations
executed by the prongs as well as the stem of the fork respectively ? (The reference direction is that of the
propagation of the sound wave.)
(1) Both vibrate longitudinally
(2) Both vibrate transversely
(3) The prong vibrate longitudinally whereas the stem vibrates transversely
(4) The prong vibrate transversely whereas the stem vibrates longitudinally

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8. Find the reading of the ammeter in the circuit given below.

V 3V 2V 11V
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2R 4R 7R R
9. Three bulbs with individual power ratings of 12 W, 2 W and 6 W respectively are connected as per the circuit
diagram below. Find the amount of heat dissipated by each in 10 seconds.

(1) 8 J, 133 J, 4 J (2) 120 J, 20 J, 60 J
(3) 10 J, 0.277 J, 25 J (4) 12 J, 166 J, 5 J
10. Which of the following can produce a magnetic field ?
(1) Electric charges at rest (2) Electric charges in motion
(3) Only by permanent magnets (4) Electric charges whether at rest or in motion
11. A wire is lying horizontally in the north-south direction and there is a horizontal magnetic field pointing
towards the east. Some positive charges in the wire move north and an equal number of negative charges
move south.The direction of force on the wire will be

(1) east (2) down, into the page
(3) up, out of the page (4) west

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12. Match the following :

Phenomenon Reason
(i) Rainbow A. Scattering of light
(ii) Twinkling of stars B. Dispersion of light
(iii) Blue colour of sky C. Fluctuation of the
refraction index in
atmosphere layers
(iv) Advancement of D. Refraction of light
sunrise and delay of
sunset

(1) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-C (2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-D
(3) (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv) - D (4) (i) - D, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-C
13. A person is suffering from both near sightedness and far sightedness. His spectacles would be made of
(1) two convex lenses with the upper lens having a larger focal length than the lower lens.
(2) two concave lenses with the upper lens having a smaller focal length than the lower lens.
(3) a concave lens as the upper lens and a convex lens as the lower lens
(4) a convex lens as the upper lens and a concave lens as the lower lens
14. The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown below :

Which one of the following graphs represents the acceleration(a)–time(t) graph for the above motion?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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15. To read a poster on a wall, a person with defective vision needs to stand at a distance of 0.4 m from the
poster. A person with normal vision can read the poster from a distance of 2.0 m. Which one of the following
lens may be used to correct the defective vision?
(1) A concave lens of 0.5 D (2) A concave lens of 1.0 D
(3) A concave lens of 2.0 D (4) A convex lens of 2.0 D
16. A ball released from rest at time t = 0 hits the ground. It rebounds inelastically with a velocity 5 ms-1 and
reaches the top at t = 1.5 s, what is the net displacement of the ball from its initial position after 1.5 s?
(g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 1.25 m (3) 5.00 m (2) 3.75 m (4) 6.25 m
17. A horizontal jet of water is made to hit a vertical wall with a negligible rebound. If the speed of water from the
jet is , the diameter of the jet is ‘d’ and the density of water is ‘’ then the force exerted on the wall by the
jet of water is
 2  2 2  2 2  2 2
(1) d  (2) d  (3) d  (4) d 
4 4 8 2
18. Two blocks A and B of masses 8 kg and 2 kg respectively, lie on a horizontal frictionless surface as shown
in the figure. They are pushed by a horizontally applied force of 15 N. The force exerted by B on A is

(1) 1.5 N (2) 3.0 N (3) 4.5 N (4) 6.0 N
19. A beaker half-filled with water is put on a platform balance which is then set to zero. A 800 g mass is
immersed partially in water using a spring balance as shown in the figure. If the spring balance reads 300 g,
what will be the reading on the platform balance?

(1) 200 g (2) 300 g (3) 500 g (4) 800 g

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20. An object falls a distance H in 50 s when dropped on the surface of the earth. How long would it take for the
same object to fall through the same distance on the surface of a planet whose mass and radius are twice
that of the earth? (Neglect air resistance)
(1) 35.4 s (2) 50.0 s (3) 70.7 s (4) 100.0 s
21. A source produces sound waves under water. Waves travel through water and then into air. Which of the
following statements about the frequency(f) and the wavelength() is correct as sound passed from water to
air?
(1) f remains unchanged but  decreases (2) f remains unchanged but  increases
(3)  remains unchanged but f decreases (4)  remains unchanged but f increases
22. The diameter of a wire is reduced to one-fifth of its original value by stretching it. If its initial resistance is R,
what would be its resistance after reduction of the diameter?
R R
(1) (2) (3) 25 R (4) 625 R
625 25

23. An object of mass ‘m’ moving along a straight line with a velocity ‘u’ collides with a heavier mass ‘M’ and gets
embedded into it. If the compound system of mass (M + m) keeps moving in the same direction then which of the
given options is true?
(1) The kinetic energies before and after collision are same
1
(2) The kinetic energy after collision is (M + m)u2
2
1 m 2 u2
(3) There will be a loss of kinetic energy to
2 (M  m)
1 M2
(4) There will be a loss of kinetic energy to u2
2 (M  m)
24. A vessels is filled with oil as shown in the diagram. A ray of light from point O at the bottom of vessels is
incident on the oil - air interface at point P and grazes the surface along PQ. The refractive index of the oil is
closed to -

(1) 1.41 (3) 1.63 (2) 1.50 (4) 1.73
25. A charged particle placed in an electric fields falls from rest through a distance d in time t. If the charge on the
particle is doubled, the time of fall through the same distance will be
t t
(1) 2t (2) t (3) (4)
2 2

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PART-B (CHEMISTRY)
26. What happens when a fixed amount of oxygen gas is taken in a cylinder and compressed at constant
temperature ?
(i) Number of collisions of oxygen molecules at per unit area of the wall of the cylinder increases.
(ii) Oxygen (O2) gets converted into ozone (O3).
(iii) Kinetic energy of the molecules of oxygen gas increases.
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (iii) only (4) (i) only
27. The solubility of a substance S in water is 28.6% (mass by volume) at 50º C. When 50 mL of its saturated
solution at 50ºC is cooled to 40ºC, (2)4 g of solid S separates out.The solubility of S in water at 40ºC (mass
by volume) is :
(1) (2)4 % (2) 1(1)9% (3) 26.2% (4) 2(3)8%
28. What mass of CO2 will be formed when 6g of carbon is burnt in 32 g of oxygen ?
(1) 38 g (2) 12g (3) 26 g (4) 22 g
29. The law of conservation of mass is valid for which of the following ?
a. Reactions involving oxidation b.Nuclear reactions.
c. Endothermic reactions
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) only
30. How many sub-atomic particles are present in an -particle used in Rutherford’s scattering
experiment ?
No. of protons No. of Neutrons No. of Electrons
(1) 4 0 0
(2) 2 0 2
(3) 2 2 0
(4) 2 2 1
31. A certain sample of element Z contains 60% of 69Z and 40% of 71Z. What is the relative atomic mass of
element Z in this sample ?
(1) 69.2 (2) 69.8 (3) 70.0 (4) 70.2
32. Compound A on strong heating in a boiling tube gives off reddish brown fumes and a yellow residue. When the
aqueous solution of A is treated with a few drops of sodium hydroxide solution, a white precipitate appeared in
the compound A. Identify the cation and anion present in the compound A.
(1) Copper (II) and nitrate (2) Lead (II) and chloride
(3) Zinc and sulphate (4) Lead (II) and nitrate

33. A substance A reacts with another substance B to produce the product C and a gas D. If a mixture of the gas
D and ammonia is passed through an aqueous solution of C, baking soda is formed. The substances A and
B are :
(1) HCl and NaOH (2) HCl and Na2CO3 (3) Na and HCl (4) Na2CO3 and H2O
34. A metal occurs in nature as its ore X which on heating in air converts to Y.Y reacts with unreacted X to give
the metal. The metal is :
(1) Hg (2) Cu (3) Zn (4) Fe

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35. Assertion (A) : Nitrate ores are rarely available.
Reason (R) : Bond dissociation energy of nitrogen is very high.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct and R is false
(4) Both A and R are False
36. The number of structural isomers of the compound having molecular formula C4H9Br is :
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2
37. The total number of electrons and the number of electrons involved in the formation of various bonds present
in one molecule of propanal (C2H5CHO) are respectively :
(1) 32 and 20 (2) 24 and 20 (3) 24 and 18 (4) 32 and 18
38. Consider following as a portion of the periodic table from Group No. 13 to 17. Which of the following statments
is are true about the elements shown in it ?
I. V, W, X and Z are less electropositive than X.
II.V, W, X and Y are more electronegative than Z.
III. Atomic size of Y is greater than that of W.
IV. Atomic size of W is smaller than that of X.
V Z
W Y

X

(1) I, II and III (2) II and III (3) I and IV (4) III and IV
39. The metal(M) forms an oxide, M2O3. The formula of its nitride will be
(1) M2N3 (2) MN (3) M2N (4) M3N2
40. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Which of the following is a solution?
(1) Milk (2) Smoke (3) Brass (4) Face cream
41. 1.80 g of glucose is dissolved in 36.00 g of water in a beaker. The total number of oxygen atoms in the
solution is
(1) 12.405 × 1023 (2) 12.405 × 1022 (3) 6.022 × 1023 (4) 6.022 × 1022
42. 35Cl and 37Cl are the two isotopes of chlorine, in the ratio 3 : 1 respectively. If the isotope ratio is reversed, the
average atomic mass of chlorine will be :
(1) 35.0 u (2) 35.5 u (3) 36.0 u (4) 36.5 u
43. The turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueous solution of
(1) potassium acetate (2) copper sulphate (3) sodium sulphate (4) ferric chloride
44. A metal ‘M’ of moderate reactivity is present as its sulphide ‘X’. On heating in air, ‘X’ converts into its oxide,
‘Y’ and a gas evolves. On heating ‘Y’ and ‘X’ together, the metal. ‘M’ is produced. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
(1) ‘X’ = cuprous sulphide, ‘Y’ = cuprous oxide (2) ‘X’ = cupric sulphide, ‘Y’ = cupric oxide
(3) ‘X’ = sodium sulphide, ‘Y’ = sodium oxide (4) ‘X’ = calcium sulphide, ‘Y’ = calcium oxide

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45. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about graphite and diamond?
(1) Graphite is smooth and slippery
(2) Diamond is good conductor of heat
(3) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
(4) Physical and chemical properties of graphite and diamond are different
46. The functional groups present in the following compound are

(1) alcohol, ketone and ester (2) ester and carboxylic acid
(3) carboxylic acid and ketone (4) ester and alcohol
47. A part of the modern periodic table is presented below in which the alphabets represent the symbols of
elements.

Consult the above part of the periodic table to predict which of the following is a covalent compound.
(1) RQ2 (2) AT (3) JQ (4) JX2
48. A compound ‘X’ reacts with a compound ‘Y’, to produce a colourless and odourless gas. The gas turns lime
water milky. When ‘X’ reacts with methanol in the presences of concentrated H2SO4, a sweet smelling
substance is produced. The molecular formula of the compound ‘X’ is
(1) C2H4O (3) C2H6O (2) C2H4O2 (4) C2H6O2
49. The schematic diagram is given below :

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(1) A and E are chemically same (2) A and D are chemically same
(3) D and E are chemically same (4) C and E are chemically same
50. Which of the following is a feasible reaction?
(1) Ba (s) + K2SO4 (aq) BaSO4 (aq) + 2K (s)
(2) Zn (s) + 2 AgNO3 (aq) Zn(NO3 )2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)
(3) Mg (s) + Na2SO4 (aq) MgSO4 (aq) + 2Na (s)
(4) Cu (s) + MgSO4 (aq) CuSO4 (aq) + Mg (s)

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PART-C (BIOLOGY)
51. About how much blood is present in the circulatory system of an average person?
(1) 1 litre (2) 2 litre (3) 5 litre (4) 10 litre
52. Which of the following does not help in clotting of blood ?
(1) Ca2+ (2) Heparin (3) Prothrombin (4) Exposure to O2
53. Which of the following has least urea ?
(1) Renal artery (2) Renal vein (3) Efferent arteriole (4) None of these
54. Hormone which controls amount of urine is :
(1) TSH (2) ADH (3) Adrenallin (4) Thyroxin
55. A fossil is a/an –
(1) laboratory preserved animal (2) dead animal of the past
(3) organic relic of the past (4) living animal
56. Vagina of the female reproductive system is :
(1) Primary sex organ (2) Accessory sex organ
(3) organic relic of the past (4) None of these
57. Plannaria cut into number of pieces will :
(1) die (2) sporulate
(3) develop sex organs (4) regenerate to form new individuals
58. One of the factor required for the maturation of erythrocytes is :
(1) Vit -D (2) Vit-A (3) Vit-B12 (4) Vit – C
59. Osculum occurs in :
(1) Start fish (2) Ray fish (3) Hydra (4) Sponge
60. Junction of two nerve fibres is called :
(1) Synapse (2) Junction (3) Connection (4) None of these
61. Stomach in vertebrates is the main site for digestion of :
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates (3) Fats (4) Nucleic acids
62. Atmosphere of earth just before the origin of life consisted of :
(1) Water vapours, CH4, NH3 and Oxygen (2) CO2, NH3, SO2 and CH4
(3) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapours (4) CH4, O3, O2 and water vapours
63. Homologous organs are :
(1) Dissimilar origin and dissimilar structures (2) Dissimilar origin but similar functions
(3) Similar origin with dissimilar functions (4) None
64. Oxygen carrier or the respiratory pigment in the blood of frog and other vertebrates is :
(1) Haemocyanin (2) Cytochrome (3) Haemoglobin (4) None of these
65. Purkinje’s fibres are special types of :
(1) Muscle fibres located in heart
(2) Nerve fibres located in cerebrum
(3) Connective tissue fibres joining one bone to another bone
(4) Sensory fibres extending from retina into optic nerve

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66. If a person has lost his memory in an accident, the following part of the brain have got injured :
(1) Diencephalon (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Cerebellum (4) Cerebrum
67. Function of adipose tissue is :
(1) Fat storing tissue (2) Helps in traping heat inside the body
(3) Acts as shock absorber (4) All the above
68. Eukaryotic cell possesses :
(1) Chromatin (2) Mesosomes (3) Nucleoid (4) Definite nucleus
69. 70S ribosomes, chromatophores, circular DNA, are found in :
(1) All eukaryotes (2) All prokaryotes
(3) Some prokaryotes (4) Some eukaryotes and some prokaryotes
70. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option :
(A) Mitochondria (i) Without membrane
(B) Centriole (ii) Single membrane structure
(C) Ribosome (iii) Double membrane structure
(D) Lysosome (iv) Smallest cell organelle
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
71. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?
(1) Thylakoids –flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
(2) Centrioles – sites for active RNA synthesis
(3) Ribosomes – those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)
(4) Lysosomes – optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
72. Chromosome end is called :
(1) Telomere (2) Centromere (3) Satellite (4) Metamere
73. Given below is the diagram of a typical structure of dicotyledonous seeds. In which one of the options all the
five parts A, B, C, D and E are correct ?

A B C D E
(1) Hilum, Micropyle Radicle, Cotyledon Plumule
(2) Hilum Micropyle Plumule Cotyledon Radicle
(3) Micropyle Hilum Plumule Cotyledon Radicle
(4) Hilum Micropyle Plumule Radicle Cotyledon
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74. Variations are :
(1) Degree by which progeny differs from their parents
(2) Degree by which progeny similar to their parents
(3) Process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny
(4) True breeding lines
75. It was found that sometimes the F1- had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents and was
in between the two. This is the case of:
(1) Dominance (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Codominance (4) Pleiotropism
76. In dihybrid mendelian cross how many types of genotypes and phenotypes will be obtain :
(1) 4 and 9 respectively (2) 9 and 4 respectively
(3) 9 and 16 respectively (4) 4 and 16 respectively
77. In a dihybrid cross, pure homozygous plants in F2 generation will be :
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 9
78. Root are feebly developed in :
(1) Hydrophytes (2) Mesophytes (3) Xerophytes (4) Halophytes
79. R.Q. in anaerobic respiration is :
(1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 1 (4) > 1
80. How many molecules of oxygen (O2) are used during the glycolysis of one glucose molecule ?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 36 (4) 8

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PART-D (MENTAL ABILITY)
81. If RESPOND is coded as EMPOTDS and SENSE is coded as FRODT, then CLARIFY will be coded as :
(1) EDTOJME (2) ZEJSBMD (3) ZEJQBKD (4) ZDKSBKD
82. Madhu walks 15 metres towards north, then she turns left at 90° and walk 30 metres, then turns right at 90°
and walks 25 metres. How far, she is form the starting point and in which direction ?
(1) 55 mt., north -east (2) 50 mt., north-west (3) 60 mt., north (4) 50 mt., west
83. Five friends A,B,C,D and, E are standing in a row facing south but not necessarily in the same order. Only B
is between A and E, C is immediate right to E and, D is immediate left to A. On the bais of above information,
which of the following statement is definitely true ?
(1) B is to the left of A (2) B is to the right of E
(3) A is second to the left of C (4) D is third to the left of E
Direction (Question 84-88) : A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven employees in an organisation working in the departments
of Administration, Accounts and Operations. There are at least two employees in each department. There
are three females, one in each department. Each of seven employees earns different amount. The only
bearded employee F works in administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the
least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband
of H. works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the
husband.
84. Which of the following is a group of females :
(1) GCE (2) GEH (3) GCH (4) GHB
85. In which department(s) do three people work ?
(1) Operations (2) Accounts (3) Operation or Account (4) Data inadequate
86. What will be position of A from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their income ?
(1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth
87. In which of the following department does B work?
(1) Operations (2) Accounts (3) Administration (4) Data inadequate
88. Which of the following statments is definitely true?
(1) B earns less than F and H (2) F earns more than B and E
(3) B earns more than E and C (4) B earns less than A and H
Direction ( Question 89-91) : Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as
follows :
Input : these icons were taken out from the sea.
Pass Codes
Batch I : from sea the out taken were icons these
Batch II : from icons these were taken out the sea
Batch III : from icons out sea the taken were these
Batch IV : from icons out sea these were taken the

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89. What will be the pass code for the Batch V on a day, if the input is “four of the following five form a group” ?
(1) a five following form four group the of (2) a five following form group the of four
(3) a five following form four of the group (4) a five following form four group of the
90. If the pass code for the Batch IV on a day was ‘back go here people who settle want to’, what was the
pass code for the Batch V on that day?
(1) back go here people settle who want to (2) back go here people to want settle who
(3) back go here people settle to want who (4) cannot be determined
91. The pass code for the Batch I on a day was 'he so used to sell the surplus items’.What was the input on that
day ?
(1) items surplus the sell to used so he (2) he items surplus the sell to used so
(3) so used to sell the surplus items he (4) cannot be determined
92. What is the total number of triangeles and total numbers of squares in the give figure ?

(1) 28 triangles, 10 squares (2) 28 triangles, 8 squares
(3) 32 triangles, 10 squares (4) 32 triangles, 8 squares
93. A cube whose two adjacent faces are coloured is cut into 64 identical small cubes. How many of those small
cubes are not coloured at all ?
(1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 36 (4) 48
94. If 54/32 =4, 36/42 = 3, 92/22 = 7 then what is 28/33 = ?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 9
95. In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’ ‘ ‘Kop Ja ki ma’ means’ Asha is
playing tennis’, ‘ki top sop ho’ menas ‘they are playing football’ ; and ‘ po sur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’.
Which word in this language means ‘Asha’ ?
(1) Ja (2) ma (3) kop (4) top
96. A ship navigating in the Indian Ocean is hit by a sea storm and drifts as follows :
40 km North
28 km north west
36 km west
52 km south and 29 km south east.
The ship had finally drifted in...................direction from its original position.
(1) South West (2) South (3) West (4) South East

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97. Four diagrams marksed A,B,C and D are given below.The one that best illustrates the relationship among
three given classes :
Women, Teachers, Doctors

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
98. Identify the missing number in the following squence
2,17,52,_________,206
(1) 73 (2) 85 (3) 113 (4) 184
99. Select the missing number

(1) 184 (2) 210 (3) 241 (4) 425
100. Select the missing numbers in the following sequence 3,6,24,30,63,72,?,?,195,210
(1) 117, 123 (2) 120,132 (3) 123,135 (4) 135,144

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ANSWER KEY
PHYSICS
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 3
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans 2 2 2 3 3 1 4 4 4 3

CHEMISTRY
Que s. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 4 4 4 1 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 3
Que s. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans 1 4 1 1 4 2 1 2 4 2

BIOLOGY
Que s. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 3 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 1 1 3 3 1
Que s. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 4 4 4 2 4 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 4 1

MAT
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95
Ans. 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 4 1 3 4 3 3 3 1
Ques. 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 1 3 3 1 2

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BLUE PRINT OF ENTRANCE EXAM (Medical) SAMPLE PAPER (COURSE-2018-19)
MOVING CLASS 11th
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
S.NO. TOPIC Q. NO. TOTAL MARKS MARKS SCORED
1 KINEMATICS 1,2,14 9
2 NEWTON'S LAW OF MOTION 18,25 6
3 ELECTRICITY 8,9,22 9
4 GRAVITATION 3,20 6
5 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER 4,5,16,17,23 15
6 SOUND 6,7,21 9
7 MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT 10,11 6
8 LIGHT 12,13,15,24 12
9 FLUIDS 19 3
TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS 25 75
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
S.NO. TOPIC Q. NO. TOTAL MARKS MARKS SCORED
1 METALS AND NON-METALS 34,35,39,44 12
2 ACID,BASE AND SALT 33,43,48,49 12
3 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS 26,32,50 9
4 PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION 38,47 6
5 MOLE CONCEPT 28,29,41, 9
6 ATOMIC STRUCTURE 30,31,42 9
7 MATTER 27,40 6
8 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS 36,37,45,46 12
TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS 25 75
SUBJECT : BIOLOGY
S.NO. TOPIC Q. NO. TOTAL MARKS MARKS SCORED
1 CIRCULATORY SYSTEM 51,52,64,65 12
2 EXCRETORY SYSTEM 53,54 6
3 HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION 55,62,63,74,75,76,77 21
4 REPRODUCTION 56,57,73 9
5 TISSUE 58,67 6
6 CELL 68,69,70,71,72 15
7 DIVERSITY 59 3
8 ADAPTATION 78 3
9 RESPIRATION 79,80 6
10 CONTROL AND COORDINATION 60,66 6
11 DIGESTIVE SYSTEM 61 3
TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS 30 90
SUBJECT : MENTAL ABILITY
S.NO. TOPIC Q. NO. TOTAL MARKS MARKS SCORED
1 NUMBER SERIES 98,100 6
2 SEATING ARRANGEMENT 83 3
3 MISSING TERM IN FIGURES 99 3
4 SEQUENTIAL OUTPIT TRACING 89,90,91 9
5 CODING-DECODING 81,94,95 9
6 COUNTING OF FIGURE 92 3
7 CUBES 93 3
8 PUZZLES 84,85,86,87,88 15
9 VENN DIAGRAM 97 3
10 DIRECTION SENSE 82,96 6
TOTAL NUMBER OF QUESTIONS 20 60