AIEESE Primary PCM- All India Engineering Entrance Scholarship Examination Test Sample Question Paper 2018 for admission to top engineering colleges in India. for more info: https://aieeseprimary.co.in

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AIEESE Primary PCM- All India Engineering Entrance Scholarship Examination Test Sample Question Paper 2018 for admission to top engineering colleges in India. for more info: https://aieeseprimary.co.in

© All Rights Reserved

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a) torque b) work a) 0.8 m/s b) 4 m/s

c) energy d) coefficient of viscosity c) 3.6 m/s d) 5 m/s

2) A body is moved along a straight line by a 8) A bomb of mass 3.0 kg explodes in air into two

machine delivering a constant power. The pieces of masses 2.0 kg and 1.0 kg. The smaller

distance moved by the body in time ‘t’ is mass goes at a speed of 80 m/s. The total energy

proportional to imparted to the two fragments is

a) t3/4 b) t3/2 a) 1.07 kJ b) 2.15 kJ

1/4

c) t d) t1/2 c) 2.4 kJ d) 4.8 kJ

3) A constant power P is applied to a particle of 9) A round disc of moment of inertia I2 about

mass m. The distance travelled by the particle its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing

when its velocity increases from v1 to v2 is through its centre is placed over another disc

(neglect friction) of moment of inertia I1 rotating with an angular

velocity w about the same axis. The final angular

a)

3P

(

m 3

)

v 2 − v13 b)

m

3P

( v2 − v1 ) velocity of the combination of discs is

I w

c)

m

(

3P 2

)

v 2 − v12 d)

3P

(

m 2

)

v 2 − v12 a) 2

I1 + I 2

b) w

and radius r. What force is required to break a c) d)

I1 − I 2 I1

wife, of same material having twice the length

10) Gravitational acceleration on the surface of

and six times the radius?

6

a) F b) 3F a planet is g. Where g is the gravitational

c) 9F d) 36F 11

5) At time t = 0 a particle starts moving along the acceleration on the surface of the earth. The

x-axis if its kinetic energy increases uniformly average mass density of the planet is 2/3 times

with time ‘t’ the net force acting on it must be that of the earth. If the escape speed on the

proportional to surface of the earth is taken to be 11 kms–1,

a) Constant b) t the escape speed on the surface of the planet in

1 kms–1 will be

c) d) t a) 4 b) 6

t c) 3 d) 5

6) A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically 11) Two bodies of masses m and 4 m are placed at a

upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done distance r. The gravitational potential at a point

by the force of gravity during the time the on the line joining them where the gravitational

particle goes up is field is zero :

a) –0.5 J b) –1.25 J 4Gm 6Gm

c) 1.25 J d) 0.5 J a) − b) −

r r

7) A particle of mass 0.2 kg is moving in one

dimension under a force that delivers a constant c) − 9Gm d) Zero

power 0.5 W to the particle. If the initial speed r

Space for Rough Work

2

12) If a ball of steel (density ρ = 7.8 g cm–3) attains 17) A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times

a terminal velocity of 10 cm s–1 when falling more massive than the earth and its radius is

in water (co-efficient of viscosity ɳwater = 10times smaller. Given that the escape velocity

8.5 × 10–4 pa.s), then its terminal velocity in from the earth is 11 km s–1, the escape velocity

glycerine (ρ = 1.2 g cm–3, ɳ = 13.2 Pa.s ) would from the surface of the planet would be

be nearly a) 1.1 km s–1 b) 11 km s–1

a) 6.25 × 10–4 cm s–1 c) 110 km s–1 d) 0.11km s–1

b) 6.25 × 10–4 cm s–1 18) The Speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain

c) 1.5 × 10–5 cm s–1 temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound

d) 1.6 × 10–5 cm s–1 in helium (He) at the same temperature will be

13) Two wires are made of the same material and (assume both gases to be ideal)

have the same volume. However wire 1 has a) 1421 ms–1 b) 500 ms–1

cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross- c) 650 ms–1 d) 330 ms–1

sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 19) 100 g of water is heated from 30ºC to 50ºC.

increases by Dx on the applying force F, how Ignoring the slight expansion of the water, of

much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the the water, the change in its internal energy is

same amount ? (specific heat of water is 4184 J/kg/K)

a) 4 F b) 6 F a) 8.4 kJ b) 84 kJ

c) 9 F d) F c) 2.1 kJ d) 4.2 kJ

14) 0.8 J work is done in rotating a magnet by 60º, 20) A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic

placed parallel to a uniform magnetic field. motion with amplitude a and frequency v. The

How much work is done in rotating it 30º average kinetic energy during its motion from

further ? the position of equilibrium to the end is

a) 0.8 × 107 erg b) 0.8 erg a) 2p2ma2v2 b) p2ma2v2

c) 8 J d) 0.4 J c) 1/4 ma2v2 d) 4p2ma2v2

15) A spherical body of area A and emissivity e = 21) If x, v and a denote the displacement, the

velocity and the acceleration of a particle

0.6 is kept inside a perfectly black body. Total

executing simple harmonic motion of time

heat radiated by the body at temperature T

period T, then, which of the following does not

a) 0.4 AT4 b) 0.8 AT4

change with time?

c) 0.6 AT 4 d) 1.0 AT4

a) aT/x b) aT + 2pv

16) The average translational kinetic energy of

c) aT/v d) a T + 4p v

2 2 2 2

O2 (relative molar mass 32) molecules at

22) A cylindrical tube open at both ends, has a

a particular temperature is 0.048 eV. The

fundamental frequency, f, in air. The tube is

translational kinetic energy of N2 (relative

dipped vertically in water so that half of its is

molar mass 28) molecules in eV at the same

in water. The fundamental frequency of the air-

temperature is :

column is now:

a) 0.0015 b) 0.003

a) f b) f/2

c) 0.048 d) 0.768

c) 3f/4 d) 2f

Space for Rough Work

3

23) The potential difference in open circuit for a b) current I will increase

cell is 2.2 V. When a 4W resistor is connected c) resistance R will increase

between its two electrodes the potential d) resistance R will decrease

difference becomes 2 V. The internal resistance 29) A beam of a proton with a velocity 4 × 105

of the cell will be m/sec enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3

a) 1 W b) 0.2 W tesla at an angle of 60º to the magnetic field.

c) 2.5 W d) 0.4 W Find the radius of the helical path taken by the

24) We wish to see inside an atom. Assuming the proton beam.

atom to have diameter of 100 pm, this means a) 0.05 m b) 0.12 m

that one must be able to resolve a width of say c) 0.021 m d) 0.012 m

10 pm. If an electron microscope is used, the 30) A particle of mass m and charge q is moving

minimum electron energy required is about in a region where uniform, constant electric

a) 1.5 keV b) 15 keV and magnetic fields E and B are present. E and

c) 150 keV d) 1.5 MeV B are parallel to each other. At time t = 0, the

25) Three concentric metallic spherical shells of velocity v0 of the particle is perpendicular to

radii R, 2R, 3R, are given charge Q1, Q2, Q3, E. (Assume that its speed is always << c, the

respectively. It is found that the surface change speed of light in vacuum.) Find the velocity v

densities on the outer surfaces of the shells Are of the particle at time t.

equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to

qBt qt ( v0 × B) qBt

the shells Q1 : Q2 : Q3 is a) ν 0 cos +E + sin

m m B m

a) 1 : 2 : 3 b) 1 : 3 : 5

c) 1 : 4 : 9 d) 1 : 8 : 18 qBt qt ( v0 × B) qBt

26) Capacitance of a capacitor made by a thin metal

b) ν 0 cos +E − sin

m m B m

foil is 2 mF. If the foil is folded with paper of

thickness 0.15 mm, dielectric constant of paper qt qt ( v0 × B) qBt

c) ν 0 cos +E − sin

is 2.5 and width of paper is 400 mm, the length Bm m B m

of the foil will be

qBt qt ( v0 × B) qt

a) 0.34m b) 1.33 m d) ν 0 cos +E − sin

m m B Bm

c) 13.4 m d) 33.9

31) A moving coil galvanometer has 48 turns and

27) A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible

area of coil is 4 × 10–2 m2. If the magnetic field

thickness is introduced between the plates of a

is 0.2 T, then to increase the current sensitivity

capacitor. The capacitance of the capacitor.

by 25% without changing area (A) and field

a) decreases

(B) the number of turns should become

b) remains unchanged

a) 24 b) 36

c) becomes infinite

c) 60 d) 54

d) increases

32) Two identical conducting wires AOB and

28) An electric wife of resistance R carries a

COD are placed at right angles to each other.

current I. When a magnetic field is applied

The wire AOB carries an electric current I1

perpendicular to the wire, the

and COD carries a current I2. The magnetic

a) current I will decrease

Space for Rough Work

4

field on a point lying at a distance d from O, 38) A square of side 3 cm is located at a distance

in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the 25 cm from a concave mirror of focal length

wires AOB and COD, will be given by 10 cm. The centre of square is at the axis of

1

mirror. The area enclosed by the image of the

m m I + I 2

a) 0 (I12 + I 22 ) b) 0 1 2 square is

2pd 2p d a) 4 cm2 b) 6 cm2

1

m

(

c) 0 I12 + I 22 2

2pd

) m

d) 0 ( I1 + I 2 )

2pd

c) 16 cm2 d) 36 cm2

39) A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm

33) A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady radiates 450 W power at 500 K. If the radius

current i. The current is uniformly distributed were halved and temperature be doubled, the

across its cross section. The ratio of the power radiated in watt would be

magnetic field at a/2 and 2a is a) 1800 b) 900

a) 1/2 b) 1/4 c) 3600 d) 850

c) 4 d) 1 40) The wavelengths of the lines emitted in the

34) What is self inductance of a coil when a charge Lyman series of the spectrum of hydrogen

of current from 0 to 2A in 0.05 second induces atom correspond to transitions between energy

an emf of 40 V in it levels and total quantum numbers

a) 1H b) 2H

a) n = 3 to n = 1

c) 3H d) 4H

b) n = 3 to n = 2

35) A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0

c) n =4 to n =1

is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t =

d) n = 4 to n = 2

0. The time at which the energy is stored equally

between the electric and magnetic field. 41) The work function of sodium is 2.3 eV. The

p threshold wavelength of sodium will be

a) LC b) 2p LC a) 2900 Å b) 2500 Å

4

c) 5380 Å d) 2000 Å

c) LC d) p LC 42) A radio transmitter operator at a frequency of

36) The flux linked with a circuit is given by f = t3 880 kHz and power of 10 kW. The number of

+ 3t – 7. The graph between time (x-axis) and photons emitted per second is

induced emf (y-axis) will be

a) 13.27 × 104 b) 13.27 × 1034

a) a straight line through the origin c) 1327 × 10 34 d) 1.71 × 1031

b) straight line with positive intercept

43) An electron, in a hydrogen-like atom, is in

c) straight line with negative intercept

an excited state. It has a total energy of –3.4

d) parabola not through origin

37) The intensity of radiation emitted by two stars A eV. Calculate. The kinetic energy and the de

and B are in the ratio of 16 : 1. The wavelength Broglie wavelength of the electron

corresponding to their peak emission of a) 3.4eV & 0.66 × 10–9m

radiation will be in the ratio of b) 4.3eV & 0.88 × 10–8m

a) 2 : 1 b) 4 : 1 c) 2eV & 1 × 10–9m

c) 1 : 2 d) 16 : 1 d) 6.5eV & 0.5 × 10–6m

5

44) As the beam enters the medium, it will 48) If an electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the

a) diverge 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom, then the frequency

b) converge of emitted radiation in the hertz will be (Take

c) diverge near the axis and converge near the Rydberg’s constant, R = 105 cm–1)

periphery a) 3/4 × 1015 b) 3/16 × 105

d) travel as a cylindrical beam c) 3/16 × 1015 d) 9/16 × 1015

45) The initial shape of the wavefront of the beam is

49) In a common base mode of a transistor, the

a) convex

collector current is 5.488 mA for an emitter

b) concave

c) convex near the axis and concave current of 5.60 mA. The value of the base

d) planar current amplification factor (β) will be

46) The speed of the light in the medium is a) 49 b) 50

a) minimum of the axis of the beam c) 51 d) 48

b) the same everywhere in the beam 50) In a nuclear reaction 235 U undergoes fission

c) directly proportional to the intensity I liberating 200 MeV of energy. The reactor

d) maximum on the axis of the beam has a 10% efficiency and produced 1000 MW

47) The rms value of the electric field of the light power. If the reactor is to function for 10 years,

coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average find the total mass of uranium required.

total energy density of electromagnetic wave is a) 38451 kg b) 38466 kg

a) 4.58 × 10–6 J/m3 b) 6.37 × 10–9 J/m3

c) 38441 kg d) 37456 kg

c) 81.35 × 10–12 J/m3 d) 3.3 × 10–3 J/m3

****

CHEMISTRY 6

51. 4.08 g of a mixture of BaO and an unknown 56. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of helium and

carbonate MCO3 was heated strongly. The methane under identical condition of pressure

residue weighed 3.64 g. This was dissolved in and temperature will be

100ml of 1 N HCL. The excess acid required a) 4 b) 0.2

16 ml of 2.5 N NaOH solution for complete c) 2 d) 0.5

neutralization. Identify the metal M. (At. Wt. 57. An element, X has the following isotopic

H=1, C=12, O=16, Cl=35.5, Ba=138) composition:

200

a) Ca b) Mg X : 90%

199

c) Na d) Cl X : 8.0%

52. Study the following table 202

X : 2.0%

Compound Weight of compound The weighted average atomic mass of the

(molecular weight) (in g) taken naturally occurring element X is closest to

I. CO2 (44) 4.4 a) 200u b) 201u

II. NO2 (46) 2.3 c) 202u d) 199u

III. H2O2 (34) 6.8 58. The bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom

(n = 1) is approximately 0.530Aº the radius

IV. SO2 (64) 1.6

for the ﬁrst excited state (n=2) orbit is (in Aº)

Which two compound have least weight of a) 0.13 b) 1.06

oxygen ?(molecular weights of compound are c) 4.77 d) 2.17

given in brackets) 59. Correct set of four quantum number for the

a) II and IV b) I and III valence (outermost) electron of rubidium (Z=

c) I and II d) III and IV 37) is :

53. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and a) 5,0,0,+1/2 b) 5,1,0,+1/2

nitrogen in the ratio of 1 : 4 by weight. c) 5,1,1,+1/2 d) 6,0,0,+1/2

Therefore the ratio of their number of 60. The correct order of C—O bond length

molecules is 2-

among CO,CO3 , CO2 is

a) 1:4 b) 1:8 2-

a) CO < CO3 < Co2

c) 7:32 d) 3:16 2-

b) CO3 < CO2 < CO

54. If 0.50 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mole 2-

c) CO < CO2 < Co3

of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of 2-

d) CO2 < CO3 < CO

Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is

61. The bond length of HCL molecule is 1.275Å

a) 0.70 b) 0.50 and its dipole moment is 1.03D. the ionic

c) 0.20 d) 0.10 character of the molecule (in percent) (charge

55. Which of the following expressions correctly -10

of the electron = 4.8 ×10 esu) is

represents the relationship between the

a) 100 b) 67.3

average molar kinetic energy, KE, of CO and

c) 33.66 d) 16.83

N2 molecules at the same temperature? 62. Match the list-I (Equations) with list-II (type

a) KECO < KEN2 of processes) and select the correct option.

b) KECO > KEN2 List I Equation List II

c) KECO = KEN2 Non spontaneous Type of Processes

d) cannot be predicted unless volumes of the (1) Kp > Q (i) Non spontaneous

gases are given (2) Gº < RT In Q (ii) Equilibrium

Space for Rough Work

7

(3) Kp = Q (iii) Spontaneous & c) 10 ml of (M/10)HCL + 90 ml (M/10)

H endothermic NaOH

(4) T > S (iv) Spontaneous d) 75 ml of (M/5)HCL + 25 ml (M/5) NaOH

(1) (2) (3) (4) 68. Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCL but not

a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) with HNO3 because

b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) a) Zn acts as oxidizing agent when it react

c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) with HNO3

d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and HCL

63. One mole of an ideal gas at 300k is expanded c) In electrochemical series, Zn is above

isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre hydrogen

to 10 litres. The E for this process is (R=2

-1 -1 d) NO3 is reduced in preference to hydronium

cal. mol K ) ion

a) 163.7 cal b) zero 2+ +

69. Cu + Ag — Cu + Ag oxidation half-

c) 1381.1 cal d) 9 lit.atm

64. the vapour pressure of solvent decrease by reaction is

2+

10mm of a mercury when a non volatile solute a) Cu — Cu

+

was added to the solvent . the mole fraction of b) Ag — Ag

2+

the solute in the solution is 0.2.what should be c) Cu — Cu

the mole fraction of the solvent if the decrease d) All of these

in the vapour pressure is to be 20mm of 70. The temperature dependence of rate constant

mercury? (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms

a) 0.8 b) 0.6 -E /RT

of Arrhenius equation k = Ae a . Activation

c) 0.4 d) 0.2 energy (Ea) of the reaction can be calculated

24

65. A solution contain 1.2046 × 10 hydrochloric by plotting

3

acid molecules in 1 dm of the solution . the a) log k vs T b) log k vs 1/T

strength of the solution is

c) k vs T d) k vs 1/logT

a) 6N b) 2N

c) 4N d) 8N 71. In the reaction

– – +

66. At 25ºC, the dissociation of a base, BOH, is BrO3 (aq) + 5Br (aq) + 6H 3Br2(l) + 3H2O(l)

-12

1.0 × 10 . The concentration of hydroxyl The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2) is

ions in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the base related to rate of disappearance of the

would be bromide ions as following

–5 –1

a) 1.0 × 10 mol L

–6

b) 1.0 × 10 mol L

–1 d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br ]

a)

–6

c) 2.0 × 10 mol L

–1 dt 5 dt

–7

d) 1.0 × 10 mol L

–1 d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br ]

b)

67. Which of the following solution will have pH dt 3 dt

close to 1.0? d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br ]

a) 100 ml of (M/10)HCL + 100 ml (M/10) c)

dt 3 dt

NaOH

d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br ]

b) 5 5 m l o f ( M / 1 0 ) H C L + 4 5 m l d)

(M/10)NaOH dt 5 dt

8

– – +

72.According to the adsorption theory of c) H (aq) + H2O(l) OH (aq) + 2H (aq) + 2e

catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases –

d) H (aq) + H2O(l) No reaction

because-

a) Adsorption lowers the activation energy of 79. The formula of exhausted permutit is

the reaction a) CaAl2Si2O8 . xH2O

b) The concentration of reactant molecules at b) Na2Al2Si2O8 . xH2O

the active centers of the catalyst becomes c) CaB2Si2O8 . xH2O

high due to strong adsorption

c) In the process of adsorption , the d) K2Al2Si2O8 . xH2O

activation energy of the molecules 80. The alkali metals form salt-like hydride by the

becomes large direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The

d) Adsorption produces heat which increases thermal stability of these hydrides decreases

the speed of the reaction in which of the following order?

73. The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal a) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH

sol is expressed in terms of: b) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH

a) Coagulation value c) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH

b) Gold number d) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CSH

c) Critical miscelle concentration 81. The main product obtained when a solution of

d) Oxidation number sodium carbonate reacts with mercuric

74. Among the following, the number of chloride is

elements showing only one non-zero

a) Hg(OH)2 b) HgCO3 . HgO

oxidation state is O, Cl, F, N, P, Sn, Tl, Na, Ti

a) 1 b) 2 c) HgCO3 d) HgCO3 . Hg(OH)2

c) 3 d) 4 82. Which one of the following is the correct

75. Total number of rare earth element is statement?

a) 8 b) 32 a) Boric acid is a protonic acid

c) 14 d) 10 b) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of

76. Which of the following pair of metals is six

puriﬁed by van arkel method? c) Chlorides of both beryllium and alu-

a) Ni and Fe b) Ga and In minium have bridged chloride structures in

c) Zr and Ti d) Ag and Au solid phase

77. Among the following statements, the

d) B2H6 . 2NH3 is known as inorganic benzene

incorrect one is

a) Calamine and siderite are carbonates 83. Glass reacts with HF to produce

b) Argentite and cuprite are oxide a) SiF4 b) H2SiF6

c) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides c) H2SiO3 d) Na3AlF6

d) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper 84. The transition element have a general

–

78. The hydride ion, H is a stronger base than the electronic conﬁguration

– 2 6 1–10

hydroxide ion. OH .which of the following a) ns , np , nd

reactions will occur if sodium hydride (NaH) 1–10 0–2 0–6

b) (n–1)d , ns , np

is dissolved in water? 1–10 1–2

–

a) H (aq) + H2O(l) H3O (aq)

– c) (n–1)d , ns

– – 1–10 –2

b) H (aq) + H2O(l) OH (aq) + H2(g) d) nd , ns

9

85. Identify the correct statement of the following d) Attack of younger leaves of a plant by

a) L a n t h a n o i d c o n t r a c t i o n i s t h e peroxyacetyl nitrate

accumulation of successive shrinkages 90. The maximum Number of isomers for an

b) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the alkene with the molecular formula C4H8 is

properties of 4d series of the transition a) 2 b) 3

elements have no similarities with the 5d c) 4 d) 5

series of elements 91. What would be the product formed when 1-

c) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite bromo-3-chlorocyclobutane react with two

weak. equivalents of metallic sodium in ether?

d) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms Cl

or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu a) b)

86. The ionization isomer of [Cr(H2O)4 Cl(NO2) Br

C] is

c) d)

a) [Cr(H2O)4 (O2N)]Cl2

b) [Cr(H2O)4 Cl2] (No2) 92. The major product obtain on treatment of

c) [Cr(H2O)4 Cl (ONO)]Cl –

CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with CH3O /CH3OH is

d) [Cr(H2O)4 Cl2 (NO2)] . H2O

a) CH3CH2CH(OCH3)CH3

87. T h e h y p o t h e t i c a l c o m p l e x

chlorodiaquotrimmine cobalt (III) chloride b) CH3CH == CHCH3

can be represented as c) CH3CH2CH == CH2

a) [CoCl(NH3)3 (H2O)2] Cl2 d) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3

b) [Co(NH3)3 (H2O)Cl3] 93. Compound 'A' (Molecular formula C3H8O) is

c) [Co(NH2)3 (H2O)2 Cl] treated with acidiﬁed potassium dichromate a

d) [Co(NH3)3 (H2O)3] Cl3 product 'B' (Molecular formula C3H6O). 'B'

88. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a by forms a shining silver mirror on warning with

product. This is colorless gas with choking ammonical silver nitrate. 'B' when treated

smell of burnt sulphur and caused great with an aqueous solution of H2 NCONHNH2.

damage to respiratory organs as a result of HCL and sodium acetate gives a product ' C '

acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic ,acts as identify the structure of 'C'.

a reducing agent and its has never been

a) CH3CH2CH = NNHCONH2

isolated. The gas X is:

a) SO2 b) Co2 b) CH3 – C = NNHCONH2

c) SO3 d) H2S CH3

89. The process of 'eutrophication' is due to c) CH3 – C = NCONHNH2

a) Increase in concentration of insecticide in

CH3

water

b) Increase in concentration of ﬂuride ion in d) CH3CH2 = NCONHNH2

water. 94. Write the structure of the foul smelling

c) The reduction in concentration of the compound obtained when aniline is treated

dissolved oxygen in water due to with chloroform in the presence of KOH.

phosphate pollution in water a) PhNC b) PhCl

c) PhOH d) PhNo3

Space for Rough Work

10

95 .Which of the following statement is not true? 97) A certain compound gives negative test with

a) The vulcanization, the formation of ninhydrin and positive test with benedict's

sulphur bridges between different chain solution. The compound is

make rubber harder and stronger. a) protein b) monosaccharide

b) Natural rubber has the trans conﬁguration c) lipid d) amino acid

at every double bond 98) Which of the following is correct about H

c) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and bonding in nucleotide?

styrene. a) A---A and T---T

d) Natural rubber is a 1,4-polymer of b) G---T and A---C

isoprene. C) A---G and T---C

96) Structure of some common polymer are d) A---T and G---C

given. Which one is not correctly presented? 99) Which of the following is pheromone?

a) Teﬂon –(– CF2—CF2–)–n a) Linalool b) Disparlure

c) BHA d) Alifame

b) Neoprene CH2—C==CH—CH2—CH2 100.The statement which is not correct, is

a) Chlorophyll is responsible for the

n

c) Terylene Cl synthesis of carbohydrates in plants

b) The compound formed by the addition of

OC COOCH2—CH2O oxygen to haemoglobin is called

n oxyhaemoglobin

d) Nylon-66 –(– NH(CH 2 ) 6 NHCO(CH 2 ) 4 c) acetyl salicyclic acid is known as aspirin

2+

–CO–)–2 d) the metal ion present in vitamin B12 is Mg

****

Mathematics 11

101) The general solution of x y

p + q ( p + q ) is equal to

2 2

sin x – 3 sin 2x + sin 3x = cos x – 3 cos 2x +

cos 3x is

p np p a) 1 b) –1

a) np + b) + c) 2 d) –2

8 2 8

108) The sum of the first n terms of the series 12 +

np p 3

c) (−1) n + d) 2np + cos −1 n(n +1) 2

2 8 2 2.22 + 32 + 2.42 + 52 + 2.62 + ... is

102) The graph of the function y = f (x) is 2

symmetrical about the line x = 2, then when n is even. When n is odd the sum is

a) f (x + 2) = f (x – 2) 3n(n + 1) n 2 (n + 1)

a) b)

b) f (2 + x) = f (2 – x) 2 2

2

c) f (x) = f (–x) n(n +1) 2 n(n + 1)

c) d)

d) f (x) = – f (–x) 4 2

103) Domain of definition of the function a 1 2

3 109) If a, b, c are in AP, then , , are in :

f ( x) = + log10 ( x3 − x), is bc c b

4− x 2

a) AP b) GP

a) (1, 2) c) HP d) none of these

b) (–1, 0) ∪ (1, 2) 110) The greatest coefficient in the expansion of (1

c) (1, 2) ∪ (2, ∞) + x)2n is :

d) (–1, 0) ∪ (1, 2) ∪ (2, ∞) a) 2nGn b) 2nGn + 1

104) Let f (q) = sin q (sin q + sin 3q). Then f (q) is c) 2nGn – 1 d) 2nG2n – 1

a) ≥ 0 only when q ≥ 0 111) From 6 different novels and 3 different

b) ≤ 0 for all real q dictionaries, 4 novels and 1 dictionary are to

c) ≥ 0 for all real q be selected and arranged in a row on the shelf

d) ≤ 0 only when q ≤ 0 so that the dictionary is always in the middle.

105) The number of integral values of k for which Then, the number of such arrangements is

the equation 7 cos x + 5 sin x = 2k + 1 has a a) at least 500 but less than 750

b) at least 750 but less than 1000

solution is

a) 4 b) 8 c) at least 1000

c) 10 d) 12 d) less than 500

106) The equation of the circumcircle of the triangle 112) If in a frequency distribution, the mean and

formed by the lines x = 0, y = 0, 2x + 3y = 5 is : median are 21 and 22 respectively, then its

a) 6(x2 + y2) + 5(3x – 2y) = 0 mode is approximately

b) x2 + y2 – 2x – 3y + 5 = 0 a) 24.0 b) 25.5

c) x2 + y2 + 2x – 3y – 5 = 0 c) 20.5 d) 22.0

d) 6(x2 + y2) – 5(3x + 2y) = 0 113) The mean and variance of a random variable

107) If z = x – iy and z1/3 = p + iq, then X having a binomial distribution are 4 and 2

12

respectively, then P(X = 1) is 119) lim x log sin x is equal to :

x→0

a) 1/32 b) 1/16

a) zero

c) 1/8 d) 1/4 b) ∞

114) A man takes a step forward with probability

0.4 and backwards with probability 0.6. Find c) 1

the probability that at the end of eleven steps d) cannot be determined

x 5 p

he is one step away from the starting point. 120) If sin −1 + cosec−1 = , then a value

a) 0.25 b) 0.15 5 4 2

c) 0.57 d) 0.37 of x is

115) Six boys and six girls sit in a row randomly. a) 1 b) 3

Find the probability that the six girls c) 4 d) 5

sit together and the boys and girls sit 121) If sin(a + b) = 1, sin(a – b) = 1/2, then tan(a

alternately. + 2b) tan(2a + b) is equal to

a) 1/462, 1/132 b) 1/162, 1/132 a) 1 b) –1

c) 1/122, 1/133 d) 1/132, 1/462 c) zero d) none of these

116) The system of equations 122) The number of values of x in the interval [0,

ax + y + z = a – 1 3p] satisfying the equation 2 sin2 x + 5 sin

x + ay + z = a – 1 x – 3 = 0 is

x + y + az = a – 1 a) 6 b) 1

has no solution, if a is c) 2 d) 4

a) 1 b) not –2 123) Solve for x;

c) either –2 or 1 d) –2 2

−3 2

−3

(5 + 2 6 ) x + (5 − 2 6 ) x = 10

5 5a a

a) ± 3 , ± 2 b) ± 2 , ± 2

117) Let A = 0 a 5a

0 0 5 c) ± 2 , ±2 d) ±2, ± 2

124) Find the solution set of the system

If |A2| = 25, then |a| equals

x + 2y + z = 1;

a) 52 b) 1 2x – 3y – w = 2;

c) 1/5 d) 5 x ≥ 0; y ≥ 0; z ≥ 0; w ≥ 0.

118) If the system of linear equations a) x = 0, y = 1, z = 0, w = 0

x + 2ay + az = 0 b) x = 1, y = 0, z = 0, w = 0

x + 3by + bz = 0

and x + 4cy + cz = 0 c) x = 0, y = 0, z = 1, w = 0

has a non-zero solution, then a, b, c d) x = 0, y = 0, z = 0, w = 1

a) are in AP 1 25) If xmyn = (x + y)m + n, then dy/dx is

b) are in GP x+ y

a) b) xy

c) are in HP xy

d) satisfy a + 2b + 3c = 0

Space for Rough Work

13

x y b

c) d) 133) If f (a + b – x) = f (x), then ∫ xf ( x)dx is

y x a

equal to

126) The function f (x) = cot–1 x + x increases in a+b b

2 ∫a

the interval a) (b − x)dx

a) (1, ∞) b) (–1, ∞) a+b b

2 ∫a

f ( x)dx

c) (–∞, ∞) d) (0, ∞) b)

log(3 + x) − log(3 − x) b−a b

127) If lim = k , the value

2 ∫a

x →0 x c) f ( x)dx

of k is a+b b

2 ∫a

a) 0 b) –1/3 d) f (a + b + x)dx

3/ 2

134) Find the value of ∫ | x sin mx | dx

c) 2/3 d) –2/3

p

128) ∫0 [cot x] dx,[.] denotes the greatest integer

a) 2/p + 1/p2

−1

b) 3/p + 1/p2

function, is equal to c) 2/p + 1/p3 d) 3/p + 1/p3

a) p/2 b) 1 135) Compute the area of the region bounded by

c) –1 d) – p/2 In x

1 the curves y = ex In x and y = where In e = 1.

129) The value of the integral I = ∫ x(1 − x) n dx ex

is

0 a) (e2 – 4)/4e b) (e2 – 5)/4e

1 1 c) (e3 – 4)/4e d) (e3 – 5)/4e

a) b)

n +1 n+2 136) Find the area bounded by the curves x2 = y,

1 1 1 1 x2 = –y, and y2 = 4x – 3.

c) − d) +

n +1 n + 2 n +1 n + 2 a) 1/2 sq unit b) 1/3 sq unit

n

1 c) 1/4 sq unit d) 2/5 sq unit

130) lim ∑ e r / n is 137) The solution of the differential equation y dx

x→∞ r =1 n

+ (x + x2y) dy = 0 is

a) e b) e – 1

1 1

c) 1 – e d) e + 1 a) − = c b) − + log y = c

( x + 1) xy xy

131) Evaluate ∫ dx. 1

x(1 + xe x ) 2 c) + log y = c d) log y = cx

xy

a) log[(1+xex)/xex] + 1/(1+xex) + c

b) log[(1+xex)/xex] – 1/(1+xex) + c 138) Solution of the differential equation

c) log[(1+xex)/xex] – 1/(1+ex) + c cos x dy = y (sin x – y) dx, 0 < x < p/2, is

d) log[(1+ex)/xex] + 1/(1+xex) + 5c a) sec x = (tan x + c) y

132) If AB × AC = 2i − 4j + 4

b) y sec x = tan x + c

k , then the area of

DABC is : c) y tan x = sec x + c

a) 3 sq unit b) 4 sq unit d) tan x = (sec x + c) y

c) 16 sq unit d) 9 sq unit

14

139) The solution of the differential equation b) Directrix

dy

= e x − y + x 2e− y is : c) Abscissae of vartices

dx d) Abscissae of foci

a) y = ex–y – x2e– y + c 145) The centre of the circle given by

r ⋅ (i + 2j + 2

k ) = 15 and | r − (j + 2

b) ey – ex = 1/3x3 + c k ) | = 4 is

c) ex + ey = 1/3x3 + c a) (0, 1, 2) b) (1, 3, 4)

d) ex – ey = 1/3x3 + c c) (–1, 3, 4) d) none of these

140) If the pair of straight lines x2 – 2pxy – y2 = 146) The image of the point (–1, 3, 4) in the plane

0 and x2 – 2qxy – y2 = 0 be such that each x – 2y = 0 is

pair bisects the angle between the other pair, a) (15, 11, 4) b) (–17/3, –19/3, 1)

then

c) (8, 4, 4) d) (9/5, –13/5, 4)

a) p = q b) p = –q 147) The distance of the point (1, –5, 9) from the

c) pq = 1 d) pq = –1 plane x – y + z = 5 measured along a straight

141) The lines 2x – 3y = 5 and 3x – 4y = 7 are line x = y = z is

diameters of a circle having are as 154 sq a) 3 5 b) 10 3

unit. Then, the equation of the circle is

c) 5 3 d) 3 10

a) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y = 62

148) The distance between the line

b) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y = 47

r = 2i − 2j + 3 k + λ(i − j + 4k ) and the plane

c) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 47

d) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 62 r ⋅ (i + 5j +

k ) = 5 is

142) The equation of the circle passing through the a) 10/3 b) 3/10

point (1, 0) and (0, 1) and having the smallest 10

radius is c) d) 10/9

3 3

a) x2 + y2 + x + y – 2 = 0

149) If u , v , w are non-coplanar vectors and p, q

b) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 are real numbers, then the equality

c) x2 + y2 – x – y = 0

[3u pv pw] − [ pv w qu ] − [2w qv qu ] = 0

d) x2 + y2 + 2x + 2y – 7 = 0

holds for

143) A straight line through the point A(3, 4) is

a) exactly two values of (p, q)

such that its intercept between the axes is

bisected at A. Its equation is b) more than two but not all values of (p, q)

a) 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 b) 4x + 3y = 24 c) all values of (p, q)

d) exactly one value of (p, q)

c) 3x + 4y = 25 d) x + y = 7

150) If u , v and w are three non-coplanar vectors,

x2 y2

144) For the hyperbola − = 1, which then (u + v − w) ⋅ [(u − v ) × (v − w)] equals

cos 2 a sin 2 a

of the following remains constant when a a) 0 b) u ⋅ v × w

varies ? c) u ⋅ w × v d) 3u ⋅ v × w

a) Eccentricity

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