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CEBU DOCTORS’ UNIVERSITY COLLEGE OF MEDICINE

DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACOLOGY

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__A__ The measure of the body’s ability to eliminate drugs is termed as:
A. Clearance C. Potency
B. Volume of distribution D. Half-life
MPL – 90%

__C__ Rationale of giving a loading dose:


A. To improve patient’s compliance
B. To minimize the incidence of adverse effects
C. To achieve the target concentration of the drug rapidly
D. To facilitate renal excretion
MPL – 90%

__D__ The maximal response produced by a drug is termed as:


A. Agonist C. Slope
B. Potency D. Maximal efficacy
MPL – 90%

__C__ The difference between the effects of IV infusion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
on the cardiovascular system is:
A. Epinephrine increase pulse pressure
B. Norepinephrine decreases renal blood flow
C. Small doses of norepinephrine do not cause vasolidation
D. Cutaneous blood flow is decreased with epinephrine
MPL – 70%

__C__ All of the following are common adverse effects of systemically administered -adrenergic
agonists, EXCEPT:
A. Restlessness C. Bradycardia
B. Hypokalemia D. Tremors
MPL – 75%

__D__ Which of the following adrenergic receptor antagonists produces bronchoconstriction?


A. Metropolol C. Yohimbine
B. Terazosin D. Nadolol
MPL – 75%

__C__ Which of the following glands is stimulated by Acetylcholine?


A. Thyroid gland C. Salivary gland
B. Adrenal gland D. Pituitary gland
MPL – 90%

__A__ Which of the following cholinergic agonists does not produce negative inotropism and
negative chronotropism?
A. Bethanecol C. Methacholine
B. Carbachol D. Acetylcholine
MPL – 75%

__D__ Which of the following muscarinic agonists is least antagonized by Atropine?


A. Acetylcholine C. Bethanecol
B. Pilocarpine D. Carbachol
MPL – 75%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__D__ Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological effect mediated by muscarinic receptors?
A. Carbachol – increased GIT tone and motility
B. Bethanecol – contraction of the detrusor muscle of the bladder
C. Pilocarpine – diaphoresis
D. Arecoline – diuresis
MPL – 75%

__C__ Bacterial resistance to Tetracycline could be due to:


A. Incomplete absorption when given orally
B. Failure to pass through the blood-brain barrier
C. Decreased access of the agents to the ribosome
D. Extensive first-pass effect
MPL – 75%

__D__ Which of the following agents compete with Chloramphenicol for binding to 50S ribosomal
unit?
A. Vancomycin C. Ticarcillin
B. Imipenem D. Clindamycin
MPL – 80%

__A__ All of the following antiarrthythmics have autonomic effects. Which of the following
produces adrenergic stimulation followed by ganglionic blockade?
A. Bretylium C. Disopyramide
B. Procainamide D. Amiodarone
MPL – 70%

__D__ The following are antiarrhythmics with their corresponding major actions. Which of the
following combinations is correct?
A. Lidocaine – Ca+2 channel block
B. Verapamil – Beta-blockade
C. Metoprolol – Na+ channel block
D. Amiodarone – K+ channel block
MPL – 75%

__C__ All of the following increase action potential, EXCEPT:


A. Procainamide C. Lidocaine
B. Quinidine D. Dispoyramide
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following statements is true of low-molecular weight heparin?


A. It is absorbed through the GIT
B. Monitoring of its effect is not done routinely
C. Have similar histological half-life with the standard preparation of the drug
D. More effective thus, standard heparin for prophylaxis of thromboembolism
MPL – 70%

__A__ Which of the following statements is true of Warfarin?


A. Crossed the placenta
B. Protamine reverses its anticoagulant effect
C. Can be given IV
D. Is a vasodilator
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__D__ A greater risk of respiratory depression is produced when Morphine is combined with:
A. Local anesthetics C. Bronchodilators
B. Anorexiants D. Tranquilizers
MPL – 70%

__D__ The primary site of action of local anesthetics is the:


A. Cytoplasm C. Golgi apparatus
B. Nucleus D. Cell membrane
MPL – 80%

__A__ Which of the following statements is true of the sensitivity of nerve fibers to local
anesthetics?
A. Small nerve fibers are more susceptible to the action of local anesthetics
B. Unmyelinated fibers are blocked before myelinated ones of the same diameter
C. A fiber of the AB type is more sensitive to block than C fibers (dorsal root)
D. Nerve fibers located at the core of a nerve trunk are first to be affected than those
located at the periphery
MPL – 70%

__A__ The following are anticonvulsants with their corresponding sites of action. Which of the
following combinations is correct?
A. Phenobarbital – GABAA receptor
B. Phenytoin – CA2+ currents (T currents)
C. Ethosuximide – CA2+ currents (L current)
D. Carbamazepine – K+ currents
MPL – 70%

__B__ All are indications for the use of Carbamazepine, EXCEPT :


A. Trigeminal neuralgia C. Bipolar disorders
B. Absene seizures D. Diabetic polyneuropathy
MPL – 80%

__C__ Which of the following is a selective inhibitor of MAO-B?


A. Amantadine C. Selegiline
B. Bromocriptine D. Pergolide
MPL – 75%

__C__ Which of the following combination of diuretics and MOA is correct?


A. Furosemide – inhibition of carbonic anhydrase
B. Acetazolamide – osmotic effect
C. Hydrocholorothiazide – inhibition of Na+ -Cl- symport
D. Indapamide – inhibition of Na+ -K+ -2Cl- symport
MPL – 70%

__A__ Which of following combination of diuretic and site of action on the nephron is correct?
A. Ethacrynic acid – thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
B. Furosemide – proximal tubule
C. Hydrochlorothiazide – late distal tubule
D. Spironolactone – distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
MPL – 80%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__D__ Reflex tachycardia is the most common consequence of which of the following anti-
hypertensive drugs?
A. Metoprolol C. Valsartan
B. Diltiazem D. Nifedipine
MPL – 70%

__C__ The mechanism of cough production after administration of an ACE inhibitor is secondary to
an increase in the level of:
A. Angiotensin II C. Bradykinin
B. Renin D. Aldosterone
MPL – 80%

__A__ The mechanism of the anti-hypertensive effect of Clonidine is brought about by:
A. 2-adrenergic agonism
B. 1-adrenergic blockade
C. Angiotensin II receptor blockade
D. Direct relaxation of the arteriolar smooth muscle
MPL – 70%

__A__ The basis of the anti-arrhythmic action of digitalis is:


A. Decrease in automaticity and prolongation of the ERP in the AVN
B. (+) inotropic effect
C. Increased sympathetic nervous system activity
D. Increased in the spontaneous (phase 4) rate of diastolic depolarization
MPL – 70%

__D__ All of the following are factors that alter patient sensitivity to Digitalis, EXCEPT :
A. Hypokalemia C. Renal failure
B. Hyperkalemia D. Euthyroid state
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following drugs is the least useful in Acute Congestive Heart Failure?
A. Captopril C. Digoxin
B. Metoprolol D. Furosemide
MPL – 70%

__C__ The most effective route of administration of nitrates to abort an acute attack of angina is:
A. Intravenous route C. Sublingual route
B. Oral route D. Transdermal route
MPL – 90%

__C__ The most important mechanism of relief of symptoms of angina pectoris after administration
of nitrates is:
A. Dilation of epicardial coronary arteries
B. Decreased preload
C. Reduction of myocardial work
D. Decreased afterload
MPL – 70%

__B__ The active form of statins:


A. -hydroxylacetic acid C. -hydroxy acid
B. -hydroxy acid D. -hydroxylacetic acid
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__A__ The prototype fibric acid derivative :


A. Clofibrate C. Bensafibrate
B. Ciprofibrate D. Fenofibrate
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following statements regarding aminoglycosides is true?


A. Anaerobic microorganism are sensitive to these agents
B. The duration of postantibiotic effect is concentration-dependent
C. Rapidly absorbed in the gastric mucosa
D. Contraindicated in patients with auditory impairment
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following statements concerning Sulindac is true?


A. Selectively inhibits COX-2
B. It is a prodrug
C. Has a narrow margin of safety
D. Binding to plasma protein is negligible
MPL – 70%

__C__ Inhibition of these prostaglandins is responsible for the GI adverse effects of NSAIDs:
A. Thromboxane A2 C. PGI2 and PGE3
B. PGF2 and PGI2 D. PGE1 and PGD2
MPL – 80%

__D__ Toxic doses of Aspirin will produce:


A. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
MPL – 70%

__D__ Which of the following is a polypeptide autocoid?


A. Prostaglandins C. Leukotriene E4
B. Serotonin D. Substance P
MPL – 70%

__D__ Serotonin is derived from dietary:


A. Histidine C. Glycine
B. Methionine D. Tryptophan
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following statements is true of H2 histamine receptor antagonists?


A. The inhibition is non-selective
B. The degree of inhibition of gastric secretion parallels the concentration of drug in
the plasma
C. Inhibit only the basal (fasting) but not nocturnal acid secretion
D. The inhibition is non-competitive
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__D__When given in a sufficient dosage, Omeprazole can reduce the daily production of gastric
acid by more than 95%. This is because Omeprazole:
A. Inhibits the interaction of histamine with H2 receptors
B. Neutralizes the directly the HCl secreted by gastric parietal cells
C. Increases the secretion of mucus and bicarbonate
D. Inhibits the H+, K+ -ATPase, the ultimate mediator of acid secretion
MPL – 70%

__C__ The following statements are true of Sucralfate, EXCEPT :


A. Adheres so avidly to the base of the ulcer crater than in normal epithelial cells
B. Adheres to ulcerated epithelium for longer than 6 hours
C. Cytoprotective effect is enhanced when combined with a “proton pump” inhibitor
D. None of the above
MPL – 70%

__B__Which of the following drug-adverse effect combination is true?


A. Streptomycin – optic neuritis
B. Pyrazinamide – hyperuricemia
C. Ethambutol – ototoxicity
D. Rifampin – nephrotoxicity
MPL – 70%

__A__ The concomitant use of Pyridoxine is recommended when this drug is used for anti-TB
therapy:
A. Ethionamide C. Kanamycin
B. Aminosalicylic acid D. Capreomycin
MPL – 80%

__C__ Which of the following statements is true for Isoniazid?


A. It is poorly absorbed from the GIT
B. It cannot penetrate caseous material
C. It diffuses readily into all body fluids and cells
D. It is excreted in the urine largely in an unchanged form
MPL – 70%

__C__ All of the following are clinical uses of Rifampin, EXCEPT :


A. Prevention of meningococcal disease
B. Chemoprophylaxis of household contacts of a patient with H, influenzae
meningitis
C. Treatment of MDR-TB
D. Treatment of nasal carriage of S, aureus
MPL – 70%

__B__ An antiviral agent that alters Dopamine release or re-uptake:


A. Selegiline C. Bromocriptine
B. Amantadine D. Pergolide
MPL – 70%

__D__ Which of the following has anticholinergic properties, currently used in the treatment of
Parkinson’s disease?
A. Carbidopa C. Bromocriptine
B. Selegiline D. Trihexyphenidyl HCl
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__C__ Which of the following statements concerning Chloramphenicol is true?


A. A derivative of hydrochloric acid
B. Produces inhibition of protein synthesis by irreversible binding to the 50S
ribosomal subunit.
C. The major route of elimination is hepatic metabolism to the inactive glucoronide
D. It reaches therapeutic concentrations only in the presence of meningitis
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following statements concerning Erythromycin is true?


A. E. Coli accumulates 100x more Erythromycin than Streptococcus species
B. Absorption from the GIT is hastened by the presence of food
C. Antibacterial activity is achieved at all sites except the brain and CSF
D. Excreted as the inactive form in the bile
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following quinolones can cause fatal hepatic damage?
A. Levofloxacin C. Trovafloxacin
B. Gatifloxacin D. Cirpofloxacin
MPL – 80%

__C__ Which of the following antifungal agents act by inhibiting thymidylate synthetase resulting in
impairment of fungal DNA synthesis?
A. Ketoconazole C. Flucytosine
B. Griseofulvin D. Amphotericin B
MPL – 70%

__D__ Which of the following statements concerning Fluconazole is true?


A. Less water-soluble than Ketoconazole and Itraconazole
B. Effective against Candida krusei infections
C. More toxic than Flucytosine
D. >90% of a dose is eliminated through the kidneys
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following oral antifungal agents has the longest half-life?
A. Ketoconazole C. Fluconazole
B. Itraconazole D. Miconazole
MPL – 80%

__B__ Which of the following statements concerning antiviral agents is true?


A. Most agents are associated with minor adverse effects in humans
B. They target a specific viral protein, usually an enzyme, essential in nucleic acid
synthesis
C. Current effective agents inhibit both replicating and nonreplicating viruses
D. In vitro sensitivity tests can predict response to treatment
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following is a prodrug?


A. Acyclovir C. Famiclovir
B. Penciclovir D. Ganciclovir
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__C__ The most common mechanism of resistance of HSV to Acyclovir and Valacyclovir:
A. Altered thymidine kinase susbtrate specificity
B. Altered viral DNA polymerase
C. Absence or partial production of thymidine kinase
D. Active efflux mechanism
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following statements concerning Amantadine and Rimantadine is true?
A. Treatment of Influenza A and B infections
B. Dose adjustments must be made for patients >65 years old
C. Absorption is markedly decreased by the presence of food in the stomach
D. Remains effective if given >48 hours after the onset of symptoms
MPL – 70%

__D__ Which of the following statements concerning 5-HT agonists is correct?


A. 90% of a dose is excreted through the kidneys so there is a need for dosage
adjustment for patients with renal impairment
B. Concurrent administration of caffeine increases the bioavailability by about 50%
C. Exclusively interact with serotonergic receptors in the brain
D. Use is restricted to patients who have frequent, moderate or infrequent, severe
migraine attacks
MPL – 70%

__C__ The triptans are contraindicated in which of the following:


A. A patient with a mild and transient renal impairment
B. A patient with stable hypertension
C. A patient with a history of ischemic heart disease
D. A patient taking an ACE inhibitor
MPL – 70%

__B__ The antidote for cyanide poisoning is:


A. 100% O2 C. Carbocysteine
B. Amyl nitrite D. Thiosulfate
MPL – 80%

__A__ The chelating agent of choice for iron poisoning is:


A. Deferoxamine C. Dimercaprol
B. Penicillamine D. EDTA
MPL – 80%

__A__ The smallest dose of a given chemical that will kill 50% of a test group of animals:
A. Median lethal dose (LD50)
B. Median lethal concentration (LC50)
C. Toxicity level
D. Threshold limit value (TLV)
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following statements regarding the pharmacokinetic properties of


Metronidazole is correct?
A. Penetrates well into the placenta
B. Therapeutic concentrations are not achieved in the CSF
C. Oral, intravenous, intravaginal and topical formulations
D. Hepatic metabolism is increased by the concurrent administration of Cimetidine
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__C__ Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of Metronidazole?
A. Pruritus C. Metallic taste
B. Dizziness D. Nausea
MPL – 80%

__C__ Which of the following statements concerning hormones is correct?


A. Vasopressin regulates potassium osmolality
B. Cortisol controls fat metabolism
C. PTH regulates calcium and phosphorus levels
D. Insulin maintains euglycemia only in the fasted state
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following organs is NOT part of the feedback regulation of the endocrine axes?
A. Adrenal glands C. Kidneys
B. Hypothalamus D. Pituitary gland
MPL – 80%

__B__ Which of the following corticosteroids has the greatest anti-inflammatory potency relative to
cortisol?
A. Prednisone C. Aldosterone
B. Dexamethasone D. Triamcinolone
MPL – 80%

__C__ Which of the following corticosteroids has the longest duration of action?
A. Cortisol C. Dexamethasone
B. Prednisone D. Aldosterone
MPL – 80%

__B__ Which of the following statements concerning the use of testosterone for the treatment of
male hypogonadism is correct?
A. The testosterone esters are not useful
B. Treatment efficacy is monitored by regular and frequent measurements of serum
testosterone concentration
C. Hepatocellular cancer is a common adverse effect usually seen in men >55 years
old
D. Increased bone mineral density is the earliest treatment effect seen, usually within
a few weeks of treatment
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following cell structures is exclusively found in gram-negative


microorganisms?
A. Peptidoglycan layer C. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
B. Penicilline binding protein D. Phospholipid
MPL – 70%

__A__ Factors that can appreciably influence the ability of -lactam antibiotics to kill bacteria
include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Presence of proteins and other constituents of pus at the site of infection
B. Density of the bacterial population
C. Age of the infection
D. None of the above
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__A__ Which of the following statements regarding Penicillins is true?


A. Gastric juice at pH 2 rapidly destroys the oral formulation of the antibiotic
B. Penicillin V is 5-10x more active against Neisseria species than Penicillin G
C. Approximately 60% of Penicillin G in plasma is irreversibly bound to albumin
D. Penicillin readily enters the CSF when the meninges are normal
MPL – 70%

__B__ Prophylactic uses of Penicillins include:


A. Gram-negative sepsis
B. Recurrences of Rheumatic Fever
C. Treatment of Syphilis
D. Treatment of Rat Bite Fever
MPL – 80%

__C__ Which second generation cephalosporin can be used for the treatment of bacterial meningitis?
A. Cefriaxone C. Cefuroxime
B. Cefatoxime D. Ceftizoxime
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following agents is a monocyclic -lactam compound is isolated from
Chromobacterium violaceum, that is usefule for gram-negative infections and does not cause
allergic reactions seen in some patients given Penicillins or other cephalosporins?
A. Imipenem C. Aztreonam
B. Cefepime D. Tazobactam
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following sulfonamides has the longest half-life and is therefore long-acting?
A. Sulfadiazine C. Sulfadoxine
B. Sulfacetamide D. Sulfisoxazole
MPL – 80%

__B__ Which of the following disorders of the hematopoietic system secondary to Sulfonamides is
characterized by the complete suppression of bone marrow activity with profound anemia,
granulocytopenia and thrombocytopenia?
A. Acute hemolytic anemia C. Agranulocytosis
B. Aplastic anemia D. Idiopathic anemia
MPL – 70%

__D__ Which of the following statements regarding Trimethoprim is correct?


A. A potent and selective competitive inhibitor or microbial dihydrofolate synthase
B. A potent competitive inhibitor or microbial dihydropteroate synthase
C. Volume of distribution is almost the same with that of Sulfamthoxazole
D. In combination with Sulfamethaxazole, it readily enters the CSF and sputum
MPL – 70%

__C__ The parent compound of barbiturates:


A. Trichloreoethanol C. Barbituric acid
B. Oxybarbiturate D. Phenobarbital
MPL – 70%

__C__ Manifestations of acute barbiturate overdosage include:


A. Seizures C. Respiratory depression
B. Increased salivation D. Renal failure
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__C__ Rationale for incliusion of progestin in HRT:


A. To prevent withdrawal bleeding
B. To lower the incidence of thromboembolism
C. To prevent endometrial hyperplasia
D. To prevent osteoporosis
MPL – 80%

__D__ The progestin with the least androgenic activity:


A. Norgestrel C. Medroxyprogesterone
B. Ethynodiol diacetate D. Desogestrel
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following statements is true agranulocytosis following the use of antithyroid
drugs?
A. Periodic WBC count is greatly of help in early detection
B. It is reversible upon discontinuation of the drug
C. Occurs during the first week, not after 1 month
D. Mostly seen with Methimazole than with PTU
MPL – 70%

__A__ In severe hyperthyroid state or thyroid storm, which of the following antithyroid is preferred?
A. PTU C. Propanolol
B. Carbimazole D. Methimazole
MPL – 70%

__D__ A.C. has hyperthyroidism. She is 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the following antithyroid
drugs is preferred?
A. Carbimazole C. RAI
B. Methimazole D. PTU
MPL – 70%

__D__ Which of the following has the potential of producing dose-related malabsorption, flatulence
and abdominal bloating?
A. Metformin C. Rosiglitazone
B. Chlorpropamide D. Acarbose
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following statements is true of Metformin?


A. An antihyperglycemic and hypoglycemic
B. Absorbed mainly from the small intestine
C. Causes insulin release from the pancreas
D. 20% of the drug is bound to albumin
MPL – 70%

__B__ Insulin usually is injected into the subcutaneous tissue. Absorption is usually most rapid
from the :
A. Thigh C. Buttocks
B. Abdominal wall D. Arm
MPL – 80%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__B__ Which of the following statements concerning the physiologic effects of oxytocin is correct?
A. The effects on the uterus are not affected by estrogen levels
B. The increase in uterine sensitivity in the last half of the pregnancy is associated
with an increase in oxytocin receptors
C. Uterine sensitivity during the last trimester of pregnancy is due to the increasing
levels of progesterone.
D. The more immature the uterus, the more sensitive it is to the effects
MPL – 70%

__D__ Which of the following statements concerning the use of oxytocin for induction of labor is
correct?
A. As labor progresses, the dose required to maintain good uterine contractions
increases
B. Higher doses promote diuresis resulting in hypotension
C. Definitely useful in cases of arrested labor due to abnormal fetal positions
D. Satisfactory uterine contractions are unlikely to develop with doses higher than
30-40 mU/min.
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following bensimidazoles can cause hypospermia?


A. Thiabendazole C. Albendazole
B. Mebendazole D. None of the above
MPL – 70%

__A__ Which of the following anthelmintics possesses a potent inhibitory effect on the feeding
behavior of worms by acting on glutamate-gated channels expressed in the pharyngeal
muscles of these worms?
A. Ivermectin C. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Thiabendazole D. Pyrantel pamoate
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following statements concerning Praziquantel is correct?


A. The primary site of action is the parasite’s skeletal structure
B. The clinical efficacy correlates with the drug’s action on the parasitic tegument
C. Possesses a desirable taste making it the drug of choice for pediatric patients
D. Undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism
MPL – 70%

__B__ Which of the following antiandrogens inhibits type II 5-reductase and is used in the
treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
A. Flutamide C. Bicalutamide
B. Finasteride D. Cyproterone acetate
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following antimalarial drugs is available in a fixed combination with
Sulfadoxine?
A. Trimethoprim C. Pyrimethamine
B. Primaquine D. Proguanil
MPL – 70%
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Write the letter, which corresponds to the BEST answer.

__D__ Which of the following statements concerning Quinine is correct?


A. Poor absorption after an oral dose
B. Renal excretion is delayed in acidic urine
C. Gametocytocidal for all plasmodial species
D. Can commonly produce hypoglycemia which can be life-threatening
MPL – 70%

__C__ Which of the following antimalarial drugs should NOT be used in acute attacks?
A. Quinine C. Primaquine
B. Mefloquine D. Chloroquine
MPL – 70%