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PANI'S MCQ'S ON EMBRYOLOGY

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Jyoti Prakash Pani


Sir Nandkumar Y Tasgaonkar Institute of Medical Science and Research
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TABLE OF CONTENT

CHAPTER NO. NAME OF CHAPTER PAGE NO


1 SOME PRELIMINARY CONSIDERATION 1
2 SPERMATOGENESIS AND OOGENESIS 7
3 THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE 23
4 FORMATION OF GERM LAYERS 32
5 FURTHER DEVELOPMENT OF EMBRYONIC DISC 53
6 THE PLACENTA 76
7 FORMATION OF TISSUE OF THE BODY 97
8 THE SKIN AND ITS APPENDAGES 123
9 THE PHARYNGEAL ARCHES 133
10 THE SKELETON 152
11 DEVELOPMENT OF MOUTH, NOSE, LIP & PALATE 157
12 ALIMENTARY SYSTEM I - MOUTH PHARYNX AND RELATED 159
STRUCTURES
13 ALIMENTARY SYSTEM II-LOWER GI AND RELATED STRUCTURES 161
14 DEVEPOLEMENT OF EXTRA HEPATIC BILLIARY APPARATUS, 164
PANCREASE, SPLEEN, RESPIRATORY SYSTEM AND BODY CAVITIES
15 CARDIOVASCULLAR SYSTEM 166
16 UROGENITAL SYSTEM 171
17 THE NERVOUS SYSTEM 174
18 HYPOPHYSIS CEREBRI, PINEAL ADRENAL GLAND 178
19 THE EYE AND EAR 179
20 FATE OF GERM LAYER (ONE) 181
21 FATE OF GERM LAYER (TWO) 184
CHAPTER 1
SOME PRELIMINARY CONSIDERATION
1) Following is the period during which developing individual is called as an embryo
a) First 2 months b) First 3 months
c) First 4 months d) First 5 months

2) Following is the term which shows together activity of spermatogenesis and oogenesis
a) Stereo gnosis b) Morphogenesis
c) Gametogenesis d) Evolutionary science

3) Characters of parents are transmitted to offspring’s through


a) Codes born on strand of DNA b) Codes born on strand of RNA
c) Chromosomes d) All of the above

4) Following are the number of chromosomes held by a typical animal cell


a) 46 chromosomes b) 47chromosomes
c) 48 chromosomes d) 49chromosomes

5) Following are the number of chromosomes held by a typical gamete


a) 23chromosomes b) 24chromosomes
c) 25 chromosomes d) 26 chromosomes

6) As a result of fertilization
a) Diploid number of chromosome is restored.
b) Haploid number of chromosome is restored.
c) Triploid number of chromosome is restored.
d) Quadruploid number of chromosome is restored.

7) Usual method of cell division seen in most tissue is


a) Meiosis b) Mitosis
c) Amitosis d) Diakinesis

8) Daughter cell resulting from a mitotic division is


a) Similar to the parent cell and have the same number of chromosomes (46).
b) Double to the parent cell & have the double number of chromosomes (92).
c) Triple to the parent cell & have the triple number of chromosomes (138).
d) Quarter to the parent cell & have 4 times the original number of chromosomes (184).

9) The kind of cell division takes place in the testis and ovary for formation of gametes is called
a) Mitosis b) Meiosis
c) Amitosis d) Diakinesis

10) The gamete resulting from meiosis has


a) Diploid number of chromosomes.
b) Haploid number of chromosomes.
c) Triploid number of chromosomes.
d) Quadruploid number of chromosomes.

11) The developing individual is called a fetus during


a) 1st month until birth. b) 1st 2 month until birth.
c) 3rd month until birth. d) 4th month until birth.

12) Cell that carry out special function of reproduction is called


a) Stellate cell b) Basket cell
c) Gamete d) Amacrine cell

13) The number of chromosomes in each cell in man is


a) Diploid and is 46. b) Triploid and is 69.
c) Haploid and is 23. d) Quadruploid and is 92.

-1-
14) The number of autosomes seen in man is
a) 44 b) 45
c) 46 d) 47

15) In man following are the number of chromosomes seen normally.


a) 44 autosomes & one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome.
b) 44 autosomes & one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome.
c) 45 autosomes & one Y-chromosome and one X-chromosome.
d) 46 autosomes & two X-chromosomes.

16) In woman normally there are


a) 45 autosomes & one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome
b) 46 autosomes & one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome
c) 44 autosomes & two X-chromosomes.
d) 47 autosomes & two X-chromosomes.

17) Chromosomes are not visible under light microscope because


a) Chromatin materials are highly dispersed.
b) Chromatin network in the nucleus are become condensed.
c) Chromatin materials are not dispersed.
d) Chromatin materials are black in color.

18) The appearance of a typical chromosome is


a) Pear shaped.
b) Circular or annular shaped.
c) Two rod shaped placed more or less parallel to each other called chromatid.
d) Quadrangular shaped.

19) The chromatids are united to each other at a light staining area called
a) Centro mere. b) Kinetocore.
c) Telomere. d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.

20) Homologous chromosomes are


a) Pair of chromosomes which are exactly alike.
b) Pair of chromosomes which are not exactly alike.
c) Two pair of chromosomes which are exactly alike.
d) Three pair of chromosomes which are exactly alike.

21) Each chromosome on itself bears a large number of structures called


a) Telomere b) Centro mere
c) Genes d) All of the above

22) Genes are made up of


a) DNA b) RNA
c) Enzymes d) Nucleo capsid

23) Nature and function of cell depends on


a) Protein synthesis b) Lipid synthesis
c) Carbohydrate synthesis d) All of the above

24) The type of cell division which cause the daughter cells to have chromosomes identical in number
and in genetic content to those in mother cells is called
a) Mitosis b) Meiosis
c) Amitosis d) Diakinesis

25) The cells resulting from these divisions differs from other cells of the body in that the number of
chromosomes is reduced to half the normal number, the genetic information in the various
gametes produced is not identical is called
a) Mitosis b) Meiosis

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c) Amitosis d) Diakinesis

26) The period between two successive divisions is called


a) Interphase b) Prophase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase

27) Chromatins of chromosomes uncoils and elongates with the


a) Progress of anaphase. b) Progress of metaphase.
c) Progress of telophase. d) Progress of prophase.

28) DNA of each chromosome has undergone duplication in


a) Early interphase. b) Late interphase.
c) Anaphase. d) Metaphase.

29) Chromosomes are seen in form of extended thread in


a) Early interphase b) Late interphase
c) Telophase d) Metaphase

30) Nuclear membrane starts disappearing, centriole divides, chromosomes gradually lengthen and
become indistinct is seen in
a) Prophase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase

31) Two chromatids constituting the chromosome is seen in


a) Towards the beginning of prophase b) Metaphase
c) Towards the end of prophase d) Anaphase

32) Spindle forms due to


a) Centriole produced a number of microtubules pass from one centriole to other
b) Nuclear membrane breaks down & nucleoli disappears
c) Chromatin material breaks into smaller fragments
d) Centriole moves to opposite pole of the cell.

33) With the formation of spindle


a) Chromosome moves to a position midway between 2 centriole.
b) Chromosome breaks down.
c) Chromosome splits longitudinally into two.
d) Chromatid becomes independent chromosome.

34) Centro mere splits in


a) Prophase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase

35) Chromosomes are arranged in equator & are attached to spindle in


a) Prophase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase

36) Nuclear membrane form, centriole divide & chromosome gradually lengthen in & nucleoli
reappear in
a) Prophase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase

37) Two daughter nuclei are formed in


a) Prophase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase

38) Division of nucleus is always accompanied by


a) Division of cytoplasm b) Division of protoplasm
c) Division of nucleoli d) All of the above
e) None of the above

-3-
39) Successive division takes place for meiosis are
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5

40) Duplication of DNA content of chromosomes takes place in


a) First meiotic division b) Second meiotic division
c) Mitotic division d) a & c
e) All of the above

41) Identical chromatid is produced due to


a) Duplication b) Triplication
c) Multiplication d) Sublimission

42) Bivalent is
a) Lying side by side of 2 different chromosomes
b) Lying side by side of 2 homologous chromosomes
c) Lying parallel of 2 different chromosomes
d) Lying parallel of 2 homologous chromosomes

43) Tetrad is seen in


a) 3rd stage of 1st meiotic division
b) 4th stage of 1st meiotic division
c) 2nd stage of 1st meiotic division
d) 1st stage of 1st meiotic division

44) Bivalent is seen in


a) 3rd stage of 1st meiotic division b) 4th stage of 1st meiotic division
c) 1st stage of 1st meiotic division d) 2nd stage of 1st meiotic division

45) Crossing of 2 central chromatids is seen in


a) 1st stage of 1st meiotic division b) 2nd stage of 1st meiotic division
c) 3rd stage of 1st meiotic division d) 4th stage of 1st meiotic division

46) Exchange of chromatin material after break at point of crossing between 2 central chromatids are
seen in
a) 2nd stage of 1st meiotic division b) 3rd stage of 1st meiotic division
c) 4th stage of 1st meiotic division d) 5th stage of 1st meiotic division

47) Sequence of events takes place in telophase except


a) Nuclear membrane formation b) Division of centriole
c) Lengthening of chromosome d) Appearance of nucleoli
e) Chromosomes extended into threads

48) Sequence of events takes place in anaphase except


a) Split of centromere
b) Chromatid becomes independent chromosome
c) One of chromosome moves to either pole
d) Chromosome arranged at equator

49) In metaphase chromosome is arranged at


a) Equator b) Opposite pole
c) Attached to spindle d) a & c
e) None of the above

50) Sequence of events takes place in early and late prophase except
a) Chromosome seen distinctly
b) Centrioles move apart
c) Nuclear membrane disappears & spindle forms
d) DNA undergone duplication

51) Stages are seen in prophase of 1st meiotic division is

-4-
a) 2stages b) 3stages
c) 4stages d) 5stages

52) Sequence of events takes place in 5th stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division except
a) Chromosome separated
b) Break at the central point of crossing between central chromatid
c) Unite with the opposite chromatid
d) Coiling of the two central chromatid

53) Sequence of events takes place in metaphase of 1st meiotic division except
a) Nuclear membrane disappears
b) Spindle form
c) Chromosomes are attached to it by their centrosome
d) One entire chromosome of the pair move to either pole

54) Prophase of first meiotic division comprises of


a) 2stages b) 3stages
c) 4stages d) 5stages

55) Following is the stage in which chromosome is visible consisting of 2 chromatid


a) Leptotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
b) Zygotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
c) Pachytene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
d) Diplotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division

56) Pairing or close apposition of chromosome is referred to as


a) Synapses b) Conjugation
c) a & b d) Nondisjunction

57) Pairing or close apposition of chromosome in male (XY) lie parallel to each other is seen in
a) Leptotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
b) Zygotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
c) Pachytene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
d) Diplotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division

58) Bivalent stage is seen in


a) Leptotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
b) Zygotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
c) Pachytene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division
d) Diplotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division

59) Sequence of events seen in pachytene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division except
a) Two chromatids of each chromosome become distinct
b) Bivalent now converts to tetrad which show 2 central and 2 peripheral chromatid one from each
chromosome
c) Coiling of 2 central chromatid by crossing at number
d) Synapses & conjugation of chromatid

60) Point of adherence at the site where chromatid crosses is called


a) Chiasmata b) Diplomata
c) Zygomata d) Archimata

61) Sequence of events takes place in diplotene stage of prophase of 1st meiotic division except
a) Two chromosomes of a bivalent try to move apart
b) Chromosome involve in crossing over break
c) Loose pieces become attached to opposite chromatid with exchange of genetic material
between these chromatids
d) 46 chromosome become attached to the spindle at the equator
e) Distinct genetic content is seen in each of the four chromatid

62) 46 chromosomes become attached to the spindle at the equator is seen in

-5-
a) Prophase of 1st meiotic division b) Metaphase of 1st meiotic division
c) Anaphase of 1st meiotic division d) Telophase of 1st meiotic division

63) Anaphase of 1st meiotic division differs from the mitosis in that
a) There is splitting of centromere
b) There is no splitting of centromere
c) One entire chromosome of each pair moves to either pole of the spindle
d) Two chromosomes of each pair moves to either pole

64) The resulting daughter cell has following number of chromosomes at the end of anaphase of 1st
meiotic division
a) 23 b) 46
c) 22 d) 47

65) Two daughter nuclei formed is seen in


a) Prophase stage of 1st meiotic division b) Metaphase stage of 1st meiotic division
c) Anaphase stage of 1st meiotic division d) Telophase stage of 1st meiotic division

66) The 1st meiotic division differs from usual interphase by


a) There is duplication of DNA b) There is no duplication of DNA
c) There is duplication of RNA d) There is no duplication of RNA

67) The second meiotic division is similar to


a) Mitosis b) 1st meiotic division
c) Amitosis d) Diakinesis

68) Daughter cell resulting from the 2nd meiotic division


a) Are not alike because of crossing over at 1st meiotic division
b) Are alike because of the coiling of chromosome
c) None of the above
d) All of the above

69) Third step takes place in the process of genetic shuffling is


a) Fertilization b) Masculinization
c) Arborization d) Feminization

70) The agent which cause embryological anomalies congenitally in developing embryo is called
a) Carcinogens b) Teratogens
c) Allergens d) All of the above

ANSWER KEY

1) a 2) c 3) a 4) a 5) a 6) a 7) b 8) a 9) b 10) b 11) c 12) c 13) a


14) a 15) a 16) c 17) a 18) c 19) a 20) a 21) c 22) a 23) a 24) a 25) b 26) a
27) c 28) b 29) a 30) d 31) c 32) a 33) a 34) c 35) b 36) d 37) d 38) a 39) a
40) d 41) a 42) b 43) a 44) d 45) d 46) d 47) e 48) d 49) d 50) d 51) d 52) d
53) d 54) d 55) a 56) c 57) b 58) b 59) d 60) a 61) d 62) b 63) b 64) a 65) d
66) b 67) a 68) a 69) a 70) b

**********

-6-
CHAPTER 2
SPERMATOGENESIS AND OOGENESIS
1) The principal piece of spermatozoa is called
a) Head b) Neck
c) Middle piece d) Tail

2) The process of conversion of a spermatid to spermatozoon is called


a) Spermatogenesis b) Spermateleosis
c) Spermiogenesis d) Fertilization

3) The cellular covering of ovarian follicle is called


a) Theca interna b) Theca externa
c) Theca intermedia d) Theca folliculata

4) Theca interna secretes


a) Progesterone b) Estrogen
c) FSH d) LH

5) Process of shedding of ovum is called


a) Ovulation b) Gastrulation
c) Germination d) Assimilation

6) Corpus leuteum is formed by


a) Enlargement and transformation of follicular cell
b) Shedding of ovum
c) Rupture of ovarian follicle
d) All of the above

7) Axial filament of the spermatozoon passes through


a) Head b) Neck
c) Middle piece d) All of the above

8) The length of the spermatozoa measures about


a) 50 micrometer b) 60 micrometer
c) 70 micrometer d) 80 micrometer

9) The shape and length of head of spermatozoon is


a) Piriform shape 4 micrometer in length
b) Circular shape 5 micrometer in length
c) Quadrangular shape 6 micrometer in length
d) Hexagonal shape 7 micrometer in length

10) Nucleus of head of spermatozoa consist of


a) 24 chromosomes
b) 25 chromosomes
c) 23 highly condensed chromosomes
d) 46 highly condensed chromosomes

11) The head of spermatozoa is called


a) Basal body b) Galea capitis or acrosome
c) Connecting piece d) Annulus

12) The enzyme of acrosome helps in


a) Splitting of spermatozoon
b) Connecting the head with neck
c) Penetration of spermatozoa into ova during fertilization
d) Neutralize the acidic reaction of fallopian tube.

13) Basal body and spherical centriole is present in

-7-
a) Head of spermatozoon b) Neck of spermatozoon
c) Principal piece of spermatozoon d) Middle piece of spermatozoon

14) Shape of basal body present in neck of spermatozoa is


a) Funnel shape b) Barrel shape
c) Annular shape d) Quadrangular shape

15) Basal body is also called connecting piece because


a) It establish intimate connection between head and remainder spermatozoa
b) It establish intimate connection between neck and remainder spermatozoa
c) It establish intimate connection between middle piece and remainder spermatozoa
d) It establish intimate connection between principal piece and remainder spermatozoa

16) At the point where the middle piece of spermatozoon joins the tail, the axial filament passes
through a ring like structure called the
a) Dichotomous b) Monochotomous
c) Annulus d) Biperineal

17) The spiral sheath which surrounds the axial filament of middle piece of spermatozoa is made up
of
a) Golgi bodies b) Lysosome
c) Nucleolus d) Mitochondria

18) Central fibril of axial filament of sperm surrounded by nine pair of fibril arranged in a circle called
a) Doublets b) Quadruplets
c) Triplets d) Hexase

19) The chemical basis of condensation of head of spermatozoa is


a) Replacement of histone by protamine
b) Adding of histone by protamine
c) Replacement of pentose by hexose
d) Replacement of fructose by protamine

20) The basal body is made up of


a) 7 segmented rod like structure b) 8 segmented rod like structure
c) 9 segmented rod like structure d) 10 segmented rod like structure

21) The nine coarse petal shaped fibril of axial filament lays
a) Outside side of doublet b) Inside of doublet
c) Both side of doublet d) Inferior of doublet

22) In human male formation of gametes (spermatozoa) takes place only during
a) Childhood period b) Adolescent period
c) Reproductive period d) Old age period
e) c&d

23) Spermatozoa are formed in


a) Wall of seminiferous tubule of the testis
b) Inside the testicular lobule
c) Rete testis
d) Epidydimis

24) Cells of different shapes & sizes seen in one of the tubule of seminiferous tubules under light
microscope is called
a) Sertoli cell b) Interstitial cell of Leydigs
c) Basket cell d) Schwann cell

25) Sertoli cell represents


a) Stages in the formation of spermatozoa
b) Stages in the 1st meiotic division
c) Stages in the fertilization

-8-
d) Stages in the maturation of ovarian follicle

26) Sertoli cells mainly represent


a) Supportive function b) Destructive function
c) Inhibitory function d) Active action in cell division
e) All of the above

27) Germ cells are


a) Spermatogonia type A b) Spermatogonia type B
c) Primary Spermatocytes d) Secondary Spermatocytes

28) Spermatogonia type A divide


a) Mitotically b) Meiotically
c) Amitotically d) All of the above

29) The number of chromosome found in spermatogonia type A are


a) 44+X+Y b) 45+X+Y
c) 46+X+Y d) 22+X

30) The number of chromosomes found in spermatogonia type B are


a) 45+X b) 44+X+Y
c) 22+X d) 22+Y

31) The number of chromosomes present in primary spermatocytes are


a) 22+X b) 22+Y
c) 44+X+Y d) 45+X+O

32) Spermatogonia type B undergo ----------- to form primary spermatocyte


a) Mitosis b) Meiosis
c) Amitosis d) Diakinesis

33) Primary Spermatocyte divides to form 2 secondary Spermatocytes, is a type of


st nd
a) 1 meiotic division b) 2 meiotic division
c) Mitotic division d) Amitotic division

34) Secondary Spermatocyte contains


a) 22+X chromosomes
b) 22+Y chromosomes
c) 22+X or 22+Y chromosomes
d) 44+X+Y chromosomes

35) The process of cell division in which there is no reduction in chromosome number is called
a) Mitotic division
st
b) 1 meiotic division
nd
c) 2 meiotic division
d) Amitotic division

36) Each spermatid gradually --------------- to become spermatozoon


a) Divides b) Changes its shape
c) Rounded d) All of the above

37) The number of chromosomes found in spermatid are


a) 22+X b) 22+Y
c) 22+X or 22+Y d) 44+X+Y

38) The shape of spermatid is more or less


a) Circular b) Pyriform
c) Pear shaped d) Quadrilateral
e) Triangular

39) The process of transformation of a spermatid to spermatozoon is called

-9-
a) Spermatogenesis b) Spermogenesis
c) Spremiogenesis d) Spermolysis

40) The ----------- is transformed into acrosome cap of a spermatozoa.


a) Mitochondria b) Nucleus
c) Golgi apparatus d) Centriole

41) Axial filament of spermatozoa appears to grow out of


a) Golgi apparatus b) Mitochondria
c) Centriole d) Nucleus
st
42) After division of 1 centriole of spermatozoa becomes spherical comes close together and lie in
the --------------- of the spermatozoa.
a) Head b) Neck
c) Middle piece d) Tail

43) The other centriole of spermatozoa after division form


a) Axial sheath b) Basal body and annulus
c) Fibrils d) Mitochondria

44) The remaining part of ---------------- of spermatozoa elongates to form the principal piece or tail.
a) Mitochondria b) Axial filament
c) Galea capitis d) Head

45) The following from below grows out after elongation of axial filament of spermatozoa
a) Mitochondria b) Cytoplasm
c) Cell membrane d) Golgi apparatus

46) The process of spermatogenesis including spermiogenesis requires about --------------- month
for its completion.
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5

47) The motility of spermatozoa appears because of


a) Maturation b) Acrosomal reaction
c) Capacitation d) Zona reaction

48) Following below is the cause which carries spermatozoa from testis to epididymis
a) Peristaltic movement
b) A current of fluid in semini ferrous tubules
c) Its own motility
d) All of the above

49) Spermatozoa undergo maturation when


a) They pass through seminiferous tubule
b) They pass through epididymis
c) They pass through vasdeferens
d) They pass through prostatic urethra

50) In maturation changes takes place in glycoproteins of the plasma membrane covering the
spermatozoa ------------.
a) Neck b) Head
c) Tail d) Middle piece

51) Spermatozoa become fully motile after


a) Maturation b) Capacitation
c) Ejaculation d) All of the above
e) None of the above

52) The final step in spermatozoa maturation is called


a) Capacitation b) Fertilization

-10-
c) Zona reaction d) Acrosome reaction

53) Spermatozoa acquire the ability to fertilize an ovum only after


a) They have been in female genital tract
b) They have been in testis
c) They have been in epididymis
d) They have been in vas deferens

54) Which enzyme is released in acrosomal reaction?


a) Mitochondrial enzymes
b) Lysosomal enzymes
c) Golgi body enzymes
d) Nucleolar enzymes

55) Sequence of events takes place in acrosomal reaction except


a) Spermatozoon comes in contact with zona pellucida of ovarian follicle
b) Changes take place in the membrane over acrosome
c) Lysosome enzyme is released
d) Male pronucleus and female pronucleus formation takes place.

56) The sequence of events takes place in zona reaction except


a) Digestion of zona pellucida
b) Penetration of spermatozoa through it
c) Changes in the properties of zona pellucida
d) Changes in the properties of spermatozoa

57) Zona reaction causes


a) Splitting of spermatozoa
b) Conversion of spermatid to spermatozoon
c) Penetration of spermatozoa into zona and changes in properties of zona pellucida with its
digestion
d) Regaining motility of spermatozoa

58) Following points below shows difference between spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis except
a) Complete process of formation of spermatozoon from spermatogonium
st nd
b) Includes 1 and 2 meiotic division
c) Includes spermiogenesis
d) Increase motility of sperm
e) Transformation of rounded spermatid into spermatozoa

59) Oogonia cell is present in ---------------- part of ovary


a) Medulla b) Cortex
c) Ovarian capsule d) All of the above

60) Following below are the difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis except
a) One spermatocyte gives rise to four spermatozoa
b) One primary oocyte forms only one ovum.
c) One primary spermatocyte divides to two secondary spermatocyte
d) One primary oocyte divides to two secondary oocyte

61) The number of chromosome found in oogonium is


a) 44+X+Y b) 44+X+X
c) 22+X d) 22+Y

62) The number of chromosome seen in primary oocyte is


a) 44+X+X b) 44+X+Y
c) 22+X d) 22+Y

63) The number of chromosome seen in secondary oocyte is


a) 22+X b) 44+X
c) 44+X+X d) 44+X+Y

-11-
st
64) The number of chromosome seen in 1 polar body
a) 22+X b) 22+Y
c) 44+X+X d) 44+X+Y
nd
65) The number of chromosome seen in 2 polar body
a) 22+X b) 22+Y
c) 44+X+X d) 44+X+Y

66) During formation of secondary oocyte from primary oocyte


a) 1/2 of cytoplasm goes from mother cell to daughter cell
b) Almost all the cytoplasm goes from mother cell to daughter cell
c) 3/4 of cytoplasm goes from mother cell to daughter cell
d) None of the above

67) The number of chromosome seen in ovum is


a) 44+X+X b) 44+X+Y
c) 22+X d) 22+Y

68) The 1st polar body receives


a) 1/2 of the chromosome and 1/2 of the cytoplasm from primary oocyte
b) 1/2 of the chromosome and almost no cytoplasm from primary oocyte
c) Almost all the chromosome and 1/2 of the cytoplasm from primary oocyte
d) Almost all the chromosome and almost all the cytoplasm from primary oocyte

69) Primary oogonia enlarge to form primary oocyte in


a) Early fetal period b) Late fetal period
c) Adolescent period d) Old age period

70) Indicate the correct and most appropriate statement


a) At the time of birth all the primary oocyte are in the prophase of the first meiotic division and
is about 40000.
b) At the time of late fetal period all the primary oocyte are in metaphase of 2nd meiotic division
and is about 50000.
c) At the time of adolescent period all the primary oocyte are in anaphase of mitotic division and
is about 60000.
d) At the time of early fetal period all the primary oocyte are in telophase of 1st meiotic division
and is about 70000.

71) The primary oocyte is ready to ovulate and begin to mature in


st
a) Prophase of 1 meiotic division
st
b) Metaphase of 1 meiotic division
st
c) Anaphase of 1 meiotic division
st
d) Telophase of 1 meiotic division

72) The reproductive age of female is between


a) 1 to 10 year of age b) 50 to 70 year of age
c) 12 to 50 year of age d) 10 to 11 year of age

73) With each menstrual cycle


a) A few primary oocytes begin to mature and complete the 1st meiotic division shortly before
ovulation.
b) A few primary oocytes begin to mature and complete 2nd meiotic division shortly before
ovulation
c) A few secondary oocytes begin to mature and complete the 1st meiotic division shortly
before menstruation.
d) A few secondary oocytes begin to mature and complete the 2nd meiotic division shortly
before menstruation.

74) The first meiotic division of a primary oocyte produces


a) 3 unequal daughter cell b) 4 unequal daughter cell
c) 2 unequal daughter cell d) 2 equal daughter cell

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75) Each daughter cell produced from mother cell (primary oocyte) after 1st meiotic division has
a) Halfloid number of chromosomes (23)
b) Diploid number of chromosomes (46)
c) Triploid number of chromosomes (69)
d) Quadruploid number of chromosomes (92)

76) After 1st meiotic division when primary oocyte converts to secondary oocyte it is divisible into 2
-----------------
a) Large cell which receives most of the cytoplasm is called secondary oocyte and the smaller
cell is known as 1st polar body.
b) Large cell which receives 1/2 of the cytoplasm is called ovum and the smaller cell is known
as 2nd polar body.
c) Large cell which receives almost no cytoplasm is called oogonium and the smaller cell is
known as 2nd polar body.
d) All of the above

77) When the secondary oocyte immediately enters the second meiotic division
a) Ovulation takes place while the oocyte is in metaphase.
b) Ovulation takes place while the oocyte is in prophase.
c) Ovulation takes place while the oocyte is in anaphase.
d) Ovulation takes place while the oocyte is in telophase.

78) The secondary oocyte remains arrested in --------------- till fertilization occur.
a) Prophase b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase d) Telophase

79) Till the completion of second meiotic division if fertilization occur results in
a) Production of 2 unequal daughter cell
b) Production of 2 equal daughter cell
c) Production of 3 unequal daughter cell
d) Production of 4 unequal daughter cell

80) In each menstrual cycle


a) 5 to 30 primary oocytes starts maturing
b) 30 to 60 primary oocytes starts maturing
c) 5 to 30 secondary oocytes starts maturing
d) 30 to 60 secondary oocytes starts maturing

81) During the entire reproductive life of a female


a) Around 400 ova are discharged
b) Around 500 ova are discharged
c) Around 600 ova are discharged
d) Around 700 ova are discharged

82) During the entire reproductive life of a female from total discharged ova -------------- number of
primary oocytes are available
a) 40000 b) 50000
c) 60000 d) 70000

83) Ova develop from


a) Oogonia b) Secondary oocyte
st nd
c) Primary oocyte d) 1 & 2 polar body

84) Ova is present in


a) Cortex of ovary b) Medulla of ovary
c) Capsule of ovary d) All of the above

85) Oogonium ----------- to form primary oocyte


a) Enlarges b) Splits
c) Coils d) Tears naturally

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86) The cells which surround oogonia are called
a) Stroma b) Parenchyma
c) Capsule d) All of the above

87) The protector cells which surround ova are called


a) Stromal cells b) Parenchymal cells
c) Follicular cells d) All of the above

88) Stromal cell surrounds


a) Spermatozoa b) Oocyte
c) Both d) None of the above

89) The shape of stromal cell that surrounds oocytes is


a) Flat b) Round
c) Dum bail d) Pyramidal

90) The flat follicular cell become columnar, this stage of development is called
a) Primordial follicle b) Zona pellucida
c) Cumulus oophoricus d) Thecal gland

91) Zona pellucida appear between


a) Follicular cell and oocyte
b) Membrana granulosa and antrum
c) Cumulus oophoricus & Discus proligarus
d) Theca interna and theca externa

92) Zona pellucida is a


a) Layer of cell
b) Homogenous membrane
c) Cumulus oophoricus
d) Eccentrically placed follicle

93) When the single layer of follicular cell of ovarian follicle proliferate to form several layer they are
name as
a) Antrum b) Granulosa cell or membrana granulosa
c) Cumulus oophoricus d) Discus proligarus

94) The cavity which appear within membrana granulosa is called


a) Antrum b) Theca
c) Sac d) All of the above

95) A follicle is a
a) Narrow passage b) Broad passage
c) Small sac d) Large sac

96) When cavity of the follicle grows in size wall of the follicle formed by granulosa cell becomes
relatively thin as a result
a) Oocyte lies parallel in the follicle
b) Oocyte lies in the corner of the follicle
c) Oocyte lies eccentrically in the follicle
d) Oocyte lies at the center of the follicle

97) Cumulus oophoricus are that type of granulosa cell


a) Which lies attach to the wall of the follicle
b) Which surrounded by granulosa cell lies eccentrically to the oocyte
c) Which lies in the follicular body
d) Which lies outside the follicle

98) Discus proligarus are that type of granulosa cell


a) Which lies attach to the wall of follicle
b) Between theca interna and theca externa

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c) Which lies in follicular cavity
d) Which lies outside the follicle

99) Theca interna is a


a) Covering formed due to condensation of stromal cells surrounding membrana granulosa due
to follicular expansion
b) Membrane appear between follicular cavity and stromal cell
c) Separation between zona pellucida and oocyte
d) Condensation of oocyte

100) Theca externa is a


a) Membrane present outside theca interna due to condensation of fibrous tissue
b) Fluid present in follicular antrum
c) Separation between follicular cavity and granulosa cell
d) Cellular content of oocyte

101) The follicular fluid secrete


a) Mitotic inhibitory factor
b) Meiotic inhibitory factor
c) Amitotic inhibitory factor
d) Mullarian inhibitory factor

102) The meiotic inhibitory factor of follicular cell prevent


a) Maturation of primary oocyte beyond prophase of the 1st meiotic division
b) Maturation of the secondary oocyte metaphase of the 1st meiotic division
c) Maturation of ovum beyond anaphase of the 1st meiotic division
d) Maturation of 1st and 2nd polar body beyond telophase of the 1st meiotic division

103) Meiotic inhibitory factor transfer to the oocyte via gap junction present between
a) Zona pellucida & granulosa cell
b) Microvilli of oocyte & follicular cell
c) Theca interna and theca externa
d) All of the above

104) Junction (gap) between microvilli of oocyte & microvilli of follicular cell lies in
a) Follicular antrum b) Theca interna
c) Zona pellucid d) Theca externa

105) Follicular cell proliferate and differentiate because of


a) Zona pellucid b) Oocyte
c) Theca interna d) Theca externa

106) Factors produce in oocyte helps in


a) Zona pellucida digestion
b) Formation and maturation of Graphian follicle
c) Maturation of oocyte
d) Proliferation of theca interna and externa with granulosa cell

107) Ovulation is defined as


a) Proliferation of ovum in ovary
b) Maturation of ovum in ovary
c) Shedding of ovum from ovary
d) All of the above

108) Ovarian follicle is present in


a) Cortex of the ovary b) Medulla of the ovary
c) Capsule of the ovary d) Round ligament of the ovary
e) Surface of the ovary

109) Stigma appears over the most convex part of the follicle wall attaches to surface of ovary is a
a) Vascular area b) Avascular area

-15-
c) Fibro connective tissue d) A projection of surface of ovary

110) Ovulation occurs due to high concentration of


a) LH in blood & ↑pressure of follicular fluid
b) TSH in blood & digestion of follicular wall
c) GnRh in blood
d) Oxytocin in blood

111) Cells seen sticking to the outside of zona pellucida at the time of ovulation is called
a) Cumulus oophoricus b) Discus proligarus
c) Corona radiate d) Vital cells

112) Ovum is carried into the tube after shedding by


a) Follicular fluid b) Ciliated activity of cell lining of the tube
c) a & b d) None of the above

113) If the ovum is not fertilized then it die within


a) 3 to 6 hrs b) 6 to 12 hrs
c) 12 to 24 hrs d) 24 to 72 hrs

114) Ovum needs ----------- days to reach from uterine tube to uterus
a) 1 to 2 days b) 1/2 to 1 days
c) 3 to 4 days d) 4 to 5 days

115) After the ovum sheds from ovarian follicle the wall of follicle collapses and become folded
further hypertrophy of cells of follicular wall takes place to form
a) Corpus albicans b) Corpus leuteum
c) Corpus spongiosa d) Corpora cavernosa

116) Corpus leuteum secrete


a) Progesterone b) Estrogen
c) LH d) TSH
e) a & b

117) The cytoplasm of corpus leuteum is filled with a yellow pigment called
a) Inhibin b) Lutein
c) Malloin d) Bursin

118) Corpus leuteum is a


a) Brown body b) Red body
c) Yellow body d) Green body

119) Contribution to corpus leuteum comes from


a) Enlargement of cells of theca interna
b) Enlargement of cells of theca externa
c) Enlargement of cells of membrana granulosa
d) All of the above

120) Blood supply of corpus leuteum is through


a) Theca externa b) Theca interna
c) Membrana granulose d) Zona pellucid

121) Corpus leuteum of menstruation secretes


a) Progesterone b) Estrogen
c) a & b d) None of the above

122) Corpus leuteum persist in


a) Fertilized ovum b) Unfertilized ovum
c) Ovary d) Fimbriated end of uterine tube

123) Corpus leuteum persist for

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a) 14 days b) 12 days
c) 10 days d) 8 days

124) At the end of functional life corpus leuteum of menstruation degenerates to form
a) Corpus albicans b) Corpus leuteum of pregnancy
c) Corpus multiplicance d) Corpus braziliensis

125) Corpus albican is a


a) White body b) Mass of fibrous tissue
c) a & b d) Yellow body
e) None of the above

126) Corpus leuteum of pregnancy persist for


a) 1 to 2 month b) 3 to 4 month
c) 4 to 5 month d) 5 to 6 month

127) Corpus leuteum of pregnancy persist in when


a) (Unfertilized) ovum is not fertilized
b) (Fertilized) ovum is fertilized
c) a & b
d) Surface of ovary ruptures
e) None of the above

128) Corpus leuteum of pregnancy may occupy


a) 1/2 of the total volume of ovary
b) 1/3 of the total volume of ovary
c) 1/4 of the total volume of ovary
d) 1/5 of the total volume of ovary
e) 1/3 to 1/2 of the total volume of ovary

129) Progesterone is essential for


a) Termination of pregnancy in the first few months
b) Maintenance of pregnancy in the first few months
c) Supplying oxygen to the pregnancy with nutrition in the first few month
d) b & c
e) None of the above
th
130) After 4 month of pregnancy ----------- begin to secrete progesterone
a) Placenta b) Umbilical cord
c) Corpus leuteum d) Corpus albican

131) Degeneration of corpus leuteum in the early months of pregnancy is prevented by


a) HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)
b) Estrogen
c) Progesterone
d) Lutein

132) HCG (Human chorionic gonadotropin) is secreted by


a) Epiblast cell of developing embryo b) Hypoblast cell of developing embryo
c) Trophoblast cell of developing embryo d) Mesodermal layer of germ disc

133) Ovarian cycle is


a) Time period from which corpus leuteum degenerate to form corpus albicans
b) The series of changes that begins with the formation of ovarian follicle and end with the
degeneration of corpus leuteum
c) The sequence of events takes place between follicular rupture & disappearance of granulose
cell
d) Time period between degeneration of interstitial gland and formation of corpus albicans

134) The average duration of ovarian cycle is


a) 28 days b) 30 days

-17-
c) 32 days d) 34 days

135) Ovulation occurs at


a) Mid cycle (14th day) b) 18th day
c) Prior to cycle (1st day) d) End of the cycle (28th day)

136) Ovarian follicle becomes corpus leuteum when


a) It reaches maturity and sheds an ovum
b) It is unmatured and proliferates
c) When it degenerates and collapses and walls are folded
d) All of the above

137) The causes of degeneration of ovarian follicles except


a) Ovum and granulosa cells disappear
b) Proliferation of cells of theca interna
c) Interstitial gland appears
d) Degeneration of trophoblastic layer of embryo

138) Degenerated ovarian follicle which do not persist into next ovarian cycle are called
a) Corpus leuteum b) Corpus albicans
c) Corpora atretica d) b & c
e) All of the above

139) Changes takes place during ovarian cycle are greatly influenced by
a) Hormone produced by the hypophysis cerebri
b) Hormone produced by the thyroid
c) Hormone produced by the pineal gland
d) Hormone produced by the gonads

140) Hormone produced by the theca interna and corpus leuteum influence
a) Predominantly uterus b) Predominantly vagina
c) Predominantly fallopian tube d) Predominantly ovary

141) Hormone produced by theca interna in turn resulted in a cycle of changes referred to
a) Uterine or menstrual cycle b) Ovarian cycle
c) Hypothalamus pituitary gonadal cycle d) All of the above

142) The length and width of sperm is


a) 60µm and 2µm b) 70µm and 3µm
c) 80µm and 4µm d) 90µm and 5µm

143) ------------ of the sperm is adopted for motility


a) Shape b) Length
c) Width d) Type of axial filament

144) Sperm is
a) Highly motile b) Moderately motile
c) Immotile d) All of the above
e) None of the above

145) High motility of the sperm is because of its


a) Little cytoplasm
b) Coarse petal shape fibrils
c) Axial filament passes through middle piece
d) Pyriform shape of head

146) Chromosomal types present in spermatozoa are


a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5

147) Chromosome types found in spermatozoa are

-18-
a) 22+X and 22+Y b) 22+X and 22+X
c) 22+X and 23+O d) 22+Y and 23+O

148) Diameter of ovum is


a) 120 µm b) 200 µm
c) 60 µm d) 180 µm

149) Ovum is
a) Highly motile b) Moderately motile
c) Immotile d) Motility because of ciliary beats of uterine tube
e) c & d

150) Ovum have ------------- chromosomes


a) 22+Y b) 22+X
c) 22+X & 22+Y d) 22+X or 22+Y

151) Ovum usually degenerates ---------------- hours after ovulation


a) 12 hrs b) 24 hrs
c) 36 hrs d) 48 hrs

152) Sperm degenerates -------------- hours after ejaculation


a) 12 hrs b) 24 hrs
c) 36 hrs d) 48 hrs

153) Sperm survive up to -------------- days in female genital tract


a) 2 days b) 3 days
c) 4 days d) 5 days

154) Abnormalities seen in sperm except


a) Too large b) Too small
c) Duplication of head, body and tail d) Immotile

155) Abnormalities seen in ovum except


a) Large nucleus b) Two nuclei
c) Two oocyte seen in follicle d) Highly motile

156) Non disjunction is seen in


st nd
a) 1 meiotic division b) 2 meiotic division
c) Mitotic division d) Amitotic division

157) Non disjunction is called


a) Two chromosome of a pair separates goes to opposite pole of a prophase
b) Two chromosome of a pair separates goes to opposite pole in metaphase
c) Two chromosome of a pair separates goes to opposite pole in anaphase
d) Two chromosome of a pair instead of separating at anaphase may go to same pole

158) The resulting gamete after nondisjunction contains --------------- number of chromosome instead
of -----------------
a) 24, 23 b) 23, 22
c) 22, 21 d) 21, 20

159) The gamete produced from non disjunction will have


a) 3 identical chromosome instead of 2
b) 4 identical chromosome instead of 3
c) 5 identical chromosome instead of 4
d) 6 identical chromosome instead of 5

160) The resulting gamete after non disjunction is called


a) Disomy b) Trisomy
c) Aneuploidy d) Monoploidy

-19-
161) Turner syndrome or Mongolism is
a) 3 identical chromosome abnormality of chromosome 18
b) 3 identical chromosome abnormality of chromosome 13
c) 3 identical chromosome abnormality of chromosome 21
d) All of the above

162) Childs of Turner Syndrome shows lists of abnormalities except


a) Broad face, obliquely placed palpebral fissure
b) Epicanthus, a furrowed lower lip with broad hand with single transverse crease
c) Mental retardation with anomalies of heart
d) Furrowed upper lip with double transverse crease

163) The number of chromosome seen in Klinefelter’s syndrome is


a) 47XXY b) 48XXY
c) 47XXX d) None of the above

164) Gynaecomastia shows


a) XXY chromosome b) XYY chromosome
c) XXX chromosome d) YYY chromosome

165) Sterility and Gynaecomastia is seen in


a) Turner Syndrome b) Down Syndrome
c) Kline felter’s syndrome d) Criduchat syndrome

166) Super female shows


a) 3 masses of sex chromatin in their cell
b) 2 masses of sex chromatin in their cell
c) 4 masses of sex chromatin in their cell
d) 1 masses of sex chromatin in their cell

167) Super female shows -------------- number of chromosomes


a) XXX b) XYX
c) XYY d) YYX

168) Following are the sign and symptoms shown by super female except
a) Body shows lack of sexual development
b) Infantile
c) Scanty menstruation and mental retardation
d) Webbing of neck with short stature

169) When both chromosome of a pair go to one gamete the other gamete resulting from the division
has only 22 chromosomes instead of normal 23 and at fertilization the zygote has only 45
chromosomes. Hence the pair is called
a) Polysomy b) Disomy
c) Monosomy d) Trisomy

170) The best example of monosomy female with one X-chromosome is


a) Klinefelter syndrome b) Turner syndrome
c) Male pseudohermaphroditism d) Female pseudohermaphroditism

171) In Turner Syndrome the subject is always a


a) Female b) Male
c) Hermaphrodite d) All of the above
e) None of the above

172) Following are the sign and symptoms seen in Turner Syndrome except
a) Agenesis of ovaries
b) Mental retardation
c) Skeletal abnormalities with webbing of neck
d) Abnormalities of heart and lung

-20-
173) Webbed neck means
a) Fold appear on the skin on side of the neck
b) Unable to turn the neck to back only
c) Unable to turn the neck to side by side
d) Unable to turn the neck to front
174) In Turner syndrome Non-disjunction also occurs in
st
a) 1 meiotic division
nd
b) 2 meiotic division
c) Amitotic division
d) Mitotic division

175) Triploidy in Turner syndrome zygote shows


a) 23 chromosomes
b) 23 pair of chromosomes
c) A pair shows 3 chromosomes
d) 69 chromosomes

176) Fetuses appear -------------- in Triploidy Turner syndrome


a) Born dead b) Mal nutriated
c) Mental retarded d) Short stature

177) Translocation is
a) Part of a chromosome may get attached to a chromosome of a different pair
b) Part of a chromosome may lost
c) Two chromosome of a pair break at unequal distances
d) A piece separating from a chromosome may get inverted before joining the opposite
chromosome

178) Deletion is
a) Part of a chromosome may get attached to a chromosome of a different pair
b) Part of a chromosome may be lost
c) Two chromosome of a pair break at unequal distances
d) A piece separating from a chromosome may get inverted before joining the opposite
chromosome

179) Inversion is
a) Part of a chromosome may get attached to a chromosome of a different pair
b) Part of a chromosome may get lost
c) Two chromosomes of a pair break at unequal distances
d) A piece separating from a chromosome may get inverted before joining the opposite
chromosome

180) Gene sequence is disturbed in


a) Translocation
b) Deletion
c) Duplication
d) Inversion

181) Duplication is
a) Part of a chromosome may get attached to chromosome of a different pair
b) Part of a chromosome may be lost
c) Two chromosome of a pair may break at unequal distances when each piece joins the
opposite chromosome
d) A piece separating from a chromosome may get inverted before joining the opposite
chromosome

182) Duplication is seen when


a) Two chromosome breaks at unequal distances and each piece join the opposite
b) Part of a chromosome may lost
c) Part of a chromosome may get attached to a chromosome of a different pair
d) All of the above

-21-
183) In cell division --------------- split longitudinally so that each chromatid becomes a separate
chromosome
a) Telomere b) Centro mere
c) Long arm Q d) Short arm P

184) Transverse splitting of centromere produces


a) Two similar chromosomes b) Two dissimilar chromosomes
c) Three similar chromosomes d) 4 similar chromosomes

185) Iso chromosome is


a) One chromosome is made up of long arm of both chromatids and while the other is made up
of the long arms
b) One chromosome is made up of the short arms of both chromatids while the other is made
up of the long arms
c) One chromosome is made up of the short arm of single chromatid while the other is made up
of the long arms of both chromatids
d) None of the above

186) Mosaicism is
a) Fetus having a mixture of cells with normal and abnormal chromosomes
b) Fetus having born dead
c) Fetus having abnormalities of septum of heart
d) Fetus having mal developed genetalia

187) Mutation occurs during


a) Gametogenesis b) Capacitation
c) Maturation d) Inversion

188) Mutation is
a) Change in stature and function of gene
b) Change in position of a centromere
c) Change in cell division pattern
d) All of the above
e) None of the above.

ANSWER KEYS

1) d 2) b 3) a 4) b 5) a 6) a 7) c 8) b 9) a 10) c 11) b 12) c


13) b 14) a 15) a 16) c 17) d 18) a 19) a 20) c 21) a 22) e 23) a 24) a
25) a 26) a 27) a 28) a 29) a 30) b 31) c 32) a 33) a 34) c 35) c 36) b
37) c 38) a 39) b 40) c 41) c 42) b 43) b 44) c 45) c 46) a 47) a 48) b
49) b 50) b 51) c 52) a 53) a 54) b 55) d 56) d 57) c 58) d 59) b 60) d
61) b 62) a 63) a 64) a 65) a 66) b 67) c 68) b 69) b 70) a 71) a 72) c
73) a 74) c 75) a 76) a 77) a 78) b 79) a 80) a 81) a 82) a 83) a 84) a
85) a 86) a 87) a 88) b 89) a 90) a 91) a 92) b 93) b 94) a 95) c 96) c
97) b 98) a 99) a 100) a 101) b 102) a 103) b 104) c 105) b 106) b 107) c 108) a
109) b 110) a 111) c 112) c 113) c 114) c 115) b 116) e 117) b 118) c 119) a 120) b
121) a 122) b 123) a 124) a 125) c 126) b 127) b 128) e 129) d 130) a 131) a 132) c
133) b 134) a 135) a 136) a 137) d 138) c 139) a 140) a 141) a 142) a 143) a 144) a
145) a 146) a 147) a 148) a 149) e 150) b 151) b 152) d 153) c 154) d 155) d 156) a
157) d 158) a 159) a 160) b 161) a 162) d 163) a 164) b 165) c 166) b 167) a 168) d
169) c 170) b 171) a 172) d 173) a 174) b 175) d 176) a 177) a 178) c 179) d 180) d
181) c 182) a 183) b 184) b 185) b 186) a 187) a 188) a

**********

-22-
CHAPTER 3
THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE

1) The menstrual cycle is applied to


a)Cyclical changes that occur in the myometrium every month
b)Cyclical changes that occur in the perimetrium every 2 month
c) Cyclical changes that occur in the endometrium every month
d)Cyclical changes that occur in the myometrium, perimetrium and endometrium every 2 month

2) The menstrual cycle is divided into


a)2 phases
b)3 phases
c) 4 phases
d)5 phases

3) Changes in the uterine endometrium are produced mainly by estrogen is in


a)Follicular phase
b)Luteal phase
c) Post menstrual phase
d)Secretory phase

4) In follicular phase of menstrual cycle changes are produced mainly by


a)Progesterone
b)Estrogen
c) HCG
d)Lutein

5) Changes in the uterine endometrium are produced in luteal phase mainly by


a)Estrogen
b)Progesterone
c) HCG
d)LH

6) In endometrium of uterus changes produced mainly by progesterone is


a)Follicular phase
b)Luteal phase
c) Post menstrual phase
e)Proliferative phase

7) Following are the main changes seen in the endometrium during the period of menstrual cycle
except
a)Increase in the thickness & growth of uterine gland
b)Changes in epithelial lining of the gland
c) Changes in hormone secretion from endometrium
d)Increase fluid content of endometrial stroma

8) Just before onset of menstruation the blood supply to


a)Superficial part of the endometrium cut off
b)Deep part of the endometrium cut off
c) Superficial part of the myometrium cut off
d)Deep part of the perimetrium cut off

9) The menstrual cycle is influenced by


a)Estrogen
b)Estrogen, Progesterone
c) Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH
d)Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH, LH

10) Menopause is

-23-
a)Cessation of menses
b)Onset of menses
c) Middle period between onset and cessation
d)After onset

11) Menarche is
a)Cessation of menses
b)After cessation
c) Onset of menses
d)Before onset

12) Age of menopause is


a)About 50 years
b)About 55 years
c) About 45 years
d)About 60 years

13) The monthly menstruation is the --------------- of a series of cyclic changes takes place in the
uterus
a)Internal manifestation
b)External manifestation
c) Both
d)None of the above

14) The most important event in the ovarian cycle is


a)Ovulation
b)Oogenesis
c) Appear of stigma at most convex point at the surface of ovary
d)All of the above

15) Perimetrium of uterus is made up of


a)Smooth muscle
b)Peritoneum
c) Mucous membrane
d)Fibrous tissue

16) Myometrium of uterus is made up of


a)Smooth muscle
b)Peritoneum
c) Fibrous tissue
d)Mucous membrane

17) Endometrium of uterus is made up of


a)Smooth muscle
b)Peritoneum
c) Mucous membrane
d)Fibrous tissue

18) Stroma of endometrium of uterus fills the interval between


a)Epithelium and perimetrium
b)Epithelium and myometrium
c) Epithelium and tubular gland
d)All of the above

19) Myometrium of uterus contains


a)Compound alveolar gland
b)Simple tubular gland
c) Branched alveolar gland
d)Branched & compound tubular gland

-24-
20) The artery that supply the endometrium tend to run -------------------- towards the surface
a)Vertically
b)Horizontally
c) Obliquely
d)Helically or spirally
e)a & d

21) The artery remain straight which supplies endometrium of uterus are confined to the
a)Lining epithelium
b)Basal part of endometrium
c) Uterine gland
d)Myometrium

22) Changes during post menstrual phase & during most of the proliferative phase takes place
under the action of
a)Estrogen
b)Progesterone
c) HCG
d)LH

23) Follicular phase constitutes


st
a)1 half of the menstrual cycle
nd
b)2 half of the menstrual cycle
rd
c) 3 half of the menstrual cycle
th
d)4 half of the menstrual cycle

24) The period in which changes takes place in post menstrual and proliferative phase is called
a)Luteal phase
b)Follicular phase
c) Premenstrual phase
d)Menstrual phase

25) After ovulation corpus luteum is formed and starts secreting progesterone during
st
a)1 half of menstrual cycle
nd
b)2 half of menstrual cycle
rd
c) 3 half of menstrual cycle
th
d)4 half of menstrual cycle

26) The phase of menstrual cycle in which changes takes place by the influence of corpus luteum is
called
a)Follicular phase
b)Menstrual phase
c) Luteal phase
d)Secretory phase

27) Just before the onset of next bleeding the progesterone and estrogen level
a)Lowers
b)Increase
c) Remain the same
d)Maintain the peak

28) -------------- of progesterone and estrogen lead to onset of menstrual bleeding


a)Increase
b)Withdrawal
c) Acceptance
d)All of the above

29) In the post menstrual phase the progressive increase in thickness of endometrium is
a)0.5 to 1 mm
b)1.5 to 2 mm

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c) 2.5 to 3 mm
d)3.5 to 4 mm

30) In the proliferative phase the progressive increase in thickness of endometrium is


a)0.5 to 1 mm
b)1.5 to 2 mm
c) 2 to 3 mm
d)3 to 4 mm

31) In secretory phase the progressive increase in thickness of endometrium reaches up to


a)0.5 to 1 mm
b)2 to 3 mm
c) 3 to 5 mm
d)5 to 7 mm

32) Because of gradual convolution the uterine gland acquire a ------------------- appearance
a)Saw toothed
b)Pyramidal
c) Rhomboidal
d)Annular

33) The ------------ part of uterine gland remain tubular in secretory phase
a)Apical part
b)Basal part
c) Opening of mouth
d)All of the above

34) During the post menstrual phase the epithelial lining of uterine gland remains
a)Cuboidal
b)Columnar
c) Squamous
d)None of the above

35) During the proliferative phase the epithelial lining of uterine gland remains
a)Cuboidal
b)Squamous
c) Columnar
d)None of the above

36) Apical part of cell of epithelial lining of uterine gland shed off during
a)Post menstrual phase
b)Proliferative phase
c) Secretory phase
d)Menstrual phase

37) During the ------------- phase the cells of the stroma are uniformly distributed and compactly
arranged
a)Proliferative phase
b)Pre menstrual phase
c) Post menstrual phase
d)Menstrual phase

38) Endometrium increase in thickness during


a)Proliferative
b)Post menstrual phase
c) Pre menstrual phase
d)Menstrual phase

39) The stroma can be divided into ------------ layers


a)2 layers

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b)4 layers
c) 3 layers
d)5 layers

40) 3 layers of stroma of uterine gland become better defined in -------------- phase of menstrual
cycle
a)Proliferative phase
b)Secretory phase
c) Post menstrual phase
d)Menstrual phase

41) The uterine glands grow in length during


a)Proliferative phase
b)Secretory phase
c) Post menstrual phase
d)Menstrual phase

42) Spiral arteries become very tortuous during


a)Post menstrual phase
b)Proliferative phase
c) Secretive phase
d)Menstrual phase

43) The spiral arteries supplies


rd
a)Superficial 2/3 of the endometrium
rd
b)Deep 1/3 of the endometrium
rd
c) Superficial 1/3 of the endometrium
rd
d)Deep 1/3 of the endometrium
rd
44) Arteries of the basal 1/3 of the endometrium remains
a)Long & Curved
b)Straight & Short
c) Straight & Long
d)Long & Tortuous

45) Endometrium is thick, soft and richly supplied with blood


a)Towards the end of the secretory phase
b)Towards the beginning of the secretory phase
c) Towards the end of the menstrual phase
d)Towards the beginning of the menstrual phase

46) During menstrual phase ------------- layers of the stroma shed off
a)Stratum compactum
b)Stratum spongiosum
c) a & b
d)Stratum Basale

47) At the end of menstruation endometrium remains


a)1 mm thick
b)0.5 mm thick
c) 1.5 mm thick
d)2 mm thick

48) At the end of menstruation -------------- layer of stroma remains


a)Stratum compactum
b)Stratum spongiosum
c) Stratum basale with basal portion of uterine gland
d)None of the above

49) The endometrial changes associated with the menstrual cycle are confined to ------------.

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a)Body of the uterus
b)Fundus of the uterus
c) Internal os of the uterus
d)External os of the uterus

50) --------------- is not affected in endometrial changes associated with menstrual cycle
a)Uterine mucosa
b)Cervical mucosa
c) Mucosa of the fundus of uterus and body
d)Mucosa of fallopian tube and fimbria

51) Menstrual blood flows after onset of menstruation due to


a)Spiral arteries constricts and blood supply to the superficial part of endometrium cut off
b)Spiral arteries relaxes and blood again starts flowing by onset and blood leaks through
damaged blood vessels
c) a & b
d)Uterine artery rupture lead to bleeding after onset

52) Time of ovulation does not have a constant relationship with -----------------
a)Preceding menstruation
b)Pre menstrual phase
c) Regular menstrual period
d)All of the above

53) It is difficult to predict the date of the next ovulation from the date of the menstruation because
of
a)Length of menstrual cycle vary from one month to another
b)Mid cycle of menstruation shifts 3 days from its regular period
c) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding causes severe contraction of uterus
d)All of the above

54) The method used to find out exact time of ovulation is


a)Temperature method
b)Pressure method
c) a & b
d)Peripheral pulse allocation method

55) Temperature method used to find out exact time of ovulation comprises of
a)Woman body temperature is recorded every evening
b)Woman body temperature is recorded every night
c) Woman body temperature is recorded every morning
d)Woman body temperature is recorded every afternoon

56) Plotted temperature graph shows --------------- at the time of ovulation


a)Parabola
b)Curve
c) Stigma
d)S shape

57) Plotted temperature graph shows curve at the time of ovulation because
a)Temperature is high during actual menstruation subsequently it rises
b)Temperature is low during actual menstruation and subsequently it rises
c) At about mid of the cycle there is a sudden fall in temperature followed by a rise
d)At about end of the cycle there is a sudden fall in temperature followed by a rise

58) Fertilization can occur only if intercourse takes place during a period between
a)3 days before ovulation to 2 days after ovulation
b)4 days before ovulation to 2 days after ovulation
c) 5 days before ovulation to 3 days after ovulation
d)6 days before ovulation to 4 days after ovulation

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59) Intercourse should takes place for persist of pregnancy during a period between four days
before ovulation to two days after ovulation because
a)Ovum is viable can be fertilized for not more than two days
b)Sperm introduced into the vagina die within 4 days
c) a & b
d)Ovum is not viable & sperm introduced into the vagina not die

60) Safe period in menstrual cycle is used for


a)Intercourse as far as prevention of pregnancy is concerned
b)Intercourse as far as persistence of pregnancy is concerned
c) Maintenance of ovum
d)Pregnancy to terminate

61) Unsafe period is considered as


a)10-16 days of M.C.
b)17-20 days of M.C.
c) 20-24 days of M.C.
d)24-28 days of M.C.

62) Safe period is considered as


a)10-16 days of M.C.
b)1-9 days of M.C.
c) 17-28 days of M.C.
d)Both b & c

63) The safe period forms the basis of the so called -------------- method of family planning
a)Irregular method
b)Temperature method
c) Pressure method
d)Rhythm method

64) To treat sterility clinician needs to acquire knowledge regarding


a)Time of ovulation
b)Time of fertilization
c) Time of implantation
d)Time of termination
e)Time of conception

65) Point of correlation between ovarian and uterine cycle except


a)Both are of 28 days duration
b)Uterine cycle is dependent on ovarian cycle
c) Uterine endometrium shows cyclic changes dependent on hormone secreted by ovarian
follicle and corpus luteum of ovary
d)The uterine cycle is not dependent on ovarian cycle

66) ------------- act as a major center for control of reproduction


a)Thalamus
b)Hypothalamus
c) Anterior pituitary
d)Posterior pituitary

67) Gonadotropin hormone is secreted by


a)Posterior pituitary gland (Neurohypophysis)
b)Anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis)
c) Pars intermedia
d)Pars tuberalis

68) Gonadotropin hormone includes


a)Growth hormone and GnRH

-29-
b)FSH and LH
c) All of the above
d)None of the above

69) ---------- acts on the anterior pituitary to release FSH


a)GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone)
b)Gonadotropin hormone
c) LH
d)Growth hormone

70) GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary to release FSH in the


st
a)1 half of M.C.
nd
b)2 half of M.C.
st
c) 1 half of ovarian cycle
nd
d)2 half of uterine cycle

71) The level of estrogen rises to a peak about


a)2 days before ovulation
b)2 days after ovulation
c) 4 days before ovulation
d)4 days after ovulation

72) When level of estrogen rises to peak it will lead to


a)Secretion of FSH by anterior pituitary
b)Sudden increase in level of LH by anterior pituitary
c) Sudden increase in level of GnRH by hypothalamus
d)Sudden increase in level of Gonadotropin by posterior pituitary

73) LH (Surge) or secretion of LH by anterior pituitary is seen


a)24 to 36 hrs before ovulation
b)48 hrs before ovulation
c) 72 hrs before ovulation
d)96 hrs before ovulation

74) LH surge is called


a)Sudden increase in level of LH secreted by anterior pituitary
b)Sudden decrease in level of LH secreted by anterior pituitary
c) Sudden decrease in level of LH secreted by posterior pituitary
d)Sudden increase in level of LH secreted by posterior pituitary

75) --------- leads to ovulation and transformation of Graffian follicle to corpus luteum
a)LH surge
b)FSH surge
c) GnRH surge
d)TSH surge

76) ---------- stimulates the secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum


a)LH
b)FSH
c) TSH
d)GnRH

77) Granulosa cell produce ----------- if fertilization does not occur


a)Inhibin
b)Lutein
c) Prothrombin
d)Thromboplastin

78) ---------- hormone leads to regression of corpus luteum


a)Lutein

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b)Inhibin
c) Prothrombin
d)Thromboplastin

79) If fertilization occur --------- not regress


a)Corpus albican
b)Corpus luteum
c) Graffian follicle
d)Granulosa cell

80) If corpus luteum not regress that will lead to


a)Continuation of secretory phase of endometrium and menstrual cycle not occurs
b)Continuation of post menstrual phase
c) Continuation of menstrual phase of endometrium and menstrual cycle occurs
d)Continuation of proliferative phase of endometrium and menstrual cycle occurs

81) The most important ingredient of contraceptive pill is


a)Phenolopthin
b)Progestin
c) Amphetamine
d)Marizuana

82) Use of pill is indicated in


a)5 days after onset of menstruation
b)7 days after onset of menstruation
c) 9 days after onset of menstruation
d)11 days after onset of menstruation

83) Stoppage of the pill


a)Increase the level of FSH & LH in blood
b)Reduces the level of FSH & LH in blood
c) Maintain the level of FSH & LH in blood
d)All of the above
e)None of the above

84) Contraceptive pills suppresses


a)Maturation of follicle and ovulation
b)Degradation of follicle
c) Fertilization
d)Menstruation

ANSWER KEYS

1) c 2) c 3) a 4) b 5) b 6) b 7) c 8) a 9) d 10) a 11) b 12) c


13) b 14) a 15) b 16) a 17) c 18) b 19) b 20) e 21) b 22) a 23) a 24) b
25) b 26) c 27) a 28) b 29) a 30) c 31) d 32) a 33) b 34) a 35) c 36) c
37) c 38) a 39) c 40) b 41) a 42) c 43) a 44) b 45) a 46) c 47) b 48) c
49) a 50) b 51) c 52) a 53) a 54) a 55) c 56) b 57) c 58) b 59) c 60) a
61) a 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) b 67) b 68) b 69) a 70) a 71) a 72) b
73) a 74) a 75) a 76) a 77) a 78) b 79) b 80) a 81) b 82) a 83) b 84) a

**********

-31-
CHAPTER 4
FORMATION OF GERM LAYERS
1) Fertilization of ovum takes place in the -------------- part of the uterine tube.
a)Isthmus
b)Fimbria
c) Ampulla
d)Uterotubal junction

2) When there are 16 cells in the ovum is called a --------------


a)Blastocyst
b)Morulla
c) Trophoblast
d)Embryo blast

3) The initiation in the formation process of morulla is --------- cells structure


a)2 cells
b)4 cells
c) 8 cells
d)16 cells

4) Trophoblast is a
a)Inner layer of cell covered by morulla
b)Outer layer of cell which covers morulla
c) Both inner and outer layer of cell
d)None of the above

5) Embryonic disc is formed by rearrangement of


a)Multiplication of outer cell mass
b)Multiplication of inner cell mass
c) Multiplication of both outer & inner cell mass
d)Addition of trophoblast to morulla

6) Embryonic disc contain


a)Two germ layers (Ectoderm, endoderm)
b)Three germ layers(Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm)
c) Four germ layers(Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm and basiderm)
d)Five germ layers( Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm and phytoderm)

7) After rearrangement of embryonic disc --------------- forms between ectoderm and endoderm
a)Mesoderm
b)Entoderm
c) Phytoderm
d)Granuloderm

8) After mesoderm formed cavity appears ------------- side of the disc


a)Ectodermal side
b)Mesodermal side
c) Endodermal side
d)None of the above
e)Entodermal side

9) The cavity form on the ectodermal side of the disc after mesodermal formation is called
a)Yolks cavity
b)Amniotic cavity
c) Extra embryonic coelom
d)Intra embryonic coelom

10) Yolk sac is formed after formation of amniotic cavity on the ------------- side of the disc

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a)Ectodermic side
b)Mesodermic side
c) Endodermic side
d)None of the above

11) At first the wall of the amniotic cavity and yolk sac are in contact with ------------------
a)Trophoblast
b)Epiblast
c) Hypoblast
d)Blastocyst

12) -------------- separates trophoblast from amniotic cavity and yolk sac
a)Extra embryonic mesoderm
b)Intra embryonic mesoderm
c) Extra embryonic coelom
d)Intra embryonic coelom

13) Extra embryonic mesoderm splits by


a)Intra embryonic coelom
b)Extra embryonic coelom
c) Intra embryonic mesoderm
d)All of the above

14) Somatopleuric layer of extra embryonic mesoderm after splitting are in contact with
a)Trophoblast
b)Epiblast
c) Hypoblast
d)Embryo blast

15) Splanchnopleuric layer of extra embryonic mesoderm after splitting of extra embryonic
mesoderm are in contact with
a)Trophoblast
b)Epiblast
c) Hypoblast
d)Yolk sac

16) The trophoblast and underlying somatopleuric mesoderm form a membrane called---------
a)Amnion
b)Chorion
c) Cloacal membrane
d)Buccopharyngeal membrane

17) The amnion cells which forms the amniotic cavity are in contact with
a)Ectoderm and endoderm
b)Endoderm and mesoderm
c) Mesoderm and entoderm
d)All of the above
e)None of the above

18) The amniotic cavity is attached to ------------- by mesoderm


a)Trophoblast
b)Epiblast
c) Hypoblast
d)Embryo blast

19) Trophoblast attaches to amniotic cavity with the help of


a)Ectoderm
b)Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d)Entoderm

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20) ------------- is not extended into attachment between amniotic cavity and trophoblast
a)Extra embryonic coelom
b)Intra embryonic coelom
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d)Intra embryonic mesoderm

21) ------------- is viewed as a rounded area on the ectodermal side of embryonic disc
a)Primitive streak
b)Prochordal plate
c) Cloacal membrane
d)Buccopharyngeal membrane

22) Prochordal plate is viewed on --------------- side of embryonic disc


a)Ectodermal
b)Endodermal
c) Mesodermal
d)Endodermal

23) Indicate the correct statement from below


a)Prochordal plate is a rounded area on the ectodermal side of the embryonic disc where
ectoderm and endoderm are not separated by mesoderm
b)Prochordal plate is a rounded area on the endodermal side of the embryonic disc where
ectoderm and endoderm are separated by mesoderm
c) Primitive streak is a quadrilateral area on the ectodermal side of the embryonic disc where
ectoderm and endoderm are separated by mesoderm
d)Primitive streak is a triangular area on the endodermal side of the embryonic disc where
ectoderm and endoderm are separated by mesoderm

24) Primitive streak is a ------------------ seen on ---------------------


a) Depression, Embryonic disc
b)Elevation, embryonic disc
c) Elevation, Extra embryonic mesoderm
d)Depression, Intra embryonic mesoderm

25) ------------------- is an elevation seen on embryonic disc


a)Primitive streak
b)Prochordal plate
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d)Intra embryonic mesoderm

26) ----------- divides the embryonic disc into right and left half
a)A line drawn from extra embryonic coelom to intra embryonic coelom
b)A line drawn from extra embryonic mesoderm to intra embryonic coelom
c) A line drawn from ectodermal side of the disc to its endodermal side
d)A line drawn from prochordal plate to primitive streak

27) Mesoderm is the -------------germ layer


st
a)1
nd
b)2
rd
c) 3
th
d)4

28) ---------------- cell multiply primitive streak


a)Ectodermal cell
b)Endodermal cell
c) Mesodermal cell
d)Entodermal cell

29) Cell multiplying in the primitive streak move into the interval between
a)Ectoderm and mesoderm

-34-
b)Ectoderm and endoderm
c) Endoderm and mesoderm
d)All of the above

30) Primitive streak is ------------- to cloacal membrane


a)Cranial
b)Caudal
c) Mid ventral
d)Mid dorsal

31) Cloacal membrane is --------------- to primitive streak


a)Cranial
b)Caudal
c) Mid ventral
d)Mid dorsal

32) Cloacal membrane is made up of


a)Ectoderm and mesoderm
b)Mesoderm and endoderm
c) Ectoderm and endoderm
d)Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
st
33) Primary oocyte undergoes ---------------- to shed off 1 polar body and become secondary oocyte
a)Second meiotic division
b)Mitotic division
c) Amitotic division
st
d)1 meiotic division

34) Spindle formed for separation of


st
a)1 polar body
b)Secondary oocyte
c) Primary oocyte
nd
d)2 polar body

35) Spindle is formed when


st
a)1 meiotic division is in progress
nd
b)2 meiotic division is in progress
c) Mitotic division is in progress
d)Amitotic division is in progress

36) At ------------ stage ovum enters the infundibulum of the uterine tube and pass into the ampulla
st
a)Progress of 1 meiotic division
nd
b)Progress of 2 meiotic division
c) Progress of mitotic division
d)Progress of amitotic division

37) Glycoprotein coat and seminal protein lying over the surface of spermatozoon are altered in
a)Maturation
b)Capacitation
c) Fertilization
d)Ejaculation

38) ---------------- of ovum occurs in the ampullary part of uterine tube


a)Maturation
b)Capacitation
c) Fertilization
d)Ovulation

39) ---------------- is a process where few hundred capacitated sperm which surrounds the ovum,
only one pierces the zona pellucida and enters the ovum

-35-
a)Fertilization
b)Maturation
c) Capacitation
d)Ovulation

40) ---------------- is completed as soon as sperm enters the ovum


a)Second meiotic division
st
b)1 meiotic division
c) Amitotic division
d)Mitotic division

41) In complete second meiotic division is so far complete when


a)Few hundred capacitated sperm swims surrounding ovum
b)When an activated sperm enters the ovum
c) Zona pellucida is digested
d)Stigma appears over the surface of ovary

42) Second polar body is extruded after


a)Completion of mitotic division
b)Completion of amitotic division
st
c) Completion of 1 meiotic division
nd
d)Completion of 2 meiotic division

43) The nucleus of ovum become female pronucleus when


a)Sperm enters the ovum
b)Stigma appears over the surface of ovarian follicle
c) When few hundred capacitated sperm swims surrounding ovum
d)All of the above
nd
44) ------------- of the ovum become female pronucleus after completion of 2 meiotic division
a)Nucleus
b)Cytoplasm
c) Nucleolar membrane
d)Cytoplasmic membrane or cell membrane

45) The nucleus of ovum becomes the female pronucleus when


st
a)1 meiotic division is completed
nd
b)2 meiotic division is completed
c) Mitotic division is completed
d)Amitotic division is completed

46) The head of the spermatozoon is formed from the


a)Nucleus
b)Cytoplasm
c) Mitochondria
d)Golgi complex

47) The sequence of events seen when spermatozoon transforms itself into the male pronucleus
except
a)Head not separates from middle piece or tail
b)Head separates from middle piece or tail
c) Pronucleus lose their nuclear membrane
d)Male pronucleus bear’s 23 chromosomes

48) Female pronucleus bears -------------- number of chromosomes


a)23
b)24
c) 25
d)26

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49) Male pronucleus bears ------------ number of chromosomes
a)23
b)22
c) 21
d)20

50) When male and female pronucleus get mixed up they bear
a)22 pairs of chromosomes
b)23 pairs of chromosomes
c) 24 pairs of chromosomes
d)25 pairs of chromosomes

51) Indicate the correct statement from below


a)There is no one cell stage of embryo
b)There is no two cell stage of embryo
c) There is no three cell stage of embryo
d)There is no four cell stage of embryo

52) 46 or 23 pairs of chromosome undergo changes in ------------- loading to the formation of an


embryo having two cells
a)Typical meiotic division
b)Typical amitotic division
c) Typical mitotic division
d)None of the above
e)All of the above

53) Embryo having 2 cell stage formed from 46 chromosome changes because of
a)Typical amitotic division
b)Typical meiotic division
c) Typical mitotic division
d)None of the above

54) -------------- induces acrosomal reaction


a)Zona pellucida
b)Oocyte
c) Granulosa cell
d)Theca interna

55) --------------- enzyme helps the sperm to penetrate zona


a)Pancreas
b)Lysosomal enzyme
c) Acrosomal enzyme
d)All of the above

56) --------------- ensures no other spermatozoon enters oocyte


a) Cytoplasm of oocyte
b) Female pronucleus
c) Male pronucleus
d) Zona pellucida

57) The zona pellucida is altered due to release of lysosomal enzymes by the plasma membrane of
oocyte is called
a)Acrosomal reaction
b)Zona reaction
c) Pronuclear reaction
d)Polar reaction

58) Lysosomal enzyme is released by


a) Plasma membrane of oocyte
b) Plasma membrane of spermatozoon

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c) Plasma membrane of female pronucleus
d) Plasma membrane of male pronucleus

59) Release of lysosomal enzyme alters


a) Male pronucleus
b) Female pronucleus
c) Zona pellucida
d) Granulosa cells

60) Entry of sperm leads to ------------ changes in ovum


a) Metabolic
b) Catabolic
c) Rational
d) All of the above

61) Each chromosome in the male and female pronuclei is made up of


a) One chromatid
b) Two chromatids
c) Three chromatids
d) Four chromatids

62) -------------- takes place to form second chromatid in each chromosome of male and female
pronuclei
a) Replication of RNA
b) Replication of DNA
c) Duplication of RNA
d) Duplication of DNA

63) ------------- helps the chromosome of each pair to move to opposite pole
a) Cytoplasmic fluid
b) Spindle
c) Difference of pressure applied from opposite or peripheral pole from centre
d) b & c

64) Fertilized ovum undergoes ----------- to divides into several cells


a) Replication
b) Cleavage
c) Maturation
d) Capacitation

65) Test tube babies are produced by


a) In vitro fertilization against in vivo fertilization
b) In vivo fertilization against in vitro fertilization
c) Fertilization of Ostia of uterine tube
d) All of the above

66) ------------- is administered in woman to stimulate growth of follicle in the ovary


a) Gonadotropin
b) TSH
c) GH
d) Thyroxin

67) In vitro fertilization is


a) The type of fertilization done outside the body
b) The type of fertilization done inside the body
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

68) In in-vitro fertilization ovum is removed


a) After ovulation

-38-
b) Before ovulation
c) At the time of ovulation
d) At any time

69) -------------- cell stage embryo is put inside the uterus after development of fertilized ovum in
suitable medium in the process of test tube baby formation
a) 2 cells b) 4 cells
c) 8 cells d) 16 cells

70) The procedure is called ----------- when 8 cell’s stage embryo is put inside uterus in test tube
baby formation process
a) Interstitial implantation b) Intramural implantation
c) Intra tubal implantation d) All of the above

71) If an ovum is fertilized by an X-bearing spermatozoon the resulting chromosome of the zygote
would be
a) 44+X+Y b) 44+X+X
c) 45+X+O d) 46+X+X+Y

72) If an ovum is fertilized by a Y-bearing spermatozoon the resulting chromosome of the zygote
would be
a) 44+X+X b) 47+X+X+Y
c) 44+X+Y d) 45+X+O

73) Ovum gradually proceeds from 2 cell stage to 16 cell stage through the process of
a) Maturation b) Capacitation
c) Cleavage d) Assimilation

74) Morulla is
a) 2 cell’s stage b) 4 cell’s stage
c) 8 cell’s stage d) 16 cell’s stage

75) Shape of the morulla is


a) Pyramidal b) Pyriform
c) Rhomboid d) Mulberry

76) The inner cell mass of morulla give rise to


a) Trophoblast b) Embryo blast
c) Blastocyst d) Blastula

77) The cells of outer layer of morulla later give rise to


a) Syncitio and cytotrophoblast b) Epiblast and hypoblast
c) Embryo blast d) Blastocyst

78) Embryo blast arises from


a) Outer cell mass of morulla b) Inner cell mass of morulla
c) Outer cell mass of blastocyst d) Inner cell mass of blastocyst

79) Cells of the trophoblast provides


a) Additional chromosome to the embryo
b) Additional oxygen to the embryo
c) Nutrition to the embryo
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

80) ---------- causes inner cell mass of morulla in the uterine cavity to separate from those of the
outer cell mass (trophoblast)
a) Fluid
b) Flatus
c) Peristaltic movement of inner cell mass

-39-
d) Negative pressure of inner cell mass

81) Morulla acquires the shape of a cyst and trophoblast gradually flattens
a) As the quantity of fluid increases in uterine cavity
b) As the quantity of fluid decreases in uterine cavity
c) As the quantity of air increases in uterine cavity
d) As the quantity of air decreases in the uterine cavity

82) As the quantity of fluid increases in the uterine cavity


a) Inner cell mass comes to attached to the inner side of the trophoblast on both side
b) Inner cell mass comes to attached to the inner side of the trophoblast on one side only
c) Outer cell mass comes to attached to the inner cell mass on both side
d) Outer cell mass completely detached from the inner cell mass

83) The cavity of blastocyst is called


a) Blastocoels b) Blastula
c) Blastomere d) Blast pole

84) ------------ cause the morulla to become blastocyst


a) Fluid b) Temperature
c) Pressure d) a & c

85) The side of the blastocyst to which inner cell mass is attached is called
a) Embryonic pole
b) Ab embryonic pole
c) Prochordal pole
d) Streak pole
86) The opposite of attachment of blastocyst to inner cell mass is
a) Embryonic pole
b) Prochordal pole
c) Ab embryonic pole
d) Streak pole

87) The trophoblast has the inherent property of being able to stick to the
a) Uterine epithelium
b) Tubal epithelium
c) Mucosa of cervix
d) Mucosa of vagina

88) “Eat up” other cell is a typical property of


a) Cells of trophoblast
b) Layers of zona pellucida
c) Granulosa cell
d) Cytoplasm of oocyte

89) ----------- cells have a typical affinity to invade and burrow into tissue
a) Cells of syncitio and cytotrophoblast
b) Cells of zona pellucida
c) Granulosa cell
d) Cells of theca interna and externa

90) ------------ prevents sticking to the epithelium of tube & uterine cavity when embryo travels down
the uterine tube and uppermost part of the uterine cavity
a) Theca interna
b) Theca externa
c) Zona pellucida
d) Granulosa cells

91) Nutrition is supplemented to the embryo through ------------- except


a) Partly from the substance stored within the ovum

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b) Partly by diffusion from uterine secretion
c) Partly by trophoblast secretion
d) Partly by gonadotropin influence

92) At the time of formation of blastocyst embryo receives


a) Whole source of nutrition
b) Whole and additional source of nutrition
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

93) Additional source of nutrition is achieved when


a) Blastocyst sticks to the uterine endometrium
b) Embryo travels down the uterine tube
c) Embryo travels in uppermost part of the uterine tube
d) At the time when fimbriated part of the uterine tube receives the fertilized ovum
e) At the time when pressure and temperature changes on the plasma membrane of fertilized
ovum

94) Zona pellucida disappears soon after morulla reaches


a) Uterine lumen
b) Cervix
c) External os
d) Internal os

95) The function of the zona is to prevent


a) Implantation of the morulla at a normal site
b) Implantation of the blastocyst at an abnormal site
c) Implantation of the 2 cell’s stage embryo at an abnormal site
d) Implantation of the 4 cell’s stage embryo at an abnormal site

96) The developing embryo is genetically different from


a) Father
b) Sister
c) Mother
d) Both father and mother

97) ---------- separates maternal tissue from embryo


a) Theca interna
b) Theca externa
c) Zona pellucida
d) Granulosa cell

98) Zona pellucida is a --------------


a) Barrier
b) Membrane
c) Cytoplasmic organelle
d) All of the above

99) Genetical difference between embryonic tissue and maternal tissue evokes
a) Allergic reaction
b) Immunological reaction
c) Anaphylactic reaction
d) Acrosomal reaction

100) Recognition of embryonic tissue is blocked as a tissue foreign to the maternal tissue after
a) Appearance of zona pellucida
b) Disappearance of zona pellucida
c) Accumulation of fluid in uterine tube
d) Digestion of granulose cell

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101) Causes of blocking of recognition of embryonic tissue foreign to the maternal tissue except
a) Disappearance of zona pellucida
b) Interference of immune suppressive cytokinase from maternal tissue to embryonic tissue
c) Interference of proteins from maternal tissue to embryonic tissue
d) Lack of histocompatibility antigen
e) Granulosa cells spits due to accumulation of fluid

102) Zona pellucida acts as a barrier because


a) It is lack of protein
b) It is lack of cytokinase
c) It is lack of histocompatibility antigen
d) It is lack of protease

103) Further development of ----------- gives rise to tissues and organs of the embryo and also to a
number of structure that supports embryo
a) Blastocyst b) Morulla
c) Blastula d) 2 cell embryo

104) Further stage of development will lead the embryo proper to


a) 2 layered disc b) 3 layered disc
c) 4 layered disc d) 5 layered disc

105) List of different name given to embryo proper except


a) Embryonic area b) Embryonic shield
c) Embryonic disc or germ disc d) Embryonic membrane

106) Endo means


a) Inside b) Outside
c) Middle d) None of the above

107) Meso means


a) Inside b) Outside
c) Middle d) None of the above

108) Ecto means


a) Inside b) Outside
c) Middle d) None of the above

109) Blastocyst is a-------- cyst


a) Spherical shape b) Quadrilateral shape
c) Irregular shape d) Rhomboid shape

110) Blastocyst is lined by


a) Flattened trophoblastic cell b) Cuboidal trophoblastic cell
c) Columnar trophoblastic cell d) None of the above

111) Inner cell mass attached --------- to trophoblast


a) Regularly b) Irregularly
c) Eccentrically d) Parallaly

112) Flattened cells which differentiate from some cells of the inner cell mass come to line the ---------
--- of the inner cell mass
a) Intact surface b) Free surface
c) Intra cellular space d) Extra cellular compartment
st
113) The 1 germ layer is endoderm
a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm d) Entoderm

114) The second germ layer is

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a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm d) Entoderm

115) The second germ layer (ectoderm) is formed because


a) The cells which stays distantly from trophoblast as remaining cells of inner cell mass become
columnar
b) The remaining cells become squamous
c) The remaining cell mass become cuboidal
d) None of the above

116) After formation of ectoderm and endoderm embryo seen as a ----------- having ----------- layer.
a) Trumpet, 3 layers
b) Disc, 2 layers
c) Bunch of cards, 4 layers
d) Burger, 3 layers

117) The space appears after formation of ectoderm and endoderm between ectoderm (below) and
trophoblast (above) is called
a) Amniotic cavity b) Blastocystic cavity
c) Yolk sac d) None of the above

118) Amniogenic cells lines the


a) Floor of the amniotic cavity b) Roof of the amniotic cavity
c) Lateral wall of the amniotic cavity d) Medial wall of the amniotic cavity

119) Amniogenic cells are derived from


a) Amniotic fluid b) Ectoderm
c) Trophoblast d) All of the above

120) The floor of the amniotic cavity is formed by


a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Trophoblast d) Amniotic fluid

121) Flattened cell which lines the blastocystic cavity arises from
a) Endoderm b) Trophoblast
c) Ectoderm d) a & b

122) Flattened cells lines the blastocystic cavity because of


a) Spread b) Pseudopodic movement
c) Migration d) Accumulation

123) Lining by flattened cell inside blastocystic cavity is called


a) Collin’s membrane
b) Hauser’s membrane
c) Treacher’s membrane
d) Primary yolk sac

124) The blastocystic cavity is called


a) Secondary yolk sac
b) Primary yolk sac
c) Tertiary yolk sac
d) Quaternary yolk sac

125) -------------- gives origin to mass of cells called extra embryonic mesoderm
a) Cells of blastocystic cavity
b) Cells of epiblast
c) Cells of trophoblast
d) Cells of hypoblast

126) Extra embryonic mesoderm is

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a) Is single cell
b) Double cells
c) Mass of cells
d) ½ cellular mass

127) Extra embryonic mesoderm is


a) Primary mesoderm
b) Secondary mesoderm
c) Primary endoderm
d) Secondary ectoderm
e) Tertiary mesoderm

128) The extra embryonic mesoderm lies in between


a) Yolk sac & ectoderm
b) Amniotic cavity and embryonic disc
c) Flattened endodermal cell lines the yolk sac and trophoblast
d) Extra embryonic coelom and trophoblast

129) The endodermal cell which lines the yolk sac are
a) Flat or squamous b) Cuboidal
c) Columnar d) None of the above

130) -----------lines the yolk sac


a) Ectodermal cell b) Mesodermal cell
c) Endodermal cell d) Entodermal cell

131) Endodermal cell also separates


a) Wall of the amniotic cavity from trophoblast
b) Wall of the yolk sac from trophoblast
c) Wall of the germ disc from trophoblast
d) Somatopleuric extra embryonic mesoderm to splanchnopleuric extra embryonic mesoderm

132) ---------- layer is extra embryonic


a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm d) Entoderm

133) Extra embryonic tissue


a) Lies outside the embryonic disc
b) Lies inside the embryonic disc
c) Lies inside blastocystic cavity
d) Lies inside amniotic cavity

134) Indicate the correct statement from below


a) Mesoderm gives rise to any tissue of the embryo itself
b) Mesoderm dose not gives rise to any tissue of the embryo itself
c) Ectoderm gives rise to any tissue of the embryo itself
d) Endoderm gives rise to any tissue of the embryo itself

135) Extra embryonic coelom is a


a) Small cavity seen in extra embryonic mesoderm gradually
b) Small cavities join together to form large cavity or space seen in extra embryonic coelom
c) Small cavity seen in intra embryonic mesoderm
d) Small cavity seen in germ disc

136) Extra embryonic coelom is also called


a) Amniotic cavity
b) Primary yolk sac
c) Chorionic cavity
d) Blastocystic cavity

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137) Extra embryonic mesoderm with the progressive development splits into
a) 2 layers b) 3 layers
c) 4 layers d) 5 layers

138) Somatopleuric extra embryonic mesoderm lines


a) Outside trophoblast
b) Germ disc
c) Inside trophoblast & outside amniotic cavity
d) Inside amniotic cavity

139) Splanchno pleuric extra embryonic mesoderm lines


a) Inside trophoblast
b) Outside trophoblast
c) Outside yolk sac
d) Inside yolk sac

140) Splanchno pleuric extra embryonic is by nature


a) Cardial
b) Visceral
c) Neurotic
d) Skeletal

141) The unsplit part of the extra embryonic mesoderm which attaches to the wall of the blastocyst
(trophoblast) is called
a) Future mesoderm
b) Future connecting stalk
c) Amnion
d) Chorion

142) The wall of the blastocyst is called


a) Hypoblast b) Epiblast
c) Trophoblast d) Embryo blast

143) The developing embryo, amniotic cavity and the yolk sac suspended in the
a) Extra embryonic mesoderm b) Extra embryonic coelom
c) Intra embryonic mesoderm d) Intra embryonic coelom

144) Chorions and amnions are


a) Membrane b) Barrier
c) Disc d) Cells

145) Chorion is formed by


a) Parietal extra embryonic mesoderm (from inside) & overlying trophoblast (from outside)
b) Splanchno pleuric extra embryonic mesoderm & epiblast
c) Ectoderm and embryo blast
d) Endoderm and hypoblast

146) --------- overlies on outside of chorion


a) Trophoblast b) Epiblast
c) Mesoderm d) Ectoderm

147) --------- is the core of chorion


a) Somatopleuric extra embryonic mesoderm
b) Splanchnopleuric extra embryonic mesoderm
c) Extra embryonic coelom
d) Connecting stalk

148) Cubical endoderm line


a) Outside yolk sac
b) Inside yolk sac and germ disc (Y-Axis)

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c) Outside extra embryonic coelom
d) Inside extra embryonic coelom

149) Columnar ectoderm lines


a)Trophoblastics wall
b)Inside amniotic cavity
c) X-axis of germ disc
d)b & c
e)None of the above

150) Amniogenic cells are derived from


a)Epiblast
b)Hypoblast
c) Trophoblast
d)Embryo blast

151) Amnion
a)Excludes ectodermal floor
b)Includes ectodermal floor
c) Excludes trophoblastic roof
d)Includes trophoblastic roof

152) Amnion is covered by


a)Parietal or somatopleuric extra embryonic mesoderm
b)Visceral or splanchno pleuric extra embryonic mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d)Endoderm

153) Chorion & amnion play an important role in


a)Fertilization
b)Parturition
c) Determination of sex
d)Pre natal development

154) Appearance of extra embryonic mesoderm & coelom leads to


a)Conversion of layer primary yolk sac to smaller secondary yolk sac
b)Conversion of columnar ectoderm to cubical endoderm
c) Appearance of head & tail told of embryonic disc.
d)Appearance of central axis of embryonic disc.

155) Alteration in size of the yolk sac accompanied by


a)Change in nature of the lining cell
b)Change in shape of embryonic disc
c) Change in shape of blastocyst
d)All of the above

156) With the alteration in size of yolk sac


a)Flattened cells become columnar
b)Flattened cells become cubical
c) Columnar cells become flattened
d)Columnar cells become cubical

157) Embryo proper is a …………… disc.


a)Circular
b)Triangular
c) Quadrilateral
d)Rhomboid

158) Upper layer of the embryonic disc directed forwards

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a)Chorionic cavity
b)Primary yolk sac
c) Secondary yolk sac
d)Amniotic cavity

159) Upper layer of embryonic disc is made up of ………….. cells.


a)Cubical endoderm
b)Columnar endoderm
c) Cubical ectoderm
d)Columnar ectoderm

160) Lower layer of the germ disc is directed towards


a)Chorionic cavity
b)Yolk sac
c) Amniotic cavity
d)Blasto cystic cavity

161) Lower layer of embryonic disc is made up of ……….. cells


a)Cubical endoderm
b)Columnar endoderm
c) Cubical ectoderm
d)Columnar ectoderm

162) Prochordal plate is the


a)Cranial end of the germ disc
b)Caudal end of the germ disc
c) Middle of the germ disc
d)All of the above

163) Prochordal plate is a


a)Triangular area
b)Circular area
c) Hexagonal area
d)Pentagonal area

164) Prochordal plate is seen near


a)Tail end of the germ disc
b)Head end of the germ disc.
c) Margin of the germ disc
d)Near the connecting stalk

165) Prochordal plate is the area where


a)Flattened cell of endoderm becomes cubical
b)Cubical cell of endoderm becomes columnar
c) Columnar cell of endoderm becomes flattened endodermal cell
d)All of the above.
e)None of the above

166) ……………….. appearance determines the central axis of embryo.


a)Prochordal plate
b)Primitive streak
c) Ectodermal cell
d)Cloacal membrane

167) …………….. distinguishes future head of tail ends of a body


a)Primitive streak
b)Cloacal membrane
c) Prochordal plate
d)Endodermal cell

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168) Soon after formation of …………….. some of the ectodermal cell lying along the central axis,
near the tail end of the disc, begins to proliferate and form an elevation that bulges into the
amniotic cavity.
a)Primitive streak
b)Prochordal plate
c) Intra embryonic coelom
d)Extra embryonic coelom

169) Primitive streak is a ……………


a)Head end depression of notochord
b)Tail end elevation of notochord
c) Flat surface in notochord
d)Irregular surface in notochord

170) Primitive streak is a proliferation of


a)Ectodermal cell
b)Endodermal cell
c) Mesodermal cell
d)Granulosa cell

171) With the elongation of embryonic disc, the primitive streak becomes a ………… structure
a)Circular structure
b)Linear structure
c) Quadrilateral structure
d)Triangular structure

172) After elongation of embryonic disc the primitive streak lies in


a)Central axis
b)Horizontal axis
c) Oblique axis
d)Vertical axis

173) The cell proliferates in the region of primitive streak pass sideways pushing themselves
between.
a)Ectoderm & mesoderm
b)Mesoderm & endoderm
c) Ectoderm & endoderm
d)All of the above

174) The secondary mesoderm is the


st
a)1 germ layer
nd
b)2 germ layer
rd
c) 3 germ layer
th
d)4 germ layer

175) Intra embryonic mesoderm is the


st
a)1 germ layer
nd
b)2 germ layer
rd
c) 3 germ layer
th
d)4 germ layer

176) The intra embryonic mesoderm is formed by the


a)Prochordal plate
b)Extra embryonic mesoderm
c) Primitive streak
d)Intra embryonic coelom

177) The process of formation of the primitive streak and intra embryonic mesoderm is called
a)Gastrulation
b)Blastulation

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c) Assimilation
d)Subtraction

178) The intra embryonic mesoderm spread throughout the disc except in the region of
a)Prochordal plate
b)Central axis
c) XY axis
d)Cloacal membrane

179) Mesoderm extends


a)Caudal to the prochordal plate
b)Cranial to the prochordal plate
c) Caudal to the primitive streak
d)Cranial to the primitive streak

180) The ectoderm & endoderm remain in contact in the region of


a)Prochordal plate
b)Primitive streak
c) Cloacal membrane
d)all of the above
e)a & c

181) In the later period of development the ectoderm and endoderm mostly persist as a
a)Lining epithelium
b)Sub mucosa
c) Mucosa
d)Central axis
e)Bulk of tissue

182) In the last period of development the mesoderm mostly persist as a


a)Lining epithelium
b)Bulk of tissue
c) Mucosa
d)Sub mucosa

183) Bucopharyngeal membrane is a ………..


a)Region of primitive streak where there is no ectoderm
b)Region of prochordal plate where there is no mesoderm
c) Region of clear
d)Region of germ disc where there is no endoderm

184) Bucopharyngeal membrane is relatively ……………… in the prochordal plate region.


a)Thick
b)Thin
c) Both a & b
d)None of the above

185) Embryonic disc suspends along with amniotic cavity & yolk sac from
a)Trophoblast
b)Epiblast
c) Hypoblast
d)Embryo blast

186) Ectoderm & endoderm remain in contact in the area


a)Cranial to primitive streak
b)Caudal to primitive streak
c) Cranial to prochordal plate
d)Caudal to prochordal plate

187) Cloacal membrane remains

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a)Cranial to primitive streak
b)Caudal to primitive streak
c) Cranial to prochordal plate
d)Caudal to prochordal plate

188) Cloacal membrane forms because


a)Intra embryonic mesoderm migrate from caudal region of primitive streak towards backward
to connecting stalk
b)Intra embryonic mesoderm accumulate in the region caudal to primitive streak
c) Intra embryonic mesoderm accumulate in the region cranial to primitive streak
d)Intra embryonic mesoderm migrates from cranial to primitive streak to prochordal plate.

189) Epiblast in columnar cells described as


a)Endoderm
b)Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d)Entoderm

190) Hypoblast are


a)Cubiodal cell
b)Columnar cell
c) Squamous cell
d)None of the above

191) Epiblast are


a)Cubiodal cell
b)Columnar cell
c) Sqnamous cell
d)None of the above

192) Hypoblast is described as


a)Ectoderm
b)Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d)Entoderm

193) Epiblast form one mesoderm when they


a)Undergo mitotic cell division
b)Pushed aside by endoderm
c) Migrate to the region of primitive streak
nd
d)Undergo 2 meiotic division

194) Epiblast push the hypoblast aside to form


a)Trophoblast
b)Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
d)Mesoderm

195) All the 3 germ layer’s are derived from


a)Epiblast
b)Hypoblast
c) Trophoblast
d)Embryo blast

196) The cell of inner cell mass are called


a)Embryonic stem cell
b)Mesenchymal stem cell
c) Granulosa stem cell
d)Purkinjie cell

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197) Stem cell is maintained & propagated in
a)Differentiated state
b)Undifferentiated state
c) Migration state
d)Accumulation state

198) Common complication arises in stem cell therapy is


a)Immune rejection
b)Ana plastic reaction
c) Antigenic response
d)Antibody response

199) The list of draw back seen in adult stem cell except.
a)Difficult to culture in laboratories
b)Less potential to differentiate in adult tissue
c) More potential to differentiate in adult tissue
d)Difficult for growing

200) Therapeutic stem cell cloning is a procedure which includes


a)Nucleus of stem cell is introduced into the embryonic patient cell
b)Nucleus of patient cell is introduced into the embryonic stem cell
c) Embryonic stem cell is introduced into the nucleus of patient cell
d)All of the above

201) Tissue arising from the stem cells are …………… to those of the patient
a)Genetically identical
b)Genetically not identical
c) Genetically rejected
d)Genetically sound

202) Development of the embryo from fertilization up to the formation of bilaminar germ disc is
described as
a)Pre organogenesis period
b)Post organogenesis period
c) Mid organogenesis period
d)Mid cytogenesis period

203) In pre organogenesis period sequence of events happens except


a)No organs are as yet recognizable.
b)Takes place in 14 days of pregnancy.
c) Anomalies produced by the teratogen act during this period usually results in death of the
embryo
d)Anomalies are seldomly when baby reaches mid term

204) ………….. marks the onset of gastrulation


a)Establishment of primitive streak of extra embryonic mesoderm
b)Establishment of primitive streak of Intra embryonic mesoderm
c) Establishment of prochordal plate & extra embryonic mesoderm
d)Establishment of prochordal plate & intra embryonic mesoderm

205) Gastrulation begins in


nd rd
a)2 week b)3 week
th th
c) 4 week d)5 week
rd
206) 3 week marks the beginning of
a)Embryonic period
b)Blastulation period
c) Fertilization period
d)All of the above

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207) Embryonic period persist between
a)1wk -3wk period b)3wk – 8 wk period
c) 8wk – 10 wk period d)10wk – 12 wk period

208) Morulla is formed on


a)2 days b)3 days
c) 4 days d)5 days

209) Bilaminar germ disc is formed on


a)8 days b)9 days
c) 10 days d)11 days

210) Primitive streak in prochordal plate is seen in


a)14 days b)15 days
c) 16 days d)17 days

211) Intra embryonic mesoderm of 3 layered germ discs is formed on


a)16 days b)17 days
c) 18 days d)19 days

212) In 2 days age


a)Embryo is at 16 cells stage
b)Embryo is at 8 cells stage
c) Embryo is at 4 cells stage
d)Embryo is at 2 cells stage

213) Blastocyst is formed after


a)4 days
b)8 days
c) 16 days
d)32 days

ANSWER KEYS

1)c 2) b 3) a 4) b 5) b 6) a 7) a 8) a 9) b 10) c 11) a 12) a


13) b 14) a 15) d 16) b 17) a 18) a 19) c 20) a 21) b 22) a 23) a 24) b
25) a 26) d 27) c 28) c 29) b 30) a 31) b 32) c 33) d 34) d 35) b 36) b
37) b 38) c 39) a 40) a 41) b 42) d 43) a 44) a 45) b 46) a 47) a 48) a
49) a 50) b 51) a 52) c 53) c 54) a 55) c 56) d 57) b 58) a 59) c 60) a
61) a 62) b 63) d 64) b 65) a 66) a 67) a 68) b 69) c 70) b 71) b 72) c
73) c 74) d 75) d 76) b 77) a 78) b 79) c 80) a 81) a 82) b 83) a 84) a
85) a 86) c 87) a 88) a 89) a 90) c 91) d 92) b 93) a 94) a 95) b 96) c
97) c 98) a 99) b 100) b 101) e 102) c 103) a 104) b 105) d 106) a 107) c 108) b
109) a 110) a 111) c 112) b 113) c 114) a 115) a 116) b 117) a 118) b 119) c 120) a
121) d 122) a 123) b 124) b 125) c 126) c 127) a 128) c 129) a 130) c 131) a 132) b
133) a 134) b 135) b 136) c 137) a 138) c 139) c 140) b 141) b 142) c 143) b 144) a
145) a 146) a 147) a 148) b 149) d 150) c 151) a 152) a 153) b 154) a 155) a 156) b
157) a 158) d 159) d 160) b 161) a 162) a 163) b 164) c 165) b 166) a 167) c 168) b
169) b 170) a 171) b 172) a 173) c 174) c 175) c 176) c 177) a 178) a 179) b 180) e
181) a 182) b 183) b 184) b 185) a 186) b 187) b 188) a 189) c 190) a 191) b 192) c
193) c 194) b 195) a 196) a 197) b 198) a 199) c 200) b 201) a 202) a 203) d 204) b
205) b 206) a 207) b 208) b 209) a 210) a 211) a 212) d 213) a

**********

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CHAPTER 5
FURTHR DEVELOPMENT OF EMBRYONIC DISC

1) ………………. end of primitive streak enlarges to form primitive knot.


a)Caudal end b) Cranial end
c) Middle d) Lateral

2) Cranial end of primitive streak enlarges to form ……………….


a)Prochordal plate b) Notochord
c) Notochordal process d) Primitive knot

3) The shape of notochordal process is


a)Rod like b) Rhomboid like
c) Barrel like d) Ball like

4) Cells of the primitive knot multiply pass cranially up to prochordal plate to form …………….
a)Nucleus pulposus b) Notochordal process
c)Neural plate d) Primitive streak

5) The cells of the primitive knot after undergoing cell division & multiplication pass ………. up to
…………. .
a)Caudally, cloacal membrane
b)Cranially, prochordal plate
c) Laterally, connecting stalk
d)Medially, central axis

6) Indicate the correct statement from below as sequence of changes takes place for conversion
of notochordal process to notochord.
a)Plate --- canal --- rod like structure
b)Rod like structure --- plate --- canal
c) Rod like structure --- canal --- plate --- rod like structure
d)Canal --- rod like structure --- plate

7) Remnant of the notochord is


a)Annulosus fibrosus
b)Nuleosus pulposus
c) Intervertebral disc
d)All of the above

8) Remnant remains as nucleosus pulposus of Inter vertebral disc. When


a)Most of the notochord disappear
b)Most of the notochord appear
c) ½ of the notochord appear
d)Notochord splits
e)None of the above

9) Groove appear on primitive knot continues up to …………… formation of ………...


a)End of notochordal process, notochordal canal
b)Beginning of notochordal process, prochordal plate
c) Middle of notochordal process, primitive streak
d)Beginning of notochordal process, cloacal membrane

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10) Pit appear on surface of primitive knot to form
a)Craniopore
b)Nucleosus pulposus
c) Blastopore
d)Notochord

11) The pit fovea or depression appear on the surface of primitive knot is called
a)Caudopore
b)Craniopore
c) Blastopore
d)Embryopore

12) Blastopore continues as ……………..


a)Notochordal canal
b)Blasto canal
c) Embryo canal
d)Embryo pit

13) Blastopore is continue as notochordal canal up to


a)End of notochordal process
b)Beginning of notochordal process
c) Middle of chordal process
d)¾ of the length of notochordal process

14) Notochord gradually thickened to form …………….


a)Neural plate
b)Notochordal plate
c) Lateral plate
d)Central plate

15) Notochord gradually thickened to form neural plate because


a)A wide strip of mesoderm deposits over its surface.
b)A wide strip of endoderm deposit over its surface.
c) A wide strip of ectoderm deposit over its surface.
d)A wide strip of entoderm deposit over its surface.

16) ……………. develops from neural plate


a)Upper limb, lower limb
b)Chest, abdomen, neck
c) Brain, spinal cord
d)External genetalia

17) Intra embryonic mesoderm show’s …………… subdivisions


a)1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4

18) Paraxial mesoderm lies


a)The mesoderm next to the midline
b)Lateral part of embryonic disc
c) In the intra embryonic coelom
d)Contact with endoderm
e)Between lateral plate & paraxial mesoderm

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19) ……………… undergoes segmentation to form somites.
a)Lateral plate mesoderm
b)Paraxial mesoderm
c) Intermediate mesoderm
d)All of the above
e)None of the above

20) Lateral plate mesoderm undergoes segmentation to form……………..


a)Somites
b)Urinogenital system
c) Body cavity
d)All of the above

21) Paraxial mesoderm undergoes segmentation to form


a)Urinogenital system
b)Body cavity
c) Somites
d)All of the above

22) Lateral plate mesoderm present in


a)Central part of embryonic disc
b)Lateral part of embryonic disc
c) Posterior part of embryonic disc
d)Anterior part of embryonic disc

23) ……………… appear as a cavity in lateral plate mesoderm


a)Extra embryonic coelom
b)Intra embryonic coelom
c) Neuropore
d)Mid embryonic coelom

24) Intra embryonic coelom appears in


a)Paraxial mesoderm
b)Lateral plate mesoderm
c) Intermediate mesoderm
d)Extra embryonic mesoderm

25) ………………….. splits due to appearance of intra embryonic coelomic cavity.


a)Paraxial mesoderm
b)Intermediate mesoderm
c) Lateral Plate mesoderm
d)Extra embryonic mesoderm

26) Somato pleuric mesoderm is a split part of ……………..


a)Paraxial mesoderm
b)Extra & Intra embryonic mesoderm
c) Lateral Plate mesoderm
d)Intermediate mesoderm

27) Splanchnopleuric mesoderm is a split part of


a)Paraxial mesoderm
b)Lateral plate mesoderm

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c) Intermediate mesoderm
d)Extra & intra embryonic mesoderm

28) Somato pleuric mesodermal layer are in contact with ………………. .


a)Endoderm
b)Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d)Entoderm
e)All the above

29) Splanchno pleuric mesodermal layer are in contact with ……………. .


a)Ectoderm
b)Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d)All the 3 above

30) Intermediate mesoderm lies


a)Next to midline
b)Lateral part of embryonic disc
c) Central part of embryonic disc
d)Between lateral plate mesoderm and intermediate mesoderm

31) ………………. form later to pericardial, pleural & peritoneal cavities.


a)Intra embryonic coelom & intermediate mesoderm
b)Extra embryonic coelom & paraxial mesoderm
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm & lateral plate mesoderm
d)None of the above

32) Pericardial cavity is formed by


a)Extra embryonic coelom
b)Intra embryonic coelom
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d)Intra embryonic mesoderm

33) Pleural cavity & peritoneal cavity is formed by


a)Extra embryonic coelom
b)Intra embryonic mesoderm & intermediate mesoderm
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d)Intra embryonic mesoderm

34) Flat embryonic disc undergoes …………. at its cranio, caudal ends to form head & tail fold.
a)Moulding
b)Folding
c) Coiling
d)Extension

35) As a result of appearance of …………….. fold of embryonic disc endoderm is converted into
tube.
a)Head fold
b)Tail fold
c) Central fold
d)Lateral fold

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36) …………… converted into a tube or gut as a result of appearance of lateral fold in the
embryonic disc.
a)Ectoderm
b)Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d)Entoderm

37) Endodermal gut is divisible into


a)2 parts
b)3 parts
c) 4parts
d)5parts

38) Foregut appears in the


a)Head fold
b)Tail fold
c) Medial fold
d)Lateral fold

39) After formation of head fold the gut is closed cranially by


a)Primitive streak
b)Prochordal plate
c) Paraxial mesoderm
d)Lateral plate mesoderm

40) The closure of head fold cranially by prochordal plate is called


a)Bucopharyngeal membrane
b)Cloacal membrane
c) Somato pleuric membrane
d)Pleuroperitoneal membrane

41) Caudal closure of hind gut by primitive streak is called


a)Buccopharyngeal membrane
b)Cloacal membrane
c) Pericardial membrane
d)Pleura peritoneal membrane

42) Umbilical cord develops from


a)Intra embryonic coelom
b)Extra embryonic coelom
c) Connecting stalk
d)Chorion
e)Amnion

43) …………………… develops from connecting stalk of extra embryonic mesoderm


a)Head
b)Neck
c) Upper & lower limb
d)Umbilical cord

44) The T.S. of umbilical cord contains


a)Rt. & Lt. umbilical vein, umbilical artery, Gartner duct, Amniotic sac

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b)Rt. & Lt. umbilical artery, umbilical vein, remnant of vitello intestinal duct, yolk sac
c) Rt. & Lt. umbilical vein, umbilical artery remnant of pericardial duct, amniotic sac
d)Rt. & Lt. umbilical artery, umbilical vein, para colic duct, amniotic sac

45) The ground substance of umbilical cord is made up of……………


a)Wharton’s jelly
b)Vicious jelly
c) Pericardial Fluid
d)All of the above

46) ……………. of umbilical cord is made up of Wharton’s jelly.


a)Umbilical artery
b)Umbilical vein
c) Vitello intestinal duct
d)Ground substances

47) Ground substance of …………….. is made up of Wharton’s jelly.


a)Head of embryonic disc
b)Tail of embryonic disc
c) Umbilical cord
d)Lateral bold of embryonic disc

48) Wharton’s jelly is derived from


a)Ectoderm
b)Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d)All of the above

49) The umbilical cord is covered by


a)Chorion
b)Amnion
c) Intra embryonic mesoderm
d)Extra embryonic mesoderm

50) Allantoic diverticulum arises from …………..


a)Amniotic sac
b)Yolk sac
c) Intra embryonic coelom
d)Extra embryonic coelom

51) After formation of tail fold ……….. arises from yolk sac.
a)Allantoic diverticulum
b)Pericardium
c) Peritoneum
d)Wharton’s jelly

52) The allantoic diverticulum arises from yolk sac


a)After formation of gut
b)Before formation of gut
c) During formation of gut
d)All of the above

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53) The hind part of endodermal gut tube is seen as a diverticulum
a)After formation of tail fold
b)Before formation of tail fold
c) After formation of head fold
d)Before formation of head fold

54) The pericardial cavity is derived from part of the …………..


a)Extra embryonic coelom
b)Intra embryonic coelom
c) Endoderm of gut tube
d)Ectoderm of neural plate

55) …………. derives from intra embryonic coelom


a)Pleura
b)Pericardium
c) Peritoneum
d)All of the above

56) Intra embryonic coelom lies


a)Caudal to the prochordal plate
b)Cranial to the prochordal plate
c) Caudal to the primitive streak
d)Cranial to the primitive streak

57) Pericardial cavity derived from part of the intra embryonic coelom that lies
a)Caudal to the prochordal plate
b)Cranial to the prochordal plate
c) Caudal to the primitive streak
d)Cranial to the primitive streak

58) The developing heart lies ………… to the pericardial cavity before formation of the head fold
a)Ventral
b)Dorsal
c) Ventromedial
d)Dorsolateral

59) After formation of head fold the pericardial cavity lies ………… to the foregut
a)Ventral
b)Dorsal
c) Ventromedial
d)Dorsolateral

60) After formation of head fold the developing heart lies ……….. to the pericardial cavity
a)Ventral
b)Dorsal
c) Ventromedial
d)Dorsolateral

61) ……………… is made up to intra embryonic mesoderm


a)Septum transversum
b)Allantoic diverticulum
c) Umbilical cord

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d)Head of embryonic disc

62) Septum transversum lies …………… to the pericardial cavity.


a)Ventral
b)Dorsal
c) Ventromedial
d)Dorsolateral
e)Cranial

63) Septum transversum is made up of


a)Intra embryonic mesoderm
b)Extra embryonic mesoderm
c) Intra embryonic coelom
d)Extra embryonic coelom

64) Septum transversum lies caudal to the heart after formation of ……………. of embryonic disc.
a)Tail fold
b)Head fold
c) Lateral fold
d)Dorsal fold

65) …………… & ……………. develop in relation to septum transversum


a)Spleen, gall bladders
b)Liver, diaphragm
c) Stomach, duodenum
d)Ascending colon, descending colon

66) Primitive knot alternatively called


a)Primitive node
b)Hansen’s node
c) a & b
d)Primitive streak

67) Cell in the primitive knot multiplies to pass cranially in the midline between
a)Ectoderm & endoderm
b)Mesoderm & endoderm
c) Mesoderm & ectoderm
d)Ectoderm, mesoderm & endoderm

68) The position of the notochord in the midline later occupied by


a)Liver
b)Diaphragm
c) Pericardium & heart
d)Vertebral column

69) Part of the notochord persist as …………… in the vertebral column


a)Nucleus pulposus
b)Annulus fibrosus
c) Intra vertebral canal
d)Spinal nerve

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70) Notochord elongates & lies in
a)Side line
b)Mid line
c) Dorsal line
d)Ventral line

71) After formation of blastopore its cavity extends into the notochordal process and converts it into
the tube called
a)Pleuro peritoneal canal
b)Notochordal canal
c) Incisive canal
d)Foramen transversarium

72) Cells which form ………………. of notochordal canal become intercalated


a)Roof b)Floor
c) Lateral wall d)Medial wall

73) The cells of notochordal canal separate the canal from the cavity of …………..
a)Amniotic sac b)Yolk sac
c) Intra embryonic coelom d)Extra embryonic coelom

74) Notochordal canal communicate with ………….. through blastopore


a)Amniotic sac b)Yolk sac
c) Intra embryonic coelom d)Extra embryonic coelom

75) The floor of notochordal canal communicates with yolk sac through …………….
a)Small opening seen after break down of the floor
b)Blasto pores
c) Cranio pores
d)Cloacal membrane

76) Amniotic sac & yolk sac are communicated each other when
a)Floor of notochordal canal breaks down & small opening seen in it.
b)There is a big hole produced in extra embryonic coelom which communicate amniotic sac to
yolk sac
c) Complete breakdown of embryonic disc allow to communicate.
d)Hole appear at the region of connecting stalk to communicate after extension.

77) Notochordal plate is formed when


a)Wall of the canal curved so rounded canal become curved
b)Wall of the canal flattened so rounded canal become flat
c) Wall of the canal coiled so rounded canal become coiled
d)Wall of the canal compressed so rounded canal become compressed

78) Notochordal plate become curved when


a)Process of flattening of wall of notochordal canal reversed
b)Process of coiling of wall of notochordal canal continues
c) Process of compressing of wall of notochordal canal continues
d)All of the above
e)None of the above

79) The notochordal plate assumes the shape of a tube when the shape of notochordal canal
a)Initiate process of coiling of notochordal wall reversed
b)Initiate process of flattening of notochordal wall reversed
c) Initiate process of compression of notochordal wall reversed
d)Initiate process of bulging of notochordal wall reversed

80) Proliferative cells of this tube (notochordal tube) convert it into a …………..
a)Bar b)Solid rod

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c) Barrel body d)Spiral body

81) After notochord form it completely separate itself from


a)Ectoderm b)Endoderm
c) Mesoderm d)Entoderm

82) Neural tube gives rise to


a)Liver, diaphragm b)Brain, spinal cord
c) Pericardium, heart d)Heart, lung

83) Neural tube overlies


a)Blastopore b)Notochord
c) Notochordal process d)Primitive streak

84) Neural tube formed from


a)Endoderm b)Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm d)Entoderm

85) Neural tube extends from


a)Prochordal plate to primitive knot
b)Prochordal plate to cloacal membrane
c) Primitive streak to cloacal membrane
d)Amniotic sac to yolk sac.

86) The ………. part of neural tube form brain


a)Caudal part b)Cranial part
c) Ventral part d)Dorsal part

87) The cranial part of neural tube is in connection with ………………


a)Prochordal plate b)Primitive knot
c) Primitive streak d)Cloacal membrane

88) Neural tube is ……….. cranially.


a)Tubular
b)Enlarged both side with two horns
c) Rectangular
d)Hexagonal

89) Neural tube is ……………. caudally.


a)Enlarged both side with 2 horns
b)Spiral
c) Tubular
d)Rhomboid shape

90) Developing brain form a large conspicuous mass on the ………… aspect of embryo.
a)Ventral aspect
b)Dorsal aspect
c) Cranial aspect
d)Caudal aspect

91) The process of formation of neural tube is called ………………. .


a)Gastrulation
b)Blastulation
c) Neuralation
d)Assimilation

92) Intra embryonic mesoderm is formed by


a)Proliferation of cell in primitive streak
b)Proliferation of cell in prochordal plate
c) Proliferation of cell in primitive knot

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d)Proliferation of cell in notochordal canal

93) Intra embryonic mesoderm separates from ectoderm & endoderm in the following region except
a)Primitive streak, primitive knot
b)Notochord, notochordal canal
c) Prochordal plate, cloacal membrane, in the midline caudal to the prochordal plate
d)Trophoblast

94) Mesoderm of two side of embryo meets in mid line


a)Caudal to primitive streak
b)Cranial to primitive streak
c) Caudal to prochordal plate
d)Cranial to prochordal plate

95) Intra embryonic mesoderm is continuous with extra embryonic mesoderm


a)Above the embryonic disc
b)Below the embryonic disc
c) At the edge of embryonic disc
d)Inside the embryonic disc

96) Paraxial, lateral plate, intermediate mesoderm are part of


a)Extra embryonic mesoderm
b)Intra embryonic mesoderm
c) Extra embryonic coelom
d)Intra embryonic coelom

97) Paraxial mesoderm occupies


a)Base of notochord
b)Apex of prochordal plate
c) Base of primitive streak
d)Either side of the notochord

98) Lateral plate mesoderm is a


a)Thinner layer
b)Thicker layer
c) Zigzag layer
d)Triple layer

99) ++Paraxial mesoderm is a


a)Thicker layer
b)Thinner layer
c) Triple layer
d)Bilayer

100) Intermediate mesoderm is a


a)Longitudinal strip
b)Oblique bundle
c) Parallel bundle
d)Coiled bundle

101) Somatomeres are


a)Rhomboidal mass
b)Circular mass
c) Cubical mass
d)Hexagonal mass

102) Somites are nothing but


a)Segmentation of lateral plate mesoderm
b)Segmentation of paraxial mesoderm
c) Segmentation of intermediate mesoderm

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d)All of the above

103) Metameres or primitive segments are nothing but


a)Somatomeres or somites
b)Vertebral bodies
c) Costochondral cartilages
d)Chondrocytes

104) The 1st somite are seen on


a)Either side of the mid line
b)Front of prochordal plate
c) a & b
d)Behind the primitive streak

105) More somites are formed caudally on


a)Either side of the developing neural tube
b)Either side of the developing notochord
c) Either side of the developing primitive knot
d)Either side of the developing primitive streak

106) Intra embryonic coelom is a large cavity seen in …………....


a)Paraxial mesoderm
b)Lateral plate mesoderm
c) Intermediate mesoderm
d)Extra embryonic mesoderm

107) Intra embryonic coelom is a large cavity produced in lateral plate mesoderm due to
a)Coalesce of large cavities
b)Coalesce of small cavities
c) Spreading apart from each other from the central cavity
d)Merging one above other in a spiraling manner.

108) The shape of intra embryonic coelom is


a)Barrel shaped
b)Horseshoe shaped
c) Tube shaped
d)Bunnet hole shaped

109) Two half of the intra embryonic coelomic cavity join together one on either side of the midline
a)Cranial to prochordal plate
b)Caudal to primitive streak
c) Cranial to primitive knot
d)Caudal to prochordal plate

110) Lateral plate mesoderm splits into somatopleuric & splanchnopleuric intra embryonic mesoderm
a)With the formation of extra embryonic coelom
b)With the formation of intra embryonic coelom
c) With the formation of extra embryonic mesoderm
d)All of the above

111) Pericardium is formed from that part of intra embryonic coelom that lies
a)Cranial to prochordal plate
b)Caudal to prochordal plate
c) Cranial to primitive streak
d)Caudal to primitive streak

112) Cardiogenic plate of heart is formed from


a)Splanchnopleuric mesoderm from floor of intra embryonic coelom
b)Somatopleuric mesoderm from the roof of intra embryonic coelom
c) Roof of extra embryonic coelom

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d)Floor of extra embryonic coelom

113) Somatopleuric and splanchnopleuric mesoderm are continuous with each other at
a)Cranial to the cardiogenic area
b)Cranial edge of the embryonic disc
c) Both & a & b
d)Caudal edge of the embryonic disc

114) …………… is not split in cardiogenic area.


a)Ectoderm
b)Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d)All of the above

115) Mesoderm does not split in cardiogenic area because (Where somotopleuric & splenchno
pleuric mesoderm are continuous with each other)
a)Intra embryonic coelom has not extended into it.
b)Extra embryonic coelom has not extended into it.
c) Intro embryonic mesoderm has not extended into it.
d)Extra embryonic mesoderm has not extended into it.

116) The unsplit mesoderm present in the region where somatopleuric & splanchno pleuric
mesoderm are continuous with each other forms
a)Septum pellucidum
b)Septum transversum
c) Septum innominatum
d)Septum germinatum

117) Septum transversum is made up of


a)Unsplit ectoderm
b)Unsplit endoderm
c) Split entoderm
d)Unsplit mesoderm

118) Primary yolk sac is bounded above by ……………. of embryonic disc.


a)Cubical ectoderm
b)Columnar endoderm
c) Cubical endoderm
d)Columnar ectoderm

119) Primary yolk sac is bounded elsewhere by ……………. .


a)Columnar cells lining the inside of blasto cystic cavity
b)Cubiodal cells lining the inside of chorionic cavity
c) Flattened cells lining the inside of blasto cystic cavity
d)All of the above

120) Notochord is present in all animals that belong to phylum ……………. .


a)Chordata
b)Amphibiana
c) Zoonensis
d)Zoxshantho filla
e)Drosophila

121) In …………….. embryo remains as a remnant in small part in adult life.


a)Man
b)Horse
c) Donkey
d)Dog
e)Apes

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122) Yolk sac becomes much smaller with the formation of
a)Extra embryonic mesoderm
b)Extra embryonic coelom
c) Both a & b
d)Intra embryonic coelom
e)Intra embryonic mesoderm

123) Primary yolk converts to secondary yolk sac when


a)It is lined all around by columnar ectodermal cell.
b)It is lined all around by cubical endodermal cell.
c) It is lined all around by squamous mesodermal cell.
d)It is lined ½ by around by columnar ectodermal cell.

124) Progressive increase in embryonic disc is possible when


a)Primary yolk sac converts to secondary yolk sac.
b)Primary yolk sac is lined all around by cubical endodermal cell
c) a & b
d)Amniotic cavity converts to chorionic cavity
e)Intra embryonic coelom converts to extra embryonic coelom

125) Head end of the disc is called


a)X end
b)Y end
c) Z end
d)U end

126) Tail end of the disc is called


a)X end
b)Z end
c) Y end
d)V end

127) …………… causes the embryonic disc to bulge upward into the amniotic cavity.
a)Increase length of the disc.
b)Head (X) & Tail (Y) end of the disc remain closure to each other
c) a & b
d)Increased breadth of the disc laterally side by side.

128) ……………… causes embryonic disc to appear head & tail fold in it (Appearance of head & tail
fold)
a)Increase in length around XY axis further.
b)Decrease in length around XY axis further.
c) Increase in length laterally side by side.
d)Decrease in length obliquely

129) With the formation of ……………… part of the yolk sac become enclosed within the embryonic
disc.
a)Formation of lateral fold.
b)Formation of Head & tail fold.
c) Formation of Neck folds.
d)All of the above.

130) After formation of head & tail fold in embryonic disc …………… encloses within it.
a)Part of amniotic sac.
b)Part of yolk sac
c) Part of chorionic cavity.
d)Part of extra embryonic coelom.

131) Part of yolk sac which encloses in the embryonic disc after formation of head & tail fold is
called.

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a)Primitive tongue
b)Secondary tongue
c) Primitive gut
d)Secondary gut

132) Most of the gastro intestinal tract is derived from ………………


a)Primitive tongue
b)Buccopharyngeal membrane
c) Primitive gut
d)Cloacal membrane

133) Fore gut is that part of the primitive gut in cranial communication of
a)Where cranial communication of primitive gut who is in wide communication with the yolk sac.
b)Where caudal communication of the primitive gut who is in wide communication with the yolk
sac.
c) Where middle communication of the secondary gut that is in wide communication with the
amniotic sac.
d)Where caudal communication of the secondary gut who is in wide communication with the
amniotic sac.

134) Caudal communication between primitive gut & yolk sac is called
a)Fore gut
b)Mid gut
c) Hind gut
d)All of the above

135) Intervening part of communicating pathway between primitive gut & yolk sac is called.
a)Fore gut
b)Mid gut
c) Hind gut
d)None of the above

136) Yolk sac converts to definitive above yolk sac when


a)Yolk sac become smaller
b)The communication between the yolk sac and primitive gut gradually narrows.
c) a & b
d)The communication between primitive gut and yolk sac gradually broadens.

137) Alternatively ………….. is umbilical vesicle


a)Yolk sac
b)Definitive yolk sac
c) Primary yolk sac
d)Amniotic sac
e)Secondary amniotic sac

138) The vitello intestinal duct is a


a)Wide communication to primitive gut & yolk sac
b)Narrow channel connecting to primitive gut & yolk sac
c) Oblique pathway connecting to yolk sac.
d)Broad communication to amniotic sac.

139) The list of names given alternative to vitello intestinal duct are except.
a)Vitelline duct
b)Yolk stalk
c) Yolk duct
d)Omphaloenteric duct

140) The list of changes seen after elongation of vitello intestinal duct are except.
a)Duct disappears.
b)Duct become elongated

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c) Duct not disappear
d)Duct eventually disappears

141) The fold formed on each side of the embryonic disc are
a)Head fold
b)Tail fold
c) Lateral folds
d)Central fold

142) Vitello intestinal duct passes through the region


a)Where embryo is enclosed all around by ectoderm
b)Where through later fold.
c) Where embryo is enclosed by endoderm
d)Where embryo is enclosed on each side

143) Embryo is enclosed all around by ectoderm except in the region through
a)Which yolk duct passes?
b)Which vitello intestinal duct passes?
c) Which umbilical opening seen
d)None of the above

144) Umbilical opening is a


a)Circular aperture seen in vitello intestinal duct
b)Circular aperture seen in yolk sac
c) Circular aperture seen in primitive gut
d)Circular aperture seen in definitive yolk sac.
e)a & d

145) List of changes seen after embryonic disc fold on itself except.
a)Amniotic cavity expands greatly
b)Embryo comes to surround on all sides
c) Embryo floats on amniotic fluid which fills the cavity
d)Embryo floats on yolk fluid which fills the yolk sac.

146) ………………… forms the connecting stalk.


a)Extra embryonic mesoderm
b)Intra embryonic mesoderm
c) Extra embryonic coelom
d)Intra embryonic coelom

147) Placenta is formed from


a)Trophoblast & Tissue of uterus
b)Epiblast & tissue of fallopian tube
c) Hypoblast & tissue of ovary
d)Embryo blast

148) …………….. provides nutrition of oxygen to growing embryo


a)Embryonic disc
b)Intra embryonic mesoderm
c) Placenta
d)Trophoblast
149) …………………….. removes waste products from embryo.
a)Placenta
b)Umbilical cord
c) a & b
d)Extra embryonic mesoderm
150) Connecting stalk connects link between
a)Embryo & umbilical cord
b)Embryo & placenta
c) Embryo & trophoblast

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d)Embryo & blastocystic cavity
151) As the embryo grows gradually the attachment of connecting stalk seen only near
a)Cranial end of embryonic disc
b)Caudal end of embryonic disc
c) Ventral to embryonic disc
d)Dorsal to embryonic disc

152) With the formation …………… the attachment of connecting stalk moves with tail end of
embryonic disc to ventral aspect of embryo.
a)Head fold
b)Tail fold
c) Lateral fold
d)Central fold

153) With the formation of tail fold the attachment of connecting stalk moves to
a)Ventral aspect of embryo
b)Dorsal aspect of embryo
c) Ventromedial aspect of embryo
d)Dorsolasteral aspect of embryo

154) In the ventral aspect of embryo the connecting stalk shows attachment to
a)The region of blasto cystic cavity
b)Region through which vitello intestinal duct pass
c) Region of the umbilical opening
d)Region of the embryo which is covered by blasto cystic cavity

155) Blood vessels in the form of arteries and veins supplying embryo develop themselves inside
placenta passes through
a)Placenta
b)Connecting stalk
c) Embryonic disc
d)All of the above

156) The number of arteries and veins seen in connecting stalk at first are
a)1, 1
b)2, 2
c) 3, 3
d)4, 4

157) ………………. vein disappears from the connecting stalk later.


a)Left vein
b)Right vein
c) Lateral vein
d)Central vein

158) ……………….. has a circular attachment to the umbilical opening and in form of a wide tube
a)Chorion
b)Amnion
c) Blastocystic membrane
d)Septum transversum

159) List of contents seen in vitello intestinal duct except


a)Vitello intestinal duct & remnants of yolk sac.
b)Extra embryonic mesoderm in form of Wharton’s jelly.
c) Blood vessels
d)Intra embryonic mesoderm

160) Wharton’s jelly is made up of


a)Intra embryonic mesoderm
b)Extra embryonic mesoderm

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c) Both a & b
d)None of the above

161) ……………… shows particular function of Wharton’s jelly towards blood vessels & umbilical
cord.
a)Nutrition
b)Oxygenation
c) Protection
d)Fertilization

162) Tube of amnion surrounds


a)Umbilical opening
b)Opening between yolk sac & intra embryonic mesoderm
c) Opening between intra embryonic mesoderm & extra embryonic mesoderm
d)Opening between amniotic sac & yolk sac

163) The tube of amnion & the structure within it constitute


a)Placenta
b)Umbilical cord
c) Umbilical opening
d)Embryonic disc

164) The list of reasons allow free movement of embryo within amniotic cavity except
a)Progressive increase in length of umbilical cord
b)Increase in quantity of amniotic fluid
c) Increase in size of amniotic cavity
d)Increase in size of embryo

165) The length & diameter of umbilical cord at the time of birth is
a)About ¼ a meter, 1 cm
b)About ½ a meter, 1 cm
c) About ½ a meter, 2 cm
d)About ¾ a meter, 3 cm
e)About 1 meter, 4 cm

166) Umbilical cord shows marked torsion due to


a)Umbilical cord movement
b)Foetal movement
c) a & b
d)Amniotic fluid movement
e)Connecting stalk movement

167) List of causes producing problems during delivery of the fetus except
a)Umbilical cord may be too long
b)Umbilical cord may be too short
c) Amniotic fluid shows movement in one direction
d)Amniotic cavity is too small due to lack of foetal development.

168) Allantoic diverticulum is an


a)Ectodermal diverticulum
b)Endodermal diverticulum
c) Mesodermal diverticulum
d)Entodermal diverticulum

169) Allantoic diverticulum is seen as a small endodermal diverticulum


a)After formation of head fold of embryonic disc.
b)Before formation of head fold of embryonic disc
c) After formation of tail fold of embryonic disc.
d)Before formation of tail fold of embryonic disc.
e)Before formation of lateral fold of embryonic disc.

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170) Allantoic diverticulum arises from
a)Amniotic sac
b)Intra embryonic coelom
c) Yolk sac
d)Chorionic cavity

171) The allantoic diverticulum grows from yolk sac into


a)Mesoderm of connecting stalk
b)Ectoderm
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d)Trophoblast

172) Part of allantoic diverticulum is absorbed into the hind gut


a)Before formation of tail fold
b)Before formation of head fold
c) During the formation of head fold
d)After formation of tail fold

173) After formation of tail fold of embryonic disc part of the allantoic diverticulum is absorbed into
a)Fore gut
b)Mid gut
c) Hind gut
d)All of the above

174) Allantoic diverticulum extends up to connecting stalk from


a)Dorsal side of hind gut
b)Ventral side of hind gut
c) Dorsolateral side of fore gut
d)Ventromedial side of mid gut

175) Urinary bladder develops from


a)Dorsal side of hind gut
b)Ventral side of hind gut
c) Dorsal side of mid gut
d)Ventral side of fore gut

176) The mid structure seen in cranio caudal sequence across the disc before formation of head &
tail fold except
a)Future septum transversum, future pericardial cavity & heart
b)Prochordal plate, neural plate, somite
c) Developing spinal cord, primitive streak, cloacal membrane
d)Allontoic diverticulum

177) ……………….. primitive streak is seen before formation of head & tail fold of embryo
a) Conspicuous
b)Inconspicuous
c) Malformed
d)Disappear
e)All of the above

178) The heart which was developed from splanchno pleuric mesoderm in the floor of the pericardial
cavity moves to lie in the roof of the pericardial cavity
a)With the formation of head fold of embryonic disc.
b)With the formation of tail fold of embryonic disc.
c) With the formation of lateral fold of embryonic disc.
d)All of the above

179) Pericardial cavity lies …………….. with formation of head fold.


a)Ventral side of the embryo, dorsal to fore gut

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b)Ventral side of the embryo, ventral to foregut
c) Dorsal side of the embryo dorsal to mid gut
d)Ventromedial side of the embryo, ventromedial to hind gut

180) Septum transversum lies.


a)Cranial to pericardial cavity
b)Cranial to embryonic disc
c) Cranial to trophoblast
d)Caudal to intra embryonic coelom

181) Buccopharygeal membrane forms in the


a)Region of primitive streak
b)Region of prochordal plate
c) Region of Cardiogenic plate
d)Region of neural plate

182) Buccopharyngeal membrane or oral membrane encloses ………….. cranially.


a)Foregut
b)Mid gut
c) Hind gut
d)All of the above

183) Foregut communicate with exterior when


a)Membrane splits
b)Membrane breaks down
c) Membrane tears in the midline
d)Membrane produces an oblique tear on the edge

184) Brain develops later from


a)Enlarged cranial part of the neural tube
b)Tubular caudal part of the neural tube
c) Somites present lateral side of edge of tube
d)At the tail fold of embryonic disc.

185) Bulging pericardium present little below the


a)Developing spinal cord
b)Developing diaphragm & liver
c) Developing brain
d)Developing vertebral bodies.

186) A depression called stomatodeum or stomodeum is present between


a)Developing spinal cord & cervical somite
b)Developing brain & bulging pericardium
c) Developing diaphragm & liver & septum transversum
d)Neural tube & blasto pore

187) Floor of stomodeum is formed by


a)Bucco pharyngeal membrane
b)Cloacal membrane
c) Chorionic membrane
d)Connecting stalk

188) Buccopharyngeal membrane forms the ………….. of stomodeum.


a)Root
b)Floor
c) Lateral wall
d)Medial wall

189) The distal end of hind gut is closed by


a)Buccopharyngeal membrane

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b)Cloacal membrane
c) Chorionic membrane
d)Extra embryonic coelom

190) The primitive streak gradually disappears


a)Towards the head end of embryo
b)Towards the tail end of embryo
c) Towards the central axis of embryo
d)All of the above

191) Cloacae which closed by hind gut at first directed caudally


a)Later it comes to face ventrally
b)Later it comes to face dorsally
c) Later it comes to face ventromedially
d)Later it comes to face dorsolaterally

192) Sacrococccygeal tumor


a)Is a remnant of prochordal plate?
b)Is a remnant of primitive streak?
c) Is a remnant of embryonic disc?
d)Is a remnant of cloacal membrane?

193) Sacrococcygeal tumor derived from


a)Ectoderm
b)Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d)All the 3 germ layers

194) Formation of neural tube is induced by


a)Notochord
b)Blastopore
c) Primitive Knot
d)Prochordal Plate

195) Somatomere give origin to some mesenchyme


a)In the tail region caudal to somites
b)In the head region cranial to somites
c) Both a & b
d)None of the above

196) Wharton’s jelly is rich in


a)Porteo glycans
b)Mucopolysaccharide
c) Disaccharide
d)Monosaccharide

197) Closure of neural tube seen in intra uterine pregnancy after


a)21 days
b)23 days
c) 19 days
d)17 days

198) Neural groove is seen in intra uterine pregnancy after


a)21 days
b)22 days
c) 23 days
d)24 days

199) Head fold begins to form in intra uterine pregnancy after


a)21 days

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b)20 days
c) 19 days
d)18 days

200) Intra embryonic mesoderm is being formed in intra uterine pregnancy after
a)21 days
b)20 days
c) 19 days
d)18 days

201) Connecting stalk is distinguished in intra uterine pregnancy after


a)20 days
b)19 days
c) 21 days
d)22 days

202) Notochordal process appears in intra uterine pregnancy after


a)19 days
b)18 days
c) 17 days
d)16 days

203) Heart tube is seen in cardiogenic area


a)20 days
b)17 days
c) 18 days
d)19 days

204) Allantoic diverticulum is seen in intra uterine pregnancy after


a)20 days
b)19 days
c) 18 days
d)17 days

205) Primitive streak appears in intra uterine pregnancy after


a)15 days
b)16 days
c) 17 days
d)18 days

206) Definitive yolk sac is formed in intra uterine pregnancy after


a)18 days
b)17 days
c) 16 days
d)15 days

207) List of events seen in 17 days of Intra uterine pregnancy except


a)Noto chordal process appear
b)Heart tube is seen in cardiogenic area.
c) Allantoic diverticulum is seen
d)Neural groove seen.

ANSWER KEYS

1) b 2) d 3) a 4) b 5) b 6) c 7) b 8) a 9) a 10) c 11) c 12) a


13) a 14) a 15) c 16) c 17) c 18) a 19) b 20) b 21) c 22) b 23) b 24) b
25) c 26) b 27) b 28) b 29) b 30) d 31) a 32) b 33) b 34) b 35) d 36) b
37) b 38) a 39) b 40) a 41) b 42) c 43) d 44) b 45) a 46) d 47) c 48) c
49) b 50) b 51) a 52) b 53) a 54) b 55) b 56) b 57) b 58) a 59) a 60) b
61) a 62) e 63) a 64) b 65) b 66) c 67) a 68) d 69) a 70) b 71) b 72) b

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73) b 74) a 75) a 76) a 77) b 78) a 79) b 80) b 81) b 82) b 83) b 84) c
85) a 86) b 87) a 88) b 89) c 90) b 91) c 92) a 93) c 94) d 95) c 96) b
97) d 98) a 99) a 100) a 101) c 102) b 103) a 104) c 105) a 106) b 107) b 108) b
109) a 110) b 111) a 112) a 113) c 114) b 115) a 116) b 117) d 118) c 119) c 120) a
121) a 122) c 123) b 124) c 125) a 126) c 127) c 128) a 129) b 130) b 131) c 132) c
133) a 134) c 135) b 136) c 137) b 138) b 139) c 140) c 141) c 142) c 143) b 144) e
145) d 146) a 147) a 148) c 149) b 150) b 151) b 152) b 153) a 154) c 155) b 156) b
157) b 158) b 159) d 160) b 161) c 162) a 163) b 164) d 165) c 166) c 167) c 168) b
169) d 170) b 171) a 172) d 173) c 174) b 175) b 176) d 177) b 178) a 179) b 180) b
181) b 182) a 183) b 184) a 185) c 186) b 187) a 188) b 189) b 190) b 191) a 192) b
193) d 194) a 195) b 196) a 197) b 198) a 199) a 200) c 200) d 201) b 202) c 203) b
204) d 205) a 206) d 207) d

**********

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CHAPTER 6

THE PLACENTA

1) Implantation is a procedure in which


a) A developing connecting stalk gets attached to embryonic disc.
b) A developing embryo gets attached to uterine endometrium.
c) A developing umbilical cord gets attached to umbilical opening.
d) A developing placenta gets attached to umbilical cord.
2) The procedure in which a developing embryo get attached to uterine endometrium is called
a) Gastrulation
b) Blastulation
c) Implantation
d) Assimilation
3) Human embryo get buried in the substance of
a) Perimetrium
b) Endometrium
c) Myometrium
d) All of the above
4) The procedure in which human embryo get buried into the substance of uterine endometrium
is called
a) Intra mural implantation
b) Interstitial implantation
c) Intra abdominal implantation
d) Intra ostial implantation
5) The endometrium of uterus is defined as ………… after implantation.
a) Decidua
b) Chorion
c) Villi
d) Plate
6) The substance which form partly from decidua & partly from embryonic substance is called
a) Decidua
b) Placenta
c) Villi
d) Chorion
7) Indicate the correct statement from below-:
a) Placenta is form partly from decidua partly from chorion.
b) Placenta is form partly from decidua partly from villi
c) Placenta is form partly from decidua partly from embryonic substance
d) Placenta is form partly from chorion partly from Villi
8) List of functions performed by placenta except
a) Transportation of nutrition
b) Transportation of oxygen
c) Removal of waste product
d) Proceed of cell division
9) The essential element of placenta is
a) Umbilical cord
b) Uterine artery & umbilical vessels
c) Vitello intestinal duct & yolk sac
d) Chorionic villi
10) Villi are surrounded by
a) Foetal blood
b) Maternal blood
c) Placental blood

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d) Umbilical vessels blood
11) …………… circulate through capillaries in villi.
a) Maternal blood
b) Foetal blood
c) Umbilical vessel blood
d) Uterine vessel blood
12) Fetal blood circulates through
a) Capillaries in villi
b) Capillaries in endometrium
c) Venules in umbilical cord
d) Capillaries passing through umbilical opening.
13) Placental membrane is a ……………….
a) Promoter
b) Barrier
c) Enhancer
d) Analyzer
14) The maternal blood & the fetal blood are separated by
a) Chorionic membrane
b) Placental membrane
c) Amniotic membrane
d) Yolk membrane
15) Lists of function performed by placental membrane except.
a) All substances including blood, nutrition, oxygen & CO 2 passes from mother to fetus.
b) All substances including blood, nutrition, oxygen & CO 2 passes from fetus to mother.
c) Barrier action against passing through placenta during removal of waste product.
d) Help’s in interstitial implantation.
16) The fetal tissue that takes part in forming the placenta is called
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Granulose cell
d) All of the above
17) Trophoblast is a
a) One layer of cell
b) Two layers of cells
c) Three layer of cells
d) Four layer of cells
18) Chorion consists of
a) Epiblast resting on intra embryonic mesoderm
b) Trophoblast resting on extra embryonic mesoderm
c) Hypoblast resting on Intra embryonic coelom
d) Embryo blast resting on extra embryonic coelom
19) Syncitio & cytotrophoblast forms due to
a) Proliferation of cells of the trophoblast
b) Division of cells of the epiblast
c) Multiplication of cells of the embryo blast
d) Division of cells of the hypoblast
20) Cytotrophoblast is a ………….. layer.
a) Syncitial layer
b) Cellular layer
c) Nutritional layer
d) Mesodermal layer
21) Syncytiotrophoblast is a …………. layer.
a) Barrier
b) Cellular
c) Syncytial

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d) Acellular
22) The first form villi of placenta is
a) Primary Villi
b) Chorionic Villi
c) Secondary Villi
d) Tertiary Villi
23) ……………………… form a central core of cytotrophoblast
a) Primary villi
b) Secondary villi
c) Tertiary villi
d) Quaternary villi
24) Central core of cytotrophoblast is covered by
a) Epiblast
b) Hypoblast
c) Embryo blast
d) Syncytiotrophoblast
25) In ………… blood capillaries are formed in the extra embryonic mesoderm
a) Primary villi
b) Secondary villi
c) Tertiary villi
d) Quaternary villi
26) Intervillous space contains
a) Maternal blood
b) Fetal blood
c) Umbilical Vessel blood
d) Placental blood
27) Septas grows into ……………. as placenta enlarges.
a) Lobes
b) Lobules
c) Intervillous place
d) Villi
28) The fully formed placenta is about ………….. inches in diameter & about ………… gm in
weight.
a) 6, 450
b) 5, 450
c) 6, 500
d) 5, 500
29) The placenta is normally attached to
a) Upper part of fundus of uterus
b) Lower part of fundus of uterus
c) Upper part of body of uterus.
d) Lower part of body of uterus.
30) Embryo is surrounded by 3 large cavities
a) Amniotic cavity, extra embryonic coelom, uterine cavity
b) Chorionic cavity, intra embryonic coelom, blastocystic cavity
c) Chorionic cavity, extra embryonic coelom, amniotic cavity
d) Amniotic cavity chorionic cavity, blastocystic cavity
31) The embryo is surrounded by
a) One large cavity
b) Two large cavities
c) 3 large cavities
d) 4 large cavities
32) ……………….. obliterates extra embryonic coelom.
a) Enlargement of amniotic cavity.
b) Enlargement of chorionic cavity.

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c) Enlargement of Blastocystic cavity.
d) Enlargement of yolk sac.
33) Enlargement of amniotic cavity obliterates
a) Intra embryonic coelom
b) Intra embryonic mesoderm
c) Extra embryonic coelom
d) Extra embryonic mesoderm
34) List of events seen after enlargement of amniotic cavity except:
a) Obliteration of extra embryonic coelom
b) Fusion of amnion & chorion (membrane) bulge into
c) Obliteration of uterine cervical canal cavity
d) Obliteration of intra embryonic coelom
35) Fertilization leads to
a) Segmentation of ovary
b) Segmentation of ovary
c) Segmentation of uterine tube
d) Segmentation of uterus
36) Ovum travels through uterine tube towards the uterus
a) After ovum is shed from ovary
b) After segmentation of ovum
c) After segmentation of ovary
d) All of the above
37) The fertilized ovum already becomes a “morulla”.
a) By the time they reach ampullary part of fallopian tube
b) By the time they reach isthmus of fallopian tube.
c) By the time they reach uterus
d) All of the above
38) The ovum already become a ………… by the time they reach uterus.
a) Blastocyst
b) Morulla
c) Female pronucleus
d) All of the above
39) By the time the morulla reach uterus is still surrounded by
a) Granulosa cell
b) Zona pellucida
c) Theca externa
d) All of the above
40) Function of zona pellucida is
a) It prevents sticking of the ovum to the wall of uterine tube.
b) Provides nutrition and oxygenation to ovum
c) Help’s in segmentation of ovum
d) Help’s in nutrition to cytoplasm of oocyte & granulosa cell
41) The cell lining the surface of morulla is ……………….
a) Epiblast
b) Hypoblast
c) Embryo blast
d) Trophoblast
42) The list of properties of trophoblast includes all except
a) Attaching itself to cytotrophoblast
b) Invading any tissue comes in contact with
c) Stick to uterine endometrium in the absence of zona pellucida.
d) Cause cell division to particular tissue in which it invade.
43) Implantation is called
a) Sticking of zona pellucida to uterine endometrium
b) Sticking of trophoblast to uterine endometrium in absence of zona pellucida

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c) Sticking of ovum to ampullary part of fallopian tube.
d) b&c&e
e) Blastocyst burrow deeper & deeper into uterine mucosa.
44) Implantation begins on
nd
a) 2 day after fertilization
th
b) 4 day after fertilization
th
c) 6 day after fertilization
th
d) 8 day after fertilization
45) The trophoblast of human …………… invades the endometrium of uterus.
a) Morulla
b) Blastocyst
c) Embryonic cyst
d) All of the above
e) 2 cell embryo
46) Interstitial implantation is called
a) Whole of blastocyst comes to lie within the thickness of the endometrium
b) ½ of the blastocyst comes to lies within the thickness of the endometrium
c) ¾ of the blastocyst comes to lie within the thickness of the endometrium
d) ¼ of the blastocyst comes to lie within the thickness of the endometrium
47) The process of implantation is aided by
a) Proteolytic enzyme produced by trophoblast
b) Proteolytic enzyme produced by uterine mucosa.
c) a & b
d) Digestive enzyme produced by zona pellucida.
48) Trophoblastic cells are situated over
a) Outer cell mass
b) Inner cell mass
c) Zona pellucida
d) Edge of outer surface of ovum
49) Implantation results due to
a) Mutual interaction between zona pellucida & uterine epithelium
b) Disappearance of zona pellucida.
c) Negative pressure created over uterine endometrium.
d) Mutual interaction between trophoblastic cell and endometrium for implantation.
50) Interaction for implantation is mediated by
a) Trophoblastic cell
b) zona pellucida
c) Receptor present on uterine epithelium secretes L-secretin.
d) Integrins by trophoblastic cell
e) c & d
51) Uterine endometrium is called decidua
a) Before implantation
b) During implantation
c) After implantation
d) Before endometrial fertilization
52) Endometrium is in …………. phase when morulla reaches uterus
a) Menstrual phase
b) Pre menstrual phase or secretory phase
c) Post menstrual phase
d) Proliferative phase
53) List of features seen as changes in uterine endometrium after implantation except.
a) Stromal cell enlarge
b) Stromal cell become vacuolated
c) Glycogen & lipid store in stromal cell
d) Segmentation seen in uterine endometrium.

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54) The changes seen in stromal cell after implantation is called
a) Zona reaction
b) Decidual reaction
c) Lysosomal reaction
d) All of the above
55) Decidua basalis is
a) The portion of the deciduas that separates the embryo from the uterine lumen.
b) The portion of the deciduas where placenta is to be formed deep to blastocyst.
c) The portion of the deciduas that lining the rest of the cavity.
d) All of the above.
56) Decidual capsularis is
a) The portion of the deciduas that separates the embryo from the uterine lumen.
b) The portion of the deciduas where placenta is to be formed deep to blastocyst.
c) The portion of the decidua that lining the rest of the uterine cavity.
d) None of the above
57) Decidua interparietalis is
a) The portion of the deciduas that separates the embryo from the uterine lumen.
b) The portion of the decidua where placenta is to be formed deep to blastocyst.
c) The portion of the deciduas that lining the rest of the uterine cavity.
d) All of the above.
58) Source of nutrition to embryo is provided by
a) Decidua basalis
b) Decidua capsularis
c) Decidua interparietalis
d) All of the above
59) Decidua consist predominantly
a) Small decidual cell
b) Large decidual cell
c) Medium decidual cell
d) All of the above
60) The alternative name of …………… is decidua plate.
a) Decidua interparietalis
b) Decidua capsullaris
c) Decidua Basalis
d) None of the above
61) Decidua shed off
a) At the beginning of pregnancy
b) At the middle of pregnancy
c) At the end of pregnancy
d) All of the above
62) Decidua sheds along with
a) Placenta
b) Membrane
c) a & b
d) Fetus
63) After shedding off decidua is called
a) Decidua plate
b) Decidua trees
c) Decidua membrane
d) Decidua basalis
64) Villis are
a) Horse shoe shape processes.
b) Finger like shape processes
c) Barrel shape processes
d) Saw toothed shape processes

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65) Exchange between the maternal and fetal circulation take place through the tissue
a) Forming roof of villi called tip
b) Forming base of villi
c) Forming wall of villi
d) All of the above
66) The villi are formed as ………………….
a) Off shoots
b) Down shoots
c) Oblique shoots
d) Parallel shoots
67) Villi off shoots from the surface of ……………. .
a) Trophoblast
b) Epiblast
c) Hypoblast
d) Embryo blast
68) Chorion constitute
a) Extra embryonic mesoderm with trophoblast
b) Intra embryonic mesoderm with extra embryonic mesoderm
c) Ectoderm with endoderm
d) Syncitio trophoblast with cytotrophoblast.
69) Villi arise from trophoblastic layer is called
a) Trophoblastic villi
b) Extra embryonic mesodermal villi
c) Chorionic villi
d) Blastocystic villi
70) The chorionic villi grow’s into
a) Surrounding theca
b) Surrounding decidua
c) Surrounding uterine epithelium
d) Surrounding Intra embryonic mesoderm
71) Transitory villi’s are related to
a) Decidua Basalis
b) Decidua capsularis
c) Decidua Interparietalis
d) Decidua Tree
e) Decidua plate
72) Smooth chorion laevae are part of
a) Decidua basalis
b) Decidua capsularis
c) Decidua Interparietalis
d) Trophoblast
73) The villi of …………….. undergo degeneration
a) Decidua basalis
b) Decidua capsularis
c) Decidua Interparietalis
d) All of the above
74) The chorionic villi of …………… undergo considerable development further.
a) Decidua Basalis
b) Decidua Capsularis
c) Decidua Interparietalis
d) All of the above
75) Placenta is a combination of
a) Disc shaped mass of villi with tissue of decidua capsularis
b) Disc shaped mass of villi with tissue of decidua basalis
c) Barrel shaped mass of villi with tissue of decidua interparietalis

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d) All of the above
76) The part of the chorion that helps form the placenta is called
a) Chorion laevae
b) Chorion villi
c) Chorion frondosum
d) Chorion cavity
77) The trophoblastic cells that lose their cell boundaries when get nearest to decidua basalis are
called
a) Syncytiotrophoblast
b) Cytotrophoblast
c) Plasmodiotropholdast
d) a & c
e) All of the above
78) At first trophoblast is made up off
a) Single layer of cell
b) Double layer of cells
c) Triple layer of cells
d) 4 layer of cells
79) 2 distinct layer of trophoblast are formed during further development of step of formation of
placenta as a result of
a) Cellular addition
b) Cellular multiplication
c) Cell division
d) All of the above
80) The tissue of syncitium (syncitial tissue) carries list of morphological properties except
a) They are nearest to decidua basalis
b) The cells of those tissue loss their cell boundaries.
c) Cells are seen as continuous sheet of cytoplasm with many nuclei.
d) The nucleus of cells lose their nuclear membrane
81) The migrated syncytial tissue is related to
a) Trophoblast
b) Epiblast
c) Hypoblast
d) Embryo blast
82) The syncitial tissue migrated from
a) Chorion to decidua basalis
b) Chorion to decidua capsularis
c) Chorion to decidua interparietalis
d) All of the above
83) Which layer of the syncitium of trophoblast retains their cell wall when they migrated to
deciduas?
a) Syncitiotrophoblastic layer
b) Cytotrophoblastic layer
c) Plasmodiotrophoblastic layer
d) a & c
84) Cytotrophoblasic layer are situated
a) Superficial to syncytium
b) Deep to syncytium
c) On the syncytium
d) All of the above
85) Langhan’s layer is
a) Syncytiotrophoblastic layer
b) Cytotrophoblastic layer
c) Plasmodiotrophoblastic layer
d) a & c

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86) The cytotrophoblastic layer rest on
a) Intra embryonic mesoderm
b) Intra embryonic coelom
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d) Extra embryonic coelom
87) The element’s that form chorionic villi are
a) Syncitium
b) Syncitium, cytotrophoblast
c) Syncitium, cytotrophoblast and extra embryonic mesoderm
d) Syncitium, cytotrophoblast, extra embryonic mesoderm, intra embryonic mesoderm.
88) Primary villi consist of
a) Central core of syncytiotrophoblast covered by cytotrophoblast.
b) Central core of cytotrophoblast covered by syncitiotrophoblast.
c) Central core of cytotrophoblast covered by plasmodiotrophoblast
d) All of the above
89) Adjoining villi are separated by
a) Intervillous space
b) Maternal blood
c) Both a & b
d) Foetal blood
90) Secondary villi shows
a) One layer
b) Two layers
c) 3 layers
d) 4 layers
91) Secondary villi shows
a) Outer syncytiotrophoblast an intermediate cytotrophoblast and an inner layer of extra
embryonic mesoderm.
b) Outer extra embryonic mesoderm on intermediate cytotrophoblast and an inner layer of
syncytiotrophoblast.
c) Outer intra embryonic mesoderm an intermediate cytotrophoblast and an inner layer of
syncytiotrophoblast.
d) All of the above
92) Tertiary villis are like
a) Primary villi’s
b) Secondary villi’s
c) Quaternary villi’s
d) Chorionic villi’s
93) Tertiary Villi’s are like secondary villi’s except
a) That they are blood capillaries in the mesoderm
b) That they are blood capillaries in the ectoderm
c) That they are blood capillaries in the endoderm
d) That they are blood capillaries in the 3 above layers.
94) Lacunae’s are small cavities seen in ……………. after formation of tertiary villi’s
a) Syncytiotrophoblast
b) Cytotrophoblast
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d) Intra embryonic mesoderm
95) The syncytiotrophoblastic outer layer of trophoblast is at first arranged …………….
a) Regularly
b) Irregularly
c) Centrally
d) Radially
96) Gradually the syncytiotrophoblastic layer of trophoblast comes to lie ………….. around the
blastocyst followed with irregular arrangement.

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a) Partition of syncytium
b) Trabeculae
c) a&b
d) Musculo tendinous separation
97) The lacuna seen in syncytiotrophoblast are separated by
a) Partition of syncitium
b) Trabeculae
c) a&b
d) Musculo tendinous separation
98) Gradually one large space is formed in syncytiotrophoblast after
a) All the lacuna communicates with each other
b) All the lacuna spread apart from each other.
c) All the lacuna disappears.
d) All the lacuna space splits.
99) The syncytiotrophoblast grows into
a) Myometrium
b) Perimetrium
c) Endometrium
d) All of the above
100) Trabeculae which separate lacuna is made up of
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Plasmodiotrophoblast
c) Syncytiotrophoblast
d) b & c
101) The trabeculae which separates the layer of syncytium has a central core of cytotrophoblast
which is covered by an outer layer of syncitium because
a) Cells of syncytiotrophoblast multiply and grow’s into each trabeculus.
b) Cells of cytotrophoblast multiply and grow into each trabeculus.
c) Cells of plasmadiotrophoblast and grow into each trabeculus.
d) All of the above.
102) Blood fills the lacunar space of syncitiotrophoblast & open up because of
a) Erodification of myometrium
b) Erodification of perimetrium
c) Erodification of endometrium
d) Erodification of uterine mucosa.
103) The trabeculae is surrounded by
a) Maternal blood
b) Fetal blood
c) Both
d) Umbilical vessel blood
104) Primary villis converts to secondary villi when
a) Extra embryonic mesoderm invades the centre of each primary villus
b) Intra embryonic mesoderm invades the periphery of each primary villus
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm invades the periphery of each primary villus
d) All of the above.
105) The secondary villi has a
a) Core of mesoderm & covered by cytotrophoblast & syncitio trophoblast
b) Core of ectoderm & covered by cytotrophoblast
c) Core of endoderm & covered by syncytiotrophoblast
d) Core of ectoderm, endoderm & mesoderm & covered by cytotrophoblast &
syncytiotrophoblast.

106) Blood vessel of secondary villi is seen in


a) Core mesoderm
b) Tip ectoderm
c) Base endoderm

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d) Wall mesoderm
107) When blood vessel appears in the core of mesoderm of secondary villi it is called
a) Primary villi
b) Tertiary villi
c) Quaternary villi
d) Chorionic villi
108) The blood vessel of the villus establish connection with
a) Circulatory system of mother
b) Circulatory system of embryo
c) Nervous system of mother
d) Nervous system of embryo
109) Cytotrophoblast layer of trophoblast does not come in contact with decidua because
a) They grow into trabeculae (villus)
b) They does not penetrate the entire thickness of the syncytium
c) a & b
d) None of the above
110) Cytrotrophoblastic shell is the layer of cell which
a) Completely cut off the syncytium from the decidua
b) Which incompletely cut off the syncytium from the decidua
c) Which merge with the decidua
d) None of the above.
111) Cytotrophoblastic cell layer of the trophoblast emerge through ……….. of villus in later stage
a) Tip
b) Wall
c) Base
d) Syncytium
112) Indicate the correct cause of increase of size of placenta from below
a) Cells of cytotrophoblastic shell multiply rapidly
b) Cells of syncitiotrophoblastic shell multiply rapidly
c) Cells of plasmodiotrophoblastic shell multiply slowly
d) Cells of granulosa & decidua shell multiply rapidly
113) Indicate the wrong statement from below
a) Fetal blood circulates through villi
b) Maternal blood circulates through inter villus space
c) Villi establish connection with circulatory system of embryo.
d) Maternal blood establishes connection with circulatory system of mother.
114) List of attachments establish by anchoring villi except.
a) On fetal side to the embryonic mesoderm
b) On the maternal side to the cytotrophoblastic cell
c) On the maternal side to the trophoblast
d) On the fetal side to the intra embryonic mesoderm.
115) The stem of anchoring villi is called
a) Truncus chorii
b) Ramus chorii
c) Ramuli chorii
d) All of the above
116) The branches of stem of anchoring villi is called
a) Truncus chorii
b) Rami chorii
c) Ramuli chorii
d) All of the above
117) Finer branches of stem branch of anchoring villi are called
a) Truncus chorii
b) Rami chorii
c) Ramuli chorii

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d) All of the above
118) The ramuli chorii is attached to
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotropholdast
c) Plasmodiotropholdast
d) Cytotrophoblastic shell
119) Free villi are those
a) Anchoring villi give off numerous branches which grow into intervillous space.
b) Anchoring villi give off few branches which grow into trabeculae
c) Anchoring villi give off few branches which grow into syncytium
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
120) New villi sprout from
a) Chorionic side of intervillous space
b) Wall side of intervillous space
c) Tip of villi side of intervillous space
d) Base side of intervillous space
121) ……………… helps in increase of surface area available for exchanges between maternal &
fetal circulation
a) Free villi
b) New villi
c) Chorionic villi
d) Anchoring villi
122) The placenta becomes subdivided into a number of …………… by septa
a) Lobules
b) Lobes
c) Compartment
d) All of the above
123) Septa grow into the intervillous space from …………… side.
a) Fetal side
b) Maternal side
c) Both side
d) Chorionic cavity side
124) Each such lobe of placenta is often called
a) Fetal cotyledon
b) Maternal cotyledon
c) Both
d) None of the above
125) If the placenta is viewed from maternal side the base of septa are seen as
a) Convex area
b) Grooves
c) Irregular ridges
d) Regular ridges
126) If the placenta is viewed from maternal side the cotyledon appear as
a) Grooves
b) Convex areas
c) Irregular ridges
d) Regular ridges
127) The number of lobes seen is a placenta generally varies between.
a) 10 to 15
b) 15 to 20
c) 20 to 25
d) 25 to 30
128) Each lobe of placenta contains a number of anchoring villi & their branches. One such villus
and its branches constitute a ………….. .

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a) Maternal cotyledon
b) Fetal cotyledon
c) Both
d) None of the above
129) The number of fetal cotyledon in a placenta are
a) 20-50
b) 60-100
c) 100-140
d) 140-180
130) The placenta is a
a) Compact mass
b) Porous mass
c) Cavity
d) Convex shaped projection
131) The shape of placenta is
a) Ovoid shape
b) Disc shape
c) Plate shape
d) Quadrangular shape
132) The diameter of full term placenta is
a) 2 to 4 inches
b) 4 to 6 inches
c) 6 to 8 inches
d) 8 to 10 inches
133) The weight of placenta is
a) 250 gm
b) 500 gm
c) 750 gm
d) 1000 gm
134) The fetal surface of placenta is called
a) Amniotic plate
b) Chorionic plate
c) Yolk plate
d) All of the above
135) The fetal surface of placenta is lined by
a) Chorion (chronic plate)
b) Amnion
c) Both
d) None of the above
136) ………………. is attached to the fetal surface of placenta.
a) Umbilical opening
b) Umbilical cord
c) Umbilicus
d) Vitello intestinal duct
137) The maternal blood & fetal blood do not mix with each other they are separated by a
a) Septa
b) Trabeculae
c) Intervillous space
d) Membrane made up of wall of villous
138) Placental barrier constitute all except
a) Endothelium of blood vessels of fetus & its basement membrane
b) Surrounding mesoderm of connective tissue
c) Cytotrophoblast its basement membrane & syncytiotrophoblast.
d) Surrounding ectoderm connective tissue
139) Surface area of placental membrane is equal to

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a) Total absorptive area of esophagus
b) Total absorptive area of adult intestinal tract
c) Total secretive area of stomach
d) Total secretive area of upper GI tract
140) The efficiency of the placental membrane is increased
a) During previous period of pregnancy
b) During present period of pregnancy
c) During later part of pregnancy
d) After pregnancy delivered
141) The efficiency of chorionic membrane is increased by
a) Disappearance of cytotrophoblastic layer from most of the villi’s
b) Considerable thinning of connective tissue
c) a & b
d) Disappearance of syncytiotrophoblast layer from most of the villi’s
142) The thickness of placental membrane reduced from 0.025mm to 0.002 mm
a) All beginning of pregnancy
b) At the middle of pregnancy
c) Towards the end of pregnancy
d) After termination of pregnancy
143) Towards the end of pregnancy the efficiency of placental membrane is reduced due to
a) Disappearance of cytotrophoblastic layer from most villi.
b) Considerable thinning of connective tissue
c) Fibrinoid deposit appear on the membrane
d) Disappearance of syncytiotrophoblastic layer from surface of placental membrane.
144) A full term fetus takes up about ……………. amount of oxygen per minute from maternal
blood.
a) 15 ml
b) 25 ml
c) 35 ml
d) 45 ml
145) Progesterone secreted by placenta is essential for maintenance of pregnancy by
nd
a) 2 month when corpus luteum secrete.
rd
b) By 3 month when corpus luteum degenerates
th
c) By 4 month when corpus luteum degenerates
th
d) By 5 month when corpus luteum converts to corpus albican
146) The function of placenta includes all except
a) Transportation of O 2 , water, electrolytes
b) Excretion of CO 2 , urea, maternal immunity reaching through fetus through the placenta
gives the fetus immunity against some infection.
c) Act as barriers against bacteria, virus & some harmful substance, permitting exchange
between maternal and fetal blood, preventing antigenic reaction and synthesize several
hormones.
d) Takes part in absorption of food in fetal intestinal tract.
147) ……………… promote uterine growth & development of mammary gland.
a) Progesterone
b) Estrogen
c) Prolactin
d) Gonadotropin
148) Human chorionic gonadotropin is similar in action to
a) FSH
b) LH
c) GNRH
d) Gonadotropin
149) Nitabuch layer is a ………………. layer
a) Limiting

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b) Barrier
c) Conduit
d) Membranous
150) Test for presence of gonadotropin in maternal urine is used to detect pregnancy in
a) Middle stage
b) Early stage
c) Late stage
d) Prior to pregnancy after fertilization
151) Layer’s of placental barrier includes all except
a) Syncytiotrophoblast
b) Cytotrophoblast & mesoderm
c) Endothelium of fetal blood vessel
d) Maternal blood around villus & fetal blood around capillary
152) Somatomammotropin (SMT) has an anti insulin effect on ……………
a) Mother
b) Father
c) Children
d) Offspring
153) Somatomammotropin perform
a) Decrease plasma level glucose & amino acid
b) Increase plasma level glucose & amino acid & enhances glucose utilization by the fetus.
c) Maintain plasma level glucose & amino acid & enhances glucose utilization by the fetus.
d) All of the above.
154) Blood flow through lacunar space in synctiotrophoblast begins on
nd
a) 2 day of pregnancy
th
b) 6 day of pregnancy
th
c) 9 day of pregnancy
th
d) 12 day of pregnancy
155) In a fully formed placenta the intervillous space contains about ………… ml of blood.
a) 50 ml
b) 100 ml
c) 150 ml
d) 200 ml
156) 150 ml of intervillous space maternal blood is replaced
a) 3 to 4 times per minute
b) 6 to 7 times per minute
c) 8 to 9 times per minute
d) 10 to 11 times per minute
157) The placenta is normally attached only to
a) Lower uterine segment
b) Middle uterine segment
c) Upper uterine segment
d) All of the above
158) In placenta privia the placenta is attached partially or completely to
a) Upper uterine segment
b) Middle uterine segment
c) Lower uterine segment
d) External os
159) ………….. type of placenta privia is recognized
a) 2 types
b) 3 types
c) 4 types
d) 5 types
160) First degree placenta privia shows
a) Placenta not extend into lower uterine segment

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b) Placenta extend into lower uterine segment
c) Placenta does not reach the internal os
d) Placenta reaches the internal os
e) b&c
161) Second degree placenta privia shows
a) Placenta reaches the internal os but does not cover it
b) Placenta not reaches the internal os.
c) Placenta reaches the internal os and covers it.
d) Placenta reaches lower uterine segment
e) a & d
162) Third degree placenta privia shows
a) Edge of the placenta covers internal os.
b) When os dilates during child birth the placenta no longer occludes it.
c) Edge of the placenta not cover’s internal os.
d) Placenta fully cover’s internal os.
e) a & b
163) Fourth degree placenta privia shows
a) Placenta completely cover’s the internal os.
b) Placenta occludes completely even after it has dilated.
c) Edge of the placenta completely covers internal os.
d) Edge of the placenta not completely covers internal os.
e) a & b
164) Placenta does not reach internal os but extend into lower uterine segment is seen in
st
a) 1 degree placenta privia
nd
b) 2 degree placenta privia
rd
c) 3 degree placenta privia
th
d) 4 degree placenta privia
165) Placenta reaches internal os, but does not cover it is seen in
st
a) 1 degree placenta privia
nd
b) 2 degree placenta privia
rd
c) 3 degree placenta privia
th
d) 4 degree placenta privia
166) The edge of the placenta covers the internal os but when the os dilates during child birth the
placenta no longer occludes it is seen in.
st
a) 1 degree placenta privia
nd
b) 2 degree placenta privia
rd
c) 3 degree placenta privia
th
d) 4 degree placenta privia
167) The placenta completely cover internal os and occludes the os even after it is dilated is seen
in
st
a) 1 degree placenta privia
nd
b) 2 degree placenta privia
rd
c) 3 degree placenta privia
th
d) 4 degree placenta privia
168) When ovum gets implanted at any site outside the uterus is called
a) Interstitial pregnancy
b) Tubal pregnancy
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Tubal implantation
169) In the tubal pregnancy …………….. get implanted in the uterine tube
a) 2 cell embryo
b) Morulla
c) Blastocyst
d) All the above
170) Rupture of the tube results due to

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a) Tubal implantation
b) Tubal pregnancy
c) Implantation in ovary
d) Ectopic pregnancy
e) All of the above
f) b&d
171) Pregnancy can’t go on to full term is
a) Ectopic pregnancy
b) Tubal pregnancy
c) Tubal Implantation
d) Implantation in ovary
e) a & b
172) After rupture of tube the blastocyst acquires a
a) Primary implantation
b) Secondary implantation
c) Tertiary implantation
d) Quaternary implantation
173) Secondary implantation grows inside
a) Pelvic cavity
b) Cranial cavity
c) Abdominal cavity
d) Both a & c
e) Thoracic cavity
174) Secondary implantation giving rise to an
a) Pelvic pregnancy
b) Abdominal pregnancy
c) Interstitial pregnancy
d) Molar pregnancy
175) …………. may get implanted in interstitial tubal implantation
a) Morulla
b) Blastocyst
c) 2 cell embryo
d) All of the above
176) Interstitial tubal implantation in which blastocyst may get implanted in part of the uterine tube
passing through
a) Uterine wall
b) Upper uterine segment
c) Lower uterine segment
d) Internal os
177) List of implantation comes under types of ectopic pregnancy except
a) Tubal pregnancy
b) Interstitial tubal implantation
c) Implantation in the ovary
d) Implantation in the abdominal ostium of uterine tube
178) Implantation in the ovary may occur while the ovum is
a) Still in ovary
b) In fimbria
c) In abdominal ostium
d) In uterine tube
179) Bidiscoidal is an anomaly seen in
a) Ovary
b) Placenta
c) Uterine tube
d) Uterus
180) Diffuse placental anomaly constitute all the sign & symptom except

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a) Chorionic villi persist all around blastocyst
b) Placenta is thick
c) Placenta is thin
d) Placenta not assumes the shape of a disc.
181) Placenta succenturiate is one of the placental anomalies in which
a) Placenta shows 2 discs
b) Small part of the placenta is separated from the rest of it.
c) Not assume the shape of a disc
d) Peripheral edge of placenta is covered by a circular fold of deciduas.
182) Fenestrated placenta is that placental anomaly in which placenta shows
a) 1 hole in the disc
b) Multiple holes in the disc
c) 2 holes in the disc
d) Disc shows porotic sieve or cribriform like structure
183) Circumvallate placenta is that type of placental anomaly in which placenta shows
a) 2 discs
b) Divided into lobes
c) Peripheral edge is covered by circular fold of decidua
d) Central area of disc is covered by circular fold of decidua.
184) Battle door placenta is that type of placenta in which
a) Umbilical cord is attached to peripheral margin of placenta
b) Umbilical cord is attached to center margin of placenta.
c) Umbilical cord is attached to maternal surface of placenta.
d) Umbilical cord is attached to maternal surface of amniotic cavity.
185) Furcate is a condition when blood vessel divides
a) Before reaching placenta
b) After reaching placenta
c) When reach placenta
d) Inside ramus chorii
186) Velamentous insertion is a condition in which
a) Blood vessels are attached to chorion
b) Blood vessels are attached to amnion when they ramify before reaching to placenta.
c) Blood vessels are attached to amnion when they ramify after reaching to placenta.
d) Blood vessels are attached to maternal surface of placenta & they not ramify.
187) Fetal membrane is made up of
a) Extra embryonic mesoderm & intra embryonic mesoderm
b) Amnion, chorion
c) Decidua basalis & decidua capsularis
d) Amniotic cavity, uterine cavity.
188) Outer wall of extra embryonic coelom is formed by
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d) Intra embryonic mesoderm
189) Inner wall of extra embryonic coelom is formed by
a) Chorion
b) Amnion
c) Extra embryonic Coelom
d) Intra Embryonic Coelom
190) Indicate the correct answer from below the effect of enlargement of amniotic cavity
a) The extra embryo coelom becomes smaller & smaller
b) The extra embryo coelom becomes obliterated
c) The extra embryo coelom becomes larger & larger
d) The intra embryonic coelom becomes larger & larger.
191) The extra embryonic coelom is obliterated by the

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a) Fusion of extra embryonic coelom & intra embryonic coelom.
b) Fusion of amnion & chorion
c) Fusion of amniotic cavity and chorionic cavity
d) None of the above
192) The fused chorion & amnion form
a) Fetal membrane
b) Amnio chorionic membrane
c) Placental membrane
d) Both a & b
193) …………….. formed due to fusion of amnion chorion, decidua capsularis.
a) Wall of uterine cavity
b) Wall of amniotic cavity
c) Wall of chorionic cavity
d) Wall of villi
194) Cause of enlargement of amniotic cavity is
a) Increase in amnion & chorion
b) Increase in amniotic fluid
c) Increase in decidua capsularis
d) Increase in decidua basalis
195) List’s of effects of enlargement of amniotic cavity are except.
a) Expense off and obliteration of uterine cavity.
b) Fusion of decidua capsularis with decidua basalis
c) Increase in amniotic fluid, enlargement of uterus
d) Enlargement of fetus
196) At the time of …………….. the amnio chorionic membrane greatly thinned out along with
deciduas capsularis
a) Fertilization
b) Ovulation
c) Parturition
d) Obliteration
197) Bag of water is
a) Bulging of membrane through vagina.
b) Bulging of membrane through cervical canal.
c) Bulging of membrane through deciduas.
d) Bulging of membrane through uterine wall.
198) The list of functions performed by amniotic fluid except.
a) Provide support for the delicate tissue of the growing embryo.
b) Allows free movement & protect the fetus from external environment.
c) Avoid adhesion of fetus to amnion & injury to fetus.
d) Cause the fetus to delivered out of cervical canal.
199) The amniotic fluid quantity till full term is about
a) One liter
b) Two liters
c) Three liters
d) Four liters
200) The quantity of amniotic fluid increase and is about …………. in hydramnious
a) 1 lit.
b) 1.5 lit
c) 2 lit.
d) 2.5 lit
201) The amniotic fluid is replaced every 3 hrs due to
a) Fluid flows out through the vaginal canal
b) Constant exchange of water between amniotic fluid & maternal blood.
c) Replace of amniotic fluid by absorption through decidua & fetus.
d) Fetus link the amniotic fluid is absorbed through blood & transferred to maternal blood
through placenta.

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e) b&d
202) Metabolic waste of intra uterine fetus is removed through.
a) Kidney
b) Placenta
c) Uterine artery
d) Maternal blood
e) b & d
203) Hydramnios is associated with
a) Atresia of stomach
b) Atresia of esophagus
c) Atresia of duodenum
d) Diverication of Rectus sheath
204) Oligohydramnios is
a) No fluid in amniotic cavity
b) Too little or scanty fluid in amniotic cavity
c) Medium amount of fluid in amniotic cavity
d) Excess fluid in amniotic cavity
205) Hydramnios is
a) No fluid in amniotic cavity.
b) Too little or scanty fluid in amniotic cavity.
c) Medium amount of fluid in amniotic cavity.
d) Excess amount of fluid in amniotic cavity.
206) Oligohydramnios is associated with
a) Atresia of esophagus
b) Renal agenesis
c) Atresia of duodenum
d) Atresia of stomach
207) In renal agenesis …………… happens
a) No urine is added to the amniotic fluid.
b) Kidney completely degenerates
c) Ureter shows narrowness and degeneration
d) Fetus not pass stool
208) Trophoblast differentiates in syncytio & cytotrophoblast in.
th
a) 6 day
th
b) 8 day
th
c) 10 day
th
d) 12 day
209) Lacuna appears in the syncytium
th
a) 6 day
th
b) 7 day
th
c) 8 day
th
d) 9 day
210) Embryo gets completely implanted in the endometrium in
th
a) 9 day
th
b) 10 day
th
c) 11 day
th
d) 12 day
211) Primary villi are formed
th
a) 11 day
th
b) 12 day
th
c) 13 day
th
d) 14 day
212) Secondary & tertiary villi are seen on
th
a) 16 day
th
b) 17 day

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th
c) 18 day
th
d) 19 day
213) A definitive placenta is formed in
a) 2 months
b) 4 months
c) 6 months
d) 8 months
214) Villi are seen around trophoblast in
a) 2 months
b) 4 months
c) 6 months
d) 8 months
215) Placenta shed about
a) 15 minutes after birth
b) 30 minutes after birth
c) 45 minutes after birth
d) 1 hr after birth

ANSWER KEYS

1) b 2) c 3) b 4) b 5) a 6) b 7) c 8) d 9) d 10) b 11) b 12) a


13) b 14) b 15) d 16) a 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) b 21) c 22) a 23) a 24) d
25) c 26) a 27) c 28) c 29) c 30) a 31) c 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) b 36) a
37) a 38) b 39) b 40) a 41) d 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) b 46) a 47) c 48) b
49) d 50) e 51) c 52) b 53) d 54) b 55) b 56) a 57) c 58) a 59) b 60) c
61) c 62) c 63) b 64) b 65) c 66) a 67) a 68) a 69) c 70) b 71) b 72) b
73) b 74) a 75) b 76) c 77) d 78) a 79) d 80) d 81) a 82) a 83) b 84) b
85) b 86) c 87) c 88) b 89) c 90) c 91) a 92) b 93) a 94) a 95) b 96) a
97) c 98) a 99) c 100) d 101) b 102) c 103) a 104)a 105) a 106) a 107) b 108) b
109) c 110) a 111) d 112) a 113) d 114) d 115) a 116) b 117) c 118) d 119) a 120) a
121) b 122) b 123) b 124) b 125) b 126) b 127) b 128) b 129) b 130) a 131) b 132) c
133) c 134) b 135) b 136) b 137) d 138) d 139) b 140) c 141) c 142) c 143) c 144) b
145) c 146) d 147) b 148) b 149) a 150) b 151) d 152) a 153) b 154) c 155) c 156) a
157) c 158) c 159) c 160) e 161) e 162) e 163) e 164) a 165) b 166) c 167) d 168) c
169) c 170) b 171) e 172) b 173) d 174) b 175) b 176) a 177) d 178) a 179) b 180) b
181) b 182) a 183) c 184) a 185) a 186) b 187) b 188) b 189) b 190) a 191) b 192) d
193) b 194) c 195) d 196) c 197) a 198) d 199) a 200) b 201) e 202) e 203) b 204) b
205) d 206) b 207) a 208) b 209) d 210) c 211) c 212) a 213) b 214) a 215) b

***********

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CHAPTER – 7
FORMATION OF TISSUE OF THE BODY
1) Epithelium may originate from
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Ectoderm, Endoderm, Mesoderm
2) All the statement are true about epithelium except
a) Lines external surface of the body
b) Lines terminal parts of passages.
c) Lines opening outside & derived from ectoderm
d) Derived from endoderm.
3) All the statements are true about epithelium except
a) Lining of the gut and of organs that develop as diverticula
b) Endodermal in origin
c) Lines most of the urogenital tract derived from mesoderm & some part are endodermal
origin
d) Lining periosteum
4) Blood cells are derived from
a) Mesenchyme
b) Prosenchyme
c) Rhombenchyme
d) All of the above
5) ……………… is not made up of mesenchyme
a) Connective tissue & liver
b) Cartilage & bone
c) Blood & spleen
d) Lymphocyte & bone marrow
6) Direct ossification is
a) Endochondral ossification
b) Intra membranous ossification
c) Mesenchymal condensation
d) All of the above
e) Intra cartilaginous ossification
7) Cartilaginous model is first formed in
a) Endochondral ossification
b) Intra membranous ossification
c) Mesenchymal condensation
d) Intra cartilaginous ossification
8) ………………. ossification is later replaces by bone.
a) Intra membranous ossification
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Mesenchymal condensation
d) Intra cartilaginous ossification
9) ……………… ossification shows direct ossification of membrane.
a) Intracartilagenous ossification
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Intra membranous ossification
d) Mesenchymal condensation
10) The area where ossification starts is called
a) Region of ossification
b) Centre of ossification
c) Mode of ossification
d) Locality of ossification

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e) Ossification point
11) The area where ossification ends is called
a) Centre of ossification
b) Primary centre
c) Secondary Centre
d) Tertiary Centre
12) The area of bone where ossification starts is called
a) Diaphysis or shaft
b) Epiphysis
c) Metaphysis
d) All of the above
13) Ossification starts from
a) Primary centre
b) Secondary Centre
c) Tertiary Centre
d) Quaternary Centre
14) Ossification ends at
a) Primary centre of ossification
b) Secondary centre of ossification
c) Tertiary Centre of ossification
d) Quaternary Centre of ossification
15) Primary Centre of ossification is related to
a) Shaft or diaphysis
b) Epiphysis
c) Metaphysis
d) Active zone of Bone growth
16) Intra membranous ossification of membrane lead to formation of some bone involve
a) Indirect ossification
b) Indirect condensation
c) Direction ossification
d) Direct condensation
17) In the case of long bone shaft is formed by ……………… of ossification from the primary
centre
a) Extension
b) Torsion
c) Compression
d) Unification
18) Secondary centre is confined to
a) Centre of ossification
b) Middle of the bone or shaft
c) Bony end
d) Junction between diaphysis & epiphysis
19) The part of the bone ossified from a secondary centre is called
a) Diaphysis
b) Metaphysis
c) Epiphysis
d) Active zone of bone growth
20) In the growing bone the diaphysis and epiphysis are separated by
a) Diaphyseal plate
b) Metaphyseal plate
c) Epiphyseal plate
d) Cartilaginous plate
21) Epiphyseal plate is made up of
a) Bone
b) Cartilage

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c) Medullary Interstitium
d) Perforating fiber of Sharpey
22) Growth takes place mainly at epiphyseal plate is
a) Width of bone
b) Length of bone
c) Length of medullary cavity
d) Length of width of epiphyseal plate
23) The portion of diaphysis adjoining the epiphyseal plate is called
a) Metaphysis
b) Perforating fiber of Sharpey
c) Condyle
d) Epicondyle
24) Sclerotome helps to form
a) Dermis of skin
b) Skeletal muscle
c) Vertebral column & ribs
d) Pericardium & heart
25) …………………. undergo division to form dermatome, myotome, sclerotome
a) Somites
b) Extra embryonic mesoderm
c) Intra embryonic mesoderm
d) Embryonic disc
26) Skeletal muscle is derived from
a) Only from somites
b) Only from mesenchyme
c) Partly from somites & partly from mesoderm
d) Only from sclerotome
27) ……………….. derived from mesenchyme related and blood vessels.
a) Smooth muscle
b) Skeletal muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Neuron
28) Cardiac muscle is derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
29) Neurons & many neuroglial cells are formed in the …………….. .
a) Ectoderm
b) Neural tube
c) Neural plate
d) Mesoderm
30) The myelin sheath of the peripheral nerve are derived from
a) Oligodendrocytes
b) Schwann cell
c) Neuroglial cell
d) Neural tube
31) Myelin sheath of CNS is derived from
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Stellate cell
d) Basket cell
32) Types of basic tissues present in the body are …………
a) 1
b) 2

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c) 3
d) 4
33) …………….. is arranged in form of continuous sheet
a) Connective tissue
b) Epithelial tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue
e) a & b
34) ……………… lines the external & internal surface of the body & body cavities.
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue
35) Types of connective tissue are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
36) Adipose tissue is a type of
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Muscular tissue
c) Nervous tissue
d) Connective tissue
37) Blood, cartilage & bone are
a) Loose connective tissue
b) Dense connective tissue
c) Special connective tissue
d) General connective tissue
38) Striated fibers are
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous Tissue
39) Axon, dendrites are
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Nervous tissue
d) Muscular tissue
40) Epithelium lining greater part of urogenital tract is derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
41) Epithelium covering some surface near exterior & external surface is derived from
a) Mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
42) Epithelium of most of the gut are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
43) Epithelium lining structure arising as diverticulum are derived from
a) Ectoderm

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b) Mesoderm
c) Entoderm
d) Endoderm
44) Epithelium of cornea & conjunctiva are derived from
a) Mesoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
45) Epithelium of mammary gland are derived from
a) Mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
46) Epithelium of skin, hair follicle are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
47) Epithelium of sweat & sebaceous gland are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
48) Epithelium of external acoustic meatus and outer surface of tympanic membrane are derived
from
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
49) Epithelium of some part of mouth, lower part of anal canal is derived from
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
50) Epithelium of terminal part of male urethra, part of the female external genetalia are derived
from
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
51) Epithelium of entire gut except part of the mouth and anal canal are derived from
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
52) Epithelium of auditory tube and middle ear is derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
53) Epithelium of respiratory tract is derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm

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54) Epithelium of part of urinary bladder urethra & vagina is derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
55) Epithelium of tubules of kidneys, ureter & trigone of urinary bladder are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
56) Uterine Epithelium of tube, uterus, part of vagina are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
57) Epithelium of testis and its duct system are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Entoderm
58) Epithelium lines endothelium of heart, blood vessels and lymphatic are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
59) Epithelium of peritoneal, pericardial & pleural cavities and cavities of the joint are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
60) Gland of all nature develops as a ………… from epithelial surfaces
a) Pouch
b) Diverticulum
c) Stigma
d) Peg
61) Parotid gland develops from an element formed by
a) Multiple diverticulums
b) Branching of multiple diverticulums
c) Branching of one diverticulum
d) One diverticulum
62) Lacrimal gland & prostrate derived from element formed by
a) Single diverticulum
b) Multiple diverticulums
c) Two diverticulums
d) Part of the diverticulum
63) The opening of diet of the gland is situated
a) At the diverticula
b) At the site of the original out growth
c) At the tip of the diverticula
d) At the branching process of diverticula
64) Which gland loses all contact with the epithelial surface from which it takes origin?
a) Thyroid
b) Anterior part of pituitary
c) Pineal gland
d) a & b

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e) Pancreas
65) Diverticula are generally …………… to begin with
a) Liquid
b) Solid
c) Gas
d) All of the above
66) Diverticula are …………. later on
a) Canalized
b) Branched
c) Coiled
d) Spiralized
67) ………….. part of the diverticulum forms the duct system
a) Proximal
b) Middle
c) Distal
d) None of the above
68) ……………… part of the diverticula forms the secretary element
a) Proximal
b) Middle
c) Distal
d) None of the above
69) Depending on the epithelium prostrate is of
a) Ectodermal origin
b) Mesodermal origin
c) Endodermal origin
d) Mixed origin
70) Depending on the epithelium ………….. takes origin from endoderm
a) Liver, pancreas
b) Sebaceous, sweat gland
c) Adrenal cortex
d) Prostrate
71) Depending on the epithelium adrenal cortex takes origin from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Mixed origin
72) Mesenchyme is a …………… tissue
a) Compact
b) Loose
c) Porous
d) Discrete
73) Primitive heart tubes are formed from
a) Endothelial cells
b) Epithelial cells
c) Mesothelial cells
d) Mixed cells
74) Binding, supporting & strengthening all over body are provided by
a) Epithelial tissue
b) Connective tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue
75) All are the components of connective tissue except
a) Cells
b) Fibers
c) Ground substances

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d) Roof substances
76) Fibers & ground substance are synthesized by ………… of the connective tissue.
a) Nucleus
b) Cell
c) Plasma membrane
d) Nuclear membrane
77) Mesenchymal cell’s get converted into fibroblasts
a) At the site of formation of dense connective tissue.
b) At the site of formation of loose connective tissue.
c) At the site of formation of epithelial tissue.
d) At the site of formation of nervous tissue.
78) The list of functions performed by fibroblasts except
a) Secrete the ground substance
b) Synthesize collagen fibers
c) Synthesize reticular & elastic fibers.
d) Lay down osteoblast cells
79) Blood cells are formed in
a) Early embryonic life before appearance of somites.
b) Middle embryonic life before appearance of somites
c) Late embryonic life after appearance of somites
d) Late embryonic life before appearance of somites
80) Mesenchymal cell present in the developing connective tissue also get converted to lists of
structure except
a) Histiocytes
b) Mast cells
c) Plasma cell & fat cells
d) Chondrocytes
81) Formation of blood cells & blood vessels is first seen in
rd
a) 3 week of embryonic life.
th
b) 4 week of embryonic life.
th
c) 5 week of embryonic life.
th
d) 6 week of embryonic life.
st
82) Formation of blood vessels & blood cells is 1 seen in the
a) Wall of chorionic villi
b) Wall of yolk sac, around alantoic diverticulum & in the connecting stalk
c) Wall of amniotic sac.
d) Wall of deciduas capsularis
83) ……………. is formed when cluster of mesodermal cell aggregate
a) Blood brain barrier
b) Blood Islands, haemangioblast
c) Stem cells
d) Precursor cell
e) b & d
84) Precursor of all blood cells is
a) Haemangioblast
b) Hematopoietic stem cells
c) Angioblasts
d) Stem cells
85) Hematopoietic stem cells are the cells present in the
a) Periphery of the blood islands
b) Centre of the blood islands
c) In between periphery & centre
d) Outside blood islands.
86) Precursor of the blood vessels is
a) Haemangioblasts

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b) Hematopoietic stem cells
c) Angioblasts
d) Blood islands
87) Angioblast cells are present in the
a) Periphery of the blood islands
b) Centre of the blood islands
c) In between periphery & centre
d) Outside blood islands
88) Blood island is a structure of
a) Amniotic sac
b) Yolk sac
c) Decidua capsularis
d) Decidua basalis
89) Hematopoietic stem cells first from
a) Colonies in liver
b) Mesoderm surrounding developing aorta
c) Blood islands
d) Blood cells
90) Indicate the correct order of development
a) Pleuripotent haemal stem cell – Totipotent Haemal stem cell – Pleuripotent Lymphoid
stem cells – T – B cell precursors
b) Totipotent haemal stem cell --- pleuripotent haemal stem cell --- pleuripotent lymphoid
stem cells --- T-B cells precursors
c) Totipotent haemal stem cells ---- T-B cells precursors ---- Pleuripotent haemal stem cells
--- pleuripotent lymphoid stem cells
d) Totipotent haemal stem cells --- T-B cells precursors --- Pleuripotent haemal stem cell ---
Lymphocytes precursors
91) The precursor cells of platelets is
a) Osteoblast
b) Chondroblast
c) Haemangioblast
d) Megakaryo blasts
92) Blood cells arising from blood islands are soon replaced by
a) Temporary stem cell
b) Permanent stem cell
c) Mesoderm surrounding aorta
d) b & c
e) Haemocytoblast
93) Permanent stem cells formed from ……………….
a) Permanent mesoderm surrounding aorta
b) Colonies in the liver
c) Colony forming unit for erythrocyte
d) Colony forming unit for monocyte
94) Formation of blood starts in liver in
a) Early embryonic period
b) Middle embryonic period
c) Late embryonic period
d) All of the above
95) Liver remains an important site of blood cell formation till the
th
a) 4 month of IUL
th
b) 5 month of IUL
th
c) 6 month of IUL
th
d) 7 Month of IUL
96) Definitive hematopoietic stem cells from the liver migrate to colonize the bone marrow
a) Initial period of prenatal life

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b) Middle period of prenatal life
c) Late period of prenatal life
d) Late period of postnatal life
97) The blood formation is mainly seen in the bone marrow
a) At the time of birth
b) At the time of puberty
c) At the time of 6 to 7 years
d) At the time of adolescent period
98) ……………… give rise to colony forming unit
a) Totipotent haemal stem cell
b) Pleuripotent lymphoid stem cell
c) Pleuripotent haemal stem cell
d) All of the above
99) The rupture erythrocyte stem cells are
a) Colony forming unit
b) Burst forming unit
c) Erythrocyte forming unit
d) Haemangioblast forming unit
100) Stem cells from colony forming unit are differentiate only into
a) One line of blood cells
b) Two line of blood cells
c) Three line of blood cells
d) Four line of blood cells
101) After totipotent haemal stem cell formation ………… forms colony forming unit
a) Father cell
b) Mother cell
c) Daughter cell
d) Brother cell
102) The below mentioned are list of organs which is the main sites of blood formation except
a) Bone marrow
b) Lymph node
c) Thymus & spleen
d) Liver
103) Precursor of blood cells originate from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
104) Blood forming cells differentiates in relation to origin as endodermal
a) Wall of yolk sac
b) Liver
c) a & b
d) Thymus, spleen, lymph node
105) Cartilage is formed from
a) Chondroblasts
b) Mesenchyme
c) Mesenchymal condensation
d) All of the above
106) Intercellular substance of cartilage laid down under the influence of
a) Mesenchyme
b) Chondroblast
c) Chondrocytes
d) Mesenchymal stem cell.
107) ……………. Is converted to chondroblast when get rounded.
a) Mesenchyme

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b) Mesenchymal cell
c) Chondrocytes
d) All of the above
108) Imprisoned chondroblasts within the substance of the developing cartilage are
a) Chondroblastic mesenchymal cell
b) Chondroblastic stem cell
c) Chondrocytes
d) Mesenchyme
109) Collagen fibers are numerous in
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Fibro cartilage
c) Elastic cartilage
d) Perichondrium
110) Perichondrium is a ……………….
a) Fibrous membrane
b) Mesenchymal cell surrounding the surface of the developing cartilage
c) a & b
d) Chondrocytic cell surrounding the surface of the developing bone.
111) Bone forming cells are
a) Osteocytes
b) Osteoblasts
c) Chondroblast
d) Lymphoblast’s
112) Osteoblasts are seen in the region normally where
a) Bone shows abnormal growth
b) Where bone is being laid down
c) Where bone is fractured
d) Where bone apposes with other bone
113) The cytoplasm of osteoblast is
a) Abundant eosinophilic
b) Abundant nutrophilic
c) Abundant basophilic
d) Abundant monocytic
114) Osteoclasts are seen where
a) The bone is susceptible to growth
b) The bone is being absorbed
c) At junction of diaphysis & epiphysis
d) At junction of metaphysic & epiphysis
115) Osteoclast on the other hand responsible for
a) Bone adding
b) Bone removal
c) Bone growth
d) Bone degeneration
116) The process of bone formation is called
a) Chondrification
b) Ossification
c) Membranous ossification
d) Condensation
117) All bone is of
a) Ectodermal origin
b) Endodermal origin
c) Mesodermal origin
d) Entodermal origin
118) Bone formation is preceded by the formation of
a) Bony model

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b) Cartilaginous model
c) Diaphysis model
d) Epiphysis model
119) Cartilage subsequently replaced by
a) Perforating fiber of Sharpey
b) Perichondrium
c) Periosteum
d) Bone
120) Conversion of cartilaginous model to bone is called
a) Intra membranous ossification
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Intra cartilaginous ossification
d) All of the above
121) Bone formed by endochondral ossification is called
a) Cartilage bone
b) Adult bone
c) Woven bone
d) a & c
122) When bone laid down indirectly in a fibrous membrane is called
a) Endochondral ossification
b) Intra membranous ossification
c) Intra cartilaginous ossification
d) None of the above
123) The type of bone formed when bone formation is not preceeded by formation of cartilaginous
model
a) Cartilage bone
b) Membrane bone
c) Adult bone
d) Woven bone
124) Mesenchymal cells on the surface of cartilage form a membrane called
a) Perichondrium
b) Periosteum
c) Periosteal bud
d) Osteiod
e) Lamellas
125) Perichondrial membrane over the surface of cartilage is formed by
a) Chondroblast cell
b) Mesenchymal cell
c) Osteoblast cell
d) Lymphoblast Cell
126) The inter cellular substance in the enlarged cartilage cell become calcified under the influence
of an enzyme
a) Acidic phosphates
b) Alkaline phosphates
c) Diesterase
d) Triesterase
127) Primary areolas are
a) Filled space which is living behind empty space
b) Empty space living behind the nutrition to the cells is thus cut off and they die.
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
128) The mass of vessels and cells which is accompanied by osteogenic cell are called
a) Periosteal bud
b) Endosteal bud
c) Medullary bud

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d) Periosteal vessels
129) The walls of secondary areola formed by thin layers of ……………. .
a) Calcified matrix
b) Periosteal cell
c) Periosteal bud
d) Medullary bud
130) Secondary area is created because
a) Periosteal bud subjected to cell division
b) Periosteal bud eats away much of the calcified matrix forming wall of the primary areola
& thus created large cavities
c) Endosteal bud is undergoing cell division
d) All of the above
131) The wall of secondary area is formed by
a) Dissolved calcified matrix
b) Undissolved calcified matrix
c) Osteoblast
d) Osteocytes
132) Ossein fibrils laid down by
a) Chondroblast
b) Osteoblasts
c) Osteocytes
d) Osteoids
133) Bony trabeculaes are formed because of overlying of
a) 2 lamellae’s
b) 3 lamellae’s
c) 4 lamellae’s
d) 5 lamellae’s
e) More than 2 lamellae’s
134) …………. responsible for formation of an uncalcified matrix.
a) Surrounding dead & dying cartilage cell
b) A zone of hypertrophied cartilage cell
c) A zone of normal cartilage cell
d) A zone of cartilage cell where there is considerable mitotic activity.
135) Bone formed in limbs is because of
a) Mesenchymal condensation
b) Endodermal condensation
c) Ectodermal condensation
d) Mixed in nature
136) Various zones are seen in a process of development of calcified matrix of bone is because of
a) Calcification with replacement of superficial cartilage cells.
b) Calcification with replacement of deep cartilage cells.
c) Calcification with replacement of superficial perichondrium.
d) Calcification with replacement of superficial periosteum.
137) Cartilaginous model is seen in the process of bony development because of
a) Conversion of endochondral ossification
b) Conversion of mesenchymal condensation
c) Conversion of intramembranous ossification
d) Conversion of intra cartilaginous ossification
138) Deep layer of cartilaginous model shows
a) Chondrogenic cells
b) Osteogenic cells
c) Mesenchymal cells
d) Periosteal cells
139) ………….. zone of cartilage shows hypertrophied nature
a) Zone 1

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b) Zone 2
c) Zone 3
d) Zone 4
140) Endochondral ossification starts in small area of the
a) Upper end of bone
b) Lower end of bone
c) Shaft
d) All of the above
141) Primary centre of ossification shows
a) Mesenchymal condensation
b) Endochondral ossification
c) Intra membranous ossification
d) Intra cartilaginous ossification
142) Enlargement of cartilaginous model is followed after
a) Shifting of primary centre of ossification towards end of the shaft.
b) Conversion of primary centre to secondary centre of ossification.
c) Intra cartilaginous ossification
d) Intra membranous ossification
143) Indicate the correct sequence of formation of periosteum
a) Onset of endochondral ossification --- appearance of primary centre --- perichondrium ---
periosteum.
b) Appearance of primary centre --- onset of endochondral ossification ---- perichondrium --
-- periosteum.
c) Perichondrium ----- onset of endochondral ossification ----- Appearance of primary centre
---- periosteum
d) Onset of endochondral ossification --- perichondrium ---- appearance of primary centre --
- periosteum.

144) The osteogenic cells in its deeper layer of periosteum lay down bone on the surface of
cartilaginous model by
a) Intra cartilaginous ossification
b) Intra membranous ossification
c) Endochondral ossification
d) Mesenchymal condensation
145) The intramembranous ossification of osteogenic cells which surrounds the cartilaginous shaft
are called
a) Periosteal band
b) Periosteal collar
c) Periosteum
d) Periosteal stigma
146) Periosteal collar rapidly extends towards the
a) Beginning of cartilaginous model
b) Middle of cartilaginous model
c) End of cartilaginous model
d) Surrounding the shaft
147) The periosteal collar acts as a
a) Band
b) Strip
c) Splint
d) Buttress
148) Most of the ……………. of the bone derived from periosteal collar.
a) Metaphysis
b) Epiphysis
c) Shaft or diaphysis
d) Periosteum
149) End of the bone is

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a) Bone forming
b) Cartilage forming
c) Periosteal buds forming
d) Mesenchyme forming
150) The portion of the bone formed from one secondary centre is called an
a) Diaphysis
b) Metaphysis
c) Epiphysis
d) All of the above
151) The typical feature which seen in epiphysis plate is
a) Epiphysis not extends into it.
b) Diaphysis not extends into it.
c) Ossification not extends into it either from epiphysis or from diaphysis.
d) All of the above.
152) Epiphyseal plate is made up of
a) Bone
b) Cartilage
c) Perforating fiber of Sharpey
d) Perichondrium
153) ……………… lay down bone around the shaft of the cartilaginous model.
a) Diaphysis
b) Peirosteum
c) Perichondrium
d) Endosteum
154) Osteoclast lines
a) External surface of the shaft
b) Internal surface of the shaft
c) Both external and internal surface
d) None of the above
155) The osteoclast removed from the inside of shaft because
a) Bone lay down inside the shaft
b) Bone lay down outside the shaft
c) Bone lay down inside or outside the shaft
d) None of the above
156) Marrow cavity usually extend towards
a) Beginning of the diaphysis
b) Middle of the diaphysis
c) End of the diaphysis
d) Epiphysis of the diaphysis
e) Epiphyseal plate
157) Periosteum is made up of ………… (Wall of shaft) process.
a) Intra cartilaginous ossification
b) Intra membranous ossification
c) Endochondral ossification
d) Mesenchymal condensation
158) Depending upon arrangement of cells epiphyseal plate have ……….. zones.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
159) The list of morphology shown by zone of resting cartilage of epiphyseal plate except
a) Cells are small & irregularly arranged.
b) Cells are larger and are undergo repeated mitosis & multiply come to arrange in parallel
columns.
c) Separated by bars of inter cellular matrix & matrix is calcified.

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d) Cells are arranged in helix pattern & undergo mitosis
e) b, c d
160) Zone of proliferating cartilage of epiphyseal plate shows morphology except.
a) Cells are small and irregularly arranged.
b) Cells are larger and are undergoing repeated mitosis & multiply arranged in parallel
columns separated by bars of intercellular matrix
c) Cells become still larger and the matrix becomes calcified.
d) Cells are arranged in helix pattern.
e) a, c d

161) Zone of calcification of epiphyseal plate shows


a) Cells are small and irregularly arranged.
b) Cells are larger & undergoing repeated mitosis & multiply & come to be arranged in
parallel columns.
c) Cells are larger & the matrix is calcified.
d) Cells loose its cell membrane
162) Metaphysis is
a) The portion of the epiphysis adjoining the epiphyseal plate.
b) The portion of the diaphysis adjoining the epiphyseal plate.
c) The portion of the diaphysis adjoining the epiphysis.
d) None of the above.
163) Region of active bone formation is
a) Epiphysis
b) Metaphysis
c) Diaphysis
d) Epiphyseal plate
164) Calcium turn over function is most active in ……….. part of bone
a) Epiphysis
b) Metaphysis
c) Diaphysis
d) Epiphyseal plate
165) Interstitial growth in the bony tissue takes place by
a) Multiplication of cell
b) Increase in intercellular material
c) a & b
d) Increase in throughout substance of tissue
166) Appositional growth of bone takes place by
a) Multiplication of cell
b) Increase in intercellular material
c) Deposition of more bone on its surface or at its end
d) a & b
167) Bone grow only by
a) Interstitial growth
b) Appositional growth
c) Remodeling
d) Internal Remodeling
168) For proper maintenance of shape of the bone …………… is essential
a) Cell multiplication
b) Disappearance of some original bone from some areas.
c) Deposition of more bone on its surface or at its end.
d) Increase in intra cellular material
169) The process of removal of unwanted bone is called
a) Remodeling
b) Interstitial growth
c) Appositional growth
d) All of the above

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170) Fit of Trabeculae of spongy bone & Haversian system of compact bone for bearing stresses
imposed on them is called
a) Remodeling
b) Internal remodeling
c) Appositional growth
d) Interstitial growth.
171) Disorder end excessive proliferation of cartilage cell in the epiphyseal plate or failure of
normally formed cartilage to be replaced by bone leads to formation of irregular cartilage
within metaphysis is called
a) Dyschondroplasia or enchondromatosis
b) Exostosis
c) Osteogenesis imperfecta
d) Fibrinous dysplasia
172) Abnormal masses of bone may be formed in the region of the metaphysis & may protrude
from the bone such protrusion is called.
a) Exostosis
b) Dyschondroplasia
c) Osteogenesis imperfecta
d) Fibrinous dysplasia
173) ……………. results interferes with the process of remodeling of bone end
a) Enchondromatosis
b) Multiple exostoses or diaphyseal aclasia
c) Osteogenesis imperfecta
d) Fibrous dysplasia
174) Formation of abnormal mass of bone in the region of metaphysis is called
a) Multiple exostoses or diaphyseal aclasia
b) Osteogenesis imperfecta
c) Fibrous dysplasia
d) Enchondromatosis
175) Defective calcification of bone is called
a) Fibrous dysplasia
b) Osteogenesis imperfecta
c) Exostosis
d) Osteoporosis
176) Part of bone replaced by fibrous tissue
a) Osteosclerosis
b) Fibrous dysplasia
c) Osteogenesis impertecta
d) Exostoses
177) Increased density of bone is called
a) Osteosclerosis
b) Osteopetrosis or marble bone disease
c) Achondroplasia
d) Chondro osteo dystrophy
178) Defective calcification of bone may lead to
a) Arise of multiple tumor at bony end
b) Multiple fractures
c) Dwarf bone
d) Short vertebral column
179) Insufficient or disorderly formation of bone in the region of the epiphyseal cartilage is called
a) Achondroplasia
b) Osteosclerosis
c) Osteopetrosis
d) Chondro osteo dystrophy
180) Achondroplasia interferes with

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a) Growth of short bone
b) Growth of long bone
c) Growth of irregular bone
d) Growth of pneumatic bone
181) The long bone becomes dwarf in
a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
b) Achondroplasia
c) Fibrous dysplasia
d) Osteosclerosis
182) Chondro-osteo dystrophy shows
a) Normal vertebral column short limb
b) Normal limb short vertebral column
c) Short limb short vertebral column
d) All of the above
183) Associated anomalies seen in cleido-cranial dysostosis is
a) Deformities of skull
b) Deformities of Vertebral column
c) Deformities of sternum, clavicle and skull
d) Deformities of femur
184) Achondroplasia & exostoses are confined to
a) Woven bone
b) Membrane bone
c) Cartilage bone
d) Compact bone
185) Number of somite is seen on
a) Either side of the notochordal canal
b) Either end of the neural tube
c) On the surface of prochordal plate
d) On the roof of intra embryonic coelom
186) The ventro medial part of somite is called
a) Dermatome
b) Myotome
c) Sclerotome
d) Preoccipital somite
187) Vertebral column & ribs are developed from
a) Myotome
b) Dermatome
c) Sclerotome
d) Pre occipital somite
188) The lateral part of somite is called
a) Myotome
b) Dermatome
c) Sclerotome
d) Pre occipital somite
189) Dermatome lie
a) Deep to endoderm
b) Deep to ectoderm
c) Deep to mesoderm
d) Deep to entoderm
190) Dermatome gives rise to
a) Vertebral column
b) Ribs
c) Skin & subcutaneous tissue
d) Peritoneum
191) The intermediate part of somite is called

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a) Dermatome
b) Sclerotome
c) Myotome
d) Preoccipital somite
192) Sclerotome of somite lies in…………… of body
a) Lateral side
b) Ventromedial side
c) Intermediate aspect
d) Dorsolateral side
193) Myotome gives rise to
a) Vertebral column
b) Rib
c) Striated muscle
d) Peritoneum
194) Dermatome lies in
a) Lateral part of somite
b) Dorsolateral part of somite
c) Ventromedial part of somite
d) Intermediate part of somite
195) Myotome lies in
a) Lateral part of somite
b) Dorsolateral part of somite
c) Ventro medial part of somite
d) Intermediate part of somite
196) Myotome gives rise to
a) Heart
b) Skeletal muscle
c) Striated muscle
d) Unstriated muscle
e) Smooth muscle
197) In the cervical, thoracic, lumbar & sacral region one spinal nerve innervates each …………...
a) Sclerotome
b) Dermatome
c) Myotome
d) Preoccipital somite
198) In the ………………. region the somites exceed the member of spinal nerves
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
e) Coccygeal
199) Pre occipital somite & occipital somite are …………. to first cervical somite.
a) Cranial
b) Caudal
c) Mid ventral
d) Dorsolateral
200) Muscle of tongue & Hypoglossal nerve laterally arises from
a) Occipital somite
b) Pre occipital somite
c) Sclerotome
d) Dermatome
201) Pre occipital somites supplies
st nd
a) 1 , 2 cranial nerve
rd th th
b) 3 , 4 , 6 cranial nerve
th th
c) 7 , 8 cranial nerve

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th th th th
d) 9 , 10 , 11 , 12 nerve
rd th th
202) 3 , 4 , 6 cranial nerve arises from
a) Occipital somite
b) Pre occipital somite
c) Cervical somite
d) Paraxial mesoderm
203) Occipital somite gives rise to
a) Muscle of pharynx & pharyngeal plexus
b) Muscle of larynx & vagoaccessory complex
c) Muscle of tongue & hypoglossal nerve
d) Muscle of soft palate & pharyngeal plexus
204) Segmental thoracic nerve is well connected to
a) Sclerotome
b) Dermatome
c) Myotome
d) Pre occipital somite
205) Musculature of body & limb is derived from
a) Sclerotome
b) Dermatome
c) Myotome
d) Occipital somite
206) Occipital myotome gives rise to
a) Muscle of tongue
b) Muscle of pharynx
c) Muscle of larynx
d) Muscle of soft palate
207) Derivative of pre occipital myotome is extrinsic muscle of eyeball
a) Extrinsic muscle of eyeball
b) Intrinsic muscle of eyeball
c) Extrinsic muscle of tongue
d) Intrinsic muscle of tongue
208) Extrinsic muscles of eyeball are derived from
a) Occipital myotome
b) Pre occipital myotome
c) Dermatome
d) Sclerotome
209) The dorsal part of pre occipital myotome of neck & trunk is called
a) Somatomere
b) Epimere
c) Hypomere
d) Myotome
210) Epimere is supplied by
a) Ventral primary ramus of spinal nerve
b) Dorsal primary ramus of spinal nerve
c) Inter costal nerve
d) Later ramus of spinal nerve
e) Posterior ramus of spinal nerve
211) Hypomere is supplied by
a) Inter costal nerve
b) Posterior ramus of spinal nerve
c) Ventral ramus of spinal nerve
d) Lateral ramus of spinal nerve
e) All of the above
212) Hypomere gives origin to
a) Muscles of Eyeball

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b) Muscles of larynx & pharynx
c) Muscles of body wall & limbs
d) Muscles of soft palate
213) Striated muscle arises from
a) Myotome roof
b) In situ from mesenchyme of myotome
c) Sclerotome
d) Dermatome
214) From in situ of mesenchyme of myotome …………. arise
a) Muscles of tongue
b) Hypoglossal nerve
c) Muscles of anterior abdominal wall, thoracic wall & striated muscle.
d) Muscles of larynx, pharynx & soft palate
215) Smooth muscle mostly derived from
a) Myotome
b) Sclerotome
c) Dermatome
d) Mesenchyme
216) Smooth muscle in the wall of viscera is formed from
a) Somatopleuric mesoderm
b) Splanchno pleuric mesoderm
c) Intermediate mesoderm
d) Lateral plate mesoderm
217) Muscle of iris (sphincter & dilator pupillae) are derived from
a) Mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
218) Contractile myoepithelial cells of the sweat glands are derived from
a) Mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
219) Developing heart tube with cardiac muscle & pericardium is derived from
a) Splanchnopleuric mesoderm
b) Somato pleuric mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Endoderm
220) …………………. collects to form nerves
a) Neural cell
b) Neural processes
c) Nerve ganglion
d) All of the above
221) ……………. not derived from neural tube
a) Blood vessels of nervous tissue
b) Cells of nervous tissue
c) Fibers of nervous tissue
d) Processes of nervous tissue
222) ……………. enters through surrounding mesoderm of neural tube.
a) Cells of neuron
b) Blood vessel supplying neuron
c) Fibers present in neuron
d) Ganglions
223) Neuron & neuroglial cells are formed in
a) Neural crest

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b) Neural tube
c) Neural pore
d) Blastopore
224) Nearest the lumen of the neural tube the layer which is present is called
a) Marginal layer
b) Mantle layer
c) Matrix cell or primitive ependymal layer
d) Spongioblast cells
225) The list of name given for the layer which is present at the lumen of the neural tube except.
a) Matrix cell layer
b) Marginal layer
c) Primitive ependymal layer
d) Germinal layer.
226) Developing nerve cells and neuroglial cells are seen in ………… layer of neural tube.
a) Matrix cell layer
b) Mantle layer
c) Marginal layer
d) Spongioblastic layer
227) Reticulum formed by protoplasmic processes of developing neuroglial cells are seen in
……….. layer of neural tube
a) Matrix cell layer
b) Mantle layer
c) Marginal layer
d) Spongioblastic layer
228) Marginal cell layer is ………. layer of neural tube.
a) Inner most
b) Middle most
c) Outermost
d) Luminal layer
229) The reticulums formed by protoplasmic processes of developing neuroglial cells are called
a) Marginoblast
b) Spongioblast
c) Neuroblast
d) Neuroglioblast
230) Processes of marginal layer (spongioblast) grow into
a) Matrix cell layer
b) Mantle layer
c) Luminal layer
d) Neuroglial cell layer
231) Passing of a germinal cell from germinal layer to mantle layer. The cell is called
a) Apolar neuroblast
b) Bipolar neuroblast
c) Unipolar neuroblast
d) Multipolar neuroblast
232) The germinal layer of neural tube is
a) Outermost layer
b) Middle layer
c) Innermost layer
d) All of the above
233) The mantle layer is present in ………….. of the neural tube.
a) Outermost
b) Middle
c) Inner most
d) All of the above
234) When 2 processes develop in a Apolar neuroblast it converts to

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a) Unipolar neuroblast
b) Bipolar neuroblast
c) Multipolar neuroblast
d) All of the above
235) When one process disappears from bipolar neuroblast it is called.
a) Bipolar neuroblast
b) Unipolar neuroblast
c) Multipolar neuroblast
d) Apolar neuroblast
236) The process of unipolar neuroblast cell which does not disappear at the end
becomes…………
a) Shortens
b) Elongates
c) Spiralized
d) Coiled
237) Numerous smaller processes arise in unipolar neuroblast to form multipolar neuroblast
a) On the front
b) On the back
c) On the side opposite to it
d) On the top
238) Axon of the nerve cell is formed when
a) Main process of the multipolar neuroblast now grows into the marginal layer.
b) Main process of the multipolar neuroblast now grows into the mantle layer.
c) Main process of the multipolar neuroblast now grows into the matrix cell layer.
d) Main process of the multipolar neuroblast now grows into the lumen of neural tube
239) Axon grows out as an
a) Afferent nerve
b) Efferent nerve
c) Motor nerve
d) b & c
240) Efferent nerve after growing out establishes connection with
a) Cell bodies
b) Dendrite
c) Effecter organ (muscle)
d) All of the above
241) The smaller processes of neuroblast are
a) Axons
b) Dendrites
c) Ganglions
d) Neuroglia
242) The cytoplasm of nerve cell is
a) Homogeneous
b) Apprehensive
c) Quarlative
d) Secretory
243) Neuroglial cells are formed from
a) Germinal cells of ependymal layer
b) Neural crest of ependymal layer
c) Neural crest of marginal layer
d) Neural crest of mantle layer
244) The neuroglial cells which arise from germinal cells of the ependymal layer are called
a) Spongioblast
b) Medulloblast
c) Glioblast
d) Astroblast

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245) Glioblast migrate to ………….. when they form medulloblast.
a) Luminal layer of neural tube
b) Marginal layer of neural tube
c) Mantle layer of neural tube
d) b & c
246) Medulloblasts are called
a) Glioblast
b) Oligodendroblast
c) Astroblast
d) Spongioblast
247) Spongioblast subsequently differentiates into
a) Glioblast & medulloblast
b) Astroblast & oligodentroblast
c) Micro blast & macro blast
d) Schwann cell & basket cells
248) ……………..does not develop from the cells of the neural tube
a) Macroglia
b) Microglia
c) Astrocytes
d) Oligodendrocytes
249) Microglia’s are believed to be
a) Ectodermal origin
b) Mesodermal origin
c) Endodermal origin
d) Entodermal origin
250) …………… cells give rise to neuroblast or neuroglia
a) Ependymal cells
b) Neuroepithelial cells
c) Astrocytes
d) Oligodendrocytes
e) a & b
251) Neuroglial cells are formed after
a) Differentiation of oligodendroblast
b) Differentiation of spongioblast or medulloblast
c) Differentiation of neuroblast
d) Integration of astroblast
252) Nerve fibres are ensheathed by
a) Neuron
b) Neuroglial cell
c) Neurolemma
d) Schwann cell
253) The constitution of peripheral nerve is
a) Neural crest cell
b) Neurolemma
c) Schwann cell
d) Oligodendrocytes
254) Neurolemma is a
a) General covering
b) Axodentritic processes
c) Special sheath
d) All of the above
255) Neurolemma become a special constituent of
a) Oligodendrocytes
b) Astrocytes
c) Peripheral nerves

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d) Medulloblast
256) Neurolemma is made up of
a) Schwann cells
b) Astroblasts
c) Oligodendro blasts
d) Spongioblasts
257) Schwann cells derived from
a) Lumen of neural tube
b) Cells of blastopore
c) Matrix cells
d) Neural crest cells
258) The sheath which covers nerve fibers present inside or outside CNS at the later stage of
presented development between neurolemma & the axon is called.
a) Myelin sheath
b) Axonic sheath
c) Dendritic sheath
d) Ganglionic sheath
259) Myelin sheath which is formed by neuroglial cells in the CNS is called.
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Gliocytes
d) Schwann cells
260) After invagination the cytoplasm of the axon is completely surround by
a) Astrocytes
b) Oligodendrocytes
c) Schwann cells
d) Neural tube cell
261) Along the line of invagination the Schwann cell become drawn in to form a double layered
mesentery like membrane called.
a) Mesaxon
b) Axon
c) Dendrite
d) All of the above
262) Myelin sheath is present in
a) Coiling form
b) Invaginated form
c) Spiralized form
d) Parallel form
263) Nerve fibres present in different part of brain & spinal cord in different stage of development
are
a) Myelinated
b) Unmyelinated
c) Invaginated
d) Coiled
264) Myelination begins
nd
a) During 2 month of intra uterine life
rd
b) During 3 month of intra uterine life
th
c) During 4 month of intra uterine life
th
d) During 5 month of intra uterine life
265) Blood vessels of brain & spinal cord and itself developing brain & spinal cord derived from
a) Neural tube
b) Neural crest
c) Surrounding mesoderm
d) Ectoderm & endoderm
266) Arachnoids & Pia mater develops from (leptomeninges)

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a) Neural tube
b) Neural crest
c) Notochord
d) Prochordal plate
267) Duramater of meninges develop from
a) Mesoderm surrounding neural tube
b) Ectoderm surrounding neural tube
c) Endoderm of gut tube
d) Neural crest

ANSWER KEYS

1) d 2) d 3) d 4) a 5) d 6) b 7) a 8) b 9) c 10) b 11) c 12) a


13) a 14) b 15) a 16) c 17) a 18) c 19) c 20) c 21) b 22) b 23) a 24) c
25) a 26) c 27) a 28) b 29) b 30) b 31) b 32) d 33) b 34) a 35) d 36) d
37) c 38) c 39) c 40) b 41) c 42) c 43) d 44) b 45) c 46) a 47) a 48) c
49) c 50) c 51) a 52) c 53) c 54) c 55) b 56) b 57) c 58) b 59) b 60) b
61) c 62) b 63) b 64) d 65) b 66) a 67) a 68) c 69) d 70) a 71) b 72) b
73) a 74) b 75) d 76) b 77) b 78) d 79) a 80) d 81) a 82) b 83) e 84) b
85) b 86) c 87) a 88) b 89) a 90) b 91) d 92) d 93) b 94) c 95) c 96) b
97) a 98) a 99) b 100) a 101) c 102) d 103) b 104) c 105) d 106) b 107) b 108) c
109) b 110) c 111) b 112) b 113) c 114) b 115) b 116) b 117) c 118) b 119) d 120) b
121) a 122) b 123) b 124) a 125) b 126) b 127) b 128) a 129) a 130) b 131) b 132) b
133) e 134) b 135) a 136) a 137) b 138) b 139) d 140) c 141) b 142) a 143) b 144) b
145) b 146) c 147) c 148) c 149) b 150) c 151) c 152) b 153) b 154) b 155) b 156) c
157) c 158) b 159) e 160) e 161) c 162) b 163) b 164) b 165) c 166) c 167) b 168) b
169) a 170) b 171) a 172) a 173) b 174) a 175) b 176) b 177) b 178) b 179) a 180) b
181) b 182) b 183) a 184) c 185) b 186) c 187) c 188) b 189) b 190) c 191) c 192) b
193) c 194) a 195) d 196) c 197) c 198) a 199) a 200) a 201) b 202) b 203) c 204) c
205) c 206) a 207) a 208) b 209) b 210) b 211) c 212) c 213) b 214) c 215) d 216) b
217) c 218) c 219) a 220) b 221) a 222) b 223) b 224) c 225) b 226) b 227) c 228) c
229) b 230) b 231) a 232) c 233) b 234) b 235) b 236) b 237) c 238) a 239) d 240) d
241) b 242) a 243) a 244) c 245) d 246) d 247) b 248) b 249) b 250) e 251) c 252) b
253) b 254) c 255) c 256) a 257) d 258) a 259) b 260) c 261) a 262) b 263) a 264) c
265) c 266) b 267) a

**********

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CHAPTER – 8
THE SKIN AND ITS APPENDAGES

1) Epidermis is derived from


a) Surface mesoderm
b) Surface ectoderm
c) Surface endoderm
d) Surface entoderm
2) The dermis is formed by
a) Mesenchyme
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
3) Dermis and mesenchyme are derived from
a) Sclerotome of somites
b) Myotome of somites
c) Dermatome of somites
d) All of the above
4) Nail develop from
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Entoderm
5) Nail develops at
a) Tip of each digit
b) Base of each digit
c) Middle portion of each digit
d) Lateral side of each digit
6) Ectoderm of nail migrates to
a) Ventral aspect
b) Dorsal aspect
c) Lateral aspect
d) Medial aspect
7) Hair derived from
a) Surface endoderm
b) Surface ectoderm
c) Surface mesoderm
d) Surface entoderm
8) Surface ectoderm is ………….. to form hair follicle
a) Hypertrophied
b) Modified
c) Upraised
d) Down raised
9) Sebaceous gland derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
10) Sebaceous gland arise from
a) Skin

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b) Hair tip
c) Hair follicle
d) Hair shaft
11) Sebaceous gland arises as an …………. from hair follicle.
a) Stiff
b) Diverticulum
c) Sac
d) Stigma
12) …………….. is develop as down growths from epidermis
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sweat gland
c) Hair
d) Nail
13) Sweat gland is develop as
a) Upward growth from epidermis
b) Downward growth from epidermis
c) Upward growth from dermis
d) Downward growth from dermis
14) ……………. Is later canalized.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sweat gland
c) Hair
d) Nail
15) Mammary gland arise from
a) Surface endoderm
b) Surface mesoderm
c) Surface ectoderm
d) Surface entoderm
16) List of structure arise from surface ectoderm except
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sweat gland
c) Mammary gland, hair, nails
d) Dermis
17) ………………. form along milk line.
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sweat gland
c) Mammary gland
d) Hair follicle
18) Stratified squamous epithelium of epidermis arise due to
a) Mesodermal cell proliferation (multiplication)
b) Endodermal cell proliferation
c) Ectodermal cell proliferation
d) All of the above
19) Epidermal ridges develop between
st
a) 1 month of fetal age
nd
b) 2 month of fetal age
rd th
c) 3 & 5 month of fetal age
th
d) 4 month of fetal age
20) Whole loop & arch of tip of finger & toes are nothing but
a) Ectodermal ridges
b) Epidermal ridges

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c) Mesodermal ridges
d) Endodermal ridges
21) The melanoblast (or dendritic cells) of epidermis are derived from
a) Neural tube
b) Neural pore
c) Neural crest
d) Neural groove
22) Cells of Markel and of Langerhan’s appear in epidermis between
a) 1 to 3 weeks of intra uterine life
b) 4 to 6 weeks of Intra uterine life
c) 8 to 12 weeks of Intra uterine life
d) 13 to 16 weeks of Intra uterine life
23) The dermis is formed because of
a) Differentiation & condensation of melanoblast
b) Differentiation & condensation of mesenchyme
c) Differentiation & condensation of endoderm
d) Differentiation of condensation of ectoderm
24) Dermis lies
a) Above the surface ectoderm
b) Above the surface mesoderm
c) Under the surface endoderm
d) Under the surface ectoderm
25) Mesenchyme derived from
a) Sclerotome of somites
b) Myotome of somites
c) Dermatome of somites
d) Neural crest
26) Dermal papillae are formed because
a) Cells embedded in the dermis undergo multiplication & proliferation
b) Cells embedded in the epidermis undergo multiplication & proliferation
c) Epidermis show regularly spaced thickenings that project into the dermis and the portion of
the dermis intervening between these projection.
d) Portion of the epidermis intervenes between dermal projections due to regularly space
thickening shown by dermis.

27) Epidermal papillae are formed because


a) Cells embedded in the dermis undergo multiplication & proliferation
b) Cells embedded in the epidermis undergo multiplication & proliferation
c) Epidermis show regularly spaced thickenings that project into the dermis and the portion of
the dermis intervening between these projections.
d) Portion of the epidermis intervenes between dermal projections due to regularly spaced
thickening shown by dermis.

28) Primary nail field is formed because of


a) The mesodermal thickening
b) Ectodermal thickening at the tip of each digit.
c) Endodermal thickening at the tip of each digit.
d) All of the above
29) Primary nail field migrates from tip of the digit to
a) Its ventral aspect
b) Its lateral aspect
c) Its dorsal aspect

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d) Its apical aspect
30) Root of the nail is formed because of
a) Proliferation & multiplication of cells in the most distal part of the primary nail field.
b) Proliferation & multiplication of cells in the most proximal part of the primary nail field.
c) Proliferation & multiplication of cells in the most middle part of the primary nail field.
d) Proliferation & multiplication of cells in the most lateral part of the primary nail field.
31) Germinal matrix of nail root is formed because of
a) Cells multiplication of primary nail field
b) Cells multiplication of germinal layer
c) Cells multiplication of digital part of tip of each digit
d) Cells multiplication of lateral part of tip of each digit of germinal matrix of nail
32) Germinal cells after multiplication transformed into
a) Nail substance
b) Tip of finger
c) Lateral wall of digit
d) Nail groove
33) Nail substance after transformation of multiplied germinal cells into it are correspond to ………. of
skin.
a) Stratum Germinativum
b) Stratum Corneum
c) Stratum Luciderm
d) Stratum Granulosum
34) ………………. explains skin of the dorsal aspect of the terminal part of the digits is supplied by
nerves of the ventral aspect.
a) Migration of primary nail field from base of the digit to their ventral aspect.
b) Migration of primary nail field from middle shaft of the digit to their ventral aspect.
c) Migration of primary nail field from tip of each digit to their dorsal aspect.
d) Migration of secondary nail field from tip of each digit to their dorsal aspect.
35) Hair derived from surface ectoderm at the site where a
a) Hair tip is formed
b) Hair shaft is formed
c) Hair follicle is formed
d) Epidermal root sheath is formed
36) Hair follicle is formed because of
a) Germinal layer of the epidermis proliferate to form a cylindrical mass that grows down into
the dermis.
b) Germinal layer of the dermis proliferate to form a cylindrical mass that grows into the
epidermis.
c) Pickle cell layer of epidermis proliferate & multiply.
d) Stratum granulosum & melanoblastic cell of epidermis proliferate & multiply.
37) Migration of primary nail field from tip of the digit to their dorsal aspect will lead to
a) Skin of the ventral aspect of terminal part of the digit is supplied by nerve of the ventral
aspect.
b) Skin of the dorsal aspect of terminal part of the digit is supplied by nerve of the ventral
aspect.
c) Skin of the dorsal aspect of terminal part of the digit is supplied by nerve of the dorsal
aspect.
d) Skin of the ventral aspect of terminal part of the digit is supplied by nerve of the dorsal
aspect.

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38) Papillae is a
a) Expansion & invagination of lower end of hair follicle after down growth by condensation of
mesoderm.
b) Expansion & invagination of upper end of hair follicle after upward growth by condensation
of ectoderm.
c) Expansion & invagination of upper end of hair follicle after upward growth by condensation
of endoderm.
d) All of the above
39) Hair is formed because of
a) Proliferation of pickle cells overlying hair follicle.
b) Proliferation of germinal cells overlying hair papillae.
c) Proliferation of melanoblastic cells overlying stratum luciderm.
d) Proliferation of keratinous cells overlying hair shaft.
40) Epithelial root sheath is a
a) Upward growth of germinal hair cell
b) Downward growth of germinal hair cell
c) Oblique growth of germinal hair cell
d) Lateral growth of germinal hair cell
41) Dermal root sheath of hair is formed by
a) Surrounding ectoderm.
b) Surrounding endoderm.
c) Surrounding mesenchyme.
d) Surrounding germinal cell.
42) When the hair grow to the surface it come in contact with
a) Epidermal root sheath of surrounding germinal cell
b) Dermal root sheath of surrounding mesenchyme
c) Huxley’s layer
d) Henley’s layer
43) Arrector Pilli is formed by
a) Ectoderm cells
b) Mesodermal cells
c) Endodermal cells
d) Entodermal cells
44) Arrector Pilli (a band of smooth muscle) get attached to
a) Ectodermal cells
b) Epidermal root sheath
c) Dermal root sheath
d) Hair papillae
45) A sebaceous gland is formed as a
a) Stigma
b) Bud
c) Stiff
d) Sac
46) Bud of sebaceous gland arise from
a) Endodermal cells
b) Ectodermal cells
c) Mesodermal cells
d) Entodermal cells
47) A sebaceous gland is formed as bud from
a) Mesodermal cell forming wall of dermal root sheath.
b) Ectodermal cell forming wall of a hair follicle.

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c) Endodermal cell forming wall of hair papillae.
d) Mesodermal cell forming wall of epidermal root sheath.
48) The list of structure develop as a down growth except
a) Sebaceous gland
b) Sweat gland
c) Epidermal papillae
d) Hair epithelial root sheath
e) Papillae
49) Sweat gland develop as a
a) Upward growth
b) Downward growth
c) Lateral growth
d) Oblique growth
50) The procedure seen in the formation of sweat gland as a downward growth are
a) At first proliferation then multiplication
b) At first solidification & then canalization
c) At first spiralization & then coiling
d) At first expansion & then compression
51) In the developing sweat gland ……….. is seen as a secretary part.
a) Upper end
b) Middle
c) Lower end
d) Opening at surface
52) Coiling is seen as a down growth on …………. part of sweat gland.
a) Upper end
b) Middle
c) Lower end
d) Part related to epidermis
53) Albinism is a
a) Autosomal recessive condition
b) Autosomal dominant condition
c) Both of the above
d) Metabolic disorder
54) List of sign and symptom seen in albinism except
a) Depigmentation of hair
b) Depigmentation of eye
c) Depigmentation of skin
d) Depigmentation of tongue & lip
55) The pathogenesis which cause albinism is
a) Germinal cells not multiply.
b) Melanocytes unable to synthesize melanin.
c) Melanocytes able to synthesize melanin
d) Germinal cell multiply & proliferate
56) Vitiligo is a
a) Autoimmune disease
b) Autosomal recessive disease
c) Autosomal dominant disease
d) Inherited disorder
57) Vitiligo seen as
a) Dipigmentation of skin
b) Normal melanocytes

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c) Degenerative existing melanocytes
d) Patchy pigmentation of skin
e) c&d
58) In …………… skin fails to develop in certain region.
a) Albinism
b) Vitiligo
c) Aplasia
d) Dysplasia
59) In aplasia
a) Skin fails to develop in certain region of the body.
b) Skin fails to develop in whole body
c) Skin fails to develop in ½ of the body
d) All of the above
60) Dysplasia is a
a) Non congenital growth
b) Congenital growth
c) Inherited growth
d) Pressure growth & temperature growth
61) Dysplasia shows
a) Congenital growth of skin
b) Non congenital growth of skin
c) Mal development of various ectodermal derivatives including hair, teeth, sweat & sebaceous
gland
d) a & c
e) Congenital growth of tongue
62) …………… shows congenital growth of skin with maldevelopment of various ectodermal
derivatives.
a) Aplasia
b) Dysplasia
c) Albinism
d) Vitiligo
63) List of structures seen as ectodermal derivative except.
a) Hair & muscle of iris
b) Teeth
c) Nail
d) Tongue
e) Sweat & sebaceous gland
64) List of structure seen as mesodermal derivative except.
a) Striated muscle
b) Constrictor & dilator pupillae
c) Bone
d) Lymphatic’s
65) List of structure seen as endodermal derivatives except.
a) Wall of blood vessels
b) Lining of blood vessels
c) Gut tube
d) Sweat & sebaceous gland
66) Alopecia is a
a) Auto immune disease
b) Congenital disorder
c) Metabolic disorder

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d) Hormonal disorder
67) List of sign & symptoms seen in congenital alopecia except.
a) Hair may be absent over the scalp
b) Eyebrow may be absent.
c) Eye lashes may be absent.
d) Axilla & pubic hair may be absent.
e) Vibrissae (short skiffed hair) seen in respiratory epithelium of nasal cavity may be absent.
68) Over growth of hair is called
a) Atrichia
b) Hypertrichosis
c) Hyper alopecia
d) Anonychia
69) Absent of nail is called
a) Paronaichia
b) Kailonaichia
c) Anonychia
d) Oncomycosis
70) Absence of hair in any part of the body is called
a) Hypertrichosis
b) Atrichia
c) Dysplasia
d) Aplasia
71) Mammary ridges or lines are formed because of
a) Endodermal thickening along the line joining axilla to inguinal region.
b) Ectodermal thickening along this line
c) Mesodermal thickening along this line
d) All of the above
72) Mammary gland form because of
a) Thickened mass of endodermal cells seen projecting into the dermis.
b) Thickened mass of endodermal cells seen projecting into the epidermis
c) Thickened mass of endodermal cells seen projecting into the epidermal cell projecting into
the dermis.
d) All of the above
73) Mammary gland arise as thickened mass of epidermal projection into the dermis as ………………
a) Ingrowths
b) Outgrowth
c) Lateral growth
d) Oblique growth
74) ……………. happened to these out growth mass projecting from epidermis as epidermal cell to
dermis in the formation of mammary gland
a) Canalization
b) Masculinization
c) Proliferation
d) Compression
75) The secretary elements of the mammary gland are formed by proliferation of the
a) Proximal part of the out growth
b) Middle part of the out growth.
c) Distal part of the out growth.
d) All of the above.
76) The Lactiferous duct of mammary gland arise from
a) Proximal part of the outgrowth

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b) Middle part of the outgrowth
c) Terminal part of the outgrowth
d) All of the above
77) The pit into which lactiferous duct of mammary gland opens is formed by
a) Canalization of original endodermal thickening.
b) Cavitations of original ectodermal thickening
c) Cavitations of original mesodermal thickening.
d) Coiling of all of the above.
78) The wall of the pit of mammary gland progressively pushes outwards because of
a) Underlying growth of mesoderm
b) Underlying growth of ectoderm
c) Underlying growth of endoderm
d) Outer growth of mesoderm
79) The absence of mammary gland on both sides is
a) Polymastia
b) Amastia
c) Athelia
d) Polythelia
80) Supernumerary nipples are …………… in nature
a) Rudimentary
b) Vestibular
c) Remnant
d) Progressive
81) Supernumerary nipples are seen along the
a) Milk line
b) Lymphatic line
c) Epidermal line
d) Dermal line
82) Supernumerary nipples are seen along the milk line in
a) Athelia
b) Polymastia
c) Polythelia
d) Accessory breast
83) Accessory breast may be found away from the milk line is
a) Athelia
b) Polythelia
c) Polymastia
d) Amastia
84) …………… condition shows nipple fail to form resulting in lactiferous duct opening into a pit.
a) Amastia
b) Athelia
c) Polythelia
d) Polymastia
e) Inverted or crater nipple
85) The abnormally small mammary gland is
a) Polymastia
b) Micromastia
c) Amastia
d) Polythelia
86) The abnormally large mammary gland is
a) Micromastia

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b) Macromastia
c) Polythelia
d) Polymastia
87) The male breast enlarges in the normal female & may even secrete milk called.
a) Micromastia
b) Macromastia
c) Polymastia
d) Gynaecomastia
88) Mammary line establishes in
th
a) 7 week
th
b) 8 week
th
c) 9 week
th
d) 10 week
89) Melanoblast start appearing
th
a) 8 week
th
b) 7 week
th
c) 9 week
th
d) 10 week
90) Cells of neural crest migrate to skin in
st
a) 1 month
nd
b) 2 month
rd
c) 3 month
d) All of the above
91) Surface ectoderm becomes multiple layers in
nd
a) 2 month
rd
b) 3 month
th
c) 4 month
d) All of the above
92) Dermal papillae are formed in between
st nd
a) 1 to 2 month
rd th
b) 3 to 4 month
th th
c) 5 to 6 month
th th
d) 7 to 8 month

ANSWER KEYS

1) b 2) a 3) c 4) c 5) a 6) b 7) b 8) b 9) a 10) c 11) b 12) b 13) b


14) b 15) c 16) d 17) c 18) c 19) c 20) b 21) c 22) c 23) b 24) d 25) c 26) c
27) d 28) b 29) c 30) b 31) b 32) a 33) c 34) c 35) c 36) a 37) b 38) a 39) b
40) b 41) c 42) a 43) b 44) b 45) b 46) b 47) b 48) a 49) b 50) b 51) c 52) c
53) a 54) d 55) b 56) a 57) e 58) c 59) a 60) b 61) d 62) b 63) d 64) b 65) d
66) b 67) e 68) b 69) c 70) b 71) b 72) c 73) b 74) a 75) c 76) a 77) b 78) a
79) b 80) a 81) a 82) c 83) c 84) e 85) b 86) b 87) d 88) a 89) a 90) d 91) d
92) b

**********

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CHAPETR – 9
THE PHARYNGEAL ARCHES

1) Pharyngeal arches are rod like thickening of


a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
2) Pharyngeal arches are …………. like thickening of mesoderm
a) Rod
b) Barbell
c) Half moon
d) Irregular
3) ………… are rods like thickening of mesoderm
a) Pharyngeal arches
b) Pharyngeal pouches
c) Pharyngeal cleft
d) Branchial arches
e) a & d
4) ……………… number of arches appears at first
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
5) Pharyngeal arches are present on
a) Wall of mid gut
b) Wall of fore gut
c) Wall of hind gut
d) Roof & floor of fore gut
6) Which of the following arches disappears first?
a) 1st
b) 3rd
c) 5th
d) 6th
7) How many arches remains
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
8) ………… end of arches of right of left sides meet in the middle line in the floor of pharynx
a) Dorsal end
b) Ventral end
c) Dorsolateral corner
d) Ventromedial aspect
9) Arches of two sides meet in the middle line in the
a) Wall of pharynx
b) Floor of pharynx
c) Roof of pharynx
d) Outlet of pharynx
10) Lining of the pharynx is made up of
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Entoderm

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11) ………………… stays interval between any two arches
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
12) ………… push outward to form pharyngeal pouches
a) Endoderm of lining of pharynx
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Entoderm
13) Pharyngeal pouches are
a) Ectodermal
b) Endodermal
c) Mesodermal
d) Entodermal
14) ……………. dip inwards opposite each pharyngeal pouch
a) Surface ectoderm
b) Surface mesoderm
c) Surface endoderm
d) All of the above.
15) Opposite each pouch the surface ectoderm dips inward as an ………………..
a) Pharyngeal pouches
b) Pharyngeal arches
c) Pharyngeal cleft
d) Ectodermal cleft
e) c & d
16) Surface ectoderm dip inward as an ectodermal cleft
a) Front of each pouch
b) Back of each pouch
c) Opposite of each pouch
d) Inside the pouch
17) Each pharyngeal arch contains list of structures except
a) Skeletal element
b) Striated muscle
c) Nerve
d) Artery
e) Lymphatic
18) Skeletal element of the pharyngeal arch is
a) Periosteum
b) Cartilage which later forms bone
c) Perichondrium
d) Perforating fibers
19) Meckels cartilage is the cartilage of …………..
nd
a) 2 arch
st
b) 1 arch
rd
c) 3 arch
th
d) 4 `arch
st
20) …………….. is the cartilage of 1 arch
a) Richerts cartilage
b) Meckels cartilage
c) Cartilaginous part of auditory tube
d) Cartilaginous part of pinna
21) Meckels cartilage gives origin to
a) Incus & malleus of middle ear
b) Endolymphatic of Internal ear

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c) Perilymph of Internal ear
d) Stapes
22) …………….. form stapes
nd
a) 2 arch
nd
b) Cartilage of 2 arch
nd
c) Nerve of 2 arch
nd
d) Muscle of 2 arch
23) ……………. give origin to incus & malleus
st
a) Cartilage of 1 arch
st
b) Nerve of 1 arch
st
c) Bone of 1 arch
st
d) Muscle of 1 arch
24) List of structure formed by cartilage of second arch except
a) Stapes
b) Styloid process
c) Lesser cornu of hyoid bone
d) Greater cornu of hyoid bone
st
25) List of structure formed by cartilage of 1 arch except
a) Malleus
b) Incus
c) Stapes
d) Mandibular nerve
rd
26) Cartilage of 3 arch forms
a) Greater cornu of hyoid bone
b) Lesser cornu of hyoid bone
c) Body of hyoid bone
d) a & c
27) ………………. forms the greater cornu & body of hyoid bone
st
a) Cartilage of 1 arch
nd
b) Cartilage of 2 arch
rd
c) Cartilage of 3 arch
th
d) Cartilage of 4 arch
28) Cartilages of larynx arises by
st
a) Cartilages of 1 arch
nd
b) Cartilages of 2 arch
rd
c) Cartilages of 3 arch
th
d) Cartilages of 4 arch
th
e) Cartilages of 6 arch
f) d&e
th th
29) The cartilage of 4 and 6 arches gives to
a) Cartilages of mandible
b) Cartilages of ear
c) Cartilages of nose
d) Cartilages of larynx
st
30) Nerve of the 1 pharyngeal arch is
a) Maxillary nerve
b) Mandibular nerve
c) Ophthalmic nerve
d) Ethmoidal nerve
31) Mandibular nerve is the nerve of the
th
a) 4 pharyngeal arch
rd
b) 3 pharyngeal arch
nd
c) 2 pharyngeal arch
st
d) 1 pharyngeal arch

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32) Facial nerve is the nerve of
st
a) 1 pharyngeal arch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal arch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal arch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal arch
nd
33) Nerve of 2 pharyngeal arch is
a) Mandibular nerve
b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Facial nerve
d) Superior laryngeal nerve
34) Glossopharyngeal nerve is nerve of
nd
a) 2 pharyngeal arch
th
b) 4 pharyngeal arch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal arch
th
d) 5 pharyngeal arch
rd
35) Nerve of 3 pharyngeal arch is
a) Glossopharyngeal nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Mandibular nerve
d) Superior laryngeal nerve
36) Superior laryngeal nerve is the nerve of
nd
a) 2 pharyngeal arch
rd
b) 3 pharyngeal arch
th
c) 4 pharyngeal arch
th
d) 5 pharyngeal arch
th
37) Nerve of 4 pharyngeal arch is
a) Mandibular nerve
b) Vagus nerve
c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
d) Superior laryngeal nerve
38) Nerve of fifth pharyngeal arch is
a) Facial nerve
b) Glossopharyngeal nerve
c) Superior laryngeal nerve
d) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
39) Recurrent laryngeal nerve is the nerve of
nd
a) 2 pharyngeal arch
rd
b) 3 pharyngeal arch
th
c) 4 pharyngeal arch
th
d) 5 pharyngeal arch
th
40) Nerve of 5 pharyngeal arch is
a) Superior laryngeal nerve
b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Facial nerve
41) Muscle supplied by nerve of pharyngeal arch are derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Entoderm
42) External acoustic meatus develop from
st
a) 1 ectodermal cleft
st
b) 1 endodermal pouch
nd
c) 2 ectodermal cleft
nd
d) 2 endodermal pouch

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st
43) ……………. develop from 1 ectodermal cleft.
a) Internal acoustic meatus
b) External acoustic meatus
c) Facial canal
d) Styloid process
44) Tubotympanic recess is a
a) Space
b) Diverticulum
c) Foramen
d) Canal
45) Tubotympanic recess develop from
nd rd
a) 2 endodermal pouch & part of 3 endodermal pouch.
st nd
b) 1 endodermal pouch & part of 2 endodermal pouch.
rd th
c) 3 endodermal pouch & part of 4 endodermal pouch.
th th
d) 5 endodermal pouch & part of 6 endodermal pouch.
st
46) ………….. develop from 1 endodermal pouch.
a) Pharyngo ethmoidal recess.
b) Spheno ethmoidal recess.
c) Tubo tympanic recess.
d) Basi sphenoidal recess.
47) ………….. develop from tubotympanic recess.
a) Pinna & external acoustic meatus
b) Middle ear & auditory tube
c) Internal ear & cochlea
d) Vestibulo cochlear nerve & labyrinthine artery
48) …………….. arise from the second pharyngeal pouch.
a) Palatine tonsil
b) Tubal tonsil
c) Pharyngeal Tonsil or faucial tonsil
d) Lingual Tonsil
e) Abdominal tonsil
f) Cerebellar tonsil
49) Palatine tonsil arise from
st
a) 1 pharyngeal pouch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal pouch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal pouch
50) Inferior parathyroid gland is derived from
st
a) 1 pharyngeal pouch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal pouch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal pouch
51) Thymus derived from
st
a) 1 pharyngeal pouch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal pouch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal pouch
rd
52) …………….. derives from 3 pharyngeal pouch.
a) Superior parathyroid gland & thyroid gland.
b) Inferior of parathyroid gland & thymus.
c) External acoustic meatus.
d) Middle ear & auditory tube.
th
53) ……………….. derived from 4 pharyngeal pouch.
a) Superior parathyroid gland.
b) Inferior parathyroid gland.

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c) Thymus.
d) Tonsil`
54) Superior parathyroid gland is derived from
st
a) 1 pharyngeal pouch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal pouch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal pouch
55) Thyroid gland develop from
a) Thyroglossal cyst
b) Thyroglossal duct
c) Tubotympanic recess
d) Foramen caecum
56) ………………… arise from thyroglossal duct
a) Thyroid gland
b) Superior parathyroid gland
c) Inferior parathyroid gland
d) Thymus
57) Thyroglossal duct is a ……………..
a) Duct
b) Median Diverticulum
c) Projected mass
d) Canal96
58) The thyroglossal duct arising from
a) Floor of the pharynx or at foramen caecum
b) Roof of the pharynx
c) Walls of the pharynx
d) Laryngeal inlet of the pharynx
59) Floor of the pharynx gives arise to
a) Thyroglossal duct
b) Thyroglossal cyst
c) a & b
d) Thyroid
60) …………. is seen at floor of pharynx
a) Foramen Caecum
b) Foramen Vesalius
c) Foramen Magendi
d) Parietal foramen
61) Foregut of embryo is bounded ventrally by
a) Developing brain
b) Foregut
c) Pharyngeal arches
d) Pharyngeal pouches
e) Pericardium
62) Foregut of embryo is bounded dorsally by
a) Developing brain
b) Mid gut
c) Pericardium
d) Pharyngeal arches & pouches.
63) Foregut is bounded …………… side of pericardium.
a) Dorsal
b) Ventral
c) Lateral
d) Medial
64) Foregut is bounded ……………. side of developing brain.
a) Ventral

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b) Dorsal
c) Lateral
d) Medial
65) Foregut is separated from Stomatodeum in
a) Cranial side
b) Caudal side
c) Dorsal side
d) Ventral side
66) Foregut is separated from stomatodeum cranially by
a) Nasal membrane
b) Cricothyroid membrane
c) Bucco pharyngeal membrane
d) Cloacal membrane
67) Foregut is separated from …………… by buccopharyngeal membrane cranially.
a) Pharyngeal arches
b) Pharyngeal pouches
c) Stomatodeum
d) Ectodermal cleft.
68) Pericardium occupies the region of …………….
a) Future neck
b) Future thorax
c) Future abdomen
d) Future pelvis
69) Pericardium & future thorax are separated by stomatodeum from ……………
a) Future eye
b) Future nose
c) Futur01e mouth
d) Future abdomen
70) Neck of the embryo is formed by
a) Shortening of the region between foregut & stomatodeum.
b) Elongation of the region between stomatodeum & the pericardium.
c) Series of mesodermal thickening in the wall of the cranial most part of the foregut.
d) b & c
71) Series of mesodermal thickenings in the wall of the cranial most part of the foregut is called.
a) Pharyngeal pouches
b) Pharyngeal arches
c) Ectodermal cleft
d) Neck
e) b & d
72) At the time of formation of endoderm of foregut is separated from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Entoderm
d) a & b
73) Six mesodermal bars which are called pharyngeal arches grows
a) Ventrally
b) Dorsally
c) Laterally
d) Medially
st
74) The 1 arch is called
a) Mandibular arch
b) Hyoid arch
c) Thyroid arch
d) Aortic arch

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75) The hyoid arch is the
st
a) 1 pharyngeal arch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal arch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal arch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal arch
76) Which of the following arch do have their special names?
st
a) 1 arch
nd
b) 2 arch
rd
c) 3 arch
th th th
d) 5 , 4 & 6 arch
77) Which of the following arch soon disappears after its formation?
nd
a) 2 arch
rd
b) 3 arch
th
c) 4 arch
th
d) 5 arch
78) The following structure are formed in the mesoderm of each arch except
a) A skeletal element
b) Striated muscle
c) An artery
d) A vein
79) Post trematic nerve & pre trematic nerve of arch are seen in
a) Human being
b) Lower animal
c) Vertebrates
d) All of the above
80) Post trematic nerves are
a) The nerve runs along the cranial border of the arch
b) The nerve runs along the caudal border of the arch
c) The nerve shows double innervations
d) All of the above
81) Pre trematic nerve is the nerve
a) Which supplies cranial border of the arch
b) Which supplies caudal border of the arch
c) Which shows double innervations
d) All of the above
82) In human embryo double innervations of pre & post trematic nerve is seen in
st
a) 1 pharyngeal arch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal arch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal arch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal arch
83) Meckel’s cartilage is the cartilage of
th
a) 4 pharyngeal arch
rd
b) 3 pharyngeal arch
nd
c) 2 pharyngeal arch
st
d) 1 pharyngeal arch
st
84) Following is the cartilage of 1 arch
a) Richert’s cartilage
b) Meckel’s cartilage
c) Both a & b
d) Cricoid cartilage
85) Malleus & Incus of the middle ear are derived from …………. end of Meckel’s cartilage
a) Ventral end
b) Dorsal end
c) Cranial end
d) Caudal end

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86) The ventral part of the Meckel’s cartilage is surrounded by
a) Developing hyoid bone
c) Developing mandible bone
d) Developing maxilla bone
b) Developing cricoid cartilage
87) Which part of the Meckel’s cartilage is surrounded by developing mandible?
a) Ventral
b) Dorsal
c) Lateral
d) Medial
88) The sheath (perichondrium) of the Meckel’s cartilage forms
a) Anterior ligament of malleus
b) Sphenomandibular ligament
c) Stylomandibular ligament
d) Both a & b
89) The Meckel’s cartilage extends from
a) External ear to hyoid bone
b) Middle ear to mandible
c) Internal ear to thyroid cartilage
d) None of the above
st
90) Mesenchyme of 1 arch is responsible for formation of bones except
a) Maxilla
b) Mandible
c) Zygomatic
d) Palatine & temporal
e) Sphenoidal
nd
91) Following are the structure formed by the cartilage of 2 arch except
a) Stapes & styloid process
b) Stylo hyoid ligament (from sheath)
c) Smaller (lesser) cornu of hyoid bone & superior part of body of hyoid
d) Greater cornu of hyoid bone & inferior part of thyroid
rd
92) Following structure are formed from the cartilage of the 3 arch.
a) Greater cornu of hyoid bone.
b) Lower part of body of hyoid bone.
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above.
93) Greater cornu of hyoid bone formed from cartilage of
st
a) 1 arch
nd
b) 2 arch
rd
c) 3 arch
th
d) 4 arch
94) Lower part of body of hyoid bone is derived from
nd
a) Cartilage of the 2 arch
st
b) Cartilage of the 1 arch
rd
c) Cartilage of the 3 arch
th
d) Cartilage of the 4 arch
95) Stapes is derived from
nd
a) Cartilage of the 2 arch
st
b) Cartilage of the 1 arch
rd
c) Cartilage of the 3 arch
th
d) Cartilage of the 4 arch
96) Styloid process is derived from
st
a) Cartilage of the 1 arch.
nd
b) Cartilage of the 2 arch.
rd
c) Cartilage of the 3 arch.

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th
d) Cartilage of the 4 arch.
97) Stylohyoid ligament from sheath is derived from
st
a) Cartilage of 1 arch
nd
b) Cartilage of 2 arch
rd
c) Cartilage of 3 arch
th
d) Cartilage of 4 arch
98) Smaller (lesser) cornu of hyoid bone is derived from
st
a) Cartilage of 1 arch
rd
b) Cartilage of 3 arch
nd
c) Cartilage of 2 arch
th
d) Cartilage of 4 arch
99) Superior part of body of the hyoid bone is derived from
st
a) Cartilage of 1 arch
th
b) Cartilage of 4 arch
rd
c) Cartilage of 3 arch
nd
d) Cartilage of 2 arch
100) Greater cornu of hyoid bone develops from the following arch
st
a) Cartilage of 1 arch
nd
b) Cartilage of 2 arch
rd
c) Cartilage of 3 arch
th
d) Cartilage of 4 arch
101) Lower part of the body of hyoid bone develops from
st
a) Cartilage of 1 arch
nd
b) Cartilage of 2 arch
rd
c) Cartilage of 3 arch
th
d) Cartilage of 4 arch
102) The cartilages of the larynx are derived from the following arch
th
a) Cartilage of 4 arch
th
b) Cartilage of 5 arch
th
c) Cartilage of 6 arch
d) All of the above
st
103) Following is the nerve of the 1 arch
a) Mandibular nerve
b) Maxillary nerve
c) Facial nerve
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve
nd
104) Following is the nerve of the 2 arch
a) Mandibular nerve
b) Facial nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Maxillary nerve
105) Following the muscle of first arch
a) Medial pterygoid
b) Stylopharyngeus
c) Occipitofrontalis
d) Digastric
106) Following is the muscle of first arch
a) Masseter
b) Lateral pterygoid
c) Both a & b
d) Stapidius
107) Following is the muscle of first arch
a) Platysma
b) Lateral pterygoid
c) Muscle of larynx

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d) Muscle of pharynx
st
108) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Platysma
b) Temporalis
c) Stapedius
d) Stylopharyngeus
st
109) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Platysma
b) Mylohyoid
c) Stapedius
d) Stylohyoid
st
110) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Posterior belly of digastric
b) Anterior belly of digastric
c) Platysma
d) Stapedius
st
111) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Stylohyoid
b) Platysma
c) Tensor tympani
d) Auricular muscle
st
112) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Tensor palati
b) Auricular muscles
c) Styloglossus
d) Stylopharyngeus
st
113) Following are the muscles of 1 arch except
a) Medical pterygoid
b) Lateral pterygoid
c) Temporalis
d) Occipitofrontalis
st
114) Following are the muscles of 1 arch except
a) Tensor tympani
b) Mylohyoid
c) Anterior belly of digastric
d) Platysma
st
115) Following are the muscles of 1 arch except
a) Mylohyoid
b) Anterior belly of digastric
c) Tensor tympani
d) Stylopharyngeus
st
116) Following are the muscles of 1 arch except
a) Tensor tympani
b) Tensor palati
c) Masseter
d) Auricular muscles
st
117) Following are the muscle of 1 arch except
a) Medial pterygoid
b) Lateral pterygoid
c) Anterior belly of digastric
d) Posterior belly of digastric
st
118) Following are the muscles of 1 arch except
a) Muscles of larynx
b) Tensor tympani
c) Tensor palati

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d) Anterior belly of digastric
st
119) Following are the muscles of the 1 arch except
a) Muscles of pharynx
b) Medial pterygoid
c) Lateral pterygoid
d) Anterior belly of digastric
st
120) Following are the muscles of 1 arch except
a) Mylohyoid
b) Stylohyoid
c) Tensor tympani
d) Tensor palati
st
121) Following are the muscles of 1 arch except
a) Mylohyoid
b) Medial pterygoid
c) Lateral pterygoid
d) Stapedius
122) Medial pterygoid is the muscle of …………. arch
st
a) 1 arch
nd
b) 2 arch
rd
c) 3 arch
th
d) 4 arch
123) Lateral pterygoid is the muscle of ………. arch.
st nd
a) 1 arch b) 2 arch
rd th
c) 3 arch d) 4 arch
124) Masseter is the muscle of ………….. arch.
th rd
a) 4 arch b) 3 arch
nd st
c) 2 arch d) 1 arch
125) Temporalis is the muscle of …………. arch.
rd th
a) 3 arch b) 4 arch
nd st
c) 2 arch d) 1 arch
126) Mylohyoid is the muscle of …………. arch.
th rd
a) 4 arch b) 3 arch
nd st
c) 2 arch d) 1 arch
127) Anterior belly of digastric is the muscle of ……….. arch.
th st
a) 4 arch b) 1 arch
rd nd
c) 3 arch d) 2 arch
128) Tensor tympani is the muscle of …………. arch.
th rd
a) 4 arch b) 3 arch
nd st
c) 2 arch d) 1 arch
129) Tensor palati is the muscle of ……….. arch.
th nd
a) 4 arch b) 2 arch
rd st
c) 3 arch d) 1 arch
130) Occipitofrontalis is the muscle of ……….. arch.
st rd
a) 1 arch b) 3 arch
nd th
c) 2 arch d) 4 arch
131) Platysma is the muscle of ……….. arch.
st nd
a) 1 arch b) 2 arch
rd th
c) 3 arch d) 4 arch
132) Stylohyoid is the muscle of ……….. arch.
st th
a) 1 arch b) 4 arch
rd nd
c) 3 arch d) 2 arch
133) Posterior belly of digastric is the muscle of ………… arch.
st nd
a) 1 arch b) 2 arch

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rd th
c) 3 arch d) 4 arch
134) Stapedius is the muscle of ……….. arch.
st nd
a) 1 arch b) 2 arch
rd th
c) 3 arch d) 4 arch
135) Auricular muscles are the muscle of …………. arch.
st nd
a) 1 arch b) 2 arch
rd th
c) 3 arch d) 4 arch
nd
136) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Platysma
c) Stylohyoid
d) Medial pterygoid
nd
137) Following are the muscles of 2 arch except
a) Platysma
b) Stylohyoid
c) Posterior belly of digastric
d) Lateral pterygoid
nd
138) Following are the muscles of 2 arch except
a) Stylohyoid
b) Posterior belly of digastric
c) Stapedius
d) Masseter
nd
139) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except
a) Posterior belly of digastric
b) Stapedius
c) Auricular muscles
d) Temporalis
nd
140) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except
a) Stapedius
b) Auricular muscle
c) Occipitofrontalis
d) Mylohyoid
nd
141) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except
a) Auricular muscle
b) Occipitofrontalis
c) Platysma
d) Anterior belly of digastric
nd
142) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Platysma
c) Stylohyoid
d) Tensor tympani
nd
143) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except
a) Platysma
b) Stylohyoid
c) Tensor palati
d) Posterior belly of digastric
nd
144) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except
a) Stylohyoid
b) Stylopharyngeus
c) Posterior belly of digastric
d) Stapedius
nd
145) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except.
a) Muscle of larynx

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b) Posterior belly of digastric
c) Stapedius
d) Auricular muscle
nd
146) Following are the muscle of 2 arch except
a) Stapedius
b) Auricular muscle
c) Occipitofrontalis
d) Muscle of pharynx
147) Occipitofrontalis is a muscle of
st th
a) 1 arch b) 4 arch
nd rd
c) 2 arch d) 3 arch
148) Platysma is a muscle of
st nd
a) 1 arch b) 2 arch
rd th
c) 3 arch d) 4 arch
149) Stylohyoid is a muscle of
st rd
a) 1 arch b) 3 arch
nd th
c) 2 arch d) 4 arch
150) Posterior belly of digastric is a muscle of
th nd
a) 4 arch b) 2 arch
rd st
c) 3 arch d) 1 arch
151) Stapedius is a muscle of
st th
a) 1 arch b) 4 arch
nd rd
c) 2 arch d) 3 arch
152) Auricular muscles are muscles of
nd st
a) 2 arch b) 1 arch
th rd
c) 4 arch d) 3 arch
153) Stylopharyngeus is a muscle of
rd st
a) 3 arch b) 1 arch
nd th
c) 2 arch d) 4 arch
rd
154) Following one is the muscle of 3 arch
a) Stylohyoid
b) Muscle of larynx
c) Muscles of pharynx
d) Stylopharyngeus
th
155) Following one is the muscles of 4 arch
a) Auricular muscles
b) Muscles of larynx
c) Occipitofrontalis
d) Platysma
th
156) Following are the muscles of 5 arch
a) Auricular muscles
b) Muscles of pharynx
c) Occipitofrontalis
d) Platysma
st
157) Following one is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Medial pterygoid
b) Occipitofrontalis
c) Stylopharyngeus
d) Muscles of larynx
st
158) Following one is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Stylopharyngeus
b) Muscle of pharynx
c) Platysma
d) Lateral pterygoid

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st
159) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Occipitofrontalis
b) Platysma
c) Masseter
d) Stylohyoid
st
160) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Temporalis
b) Stylohyoid
c) Posterior belly of digastric
d) Stapedius
st
161) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Posterior belly of digastric
b) Mylohyoid
c) Occipitofrontalis
d) Stapedius
st
162) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Anterior belly of digastric
b) Occipitofrontalis
c) Stylopharyngeus
d) Muscle of larynx
st
163) Following is the muscle of 1 arch
a) Tensor tympani
b) Tensor palati
c) a & b
d) Stylopharyngeus
164) Muscles of the pharyngeal arches is derived from
a) Intermediate mesoderm
b) Paraxial mesoderm
c) Lateral plate mesoderm
d) All of the above
165) Mandibular nerve is a ………… nerve of first arch.
a) Pre trematic nerve
b) Post trematic nerve
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
166) Chorda tympani branch of facial nerve is
a) Pre trematic nerve
b) Post trematic nerve
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
167) Double innervations of pre & post trematic nerve is reflected in nerve supply of anterior two
third of tongue which is derived from
st
a) Dorsal part of 1 pharyngeal arch
st
b) Ventral part of 1 pharyngeal arch
st
c) Lateral part of 1 pharyngeal arch
d) Roof of pharynx
168) Organization of paraxial mesoderm is influenced by
a) Somatomere
b) Neural crest cell
c) Neuroglia
d) Oligodendrocytes
169) Epithelial lining of external acoustic meatus develops from
st nd
a) Dorsal part of first cleft between 1 and 2 arches.
nd nd rd
b) Dorsal part of 2 cleft between 2 & 3 arches.
rd rd th
c) Dorsal part of 3 cleft between 3 & 4 arches.

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th th th
d) Dorsal part of 4 cleft between 4 and 5 arches
170) The pinna (or auricle) is formed from a series of swellings or hillocks that arise from
st
a) 1 arch
nd
b) 2 arch
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
171) Cervical sinus is a space between
st nd
a) Over hanging of 1 arch on 2 arch
nd rd th th
b) Over hanging of 2 arch on 3 , 4 & 6 arch
nd
c) Projection growing down wards from 2 arch
nd
d) Fusion of the 2 arch with the caudal tissue of the arch
172) The cavity of cervical sinus is lined by
a) Mesoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
173) Branchial cysts lies
a) In the neck along anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle
b) In the thorax along anterior border of pectoralis major muscle.
c) In the face along anterior border of occipitofrontalis muscle.
d) In the hand along anterior border of deltoid muscle.
174) Branchial cyst is a part of
a) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
b) Cervical sinus
c) Tonsil
d) External acoustic meatus
175) Cervical sinus opens into
a) Lumen of esophagus
b) Lumen of pharynx
c) Lumen of larynx
d) All of the above
176) By the formation of tongue …………. pouch is obliterated
st
a) 1 pharyngeal pouch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal pouch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal pouch
st
177) Dorsal part of 1 pharyngeal pouch receives a contribution from the dorsal part of ………….
pouch.
st
a) 1 pouch
nd
b) 2 pouch
rd
c) 3 pouch
th
d) 4 pouch
st nd
178) Both the dorsal part of 1 and 2 pouch grows towards the region of
a) Developing tongue
b) Developing ear
c) Developing mandible
d) Developing auditory tube
179) The proximal part of ……………. give rise to
a) Middle ear cavity
b) Tympanic antrum
c) Tubotympanic recess
d) All of the above
nd
180) The epithelium of ventral part of 2 pouch contributes to formation of
a) Tongue
b) Tonsil

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c) Auditory tube
d) Middle ear cavity
nd
181) The dorsal part of 2 pouch takes part in formation of
a) Tubotympanic recess
b) Tonsil
c) Tongue
d) Middle ear cavity
182) Inferior parathyroid gland arises from
st nd
a) 1 pouch b) 2 pouch
rd th
c) 3 pouch d) 4 pouch
183) Thymus arises form
st nd
a) 1 pouch b) 2 pouch
rd th
c) 3 pouch d) 4 pouch
184) Superior parathyroid gland arises from
nd rd
a) 2 pouch b) 3 pouch
th st
c) 4 pouch d) 1 pouch
185) …………… contribute to thyroid
nd th
a) 2 pouch b) 4 pouch
rd st
c) 3 pouch d) 1 pouch
186) Ultimobranchial body arises from
nd rd
a) 2 pouch b) 3 pouch
th th
c) 4 pouch d) 5 pouch
187) Caudal pharyngeal complex is formed by
st nd
a) 1 and 2 pouch
rd nd
b) 3 and 2 pouch
th th
c) 4 and 5 pouch
rd th
d) 3 and 4 pouch
188) ……….. arise from caudo pharyngeal complex
a) Inferior parathyroid gland
b) Superior parathyroid gland
c) Thymus
d) Thyroid
189) Caudopharyngeal complex give origin to
a) Follicular cells of Thyroid gland
b) Para follicular cell of thyroid gland
c) Chief cells
d) All of the above
rd
190) Thymus develops from ……………. of 3 pharyngeal pouch
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All of the above
191) ……………… portion of thymus are invaded by vascular mesoderm which contains numerous
lymphoblast’s.
a) Ectodermal
b) Mesodermal
c) Endodermal
d) All of the above
192) Fragmentation of …………… part of the thymus may give rise to accessory thymic tissue.
a) Cervical part
b) Thoracic part
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

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193) Thymus is closely related to
a) Parathyroid III
b) Parathyroid IV
c) Parathyroid II
d) Parathyroid I
194) Parathyroid IV is related to
st
a) 1 pouch
nd
b) 2 pouch
rd
c) 3 pouch
th
d) 4 pouch
195) Parathyroid III is ……………..to parathyroid IV
a) Cranial b) Caudal
c) Dorsal d) Ventral
196) Which parathyroid gland is constant in position
a) Inferior parathyroid gland
b) Superior parathyroid gland
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
197) Thyroid gland develops from …………….
a) Tubotympanic recess
b) Thyroglossal duct
c) Thyroglossal cyst
d) Tuberculum impar
198) Medial end of two ………….. arches are separated by a mid line swelling called tuberculum
impar.
a) Hyoid arch
b) Mandibular arch
c) Cricoid arch
d) Pharyngeal arch
199) Para follicular cells derived from ……………
a) Pharyngeal pouch 1
b) Caudo pharyngeal complex
c) Tuberculum Impar
d) Foramen caecum
200) ……………… represents ultimo branchial body.
a) Follicular cells
b) Para follicular cells
c) Argentafil cells
d) Acidophil cells
201) Pyramidal lobe is related to
a) Thyroid
b) Thymus
c) Pineal
d) Pituitary
202) Thyroglossal fistula opens at
a) Foramen caecum
b) Foramen magendi
c) Foramen Luksha
d) Foramen Vesalius
st nd
203) 1 and 2 arches appear in
th
a) 4 week
th
b) 5 week
th
c) 6 week
th
d) 7 week

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ANSWER KEYS

1) b 2) a 3) e 4) b 5) b 6) c 7) b 8) b 9) b 10) b 11) c 12) a


13) b 14) a 15) e 16) c 17) e 18) b 19) b 20) b 21) a 22) b 23) a 24) d
25) c 26) d 27) c 28) f 29) d 30) b 31) d 32) b 33) c 34) c 35) a 36) c
37) d 38) d 39) d 40) b 41) c 42) a 43) b 44) b 45) b 46) c 47) b 48) a
49) b 50) c 51) c 52) b 53) a 54) d 55) b 56) a 57) b 58) a 59) a 60) a
61) e 62) a 63) b 64) b 65) a 66) c 67) c 68) b 69) c 70) d 71) e 72) a
73) a 74) a 75) b 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) b 80) a 81) b 82) a 83) d 84) b
85) b 86) b 87) a 88) d 89) b 90) e 91) d 92) c 93) c 94) c 95) a 96) b
97) b 98) c 99) d 100) c 101) c 102) d 103) a 104) b 105) a 106) c 107) b 108) b
109) b 110) b 111) c 112) a 113) d 114) d 115) d 116) d 117) a 118) a 119) a 120) b
121) d 122) a 123) a 124) d 125) d 126) d 127) b 128) d 129) d 130) c 131) b 132) d
133) b 134) b 135) b 136) d 137) d 138) d 139) d 140) d 141) d 142) d 143) c 144) b
145) a 146) d 147) c 148) b 149) c 150) b 151) c 152) a 153) a 154) d 155) b 156) b
157) a 158) d 159) c 160) a 161) b 162) a 163) c 164) b 165) b 166) a 167) b 168) b
169) a 170) c 171) b 172) b 173) a 174) b 175) b 176) a 177) b 178) b 179) c 180) b
181) a 182) c 183) c 184) c 185) b 186) d 187) c 188) b 189) b 190) b 191) c 192) a
193) a 194) d 195) b 196) b 197) b 198) b 199) b 200) b 201) a 202) a 203) a

************

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CHAPTER – 10
THE SKELETON

1) Vertebral column is derived from


a) Sclerotome
b) Myotome
c) Dermatome
d) All of the above
2) Developmentally parietal bone
a) Develops from purely membrane
b) Develops from purely cartilage
c) Develops partly membrane partly cartilage
d) All of the above
3) Sphenoid bone is
a) Purely membrane development
b) Purely cartilage development
c) Purely membrane & partly cartilage development
d) All of the above
4) Ethmoid is
a) Purely membrane development
b) Purely cartilage development
c) Partly membrane & partly cartilage development
d) All of the above
5) Mandible is
a) Purely membranous development
b) Purely cartilaginous development
c) Partly membranous & partly cartilaginous development
d) All of the above
6) Loose mesenchyme is nothing but conversion of
a) Sclerotome
b) Myotome
c) Dermatome
d) All of the above
7) Following structure becomes expanded and form nucleus pulposus of vertebral disc.
a) Notochord
b) Prochordal plate
c) Primitive streak
d) All of the above
8) Spina bifida is a condition in which
a) 2 half of the neural arch may fail to fuse in the midline
b) In which neural tube shows incomplete closure
c) Gap between neural arch may not be obvious
d) Gap between neural arches may be large enough for meninges & neural elements to
bulge out of it.

9) Primitive costal arch undergoes …………. to form rib


a) Ossification
b) Chondrification
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
10) Sclerotome is a part of
a) Somite
b) Epiblast
c) Neural tube
d) Notochord

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11) Sclerotome divides into
a) 2 parts
b) 3 parts
c) 4 parts
d) 5 parts
12) Vertebra is formed by the fusion of
a) Caudal part of myotome
b) Cranial part of dermatome
c) Caudal part of sclerotome
d) Caudal part of one sclerotome and the cranial part of next sclerotome
13) Following structure is intersegmental in position
a) Cranial nerves
b) Spinal cord
c) Vertebral
d) Small intestine
14) Intervertebral disc is developing from
a) Cranial part of sclerotome
b) Caudal part of sclerotome
c) Middle part of sclerotome
d) All of the above
15) Skull develops from
a) Mesenchyme
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
16) Origin of bone is
a) Ectodermal
b) Endodermal
c) Mesodermal
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
17) In the developmental process of vertebral column following get converted to loose
mesenchyme
a) Dermatome
b) Myotome
c) Sclerotome
d) All of the above
18) In the developmental process of vertebral column mesenchyme migrate medially & surrounds
…………. .
a) Notochord
b) Primitive streak
c) Neural pore
d) Somites
19) During the developmental process of vertebral column the mesenchyme migrate backward to
surround
a) Notochord
b) Neural tube
c) Somite
d) All of the above
20) During the developmental process of vertebral column mesenchyme migrate ………… to
surround notochord
a) Medially
b) Laterally
c) Forward
d) Backward

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21) During the developmental process of vertebral column mesenchyme from sclerotome migrate
………… to surround neural tube.
a) Medially
b) Laterally
c) Forward
d) Backward
22) During the developmental process of vertebral column mesenchyme from sclerotome migrate
………… to surround transverse process of vertebral column
a) Medially
b) Laterally
c) Ventrally
d) Dorsally
23) During the developmental process of vertebral column mesenchyme from sclerotome migrate
………….. to surround body of vertebra.
a) Medially
b) Laterally
c) Dorsally
d) Ventrally
24) Ventral migration of mesenchyme from sclerotome during the developmental process of
vertebral column position occupied by the
a) Ribs
b) Sternum
c) Innominate bone
d) Sacrum
25) Following procedure is seen during development of sclerotome from somite in the formation
of vertebral column.
a) Partition
b) Segmentation
c) Interruption
d) Fusion
26) The condensed region seen in the development of vertebral column by uniform distribution of
mesenchymal cell across the middle of the segment is called
a) Primitive streak
b) Prochordal plate
c) Perichordal disc
d) Notochord
e) Nucleus pulposus
27) Mesenchymal basis of body or centrum of each vertebra is formed by fusion of the
a) Cranial & caudal part of adjacent sclerotome of 2 vertebrae
b) Adjoining less condensed part of 2 segments
c) Adjoining more condensed part of 2 segments
d) All of the above
28) Perichordal disc develops to form
a) Transverse processes of vertebrae
b) Body of vertebrae
c) Inter vertebral disc
d) Neural arch
29) Neural arch, the transverse processes and the costal elements of vertebrae are formed in the
same ways.
a) As perichordal disc forms
b) As body forms
c) As notochord forms
d) As neural tube forms
30) Interspinous & Inter transverse ligaments of a vertebrae formed in the same manner
a) As the body forms
b) As the perichordal disc forms

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c) As the notochord forms
d) As the neural tube forms
31) Notochord is present in the region of …………. of a vertebra.
a) Somite
b) Neural tube
c) Transverse processes
d) Vertebral bodies
32) Notochord expands in the region of intervertebral disc of vertebral bodies to form
a) Annulus fibrosus
b) Nucleus pulposus
c) Triradiate ligament
d) Superior costo transverse ligament
33) ……………….. expands to form nucleus pulposus of a vertebral body.
a) Neural tube
b) Neuropore
c) Notochord
d) All of the above
34) Blood vessels supplying spinal nerves & vertebrae are developing from
a) Sclerotome
b) Dermatome
c) All of the above
d) Myotome
35) Mesenchymal basis of vertebrae in further stage of development converts to
a) Membrane
b) Cartilage
c) Membrane & cartilage
d) None of the above
36) Neuro central line is seen at junction of
a) Fusion of 2 side neural arch in the postero median line.
b) Fusion of 2 half of body of vertebrae in the anterior median line
c) At the junction of body and neural arch and both side posterolateral corner of vertebrae.
d) None of the above.
37) Spina bifida is a condition arise due to
a) Failure of fusion between two halves of neural arch of vertebrae in the mid line
b) Failure of fusion between two halves of body of vertebrae in the mid line
c) Failure of fusion between adjacent transverse process of adjacent vertebrae.
d) All of the above.
38) Examination of …………….. shows ↑level of AFP (Alfa feto protein) in a case of spina bifida.
a) Amniotic fluid
b) Umbilical cord
c) Wharton’s jelly
d) Chorionic fluid
39) Hemi vertebrae is
a) Failure of development of one of the primary centre of ½ of vertebral body.
b) Failure of development of two of the primary centres of vertebral body.
c) Success of fusion of two primary centers of each ½ of vertebral body.
d) All of the above.
40) Hemi vertebrae is usually associated with
a) Absence of corresponding triradiate ligament.
b) Absence of corresponding ribs
c) Absence of corresponding sternum
d) Absence of corresponding superior costo transverse ligament.
41) Anterior spina bifida arise due to
a) Single hemi vertebrae
b) Double hemi vertebrae

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c) Both
d) None of the above
42) Klippel feil syndrome is seen in
a) Cervical region
b) Thoracic region
c) Lumbar region
d) Sacral region
43) Klippel – Feil syndrome arise due to
a) Fusion of 2 to 3 vertebrae’s in cervical region.
b) Failure of fusion of 2 to 3 vertebrae’s in cervical region.
c) Fusion of 2 to 3 vertebrae in thoracic region.
d) Failure of fusion of 2 to 3 vertebrae in thoracic region.
st
44) The condition in which 1 sacral vertebrae separates from rest of the sacral vertebrae called.
a) Sacralization of 1st sacral vertebrae
st
b) Lumbarisation of 1 sacral vertebrae
th
c) Lumbarisation of 5 lumbar vertebrae
st
d) Sacralization of 1 lumbar vertebrae
th
45) The condition in which 5 lumbar vertebrae may be partially or completely fused to sacrum is
called
th
a) Sacralization of 5 lumbar vertebrae
th
b) Lumbarization of 5 lumbar vertebrae
th
c) Lumbarization of 5 sacral vertebrae
th
d) Sacralization of 5 sacral vertebrae
46) Spondylolisthesis is called
th rd
a) Body of 4 lumbar vertebrae fuse with 3 one
th
b) Body of 5 lumbar vertebrae may slip forward over sacrum.
st nd
c) Body of 1 lumbar vertebrae may fuse with 2 lumbar vertebrae.
st th
d) Body of 1 lumbar vertebrae may fuse with body of 12 thoracic vertebrae.
47) Diastematomylia is a condition arise due to
a) Longitudinal split of spinal cord into 2 halves due to divide of the vertebral canal into 2
lateral halves by a projecting self of bone.
b) Multiple horizontal projecting self of bone into multiple segment.
c) Longitudinal split of vertebral bodies
d) All of the above.
48) Chondro osteodestrophy is a condition arise due to
a) Defective chondrification of cartilaginous model.
b) Defective ossification of vertebral bodies.
c) Longitudinal split of vertebral canals
d) All of the above.
49) Chondro osteodestrophy leads to
a) Reduction of total length of spines
b) Reduction of total length of ribs
c) Reduction of total length of sternum
d) Reduction of total length of skull
50) Sacrococcygeal terratoma is an abnormal tumor growth of
a) Cell of primitive streak
b) Cell of primitive knot
c) Cell of prochordal plate
d) Cell of notochord.
ANSWER KEYS
1) a 2) a 3) c 4) b 5) a 6) a 7) a 8) a 9) b 10) a 11) b 12) d
13) c 14) c 15) a 16) c 17) c 18) a 19) b 20) a 21) d 22) b 23) d 24) a
25) b 26) c 27) b 28) c 29) b 30) b 31) d 32) b 33) c 34) d 35) b 36) c
37) a 38) a 39) a 40) b 41) b 42) a 43) a 44) b 45) a 46) b 47) a 48) b
49) a 50) b

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CHAPTER – 11
DEVELOPMENT OF MOUTH, NOSE, LIP AND PALATE

1) Stomatodeum is
a) Future month
b) Future anal canal
c) Future nose
d) Future brain
2) Following are the prominences appear around stomatodeum except
a) Fronto nasal process.
b) Rt. Mandibular arches.
c) Lt. Mandibular arches.
d) Rt. Maxillary process.
3) Following arch divides into maxillary process and a mandibular process
a) Hyoid arch
b) Mandibular arch
c) Cricoid arch cartilage
d) Thyroid arch cartilage
4) Following structures are formed by Rt. & left mandibular process meet in the mid line & fused
except
a) Upper lip
b) Lower lip
c) Lower jaw
d) Lower chin
5) Following process are fused to from upper lip except
a) Fronto nasal process
b) Rt. Maxillary process
c) Lt. Maxillary process
d) Mandibular process
6) Failure of fusion of fronto nasal process with Rt. Maxillary process & Lt. Maxillary process will
lead to
a) Cleft lip
b) Hare lip
c) Cleft palate
d) All of the above
7) Following structure is formed due to fusion of posterior part of maxillary and mandibular
process
a) Check
b) Lip
c) Nose
d) Jaw
8) Nose is derived from
a) Rt. Maxillary process
b) Lt. Maxillary process
c) Frontonasal process
d) Mandibular process
9) Following appear as an out growth from the nasal cavity.
a) Nose
b) Para nasal sinus
c) Nasal septum
d) Lateral wall of nose
10) Primitive palate is derived from
a) Maxillary process
b) Mandibular process

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c) Frontonasal process
d) Palatal process
11) Following is the component for formation of palate.
a) Right & Left palatal process & primitive palate
b) Right & Left palatal process & mandibular process
c) Right & Left palatal process & maxillary process
d) Right & Left palatal process & nasal placode

ANSWER KEYS

1) a 2) d 3) b 4) a 5) d 6) b 7) a 8) c 9) b 10) c 11) a

*********

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CHAPETR – 12
ALIMENTARY SYSTEM 1: MOUTH PHARYNX AND RELATED STRUCTURES

1) Oral cavity is derived from


a) Stomatodeum
b) Partly from stomatodeum & partly from foregut
c) Foregut
d) Midgut
2) Stomatodeum is
a) Endodermal in nature
b) Ectodermal in nature
c) Mesodermal in nature
d) All of the above
3) Foregut is
a) Ectodermal
b) Endodermal
c) Mesodermal
d) All of the above
4) Stomatodeum & foregut are separated by
a) Cloacal membrane
b) Buccopharyngeal membrane
c) Amniotic membrane
d) Chorionic membrane
5) Ameloblast is derived from
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All of the above
6) Odontoblast is derived from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
7) Ameloblast & odonto blast both develop from
a) Pulp cavity b) Dentine
c) Enamel d) Root
8) Pulp is formed of
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All of the above
9) Pulp invaginate into
a) Dentine
b) Enamel organ
c) Cement organ
d) All of the above
10) Following number of swelling appear in the floor of the pharynx
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
11) Following are the swellings appear in the floor of pharynx related to first pharyngeal arch.
a) Right lingual swelling
b) Left lingual swelling
c) Tuberculum Impar
d) Hypobranchial eminence

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12) Hypobranchial eminence is a
a) Lateral swelling
b) Median swelling
c) Anterior swelling
d) Posterior swelling
13) Hypobranchial eminence is related to
st nd
a) 1 & 2 arch
rd th
b) 3 & 4 arch
th th
c) 5 & 6 arch
d) None of the above
14) Following is formed from tuberculum impar
a) Anterior ½ of tongue
b) Posterior ½ of tongue
rd
c) Anterior 2/3 of tongue
rd
d) Posterior 2/3 of tongue
15) Following is formed from lingual swelling
a) Tip of tongue
b) Root of tongue
rd
c) Anterior 2/3 of tongue
rd
d) Posterior 2/3 of tongue
rd
16) Posterior 1/3 of the tongue is formed by
a) Cranial part of the hypobranchial eminence
b) Cranial part of the tuberculum impar
c) Cranial part of the right lingual swelling
d) Caudal part of the hypobranchial eminence
17) Salivary glands develop as an outgrowth of
a) Nasal epithelium
b) Buccal epithelium
c) Laryngeal epithelium
d) Tracheal epithelium
18) Following is develop as an outgrowth of buccal epithelium
a) Trachea b) Salivary gland
c) Pharynx d) Tongue
19) Palatine tonsil develops in relation to
st
a) 1 pharyngeal pouch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal pouch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal pouch
nd
20) Following is develop in relation to 2 pharyngeal pouch
a) Tubal tonsil
b) Palatine tonsil
c) Lingual tonsil
d) Cerebellar tonsil
21) Pharynx is derived from
a) Foregut b) Midgut
c) Hindgut d) All of the above.

ANSWER KEYS

1) b 2) b 3) b 4) b 5) b 6) b 7) b 8) c 9) b 10) c 11) d 12) b


13) b 14) c 15) c 16) d 17) b 18) b 19) b 20) b 21) a

**********

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CHAPTER – 13
ALIMENTARY SYSTEM II - GIT.

1) Which of following is at first evoluted in the form of a flat sheet & converted into a tube
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) All of the above
2) The gut tube arise as a fold from
a) Chorionic membrane
b) Alantois
c) Embryonic disc
d) Yolk sac
3) Following are the folds arise from embryonic disc except
a) Head fold
b) Tail fold
c) Lateral fold
d) Medial fold
4) Following part of gut at first is in wide communication with the yolk sac
a) Fore gut
b) Hind gut
c) Mid gut
d) All of the above
5) Following part of the gut forms tubular extension later on
a) Foregut
b) Mid gut
c) Hind gut
d) All of the above
6) Following part of the gut forms a loop after it becomes tubular.
a) Foregut
b) Mid gut
c) Hind gut
d) All of the above
7) Pre arterial segment is a part of
a) Foregut
b) Mid gut
c) Hind gut
d) All of the above
8) Post arterial segment is a part of
a) Foregut
b) Mid gut
c) Hind gut
d) All of the above
9) The caudal part of hind gut is
a) Allantois
b) Cloacae
c) Primitive streak
d) Primitive knot
10) Following is partitioned to form primitive rectum & primitive urogenital sinus
a) Hindgut
b) Cloacae
c) Midgut
d) Foregut

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11) Following is derived from foregut
a) Esophagus
b) Duodenum
c) Jejunum
d) Ileum
12) Stomach derived from
a) Foregut
b) Midgut
c) Hind gut
d) All of the above
13) Duodenum derived from
a) Foregut
b) Midgut
c) Hindgut
d) Foregut & midgut
14) Following part of the duodenum develops from foregut
a) Superior part & upper ½ of the descending part
b) Lower ½ of the descending part & proximal ½ of the horizontal part
c) Distal ½ of the horizontal part
d) Ascending part
15) Following part of the duodenum develops from midgut
a) Superior part
b) Upper ½ of the descending part
c) Lower ½ of the descending part
d) Superior duodenal flexure
16) Following part of the duodenum develops from midgut except.
a) Superior part
b) Lower ½ of the descending part
c) Inferior duodenal flexure
d) Horizontal part & ascending part
17) Following derived from pre arterial segment of midgut loop
a) Duodenum
b) Jejunum
c) Appendix
d) Ascending colon
18) Following is derived from pre arterial segment of mid gut loop
a) Duodenum
b) Ileum
c) Appendix
d) Caecum
19) Jejunum & Ileum are derived from
a) Foregut
b) Pre arterial segment of mid gut
c) Post arterial segment of mid gut
d) Hind gut
20) Caecum derived from
a) Pre arterial segment of caecal bud
b) Post arterial segment of caecal bud
c) Foregut
d) Hind gut
21) Post arterial segment of mid gut loop gives off
a) Jejunal bud
b) Ileal bud
c) Caecal bud
d) Duodenal bud

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22) After gut is fully formed it undergoes
a) Rotation
b) Segmentation
c) Break from proximal region
d) Break from distal region
23) Following structure comes to lie on right side due to rotation of gut
a) Stomach, duodenum
b) Jejunum, ileum
c) Caecum, ascending colon
d) Descending colons, rectum
24) Following structure comes to lie on left side of the abdominal cavity after gut rotation.
a) Stomach, duodenum
b) Jejunum, Ileum
c) Caecum, appendix
d) Ascending colon, proximal ½ of the transverse colon

ANSWER KEYS
1) b 2) c 3) d 4) c 5) b 6) b 7) b 8) b 9) b 10) b 11) a 12) a
13) d 14) a 15) c 16) a 17) b 18) b 19) b 20) b 21) c 22) a 23) c 24) b

**********

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CHAPTER – 14
DEVEPOLEMENT OF EXTRA HEPATIC BILLIARY APPARATUS, PANCREASE,
SPLEEN, RESPIRATORY SYSTEM AND BODY CAVITIES

1) Biliary passage derived from


a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
2) Following is the area where the hepatic bud arise
a) Foregut
b) Mid gut
c) Junction of foregut & mid gut
d) Hind gut
3) Biliary passage is a
a) Ectodermal structure
b) Endodermal structure
c) Mesodermal structure
d) All of the above
4) Biliary passage develops from
a) Hepatic bud
c) Appendicular bud
b) Caecal bud
d) None of the above
5) Pancreas develop from
a) One bud
b) Two bud
c) Three bud
d) Four bud
6) The bud responsible for development of pancreas is
a) Dorsal & ventral bud
b) Lateral & medial bud
c) Superior & interior bud
d) None of the above
7) Spleen develops in
a) Mesovarium
b) Dorsal mesogastrium
c) Meso colon
d) Meso appendix
8) Following is develop from medial diverticulum of the foregut
a) Gastro intestinal system
b) Respiratory system
c) Cardio vascular system
d) Urogenital system
9) Respiratory system develops from
a) Lateral diverticulum of the foregut
b) Medial diverticulum of the foregut
c) Superior diverticulum of the foregut
d) Inferior diverticulum of the foregut
10) Following structures arise from caudal end of the medial diverticulum arise from foregut
a) Dorsal & ventral bud and pancreas
b) Rt. & Lt. lung
c) Larynx
d) Trachea

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11) Peritoneal Pericardial, pleural cavities develop from
a) Extra embryonic coelom
b) Intra embryonic coelom
c) Extra embryonic mesoderm
d) Intra embryonic mesoderm
12) Lung bud undergo repeated division to establish
a) Trachea
b) Larynx
c) Bronchial tree
d) Hilum
13) Larynx & trachea develop from part of respiratory diverticulum
a) Caudal to its division
b) Cranial to its division
c) Ventral to its division
d) All of the above
14) Alveoli of the lung derives from
a) Repeated division of bronchial tree
b) Repeated division of bronchial lung bud
c) Repeated division of bronchial trachea
d) Repeated division of bronchial larynx
15) Intra embryonic coelom of both side are connected across the middle line
a) Caudal to prochordal plate
b) Cranial to prochordal plate
c) Cranial to primitive streak
d) Caudal to primitive streak
16) Pericardial cavity derived from intra embryonic coelom from
a) Median midline part of it
b) Lateral part of it
c) Anterior part of it
d) Posterior part of it
17) After formation of the head fold of embryonic disc this pericardial cavity lie
a) Dorsal to foregut
b) Ventral to foregut
c) Cranial to midgut
d) Caudal to midgut

ANSWER KEYS

1) c 2) c 3) b 4) a 5) b 6) a 7) b 8) b 9) b 10) b 11) b 12) c


13) b 14) b 15) b 16) a 17) b

*********

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CHAPTER – 15
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1) Heart develops from
a)+ Somato pleuric mesoderm
b) Splanchno pleuric mesoderm
c) Cardiogenic area
d) b & c
2) Splanchno pleuric mesoderm related to the
a) Intra embryonic coelom
b) Extra embryonic coelom
c) Peritoneal cavity
d) Pleural cavity
3) Splanchno pleuric mesoderm arises from
a) Pericardial cavity
b) Peritoneal cavity
c) Yolk Sac
d) Amniotic sac
4) Heart develops form of
a) Cavity b) Tube
c) Bucket d) Pyramid
5) Heart tube develops from
a) Endothelium
b) Mesothelium
c) Ectoderm
d) All of the above
rd
6) Proximal 1/3 of the Heart tube is named as
a) Bulbus cordis
b) Conus
c) Truncus arteriosus
d) Atrio-ventricular canal
7) Bulbus cordis is
rd
a) Proximal 1/3 of heart tube
rd
b) Middle 1/3 of heart tube
rd
c) Distal 1/3 of heart tube
d) All of the above
8) Conus is
rd
a) Proximal 1/3 of heart tube
rd
b) Middle 1/3 of heart tube
rd
c) Distal 1/3 of heart tube
d) All of the above
9) Truncus arteriosus is
rd
a) Proximal 1/3 of heart tube
rd
b) Middle 1/3 of heart tube
rd
c) Distal 1/3 of heart tube
d) All of the above
10) The narrow part connecting atrium & ventricle is
a) Atrio ventricular septum
b) Atrio ventricular canal
c) Bulbar ridge
d) Bulbar septum
11) Following structure contain Rt. & Lt. horn
a) Truncus arteriosus
b) Bulbus cordis
c) Sinus venosus

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d) None of the above
rd
12) The following is the distal 1/3 of the heart tube
a) Bulbus cordis
b) Truncus arteriosus
c) Sinus venosus
d) Atrio ventricular canal
rd
13) The following is the middle 1/3 of the heart tube
a) Bulbus cordis
b) Sinus venosus
c) Truncus arteriosus
d) Conus
14) Right & Left atria of the heart are formed by partition of
a) Septum primum
b) Foramen ovale
c) Primitive atrium
d) All of the above
15) Septum secundum is a part of
a) Primitive atrium
b) Primitive ventricle
c) Bulbus cordis
d) Conus
16) Septum secundum is a part of
a) Primitive atrium
b) Primitive ventricle
c) Bulbus cordis
d) All of the above
17) Following is the valvular passage present between septum primum & septum secundum
a) Foramen magendi
b) Foramen ovale
c) Foramen Lushka
d) Foramen Vesalius
18) Foramen ovale allows flow of blood from
a) Rt. atrium to Rt. ventricle
b) Rt. atrium to Lt. atrium
c) Rt. ventricle to Lt. ventricle
d) Lt. atrium to Lt. ventricle
19) Which part of the bulbus cordis is dilated
rd
a) Distal 1/3
rd
b) Proximal 1/3
rd
c) Middle 1/3
d) All of the above
20) Rt. & Lt. ventricle are developing from
rd
a) Atrio ventricular canal, distal 1/3 bulbus cordis, conus.
rd
b) Middle 1/3 bulbus cordis, conus, primitive ventricle
rd
c) Dilated proximal 1/3 of bulbus cordis, conus, primitive ventricle
d) All of the above
21) Intra ventricular septum grows upwards from
a) Roof of the primitive ventricle
b) Floor of the primitive ventricle
c) Lateral wall of the primitive ventricle
d) All of the above
22) Following divides the conus into 2 parts
a) Septum primum
b) Septum secondum
c) Bulbar septum

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d) Atrio ventricular canal
23) The gap between two parts of conus is filled by
a) Proliferation of atrio ventricular cushions
b) Atrio ventricular septum
c) Aortic sac
d) Pharyngeal arch arteries
24) Atrio ventricular cushions are formed in
a) Atrio ventricular canal
b) Atrio ventricular septum
c) Foramen ovale
d) Septum primum & septum secundum
25) Truncus arteriosus is continuous with
a) Aortic sac
b) Pharyngeal arteries
c) Inter arterial septum
d) Primitive atrium
26) Each horn of aortic sac contains
a) 5 pharyngeal arch arteries
b) 6 pharyngeal arch arteries
c) 4 pharyngeal arch arteries
d) 3 pharyngeal arch arteries
27) Pharyngeal arch arteries join
a) Ventral aorta
b) Dorsal aorta
c) Arch of aorta
d) All of the above
28) Following arch arteries disappears except
st
a) 1 arch arteries
nd
b) 2 arch arteries
rd
c) 3 arch arteries
th
d) 5 arch arteries
29) Following part of right & left dorsal aorta fuse and form one median vessel
a) Ventral part
b) Dorsal part
c) Cranial part
d) Caudal part
30) Following is the structure formed from truncus arteriosus
a) Descending aorta
b) Ascending aorta
c) Arch of aorta
d) Thoracic aorta
31) Following is the structure formed from truncus arteriosus
a) Pulmonary vein
b) Rt. pulmonary artery
c) Pulmonary trunk
d) Lt. pulmonary artery
32) Following is the arch artery from which arch of aorta is formed
st
a) Left 1 arch artery
nd
b) Left 2 arch artery
rd
c) Left 3 arch artery
th
d) Left 4 arch artery
33) Arch of aorta is formed by
a) Aortic sac
b) Bulbar septum
c) Primitive ventricle

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d) Truncus arteriosus
34) Indicate the correct statement
a) Descending aorta is formed mainly from left dorsal aorta
b) Descending aorta is formed mainly from Rt. dorsal aorta
c) Descending aorta is formed partly from Lt. dorsal aorta & fused median vessel
d) Descending aorta is formed mainly from fused median vessel.
rd
35) Following is the structure derived from 3 arch artery
a) Subclavian artery
b) Common carotid artery
c) Pulmonary artery
d) Artery of gut
th
36) Following is the structure derived from 6 arch artery
a) Brachio cephalic artery
b) Common carotid artery
c) Pulmonary artery
d) Arteries to the gut
37) Brachio cephalic artery is formed from
a) Rt. horn of aortic sac
b) Lt. horn of aortic sac
c) Base of aortic sac
d) Truncus arteriosus
38) Common carotid artery is derived from
st
a) 1 arch artery
nd
b) 2 arch artery
rd
c) 3 arch artery
th
d) 4 arch artery
th
39) Following is derived from 6 arch artery
a) Pulmonary trunk
b) Pulmonary artery
c) Pulmonary vein
d) Bronchial artery
40) Following is the artery from which artery to the gut formed
a) Dorsal somatic branches of dorsal aorta
b) Ventral somatic branches of ventral aorta
c) Ventral splanchnic branches of dorsal aorta
d) Ventral splanchnic branches of ventral aorta
41) Following is the branches of artery from which renal artery; supra renal artery & gonadal
arteries are formed
a) Ventral splanchnic branches of dorsal aorta
b) Dorsal splanchnic branches of dorsal aorta
c) Lateral splanchnic branches of dorsal aorta
d) Lateral splanchnic branches of ventral aorta
42) Arteries of body wall & limb are derived from,
a) Dorsolateral (Somatic inter segmental) branch of the aorta
b) Ventromedial (somatic inter segmental) branch of the aorta
c) Lateral (somatic inter segmental) branch of the aorta
d) Medial (somatic inter segmental) branch of the aorta
43) Following is the intersegmental arteries from which Lt. Subclavian arteries are formed partly
from
th
a) 5 cervical intersegmental artery
th
b) 6 cervical intersegmental artery
th
c) 7 cervical intersegmental artery
th
d) 4 cervical intersegmental artery
44) Rt. Subclavian artery is formed
th
a) Mainly from 4 arch artery

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th
b) Partly from 5 arch artery
th
c) Mainly from 6 arch artery
th
d) Partly from 4 arch artery and partly from seventh cervical inter segmental artery
45) Following is the structure from which portal vein is formed
a) Rt. Vitelline vein
b) Anastomosis of Rt. & Lt. Vitelline vein
c) Lt. Vitelline vein
d) Umbilical vein
46) Superior vena cava is derived
a) Mainly from right anterior cardinal vein
b) Mainly from right common cardinal vein
c) Partly from right anterior cardinal vein & partly from right common cardinal vein
d) Mainly from Left anterior cardinal vein
47) Following are the veins from which Inferior vena cava receives contribution
a) Right posterior cardinal vein
b) Right sub cardinal vein
c) Right supra cardinal vein & Rt. Hepato cardiac channel
d) Left supra cardinal vein & Lt. Hepato cardiac channel.

ANSWER KEYS

1) d 2) a 3) a 4) b 5) a 6) a 7) a 8) b 9) c 10) b 11) c 12) b


13) d 14) c 15) a 16) a 17) b 18) b 19) b 20) c 21) b 22) c 23) a 24) a
25) a 26) b 27) b 28) c 29) d 30) b 31) c 32) d 33) a 34) c 35) b 36) c
37) a 38) c 39) b 40) c 41) c 42) a 43) c 44) d 45) c 46) c 47) d

**********

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CHAPETR – 16
UROGENITAL SYSTEM
1) Urogenital system is derived from
a) Paraxial mesoderm
b) Lateral plate mesoderm
c) Intermediate mesoderm
d) All of the above
2) Primitive urogenital sinus is a part of
a) Stomatodeum
b) Cloacae
c) Prochordal plate
d) Primitive streak
3) Urogenital system is derived from
a) Primitive urogenital sinus
b) Primitive rectum
c) Primitive urethra
d) Urethral canal
4) Primitive Urogenital sinus divides into
a) Vesico urethral canal & definitive urogenital sinus
b) Urethral canal & cervical sinus
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
5) Following is the structure develop from vesico urethral canal
a) Bladder
b) Kidney
c) Ureter
d) None of the above
6) Primitive urethra is a part of
a) Definitive Urogenital sinus
b) Vesico urethral canal
c) Metanephros
d) All of the above
7) Definitive Urogenital sinus has a pelvic part & a
a) Thoracic part
b) Phallic part
c) Cranial part
d) Caudal part
8) The excretory tubules of kidney is develops from
a) Pronephros
b) Mesonephros
c) Metanephros
d) All of the above
9) The collecting duct part of the kidney is develops from
a) Pronephros
b) Mesonephros
c) Metanephros
d) Mesonephric duct
10) Metanephros is
a) Highest part of nephrogenic cord
b) Middle part of nephrogenic cord
c) Lowest part of nephrogenic cord
d) None of the above

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11) Lowest part of nephrogenic cord is develops from
a) Paraxial mesoderm
b) Lateral plate mesoderm
c) Intermediate mesoderm
d) None of the above
12) Collecting part of the kidney is formed by
a) Ramification of renal bud
b) Ramification of ureteric bud
c) Ramification of prostatic bud
d) Ramification of uterine bud
13) Ureter develops from
a) Pronephros
b) Mesonephros
c) Metanephros
d) Mesonephric duct
14) Urinary bladder is derived from
a) Cranial part of the vesico urethral canal
b) Middle part of the vesico urethral canal
c) Caudal part of the vesico urethral canal
d) None of the above
15) Cranial part of vesico urethral canal is a
a) Ectodermal structure
b) Mesodermal structure
c) Endodermal structure
d) None of the above
16) Epithelium of trigone is derived from
a) None absorbed mesonephric duct
b) Absorbed mesonephric duct
c) Primitive urethra
d) None of the above
17) Female urethra is derived from
a) Pelvic part of urogenital sinus
b) Phallic part of urogenital sinus
c) Absorbed mesonephric duct
d) None of the above
18) In male …………… corresponds to female urethra
a) Membranous urethra
b) Prostatic urethra
c) Penile urethra
d) None of the above
19) The membranous urethra is derived from
a) Pelvic part of urogenital sinus
b) Phallic part of urogenital sinus
c) Primitive urogenital sinus
d) Vesico urethral canal
20) Penile urethra is derived from
a) Pelvic part of urogenital sinus
b) Phallic part of urogenital sinus
c) Primitive urogenital sinus
d) Vesico urethral canal
21) Terminal part of penile urethra is
a) Endodermal
b) Mesodermal
c) Ectodermal
d) None of the above

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22) Prostrate is formed by bud arising from
a) Cranial part of vesico urethral canal
b) Caudal part of vesico urethral canal
c) Middle part of vesico urethral canal
d) None of the above
23) Prostatic bud arises from
a) Pelvic part of urogenital sinus
b) Phallic part of urogenital sinus
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
24) Uterine tubes are derived from
a) Mesonephric duct
b) Para mesonephric duct
c) Ureteric bud
d) Primitive urethrae
25) Para mesonephric duct is
a) Ectodermal
b) Mesodermal
c) Endodermal
d) None of the above
26) Uterus is formed from
a) Rt. Para mesonephric duct
b) Lt. Para mesonephric duct
c) Mesonephric duct
d) Fused Rt & Lt. Para mesonephric duct
27) External genitalia are formed from
a) Swelling around urogenital membrane
b) Swelling around vesico urethral canal
c) Swelling around primitive urogenital sinus
d) None of the above
28) Gonads are derived from
a) Coelomic epithelium covering nephrogenic cord
b) Ramification of ureteric tube
c) Terminal part of nephrogenic cord
d) None of the above
29) Primordial sex cells arise from
a) Amniotic sac
b) Yolk sac
c) Chorionic cavity
d) None of the above
30) The following is the organ from which testis is formed
a) Genital ridge
b) Nephric ridge
c) Prostatic bud
d) All of the above
31) Duct of testis derived from
a) Mesonephric tubule
b) Pronephros
c) Metanephros
d) None of the above

ANSWER KEYS
1) c 2) b 3) a 4) a 5) a 6) b 7) b 8) c 9) d 10) c 11) c 12) b
13) d 14) a 15) c 16) b 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) b 21) c 22) b 23) a 24) b
25) b 26) d 27) a 28) a 29) b 30) c 31) a

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CHAPTER – 17
THE NERVOUS SYSTEM
1) Ectoderm overlying the notochord becomes thickened to form
a) Neural tube
b) Neural plate
c) Brain
d) Spinal cord
2) Following is converted to neural groove & then neural tube
a) Neuropore
b) Notochord
c) Neural plate
d) Prochordal plate
3) Brain & spinal cord are the structure formed from
a) Neural plate
b) Neural tube
c) Notochord
d) Neuropore
4) Brain is the
a) Caudal narrow part of neural tube
b) Cranial enlarged part of neural tube
c) Middle part of neural tube
d) None of the above
5) Spinal cord is the
a) Caudal narrow part of neural tube
b) Cranial enlarged part of neural tube
c) Middle part of neural tube
d) None of the above
6) Cranial part of neural tube show
a) 2 dilatations
b) 1 dilatation
c) 3 dilatations
d) 4 dilatations
7) …………….divides into diencephalon & telencephalon
a) Prosencephalon
b) Mesencephalon
c) Rhomb encephalon
d) None of the above
8) Following from below divides into metencephalon & myelencephalon
a) Prosencephalon
b) Mesencephalon
c) Rhomb encephalon
d) None of the above
9) Most of the cerebral hemisphere is formed by
a) Telencephalon
b) Myelencephalon
c) Metencephalon
d) Diencephalon
10) Corpus striatum is formed by
a) Myelencephalon
b) Metencephalon
c) Telencephalon
d) Diencephalon

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11) Following is the cavity of telencephalon
a) Lateral ventricle
rd
b) 3 ventricle
th
c) 4 ventricle
d) None of the above
12) Following forms the thalamus
a) Myelencephalon
b) Metencephalon
c) Diencephalon
d) Telencephalon
13) Following forms the hypothalamus
a) Myelencephalon
b) Metencephalon
c) Telencephalon
d) Diencephalon
14) Following is the cavity of diencephalon
rd
a) 3 ventricle
b) Lateral ventricle
th
c) 4 ventricle
d) All of the above
15) Following is the organ which forms midbrain
a) Prosencephalon
b) Mesencephalon
c) Rhomb encephalon
d) All of the above
16) Following cavity from below forms the cerebral aqueduct
a) Cavity of mesencephalon
b) Cavity of prosencephalon
c) Cavity of Rhomb encephalon
d) All of the above
17) Following from below forms pons
a) Myelencephalon
b) Metencephalon
c) Prosencephalon
d) Telencephalon
18) Following from below forms cerebellum
a) Metencephalon
b) Myelencephalon
c) Telencephalon
d) Diencephalon
19) Following from below forms medulla oblongata
a) Metencephalon
b) Myelencephalon
c) Telencephalon
d) Diencephalon
20) Following is the cavity of rhomb encephalon
a) Lateral ventricle
rd
b) 3 ventricle
th
c) 4 ventricle
d) None of the above
th
21) 4 ventricle is the cavity of the
a) Metencephalon
b) Rhomb encephalon
c) Telencephalon
d) Diencephalon

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22) Cells of neural crest lie
a) Along anterior edge of neural plate
b) Along medial edge of neural plate
c) Along Lateral edge of neural plate
d) Along posterior edge of neural plate
23) Following are the derivatives of neural crest cell except
a) Sensory ganglia
b) Motor ganglia
c) Parasympathetic ganglia
d) Sympathetic ganglia
24) Following are the layer’s of neural tube except
a) Ependymal layer
b) Marginal layer
c) Mantle layer
d) Peripheral layer
25) Following layer of neural tube divides into basal & alar lamina
a) Ependymal layer
b) Marginal layer
c) Mantle layer
d) None of the above
26) Following layer of neural tube develops neuron
a) Ependymal layer
b) Marginal layer
c) Mantle layer
d) None of the above
27) The ventral part of mantle layer arises to
a) Alar lamina
b) Basal lamina
c) Both
d) None of the above
28) The alar lamina arises from
a) Ventral part of mantle layer
b) Dorsal part of mantle layer
c) Cranial part of mantle layer
d) Medial part of mantle layer
29) Following separates the dorsal lamina from alar lamina
a) Sulcus limitans
b) Nasolabial sulcus
c) Sagittarian sulcus
d) All of the above
30) Spinal cord arises from
a) Ependymal layer
b) Marginal layer
c) Mantle layer
d) All of the above
31) White matter of cerebrum forms from
a) Ependymal layer of neural tube
b) Marginal layer of neural tube
c) Mantle layer of neural tube
d) All of the above
32) In the spinal cord ventral grey column form by
a) Alar lamina
b) Basal lamina
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

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33) Efferent nuclei of cranial nerve develops from
a) Alar lamina
b) Basal lamina
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
34) Afferent nuclei of cranial nerve develops from
a) Alar lamina
b) Basal lamina
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
35) Cerebellum is derived from
a) Alar lamina of the metencephalon
b) Basal lamina of the metencephalon
c) Alar lamina of the myelencephalon
d) Basal lamina of the myelencephalon
36) Superior & Inferior colliculus, red nucleus, substantia nigra develops from
a) Alar lamina of the mesencephalon
b) Alar lamina of the prosencephalon
c) Alar lamina of the rhombencephalon
d) None of the above
37) Olivary nuclei forms from
a) Alar lamina of mylencephalon
b) Basal lamina of mylencephalon
c) Alar lamina of metencephalon
d) Basal lamina of mylencephalon

ANSWER KEYS

1) b 2) c 3) b 4) b 5) a 6) c 7) a 8) c 9) a 10) c 11) a 12) c


13) d 14) a 15) b 16) a 17) b 18) a 19) b 20) c 21) b 22) c 23) b 24) d
25) c 26) c 27) b 28) b 29) a 30) c 31) b 32) b 33) b 34) a 35) a 36) a
37) a

**********

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CHAPETR – 18
HYPOPHYSIS CEREBRI, PINEAL AND ADRENAL GLAND

1) Pars anterior of hypophysis cerebri develops from


a) Rathke’s pouch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal pouch
th
d) 4 pharyngeal pouch
2) Pars intermedia of hypophysis cerebri develops from
st
a) 1 pharyngeal pouch
nd
b) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
c) 3 pharyngeal pouch
d) Rathke’s pharyngeal pouch
3) Pars nervosa develop from
a) Rathke’s pouch
st
b) 1 pharyngeal pouch
nd
c) 2 pharyngeal pouch
rd
d) Down growth arising from floor of the 3 ventricle
4) Pineal gland develops as a
rd
a) Down growth from floor of 3 ventricle
rd
b) Diverticulum from floor of 3 ventricle
rd
c) Diverticulum from roof of 3 ventricle
rd
d) Down growth from roof of 3 ventricle
5) Adrenal gland cortex derived from
a) Down growth from floor of 3rd ventricle
rd
b) Down growth from roof of 3 ventricle
c) Coelomic epithelium
rd
d) Diverticulum of roof of 3 ventricle
6) Adrenal gland medulla derives from
a) Neural tube
b) Neural crest cell
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

ANSWER KEYS

1) a 2) d 3) d 4) c 5) c 6) b

**********

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CHAPTER – 19
THE EYE AND EAR
1) Retina is formed from
a) Optic vesicle
b) Optic cup
c) Lens vesicle
d) Lens placode
2) Optic vesicle is a
a) Out growth of mesencephalon
b) Out growth of prosencephalon
c) Out growth of Rhomb encephalon
d) In growth of proscencephalon
3) Optic vesicle is converted to
a) Optic cup
b) Lens placode
c) Lens vesicle
d) None of the above
4) Lens develops from
a) Surface mesoderm
b) Surface endoderm
c) Surface ectoderm
d) All of the above
5) Lens develops from
a) Optic vesicle
b) Lens vesicle
c) Lens placode
d) Optic cup
6) Lens vesicle comes to lie in
a) Optic vesicle
b) Optic cup
c) Lens placode
d) None of the above
7) Sclera, choroid & retina forms from
a) Mesoderm b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm d) None of the above
8) Cornea develop from
a) Endoderm
b) Ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) None of the above
9) Eyelid is a reduplication of
a) Surface ectoderm of cornea
b) Surface endoderm of cornea
c) Surface mesoderm of cornea
d) None of the above
10) Lacrimal sac & nasolacrimal duct develops from
a) Naso optic groove
b) Naso optic furrow
c) Naso lacrimal duct
d) All of the above
11) Lacrimal sac & nasolacrimal duct develops from
a) Mesoderm b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm d) All of the above

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12) Membranous labyrinth (internal ear) is develop from
a) Mesoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) None of the above
13) Internal ear develop from
a) Nasal placode
b) Optic placode
c) Otic placode
d) Lens placode
14) Bony labyrinth is formed from
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesenchyme
c) Mesoderm
d) Endoderm
15) Middle ear develop from
a) Otic placode
b) Tubotympanic recess
c) Lens placode
rd
d) 3 pharyngeal pouch
16) Auditory tube develops from
a) Tubo tympanic recess
rd
b) 3 pharyngeal pouch
th
c) 4 pharyngeal pouch
th
d) 5 pharyngeal pouch
17) Malleus & incus develops from
a) Richert’s cartilage
b) Meckel’s cartilage
c) Hyoid cartilage
d) Cricoid cartilage
18) Stapes develop from
st
a) Cartilage of 1 pharyngeal arch
nd
b) Cartilage of 2 pharyngeal arch
rd
c) Cartilage of 3 pharyngeal arch
th
d) Cartilage of 4 pharyngeal arch
19) External ear develop from
a) Tubotympanic recess
b) Ectoderm
c) Auricular hillock
d) All of the above
20) External acoustic meatus is develop from
st
a) 1 ectodermal cleft
nd
b) 2 ectodermal cleft
rd
c) 3 ectodermal cleft
th
d) 4 ectodermal cleft
21) Auricle is develop from
st
a) Swelling that appear around 1 ectodermal cleft
nd
b) Swelling that appear around 2 ectodermal cleft
rd
c) Swelling that appear around 3 ectodermal cleft
th
d) Swelling that appear around 4 ectodermal cleft

ANSWER KEYS

1) a 2) b 3) a 4) c 5) c 6) b 7) a 8) b 9) a 10) b 11) c
12) c 13) c 14) b 15) b 16) a 17) b 18) b 19) c 20) a 21) a

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CHAPETR – 20
FATE OF GERM LAYER
1) Upper part of anal canal develops from
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) None of the above
2) Lower part of anal canal develops from
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) None of the above
3) Sweat & sebaceous gland are
a) Ectodermal derivative
b) Mesodermal derivative
c) Endodermal derivative
d) None of the above
4) Hypophysis cerebri & adrenal medulla are
a) Ectodermal derivative
b) Mesodermal derivative
c) Endodermal derivative
d) All of the above
5) Branchial cartilage is derivative of
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Neural crest
d) Neural tube
6) Sclera, cornea & choroid are derivative of
a) Neural crest
b) Neural tube
c) Endoderm
d) Mesoderm
7) Thyroid, parathyroid, thymus & Islets of Langerhan’s are derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
8) Epithelium of pharyngo tympanic tube is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
9) Epithelium of respiratory tract is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
10) Female urethra posterior wall is derivative of
a) Ectoderm

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b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
11) Epithelium of glans penis is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
12) Epithelium of greater part of vagina is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
13) Male urethra except part of posterior wall prostatic part is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
14) Prostatic urethra is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
15) Liver is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
16) Loose areolar tissue is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
17) Dentine of teeth is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
18) Iris is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
19) Ovary, uterus, uterine tube & upper part of vagina is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
20) Inner glandular zone of prostate is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm

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c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
21) Testis, Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicles & ejaculatory duct are derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
22) Tunica vaginalis testis is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) All of the above
23) Lining epithelium of bursa & joint are derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
24) Substance of ciliary body & iris are derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
25) Dura, arachnoids and pia maters are derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
26) Microglia is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above
27) Adrenal cortex is derivative of
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) None of the above

ANSWER KEYS

1) b 2) a 3) a 4) a 5) c 6) a 7) c 8) c 9) c 10) b 11) a 12) c


13) c 14) b 15) c 16) b 17) b 18) a 19) b 20) b 21) b 22) b 23) b 24) b
25) b 26) b 27) b

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CHAPTER – 21
FATE OF GERM LAYER
1) Somites appear in embryo when embryo is
a) 1 month old
b) 2 months old
c) 3 months old
d) 21 days old
2) Cranio rump length of 1 month old embryo is
a) 5 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 8 mm
3) Cranio rump length of 2 month old embryo is
a) 30 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 60 mm
4) Cranio rump length of full term child is
a) 600 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 400 mm
d) 300 mm

ANSWER KEYS

1) d 2) a 3) a 4) d

**********

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