Computer network basics quiz

Computer network basic
1. How many digits of the DNIC (Data B. Collision

Network Identification Code) identify the C. Synchronous
country? D. Asynchronous
E. None of the above
A. first three Answer: Option B
B. first four 6. You have a class A network address
C. first five 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required
D. first six to add 60 new subnets very soon. You
E. None of the above would like to still allow for the largest
Answer: Option A possible number of host IDs per subnet.
Which subnet mask should you assign?
2. A station in a network forwards A. 255.240.0.0
incoming packets by placing them on its B. 255.248.0.0
shortest output queue. What routing C. 255.252.0.0
algorithm is being used? D. 255.254.0.0
A. hot potato routing E. 255.255.255.255
B. flooding Answer: Option D
C. static routing
D. delta routing 7. What are the most commonly used
E. None of the above transmission speeds in BPS used in data
Answer: Option A communication?
A. 300
3. The probability that a single bit will B. 1200
be in error on a typical public telephone C. 2400
line using 4800 bps modem is 10 to the D. 9600
power -3. If no error detection mechanism E. None of the above
is used, the residual error rate for a Answer: Option D
communication line using 9-bit frames is
approximately equal to 8. What is the default subnet mask for
A. 0.003 a class C network?
B. 0.009 A. 127.0.0.1
C. 0.991 B. 255.0.0.0
D. 0.999 C. 255.255.0.0
E. None of the above D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: Option B E. None of the above
Answer: Option D
4. Frames from one LAN can be
transmitted to another LAN via the device 9. Which of the following is used for
modulation and demodulation?
A. Router A. modem
B. Bridge B. protocols
C. Repeater C. gateway
D. Modem D. multiplexer
Answer: Option A
5. Which of the following condition is
used to transmit two packets over a 10. Which of the following is not a
medium at the same time? disadvantage of ireless LAN?
A. Contention A. Slower data transmission
B. higher error rate 14. How many hosts are attached to each
C. interference of transmissions from of the local area networks at your site?
different computers A. 128
D. All of the above B. 254
Answer: Option D C. 256
11. D. 64
The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) E. None of the above
Answer: Option B
A. allows gateways to send error a control
messages to other gateways or hosts 15. Which of the following technique is
B. provides communication between the used for fragment?
Internet Protocol Software on one machine A. a technique used in best-effort delivery
and the Internet Protocol Software on another systems to avoid endlessly looping packets
C. reports error conditions to the original B. a technique used by protocols in which
source, the source must relate errors to a lower level protocol accepts a message from
individual application programs and take a higher level protocol and places it in the data
action to correct the problem portion of the low level frame
D. All of the above C. one of the pieces that results when an
E. None of the above IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller
Answer: Option D pieces for transmission across a network that
cannot handle the original datagram size
12. Your company has a LAN in its D. All of the above
downtown office and has now set up a LAN E. None of the above
in the manufacturing plant in the suburbs. Answer: Option C
To enable everyone to share data and
resources between the two LANs, what type 16. Contention is
of device(s) are needed to connect them? A. One or more conductors that serve as a
Choose the most correct answer. common connection for a related group of
devices
A. Modem B. a continuous frequency capable of
B. Cable being modulated or impressed with a second
C. Hub signal
D. Router C. the condition when two or more
Answer: Option D stations attempt to use the same channel at the
same time
13. The term 'duplex' refers to the D. a collection of interconnected
ability of the data receiving stations to echo functional units that provides a data
back a confirming message to the sender. In communications service among stations
full duplex data transmission, both the attached to the network
sender and the receiver E. None of the above
A. cannot talk at once Answer: Option C
B. can receive and send data
simultaneously 17. Avalanche photodiode receivers can
C. can send or receive data one at a time detect hits of transmitted data by receiving
D. can do one way data transmission only A. 100 photons
E. None of the above B. 200 photons
Answer: Option B C. 300 photons
D. 400 photons
Explanation: E. None of the above
Answer: Option B
C. they transmit the data with stop and
18. Satellite-Switched Time-Division start bits.
Multiple Access (SS/TDMA) is D. they operate with a larger bandwidth
A. the method of determining which E. None of the above
device has access to the transmission medium Answer: Option B
at any time.
B. a medium access control technique for 23. A distributed network configuration
multiple access transmission media in which all data/information pass through
C. a form of TDMA in which circuit a central computer is
switching is used to dynamically change the
channel assignments A. bus network
D. All of the above B. star network
E. None of the above C. ring network
Answer: Option C D. Point-to-point network
19. When you ping the loopback Answer: Option B
address, a packet is sent where?
A. On the network 26. ICMP (Internet Control Message
B. Down through the layers of the IP Protocol) is
architecture and then up the layers again A. a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically
C. Across the wire bind a high level IP Address to a low-level
D. through the loopback dongle physical hardware address
E. None of the above B. a TCP/IP high level protocol for
Answer: Option transferring files from one machine to another
20. Which of the following TCP/IP C. a protocol used to monitor computers
protocol is used for transferring electronic D. a protocol that handles error and
mail messages from one machine to control messages
another? E. None of the above
A. FTP Answer: Option D
B. SNMP
C. SMTP 27. If you get both local and remote
D. RPC echoes, every character you type will
E. None of the above appear on the screen
Answer: Option C A. once
B. twice
21. Which of the following device is used C. three times
to connect two systems, especially if the D. never
systems use different protocols? E. None of the above
A. hub Answer: Option B
B. bridge
C. gateway 28. What part of 192.168.10.51 is the
D. repeater Network ID, assuming a default subnet
E. None of the above mask?
Answer: Option C A. 192
B. 192.168.10
22. The synchronous modems are more C. 0.0.0.5
costly than the asynchronous modems D. 51
because E. None of the above
A. they produce large volume of data Answer: Option B
B. they contain clock recovery circuits
29. The slowest transmission speeds are D. a collection of interconnected
those of functional units that provides a data
A. twisted-pair wire communications service among stations
B. coaxial cable attached to the network
C. fiber-optic cable E. None of the above
D. microwaves Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
32.
30. A noiseless 3 KHz Channel transmits What can greatly reduce TCP/IP configuration
bits with binary level signals. What is the problems?
maximum data rate?
A. 3 Kbps A. WINS Server
B. 6 Kbps B. WINS Proxy
C. 12 Kbps C. DHCP Server
D. 24 Kbps. D. PDC
Answer: Option C
24. Which of the following TCP/IP
protocol allows an application program on
one machine to send a datagram to an 33. In CRC there is no error if the
application program on another machine? remainder at the receiver is _____.
A. UDP A. equal to the remainder at the sender

B. VMTP B. zero
C. X.25 C. nonzero
D. SMTP D. the quotient at the sender
E. None of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
34. Which of the following statements is
25. A remote batch-processing correct for the use of packet switching?
operation in which data is solely input to a
central computer would require a: A. the subdivision of information into
individually addressed packets in conjunction
A. telegraph line with alternative routing arrangement enabled
B. simplex lines the transmission path to be altered in the
C. mixedband channel event of congestion or individual link failure
D. All the above B. the employment of additional
E. None of the above intelligence within the network enabled more
Answer: Option B sophisticated error control and link control
procedures to be applied
31. Carrier is C. by employing wide bandwidth circuits
A. One or more conductors that serve as a for the trunk networks substantial economies
common connection for a related group of through extensive sharing of capacity could be
devices achieved.
B. a continuous frequency capable of D. All of the above
being modulated or impressed with a second E. None of the above
signal Answer: Option D
C. the condition when two or more
sections attempt to use the same channel at 35. A front-end processor is
the same time
A. a user computer system Answer: Option A
B. a processor in a large-scale computer
that executes operating system instructions 40. Internet-like networks within an
C. a minicomputer that relieves main- enterprise.
frame computers at a computer centre of
communications control functions A. Intranets
D. preliminary processor of batch jobs. B. Switching alternating
E. None of the above C. Inter organizational networks
Answer: Option C D. Extranets
Answer: Option A
6. What is the port number for NNTP?
41. How many bits internet address is
A. 119 assigned to each host on a TCP/IP internet
B. 80 which is used in all communications with the
C. 79 host?
D. 70
Answer: Option A A. 16 - bits
B. 32 - bits
37. Eight stations are competing for the use C. 48 - bits
of a shared channel using the 'Adaptive tree D. 64 - bits
Walk Protocol'. If the stations 7 and 8 are E. None of the above
suddenly become ready at once, how many bit Answer: Option B
slots are needed to resolve the contention?
42. With an IP address of 100, you
A. 7 slots currently have 80 subnets. What subnet mask
B. 5 slots should you use to maximize the number of
C. 10 slots available hosts?
D. 14 slots
Answer: Option A A. 192
B. 224
C. 240
38. Usually, it takes 10-bits to represent D. 248
one character. How many characters can be E. 252
transmitted at a speed of 1200 BPS? Answer: Option E
A. 10
B. 12 43. Which of the following types of
C. 120 channels moves data relatively slowly?
D. 1200
E. None of the above A. wideband channel
Answer: Option C B. voiceband channel
C. narrowband channel
39. To connect a computer with a device in D. broadband channel
the same room, you might be likely to use E. None of the above
Answer: Option C
A. a coaxial cable
B. a dedicated line 44. Which of the following is required to
C. a ground station communicate between two computers?
D. All of the above
E. None of the above A. communications software
B. protocol E. None of the above
C. communications hardware Answer: Option B
D. access to transmission medium
E. All of the above 49. The _____ houses the switches in token
Answer: Option E ring.
A. transceiver
45. Which of the following does not allow B. nine-pin connector
multiple users or devices to share one C. MAU
communications line? D. NIC
A. doubleplexer Answer: Option C
B. multipplexer
C. concentrator 50. What device separates a single network
D. controller into two segments but lets the two segments
E. None of the above appear as one to higher protocols?
Answer: Option A
A. Switch
46. The geostationary satellite used for B. Bridge
communication systems C. Gateway
D. Router
A. rotates with the earth Answer: Option B
B. remains stationary relative to the earth
C. is positioned over equator 1. Which of the following refers to the
D. All of the above terms "residual error rate"?
Answer: Option D A. the number of bit errors per twenty
four hours of continuous operation on an
47. Telecommunication networks asynchronous line
frequently interconnect an organization with B. The probability that one or more errors
its customers and suppliers. Select the best fit will be undetected when an error detection
for answer: scheme is used
C. the probability that one or more errors
A. Bandwidth alternatives will be detected when an error detection
B. Switching alternating mechanism is used
C. Inter organizational networks D. signal to noise ratio divided by the ratio
D. Extranets of energy per bit to noise per hertz
Answer: Option C E. None of the above
Answer: Option B
48. The packets switching concept was first
proposed
2. Which of the following summation
A. in the late 1980s for the Defense operations is performed on the bits to check
Ministry of US. an error-detecting code?
B. in the early 1960s for military
communication systems, mainly to handle A. Codec
speech B. Coder-decoder
C. in the late 1950s for Defense Ministry C. Checksum
of US D. Attenuation
D. All of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
6. Computers cannot communicate with
3. The research and development each other directly over telephone lines
department at your office has been because they use digital pulses whereas
experimenting with different technologies to telephone lines use analog sound frequencies.
help improve the performance of the network. What is the name of the device which permits
One group has been examining the use of a digital to analog conversion at the start of a
broadband network versus a based band long distance transmission?
network. Select the correct statement about
broadband and baseband. A. Interface
B. Modem
A. Broadband networks carry several C. Attenuation
channels on a single cable, whereas in a D. Teleprocessor
baseband network several cables carry one E. None of the above
channel Answer: Option B
B. Baseband networks carry a single
channel on a single cable, whereas broadband
networks carry several channels on a single 7. What is the usual number of bits
cable transmitted simultaneously in parallel data
C. Baseband refers to local area networks, transmission used by microcomputers?
and broadband refers to wide area networks.
D. Baseband operates at a standard bit A. 16
rate, whereas broadband may operate at B. 9
different rates as needed C. 8
E. Broadband and baseband refer to the D. 4
different frequencies at which infrared E. None of the above
operates then transmitting signals in certain Answer: Option B
conditions
Answer: Option B
8. The receive equalizer reduces delay
distortions using a
4. An error-detecting code inserted as a
field in a block of data to be transmitted is A. tapped delay lines
known as B. gearshift
C. descrambler
A. Frame check sequence D. difference engine
B. Error detecting code E. None of the above
C. Checksum Answer: Option A
D. flow control
E. None of the above Explanation:
Answer: Option A
No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss.
5. The cheapest modems can transmit View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
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A. 300 bits per second 9.
B. 1,200 bits per second Four routers have to be interconnected in a
C. 2,400 bits per second point-to-point Network. Each pair of root us
D. 4,800 bits per second may connected by a high-speed line, a medium
speed line or a low speed line. Find the total C. half duplex
number of topologies. D. multiplex
A. 12 Answer: Option C
B. 81
C. 48 14. HMP (Host Monitoring Protocol) is:
D. 729
Answer: Option D A. a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically
bind a high level IP Address to a low-level
10. A network consists of eight NT servers. physical hardware address
You are planning to move servers to different B. a TCP/IP high level protocol for
segments of your network, what utility should transferring files from one machine to another.
be used at each server to determine which C. a protocol used to monitor computers
server generates the most traffic? D. a protocol that handles error and
control messages
A. NBTSTAT E. None of the above
B. NETSTAT.EXE Answer: Option C
C. Performance Monitor
D. Network Monitor 15. Which of the following is a voiceband
E. ARP.EXE channel?
Answer: Option D
11. Sending a file from your personal A. Telephone line
computer's primary memory or disk to B. Telegraph line
another computer is called C. Coaxial cable
D. Microwave systems
A. uploading E. None of the above
B. downloading Answer: Option A
C. logging on
D. hang on 6. A 8-Mbps token ring has a token
E. None of the above holding timer value of 10 msec. What is the
Answer: Option A longest frame (assume header bits are
negligible) that can be sent on this ring?
12. What is the name of the software
package that allows people to send electronic A. 8000 B frame
mail along a network of computers and B. 80,000 B frame
workstations? C. 8 x 105 bit frame
D. 10,000 B frame
A. Memory resident package Answer: Option D
B. Project management package
C. Data communication package 17. Data are sent over pin _____ of the EIA-
D. Electronic mail package 232 interface.
B. 3
13. The communication mode that C. 4
supports two-way traffic but only one D. All of the above
direction at a time is Answer: Option A
A. simplex 18. To connect a computer with a device in

B. duplex the same room, you might be likely to use
A. a coaxial cable A. Very Low Frequency : 3 kHz to 30. kHz
B. a dedicated line B. Low Frequency : 30 kHz to 300 kHz
C. a ground station C. High Frequency : 3 MHz to 30 MHz
D. All of the above D. Very High Frequency : 30 MHz to 300
Answer: Option A MHz
19. Demodulation is a process of Answer: Option D
A. converting analog to digital signals 24. Transmission of computerised data

B. converting digital to analog signals from one location to another is called
C. multiplexing various signals into one
high speed line signals A. data transfer
D. performing data description. B. data flow
Answer: Option A C. data communication
D. data management
20. Internet-like networks between a E. None of the above
company and its business partners. Select the Answer: Option C
best fit for answer:
25. Compared to analog signals, digital
A. Bandwidth alternatives signals
B. Switching alternating
C. Inter organizational networks A. allow faster transmission
D. Extranets B. are more accurate
Answer: Option D C. both (a) and (b)
21. An example of an analog D. All of the above
communication method is E. None of the above
Answer: Option C
A. laser beam 26.
B. microwave FDDI is a
C. voice grade telephone line
D. All of the above A. ring network
E. None of the above B. star network
Answer: Option D C. mesh network
D. bus based network
22. Which of the following layer protocols E. None of the above
are responsible for user and the application Answer: Option A
programme support such as passwords,
resource sharing, file transfer and network 27. An anticipated result from
management? multiprogramming operations is:
A. Layer 7 protocols A. reduced computer idle time

B. Layer 6 protocols B. the handling of more jobs
C. Layer 5 protocols C. better scheduling of work
D. Layer 4 protocols D. All of the above
E. None of the above E. None of the above
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
23. What frequency range is used for FM 28. A central computer surrounded by one
radio transmission? or more satellite computers is called a
of a target host on the same physical network,
A. bus network given only the target IP address.
B. ring network B. The sender's IP - to- physical address
C. star network binding is included in every ARP broadcast;
D. All of the above receivers update the IP-to-Physical address
E. None of the above binding information in their cache before
Answer: Option C processing an ARP packet.
C. ARP is a low-level protocol that hides
29. If delays are recorded as 10 bit the underlying network physical addressing,
numbers in a 50 router network, and delay permitting us to assign IP-addresses of our
vectors are exchanged twice a second, how choice to every machine.
much bandwidth per fill duplex line is D. All of the above
occupied by the distributed routing algorithm? E. None of the above
A. 500 bps 33. You are working with a network that

B. 1500 bps has the network ID 192.168.10.0. What subnet
C. 5 bps should you use that supports up to 25 hosts
D. 1000 bps and a maximum number of subnets?
Answer: Option D
A. 255.255.255.192
30. HOSTS file entries are limited to how B. 255.255.255.224
many characters? C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
A. 8 E. 255.255.255.252
B. 255 Answer: Option B
C. 500
D. Unlimited 34. Which of the following best illustrates
E. None of the above the default subnet mask for a class A,B, and C
Answer: Option B Network?
A. 0.0.0.0, 0.0.0.1, 0.0.1.1

31. Demodulation is the process of B. 255.255.255.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.0.0.0
C. 255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0
A. converting digital signals to analog D. 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0,
signals 255.255.255.255
B. converting analog signals to digital E. None of the above
signals Answer: Option C
C. combining many low speed channels
into one high speed channel 35. Modulation is the process of
D. dividing the high-speed signals into
frequency bands A. converting analog signals to digital
E. None of the above signals
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace B. converting digital signals to analog
Report signals
32. C. Multiplexing various signals into high
Which of the following statement is incorrect? speed line signals
D. performing data encryption.
A. The Addresses Resolution Protocol, Answer: Option B
ARP, allows a host to find the physical address
36. Devices interconnected by the LAN 40. You are working with three networks
should include that have the network IDs 192.168.5.0,
192.168.6.0, and 192.168.7.0. What subnet
A. Computers and terminals mask can you use to combine these addresses
B. mass storage device, printers and into one?
plotters
C. bridges and gateways A. 255.255.252.0
D. All of the above B. 225.255.254.0
E. None of the above C. 255.255.255.240
Answer: Option D D. 255.255.255.252
Answer: Option A
37. What are the data transmission
channels available for carrying data from 41. With an IP address set starting with
one location to another? 150, you currently have six offices that you are
treating as subnets. Plans are in place to open
A. Narrowband 10 more offices before the end of the year.
B. Voiceband What subnet mask should you use to satisfy
C. Broadband the needed number of subnets and maximize
D. All of the above the number of hosts available at each site?
Answer: Option D A. 192
B. 224
38. On a class B network, how many C. 240
hosts are available at each site with a D. 248
subnet mask of 248? E. 252
Answer: Option D
A. 16,382
B. 8,190 42. A machine that connects to two or
C. 4,094 more electronic mail systems and transfers
D. 2,046 mail messages among them is known as
E. 1,022
Answer: Option D A. Gateways
B. mail gateway
39. Which of the following technique is C. bridges
used for encapsulation? D. User Agent
A. a technique used in best-effort delivery Answer: Option B
systems to avoid endlessly looping packets.
B. a technique used by protocols in which 43. If digital data rate of 9600 bps is
a lower level protocol accepts a message from encoded using 8-level phase shift keying
a higher level protocol and places it in the data (PSK) method, the modulation rate is
portion of the low level frame.
C. One of the pieces that results when an A. 1200 bands
IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller B. 3200 bands
pieces for transmission across a network that C. 4800 bands
cannot handle the original datagram size D. 9600 bands
D. All of the above E. None of the above
E. None of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
44. Error detection at a data link level is 49. Error rate is
achieved by
A. an error-detecting code based on a
A. bit stuffing summation operation performed on the bits to
B. cyclic redundancy codes be checked.
C. Hamming codes B. a check bit appended to an array of
D. equalization binary digits to make the sum of all the binary
Answer: Option B digits.
C. a code in which each expression
45. When the computer provides the conforms to specific rules of construction, so
manager with a multiple choice of possible that if certain errors occur in an expression,
answers, the prompting technique is the resulting expression will not conform to
the rules of construction and thus the presence
A. question and answer of the errors is detected.
B. form filling D. the ratio of the number of data units in
C. open-ended question error to the total number of data units
D. menu selection E. None of the above
E. None of the above Answer: Option D
46. Which network topology is 50. Intranets and extranets can use their
considered passive? network fire walls and other security
features to establish secure Internet links
A. Cross within an enterprise or with its trading
B. Ring partners. Select the best fit for answer:
C. Star
D. Mesh A. Network Server
E. Bus B. Virtual Private Network
Answer: Option E C. Network operating system
D. OSI
47. If a firm wanted to transmit data Answer: Option B
from 1,000 punched cards to a remote
computer, they would use a(n) 1.
Modem is used in data transmission. When
A. POS terminal was it invented and in which country?
B. data collection terminal
C. batch processing terminal A. 1963, USA
D. intelligent terminal B. 1965, Germany
E. None of the above C. 1950, USA
Answer: Option C D. 1950, Japan
48. Which address is the loopback Answer: Option C
address?
2. Which of the following technique is
A. 0.0.0.1 used for Time-To-Line (TTL)?
B. 127.0.0.0
C. 127.0.0.1 A. a technique used in best-effort delivery
D. 255.255.255.255 system to avoid endlessly looping packets.
E. None of the above B. a technique used by protocols in which
Answer: Option C a lower level protocol accepts a message from
a higher level protocol and places it in the data an individual machine, but a connection to a
portion of the low level frame network.
C. One of the pieces that results when an D. All of the above
IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller E. None of the above
pieces for transmission across a network that Answer: Option D
cannot handle the original datagram size.
D. All of the above 6. Bandlimited signal is
Answer: Option A A. transmission of signals without
modulation
3. Communication network is B. a signal all of whose energy is
contained within a finite frequency range
A. one or more conductors that serve as a C. simultaneous transmission of data to a
common connection for a related group of number of stations
devices D. All of the above
B. a continuous frequency capable of E. None of the above
being modulated or impressed with a second Answer: Option B
signal
C. the condition with two or more stations 7. Computers in a LAN can be
attempt to use the same channel at the same interconnected by radio and infrared
time technologies.
D. a collection of interconnected
functional units that provides a data A. Wireless LANs
communications service among stations B. Network Topologies
attached to the network C. Multiplexer
E. None of the above D. Modem
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
8. You have a network ID of 134.57.0.0
4. Which of the following is an and you need to divide it into multiple
advantage to using fiber optics data subnets in which at least 600 host IDs for
transmission? each subnet are available. You desire to
have the largest amount of subnets
A. resistance to data theft available. Which subnet mask should you
B. fast data transmission rate assign?
C. low noise level
D. few transmission errors A. 255.255.224.0
E. All of the above B. 255.255.240.0
Answer: Option E C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.255.0
5. Which of the following statement is E. 255.255.255.255
incorrect? Answer: Option D
A. if a host moves from one network to 9. How many digits of the Network User
another, its IP address must change Address are known as the DNIC (Data
B. routing uses the network portion of the Network Identification Code)?
IP address, the path taken by packets
travelling to a host with multiple IP addresses A. first three
depends on the address used. B. first four
C. IP addresses encode both a network C. first five
and a host on that network, they do not specify D. first seven
Answer: Option B A. t-switch
B. modem
10. Which of the following is the address C. frequency-division multiplexer
of the router? D. time-division multiplexer
A. The IP address Answer: Option C
B. The TCP address
C. The subnet mask 15. What is the first octet range for a
D. The default gateway class C IP address?
E. None of the above A. 192 - 255
Answer: Option D B. 192 - 223
C. 192 - 226
11. Thorough planning must take place D. 128 - 191
when setting up an 802.3 network. A E. 1 - 126
maximum number of segments can Answer: Option B
separate any two nodes on the network.
What is the maximum number of segments 16. Which utility is useful for finding the
allowed between two nodes? local host name?
A. NBTSTAT
A. Five B. Netstat
B. Two C. PING
C. Four D. Hostname
D. Six E. None of the above
E. Three Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
12. A devices that links two 17. Which of the following conditions is
homogeneous packet-broadcast local used to transmit two packets over a
networks, is medium at the same time?
A. Contention
A. hub B. Collision
B. bridge C. Synchronous
C. repeater D. Asynchronous
D. gateway Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B 18. The slowest transmission speeds are
those of
13. Identify the odd term amongst the A. twisted-pair wire
following group: B. coaxial cable
C. fiber-optic cable
A. Coaxial cable D. microwaves
B. Optical fibre E. None of the above
C. Twisted pair wire Answer: Option A
D. Microwaves
E. None of the above 19. Distributed Queue Dual Bus is a
Answer: Option D standard for
A. LAN
14. Which of the following divides the B. MAN
high speed signal into frequency bands? C. WAN
D. Wireless LAN. D. 3
E. LAN and MAN E. None of the above
Answer: Option E Answer: Option D
20. A teleprocessing system may consist 25. Many data communication networks
of have been established which provide a
A. user systems wealth of on-demand information services
B. communications systems to people at home. What is the name of the
C. computer center systems system which provides an interactive,
D. All of the above graphics-rich service that permits user to
E. None of the above select what they want?
Answer: Option D A. Teletex system
B. Fax system
21. If the ASCII character G is sent and C. Videotex system
the character D is received, what type of D. Microwave system
error is this? E. None of the above
Answer: Option C
A. single-bit
B. multiple-bit 26. Which of the following statements is
C. burst correct?
D. recoverable A. Terminal section of a synchronous
Answer: Option C modem contains the scrambler
B. Receiver section of a synchronous
22. Which layer of OSI determines the modem contains the scrambler
interface of the system with the user? C. Transmission section of a synchronous
A. Network modem contains the scrambler
B. Application D. Control section of a synchronous
C. Data-link modem contains the scrambler
D. Session E. None of the above
E. None of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
27. Which of the following
Explanation: characteristic(s) is/are suited to the PSS
applications?
23. The transfer of data from a CPU to
peripheral devices of a computer is A. bursty traffic and low communications
achieved through intensity
A. modems B. widely dispersed terminals and access
B. computer ports to international packets switched services
C. interfaces C. Multiple remote host or applications
D. buffer memory accessed by a single local access circuit
E. None of the above terminal and circuit
Answer: Option B D. All of the above
24. What is the number of separate Answer: Option D
protocol layers at the serial interface
gateway specified by the X.25 standard? 28. Because the configuration infor-
A. 4 mation for a DHCP client is received
B. 2 dynamically, you must use which utility to
C. 6
read the current configuration to verify the A. Protocol converters are the same as
settings? multiplexers
A. PING B. Protocol converters are the same as
B. TRACERT TDMs
C. ARP C. Protocol converters are usually not
D. IPCONFIG operated in pairs.
E. None of the above D. Protocol converters are usually
Answer: Option D operated in
29. Which of the following is separated Answer: Option C
by a subnet mask?
A. DHCP scopes 34. The dialogue techniques for terminal
B. Network ID and host ID use do not include
C. Domains A. questions and answers
D. Subnets B. open-ended questions
Answer: Option B C. form fillings
D. menu display
30. The signal to noise ratio for a voice E. None of the above
grade line is 30.1 dB (decibels) or a power Answer: Option B
ratio of 1023:1. The maximum achievable
data rate on this line whose spectrum 35. You have a network ID of
ranges from 300 Hz to 4300 Hz is 192.168.10.0 and require at least 25 host
A. 6200 bps IDs for each subnet, with the largest
B. 9600 bps amount of subnets available. Which subnet
C. 34000 bps mask should you assign?
D. 31000 bps A. 255.255.255.192
E. None of the above B. 255.255.255.224
Answer: Option D C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
31. TCP is: E. 255.255.255.255
A. Operates at the Data Link layer Answer: Option B
B. Connection orientated and unreliable
C. Connection orientated and reliable 36. The encoding method specified in
D. Connectionless and unreliable the EIA-232 standard is _____.
Answer: Option C
A. NRZ-I
B. NRZ-L
32. An encyclopedic database C. Manchester
A. is an information utility that specializes D. Differential Manchester
in storing and searching information Answer: Option B
B. is generally free
C. is easy for beginners to use 37. Examples are packet switching using
D. All of the above frame relay, and cell switching using ATM
E. None of the above technologies. Select the best fit for answer:
Answer: Option A A. Bandwidth alternatives
B. Switching alternating
33. Which of the following statements is C. Inter organizational networks
correct? D. Extranets
Answer: Option B
38. The physical layer, in reference to 42.
the OSI model, defines Which of the following statement is correct?
A. data link procedures that provide for
the exchange of data via frames that can be A. Buffering is the process of temporarily
sent and received storing the data to allow for small variation in
B. the interface between the X.25 network device speeds
and packet mode device B. Buffering is a method to reduce cross-
C. the virtual circuit interface to packet- talks
switched service C. Buffering is a method to reduce the
D. All of the above routing overhead
E. None of the above D. Buffering is storage of data within the
Answer: Option B transmitting medium until the receiver is
ready to receive
39. A required characteristic of an E. None of the above
online real-time system is: Answer: Option A
A. more than one CPU 43. You are working with a network that
B. offline batch processing has the network ID 192.168.10.0 and require
C. no delay in processing nine subsets for your company and the
D. All of the above maximum number of hosts. What subnet mask
E. None of the above should you use?
Answer: Option C A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
40. How many class A, B, and C network C. 255.255.255.240
IDs can exist? D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
A. 2,113,658 Answer: Option C
B. 16,382
C. 126 44. Messages from one computer
D. 128 terminal can be sent to another by using
E. None of the above data networks. The message to be sent is
Answer: Option A converted to an electronic digital signal,
transmitted via a cable, telephone or
41. satellite and then converted back again at
The transmission signal coding method of TI the receiving end. What is this system of
carrier is called sending messages called?
A. Bipolar A. Paperless office

B. NRZ B. Electronic mail
C. Manchester C. Global network
D. Binary D. Electronic newspaper
E. None of the above E. None of the above
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
Explanation: 45. HDLC (High-level Data Link Control)

is
No answer description available for this A. a method of determining which device
question. Let us discuss. has access to the transmission medium at any
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace time
Report
B. a method access control technique for C. 255.255.240.0
multiple-access transmission media D. 255.255.248.0
C. a very common bit-oriented data link E. 255.255.255.0
protocol issued by ISO. Answer: Option C
D. network access standard for connecting
stations to a circuit-switched network 50. Which of the following files is used
E. None of the above for NetBIOS name resolution?
Answer: Option C A. HOSTS
B. LMHOSTS
46. You are working with a network that C. ARP
has the network ID 192.168.10.0. What D. FQDN
subnet should you use that supports four E. None of the above
subnets and a maximum number of hosts? Answer: Option B
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224 ( All session2 of this site )
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
Answer: Option B
47. Establishing a virtual connection is
functionally equivalent to D
A. Connecting as virtual memory

B. Physically connecting a DTE and DCE
C. Placing a telephone call prior to a
conversation
D. Placing a modem prior to a
conversation C
Answer: Option C
48. The first step in troubleshooting

many problems is to verify which of the ANSWER D
following?
A. The subnet mask is valid
B. TCP/IP is installed correctly on the
client
C. The WINS server is running
D. The BDC is operable
E. None of the above ANSWER B
Answer: Option B
49. You are working with a network that

is 172.16.0.0 and would like to have the
maximum number of hosts per subnet. This
assumes support for eight subnets. What
ANSWER C
subnet mask should you use?
A. 255.255.192.0
B. 255.255.224.0
Answer D
MCQ. Arrangement of computer network
nodes and connections between them is called
A. network's topology
B. network's layout
C. both A and B
ANSWER C D. network's link
Answer C
MCQ. Network topology in which you connect
each node to network along a single piece of
network cable is called
A. bus topology
ANSWER D B. ring topology
C. star topology
D. mesh topology
Answer A
MCQ. Computer network topology which uses
routers is
A. bus
B. ring
ANSWER D C. mesh
D. tree
Answer C
MCQ. In computer network, bus, star, ring,

mesh and tree are types of
A. network
ANSWER D B. topology
C. software
D. hardware
Answer B
MCQ. ISO developed a standard model of
computer data communication system which
ANSWER B is known as
A. OSI
MCQ. If a computer in a network accesses B. ANSI
resources that are shared by other computers C. DEC
it is called a D. SNA
A. server Answer A
B. client MCQ. Each end of a bus in computer bus
C. receiver network topology is termed as
D. sender A. node
Answer B B. switch
MCQ. In computer network, short message C. sensor
that travels around communication medium is D. terminator
called Answer D
A. ring MCQ. Layer of computer OSI model which is
B. star concerned with addressing and routing is
C. mesh called
D. token A. network
B. data link MCQ. If a computer in a network shares
C. physical resources which can be accessed by other
D. transport computers it is called a
Answer A A. server
MCQ. Interconnection which is present B. client
between two or more computers so that they C. sender
can communicate with each other is called D. receiver
A. network Answer A
B. sharing MCQ. In a computer, ITU was formely known
C. link as
D. LAN A. CCIT
Answer B B. ISO
C. IBM
MCQ. In computer, FTP stands for D. SNA
A. file transfer protocol Answer A
B. finding tele path MCQ. Which of following is a governing body
C. finis tele program to approve computer network standards?
D. file transfer process A. IEEE
Answer A B. EIA
MCQ. Network in which every computer is C. ANSI
capable of playing role of client, server or both D. all of these
at same time is called Answer D
A. peer-to-peer network MCQ. To share a printer in a network you
B. local area network physically connect printer to a computer
C. dedicated server network acting as a
D. wide area network A. server
Answer A B. client
MCQ. In computer, two dissimilar networks C. sender
can be connected by a D. receiver
A. gateway Answer A
B. bridge MCQ. Network in which each computer is
C. bus either acts as server or a client is called
D. ring A. dedicated server network
Answer B B. peer-to-peer network
MCQ. Layer of computer OSI model which C. metropolitan area network
performs data compression is D. local area network
A. network Answer A
B. data link
C. presentation MCQ. Layer of computer OSI model which
D. physical provides services that directly supports user
Answer D application is
MCQ. Computer network that spans a limited A. application
physical area, usually ranging from a small B. presentation
office to a building is known as C. transport
A. LAN D. physical
B. WAN Answer A
C. MAN MCQ. Element of a computer protocol which
D. PAN specifies signal level to be used and format
Answer A data which is to be send is
A. syntax
B. semantic MCQ. Computer which is powerful with faster
C. timing processor, more memory and disk space in a
D. format computer network is called
Answer A A. sender
MCQ. Protocol that enables user to transfer B. receiver
data between computers that have different C. server
architectures and operating system is known D. client
as Answer C
A. TCP/IP MCQ. Arrangement among different parts of
B. DoD computer network is represented by
C. PDN A. protocol
D. ISDN B. topology
Answer A C. node
MCQ. In computer, FTP facility is used to D. transistor
A. transfer protocol Answer A
B. transfer file MCQ. Computer network which spans a large
C. connect to internet physical area, connecting several sites of an
D. check PC organization across cities, countries and
Answer B continents is known as
A. LAN
MCQ. Once you have your computer network B. MAN
in place, you need a C. WAN
A. network operating system D. PAN
B. hub Answer C
C. hardware MCQ. Most common type of a computer
D. software network is
Answer A A. PAN
MCQ. A device which is used to connect two B. WAN
computers via an ordinary telephone line is C. LAN
A. ethernet card D. MAN
B. graphic card Answer C
C. modem MCQ. Which of following is a computer LAN
D. spend card protocol?
Answer C A. ethernet
MCQ. Flow of data in a computer ring network B. token ring
topology is C. ARCnet
A. uni directional D. all of these
B. bi directional Answer D
C. simplex MCQ. In a computer network, computers
D. duplex usually play roles which are
Answer A A. 1 or 2
MCQ. Collection of related computer web B. 2 or 3
pages is called C. 3 or 4
A. uploading D. 4 or 5
B. website Answer A
C. downloading
D. linking MCQ. Transferring information from a
Answer B computer to internet is called
A. downloading
B. down seizing
C. uploading Answer A
D. pasting MCQ. Services of internet includes
Answer C A. world wide web
MCQ. Bottom layer of computer OSI model is B. FTP
A. physical C. e-mail
B. data link D. all of these
C. network Answer D
D. application MCQ. Main purpose of computer network is
Answer A A. file sharing
MCQ. Software which supports work group B. printer sharing
computing is known as C. hard disk sharing
A. solaris D. all of these
B. groupware Answer D
C. netware
D. antivirus MCQ. Computer network topology in which
Answer B user connects each network node to a central
MCQ. In computer, committee structure of device hub is called
IEEE is numbered like a A. bus topology
A. decimal system B. ring topology
B. binary system C. star topology
C. analog system D. mesh topology
D. digital system Answer C
Answer A MCQ. Day-to-day transactions at departmental
MCQ. Top most layer of computer OSI model is stores, banks, reservation counter and other
A. application businesses are all dependent upon computer
B. session A. softwares
C. transport B. systems
D. presentation C. programs
Answer A D. networks
Answer D
MCQ. In computer, ISO stands for MCQ. Computer network is a collection of
A. international standards organization A. servers
B. independent system operator B. clients
C. infrared space observatory C. applications
D. international students organization D. computers
Answer A Answer D
MCQ. Which of following is not a computer MCQ. Which of following is not a benefit of a
LAN topology? computer network?
A. bus A. reduce hardware cost
B. band B. connect people
C. star C. enable shared applications
D. ring D. produce high quality programs
Answer B Answer D
MCQ. Special resistor device in computer bus MCQ. In peer-to-peer network, each computer
network topology which is attached to an in a network is referred as
electrical ground is called A. server
A. terminator B. client
B. transistor C. peer
C. switch D. sender
D. sensor Answer C
D. all of these
MCQ. Information age is equally dependent on Answer D
computer and computer's MCQ. Which of following is a computer
A. software internet protocol?
B. hardware A. IEEE 802.2
C. network B. IEEE 802.3
D. program C. TCP/IP
Answer C D. MAC
MCQ. Computer topology which is made up of Answer C
an unbroken circle of network nodes is called MCQ. In computer, DSL stands for
A. bus A. direct service lease
B. star B. domain server link
C. ring C. distant service line
D. mesh D. digital subscriber line
Answer C Answer D
MCQ. Topology which takes more cable than MCQ. Computer software which combines
e.g. a bus, but benefit is that if a cable fails, only audio and video application sharing is known
one node will be brought down is as
A. bus topology A. teleconferencing software
B. ring topology B. data sharing software
C. star topology C. project sharing software
D. mesh topology D. utility software
Answer C Answer A
MCQ. In computer, collection of individuals
working on a specific task is known as MCQ. In computer, IEEE standard 802.5
A. work place describes the
B. work group A. benchmarks
C. network B. token ring architecture
D. groupware C. style guide
Answer B D. ethernet
MCQ. Element of a computer protocol specifies Answer B
information structure needed for coordination MCQ. Layers present in a computer OSI model
among machines and for data handling is are
A. syntax A. 4
B. semantic B. 5
C. format C. 6
D. timing D. 7
Answer B Answer D
MCQ. Collection of documents stored in a
MCQ. A node which is represented in a computer which is permanently connected
computer network topology is basically a with internet around world is called
A. computer A. Telnet
B. hub B. WWW
C. hardware C. LAN
D. printer D. FTP
Answer A Answer B
MCQ. Key element of a computer protocol is MCQ. Type of software which is included by
A. syntax computer groupware is
B. semantic A. e-mail
C. timing B. contact-management
C. document sharing
D. all of these
Answer D
MCQ. Each server in a computer dedicated
server network is known as
A. dedicated server
B. dedicated receiver
C. dedicated client
D. dedicated sender
Answer A
MCQ. Operating system which provides all

particular features required to communicate
over a network to access or share network
resources is known as
A. disk operating system
B. network operating system
C. Mac operating system
D. android operating system
Answer B
MCQ. In computer, ISO developed in a city of
Switzerland which is
A. Uster
B. Bern
C. Geneva
D. Basel
Answer C
MCQ. In computer, FDDI is a
A. ring network
B. star network
C. mesh network
D. bus network
Answer A
MCQ. Element of a computer protocol which
includes speed matching is
A. semantic
B. syntax
C. timing
D. format
Answer C
MCQ. Software application which is used for
retrieving, presenting and traversing
information resources on World Wide Web is
called
A. gateway
B. EFT
C. browser
D. teleconferencing
Answer C
Networking Basics
1. How long is an IPv6 address?
A. 32 bits
B. 128 bytes
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits
Answer: Option D
2. What flavor of Network Address

Translation can be used to have one IP address
allow many users to connect to the global
Internet?
A. NAT
B. Static
C. Dynamic
D. PAT
Answer: Option D
3. What are the two main types of access

control lists (ACLs)?
1. Standard
2. IEEE
3. Extended 8. To back up an IOS, what command will
4. Specialized you use?
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4 A. backup IOS disk
C. 3 and 4 B. copy ios tftp
D. 1 and 2 C. copy tftp flash
Answer: Option A D. copy flash tftp
Answer: Option D
4. What command is used to create a 9. What protocol does PPP use to identify
backup configuration? the Network layer protocol?
A. copy running backup A. NCP

B. copy running-config startup-config B. ISDN
C. config mem C. HDLC
D. wr mem D. LCP
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
10. Which of the following commands

5. You have 10 users plugged into a hub will allow you to set your Telnet password
running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server on a Cisco router?
connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-
duplex as well. How much bandwidth does A. line telnet 0 4
each host have to the server? B. line aux 0 4
C. line vty 0 4
A. 100 kbps D. line con 0
B. 1 Mbps Answer: Option C
C. 2 Mbps
D. 10 Mbps 11. Which protocol does DHCP use at the
Answer: Option D Transport layer?
6. Which WLAN IEEE specification A. IP

allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz? B. TCP
C. UDP
A. A D. ARP
B. B Answer: Option C
C. G
D. N 12. Which command is used to
Answer: Option C determine if an IP access list is enabled on
a particular interface?
7. Which of the following is the valid host
range for the subnet on which the IP address A. show access-lists
192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides? B. show interface
C. show ip interface
A. 192.168.168.129-190 D. show interface access-lists
B. 192.168.168.129-191 Answer: Option C
C. 192.168.168.128-190
D. 192.168.168.128-192 13. Where is a hub specified in the OSI
Answer: Option A model?
A. Session layer
B. Physical layer A. Set the Telnet password.
C. Data Link layer B. Shut down the router.
D. Application layer C. Set your console password.
Answer: Option B D. Disable console connections.
Answer: Option C
14. What does the passive command
provide to dynamic routing protocols? 19. Which router command allows you
to view the entire contents of all access
A. Stops an interface from sending or lists?
receiving periodic dynamic updates. A. show all access-lists
B. Stops an interface from sending B. show access-lists
periodic dynamic updates but not from C. show ip interface
receiving updates. D. show interface
C. Stops the router from receiving any Answer: Option B
dynamic updates.
D. Stops the router from sending any 20. Which class of IP address has the
dynamic updates. most host addresses available by default?
Answer: Option B A. A
B. B
15. Which protocol is used to send a C. C
destination network unknown message D. A and B
back to originating hosts? Answer: Option A
A. TCP 21. In a network with dozens of

B. ARP switches, how many root bridges would
C. ICMP you have?
D. BootP
B. 2
16. How often are BPDUs sent from a C. 5
layer 2 device? D. 12
A. Never Answer: Option A
B. Every 2 seconds
C. Every 10 minutes 22. What PPP protocol provides
D. Every 30 seconds dynamic addressing, authentication, and
Answer: Option B multilink?
A. NCP
17. How many broadcast domains are B. HDLC
created when you segment a network with C. LCP
a 12-port switch? D. X.25
A. 1 Answer: Option C
B. 2
C. 5 23. What is a stub network?
D. 12 A. A network with more than one exit
Answer: Option A point.
B. A network with more than one exit and
18. What does the command entry point.
routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to C. A network with only one entry and no
perform next? exit point.
D. A network that has only one entry and 28. How many collision domains are
exit point. created when you segment a network with
Answer: Option D a 12-port switch?
A. 1
24. If your router is facilitating a B. 2
CSU/DSU, which of the following commands C. 5
do you need to use to provide the router D. 12
with a 64000bps serial link? Answer: Option D
A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64 29. What command will display the line,

B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000 protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an
C. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64 interface?
D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000 A. sh pvc
Answer: Option D B. show interface
C. show frame-relay pvc
25. Which one of the following is true D. show run
regarding VLANs? Answer: Option B
A. Two VLANs are configured by default 30. Which protocol does Ping use?
on all Cisco switches. A. TCP
B. VLANs only work if you have a B. ARP
complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off- C. ICMP
brand switches are allowed. D. BootP
C. You should not have more than 10 Answer: Option C
switches in the same VTP domain.
D. VTP is used to send VLAN information 31.Which command is used to upgrade an
to switches in a configured VTP domain. IOS on a Cisco router?
Answer: Option D A. copy tftp run
B. copy tftp start
26. What does a VLAN do? C. config net
A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers. D. copy tftp flash
B. Provides multiple collision domains on Answer: Option D
one switch port.
C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 32. If you wanted to delete the
2 switch internetwork. configuration stored in NVRAM, what
D. Provides multiple broadcast domains would you type?
within a single collision domain. A. erase startup
Answer: Option C B. erase nvram
C. delete nvram
27. What is the main reason the OSI model D. erase running
was created? Answer: Option A
A. To create a layered model larger than
the DoD model. 33. What protocols are used to configure
B. So application developers can change trunking on a switch?
only one layer's protocols at a time. 1. VLAN Trunking Protocol
C. So different networks could 2. VLAN
communicate. 3. 802.1Q
D. So Cisco could use the model. 4. ISL
Answer: Option C A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 only D. ARP
D. 2 only Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
5. Which of the following is private IP
TCP/IP address?
A. 12.0.0.1
1. Which of the following services use TCP? B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.15.14.36
1. DHCP D. 192.168.24.43
2. SMTP Answer: Option D
3. HTTP
4. TFTP 6. Which of the following allows a router to
5. FTP respond to an ARP request that is intended
A. 1 and 2 for a remote host?
B. 2, 3 and 5 A. Gateway DP
C. 1, 2 and 4 B. Reverse ARP (RARP)
D. 1, 3 and 4 C. Proxy ARP
Answer: Option B D. Inverse ARP (IARP)
Answer: Option C
2. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is
equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI 7. The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP
model? stack) has four layers. Which layer of the
DoD model is equivalent to the Network
A. Application layer of the OSI model?
B. Host-to-Host
C. Internet A. Application
D. Network Access B. Host-to-Host
Answer: Option B C. Internet
D. Network Access
3. Which of the following describe the Answer: Option C
DHCP Discover message?
1. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 8. Which of the following services use UDP?
broadcast. 1. DHCP
2. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol. 2. SMTP
3. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol. 3. SNMP
4. It does not use a layer 2 destination address. 4. FTP
A. 1 only 5. HTTP
B. 1 and 2 6. TFTP
C. 3 and 4 A. 1, 3 and 6
D. 4 only B. 2 and 4
Answer: Option B C. 1, 2 and 4
D. All of the above
4. You want to implement a mechanism Answer: Option A
that automates the IP configuration,
including IP address, subnet mask, default 9. Which class of IP address provides a
gateway, and DNS information. Which maximum of only 254 host addresses per
protocol will you use to accomplish this? network ID?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP A. Class A
C. DHCP B. Class B
C. Class C 14. Which layer 4 protocol is used for a
D. Class D Telnet connection?
Answer: Option C A. IP
B. TCP
10. If you use either Telnet or FTP, which is C. TCP/IP
the highest layer you are using to transmit D. UDP
data? Answer: Option B
A. Application
B. Presentation 15. Which statements are true regarding
C. Session ICMP packets?
D. Transport 1.ICMP guarantees datagram delivery.
Answer: Option A 2. ICMP can provide hosts with information
about network problems.
11. Which of the following is the decimal 3. ICMP is encapsulated within IP datagrams.
and hexadecimal equivalents of the binary 4. ICMP is encapsulated within UDP
number 10011101? datagrams.
A. 155, 0x9B A. 1 only
B. 157, 0x9D B. 2 and 3
C. 159, 0x9F C. 1 and 4
D. 185, 0xB9 D. All of the above
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
12. Which statements are true regarding 16. Which of the following are TCP/IP
ICMP packets? protocols used at the Application layer of
1. They acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment. the OSI model?
2. They guarantee datagram delivery. 1. IP
3. They can provide hosts with information 2. TCP
about network problems. 3. Telnet
4. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams. 4. FTP
A. 1 only 5. TFTP
B. 2 and 3 A. 1 and 3
C. 3 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 5
D. 2, 3 and 4 C. 3, 4 and 5
Answer: Option C D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
13. Which of the following are layers in the
TCP/IP model? 17. What protocol is used to find the
1. Application hardware address of a local device?
2. Session
3. Transport A. RARP
4. Internet B. ARP
5. Data Link C. IP
6. Physical D. ICMP
A. 1 and 2 Answer: Option B
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 5 18. Which of the following protocols uses
D. 3, 4 and 5 both TCP and UDP?
Answer: Option B A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. Telnet
D. DNS 2. A rollover cable should be used in place of
Answer: Option D the straight-through cable.
3. The subnet masks should be set to
19. What is the address range of a Class B 255.255.255.192.
network address in binary? 4. A default gateway needs to be set on each
A. 01xxxxxx host.
B. 0xxxxxxx 5. The subnet masks should be set to
C. 10xxxxxx 255.255.255.0.
D. 110xxxxx A. 1 only
Answer: Option C B. 2 only
C. 3 and 4 only
Subnetting D. 1 and 5 only
1. Your router has the following IP address E. 2 and 5 only
on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the Answer: Option D
following can be valid host IDs on the LAN
interface attached to the router? 4. What is the maximum number of IP
1. 172.16.1.100 addresses that can be assigned to hosts on
2. 172.16.1.198 a local subnet that uses the
3. 172.16.2.255 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
4. 172.16.3.0 A. 14
A. 1 only B. 15
B. 2 and 3 only C. 16
C. 3 and 4 only D. 30
D. None of the above Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
5. You need to subnet a network that has 5
2. Which two statements describe the IP subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which
address 10.16.3.65/23? classful subnet mask would you use?
1. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 A. 255.255.255.192
255.255.254.0. B. 255.255.255.224
2. The lowest host address in the subnet is C. 255.255.255.240
10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. D. 255.255.255.248
3. The last valid host address in the subnet is Answer: Option B
10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
4. The broadcast address of the subnet is 6. You have a network that needs 29
10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. subnets while maximizing the number of
A. 1 and 3 host addresses available on each subnet.
B. 2 and 4 How many bits must you borrow from the
C. 1, 2 and 4 host field to provide the correct subnet
D. 2, 3 and 4 mask?
Answer: Option B
A. 2
3. A network administrator is connecting B. 3
hosts A and B directly through their C. 4
Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the D. 5
illustration. Ping attempts between the Answer: Option D
hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to
provide connectivity between the hosts? 7. If an Ethernet port on a router were
1. A crossover cable should be used in place of assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25,
the straight-through cable.
what would be the valid subnet address of
this host? A. 192.168.192.15
A. 172.16.112.0 B. 192.168.192.31
B. 172.16.0.0 C. 192.168.192.63
C. 172.16.96.0 D. 192.168.192.127
D. 172.16.255.0 Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
13. You have a network with a subnet of
8. You have an interface on a router with 172.16.17.0/22. Which is the valid host
the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. address?
Including the router interface, how many A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252
hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0
attached to the router interface? C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0
A. 6 D. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0
B. 8 Answer: Option D
C. 30
D. 32
Answer: Option A 14. On a VLSM network, which mask should
you use on point-to-point WAN links in
9. What is the subnetwork number of a host order to reduce the waste of IP addresses?
with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?
A. 172.16.36.0 A. /27
B. 172.16.48.0 B. /28
C. 172.16.64.0 C. /29
D. 172.16.0.0 D. /30
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 15. To test the IP stack on your local host,
provides how many subnets and hosts? which IP address would you ping?
A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
B. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each A. 127.0.0.0
C. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each B. 1.0.0.127
D. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each C. 127.0.0.1
Answer: Option B D. 127.0.0.255
Answer: Option C
11. You need to configure a server that is
on the subnet 192.168.19.24/29. The 16. If a host on a network has the address
router has the first available host address. 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork
Which of the following should you assign to this host belongs to?
the server? A. 172.16.45.0
A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0
B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240 B. 172.16.45.4
C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248
C. 172.16.45.8
D. 192.168.19.31 255.255.255.248
Answer: Option C D. 172.16.45.12
Answer: Option D
12. You have an interface on a router with
the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. What
17. Using the following illustration, what
is the broadcast address the hosts will use
would be the IP address of E0 if you were
on this LAN?
using the eighth subnet? The network ID is
192.168.10.0/28 and you need to use the 20. What is the subnetwork address for a host
last available IP address in the range. The with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?
zero subnet should not be considered valid A. 200.10.5.56
for this question.
B. 200.10.5.32
C. 200.10.5.64
D. 200.10.5.0
Answer: Option C
Internetworking
1. Which layer 1 devices can be used to
enlarge the area covered by a single LAN
A. 192.168.10.142 segment?
1. Switch
B. 192.168.10.66 2. NIC
C. 192.168.100.254 3. Hub
4. Repeater
D. 192.168.10.143 5. RJ45 transceiver
A. 1 only
E. 192.168.10.126 B. 1 and 3
Answer: Option A C. 3 and 4
D. 5 only
18. Which configuration command must be in Answer: Option C
effect to allow the use of 8 subnets if the
Class C subnet mask is 255.255.255.224? 2. Routers operate at layer _____. LAN
A. Router(config)#ip classless switches operate at layer _____. Ethernet
hubs operate at layer _____. Word
B. Router(config)#no ip classful processing operates at layer _
A. 3, 3, 1, 7
C. Router(config)#ip unnumbered
B. 3, 2, 1, none
D. Router(config)#ip subnet-zero C. 3, 2, 1, 7
Answer: Option D D. 3, 3, 2, none
Answer: Option B
19. Using the illustration from the previous
question, what would be the IP address of 3. Which of the following describe router
S0 if you were using the first subnet? The functions?
network ID is 192.168.10.0/28 and you A. Packet switching
need to use the last available IP address in B. Packet filtering
the range. Again, the zero subnet should C. Internetwork communication
not be considered valid for this question. D. Path selection
E. All of the above
A. 192.168.10.24 Answer: Option E
B. 192.168.10.62
4. Why does the data communication industry
C. 192.168.10.30 use the layered OSI reference model?
1. It divides the network communication
D. 192.168.10.127 process into smaller and simpler components,
Answer: Option C
thus aiding component development, design, 1. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
and troubleshooting. 2.A dedicated switch port is required for each
2. It enables equipment from different vendors full-duplex node.
to use the same electronic components, thus 3. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for
saving research and development funds. full-duplex mode.
3. It supports the evolution of multiple 4. In a full-duplex environment, the host
competing standards and thus provides network card must check for the availability of
business opportunities for equipment the network media before transmitting.
manufacturers. 5. The host network card and the switch port
4. It encourages industry standardization by must be capable of operating in full-duplex
defining what functions occur at each layer of mode.
the model. A. 1, 2, and 5
A. 1 only B. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3 D. 5 only
D. 3 only Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
9. Which of the following are types of flow
5. A receiving host has failed to receive all control?
of the segments that it should acknowledge. 1. Buffering
What can the host do to improve the 2. Cut-through
reliability of this communication session? 3. Windowing
A. Send a different source port number. Congestion avoidance
B. Restart the virtual circuit. A. 1 and 2
C. Decrease the sequence number. B. 1, 3 and 4
D. Decrease the window size. C. 2 only
Answer: Option D D. 3 only
Answer: Option B
6. What are the decimal and hexadecimal
equivalents for the binary number 10. What are two purposes for
10110111? segmentation with a bridge?
A. 69/0x2102 1. To add more broadcast domains.
B. 183/B7 2. To create more collision domains.
C. 173/A6 3. To add more bandwidth for users.
D. 83/0xC5 To allow more broadcasts for users.
Answer: Option B A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
7. What is the purpose of flow control? C. 2 and 4
A. To ensure that data is retransmitted if D. 4 only
an acknowledgment is not received. Answer: Option B
B. To reassemble segments in the correct
order at the destination device. 11. How does a host on an Ethernet LAN
C. To provide a means for the receiver to know when to transmit after a collision has
govern the amount of data sent by the sender. occurred?
D. To regulate the size of each segment. 1. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple
Answer: Option C stations can successfully transmit data
simultaneously.
8. Which three statements are true about 2. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations
the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet must wait until the media is not in use before
network? transmitting.
3. You can improve the CSMA/CD network by 15. What type of RJ45 UTP cable do you use
adding more hubs. to connect a PC's COM port to a router or
4. After a collision, the station that detected switch console port?
the collision has first priority to resend the lost A. Straight-through
data. B. Crossover cable
5. After a collision, all stations run a random C. Crossover with a CSU/DSU
backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay D. Rolled
period has expired, all stations have equal Answer: Option D
priority to transmit data.
A. 1 and 3 16. How to implement a network medium
B. 2 and 4 that is not susceptible to EMI. Which type of
C. 1,3 and 4 cabling should you use?
D. 2 and 5 A. Thicknet coax
Answer: Option D B. Thinnet coax
C. Category 5 UTP cable
12. Which of the following types of D. Fiber-optic cable
connections can use full duplex? Answer: Option D
1. Hub to hub
2. Switch to switch
3. Host to host 17. Segmentation of a data stream happens
4. Switch to hub at which layer of the OSI model?
5. Switch to host A. Physical
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. Data Link
B. 3 and 4 C. Network
C. 3 and 5 D. Transport
D. 2, 3 and 5 Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
13. Acknowledgments, sequencing, and 18. When data is encapsulated, which is the
flow control are characteristics of which correct order?
OSI layer? A. Data, frame, packet, segment, bit
A. Layer 2 B. Segment, data, packet, frame, bit
B. Layer 3 C. Data, segment, packet, frame, bit
C. Layer 4 D. Data, segment, frame, packet, bit
D. Layer 7 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
14. Which fields are contained within an 19. Which of the following are unique
IEEE Ethernet frame header? characteristics of half-duplex Ethernet
1. Source and destination MAC address when compared to full-duplex Ethernet?
2. Source and destination network address 1. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared
3. Source and destination MAC address and collision domain.
source and destination network address 2. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private
4. FCS field collision domain.
A. 1 and 4 3. Half-duplex Ethernet has higher effective
B. 2 only throughput.
C. 2 and 3 only 4. Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective
D. 3 only throughput.
Answer: Option A A. 2 only
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1 and 4 5. You have a Cisco mesh network. What
D. 4 only protocol allows multiple APs to connect
Answer: Option C with many redundant connections between
nodes?
20. What type of RJ45 UTP cable is used A. LWAPP
between switches? B. AWPP
A. Straight-through C. STP
B. Crossover cable D. IEEE
C. Crossover with a CSU/DSU Answer: Option B
D. Crossover with a router in between the
two switches 6. What is the maximum data rate for the
Answer: Option B 802.11g standard?
Wireless Technologies A. 6Mbps

B. 11Mbps
1. What is the frequency range of the IEEE C. 22Mbps
802.11a standard? D. 54Mbps
Answer: Option D
A. 2.4Gbps
B. 5Gbps
C. 2.4GHz 7. What is the maximum data rate for the
D. 5GHz 802.11a standard?
Answer: Option D
A. 6Mbps
2. What is the maximum distance running B. 11Mbps
the lowest data rate for 802.11b? C. 22Mbps
A. About 100 feet D. 54Mbps
B. About 175 feet Answer: Option D
C. About 300 feet
D. About 350 feet
Answer: Option D 8. How many non-overlapping channels
are available with 802.11b?
3. What is the maximum distance with
maximum data rate for 802.11a? A. 3
B. 12
A. About 65-75 feet C. 23
B. About 90-100 feet D. 40
C. About 150 feet Answer: Option A
D. Over 200 feet
Answer: Option A
9. How many non-overlapping channels
4. What is the frequency range of the IEEE are available with 802.11a?
802.11b standard?
A. 3
A. 2.4Gbps B. 12
B. 5Gbps C. 23
C. 2.4GHz D. 40
D. 5GHz Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
10. In Cisco's Unified Wireless Solution,
what is the split-MAC architecture? 15. What is the maximum data rate for the
802.11b standard?
A. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC
addresses to create a forward/filter table and A. 6Mbps
break up collision domains. B. 11Mbps
B. The split-MAC architecture allows the C. 22Mbps
splitting of 802.11 protocol packets between D. 54Mbps
the AP and the controller to allow processing Answer: Option B
by both devices.
C. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC 16. You are connecting your access point
addresses on the wireless network and IP and it is set to root. What does Extended
addresses on the wired network. Service Set ID mean?
D. The split-MAC architecture uses MAC
addresses to create a forward/filter table and A. That you have more than one access
break up broadcast domains. point and they are in the same SSID connected
Answer: Option B by a distribution system.
B. That you have more than one access
11. What is the maximum distance with point and they are in separate SSIDs connected
maximum data rate for 802.11b? by a distribution system.
A. About 65-75 feet C. That you have multiple access points,
B. About 90-100 feet but they are placed physically in different
C. About 150 feet buildings.
D. Over 200 feet D. That you have multiple access points,
Answer: Option C but one is a repeater access point.
Answer: Option A
12. What is the maximum distance with
maximum data rate for 802.11g? 17. Cisco's Unified Wireless Solution
A. About 65-75 feet provides a mesh solution. What devices do
B. About 90-100 feet you absolutely need to purchase to run a
C. About 150 feet Cisco solution?
D. Over 200 feet 1. WCS
Answer: Option B 2. Controller
3. Access point
13. What is the maximum distance running 4. Bridge
the lowest data rate for 802.11a? A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
A. About 100 feet C. 1 and 4 only
B. About 175 feet D. 4 only
C. About 300 feet Answer: Option B
D. About 350 feet
Answer: Option B 18. What is the frequency range of the IEEE
802.11g standard?
14. How many non-overlapping channels A. 2.4Gbps
are available with 802.11h? B. 5Gbps
A. 3 C. 2.4GHz
B. 12 D. 5GHz
C. 23 Answer: Option C
D. 40
Answer: Option C
19. How many non-overlapping channels E. PAP
are available with 802.11g? Answer: Option D
A. 3
B. 12 4. You need to configure a router for a
C. 23 Frame Relay connection to a non-Cisco
D. 40 router. Which of the following commands
Answer: Option A will prepare the WAN interface of the
router for this connection?
20. What is the maximum distance running A. Router(config-if)#encapsulation frame-
the lowest data rate for 802.11g? relay q933a
A. About 100 feet B. Router(config-if)#encapsulation frame-
B. About 175 feet relay ansi
C. About 300 feet C. Router(config-if)#encapsulation frame-
D. About 350 feet relay ietf
Answer: Option C D. Router(config-if)#encapsulation frame-
relay cisco
Wide Area Networks Answer: Option C
1. When setting up Frame Relay for point-
to-point subinterfaces, which of the 5. Which WAN encapsulations can be
following must not be configured? configured on an asynchronous serial
connection?
A. The Frame Relay encapsulation on the 1. PPP
physical interface 2. ATM
B. The local DLCI on each subinterface 3. HDLC
C. An IP address on the physical interface 4. SDLC
D. The subinterface type as point-to-point Frame Relay
Answer: Option C A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
2. Which command will display the CHAP C. 3, 4 and 5
authentication process as it occurs between D. All of the above
two routers in the network? Answer: Option A
A. show chap authentication
B. show interface serial 0 6. Which encapsulations can be configured
C. debug ppp authentication on a serial interface?
D. debug chap authentication 1. Ethernet
Answer: Option C 2. Token Ring
3. HDLC
3. The Acme Corporation is implementing 4. Frame Relay
dial-up services to enable remote-office 5. PPP
employees to connect to the local network. A. 1 and 4
The company uses multiple routed B. 2 only
protocols, needs authentication of users C. 3, 4 and 5
connecting to the network, and since some D. All of the above
calls will be long distance, needs callback Answer: Option C
support. Which of the following protocols is
the best choice for these remote services? 7. Suppose that you have a customer who
A. 802.1 has a central HQ and six branch offices.
B. Frame Relay They anticipate adding six more branches
C. HDLC in the near future. They wish to implement
D. PPP a WAN technology that will allow the
branches to economically connect to HQ D. IPSec
and you have no free ports on the HQ E. xDSL
router. Which of the following would you Answer: Option C
recommend?
12. Which of the following describes an
A. PPP industry-wide standard suite of protocols and
B. HDLC algorithms that allows for secure data
C. Frame Relay transmission over an IP-based network that
D. ISDN functions at the layer 3 Network layer of the
Answer: Option C OSI model?
A. HDLC
8. Which of the following command options B. Cable
are displayed when you use the Router# C. VPN
show frame-relay ? command? D. IPSec
1. dlci E. xDSL
2. neighbors Answer: Option D
3. lmi
4. pvc 13. Which of the following uses ATM as the
5. map Data Link layer protocol that's terminated at
A. 1 only what's known as the DSLAM?
B. 2 and 4
C. 3, 4 and 5 A. DSL
D. All of the above B. PPPoE
Answer: Option C C. Frame Relay
D. Dedicated T1
9. In which of the following technologies is E. Wireless
the term HFC used? Answer: Option A
A. DSL
B. PPPoE 14. When a router is connected to a Frame
C. Frame Relay Relay WAN link using a serial DTE interface,
D. Dedicated T1 how is the clock rate determined?
Answer: Option D
A. Supplied by the CSU/DSU
10. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified B. By the far end router
as what type of physical network? C. By the clock rate command
A. Point-to-point D. By the Physical layer bit stream timing
B. Broadcast multi-access Answer: Option A
C. Non-broadcast multi-access
D. Non-broadcast multipoint 15. Which command is required for
Answer: Option C connectivity in a Frame Relay network if
Inverse ARP is not operational?
11. Which of the following describes the
creation of private networks across the A. frame-relay arp
Internet, enabling privacy and tunneling of B. frame-relay map
non-TCP/IP protocols? C. frame-relay interface-dci
D. frame-relay lmi-type
A. HDLC Answer: Option B
B. Cable
C. VPN
16. How should a router that is being used D. debug ip route
in a Frame Relay network be configured to Answer: Option B
keep split horizon issues from preventing
routing updates? Explanation:
A. Configure a separate subinterface for
each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet 3. Which statement is true regarding
assigned to the subinterface. classless routing protocols?
B. Configure each Frame Relay circuit as a 1. The use of discontiguous networks is not
point-to-point line to support multicast and allowed.
broadcast traffic. 2. The use of variable length subnet masks is
C. Configure many subinterfaces in the permitted.
same subnet. 3. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol.
D. Configure a single subinterface to 4. IGRP supports classless routing within the
establish multiple PVC connections to multiple same autonomous system.
remote router interfaces. 5. RIPv2 supports classless routing.
Answer: Option A A. 1, 3 and 5
B. 3 and 4
17. Which of the following encapsulates C. 2 and 5
PPP frames in Ethernet frames and uses D. None of the above
common PPP features like authentication, Answer: Option C
encryption, and compression?
A. PPP 4. You have the following routing table.
B. PPPoA Which of the following networks will not be
C. PPPoE placed in the neighbor routing table?
D. Token Ring
Answer: Option C R 192.168.30.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.40.1,
00:00:12, Serial0
IP Routing C 192.168.40.0/24 is directly connected,
1. Which of the following statements are Serial0
true regarding the command ip route 172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets
172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.2? C 172.16.30.0 is directly connected,
Loopback0
1. The command is used to establish a static R 192.168.20.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.40.1,
route. 00:00:12, Serial0
2. The default administrative distance is used. R 10.0.0.0/8 [120/15] via 192.168.40.1,
3. The command is used to configure the 00:00:07, Serial0
default route. C 192.168.50.0/24 is directly connected,
4. The subnet mask for the source address is Ethernet0
255.255.255.0. A. 172.16.30.0
A. 1 and 2 B. 192.168.30.0
B. 2 and 4 C. 10.0.0.0
C. 3 and 4 D. All of them will be placed in the
D. All of the above neighbor routing table.
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
2. Which command displays RIP routing 5. What is split horizon?

updates?
A. show ip route A. Information about a route should not
B. debug ip rip be sent back in the direction from which the
C. show protocols original update came.
B. It splits the traffic when you have a 9. The Corporate router receives an IP
large bus (horizon) physical network. packet with a source IP address of
C. It holds the regular updates from 192.168.214.20 and a destination address
broadcasting to a downed link. of 192.168.22.3. Looking at the output from
D. It prevents regular update messages the Corporate router, what will the router
from reinstating a route that has gone down. do with this packet?
Answer: Option A Corp#sh ip route
[output cut]
6. What command is used to stop RIP R 192.168.215.0 [120/2] via 192.168.20.2,
routing updates from exiting out an 00:00:23, Serial0/0
interface but still allow the interface to R 192.168.115.0 [120/1] via 192.168.20.2,
receive RIP route updates? 00:00:23, Serial0/0
A. Router(config-if)# no routing R 192.168.30.0 [120/1] via 192.168.20.2,
B. Router(config-if)# passive-interface 00:00:23, Serial0/0
C. Router(config-router)# passive- C 192.168.20.0 is directly connected,
interface s0 Serial0/0
D. Router(config-router)# no routing C 192.168.214.0 is directly connected,
updates FastEthernet0/0
Answer: Option C A. The packet will be discarded.
B. The packet will be routed out the S0/0
7. Two connected routers are configured interface.
with RIP routing. What will be the result C. The router will broadcast looking for
when a router receives a routing update the destination.
that contains a higher-cost path to a D. The packet will be routed out the Fa0/0
network already in its routing table? interface.
Answer: Option A
A. The updated information will be added
to the existing routing table. 10. If your routing table has a static, a RIP,
B. The update will be ignored and no and an IGRP route to the same network,
further action will occur. which route will be used to route packets
C. The updated information will replace by default?
the existing routing table entry. A. Any available route
D. The existing routing table entry will be B. RIP route
deleted from the routing table and all routers C. Static route
will exchange routing updates to reach D. IGRP route
convergence. E. They will all load-balance.
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
8. You type debug ip rip on your router 11. What is route poisoning?
console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being A. It sends back the protocol received
advertised to you with a metric of 16. What from a router as a poison pill, which stops the
does this mean? regular updates.
A. The route is 16 hops away. B. It is information received from a router
B. The route has a delay of 16 that can't be sent back to the originating
microseconds. router.
C. The route is inaccessible. C. It prevents regular update messages
D. The route is queued at 16 messages a from reinstating a route that has just come up.
second. D. It describes when a router sets the
Answer: Option C metric for a downed link to infinity.
Answer: Option D
4. Distance vector sends updates containing
12. Which of the following is true the state of its own links to all routers in the
regarding RIPv2? internetwork.
A. It has a lower administrative distance A. 1 only
than RIPv1. B. 3 only
B. It converges faster than RIPv1. C. 2 and 3 only
C. It has the same timers as RIPv1. D. None of the above
D. It is harder to configure than RIPv1. Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
16. IGRP uses which of the following as
13. A network administrator views the default parameters for finding the best
output from the show ip route command. A path to a remote network?
network that is advertised by both RIP and 1. Hop count
IGRP appears in the routing table flagged as 2. MTU
an IGRP route. Why is the RIP route to this 3. Cumulative interface delay
network not used in the routing table? 4. STP
A. IGRP has a faster update timer. 5. Path bandwidth value
B. IGRP has a lower administrative A. 1 and 3
distance. B. 3 and 5
C. RIP has a higher metric value for that C. 2, 3 and 5
route. D. All of the above
D. The IGRP route has fewer hops. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
17. Network 206.143.5.0 was assigned to
14. What does RIPv2 use to prevent routing the Acme Company to connect to its ISP.
loops? The administrator of Acme would like to
1. CIDR configure one router with the commands to
2. Split horizon access the Internet. Which commands could
3. Authentication be configured on the Gateway router to
4. Classless masking allow Internet access to the entire
5. Holddown timers network?
A. 1 and 3 1. Gateway(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
B. 2, 3 and 5 206.143.5.2
C. 2 and 5 2. Gateway(config)# router rip
D. 3 and 4 3. Gateway(config-router)# network
Answer: Option C 206.143.5.0
4. Gateway(config-router)# network
15. Which two of the following are true 206.143.5.0 default
regarding the distance-vector and link- A. 1 only
state routing protocols? B. 3 only
1. Link state sends its complete routing table C. 1, 2 and 4
out all active interfaces on periodic time D. 1 and 4
intervals. Answer: Option D
2. Distance vector sends its complete routing
table out all active interfaces on periodic time Network Address Translation
intervals.
3. Link state sends updates containing the 1.
state of its own links to all routers in the Which command would you place on interface
internetwork. connected to the Internet?
A. ip nat inside D. Run the debug all command.
B. ip nat outside Answer: Option C
C. ip outside global
D. ip inside local
Answer: Option B 7. Which command will show you the
summary of the NAT configuration?
2. Which command will show you all the
translations active on your router? A. show ip nat translations
B. show ip nat statistics
A. show ip nat translations C. debug ip nat
B. show ip nat statistics D. clear ip nat translations *
C. debug ip nat Answer: Option B
D. clear ip nat translations *
Answer: Option A
8. Which of the following is considered to be
3. Which command would you place on the destination host before translation?
interface on a private network?
A. Inside local
A. ip nat inside B. Outside local
B. ip nat outside C. Inside global
C. ip outside global D. Outside global
D. ip inside local Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
4. Pat Address Translation is also termed 9. Which of the following is considered to be

what? the address after translation?
A. NAT Fast A. Inside local

B. NAT Static B. Outside local
C. NAT Overload C. Inside global
D. Overloading Static D. Outside global
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
5. When creating a pool of global

addresses, which of the following can be used 10. Which are considered the methods of NAT?
instead of the netmask command? 1. Static
2. IP NAT pool
A. / (slash notation) 3. Dynamic
B. prefix-length 4. NAT double-translation
C. no mask 5. Overload
D. block-size A. 1 and 6
Answer: Option B B. 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 5
6. Which of the following would be a good D. All of the above
starting point for troubleshooting if your Answer: Option C
router is not translating?
A. Reboot. 11.
B. Call Cisco. Which command will allow you to see real-
C. Check your interfaces for the correct time translations on your router?
configuration.
A. show ip nat translations 1. Translation introduces switching path
B. show ip nat statistics delays.
C. debug ip nat 2. Conserves legally registered addresses.
D. clear ip nat translations * 3. Causes loss of end-to-end IP traceability.
Answer: Option C 4. Increases flexibility when connecting to the
Internet.
12. Which of the following would be good 5. Certain applications will not function with
reasons to run NAT? NAT enabled.
1. You need to connect to the Internet and your Reduces address overlap occurrence.
hosts don't have globally unique IP addresses. A. 1, 3 and 5
2. You change to a new ISP that requires you to B. 3 and 4
renumber your network. C. 2, 4 and 5
3. You don't want any hosts connecting to the D. 1 and 3
Internet. Answer: Option A
4. You require two intranets with duplicate
addresses to merge. 16. Which of the following is considered to be
A. 1, 2 and 4 the destination host after translation?
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 only A. Inside local
D. All of the above B. Outside local
Answer: Option A C. Inside global
D. Outside global
13. Which of the following are advantages Answer: Option D
of using NAT?
1. Translation introduces switching path
delays. 17. Which command will create a dynamic
2. Conserves legally registered addresses. pool named Todd that will provide you with
Causes loss of end-to-end IP traceability. 30 global addresses?
3. Increases flexibility when connecting to the
Internet. A. ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.65
4. Certain applications will not function with 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.240
NAT enabled. B. ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.65
Reduces address overlap occurrence. 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.224
A. 1, 3 and 4 C. ip nat pool todd 171.16.10.65
B. 3, 5 and 6 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.224
C. 5 and 6 D. ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.1
D. 2, 4 and 6 171.16.10.254 net 255.255.255.0
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
14. Which of the following is considered to 18. Which command will clear all the
be the address before translation? translations active on your router?
A. Inside local A. show ip nat translations
B. Outside local B. show ip nat statistics
C. Inside global C. debug ip nat
D. Outside global D. clear ip nat translations *
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
15. Which of the following are IPv6

disadvantages of using NAT? 1. Which of the following is true when
describing a multicast address?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address 2. Two colons (::) are used to represent
are delivered to a single interface. successive hexadecimal fields of zeros.
B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces 3. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.
identified by the address. This is also called a 4. A single interface will have multiple IPv6
one-to-many address. addresses of different types.
C. Identifies multiple interfaces and is A. 1 and 3
only delivered to one address. This address B. 2 and 4
can also be called one-to-one-of-many. C. 1, 3 and 4
D. These addresses are meant for D. All of the above
nonrouting purposes, but they are almost Answer: Option B
globally unique so it is unlikely they will have
an address overlap. 6. To enable RIPng, which of the following
Answer: Option B would you use?
A. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 10 area
2. Which of the following is true when 0.0.0.0
describing a unicast address? B. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 router rip 1
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address C. Router1(config)# ipv6 router eigrp 10
are delivered to a single interface. D. Router1(config-rtr)# no shutdown
B. These are your typical publicly routable E. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 eigrp 10
addresses, just like a regular publicly routable Answer: Option B
address in IPv4.
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 7. Which of the following is true when
in that they are not meant to be routed. describing a global unicast address?
D. These addresses are meant for
nonrouting purposes, but they are almost A. Packets addressed to a unicast address
globally unique so it is unlikely they will have are delivered to a single interface.
an address overlap. B. These are your typical publicly routable
Answer: Option A addresses, just like a regular publicly routable
address in IPv4.
3. To enable OSPFv3, which of the following C. These are like private addresses in IPv4
would you use? in that they are not meant to be routed.
A. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 10 area D. These addresses are meant for
0.0.0.0 nonrouting purposes, but they are almost
B. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 router rip 1 globally unique so it is unlikely they will have
C. Router1(config)# ipv6 router eigrp 10 an address overlap.
D. Router1(config-rtr)# no shutdown Answer: Option B
E. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 eigrp 10
Answer: Option A 8. What two multicast addresses does
OSPFv3 use?
4. What multicast addresses does RIPng 1. FF02::A
use? 2. FF02::9
A. FF02::A 3. FF02::5
B. FF02::9 4. FF02::6
C. FF02::5 A. 2 only
D. FF02::6 B. 3 only
Answer: Option B C. 1 and 3
D. 3 and 4
5. Which statement(s) about IPv6 Answer: Option D
addresses are true?
1. Leading zeros are required.
9. What multicast addresses does EIGRPv6
use?
A. FF02::A 13. Which of the following is true when
B. FF02::9 describing an anycast address?
C. FF02::5 A. Packets addressed to a unicast address
D. FF02::6 are delivered to a single interface.
Answer: Option A B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces
identified by the address. This is also called
10. To enable EIGRP, which of the following one-to-many addresses.
would you use? C. This address identifies multiple
1. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 interfaces and the anycast packet is only
2. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 router rip 1 delivered to one address. This address can also
3. Router1(config)# ipv6 router eigrp 10 be called one-to-one-of-many.
4. Router1(config-rtr)# no shutdown D. These addresses are meant for
5. Router1(config-if)# ipv6 eigrp 10 nonrouting purposes, but they are almost
A. 1, 3 and 5 globally unique so it is unlikely they will have
B. 3, 4 and 5 an address overlap.
C. 1 and 3 Answer: Option C
D. 5 only
Answer: Option B
14. You want to ping the loopback address
11. Which of the following is true when of your local host(with IPv6). What will you
describing a link-local address? type?
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address
are delivered to a single interface. A. ping 127.0.0.1
B. These are your typical publicly routable B. ping 0.0.0.0
addresses, just like a regular publicly routable C. ping ::1
address in IPv4. D. trace 0.0.::1
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 Answer: Option C
in that they are not meant to be routed.
D. These addresses are meant for 15. Which statement(s) about IPv4 and
nonrouting purposes, but they are almost IPv6 addresses are true?
globally unique so it is unlikely they will have 1. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long, represented
an address overlap. in hexidecimal.
Answer: Option C 2. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long,
represented in decimal.
12. Which of the following is true when 3. An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented
describing a unique local address? in decimal.
A. Packets addressed to a unicast address 4. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long,
are delivered to a single interface. represented in hexidecimal.
B. These are your typical publicly routable A. 1 and 3 only
addresses, just like a regular publicly routable B. 2 only
address in IPv4. C. 3 and 4
C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 D. 2 and 4
in that they are not meant to be routed. Answer: Option C
D. These addresses are meant for
nonrouting purposes, but they are almost
globally unique so it is unlikely they will have
an address overlap.
Answer: Option D

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Computer network basic

1. How many digits of the DNIC (Data B. Collision

A. UDP A. equal to the remainder at the sender

A. simplex 18. To connect a computer with a device in

A. converting analog to digital signals 24. Transmission of computerised data

A. Layer 7 protocols A. reduced computer idle time

A. 500 bps 33. You are working with a network that

A. 0.0.0.0, 0.0.0.1, 0.0.1.1

A. Bipolar A. Paperless office

Explanation: 45. HDLC (High-level Data Link Control)

A. Connecting as virtual memory

48. The first step in troubleshooting

49. You are working with a network that

MCQ. In computer network, bus, star, ring,

MCQ. Operating system which provides all

2. What flavor of Network Address

3. What are the two main types of access

A. copy running backup A. NCP

10. Which of the following commands

6. Which WLAN IEEE specification A. IP

A. TCP 21. In a network with dozens of

A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64 29. What command will display the line,

Wireless Technologies A. 6Mbps

2. Which command displays RIP routing 5. What is split horizon?

4. Pat Address Translation is also termed 9. Which of the following is considered to be

A. NAT Fast A. Inside local

5. When creating a pool of global

15. Which of the following are IPv6

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