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7. A certain waste has a BOD of 162 mg/l 12. Which of the following pairs are correctly
and its flow is 1000 cubic meters per day. matched ?
If the domestic sewage has a BOD of 80 1. Ringelmann chart : To grade density of
gram per capita, then the population smoke
equivalent of the waste would be 2. Pneumoconiosis : Disease caused due
a. 20.25 to coaldust
b. 1296 3. PAN : Secondary air pollutant
c. 2025 Select the correct answer using the codes
d. 12960 given below :
8. In sanitary plumbing of buildings, a two- a. 2 and 3
pipe system signifies b. 1 and 2
a. Separate soil pipes and waste pipe c. 1 and 3
without vent pipes d. 1, 2 and 3
b. A soil-cum-waste pipe and a 13. Which one of the following terms
ventilating pipe correctly described ‘Biomagnification’?
c. Separate soil and waste pipe and a a. Reproduction of micro-organisms
common ventilating pipe
b. Observation of micro-organisms under
d. Separate soil pipe and waste pipe, each
a microscope
with its own vent pipe
c. Ability of micro-organisms to form
9. Which of the following are storm water zoogleal film
regulators ?
d. Concentration of toxic materials in the
1. Side weir food chain
2. Leaping weir 14. Which one of the following
3. symphonic spillway comprehensive classifications is used for
4. Float actuated gates or values. different types of solid wastes ?
5. Inverted syphon. a. Residential, commercial and treatment
Select the correct answer using the codes plant wastes
given below : b. Food, demolition and construction
a. 1, 2 3 and 4 wastes
b. 1, 3 and 5 c. Municipal, industrial and harzardous
c. 2, 3 4 and 5 wastes
d. 1, 2, 4 and 5 d. Rubbish, special wastes and wastes
from open areas
10. When wastewater is disposed of into a
running stream, four zones are formed. In 15. Which one of the following methods
which one of the following zones will the would be best suited for disposal of plastic
minimum level of dissolved oxygen be and rubber waste ?
found ? a. Composting
a. Zone of degradation b. Incineration
b. Zone of active decomposition c. Pyrolysis
c. Zone of recovery d. Sanitary landfill
d. Zone of clear water 16. Which of the following pairs are correctly
11. The least expensive and most suitable matched ?
excrete disposal unit for rural areas would 1. Reverberation : time required to reduce
be the noise by 60 dB time
a. soak pit 2. NIPTS : Responsible for permanent
b. pit privy hearing loss
c. leaching cesspool
d. septic tank

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3. Sound foci : Formed when sound b. 0.3
waves are reflected from convex c. 0.4
surface d. 0.5
4. TTS : Responsible for temporary 22. The following data were obtained when a
hearing loss sample of medium sand was tested in a
Select the correct answer using the codes constant heat permeameter :
given below : Cross-section area of sample : 100 cm2
a. 2, 3 and 4 Hydraulic gradient : 10
b. 1, 3 and 4 Discharge collected : 10cc/s
c. 1, 2 and 4 The coefficient of permeability of the sand
d. 1, 2 and 4 is
17. A dry soil sample has equal amounts of a. 0.1 m/s
solids and voids by volume. Its void ratio b. 0.01 m/s
and porosity will be
c. 110–4 m/s
Void ratio Porosity(%)
a. 1.0 100% d. 1  10–8 s m/s
b. 0.5 50% 23. Match List I (Test) with List II(Property)
and select the correct answer :
c. 0.5 100%
List I
d. 1.0 50%
A. Proctor Test
18. Based on grain distribution analysis, the
D10, D30 and D60 values of a given solid B. Vane Test
are 0.23 mm, 0.3 mm and 0.41 mm C. Penetration Test
respectively. As per IS Code, the solid D. Hydrometer Test
classification will be List II
a. SW 1. Grain Size Analysis
b. SP 2. Shear strength
c. SM 3. Bearing Capacity
d. SC 4. Compaction
19. The plasticity index and the percentage of A B C D
grain size finer then 2 microns of a clay
a. 2 4 1 3
sample are 25 and 15, respectively. Its
activity ratio is b. 4 3 1 3
a. 2.5 c. 4 2 3 1
b. 1.67 d. 2 4 3 1
c. 1.0 24. Which one of the following phase
diagrams represents a clay at its shrinkage
d. 0.6 limit ?
20. A soil sample having a void ratio of 1.3,
water content of 50% and a specific
gravity of 2.60, is in a state of
a. partial saturation
b. full saturation
c. oversaturation
d. undersaturation
21. The natural void ratio of a san sample is
0.6 and its density index is 0.6. If its void
ratio in the loosest state is 0.9, then the
void ratio in the densest state will be

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and minimum principal stresses were 100
kPa and 40 kPa, respectively. The pore
pressure measured at failure was 10 kPa.
The effective principal stress ratio at
failure is
c. a. 2.5
b. 3.0
c. 2.75
d. 2.0
28. An earth-retaining structure may be
subjected to the following lateral earth
d. pressures :
25. Which one of the following correctly 1. Earth pressure at rest
represents the dry unit weight of a soil 2. passive earth pressure
sample which has a bulk unit weight l of 3. Active earth pressure
at a moisture content of % ? The correct sequence of the increasing
ωγ l order of the magnitude of these pressure is
100 a. 3, 2, 1
 ω  b. 1, 3, 2
b. γ l 1  
 100  c. 1, 2, 3
 100  d. 3, 1, 2
c. γ l   29. For a sand having an internal friction of
 100  ω 
30o, the ratio of passive to active lateral
γ l 100 ω  earth pressure will be
100 a. 1
26. b. 3
c. 6
d. 9
30. The total, neutral and effective vertical
stresses (in t/m2) at a depth of 5m below
the surface of a fully saturated soil deposit
with a saturated density of 2 t/m3 would,
The figure given above shown the state of respectively, be
a simple of clay before and after a. 5, 5 and 10
consolidation. Based on these figures, the
settlement of a clay layer of initial b. 5, 10 and 5
thickness H will be c. 10, 5 and 10
e d. 10, 5 and 5
1  e0  31.

H e
1  e f 
1  e f  Excess pore pressure distribution within
the thickness of a soil sample tested in
H e oedometry sometime after loading is
1  e0  shown in the above figures labeled 1, 2, 3
and 4. Which one of these figures, refers to
27. A soil sample test in a triaxial compression
a situation where the operator forgot to put
apparatus failed when the total maximum

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on the porous stones at the top and bottom b. 3
of the sample before the test ? c. 4
a. 1 d. 6
b. 2 36. Two circular footings of diameters D1 and
c. 3 D2 are resting on the surface of a purely
d. 4 cohesive soil. The ratio D1/D2 = 2. If the
32. In soil consolidation process, the following ultimate load carrying capacity of the
events take place after loading : footing of diameter D1 is 200 kN/m2, then
the ultimate bearing capacity (in kN/m2) of
1. Decrease in excess pore pressure the footing of diameter D2 will be
2. Increase in total stress a. 100
3. Development of excess pore pressure b. 200
4. Increase in effective stress. c. 314
The correct sequence of these events is: d. 571
a. 3, 2, 1, 4 37. The minimum bearing capacity of a soil
b. 2, 3 1, 4 under a given footing occurs when the
c. 2, 3, 4, 1 groundwater table at the location is at
d. 3, 2, 4, 1 a. the base of the footing
33. b. the ground level
c. a depth equal to one-half of the width
of footing
d. A depth equal to the width of footing
38. In a Newmark’s influence chart for stress
distribution, there are 10 concentric circles
and 50 radial lines. The influence factor of
the chart is
The e-p curve for a soil is shown in the a. 0.0002
above figure. The coefficient of b. 0.002
compressibility (in m2/kN) of the soil is
c. 0.02
a. 4000
d. 0.2
b. 2000
39. In the case of a pile foundation, negative
c. 2.5  10–4 skin friction may occur at a load which is
d. 1.25  10–4 a. lower the an the designed load
34. A saturated clay layer with double b. higher then the designed load
drainage takes 5 years to attain 90% c. equal to the designed load
degree of consolidation under a structure.
If the same layer were to be single drained, d. of any magnitude
what would be the time (in years) required 40. In under-reamed pile construction, the
to attain the same consolidation under the ratio of shaft diameter to bulb diameter is
same loading conditions ? a. 1/1.5
a. 10 b. 1/2
b. 15 c. 1/2.5
c. 20 d. 1/4
d. 25 41. Match List I (Field test) with List II
35. In the Engineering News Record formula (Property) and select the correct answer :
for determining the safe load carrying List I
capacity of a pile, the factor of safety used A. Pumping test
B. Plate load test
a. 2.5

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C. Pile load test Based on this formation on particle size
List II distribution for use as subgrade, this will
1. Bearing capacity be taken to be
2. Load carrying capacity a. uniformly-graded sand
3. Permeability b. well-graded sand
c. very find sand
a. 1 2 3 d. poorly-graded sand
b. 3 1 2 45. Consider the following statements
regarding soil stabilization :
c. 2 3 1
1. Subgrade should be treated if it has a
d. 3 2 1 soaked CBR of 5 or less.
42. Match List I (Distress) with List 2. Sub-bases, after treatment, should have
II(meaning) and select the correct answer : plasticity index not less than 5.
List I 3. Base courses after treatment should
A. Settlement have plasticity index of not more than
B. Subsidence 2 and a CBR in excess of 100.
C. Depression Which of these statements(s) is/are
D. Distortion correct?
List II a. 1, 2 and 3
1. A localized, rather abrupt lowering of b. 1 and 3
the road surface c. 2 and 3
2. A general lowering of the road surface d. 1 alone
3. Irregular deformation of the road 46. While driving at a speed of 30 kmph (with
4. Dished localized deformations available friction 0.4) down the grade, the
driver requires a braking distance twice the
required for stopping the vehicle when he
a. 2 1 4 3 travels up the same grade. The grade is
b. 1 2 4 3 a. 7%
c. 2 1 3 4 b. 10.6%
d. 1 2 3 4 c. 13.3%
43. Consider the following stages in the d. 33.3%
construction of concrete roads :
47. Modulus of subgrade reaction using 30 cm
1. Preparing the subgrade and the base diameter plate is obtained as 200 N/cm3.
course. The value of the same (in N/cm3) using
2. Mixing and placing the concrete. the standard plate will be
3. Placing the framework and water the a. 500
prepared base b. 200
4. Curing c. 85
5. Compaction and floating . d. 80
The correct sequence of these stages is 48. An observer travelling at a constant speed
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 of 70 kmph with the traffic stream over a 5
b. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 km stretch is passed by 17 vehicles more
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 than what he passes. When the observer
travels against the stream at the same
d. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 speed, the number of vehicles he meets is
44. Given that 303. the flow of the traffic stream is
coefficient of curvature = 1.4, a. 4480 vph
D30 = 3 mm, b. 4160 vph
D10 = 0.6 mm

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c. 2240 vph a. adjusting the sleepers to be
d. 2002 vph perpendicular to the rails
49. If the total seven-day traffic volume for the b. adjusting the ballast under sleepers to
week is 3625 and the traffic volume for space them parallel to each other
Monday is 650, then the monthly c. cutting the edges of the sleepers to a
expansion factor for Monday is would be square shape
a. 5.6 d. adjusting the rails to be perpendicular
b. 1.25 to the sleepers
c. 0.8 55. In deep water waves, individual particles
d. 0.25 a. are translated
50. Which one of the following is the purpose b. are translated and rotated in a vertical
of divisional island ? plate about a horizontal axis
a. To divert the traffic into definite travel c. are not translate, but they rotate in a
path at the inter-section. vertical plate about a horizontal axis
b. To reduce the speed of traffic entering d. do not rotate in a vertical plate about a
the intersection horizontal axis.
c. To divert traffic from obstacles and 56. A surface longitudinally centered on the
expedite the flow of traffic extended runway centre lie and extending
d. To segregate opposing flow of traffic outward and upward is called
in a multi-lane high-way a. primary surface
51. Tunnel alignment is carried out y b. conical surface
a. surface theodolite traverse c. horizontal surface
b. triangulation d. approach surface
c. compass traverse 57. Which of the following factors are to be
d. aerial photography taken into consideration while designing
the taxiway system ?
52. With reference to tunneling, which of the
following factors are to be considered for 1. Volume of air traffic.
deciding the size to the shaft ? 2. Runway configuration.
1. system used for hoisting 3. Location of terminal building
2. size of the muck car. 4. Location of hangars.
3. Quantity of muck to be lifted. Select the correct answer using the codes
4. Eventual use of the shaft. given below :
Select the correct answer using the codes a. 1, 2 and 3
given below : b. 2 and 3
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4 58.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Which one of the following is installed as
the second signal on the main signal post
for better visibility ?
a. Routing signal
b. Calling on signal
c. Co-acting signal In the above figure shown, “cockpit cutoff
d. Repeating signal angle” is the angle labelled
54. Squaring of sleepers through packing a. 
consists of
b. 

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c.  b. 2000 m
d.  c. 20 km
59. Which of the following Pairs are correctly d. 200 km
matched ? 63. The sensitiveness of a bubble tube in a
1. Telemeter : Measurement of level would decrease if
distance a. The radius of the curvature of the
2. Price meter : Measurement of internal surface of the tube is increased
difference in elevation between points b. The diameter of the tube is increased
3. Sounding sextant :Measurement of c. The length of the vapour bubble is
horizontal angles increased
4. Clinometer : Measurement of vertical d. The viscosity of the liquid is increased
angles 64. In a closed traverse with five sided, the
Select the correct answer using the code error found from the fore bearing and back
given below : bearing of the last line is +2o. The
a. 2, 3 and 4 correction to the third lien will be
b. 1, 3 and 4 a. 0 o 24’
c. 1, 2 and 4 b. 0 o 48’
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 o 12’
60. Consider the following steps : d. 1o36’
1. Calculation of  L and  D 65. At a given place of observation, the
declination of a circumpolar star is
2. Correction of latitudes and departures.
a. greater than the latitude
3. Calculation of bearings.
b. equal to the latitude
4. Calculation of interior angles.
c. less than the co-latitude
5. Calculation of independent angles.
d. greater than the co-latitude
The correct sequence of these steps in
Gale’s transverse table calculations is 66. Theory of errors and adjustments deals
with minimizing the effects of
a. 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
a. instrumental errors
b. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
b. mistakes
c. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
c. systematic errors
d. 4, 3, 5, 2, 1
d. personal and accidental errors
61. A tower appears in two successive
photographs taken at an altitude of 4000 m 67. Assertion (A) : The available yield of a
above datum. The focal length of the tubewell can be doubled by doubling the
camera is 160 mm. The length of the air diameter of the well.
base is 300 m. The parallax for the top and Reason (R) : The yield of a tubewell varies
bottom of the pole are 72 mm and 63 mm inversely with the logarithm of the
respectively. The height of the top of the reciprocal of the diameter of the well.
tower above its bottom is nearly a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. 63 mm correct explanation of A
b. 72 mm b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. 95 mm the correct explanation of A
d. 135 mm c. A is true but R is false
62. A road section of length 1 km scales 8 cm d. A is false but R is true
on a vertical photograph. The focal length 68. Assertion (A) : Total drag is reduced if the
of the camera is 160 mm. If the terrain is boundary layer on the surface of a cylinder
fairly level, ten the flying height will be separated further downstream of the
a. 20 m leading point.

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Reason (R) : As the separation point the downstream of a weir on permeable
moves further downstream, form drag is foundation.
reduced and the skin drag is only Reason (R) : Seepage lines are directed
marginally increased. upwards at the downstream of such a weir.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
69. Assertion (A) : Break-point chlorination is 73. Assertion (A) : Effective vertical stress at
required to ensure free chlorine residuals some depth below a river bed is unaffected
for better disinfection. by the water depth in the river
Reason (R) : Free chlorine residuals have Reason (R) : Equal amounts of increase in
good disinfecting power and they are total stress and pore pressure will not
usually dissipated quickly in the change the effective stress.
distribution system. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true
74. Assertion (A) : Permanent lowering of
70. Assertion (A) : The design of all non- GWT result in settlements.
circular sections is based upon getting a Reason (R) : Increase in effective stress
“hydraulically equivalent section”. results in settlement sin soils.
Reason (R) : The chart of hydraulic a. Both A and R are true and R is the
elements is very useful in sewer design. correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT c. A is true but R is false
the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false
75. Assertion (A) : When a sharp horizontal
d. A is false but R is true curve is to be introduced on a road which
71. Assertion (A) : black cotton soils are clays already had the maximum permissible
and they exhibit characteristic property of gradient, the gradient should be decreased.
swelling. Reason (R) : The gradient should be
Reason (R) : These clays contain decreased to compensate for the loss of
montmorillonite which attracts external tractive effort due to the introduction of
water into its lattice structure. sharp horizontal curve on the road.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
72. Assertion (A) : The possibility of 76. Assertion (A) : The most common
quicksand condition occurring is more on approach or control of beach erosion is to
build groynes.

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Reason (R) : Groynes are constructed 4. Nitrogen oxides
parallel to the shore. Select the correct answer using the codes
a. Both A and R are true and R is the given below :
correct explanation of A a. 2 and 3
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. 1 and 2
the correct explanation of A
c. 1, 3 and 4
c. A is true but R is false d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. A is false but R is true 81. A soil sampler has inner and outer radii of
77. Assertion (A) : Gradients much steeper 25 mm and 30 mm respectively. The area
than the ruling gradient are provide in a ratio of the sampler is
hilly terrain and they are negotiated with a. 24%
the help of a pusher engine.
b. 34%
Reason (R) : Restricting the gradient to the
ruling gradient in hilly terrains would c. 44%
mean increasing the length of the track d. 54%
resulting considerably in heavy 82. Match List I with List II and select the
excavation. correct answer :
a. Both A and R are true and R is the List I
correct explanation of A A. Concentrated sugar solution
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT B. Sewage sludge
the correct explanation of A
C. Blood
c. A is true but R is false
D. Air
d. A is false but R is true
List II
78. Assertion (A) : Whole circle bearing of a
1. Dilatant Fluid
line is preferred to a quadrantal bearing.
2. Bingham plastic fluid
Reason (R) : Bearing is completely
specified by an angle. 3. Pseudoplastic fluid
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 4. Newtonia fluid.
correct explanation of A A B C D
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. 1 2 3 4
the correct explanation of A b. 1 2 4 3
c. A is true but R is false c. 2 1 3 4
d. A is false but R is true d. 2 1 4 3
79. Assertion (A) : the centrifugal ratio 83. A metal cube of size 15 cm  15 cm  15
decreases along the length of the transition cm and specific gravity 8.6 is submerged
curve. in a two-layered liquid, the bottom layer
Reason (R) : The superelevation increases being mercury and the top layer being
along the length of the transition curve. water. The percentage of the volume of the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the cube remaining above the interface will be,
correct explanation of A approximately
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. 68
the correct explanation of A b. 63
c. A is true but R is false c. 40
d. A is false but R is true d. 25
80. Which of the following air pollutants are 84. A 30 cm diameter, 90o elbow has one limb
responsible for the green house effect ? vertical. Average velocity of flow of water
1. Methane through the elbow is 5 m/s and the
2. Carbon dioxide pressure intensity is 4 kPa. The vertical
3. Flurocarbons

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component of force to keep the elbow in flow is given by R = Vx/v. The thickness
position will be of the boundary layer at x will be
a. 0.28 kN proportional to
b. 1.49 kN a. xR1/2
c. 1.77 kN b. xR–1/2
d. 2.05 kN c. R1/2
85. Which one of the following statements d. R–1/2
relating to Vortex Flow is INCORRECT? 89. Magnus effect may be used
a. In the formation of a free vortex, advantageously in games such as cricket,
streamlines are axisymmetric and tennis, table tennis and golf. In order to
irrotational obtain a lift, i.e. a rising curve for the
b. In a forced vortex, work transfer trajectory of the ball, form left to right, the
between the fluid and the surroundings nature of the spin to be given is
takes place and the flow is rotational a. anticlockwise in the vertical plane
c. In a free vortex, radial motion towards b. anticlockwise in the horizontal plane
the core takes place due to variation of c. clockwise in the vertical plane
depth of water in the whirlpool or due d. clockwise in the horizontal plane
to the difference of pressure resulting 90. Two tanks are connected in parallel by two
from higher velocity near the core pipes A and B of identical friction factors
d. In a free vortex, there is not variation and lengths. If the size of pipe A is double
of energy from streamline to that of pipe B, then their discharges will be
streamline and irrotationality is not in the ratio of
deviated from near the core a. 2
86. Consider the following measuring b. 4
structures :
c. 5.66
1. submerged broad-crested weir
d. 32
2. Free broad-crested weir.
91. Water of v = 1 centistoke flows through a
3. Free sharp-crested weir. 1 cm diameter pipe. Critical flow will
4. Free ogee spillway. correspond to a discharge of
The correct sequence of the increasing approximately
order of the discharge coefficient of these a. 0.008 l/s
structures is b. 0.013 l/s
a. 1, 2, 4, 3 c. 0.016 l/s
b. 2, 1, 3, 4 d. 0.025 l/s
c. 2, 1, 4, 3 92. Match List I (Surface) with List II
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 (Approximate range of Manning’s n) and
87. In a laminar flow between two static select the correct answer :
parallel plates, the velocity at mid-point is List I
found to be 2.0 m/s. If the space between A. Gravel river bed with 50 mm diameter
the plates is 10 cm, then the discharge per bed
unit width (in m3/s /m) will be
B. Badly maintained unlined irrigation
a. 0.01 channel with weed growth
b. 0.02 C. Concrete lined channel
c. 0.10 D. Channel with brick lining
d. 0.20
List II
88. A fluid with kinematic viscosity v flows in 1. 0.02 to 0.022
laminar stage along a flat plate with free-
stream velocity V. At a distance x from the 2. 0.025 to 0.04
leading edge, the Reynolds number of the 3. 0.013 to 0.017

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4. 0.04 to 0.08 D. Hygrometer
A B C D List II
a. 4 3 2 1 1. Humidity
b. 4 2 3 1 2. Evapotranspiration
c. 1 3 2 4 3. Infiltration
d. 1 2 3 4 4. Wind speed
93. Water surface profiles that are asymptotic A B C D
at one end and terminated at the other and a. 4 3 1 2
would include b. 3 4 1 2
a. H2 and S2 c. 4 3 2 1
b. H3 and S2 d. 3 4 2 1
c. M2 and H2 97. The life of reservoir is determined by its
d. M2 and H3 capacity (C), volume of annual inflow into
94. A hydraulic jump is always needed in case the reservoir (I) and concentration of
of sediment in the incoming flow (CS). Life
a. an A2 profile followed by an A3 profile will be more if
b. an A3 profile followed by an M2 profile It has
c. an H2 profile followed by an M2 profile
d. and M1 profile followed by an M3
95. Which of the following principles relate to
a unit Hydrograph ?
1. The hydrographs of direct run off due
to effective rainfall of equal duration a. voltage series feedback
have the same time base. b. voltage shunt feedback
2. Effective rainfall is not uniformly c. current shunt feedback
distributed within its duration. d. current series feedback
3. Effective rainfall is uniformly 98. The IF amplifier in a superheterodyne
distributed throughout the whole area receiver is
of drainage basin.
a. single-stage single-tuned amplifier
4. Hydrograph of direct run off from a
basin due to a given period of-effective b. two stages of single-tuned amplifier
rainfall reflects the combination of all c. double-tuned amplifier
the physical characteristics of the d. Class-C amplifier
basin. 99. RC network shown in the given figure can
Select the correct answer using the codes provide a maximum theoretical phase shift
given below : of
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
96. Match list I with list II and select the a. 90 o
correct answer : b. 180 o
List I c. 270 o
A. Anemometer d. 360o
B. Rain simulator 100. Which one of the following circuits is
C. Lysimeter most suitable as an oscillator at a
frequency of 100 Hz ?

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a. Hartley oscillator 105. In a PLL, lock occurs when the
b. Colpitts oscillator a. input frequency and the VCO
c. Crystal oscillator frequency are the same
d. Twin-T oscillator b. phase error is 180o
101. A circuit is showing the given figure. The c. VCO frequency is double the input
largest value of RL that can be used , is frequency
d. None of these
Item Canal data Drainage data
Flow(m /s) 5 500
Bed level(m) 120 116
Depth of flow (m) 0.8 10
Which one of the following types of cross-
a. 100  drainage should be recommended in this
b. 400  case ?
c. 2 k a. Aqueduct
b. Syphon aqueduct
d. 20 k
c. Syphon
102. A differential amplifier is invariable used
in the input stage of all op-amps. This is d. Superpassage
done basically to provide the opamps with 107. Consider the following statements :
a very high The down stream impervious flow of
a. CMRR concrete for a barrage has ruptured. This
b. bandwidth can be due to
c. slew rate 1. insufficient length of upstream
impervious floor.
d. open-loop gain
2. insufficient length of downstream
103. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
impervious floor.
current T through the resistance R is
3. insufficient depth of downstream pile.
4. choking of inverted filter.
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
a. 100 A 108. Ten m3/s of water is diverted to a 32
hectare field for 4 hours. Soil proving after
b. –100 A
irrigation showed that 0.3 m of water had
c. 1 mA been stored in the root zone. Water
d. –1 mA application efficiency in this case would
104. The effect of a finite gain of an operational be
amplifier used in an integrator is that a. 96%
a. it would not integrate b. 66.67%
b. the slope of the output will vary with c. 48%
time d. 24%
c. the final value of the output voltage 109. Which one of the following statements is
will reduce correct ?
d. there will be instability in the circuit

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In a river, silt excluder and silt ejector are 112. Which of the following statements are
constructed correct ?
a. at a location after the head regulator 1. Groundwater is generally free from
and at the head of the canal, suspended and dissolved impurities
respectively 2. Suspended matters often contain
b. at the head of the canal and at a pathogenic bacteria
location after the head regulator, 3. rain water is soft and tasteless
respectively 4. Lake water may contain microscopic
c. at the same location organisms.
d. at specific locations depending upon Select the correct answer using the codes
diverse factors and their locations do given below :
not follow a set pattern a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
110. The ideal efficiently of a single-jet Pelton b. 1 and 2
wheel is given by
2/V2 [Vv + v(V–v)cos – v2]
(symbols have their usual meanings)
If friction on the buckets reduces the
relative velocity by a factor k1 and if
windage losses reduce the effectiveness of
the affected parameters by a factor k2 ,
then the resulting efficiency multiplied by
V2 is given by
a. 2k1k2 [Vv + v(V–v)cos – v2]
b. 2[k2Vv + k2v(V–v)cos – v2]
a. in the active region
c. 2[k2Vv + k1k2v(V–v)cos – v2]
b. in the saturation region
d. 2[k2Vv + k1k2v(V–v)cos – k2v2]
c. in the saturation region
111. Match list I (Units in water treatment
plant) with list II (Impurities removed) d. either in the active or the saturation
and select the correct answer : region.
List I 113. Which of the following regions of
operation are mainly responsible for
A. Aerator heating of the transistor under switching
B. Rapid sand filter operation ?
C. Slow sand filter 1. Saturation region.
D. Sedimentation tank(after coagulation 2. cut-off region.
and flocculation) 3. Transition from saturation to cut-off.
List II 4. Transition from cut-off to saturation.
1. Excess CO2 and H2S Select the correct answer using the codes
2. Settleable and colloidal matter given below :
3. suspended matter a. 1 and 2
4. suspended matter b. 2 and 3
5. suspended, colloidal and c. 3 and 4
bacteriological matter d. 1 and 3
114. The circuit shown in the given figure
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 1 3 4 2

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a. is an oscillating circuit and its output is B. Chlorine
a square wave C. D.O.
b. is an whose output remains stable in D. Chloride
‘1’ state
List II
c. is one whose output remains stable in 1. Wenker’s method
‘0’ state
2. EDTA method
d. gives a single pulse of 3 times
propagation delay 3. Orthotolidine test
115. The circuit of a gate in the resistor 4. Mohr method
transistor logic (RTL) family shown in the A B C D
given figure is a/an a. 2 3 1 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 1 4 2 3
119. The amount of bleaching power containing
20% available chlorine needed to
chlorinate a rural water supply covering a
population of 10000 at 50 lpcd at the rate
a. AND gate of 2 ppm is
b. OR gate a. 1 kg
c. NAND gate b. 5 kg
d. NOR gate c. 0.2 kg
116. The decoding error of the counter can be d. 20 kg
avoided by 120. Which of the following statements(s)
a. increasing propagation delay of flip- regarding industrial water supply is/are
flops used in the counter correct ?
b. using very fast logic gates 1. Industrial water supplies need not be
c. using the strobe signal
2. Water for industrial use requires
d. reducing the propagation delay of flip- chemical treatment.
flops used in the counter
3. Standards of purity and methods of
117. Which one of the following flags is not treatment of water for industrial use
used for branching in a microprocessor ? are often different from those for
a. Carry flag domestic water supplies
b. Auxiliary carry flag 4. If is more economical to use water
c. Overflow flag from surface sources than from
d. Parity flag groundwater sources for industrial
water supplies.
118. The number of comparator circuits
required to build a three-bit simultaneous Select the correct answer using the codes
A/D converter is given below :
a. 7 a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 8 b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 15 c. 3 and 4
d. 16 d. 3 only
determination) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Hardness