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CODE 0

JEE PREPARATORY TEST-3(JPT-3) - JEE MAIN PATTERN

Target: JEE (Main+Advanced) 2014

Date: 12 March 2014 | Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 360

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

Filling the Top-half of the ORS :

1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do

Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.

strictly prohibited.

8. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken the

you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also

Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS in the space

3. The test is of 3 hours duration. provided (if the ORS is both side printed).

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum 9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and

marks are 360. darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball point pen.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting 10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly

of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry having 30 and properly, then his/her marks will not be displayed and 5

questions. Mathematics & Physics part consists of Two marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.

sections and Chemistry consists of One section. 11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble,

6. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken you are advised to be extremely careful while darken the

all the bubble(s) corresponding to only the correct answer(s) bubble corresponding to your answer.

and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, 12. Neither try to erase / rub / scratch the option nor make the

¼ (one fourth (1)) marks will be deducted. Cross (X) mark on the option once filled. Do not scribble,

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray

up more than one response in any question will be treated as marks or whitener anywhere on the ORS.

wrong response and marks for wrong response will be 13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the

deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above. bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will be taken as

final.

PART- A 3. Consider the following argument :

"If it is a good watch then it is a Titan watch.

question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for

(2) invalid

its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(3) may be valid or invalid

1. The set (A B C)(ABC)C equals replaced by biconditional connective

(1) A C

4. Area bounded between the curves

(2) B C

xy = – 2, x + y + 1 = 0, y = 2 and y -axis is

(3) (B C) equal to -

(2) 2 + 2n2

of the first six numbers is 15 and the last five (4) 1 – 2n2

5. The total number of integral values of a for

(1) 15

which the equation a2 – 2a + 3 = |cosx – 2|

(2) 12 have real solutions for x is

(3) 18 (1) 4

(2) 6

(4) None of these

(3) 2

(4) 3

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 1

6. If the coefficients of second, third and fourth 9. The function

terms in the expansion of (1 + x)2n are in A.P.,

1 – 2x 3 x 2 – 4 x 3 ....to , x –1

then which of the following is TRUE. f(x) = is

1 , x –1

(1) n2 – 9n + 7 = 0

(2) 3n2 – 9n + 7 = 0 (1) continuous and derivable at x = – 1

2

(3) 3n + 9n + 7 = 0 (2) neither continuous nor derivable at x=– 1

2

(4) 2n – 9n + 7 = 0 (3) continuous but not derivable at x = – 1

(4) none of these

7. Length of the common chord of the circles

2

(x – 1)2+(y+1)2=c2 and (x + 1)2 +(y–1)2= c2 dx

10. If I = , then e2 – I equal

is 0 x x x ........

1

(1) c2 2 to

2

(1) 10

(2) c2 2 (2) 1

(3) 2

(3) c + 2

(4) 5

(4) 2 c 2 2

moves in circle at a speed of 3.5 cm/sec, then

1

8. If z = ( i 3 – 1) , then the value of (z–z2+ the rate of increase of the enclosed circular

2

region when the radius of the circular wave is

2z3)(2 – z + z2) is

(1) 3 22

10 cm, is 7

(2) 7

(4) 5 (3) 35 sq. cm/sec (4) 350 sq. cm/sec

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 2

12. The solution of the equation y2x dx+ydx–xdy=0 15. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower

is standing on a horizontal plane from a point A

is . After walking a distance d towards the

x x2 x

(1) x2 + y + c = 0 (2) – y +c=0 foot of the tower the angle of elevation is found

2

to be . The height of the tower is-

x2 x x2

(3) + y +c=0 (4) – xy + c = 0 d

2 2 (1)

cot cot

d

13. Equation of circle centered at extremity of (2) cot – cot

positive minor axis and passing through the

focus (on positive x-axis) of the ellipse

d

(3) tan – tan á

x2 y2

+ = 1 is

16 9

d

2 2 (4) tan tan á

(1) x + y – 6y – 7 = 0

(2) x2 + y2 – 6y = 0

(3) x2 + y2 – 6y – 16 = 0

16. The number of real points at which line

(4) x2 + y2 – 3x – 3y = 0

( x – 1)2 ( y – 2)2

3y–2x = 14 cuts hyperbola – =5

9 4

is

2

(1) 0

(1) Domain of f(x) is R (2) 1

(2) Domain of f(x) is R – {n}, nI (3) 2

(3) Range of f(x) is [0,1] (4) 4

(4) Range of f(x) is R – [1,2]

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 3

21. From the point (15, 12) three normals are

1

17. If ( x 9 x 6 x 3 )(2x 6 3x 3 6)1/ 3 dx= (2x9 + drawn to the parabola y2 = 4x, then centroid of

a

triangle formed by three co-normal points is

3x6 + 6x3)4/3 + c, then ‘a’ equal to

16 26

1 1 (1) 3 , 4 (2) 4 , 3

(1) (2)

6 24

(3) 24 (4) 6

26

(3) 3 , 0 (4) (6, 4)

100

–1 1 p

18. If tan 2

tan –1 where p and q are

k 1 2k q 22. A missile is destroyed before hitting the target

1

by a probability of . If the missile is not

coprime number, then 2p – q is 3

3

(1) 101 (2) 99 destroyed probability of hitting the target is .

4

(3) 201 (4) 98 Three missiles are fired. The probabality of

exactly two hits the target is

sin x

sin x x – sin x

19. The value of lim is 1 3

x 0 x (1) (2)

16 16

(1) 1 (2) –1

3 1

(3) (4)

8 8

1

(3) e (4)

e

20. If A, B and C are three square matrices of the same minimum value of the expression a + b +c + d

size such that B = CAC–1 and CA3C–1 = Bk. then is

find the value of k. (1) 2 (2) 4

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) none of these

(3) 2 (4) None of these

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 4

24. In ABC, the angles A, C, B are in A.P. Then

SECTION - II

ab

equals to Reasoning Type

a 2 ab b 2

This section contains 3 reasoning type

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),

A 1 AB

(1) sin (2) cos (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is

2 2 2

correct.

B A B

(3) cos (4) 2 cos d d

2 2 28. STATEMENT -1: {tan– 1(sec x+tanx)}

dx dx

represents the sides of a triangle which is {cot –1

(cosec x + cot x)}, x 0 , .

4

(1) right angled but not isosceles

(2) isosceles STATEMENT-2: sec2 x –tan2x=1=cosec2 x – cot2

(3) equilateral

(4) right angled and isosceles x if x 0 ,

2

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

27. The shortest distance between the z -axis and

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

the line, x + y + 2z – 3 =0, 2x + 3y + 4z – 4 = 0

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 0

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 5

30. Statement 1 : cot – tan = 2, then

x 2 34 x – 71

29. Statement 1 : For real x, cannot = (4n + 1) /8

x 2 2x – 7

Statement 2 : For real constant a, b, c ; a 0, 1 = 0 has no solution for 'x' in the Ist quadrant.

the solutions of equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 are

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;

real if b2 – 4ac 0 otherwise imaginary

Statement-2 is the correct explanation of

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;

Statement-1.

Statement-2 is the correct explanation of

Statement-1. (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;

(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of

(3) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.

(4) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false. (4) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 6

32. Two blocks of same mass are kept on a

PART-B

horizontal rough surface as shown in the

figure. Coefficient of friction between the

SECTION - I

blocks and surface is 0.1. A force of 16 N

Straight Objective Type

is applied on one block as shown in figure.

This section contains 28 multiple choice

Find the tension (in Newton) in the string.

questions. Each question has 4 choices

(1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of

which ONLY ONE is correct.

(1) 4 (2) 6

variation of its kinetic energy with time is

(3) 8 (4) 10

linear as depicted in the figure below :

wave having peak value. V 0 is as shown in

figure. The average value of voltage V in

time interval from t = 0 toT is :

(1) directly proportional to velocity

(2) inversely proportional to velocity

(3) zero

(4) constant V0

(1) 0 (2)

2

V0

(3) (4) None of these

2

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 7

34. If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent 37. A charged particle moves in a circular path

sources is 4 then the visibility in a uniform magnetic field. If its velocity

[(I max- I min)/(I max+ I min)] of the fringes is - is reduced then its time period will:

(1) 4 (1) dincrease (2) decrease

(2) 4/5 (3) remain same (4) none

(3) 3/5

(4) 9 38. A conducting disc rotates about its axis

(passing through centre and perpendicular

35. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr’s to the plane of disc) in a uniform magnetic

postulates the product of linear field B and magnetic field is perpendicular

momentum and angular momentum is to plane of disc. There are certain points

x

proportional to (n) where ‘n’ is the orbit marked on a chord joining two points C

number. Then ‘x’ is : and G on the periphery of the disc.Point E

(1) 0 is the midpoint of the chord. Points D and

(2) 2 F are the midpoints of segments CE and

(3) –2 EG respect ively. T he em f induced is

(4) 1 maximum between the points:(Do not

consider the emf due to centrifugal forces)

36. Consider atoms H, He +, Li++ in their ground

s t a t e s . S u p p o s e E 1, E 2 a n d E 3 a r e

minimum energies required so that the

atoms H, He +, Li ++ can achieve their first

(1) E 1 = E 2 = E 3

(2) E 1 > E 2 > E 3

(3) E 1 < E 2 < E 3 (1) C and D

(3) C and G

(4) D and F

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 8

39. Two sem icircular r ing s lying in same 40. An object is placed at a distance of R/2

plane, of uniform linear charge density from the centre of earth. Knowing mass

have radius r and 2r. They are joined using is distributed uniformly, acceleration of

two straight uniformly charged wires of that object due to gravity at that point is:

linear charge density and length r as (g = acceleration due to gravity on the

shown in figure. The magnitude of electric surface of earth and R is the radius of

field at common centre of semi circular earth)

rings is - (1) g

(2) 2 g

(3) g/2

(4) none of these

2r r

41. Figure shows a solid resistance wire of

uniform material but non–uniform

cross–section area. A,B and C are the

three sections. Current flowing is i, electric

field at a section is E, potential is V and

1 3

(1) 4 2 r flux of electric field cut by a cross–section

o

is then :

1

(2) 4 2 r

o

1 2

(3) 4 r

o

1

(4) 4 r (1) i B > i A > i C

o

(2) E B = E A > E C

(3) A = B = C

(4) V B > V A > V C

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 9

42. Moment of inertia of a uniform quarter disc 43. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is

of radius R and mass M about an axis hinged at its mid point in such a way that

through its centre of mass and it can rotate in the vertical plane about a

perpendicular to its plane is : horizontal axis passing through the hinge.

One of its ends is attached to a spring of

spring constant k which is unstretched

2

MR 2 4R when the rod is horizontal. If this end is

(1) M

2 3 now g iven a sm all displacem ent and

released angular frequency of the resulting

2 motion is

MR 2 4R

(2) M 2

2 3

2

MR 2 4R

(3) + M

2 3

K

(1)

2 m

MR 2 4R

(4) + M 2

2 3

2K

(2)

m

3K

(3)

m

g

(4)

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 10

44. A uniform metal rod (fixed at both ends) of 46. Figure shows an ideal fluid flowing through

2 mm 2 cross-section is cooled from 40 ºC a uniform cross-sectional tube in the

to 20 ºC. The co-efficient of the linear

vertical tube with liquid velocities v A & v B

expansion of the rod is 12 106 per degree

and pressure P A & P B . Knowing that tube

& i t ’s young m odulu s of elast icit y is

offers no resistance to fluid flow then

10 11 N/m 2 . The energy stored per unit

which of the following is true.

volume of the rod is:

(1) 2880 J/m 3

(2) 1500 J/m 3

(3) 5760 J/m 3

(4) 1440 J/m 3

falling (vvertically downwards) through air

with a steady velocity of 5 cm/sec. If both

the drops coalesce ( combine) to form a

(1) P B > P A

new spherical drop, the terminal velocity

of the new drop will be- (neglect bouyant

force on the drops.) (2) P B < P A

5

(4) cm/sec.

2

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 11

47. A glass beaker has diameter 4cm wide at 48. Two point objects are placed on principal

the bottom. An observer observes the edge axis of a thin converging lens. One is

of bottom when beaker is empty as shown 20 cm from the lens and other is on the

in figure. When the beaker is completely other side of lens at a distance of 40 cm

f i l l e d wi t h l i q u i d o f r e f r a c t i v e i n d e x from the lens. The images of both objects

5 / 2 , he can just see the centre of

lens is

bottom, then the height of glass beaker is:

80

(1) cm

3

40

(2) cm

3

(3) 40 cm

20

(4) cm

3

by 0.1m. The mass that must be

(1) 4 cm suspended f rom the spring so that it

oscillates with a time period of

/4 second.

(2) 5 / 2 cm

(1) kg

4

(3) 16 cm

4

(4) None of these (2) kg

(3) 1 kg

(4) 10 kg

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 12

50. Identify the correct statement : 52. An insulated container is divided into two equal

(1) The f ractional change in the time portions. One portion contains one mole of an

ideal monoatomic gas at pressure P and

period of a pendulum on changing the

temperature T, while the other portion is a

temperature is independent of length of

perfect vacuum. If the intermediate partition is

pendulum.

removed and the gas is allowed to expand, the

(2) As the length of the simple pendulum change in the internal energy of gas is

is increased, the maximum velocity of its

P, V V

bob during the oscillation will also

T

increase.

(3) The greater the mass of pendulum bob

3

the greater is the time period of oscillation. (1) RT (2) PV

2

(4) When the acceleration of the lift in

RT

which spring is oscillating is increased, (3) (4) Zero

2

the time period of oscillation also

increases.

53. Two identical rectangular rods of metal are

welded end to end in series between

51. V–T diagram for a process of a given mass

temperature 0°C and 100°C and 10 J of heat

of ideal gas is as shown in the figure. is conducted (in steady state process) through

During the process pressure of gas. the rod in 2.00 min. If 5 such rods are taken

and joined as shown in figure maintaining the

same temperature difference between A and

B, then the time in which 20 J heat will flow

through the rods is :

(2) continuously decreases

(3) continuously increases

(1) 30 sec. (2) 2 min.

(4) first decreases then increases.

(3) 1 min. (4) 20 sec.

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 13

54. A string of length 1.5 m with its two ends 56. A meter bridge is set-up as shown, to

clamped is vibrating in fundamental mode. determ ine an unknown resistance ‘X’

Amplitude at the centre of the string is using a standard 10 ohm resistor. The

4 mm. Minimum distance between the two g alvanom e t er shows null p oint when

points having amplitude 2 mm is : tapping-key is at 52 cm mark. The

end-corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm

(1) 1 m respectively for the ends A and B. The

determined value of ‘X’ is

(2) 75 cm

(3) 60 cm

(4) 50 cm

R with initial speed u. It starts retarding (1) 10.2 ohm (2) 10.6 ohm

(3) 10.8 ohm (4) 11.1 ohm

v2

with constant retardation 4 R . The number

57. To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit

8 R which of the following input will be correct:

of revolutions it makes in time is :

u

(1) 3

(2) 4 A B C

(1) 1 0 0

(3) 2 (2) 1 0 1

(3) 1 1 0

(4) none of these (4) 0 1 0

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 14

58. Half angular width of the central maxima 59. STATEMENT-1 : Two uniform proton beams

in the fraunhaufer diffraction due to slit going in the same direction repel each other.

STATEMENT-2 : Magnitude of electric force

1200 between two protons is always higher than

width m is 45º. Then wavelength of

2 magnetic force between them.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

the light is:

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(1) 600 m

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

(2) 1200 m Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

600

(3) m

2

60. STATEMENT-1 : An ideal gas is enclosed

within a container fitted with a piston. When

volume of this enclosed gas is increased at

1200 constant temperature, the pressure exerted by

(4) m

2 the gas on the piston decreases.

STATEMENT-2 : In the above situation the rate

of molecules striking the piston decreases. If

SECTION - II

the rate at which molecules of a gas having

Reasoning Type

same average speed striking a given area of

This section contains 2 reasoning type the wall decreases, the pressure exerted by

questions. Each question has 4 choices gas on the wall decreases.

(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-1.

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 15

PART- C 64. Select the correct statement :

(1) Perxenate ion is [XeO6]4– with octahedral

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, geometry.

O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, (2) XeF2 is bent molecule with 3 lone pairs (l.p)

P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, (3) XeOF4, XeF4, XeO2F2 all contains one lone

Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, pair only

Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

(4) None of these

This section contains 30 questions. Each drawn select correct graph.

question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for

its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(1)

61. What is the activation energy for a reaction if

its rate doubles when the temperature is raised

from 20C to 35C ?

(R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1 , log 2 = 0.3010)

(3) 15.1 kJ mol–1 (4) 342 kJ mol–1 (2)

platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10

and by passing hydrogen gas around the

platinum wiere at one atm pressure. The

oxidation potential of electrode would be?

(3)

(1) 0.59 V (2) 0.118 V

(3) 1.18 V (4) 0.059 V

graphite ?

(4)

(3) B2H6 (4) BN

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 16

66. An equimolar mixture of PCl3 and Cl2 is taken. 70. In how many of the following compounds of

Calculate the equilibrium pressure, if 75% of sulphur, there is S–S bond (only single bond

PCl3 is converted into PCl5 ? not double bond between two sulphur atoms).

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) Kp = 5 atm H2S2O4, H2S2O3, H2S2O5 , H2S2O6 , H2S2O7 ,

(1) 60 atm (2) 75 atm H2S2O8 , S2Cl2 , cyclic (SO3)3.

(3) 45 atm (4) 120 atm

(1) 7 (2) 6

quantum numbers is allowed ?

n l m ms 71. The edge lengths of the unit cells in terms of

(1) 3 2 1 0 the radius of spheres constituting fcc,bcc and

simple cubic unit cell are respectively -

1

(2) 2 0 0

2

4r 4r

(1) 2r, ,2 2r (2) ,2 2r, 2r

1 3 3

(3) 3 -3 -2

2

1 4r 4r

(4) 1 0 1 (3) 2r,2 2r, (4) 2 2r, ,2r

2 3 3

68. Manganese oxide (MnO2) is heated in stream 72. Following is the variation of physical adsorption

of hydrogen to give water and new oxide with temperature :

MnxOy. If 17.4 g MnO2 produces 12.6 g of

MnxOy then y : x will be [at. wt. of Mn = 55]

1

(1) 1 (2)

2 (1) (2)

3 5

(3) (4)

2 2

mixed with 0.02 M HCl. What will be [H+]

concentration at equivalence point ? (3) (4)

Kb(BOH) = 10–6

(1) 10–5 M (2) 10–9 M

(3) 10–10 M (4) 1.414 × 10–5 M

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 17

73. Potassium dichromate in alkaline solution, with 77. The entropy change can be calculated by using

30% H2O2 produces :

q

(1) CrO3 (2) CrO(O2)2 the expression S rev

T

. W hen water

(3) K3CrO8 (4) K2CrO4

freezes in a glass beaker, choose the correct

statement amongs the following :

74. K f for water is 1.86 K kg mol –1. If your

automobile radiator holds 0.5 Kg of water, how (1) S (system) decreases but S (surroundings)

many grams of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must remains the same.

you add to get the freezing point of the solution (2) S (system) increases but S (surroundings)

lowered to –2.8°C ? decreases.

(1) 72 g (2) 46.6 g (3) S (system) decreases but S (surroundings)

(3) 93 g (4) 36 g increases.

(4) S(system) decreases and S(surroundings) also

75. The incorrect expression among the following

decreases.

is :

(1) =T

S total

330350 K

(1) Ni + 4CO [Ni(CO)4]

(2) In isothermal process, wreversible = –nRT n

450– 470 K

Ni + 4CO

Vf

Vi

Electrolysis

(2) 2Al2O3 + 3C 4Al + 3CO2

( H TS)

(3) n k = – 523 K

RT (3) Ti(s) + 22 1700 K

Tii4(g) Ti(s)

(4) K = e–Gº/RT

+ 22(g)

76. W hich of the following is not correctly (4) 2[M(CN)2]– (aq) + Zn (s) [Zn(CN)4]2–

(aq)

matched? + 2M(s)

(1) Sodium

(ethylenediaminetetraacetato)chromate(II) 79. Consider the following sequence of reaction.

– Na2[Cr(CH3COO)4 (en)]

Ph–COOH A B

(2) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III)

ion – [Co(Cl)2(en)2]+ H2/Ni NaNO2 H+/C6H 6

C D E F

(3) Tris(bipyridyl)iron(II)ion HCl

– [Fe (NH4C5–C5H4N)3]2+ The final product E is :

(4) Ammineaquadibromidocopper(II) – (1) Benzonitrile (2) Benzylamine

[Cu(NH3)(H2O)Br2] (3) Diphenylmethane (4) Benzylalcohol

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 18

80. In the following reaction sequence, the correct structure of X, Y, and Z are :

H – C C – COOH 4 I2 / NaOH

(X) (Y) (Z) + CHI3

(1) ( 2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1) Glucose monomer and - glycosidic linkage (2) Fructose monomer and - glycosidic linkage

(3) Glucose monomer and - glycosidic linkage (4) Fructose monomer and - glycosidic linkage

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 19

82. In the given reaction the product is. 84. The correct reactivity order of following

compounds towards nitration in aromatic

ring is :

Product O O

||

CH2C – O – CH3 O – C – C2H5

(I) (II)

compounds

OC2H5 ||

optical active compounds in mixture C O – C – O – C2H5

compounds (III) (IV)

(4) An optically active mixture of three (1) III > I > II > IV (2) II > IV > I > III

compounds (3) IV > I > II > III (4) IV > II > I > III

(1) O3/H2O2

83. Product NH2

Select incorrect statement about product out Br2 / Fe (excess) NaNO2 / H2SO4

(1) (2)

of following :

COOH

(1) Product release four mole CO2 gas

KNO2 Sn / HCl NaNO2 / HCl

(3)

(X) (4) (5)

(2) Product is 3,4-Dioxoheptanedioic acid

CuBr

(6)

(Y)

(3) Only one product is formed having

Find out sum of total Bromine atoms in (X)

significant enol content

and (Y) :

(1) 7 (2) 8

(4) Product can show 2,4-DNP test positive

(3) 5 (4) 6

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 20

86. The correct product of following reaction is : 88. Which of the following substrates will undergo

fastest reaction through E1cb route ?

OH

is

Conc. H2SO 4 O3

Ph

Zn / H 2 O

O

(1) Ph

O (1)

O O

(2)

Ph

O Ph

(3) H

O

(2)

O

(4) Ph

O

87. X + Y

(3)

incorrect.

(3) X = n-Butane ; Y = aromatic compound

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 21

N H / KOH /

O Cl 90. C12H14O 24

( Wolf Kishnor Re duction)

C

How many total isomeric reactants can be

O

89. Compound on reduction with converted in to given product by Wolff Kishner

N O

O reduction ?

(1) 5

LiAlH4 produces :

(2) 3

CH2 OH

N

HO CH2OH

(4) 4

CH 2 OH

OH

(2)

N O

HO

CH2OH

OH

(3)

N O

CH2 OH

(4) CH2 OH

N

CH 2 OH

RESONANCE JPT-3(MAIN)120314C0 - 22

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