ACSM Certkiller 040-444 v2017-11-28 by Hammond 190q

040-444.
exam
Number: 040-444
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
https://www.gratisexam.com/
040-444
Registered Clinical Exercise Physiologist
Version 1.0
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following would provide the SMALLEST potential energy source in the body?
A. Fat.
B. Protein.
C. PCr.
D. ATP.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Before and after 10 weeks of endurance training, an individual performs a submaximal exercise test at a constant work rate. Which of the following changes would
most likely occur as a result of the endurance training?
A. A lower cardiac output.

B. An increase in oxygen consumption.
C. An increase in the blood flow to the exercising muscle.
D. Lower blood lactate levels.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
When compared with leg exercise, arm exercise results in a relatively
A. Increased HR at all intensities.

B. Lower SBP at all intensities.
C. Increased venous return at all intensities.
D. Increased Vo2max.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
During exercise of increasing intensity, the SV of normal adults
A. Continues to increase throughout the duration of exercise up to Vo2max.

B. Remains relatively stable duringsubmaximal exercise of greater than approximately 50% of Vo2max.
C. Will continue to increase and then level off just before the achievement of Vo2max.
D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
The simplest and most rapid method to produce ATP during exercise is through
A. Glycolysis.
B. The ATP-PCr system.
C. Aerobic metabolism.
D. Glycogenolysis.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
In general, the higher the intensity of the activity, the greater the contribution of
A. Aerobic energy production.

B. Anaerobic energy production.
C. The Krebs cycle to the production of ATP.
D. The electron-transport chain to the production of ATP.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
The energy to perform long-term exercise (> or = 15 min) comes primarily from
A. Aerobic metabolism.
B. A combination of aerobic and anaerobic metabolism, with anaerobic metabolism producing the bulk of the ATP.
C. Anaerobic metabolism.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
The energy to perform long-term exercise (> or = 16 min) comes primarily from
A. Aerobic metabolism.
B. A combination of aerobic and anaerobic metabolism, with anaerobic metabolism producing the bulk of the ATP.
C. Anaerobic metabolism.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
In a rested, well-fed athlete, most of the carbohydrate used as a substrate during exercise comes from
A. Muscle glycogen stores.

B. Blood glucose.
C. Liver glycogen stores.
D. Glycogen stored in fat cells.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Fast-twitch muscle fibers have which of the following characteristics compared with slow- twitch muscle fibers?
A. Easily fatigued and well-developed aerobic system.

B. High force production and well-developed blood supply.
C. HighPCr stores and high ATPase stores.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
The motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates are called a
A. Motor junction.
B. Motor unit.
C. Motor end plate.
D. N one of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
The three principal mechanisms for increasing venous return during dynamic exercise are
A. A decrease in SV, HR, and compliance of the vascular system.

B. Venoconstriction, pumping action of muscle, and the pumping action of the respiratory system.
C. An increase in vascular resistance, increase in HR, and decrease in blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Any physical activity with a performance time of approximately 30 seconds or less relies on which of the following energy systems?
A. ATP.
B. PCr.
C. ATP-PCr.
D. Aerobicglycolysis.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is NOT a muscle type?
A. Skeletal.
B. Smooth.
C. Cardiac.
D. Generic.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
When a motor unit is stimulated by a single nerve impulse, it responds by contracting one time and then relaxing. This is called a
A. Twitch.
B. Summation.
C. Tetanus.
D. Summary.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which muscle protein contains many cross-bridges?
A. Myofibril.
B. Sarcomere.
C. Troponin.
D. Myosin.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Cardiac muscle action potentials are longer in duration than those of skeletal muscle. The longer action potential does not allow the muscle to
A. Twitch.
B. Undergo summation.
C. Have tetanus.
D. Summarize.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which of the following cardiovascular variables does NOT increase as a result of chronic exercise while performing a single bout of maximal exercise?
A. Maximal HR.
B. Maximal cardiac output.
C. Maximal SV.
D. Maximal oxygen consumption.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Myocardial oxygen consumption is best estimated from
A. Maximal oxygen consumption.

B. RPP.
C. Cardiac output.
D. HR.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
During mild to moderate exercise, pulmonary ventilation increases primarily as a result of increased
A. Tidal volume.
B. Breathing frequency.
C. Vital capacity.
D. Total lung volume.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
The anaerobic threshold occurs at the onset of
A. Oxidativephosphorylation.
B. Maximal oxygen consumption.
C. Metabolic acidosis.
D. Aerobic metabolism.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements about static exercise is accurate?
A. It results in reduced pressure on the heart.

B. It is inappropriate for any client with heart disease.
C. It involves rhythmic, continuous activity.
D. It results in increased HR and SBP.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which of the following statements regarding arm versus leg exercise is correct?
A. Target HR should not be used as a guide for arm exercise.

B. Target HR for leg exercise should be decreased by 10bpm for arm exercise.
C. Target HR for leg exercise should be increased by 10bpm for arm exercise.
D. Higher maximal oxygen consumption should be expected in arm exercise.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
End-diastolic volume is highest when measured with the client in which position?
A. Recumbent.
B. Sitting.
C. Standing.
D. Supine.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which of the following are byproducts of aerobic metabolism?
A. Carbon dioxide and water.

B. Oxygen and water.
C. ATP and oxygen.
D. Hydrogen and oxygen.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Cardiac output is a function of
A. HR, preload, after load, and contractility.

B. HR and SBP.
C. SV and EDV.
D. Maximal oxygen consumption and arteriovenous oxygenation difference.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which of the following describes a normal postexercise blood pressure (BP) response?
A. Elevated systolic and diastolic values compared topreparticipation values.

B. Progressive decline in SBP.
C. Progressive increase in SBP.
D. Exaggerated decrease in DBP.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
Stroke volume is defined as
A. The product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance.

B. The difference between EDV and ESV.
C. The product of preload and HR.
D. The product of cardiac output andarteriovenous oxygen difference.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
As a result of exercise training, cardiac output becomes
A. Higher at any given workload.

B. Lower at any given workload.
C. Essentially unchanged at any given workload.
D. Diminished because of reduced SV.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
During exercise, SV increases as a result of
A. The Frank-Starling law.

B. Increased HR.
C. Increased ejection fraction.
D. Increased pulmonary artery pressure
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
In terms of chronological age, early childhood is usually described as
A. Birth to 3 weeks.
B. 3 weeks to 1 year.
C. 1 to 6 years.
D. 7 to 10 years.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
Which age group is the fastest-growing segment of the
A. Preadolescents.
B. Adolescents.
C. Adults aged 65 to 85 years.
D. Adults older than 85 years.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
Increased after load associated with increased peripheral resistance as a result of aging causes
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy.
B. Kidney failure.
C. Liver damage.
D. Liver failure.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
An increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure at rest and during exercise often accompanies aging. Blood pressure usually increases because of
A. Increased arterial compliance and decreased arterial stiffness.

B. Decreased arterial compliance and increased arterial stiffness.
C. Decrease in both arterial compliance and arterial stiffness.
D. Increase in both arterial compliance and arterial stiffness.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
The remains relatively unchanged throughout childhood. However, after age 25, it typically decreases by
A. 0% to 5% each decade.
B. 5% to 15% each decade.
C. 15% to 20% each decade.
D. 15% to 20% each year.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Cardiac output is a function of heart rate and stroke volume. In children, why is heart rate higher at rest and during exercise?
A. Because in children, stroke volume is directly related to how much left ventricular stiffness reduces diastolic filling.
B. Because in children, cardiac output is regulated more by peripheral resistance than Vo2max by any other variable.
C. Because children typically have a lower stroke volume compared to adults.
D. Because children typically have a more elevated peripheral resistance compared to adults.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
The increases as a result of physical training in elderly persons. This occurs for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A. In men, the increase is a function of improved central and peripheral adaptations.

B. In women, the increase is a function of improved peripheral adaptations.
C. In both men and women, regular aerobic exercise slows the decline with aging.
D. In both men and women, regular aerobic exercise speeds the decline with aging.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
The total number of muscle fibers is fixed at an early age, but
A. At adolescence, males exhibit rapid hypertrophy of muscle.

B. In comparison to males, females exhibit a more rapid hypertrophy of muscle.
C. Males lose muscle mass faster at an early age when they remain sedentary.
D. Males tend to exhibit muscle hypertrophy at a later age than females.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Strenuous exercise can predispose children to which of the following?
A. Osteoporosis.
B. Osteoarthritis.
C. Malignant tumors.
D. Epiphysitis.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
2max Advancing age brings a progressive decline in bone mineral density and calcium content; this process is accelerated in women immediately following
menopause. Which condition is commonly associated with this condition?
A. Osteoarthritis.
B. Osteoporosis.
C. Arthritis.
D. Epiphysitis.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
All of the following musculoskeletal changes typically occur with advancing age EXCEPT
A. Decreased flexibility.
B. Impaired balance.
C. Inhibited range of motion.
D. Skeletal muscle hypertrophy
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Body fat generally increases with advancing age, particularly between childhood and early adultophood, because of
A. An exponential increase in caloric consumption.

B. A great increase in caloric consumption and a small decline in fat production.
C. Body fat accumulation as a result of an imbalance between caloric intake and energy expenditure.
D. Alterations in resting metabolic rate.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which of the following factors does NOT impair an older individual's ability to the rmoregulate?
A. Reduced total body water.

B. Decreased renal function.
C. Decreased vascular peripheral responsiveness.
D. Enhanced sweat response.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
A medical history as well as risk factor screening are important before prescribing an exercise program for older adults. Individuals with one or more risk factors for
exercise participation should be referred.
A. Directly to the hospital and admitted for further evaluation.

B. In 1 month to the nearest exercise facility.
C. For diagnostic exercise tolerance testing.
D. Immediately to a hospital emergency room.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which of the following can an older person expect as a result of participation in an exercise program?
A. Overall improvement in the quality of life and increased independence.

B. No changes in the quality of life but an increase in longevity.
C. Increased longevity but a loss of bone mass.
D. Loss of bone mass with a concomitant increase in bone density.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Which of the following would generally be the preferred mode of exercise for an elderly person?
A. Jogging.
B. Calisthenics.
C. Swimming.
D. Archery.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
An exercise program for elderly persons generally should emphasize increased
A. Frequency.
B. Intensity.
C. Duration.
D. Intensity and frequency.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
For optimal cardiovascular as well as balance and flexibility adaptations, an elderly person generally should exercise how many days per week?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 5 to 7.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
In response to regular resistance training,
A. Older men and women demonstrate similar or even greater strength gains when compared to younger individuals.
B. Younger men have greater gains in strength than older men.
C. Younger women have greater gains in strength than older women.
D. Younger men and women demonstrate similar or greater strength gains compared to older persons.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
People in which stage are at the greatest risk of relapse?
A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
Which of the following strategies can help a person to maintain his or her physical activity?
A. Schedule check-in appointments.

B. Reduce barriers.
C. Increase benefits.
D. Educate regarding different types of exercise.
E. All of the above.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Referrals to other sources may be required if someone
A. Has health problems.

B. Reports symptoms of depression.
C. Has an eating disorder.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 53
Establishing specific expectations of what you are, willing to do as a counselor and staying focused on exercise/physical activity issues and behavioral skills related
to exercise are strategies for handling which type of client?
A. A dissatisfied client.
B. A needy client.
C. A hostile client.
D. A shy client.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 54
Encouraging moderate-intensity activity and the accumulation of activity throughout the day are examples of
A. Relapse prevention counseling.

B. Using the stages of change.
C. Allowing individuality in exercise choices.
D. Addressing the individual's agenda.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is an example of a behavioral process in the Transtheoretical Model?
A. Consciousness raising.
B. Stimulus control
C. Dramatic relief.
D. Environmental reevaluation.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 56
One mistake that health care providers and exercise promoters make is to
A. Assume that most individuals are ready to change their behavior.

B. Encourage the accumulation of moderate intensity activity throughout the day.
C. Legitimize a client's concerns.
D. Use the five A's strategy for counseling.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 57
The concept of shaping refers to
A. Using self-monitoring techniques (e.g., exercise logs).

B. Using visual prompts (e.g., packing a gym bag the night before) as reminders to exercise.
C. The process for establishing self-efficacy.
D. Setting intermediate goals that lead to a long-term goal.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 58
Verbal encouragement, material incentives, self praise, and use of specific contingency contracts are examples of
A. Shaping.
B. Reinforcement.
C. Antecedent control.
D. Setting goals.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 59
The three functions of the Participant-Centered Education and Counseling Model include
A. Identifying high-risk situations, developing a plan for these situations, and eliminating "all ornone" thinking.
B. Information gathering, developing a helping relationship, and participant education and counseling.
C. Exhibiting empathy, legitimizing a client's concerns, and forming a partnership.
D. Assessing, asking questions, and establishing a supportive relationship.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 60
The Transtheoretical Model assumes that individuals
A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.

B. Only progress forward through the stages.
C. Move back and forth along the stage continuum.
D. Tend to use behavioral processes during the earlier stages of change.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 61
If an individual is in the action stage, he or she
A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.

B. Participates in some exercise, but does so irregularly.
C. Has been physically active on a regular basis for less than 6 months.
D. Has been physically active on a regular basis for more than 6 months.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 62
Which does NOT help to establish a supportive relationship?
A. Exhibit empathy.
B. Legitimize concerns.
C. Respect the person's abilities and efforts.
D. Address the agenda.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 63
The five A's of counseling are
A. Address, Assess, Act, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
B. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Act.
C. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
D. Act, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 64
Which of the following would assist anxious people before an exercise test?
A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.

B. Thoroughly explain the exercise test.
C. Familiarize them with the exercise equipment by brief practice.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 65
Which of the following are NOT symptoms of depression?
A. Hearing voices.
B. Change in sleep patterns.
C. Irritability.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 66
Which of the following are symptoms of anxiety?
A. Panic attacks.
B. Increased nervousness.
C. Feelings of being "on edge."
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 67
A client's health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.

B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial "walk-through" showing of a facility.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 68
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.

B. Legal documentation of a client's understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.

B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine whether to conduct an assessment.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 70
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and
a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.

B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 71
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill
speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client's muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.

B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 73
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.

B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 74
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.

B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed
consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 75
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 76
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having "increased risk"?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.

B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 77
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a
fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the assessment.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 78
Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing, underwater weighing) has several sources of error. Which of the following is NOT a common source of error when using
this technique to determine body composition?
A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.

B. Interindividual variability in the amount of air in the gastrointestinal tract.
C. Interindividual variability in the density of the individual lean tissue compartment.
D. Measurement of the residual volume.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 79
The definition of cardiorespiratory fitness is
A. The maximal force that a muscle or muscle group can generate in a single effort.
B. The coordinated capacity of the heart, blood vessels, respiratory system, and tissue metabolic systems to take in, deliver, and use oxygen.
C. The ability to sustain a held maximal force or to continue repeated sub maximal contractions.
D. The functional ROM about a joint.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which of the following formulae is used for determining workload on a bicycle ergometer?
A. Belt length x resistance x grade.

B. Belt length x resistance x revolutions pedaled per minute.
C. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution x revolutions per minute.
D. Resistance x distance flywheel traveled per revolution.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 81
Adults age physiologically at individual rates. Therefore, adults of any specified age will vary widely in their physiologic responses to exercise testing. Special
consideration should be given to older adults when giving a fitness test, because
A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.

B. Age predisposes older adults to clinical depression and neurologic diseases.
C. Older adults cannot be physically stressed beyond 75% of age-adjusted maximum.
D. Older adults are not as motivated to exercise as those who are younger.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 82
A client with a functional capacity of 7 MET, an ejection fraction of 37%, and an ST - segment depression of 1 mm below baseline on exertion
A. Should not exercise until his or her ejection fraction is >50%.

B. Is considered to be at low risk.
C. Is considered to be at moderate risk.
D. Is considered to be at high risk.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 83
The most accurate screening method for signs and symptoms of CAD is a
A. Maximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.

B. Submaximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.
C. Discontinuous protocol, stopping at 85% of maximal heart rate.
D. Continuous protocol, stopping at 85% of maximal heart rate.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 84
What is the best test to help determine ejection fraction at rest and during exercise?
A. Angiography.
B. Thallium stress test.
C. Single-proton emission computer tomography.
D. MUGA (blood pool imagery) study.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 85
A "cold spot" detected in the inferior portion of the left ventricle during a stress test that resolves 3 hours later most likely indicates
A. An old inferior MI.
B. A MI that is healing.
C. Reversible myocardial ischemia.
D. The need for multiple bypass surgery.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 86
What is the best test of cardiovascular function for a client who is obese, has claudication in the legs, and has limited mobility because of neurologic damage from
uncontrolled diabetes?
A. Dipyridamole or dobutamine testing and assessment of cardiovascular variables.

B. Discontinuous treadmill exercise test.
C. Resting echocardiography.
D. Continuoussubmaximal cycle ergometer test.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 87
Although 12- lead testing is the optimal ECG configuration, if only one lead can be used, which one should it be?
A. Lead II.
B. Lead AVL
C. Lead V5
D. Lead V1
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 88
Which of the following is an indication for terminating an exercise test?
A. The client requests test termination.

B. The respiratory exchange rate exceeds 0.95.
C. The maximal heart rate exceeds 200bpm.
D. The RPE exceeds 17 on the standard scale.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 89
Given the sensitivity of the exercise ECG, stress testing conducted on 100 cardiac rehabilitation clients with documented CAD would be expected to produce what
results?
A. All 100 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.

B. Approximately 50 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.
C. Approximately 30 clients would show ECG indicators of CAD.
D. Approximately 70 clients would show ECG indicators of CAD.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 90
What action should you take for a 55-year-old client who has three risk factors for heart disease and complains of fatigue on exertion?
A. Conduct asubmaximal stress test without the presence of a physician.

B. Conduct a maximal diagnostic stress test in the presence of a physician.
C. Use a questionnaire to evaluate activity, and do not conduct a test.
D. Start the client exercising slowly, and test after 6 weeks.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 91
For a client taking a 3-blocker who has lowered resting blood pressure and heart rate, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Asubmaximal test will provide the best estimate of the client's fitness.
B. Asubmaximal test may underestimate the client's fitness.
C. Asubmaximal test may overestimate the client's fitness.
D. The client should be tested only when not taking the medication.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 92
Two individuals have the same body weight, gender, ethnic background, and skinfold measurement results. One is 25 years old; the other is 45 years. Given this
scenmio, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. They both have the same percentage of body fat.

B. The 25-year-old individual is fatter.
C. The 45-year-old individual is fatter.
D. Who is fatter cannot be determined from the information given.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 93
Lead V is located at the
A. Fifthintercostal space, left sternal border.

B. Midclavicular line, fourth intercostal space.
C. Fourthintercostal space, right sternal border.
D. Midclavicular line, lateral to the xiphoid process.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 94
Following termination of a stress test, a 12-lead ECG is
A. Monitored immediately, then every 1 to 2 minutes until exercise-induced changes are at baseline.
B. Monitored immediately, then at 2 and ,5 minutes after the test.
C. Monitored immediately only.
D. Monitored and recorded only if any signs or symptoms arise during recovery.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 95
For a client who has a contraindication to exercise testing but could benefit greatly from the information gained through testing, which of the following statements is
TRUE?
A. The contraindication is considered to be a relative contraindication.

B. The contraindication is considered to be an absolute contraindication.
C. The client should not be tested until the contraindication is resolved.
D. Asubmaximal test is the only test that the client should complete.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 96
A client who has a measured FVC of 3.5 Land can expel 3.1 L within 1 second has
A. An obstructive defect.
B. Areshictive defect.
C. An FEV of 3.1.
D. An FEV of 89%.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 97
The clinical exercise physiologist shares a responsibility to
A. Implement measures to stop disease.

B. Make patients look healthy.
C. Implement preventive measures to reduce the risk of medical emergencies.
D. Develop a plan to reduce the physical demands of exercise testing.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 98
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a benefit of follow- up in an emergency situation?
A. It provides information regarding the patient's current status, which may help to determine the cause of the emergency.
B. It provides statistics that will help to justify the emergency response program.
C. It allows the staff to finalize the incident report.
D. It provides information to determine the consequences of the staff's actions.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 99
Which of the following actions involving termination of exercise testing is correct?
A. Immediately terminate the test if muscular fatigue occurs.

B. Initiate the test termination process when cardiac complications occur.
C. Initiate the test termination process when intermittent premature ventricular contractions are detected on ECG.
D. Immediately terminate the test when intermittent premature ventricular contractions are detected on ECG.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 100
Safety procedures for clinical staff help protect them from
A. Bloodborne pathogens.
B. Theft.
C. Violent patients.
D. Work-related injuries.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 101
The treatment modality RICES includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Covering.
B. Ice.
C. Stabilization.
D. Rest.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 102
Which of the following statements about emergency equipment is MOST important?
A. Each piece of equipment should be painted a specific color for easy identification.
B. Use of emergency equipment should be practiced routinely.
C. Emergency equipment should include pencils, not pens.
D. Emergency equipment should be kept clean at all times.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 103
Identifying a patient's risk of complications is important. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a common aspect of the risk identification process?
A. Laboratory results.
B. Assessment of cardiac risk.
C. Review of medical history.
D. Assessment of work history.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 104
Symptoms of hyperglycemia include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Tremor.
B. Confusion.
C. Bradycardia.
D. Slurred speech.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 105
Emergency procedures and safety include which of the following?
A. Injury prevention.
B. Basic principles for exercise training.
C. Metabolic injuries.
D. Emergency consequences.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 106
Category 1 medications include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Lidocaine.
B. Oxygen.
C. Xylocaine.
D. Epinephrine.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 107
The emergency response system (EMS) is:
A. The combination of the ambulance and the emergency room.

B. Critical for the staff to be able to respond adequately to an emergency.
C. The protocol used to practice safety plans.
D. Required by most health departments.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 108
In developing an emergency plan, program administrators must take into account all of the following factors EXCEPT
A. Type of flooring.
B. Type of electrical wiring.
C. Ventilation, temperature, and humidity.
D. Types of exercise equipment.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 109
Documentation in the context of emergency response commonly refers to
A. Records of each exercise session.

B. Records of attendance.
C. Records of all emergency situations.
D. Manuals for all emergency equipment.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 110
A patient who exhibits tachycardia, diaphoresis, light-headedness, and visual disturbances may be experiencing
A. Hypoglycemia.
B. Congestive heart failure.
C. Hyperglycemia.
D. Hypotension.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 111
Which of the following is NOT part of an emergency plan?
A. The plan should list the schedule of each staff member so that they can all be accounted for during an emergency.
B. The plan must be written.
C. The plan should outline each specific action.
D. The staff should be prepared and trained in the plan.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 112
The physician's role in an emergency plan is
A. Not important, because most facilities are hospital-based and the emergency room is nearby.
B. Not significant, because a physician is not necessary when testing is conducted.
C. An agency that certifies a managed care organization.
D. Critical, because the physician must be present and can handle any emergency situation.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 113
What is OSHA?
A. A state agency that licenses medical facilities.
B. A federal agency that sets standards for staff and patient safety.
C. An agency that certifies a managed care organization.
D. A state agency that inspects emergency protocols within medical facilities.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 114
The preparation of professional staff should include training in
A. Advanced basic life support and ENT.

B. CPR and basic life support.
C. CPR andEMS.
D. Advanced cardiac life support and ENT.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 115
Which of the following is NOT considered to be an absolute contraindication to exercise testing?
A. Unstable angina
B. Psychosis.
C. Suspectedmyocarditis.
D. Moderatevalvular heart disease.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 116
Which of the following manifestations would be an indication for stopping an exercise test?
A. Low cholesterol «125 mol).

B. Diastolic BP greater than 105 mm Hg.
C. Intermittent premature ventricular contractions.
D. Low blood sugar «100 mg/dL).
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 117
Serious complications during an exercise session
A. Occur more often with women.

B. Rarely occur.
C. Occur at a rate of 1 in 3,000 hours of exercise.
D. Occur more often during the late hours because of client fatigue.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 118
The exercise staffs role when an injury or emergency occurs should be to:
A. Control the situation by implementing the emergency plan and taking charge.
B. Find someone to implement the emergency plan.
C. Get everyone out of the facility to avoid chaos.
D. Hope that an emergency contact is available to help with the situation.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 119
In preventing injuries, hydration is very important, because
A. It controls breathing and the Valsalva maneuver.

B. It helps to regulate carbohydrate utilization during cardiovascular exercise.
C. It helps to regulate body temperature and electrolyte balance. s
D. It helps to prevent blood pooling during the cool-down.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 120
What is the most appropriate action in assisting a person suffering from a seizure?
A. Hold the person down so that he or she does not hurt himself or herself.
B. Do not touch the person, but be sure that he or she is in a safe area.
C. Place a wedge in the person's mouth so that he or she does not swallow the tongue.
D. Ignore the person, and allow the seizure to pass.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 121
One of the first actions that a fitness instructor should consider in preventing injury is to
A. Teach the client how to warm-up and cool-down.

B. Instruct the client on safetyprocedureswhen using the facility.
C. Conduct apreparticipation screening.
D. Instruct the client on how to use the exercise equipment safely.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 122
How should a fitness instructor advise a client with regard to progression of the exercise program?
A. The progression should be gradual and slow.

B. The progression should be at specific increments based on a calendar schedule (e.g. add 10% every 2 weeks).
C. Be aggressive in increasing the program to increase fitness
D. Progress the program only when the client feels ready.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 123
How can exercise equipment add to the risk of participation?
A. Because it is e} pensive.
B. Because it is hard to move.
C. Because it is used incorrectly.
D. Because of the time one waits to use it.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 124
Prevention strategies of staff and clients must include
A. Following the rules.

B. Keeping the facility clean.
C. Hiring good front-desk staff.
D. Developing clever, unique programs.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 125
An equipment maintenance plan should include
A. A floor plan.
B. A client advisory statement.
C. A document that records maintenance and repair history.
D. Temperature and humidity readings.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 126
In cleaning the facility and equipment, what must an operator be aware of?
A. That signs are written clearly.

B. That surfaces are brightly colored.
C. That solutions and cleaning materials are safe for the skin and hypoallergenic.
D. That disinfectants smell pleasant.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 127
Which of the following are symptoms of hypoglycemia?
A. Hypotension.
B. Cold, clammy skin.
C. Tachycardia and slurred speech.
D. Bronchospasms and hyperventilation.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 128
RICES refers to
A. Relaxation, Ice, Compression, Energy, and Stabilization.
B. Relaxation, Incremental heat, Care for injury, Energy, and Standardization.
C. Rest, Ice, Common sense, Energy, and Standardization.
D. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Stabilization.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 129
Complaints of pain in the chest with associated pain radiating down the left arm may be signs of
A. Cardiac crisis.
B. Hypotension.
C. Seizure.
D. Heartburn.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 130
Beyond the general safety parameters, such as keeping equipment in good repair, a facility must create a safe environment for any individual, especially
A. Guest clients.
B. Staff.
C. Health care providers.
D. Special populations.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 131
Weight room safety should include
A. A phone.
B. Lifting gloves and back belts.
C. Male trainers to help with spotting.
D. Safe passageways and use of the buddy system.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 132
Fire, bloodborne pathogens, and power outage should all be included in
A. Facility insurance.
B. Safety plans.
C. Maintenance plans.
D. Testing by the facility and staff.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 133
The potential benefits and risks of an exercise test should be written in what document?
A. Description of services.
B. Safety plan.
C. Informed consent.
D. Exercise waivers.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 134
Documentation offers important
A. Liability and negligence protection.

B. Liability and risk protection.
C. Safety and communication programs.
D. Billing and classification tools.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 135
Emergency procedures should be
A. Given to all clients when they join.

B. Put away in a safe place.
C. Posted under each phone.
D. Posted above each fire extinguisher.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 136
Which of the following is NOT a principle of low back care?
A. Abdominal curl-ups/
B. Unloaded flexion/extension of the spine.
C. Neutral spine during all exercises.
D. Controlled leg press or squat with light weights.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 137
What is the fitness instructor's primary responsibility in conducting an exercise test?
A. Maintaining a safe environment by not putting the client in danger.

B. Making sure that the data collected are accurate.
C. Completing the test.
D. Encouragement and support.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 138
What are some of the risks for musculoskeletal injury?
A. Poor Signage in the facility.
B. Extrinsic factors - intensity, terrain, equipment.
C. Intrinsic factors-frequency, attitude, ender.
D. Membership type
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 139
Chronic soreness and fatigue are symptoms of
A. Hyperglycemia.
B. Strain.
C. Overuse injury.
D. Hypoglyeemia.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 140
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate treatment activity for inpatient rehabilitation of a client on the second day after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
surgery?
A. Limit activities as tolerated to the development of self-care activities, ROM for extremities, and low-resistance activities.
B. Limit upper body activities to biceps curls, horizontal arm adduction, and overhead press using 5-pound weights while sitting on the side of the bed.
C. Progress all activities performed from supine to sitting to standing.
D. Measure vital signs, symptoms, RPE, fatigue, and skin color and perform electrocardiography before, during, and after treatments to assess activity tolerance.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 141
Which of the following situations indicates progression to independent and unsupervised exercise for a client after CABG surgery in an outpatient program?
A. The client exhibits mild cardiac symptoms of angina, occurring intermittently during exercise and sometimes at home while reading.
B. The client has a functional capacity of greater than 8 MET with hemodynamic responses appropriate to this level of exercise.
C. The client is noncompliant with smoking cessation and weight loss intervention programs.
D. The client is unable to palpate HR, deliver RPEs, or maintain steady workload intensity during activity.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 142
Which of the following issues would you include in discharge education instructions for a client with congestive heart failure to avoid potential emergency situations
related to this condition at home?
A. Record body weight daily, and report weight gains to a physician.

B. Note signs and symptoms(e.g.,dyspnea, intolerance to activities of daily living), and report them to a physician.
C. Do not palpate the pulse during daily activities or periods of light- headedness, because an irregular pulse is normal and occurs at various times during the day.
D. Both A and B.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 143
Initial training sessions for a person with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease most likely would NOT include
A. Continuous cycling activity at 70%ofVo max for 30 minutes.
B. Use ofdyspnea scales, RPE scales, and pursed-lip breathing instruction.
C. Intermittent bouts of activity on a variety of modalities (exercise followed by short rest).
D. Encouraging the client to achieve an intensity either at or above the anaerobic threshold.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 144
Symptoms of claudication include
A. Cramping, burning, and tightness in the calf muscle, usually triggered by activity and relieved with rest.
B. Acute, sharp pain in the foot on palpation at rest.
C. Crepitus in the knee during cycling.
D. Pitting ankle edema at a rating of 3 +
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 145
Treatment for claudication during exercise includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. Daily exercise sessions.

B. Intensity of activity to maximal tolerable pain, with intermittent rest periods.
C. Cardiorespiratory building activities that are nonweight bearing if the plan is to work on longer duration and higher intensity to elicit a cardiorespiratory training
effect.
D. Stopping activity at the onset ofclaudication discomfort to avoid further vascular damage from ischemia.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 146
A client with angina exhibits symptoms and a 1mm, down-sloping ST- segment depression at a HR of 129 bpm on his exercise test. His peak exercise target HR
should be set at
A. 128bpm.
B. 109 to 119bpm.
C. 129bpm.
D. 125 to 128bpm.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 147
Special precautions for clients with hypertension include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Avoiding muscle strengthening exercises that involve low resistance.

B. Avoiding activities that involve theValsalva maneuver.
C. Monitoring a client who is taking diuretics for arrhythmias.
D. Avoiding exercise if resting systolic BP is greater than 200 mm Hg or diastolic BP is greater than 115 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 148
According to the most recent National Institutes of Health's Clinical Guidelines for the Identification, Evaluation, and Treatment of Overweight and Obesity in Adults,
recommendations for practical clinical assessment include
A. Determining total body fat through the BMI to assess obesity.

B. Determining the degree of abdominal fat and health risk through waist circumference.
C. Using the waist-to-hip ratio as the only definition of obesity and lean muscle mass.
D. Both A and B.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 149
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus checks her fasting morning glucose level on her whole-blood glucose meter (fingerstick method), and the result of 253 mgldL
(14 mmol/L). A urine test is positive for ketones before her exercise session. What action should you take?
A. Allow her to exercise as long as her glucose is not greater than 300mgldL (17 mmol/L).
B. Not allow her to exercise this session, and notify her physician of the findings.
C. Give her an extra carbohydrate snack, and wait 5 minutes before beginning exercise.
D. Readjust her insulin regimen for the remainder of the day to compensate for the high morning glucose level.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 150
A 62-year-old, obese factory worker complains of pain in his right shoulder on arm abduction; on evaluation, decreased ROM and strength are noted. You also
notice that he is beginning to use accessory muscles to substitute movements and to compensate. These symptoms may indicate
A. A referred pain from a herniated lumbar disk.
B. Rotator cuff strain or impingement.
C. angina.
D. Advanced stages of multiple sclerosis.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 151
All of the following are special considerations inprescribing exercise for the client with arthritis
EXCEPT
A. The possible need to splint painful jointsforprotection.

B. Periods of acute inflammation result in decreased pain and joint stiffness.
C. The possibility of gait abnormalities as compensation for pain or stiffness.
D. The need to avoid exercise of warm,swollenjoints.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 152
What common medication taken by clients with end-stage renal disease requires careful management for those undergoing hemodialysis?
A. Antihypertensive medication.
B. Lithium.
C. Cholestyramine.
D. Cromolyn sodium.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which of the following is an appropriate exercise for clients with diabetes and loss of protective sent ion in the extremities?
A. Prolonged walking.
B. Jogging.
C. Step-class exercise.
D. Swimming.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 154
A client taking a calcium-channel blocker most likely will exhibit which of the following responses during exercise?
A. Hypertensive response.
B. Increased ischemia.
C. Improvedanginal thresholds.
D. Severe hypotension.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 155
During the cool-down phase of an exercise session, clients should be encouraged to
A. Rehydrate.
B. Decrease the intensity of activity quickly to decrease cardiacafterload.
C. Limit the cool-down period to 5 minutes.
D. Increase the number of isometric activities.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 156
Muscular endurance training is best accomplished by
A. Performing four to six repetitions per set.

B. Using high resistance.
C. Incorporating high repetitions.
D. Performing isometric exercises only.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 157
Transitional care exercise and rehabilitation programs are NOT appropriate for
A. Clients with functionally limitingchronicdisease.

B. Clients withcomorbid disease states.
C. Asymptomatic clients with a functional capacity of 10 MET.
D. Clients at 1 week after CABG surgery.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 158
Many clients have WI-mode programmed pacemakers. Which of the following is TRUE regarding exercise programming with WI pacemakers?
A. Persons with WI pacemakers may bechronotropically (HR) competent with exercise but require longer warm-up and gradual increase in intensity during the
initial exercise portion of their session.
B. Persons who arechronotropically competent are tachycardic at rest and should not exercise at low intensities.
C. BP response is not a good marker of intensity effort in those with WI pacemakers and need not be evaluated during an exercise session.
D. Persons with WI pacemakers must avoid exercise on the bicycleergometer because of the location of the ventricular lead wire and potential for displacement.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 159
Controlling pool water temperature (83-88°F), avoiding jarring and weight - bearing activities, and avoiding movement in swollen, inflamed joints are special
considerations for exercise in
A. Clients afteratherectomy.
B. Clients with angina.
C. Clients with osteoporosis.
D. Clients with arthritis.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 160
Which of the following is a resistive lung disease?
A. Asthma.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Cystic fibrosis.
D. Emphysema.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 161
A specific benefit of regular exercise for patients with angina is
A. Improved ischemic threshold at which angina symptoms occur.

B. Increased myocardial oxygen demand at the samesubmaximallevels.
C. Eradication of all symptoms.
D. Elevation of B P.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 162
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of increased flexibility?
A. Increased muscle viscosity, allowing easier and smoother contractions.

B. Reduced muscle tension and increased relaxation.
C. Improved coordination by allowing greater ease of movement.
D. IncreasedROM.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 163
Which of the following statements regarding warm-up is FALSE?
A. Muscle blood flow is increased as a result of warm-up.

B. Peripheralvasodilation occurs as a result of warm-up.
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs as a result of warm-up.
D. Between 5 and 10 minutes should be allotted for a warm-up period.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 164
Which of the following statements regarding cooldown is FALSE?
A. The emphasis should be large muscle activity performed at a low to moderate intensity.
B. Increasing venous return should be a priority during cool-down.
C. The potential for improving flexibility may be improved during cool-down as compared with warm-up.
D. Between 1 and 2 minutes are recommended for an adequate cool-down.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 165
All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT
A. Weight training.
B. Walking.
C. Bicycling.
D. Stair climbing.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 166
A target HR equivalent to 85% of HRR for a 25year-old male with a resting HR of 75 BPM would be equal to
A. 195bpm.
B. 166bpm.
C. 177bpm.
D. 102bpm.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 167
The appropriate exercise HR for an individual on -blocking medication would generally be
A. 75% of HRR.
B. 30bpm above the standing resting HR.
C. 40% of HRR.
D. (220 - age) x 0.85.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 168
The recommended cardiorespiratory exercise training goal for apparently healthy individuals should be
A. 15 minutes, six times per week, at 90% of HRR.

B. 30 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
C. 60 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
D. 30 minutes of weight training, three times per week, at 60% of HRR.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 169
In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends
A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.

B. Ballistic stretching.
C. The plough and hurdler's stretches.
D. Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 170
An appropriate exercise for improving the strength of the low back muscles is
A. Straight leg lifts.
B. Parallel squats.
C. Spinal extension exercises.
D. Sit-ups with feet anchored.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 171
Which of the following statements true regarding exercise leadership is FALSE?
A. The exercise leader should be fit enough to exercise with any of his or her participants.
B. Most people are not bored by exercise and can easily find time to participate in an exercise program.
C. The exercise leader should adjust the exercise intensity based on individual differences in fitness.
D. Periodic fitness assessment may provide evidence of improvement in fitness for some participants.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 172
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for the elderly is FALSE?
A. A decrease in maximal HR is responsible for reductions in the maximal oxygen consumption as we age.
B. A loss of fat-free mass is responsible for the decrease in muscular strength as we age.
C. The ACSM recommends acardiorespiratory training intensity of 50% to 70% of HRR for older adults.
D. Resistance exercise training is not recommended for older adults.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 173
Which of the following medications have been shown to be most effective in preventing or reversing exercise-induced asthma?
A. ?2-Agonists.
B. ?-Blockers.
C. Diuretics.
D. Aspirin.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 174
The exercise leader or health/fitness instructor should modify exercise sessions for participants with hypertension by
A. Shortening the cool-down to less than 5 minutes.

B. Eliminating resistance training completely.
C. Prolonging the cool-down.
D. Implementing high-intensity (>85% of HRR), short-duration intervals.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 175
Normal values for fasting blood sugar are
A. Greater than 140 mg/dL.
B. Between 60 and 140 mg/dL.
C. Less than 60 mg/dL.
D. Between 200 and 400 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 176
The goal for the obese exercise participant should be to
A. Sweat as much as possible.

B. Exercise at 85% of HRR.
C. Perform resistance exercise three to five times per week.
D. Expend 300 to 500 calories per exercise session.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 177
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for persons with controlled cardiovascular disease is TRUE?
A. Resistance exercise training is dangerous and should be avoided.

B. A physician-supervised exercise test is not necessary to establish exercise intensity.
C. Anginal pain is normal during exercise, and participants should be pushed through the pain.
D. Exercise intensity should be set at an HR of 10bpm less than the level at which signs/symptoms were evidenced during an exercise test.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 178
All of the following factors are important to consider when determining exercise intensity EXCEPT
A. An individual's level of fitness.

B. The risk of cardiovascular or orthopedic injury.
C. Any previous history participating in organized sports.
D. Individual preference and exercise objectives.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 179
When determining the intensity level, the RPE is a better indicator than percentage of maximal HR for all of the following groups EXCEPT
A. Individuals on -blockers.
B. Aerobic classes that involve excessive arm movement.
C. Individuals older than 65 years.
D. Individuals involved in high-intensity exercise.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 180
Using the original Borg scale, it is recommended that the exercise intensity elicit an RPE within the range of
A. 8 to 12.
B. 12 to 16.
C. 14 to 18.
D. 6 to 10.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 181
The MINIMAL duration of exercise necessary to achieve improvements in health for deconditioned individuals is
A. 20 minutes continuously.
B. 30 minutes continuously.
C. Multiple sessions of more than 10 minutes in duration throughout the day.
D. Two sessions of 20 minutes throughout the day.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 182
Which of the following is a method of strength and power training that involves an eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive
concentric contraction?
A. Super sets.
B. Split routines.
C. Plyometrics.
D. Periodization.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 183
The safety of resistance exercise is dependent on all of the following except
A. Having a personal trainer.

B. Proper breathing.
C. Speed of movement.
D. Body mechanics.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 184
The recommended muscular strength and endurance training program for apparently healthy individuals should be
A. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.

B. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 2 days per week.
C. One set of 8 to 12 reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 to 5 days per week.
D. Two sets of six to eight reps, 8 to 10 separate exercises, 4 days per week, and alternating days for legs and upper body.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 185
Which the following statements regarding intensity of resistance training are FALSE?
A. The number of repetitions to volitional fatigue will vary inversely with resistance.
B. It is necessary to determine the 1- RM to establish training intensity.
C. Exercise to volitional fatigue is not dangerous from a musculoskeletal standpoint provided that good exercise form is maintained.
D. Exercise intensity should be similar for males and females.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 186
The recommended cardiorespiratory endurance exercise training program for older individuals should be
A. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week.

B. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3 days per week.
C. 40% to 60% of maximum HR, 20 to 30 minutes (multiple sessions of 5-10 min), 3 days per week.
D. 50% to 70% of HRR, 20 to 30 minutes continuously, 3 days per week
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 187
Osteoporosis is more prevalent in
A. Women who have never been pregnant.

B. African-American women.
C. Women who are involved in activities that place stress on the wrists, hips, orlum bosacral region.
D. Postmenopausal women.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 188
The eating habits of an athlete involved in long distance running should differ from those of a sedentary individual of the same body weight in what way?
A. The athlete should reduce fat intake to 10% of total calories.

B. The athlete should increase protein intake to threefold the RDA.
C. The athlete should have a greater intake of grains, fruits, vegetables, and lean sources of protein.
D. There should be no change in calories.
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 189
Fiber is a type of carbohydrate that is not digestible (e.g., it will pass through the digestive system without being absorbed). The NCEP ATPIII guidelines
recommend that soluble (viscous) fiber be included in the diet for the prevention and treatment of elevated blood lipid concentrations.
Sources of soluble (viscous) fibers include
A. Fruits, beans, and oats.

B. Meat and dairy foods.
C. Wheat bran and whole wheat products.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 190
The BMI is calculated using which of the following formulas?
A. Weight/hip circumference.
B. Weight/height2.
C. Height/weight2.
D. Hip circumference/height.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

ACSM Certkiller 040-444 v2017-11-28 by Hammond 190q

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040-444.

Registered Clinical Exercise Physiologist

A. A lower cardiac output.

A. Increased HR at all intensities.

A. Continues to increase throughout the duration of exercise up to Vo2max.

A. Aerobic energy production.

A. Muscle glycogen stores.

A. Easily fatigued and well-developed aerobic system.

A. A decrease in SV, HR, and compliance of the vascular system.

A. Maximal oxygen consumption.

A. It results in reduced pressure on the heart.

A. Target HR should not be used as a guide for arm exercise.

A. Carbon dioxide and water.

A. HR, preload, after load, and contractility.

A. Elevated systolic and diastolic values compared topreparticipation values.

A. The product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance.

A. Higher at any given workload.

A. The Frank-Starling law.

A. Increased arterial compliance and decreased arterial stiffness.

A. In men, the increase is a function of improved central and peripheral adaptations.

A. At adolescence, males exhibit rapid hypertrophy of muscle.

A. An exponential increase in caloric consumption.

A. Reduced total body water.

A. Directly to the hospital and admitted for further evaluation.

A. Overall improvement in the quality of life and increased independence.

A. Schedule check-in appointments.

A. Has health problems.

A. Relapse prevention counseling.

A. Assume that most individuals are ready to change their behavior.

A. Using self-monitoring techniques (e.g., exercise logs).

A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.

A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.

A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.

A. Any contact with the client.

A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.

A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.

A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.

A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.

A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.

A. Informed consent is not a legal document.

A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.

A. Measurement of the vital capacity of the lungs.

A. Belt length x resistance x grade.

A. Age is often accompanied by de conditioning and disease.

A. Should not exercise until his or her ejection fraction is >50%.

A. Maximal exercise test with a 12-lead ECG.

A. An old inferior MI.

A. Dipyridamole or dobutamine testing and assessment of cardiovascular variables.

A. The client requests test termination.

A. All 100 clients show ECG indicators of CAD.

A. Conduct asubmaximal stress test without the presence of a physician.

A. They both have the same percentage of body fat.

A. Fifthintercostal space, left sternal border.

A. The contraindication is considered to be a relative contraindication.

A. Implement measures to stop disease.

A. Immediately terminate the test if muscular fatigue occurs.

A. The combination of the ambulance and the emergency room.

A. Records of each exercise session.

A. Advanced basic life support and ENT.

A. Low cholesterol «125 mol).

A. Occur more often with women.

A. It controls breathing and the Valsalva maneuver.

A. Teach the client how to warm-up and cool-down.