This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender b. the receiver 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature
The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. b. Bell d. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel Radians per second is equal to: a. 2T v f b. f z 2T Maxwell Hertz
the channel all of the above
c. d. c. d.
static all of the above copper wire all of the above
the phase angle none of the above
The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. Multiplexing TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f z c b. equal to c z P c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion
16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors 17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave
copper wire none of the above
greater at low frequencies the same as "white" noise
c. d. c. d.
Time Domain Measurement none of the above Frequency-Division Multiplexing none of the above
white noise partition noise
constant power none of the above
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 v V1 + V2 v V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 v V2) b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. VT = V1 + V2
Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction b. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle IRCUITS The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. base time c. charge time b. transit time d. Miller time A real capacitor actually contains: a. capacitance and resistance only b. capacitance and inductance only Bypass capacitors are used to: a. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. couple RF around an amplifier A resonant circuit is: a. a simple form of bandpass filter b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit The "Miller Effect" can: a. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. cause an amplifier to lose gain c. d. capacitance, inductance, and resistance reactance only
7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. using a common-emitter amplifier b. using a common-base amplifier 8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to: a. inductance of collector lead b. collector-to-emitter capacitance
increasing the Q of the tuned circuit it cannot be avoided
base-to-emitter capacitance base-to-collector capacitance
9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with: a. RC coupling c. direct coupling b. transformer coupling d. lumped reactance 10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. decoupling it d. none of the above 11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires: a. a nonlinear circuit b. a linear amplifier c. a signal containing harmonics d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency 12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. loop gain equal to unity b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. both a and b, but at just one frequency d. none of the above
neutralize amplifiers reduce the Miller effect
13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria 14. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal 15. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. a tapped inductor b. a two-capacitor divider 16. The Clapp oscillator is: a. a modified Hartley oscillator b. a modified Colpitts oscillator
both a and b none of the above
an RC time constant a piezoelectric crystal
"multiply" the Q have no effect on Q
a type of crystal-controlled oscillator only built with FETs
reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier all of the above
A varactor is: a. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. a diode
used in tuner circuits all of the above
4.The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) v sin([ct) b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) v sin([mt) + sin([ct) 5. Overmodulation causes: a. distortion b. splatter
v(t) = (Ec v Em) v sin([mt) v sin([ct) v(t) = (Ec + Em sin([mt)) v sin([ct) both a and b none of the above
Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. used for a precise frequency b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. all of the above If two signals, Va = sin([at) and Vb = sin([bt), are fed to a mixer, the output: a. will contain [1 = [a + [b and [2 = [a ± [b b. will contain [1 = [a / [b and [2 = [b / [a c. will contain [ = ([a + [b ) / 2 d. none of the above In a balanced mixer, the output: a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. contains the input frequencies c. does not contain the input frequencies d. is a linear mixture of the input signals "VFO" stands for: a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is: a. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax ± Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax ± Emin) 7. If Va sin([at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin([ct), it will produce the frequencies: a. [c + [a and [c ± [a c. [c + [a and 2[c + 2[a b. ([c + [a)/2 and ([c ± [a)/2 d. none of the above 8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is: a. equal to the carrier power b. twice the carrier power c. d. half the carrier power 1.414 v carrier power
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz b. 10 kHz d. none of the above 10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect: a. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. the received RF signal to increase d. all of the above 11. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the time-domain signal b. the frequency-domain signal
Varactor-Frequency Oscillator Voltage-Feedback Oscillator
A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. same as a mixer LITUDE MODULATION AM stands for: a. Audio Modulation b. Amplitude Modulation The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. the baseband signal b. the carrier signal
both a and b none of the above
12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. requires too much bandwidth c. b. requires too much power d. c. d. Angle Modulation Antenna Modulation 13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM: a. is more efficient b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. requires less bandwidth d. all of the above 14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. single-carrier b. suppressed-carrier
incompatibility with ordinary AM radios all of the above
the amplitude signal none of the above
If the audio Va sin([at) modulates the carrier Vc sin([ct), then the modulation index, m, is: a. m = [a / [c c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / [a
sideband-carrier none of the above
b. A pre-emphasis of 75 Qs refers to: a. The total modulation index is: a. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. the "two-station" effect b.PEP stands for: a. UENCY MODULATION / PHASE MODULATION The FM modulation index: a. sqrt(m1 v m1 + m2 v m2) To demodulate a USB SSB signal. video d. Armstrong's Rule b. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. NBFM stands for: a. is implemented using an SCA signal 12. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. none of the above 9. the time delay between the L and R channels d. b. Near Band FM Narrowband FM 7. none of the above If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. Carson's Rule none of the above c. a. b. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. An SCA signal: a. Peak Efficiency Power d. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. the receiver must: a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. has a higher S/N than mono FM is not compatible with mono FM c. can use amplitude modulation b. d. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. can use FM modulation Two tones modulate an AM carrier. it is band-limited at the receiver d. the noise effect b. d. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. Non-Broadcast FM c. 500 watts d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. commercial AM stations use low power c. is monaural all of the above 13. Bessel's Rule 6. 0 watts Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. the capture effect c. be set to USB mode c. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. National Broadcast FM b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. Peak Envelope Power c. AM is susceptible to noise b. the time-constant of the filter circuits used 11. the capture effect c. the limit effect digital data all of the above 8. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. only by using Bessel functions Mathematically. the threshold effect d. the threshold effect d. 250 watts b. all of the above The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. d. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: . the power in the outer sidebands is negligible both a and b none of the above c. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. d. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. Peak Envelope Product b. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. d. reinsert the carrier d. m1 + m2 c. Taylor series fractals 5. uses DSBSC AM modulation b. audio c. sqrt(m1 v m2 + m2 v m1) b. is equal to twice the deviation One way to derive FM from PM is: a. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations 10. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. FM stereo: a. it is called: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra Bessel functions c. 1000 watts c.
d. Automatic Level Control In an AM transmitter. T network d. d. start with full-carrier AM b. 600 ohms resistive 14. none of the above . both a and b b. is a measure of efficiency c. d. Accurate Level Control none of the above maximize transmitted power all of the above 16. the resistor must be: a. A direct FM modulator: a. expansion d. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. d. the RF amplifiers must be Class B 12. ALC is used to: a. both a and b b. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. VFO b. none of the above ALC stands for: a. 50 ohms resistive c. a frequency multiplier none of the above c. In high-level AM. is complex c. the carrier d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. 75 ohms resistive d. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. may require water cooling b. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. none of the above 21. Amplitude Level Control b. a balanced modulator b. a mechanical filter c. c. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. To generate a SSB signal: a. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. a test load c. integrates the modulating signal c. minimum RF power is required all of the above c. keep the modulation close to 100% b. wire-wound c. d. 300 ohms resistive b. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. a dummy load d. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. agility c. the RF amplifiers must be linear the RF amplifiers must be low-power Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. a bridge circuit 15. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. a smaller number of signals d. a heavy load c. spread-spectrum The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B With low-level AM: a. the modulating amplifier c. the power level of the final RF amplifier none of the above In high-level AM. pi network c. a mixer c. d. d. minimum modulation power is required With high-level AM: a. a temporary load b. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. the driver stage b. noninductive d. all of the above Baseband compression produces: a. none of the above 13. essentially pulse-duration modulation all of the above c. start with DSBSC 19. A Class D amplifier is: a. both a and b has variable frequency all of the above c. d. a crystal filter d. heats the transmitter d. d. the power level of the carrier b. The carrier is suppressed in: a. start with a quadrature signal all of the above c. none of the above 22. very efficient b. the power level of the modulation 20. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. all of the above 17. both a and b d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c. 1% tolerance or better b. keep the modulation below 100% With high-level AM: a. has variable amplitude d. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. the RF amplifier d. b. essentially pulse-width modulation 18. "high-level" refers to: a. An indirect FM modulator: a. the resistor is called: a. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna.NSMITTERS The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a.
color video receivers c. the deviation is altered EIVERS The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. the dynamic range of the receiver b. When comparing values for shape factor: a. d. typically at 455 kHz. both values are basically equivalent none of the above c. d. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 14. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. Audio Gain Control b. Armstrong Hertz 12. is fixed. d. noise generated in the receiver d. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. the tuner b. selectivity measures: a. Automatic Frequency Control Audio Frequency Control 8. the signal and the noise The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. monochrome video receivers all of the above c. d. a value of 1. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. is above the RF frequency b. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a. intermediate frequency b. Automatic Frequency Centering Frequency multipliers are: a. d. When comparing values for shape factor: a.AFC stands for: a. intermodulation frequency AGC stands for: a. small adjustable resistors "Skin effect" refers to: a. d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer c. two types of adjusting tools b. the type of detector circuit being used c. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. is below the RF frequency c. voice communications systems b. the mixer all of the above c. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. Basically. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value d. Seeley Trimmers and padders are: a. a value of 0. Automatic Gain Control c. d. d. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. the mixer b. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. 9. essentially balanced modulators b. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. none of the above 11. a value of 1. sensitivity measures: a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. with two signals close in frequency. Active Gain Control Active Gain Conversion . essentially mixers none of the above With mixing: a. d. the carrier frequency can be lowered c. Phase distortion is important in: a. indeterminate frequency image frequency 16. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. it increases selectivity d. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d.414 dB is ideal b. the carrier frequency can be raised b. the IF amplifiers all of the above c. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. essentially Class C amplifiers c. d.707 is ideal 13. the RF amplifier "IF" stands for: a. Foster b. the ability to receive one and reject the other c. the AGC c. d. Basically. none of the above The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. the spurious response and the tracking d. it is cheaper 10. small adjustable inductors small adjustable capacitors c. the detector 15. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d.0 is ideal there is no ideal value c. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. it increases sensitivity c.
AGC c. a PLL detector b. prior to detection images cannot be rejected Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. Symmetrical Audio Wave b. envelope detector An FM detector is the: a. prior to IF amplification 27. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC Which would be best for DSBSC: a. enter the mixer. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. squelch d. to remove amplitude variations b. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. a quadrature detector d. PLL b. d. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. Foster-Seeley detector c. carrier detection b. The important property of a SAW is: a. DSP stands for: a. ratio detector 29. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. none of the above A common AM detector is the: a. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. d. all of the above 36. maintain a constant IF frequency b. d. to limit spurious responses c. AFC stands for: a. d. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. they are faster than silicon diodes b. all of the above 28. a BFO a product detector c. d. reinject the carrier c. are transmitted on the same frequency b. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. The function of AFC is: a. d. Autodyne Frequency Compensation 32. Barrier Frequency Oscillator c. d. Direct Signal Phase c. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator Bistable Frequency Oscillator To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. you need to: a. Low-Noise Amplifier c. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. it allows software radios to be built c. d. SAW stands for: a. none of the above 33. Audio Frequency Compensator b. coherent detection 35. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. a diode BFO stands for: a. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. AFC b. The main function of the AGC is to: a. d. it is a stable bandpass filter none of the above c. to limit dynamic range to limit noise response c. Surface Acoustic Wave 34. prior to mixing b. d. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. quadrature detector all of the above Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. ratio detector all of the above 31. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. Silicon-Activated Wafer Software-Activated Wave c. Automatic Frequency Control Autonomous Frequency Control c.Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. Low-Noise Audio Logarithmic Noise Amplification c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. use double conversion d. a PLL b. enter the mixer. all of the above A common SSB detector is: a. envelope detection ratio detection . d. enter the mixer. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. LNA stands for: a. limiting 30. Dynamic Signal Properties b. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. The function of a limiter is: a. PLL b. Distorted Signal Packet Digital Signal Processor c. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF An image must be rejected: a. d.
d. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. c. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. 8-bit numbers d. C = 2B log2M The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. Ten-Digital Manchester Ten Dual-Manchester 14. 12-bit numbers b. d. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. a sample-and-hold circuit b. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. I = ktB b. d. I = ktB b. PWM d. PCM PDM 12. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. 10. d. Codec stands for: a. c. 19. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. 16-bit numbers . c. d. but not both.SINAD stands for: a. decreases as the bits per sample decreases PPM PPS In digital transmission. Coder-Decoder b. the E Law (alpha law) the Q Law (mu law) c. a regenerative repeater b. companding uses: a. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. d. They are two types of sampling error. In Europe. C = B log2(1 + S/N) SR = 2fmax C = B log2(1 + S/N) SR = 2fmax C = B log2(1 + S/N) SR = 2fmax C = B log2(1 + S/N) SR = 2fmax a fixed sample rate an analog-to-digital converter c. I = ktB b. decreases as the sample rate increases b. Companding is used to: a. The immediate result of sampling is: a. d. companding uses: a. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. c. I = ktB b. d. too few samples per second all of the above c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. PDM c. an amplifier c. Time-Domain Multiplexing Hartley's Law is: a. the E Law (alpha law) the Q Law (mu law) Code-Compression none of the above c. Tracking Radio Frequency TAL COMMUNICATIONS The first digital code was the: a. d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio TRF stands for: a. Baudot code d. the A Law 18. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. You can have one or the other. c. d. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. Transmitted Radio Frequency Tuned Receiver Function c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. C = 2B log2M The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. In North America. none of the above 15. C = 2B log2M Natural Sampling does not use: a. They are the same thing. b. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. too many samples per second 11. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission 16. the Logarithmic Law b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. all of the above TDM stands for: a. the Logarithmic Law b. d. C = 2B log2M The Shannon Limit is given by: a. d. signal degradation can be removed using: a. d. Morse code none of the above 13. a filter d. Tuned Radio Frequency b. ASCII code b. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. Coded-Carrier c. c. b. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. PAM c. 4-bit numbers c. true binary numbers c. the A Law 17. noise b. a sample alias b.
Primary Operational Test System Plain Old Telephone Service c. A vocoder implements compression by: a. d. all of the above The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: a. c. Primary Office Telephone Service 4. detect errors b. requires a much higher sampling rate c. 24 48 c. 6 b. d. c. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. LATA stands for: a. A T-1 cable uses: a. d. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. d. 1 b. about the same b.544 MB/s b. a local calling area b. d. d. Private Switched Telephone Network 3. Public Switched Telephone Network b. PSTN stands for: a. 1. carry signaling The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. DTMF stands for: a. 64 k 1. Dual-Tone Multifrequency Digital Trunk Master Frequency c. d. AMI b. Private Office Telephone System b. d. 4 8 c. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. 56 k The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. Compared to standard PCM systems. bipolar RZ AMI coding 33. d. only over shorter distances b. the signal does not change d. 2 Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. synchronize the transmitter and receiver all of the above c. NRZ coding pulse-width coding In delta modulation. d. Primary Service Telephone Network Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. provides strong timing information d. the sample is too large Compared to PCM. d. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. d. synchronize the transmitter and receiver all of the above c. transmits fewer bits per sample b. d. Manchester c. much better c. 2 The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. A LATA is a: a. Local Access Telephone Area 5. carry signaling So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. on-hook/off-hook condition b. somewhat better d. not as good TELEPHONE SYSTEMS 1. delta modulation: a. using lossless techniques 37. a type of digital local network c. 1. c. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. d. twisted-pair wire b. POTS stands for: a. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. the bit rate is too high b. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. is a biphase code b. Dial Tone Master Frequency 2. d. 64 kb/s 36. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. 8 k b. only if the voice is band-limited Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a.544 Mb/s b. Local Area Telephone Access Local Area Transport Access a way of accessing a tandem office a way of accessing a central office . constructing a model of the transmission medium b. A typical T-1 line uses: a.Compared to PCM. unipolar NRZ bipolar RZ c. d. 4 8 c. 64 kb/s In DS-1. can suffer slope overload all of the above 32. Manchester coding b. busy signal c. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. d. Local Access and Transport Area b. ringing all of the above Manchester coding: a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. detect errors b. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. 12 34. d. the signal changes too rapidly c. coaxial cable 35.544 v 106 56 kb/s 8 kb/s 56 kb/s 8 kb/s c. 1 b. fiber-optic cable microwave c. "granular noise" is produced when: a.
when it is off hook c. common control b. PDM b. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. carry signaling c. PCM 25. 20 hertz AC c. Public Access Branch Exchange 26. Fiber In the Toll Loop c. b. In telephone system FDM. 1 mW b. local loops b. via net loss voice noise level c. 48 volts. d. 60 23. Power-On Protocol none of the above c. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. SLIC stands for: a. 20 hertz AC d. ESS The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 1 pW 0 dBr c. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. DSBSC d. crossbar control d. d. volume net loss 20. reduce crosstalk d. trunk lines Local loops terminate at: a. SSB c. mastergroups c. 2 mA to 8 mA b. jumbogroups all of the above 24. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. 48 volts DC c. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: a. 48 volts DC c. as long as it is attached to a local loop only when it is ringing The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. both a and b none of the above 17. when it is on hook b. voice is put on a carrier using: a. prevent "singing" d. supergroups b. d. occurs only on long-distance cables d. prevent oscillation 21. 12 d. 48 volts. 20 mA to 80 mA The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 24 b. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. 20 QA to 80 QA c. d. shielded twisted-pair copper wire FITL stands for: a. 90 volts DC 90 volts. cancel echoes check for errors . a tandem office b. 20 hertz AC d. d. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. eliminate reflections b. coaxial cable fiber-optic 22. 0 dBm Call blocking: a. Subscriber Line Interface Card Standard Local Interface Circuit c.Central offices are connected by: a. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded In telephony. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. twisted-pair copper wire b. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. Point Of Presence The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. a toll station c. d. Framing In The Loop Fiber-In-The-Loop Loading coils were used to: a. d. provide synchronization b. 90 volts. improve signal-to-noise ratio reduce power consumption c. 6 c. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop DC current flows through a telephone: a. Post Office Protocol b. VNL stands for: a. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. PABX stands for: a. 90 volts DC b. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. all of the above 19. d. Standard Line Interface Card 27. In DS-1. 200 QA to 800 QA d. d. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. allow signals to be multiplexed b. voltage net loss b. POP stands for: a. d. 20 hertz AC c. a central office an interexchange office 18. step-by-step switching control c. d. d.
control characters none of the above c. the clock bits c. Integrated Services Digital Network b. FIGS data c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. compensation b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line c. d.it-stuffing" is more formally called: a. d. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. the frames are: a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. all of the above 14. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. d. data link control characters c. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. d. much more expensive b. 128 bytes long d. rectification ISDN stands for: a. they do not have any other name both a and b Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. the Teletype Company Data codes are also called: a. American Standard Code 2 Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange c. justification frame alignment c. In synchronous transmission. none of the above A TRANSMISSIONS In practical terms. Western Union Emile Baudot c. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. numerical data b. Information Services Digital Network Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. Unaltered Received Text d. a separate clock line 15. In asynchronous transmission. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. LF stands for: a. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text 10. In synchronous transmission. all of the above Character codes include: a. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. the transmitter and receiver are: a. hence the name "asynchronous" 11. over short distances only c. the channel must be noise-free Compared to ISDN. binary data d. the time between consecutive frames is: a. not synchronized at all. d. d. much longer than asynchronous frames c. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. 1024 bytes long 13. In asynchronous transmission. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. character sets over any distance usually over a coaxial cable c. d. American Standard Character-set 2 b. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. BS. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. character codes b. equal to the start and stop bit-times b. parallel data transmission is sent: a. equal to one bit-time d. Line Forward Link Forward c. the data bits d. d. and CR are examples of: a. Line Feed b. about the same speed d. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. the Morkum Company b. d. it is too slow c. UART stands for: a. American Standard Code for Information Interchange . all of the above ADSL stands for: a. nonstandard character codes b. Allocated Digital Service Line Access to Data Services Line 9. escape characters 8. the CRC bits b. not a set length 12. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. it took to long to develop b. usually over long distances d. alphanumeric characters b. graphic control characters all of the above ASCII stands for: a. b. equal to zero c. much faster c. Link Feed c. FF. Integrated Services Data Network Information Systems Digital Network 7. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a.
c. d. d. automatic request for resynchronization b. correct bit errors b. Collision Detection Collision Delay c. token c. d. Synchronous Data Link Control b. automatic receiver queue automatic request for queue c. SDLC stands for: a. Client-Server Multi-Access b. use UTP cable all of the above c. ARQ CRC stands for: a. are based on Ethernet b. HDLC is: a. d. is used to convey symmetric keys c. encrypt data b. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed Run-length encoding is used to: a. Correct Received Character Huffman codes: a. d. Carrier Delay 3. all of the above 7. slower c. is identical to SDLC all of the above c. Cyclic Redundancy Check Cycle Repeat Character 5. correct synchronization problems FEC stands for: a. FEC b. d. each channel carries only one data stream c. Carrier Sense Multiple Access 2. avoids the "password problem" all of the above 8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. "bit-stuffing" b. d. communication is half-duplex only b. allows the use of digital signatures b. a very large CSMA/CD network not really a network at all c. Carrier Server Master Application none of the above c. Fixed Error Control b. token-passing rings are: a. FEC ARQ 1. is an IBM product b. in networks requiring central monitoring c. Dumb terminals are still used: a. CSMA stands for: a. compress data Public-key encryption: a. is a character-oriented protocol HDLC: a. automatic request for retransmission ARQ is used to: a. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. an ISO standard all of the above c. different flags at either end of a frame The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. all of the above . none of the above 6. Forward Error Control VRC is another name for: a. based on SDLC LOCAL AREA NETWORK c. d. Carrier Detection b. d. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. more expensive d. In a circuit-switched network: a. node circuit c. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. d. not as widely used b. Synchronous Data Line Control 28. put data into a temporary buffer none of the above Forward Error Correction False Error Condition c. Most LANs: a. use CSMA/CD c. requires the use of DLE all of the above 27. d. d. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. The Internet is: a. d. is an IBM product b. Synchronous Data Link Character Synchronous Data Line Character c. d. a network of networks b. hub b. a bit-oriented protocol b. Control Receiver Code b.BISYNC: a. correct data none of the above c. LRC parity c. is a bit-oriented protocol The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected d. d. in token-passing networks b. d. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. a very large client-server network 4. Each computer on a network is called a: a. d.
CSMA b. all of the above 23. a node b. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. are cheaper c. the network goes down b. Three-Level encoding A 100BaseT cable uses: a. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. Multiple Access Unit c. to increase the data rate b. Network Interface Code Network Internal Code c. RG-58U coaxial cable 50-ohm coaxial cable . are easier to crimp connectors onto d. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. all of the above 24. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. Network Interface Card b. it is called: a. token-passing all networks have collisions In an Ethernet-based network. excess traffic b. none of the above On networks. A switch: a. Manchester encoding b. d. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. collisions The effect of too many collisions is: a. twisted-pair copper wires 27. a central bus d. are more common in token-passing networks 29. excess traffic b. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. packets c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. a central ring c. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. none of the above 22. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. d. A hub: a. NIC stands for: a.1 d.3 CCITT ITU-E c. the cable overheats data is lost c. are more common in token-passing networks IEEE 802. UTP stands for: a. to increase the data rate b. b. a collision c. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. INTEL An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a. d. contention d. nodes c. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire c. Network Interface Cable 25. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. d. carriers b. fiber-optic cable b. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. all of the above 28. contention d. d. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. the cable carries baseband signals b. users d. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. packets b. a collision c. Multistation Access Unit b. an RJ45 connector an RS11 connector c. d. CAT-5 cables: a. d. Ethernet 21. a BNC connector b. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet Unicode Text Packet c. multiple access When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. NRZ encoding AMI encoding c. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. allow faster bit rates b.The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. the network slows down MAU stands for: a. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. tokens When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. IBM b. it is called: a. d. Ethernet was invented by: a. EIA 232 c. a T connector 26. d. IEEE 488. nodes d. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. Multiple Auxiliary Units none of the above The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. Xerox Digital Equipment Corporation c. multiple access One type of network that never has a collision is: a.
virtual circuit 15. link layer 8. real-time delivery all of the above c. Frame Relay: a. does less error checking than X. d. Small Network Access The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. Standard Network Architecture Systems Network Architecture c. ATM stands for: a. is essentially forever b. WINDOWS-based d. all of the above Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. client-server networks d. d. Internet Process b. d. it is faster when used in large networks c. operate at the data-link level d. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. d. d. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. 7 layers 14. d. 5 c. all of the above 11. Together. d. basically. multitasking b. d. cable layer transport layer c. d. Asynchronous Transmission Model Automatic Test Mode c. TCP stands for: a. both a and b b. is faster than X. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. physical layer b. d. an application and a process datagrams c. network frame c. a PC with no disk drives b. store records securely on a server b. d. a node that rarely sends data 5. error-check layer link layer c. d. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. user b. is approximately 200 milliseconds c. use coaxial cables c. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. link layer 6. modulate the data onto a carrier b. physical layer 7. peer-to-peer networks c. A bridge: a. connection-oriented protocol b. Transmission Control Process b. Internet Protocol 12. UNIX-based c. d. 7 8 . switched circuits SNA stands for: a. looks at the address of each packet c. d. Manchester Access Network b. same as a "dumb" terminal all of the above c. connectionless protocol non-robust protocol c. c.25 b. Transmission Control Protocol Metropolitan-Area Network Multiple Access Network 13. all of the above Broadband LANs: a. Asynchronous Transmission Mode 10. IP is a: a. 3 b. allows for variable length packets all of the above c.An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. 5 layers b. Interconnect Protocol Interconnect Procedure WIDE-AREA NETWORKS AND THE INTERNET MAN stands for: a. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. Multiple-Area Network Packet switching is based on: a. none of the above Record locking is used to: a. Transfer Connection Protocol none of the above c. frame layer b. none of the above The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. store-and-forward b. TCP/IP consists of: a. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. IP stands for: a.25 9. separates a network into "collision domains" b. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. Standard Network Access b. Novell certified A "thin" client is: a.
d. bits bits per second c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. Internet Service Procedure none of the above c. Full-Shift Keying b. M is the: a. d. Domain Name System c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. too many bits high b. Open Systems Interconnection b. Short Message Transport Protocol b. the eye is half open the eye alternately opens and closes c.UDP stands for: a. d. In the equation I = ktB. translates words to numbers c. d. File Transport Protocol 27. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. amperes b. User Data Protocol c. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. Internet Service Provider The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. AFSK d. file transport HTML stands for: a. d. Open Standard Interconnection c. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. d. Hypertext Markup Language b. a 32-bit binary number b. d. Hypertext Transport Protocol HTTP allows the use of: a. PSK stands for: a. the eye is maximally closed 7. a "brick wall" d. d. Quadrature Amplitude Masking 4. b. four groups of base-ten numbers DNS stands for: a. Frequency-Shift Keying 2. Domain Numbering System Domain Naming System 8. web page layout all of the above c. d. Simple Message Transport Protocol ISP stands for: a. FSK c. I is measured in: a. Phase-Signal Keying Phase-Shift Keying FTP is used to: a. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level HTML allows: a. Internet Service Protocol b. high-speed file transfer FTP stands for: a. none of the above SMTP stands for: a. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. number of possible states per symbol maximum number of symbols per second c. Full-Signal Keying none of the above c. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. Pulse-Shift Keying 3. d. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer High-speed Transfer-Mode Language DIGITAL MODULATION & MODEMS 1. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. User Datagram Protocol b. d. margin of noise b. d. Domain Name Server b. OSI stands for: a. intermodulation distortion intersymbol interference c. running out of available values all of the above c. File Test Procedure Fast Transport Packet c. d. d. File Transfer Protocol b. Simple Mail Transport Protocol Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. the eye is maximally open b. Quadrature Amplitude Marking none of the above c. d. a DNS c. dumb terminals b. QAM stands for: a. Open Systems Internet none of the above c. FSK stands for: a. browsers none of the above c. stores all domain addresses d. a "firewall" b. the use of "spoofing" protocols 29. User Data Packet Universal Data Packet HTTP stands for: a. amperes per second 5. describes the Internet address-naming procedure 28. PSK QAM . A DNS: a. too many bits low c. modulation index 6. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure b. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. d. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. has become obsolete on the Internet b. telneting b. Pulse-Signal Keying b. d.
RTS/CTS handshake b. and signal ground 28. XON and XOFF b. a byte b. a dibit a Q-bit 20. both a and b none of the above c. d. frequency and phase angle b. Software flow control uses: a. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. d. a DCE a DTE 5 7 c. T/4 DQPSK uses: a. d.42 bis are both: a. In RS-232. Hardware flow control uses: a. 135. CCITT b. 3 d. d. d. full-duplex. 600 bps. full-duplex. random bits The V.Instead of a single bit. RD. International Telecommunications Union International Telecommunications Units 25. and 270 degrees c. half-duplex. full-duplex. a DSR 24. RTS. and signal ground TD. 90. FSK ITU is an abbreviation for: a. angles of 45. a QPSK symbol contains: a. IEEE ANSI 5 7 High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. RTS and CTS DSR and DCD c. DSL stands for: a. In RS-232. MNP4. d. International Telephony Unit b. +15 volts c. 2T/4. all of the above 31. the EIA b. effects of noise on symbols all of the above c. d. DSR. and MNP10 are all: a. Gaussian bits b. Digital Signal Line c. a personal computer would be: a. 27. a training sequence a random sequence 29. In RS-232. TD. angles of 0. 1 c. +12 volts d. b. TD and RD b. Digital Subscriber Line Double-Speed Loop . a modem would be: a. separation of symbols in "symbol space" angles of T/4. FSK c. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. TD and RD c.N. data-compression schemes b. RD. 3T/4. TD. signal ground is pin: a. MNP3. d. the TIA MNP2. I-bits and Q-bits The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. d. the ITU the ISO 30. b. d. FSK 1200 bps. 3 d. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. TD and RD c. and signal ground c. 26. MNP5 and V.90 standard is issued by: a. the U. a DSR c. d. data-compression schemes b. b. error-correction protocols 21. a DTR b. RS-232C b. and 4T/4 double phase-shift angles c. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. International Telephony Union The ITU is under the auspices of: a. Data Signal Line b. d. error-correction protocols c. 180. uneven phase and frequency response c. ISO-232C/D ANSI-232C For QAM. amplitude and phase angle d. The official name for RS-232C is: a. flow control is done using: a. both a and b none of the above To reduce the need for linearity. both a and b none of the above c. noise and interference b. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. RTS and CTS DSR and DCD c. low SNR d. a DTR b. XON and XOFF b. d. amplitude and frequency c. and 315 degrees d. EIA-232D 23. c. d. 1200 bps. 225. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. XON/XOFF characters 22. For QAM. d. d. FSK b. 1 c. CTS. +9 volts b. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. 300 bps. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. a DCE a DTE c. RD. signal ground is pin: a. d. 4 bits c.
approximately double the bandwidth 15. space switching c. signaling bit framing bit . a wideband receiver d. RF gain b. bandwidth of original baseband d. every frame every other frame c. frequency-hopping 13. TDM is used in RF communications d. 32 channels 64 channels c. Tone Division Multiple Access none of the above c. use: a. every sixth frame every twelfth frame c. Cable Modem Transmission System c. Asynchronous DSL b. d. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement none of the above 14. time switching c. Asymmetrical DSL In a CATV system. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. crosspoint switching 11. spreading gain improved signal-to-noise ratio 16. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. Carrier Division Multiple Access TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. multiplexer b. all the signals come from the same source b. a direct-conversion receiver b. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously c. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. much more bandwidth d. line switching cross-point switching c. 256 kbps Besides data bits. signal switching b. Cable Modem Terminal Server b. a CDMA receiver 18. d. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. frequency-hopping A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. A digital space switch is a: a. d. the digital data bit rate c. d. b. all of the above A DS-1 signal contains: a. d. the chip size 17. d. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. direct-sequence systems. T-bit In DS-1. the S/N ratio b. d. 24 channels The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. a narrowband receiver c. d. CDMA: a. d. d. HFC stands for: a. much less bandwidth b. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: c. 1. Head Frequency Control b.544 Mbps c. d. Hybrid Fiber-Coax Hybrid Fiber Control 9. Any DSL scheme c. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. time switching b. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. Code-Division Multiple Access b. a direct-conversion receiver b. timing bit b. direct-sequence method all of the above c. computerized Strowger switch crosspoint switch TIPLEXING & MULTIPLE-ACCESS TECHNIQUES TDMA stands for: a. the signals come from different sources c. To calculate processing gain. cannot be used on an RF channel d. For a given data rate. they mean the same thing When calculating the maximum number of users.ADSL stands for: a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. computer speed c. the length of the channel d. the bandwidth of each signal b. about the same bandwidth c. Analog DSL All DSL a. a wideband receiver d. TDM switch 12. Time-Division Multiple Access CDMA stands for: a. ADSL d. a "chip-rate" receiver 19. the type of media used c. d. Cable Modem Terminal System Cable Modem Transmission Server 10. Time Domain Multiple Access b. Hybrid Frequency Control In a CATV system. d. d. direct-sequence method all of the above c. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. 64 kbps b. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. b. 12 channels b.536 Mbps 1. compared to standard RF systems. ADSL Lite none of the above c. a narrowband receiver c. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. space switching d. CMTS stands for: a.
b. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. d. d. would be the same b. ideal elements As frequency increases. lumped c. I2R loss c. Time-Domain Reflectometer An example of an unbalanced line is: a. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable true-random PN sequences none of the above 11. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. increases with frequency c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. the dielectric constant c. d. increases with length b. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. voltage SWR none of the above c. propagation velocity c. would reflect as a negative pulse c. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. the resistance of a wire: a. zero b. distributed d. is infinite b. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. would reflect as a positive pulse b. increases b. equal to Z0 50 ohms c. The optimum value for SWR is: a. the wire resistance b. Total Distance of Reflection b. would not reflect at all 14. would reflect as a negative pulse c. lower than Z0 b. the skin effect b. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. the load on a cable should be: a. optimum length of a transmission line transmission line losses 20. Sine Wave Response TDR stands for: a. a coaxial cable b. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. the inductance per foot all of the above c. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. there is no such effect As frequency increases. NSMISSION LINES SWR stands for: a. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. stays the same changes periodically c. Shorted Wave Radiation b. would be less c. d. d. one 16. cannot be compared c. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. Time-Domain Response Transmission Delay Ratio c. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot For best matching. d. would not reflect at all 15. d. would not reflect at all 13. orthogonal PN sequences c. CDMA requires the use of: a. decreases c. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. higher voltage peaks on cable all of the above stays the same there is no loss in a dielectric c. d. an open-wire-line cable all of the above When analyzing a transmission line. higher than Z0 The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. transmission line impedances b. d. equal reactances b. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. would reflect as a negative pulse c. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. d. d. decreases d. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. increases with voltage none of the above 21. Shorted Wire Region none of the above 12.For optimal performance. is zero 19. variable SWR b. would be more d. is the characteristic impedance 50 ohms c. standing waves b. vacuum SWR 18. Compared to a 300-ohm line. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. b. VSWR stands for: a. as large as possible there is no optimum value The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. loss of power to load 17. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: . the Ohmic effect d. increases c. d. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a.
reuse of frequencies b. the voltage c. Armstrong c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. diffusion d. 300 v 106 meters per second c. EIRP stands for: a. 1 c. In free space. a ground-wave antenna none of the above Maxwell Marconi Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront 15. Space waves are: . none of the above The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. d. the microprocessor chip c. a flat dielectric surface of the right size high-power microwave transmitters all of the above Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. Marconi The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. all of the above 10. high antennas d. vertical c. all of the above 11. 9. perpendicular to each other c. circular b. d. below about 2 MHz b. high power levels c. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. d. above about 20 MHz 16. TEM stands for: both a and b none of the above 17. b. Armstrong c. at microwave frequencies when using horizontally polarized waves c. all of the above Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. b. many 12. horizontal d. the impedance b. the current d. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. horizontal d. 2 d. d. b. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. Hertz d. an isotropic radiator b. radio waves b. a flat metallic surface of the right size a flat body of water The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. Transverse Electromagnetic Transmitted Electromagnetic c. reflection c. one A TDR is commonly used to: a. all of the above IO WAVE PROPAGATION Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. multiplying it by 2T dividing it by Z0 8. dividing it by 2T d. d. find the position of a defect in a cable c.a. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. Ground waves are most effective: a. d. assuming it to be zero c. replace a slotted-line d. the characteristic impedance none of the above c. b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. refraction b. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power 14. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. b. b. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. 3 b. Hertz d. the miniature cell-site d. 3 v 106 meters per second b. gamma waves all of the above c. zero b. directly by using a filter c. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. 13. vertical c. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. a vertically polarized radiator c. True Electromagnetic none of the above 3 v 106 miles per second 300 v 106 miles per second On a Smith Chart. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. Maxwell b. d. light c. by using a "balun" cannot be connected a. diffraction 18. d. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. circular b. perpendicular to the direction of travel d.
repeaters c. multipath distortion cancellation due to reflection A "repeater" is used to: a. in two directions d. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. the cell area is split d. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. are same as space waves d. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. from +90r to ±90r b.a. high power b. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. used for radio telephony b. send a message multiple times over a channel b. the power levels are increased b. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. c. a "handoff" process occurs c. are line-of-sight b. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. diffraction c. from front to back c. d. b. d. the number of channels is reduced As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. highest layer of the atmosphere middle layer of the atmosphere c. d. a "funnel" receiver c. the cell area is increased c. directivity c. lowest layer of the atmosphere the most ionized layer of the atmosphere Sky waves: a. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. d. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. Equivalent Radiated Power Effective Radiated Power 10. none of the above The troposphere is the: 9. d. 3 dB d. a Hertz antenna c. one wavelength c. in all directions b. b. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. ERP stands for: a. d. in one direction c. I2R loss of the antenna 5. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. the radiated signal c. the reflected signal d. frequency diversity b. between half-power points between the minor side-lobes both cells will handle the call nothing occurs To receive several data streams at once. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. radio signals reflecting off the ground . a Marconi antenna b. d. Effective Radiation Pattern c. SWR along the feed cable d. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. c. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. the radio horizon the reuse of frequencies If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. spatial diversity "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. active antenna b. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength 4. a "sectoring" process occurs d. resonance 7. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. b. are radio waves used for satellite communications Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. depends on the number of elements 6. also called "ducting" not possible 1. one half-wavelength d. fading b. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. fading c. far from the transmitter 29. Measured on the ground. selectivity d. line-of-sight reflected off the ionosphere same as sky waves radio waves used for satellite communications a. infinite 8. used to send data by radio ANTENNA c. diffraction d. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. d. d. cancel the effects of fading Cellular phone systems rely on: a. a Yagi antenna none of the above 3. 0 dB c. 10 dB b. multiple receivers b. a "rake" receiver d. radiation resistance of the antenna b. extend the range of a radio communications system d. all of the above in the "silent" zone in the "skip" zone 2. the SWR b. close to the transmitter b.
and one or more directors is called a: a. collimated c. parasitic all of the above An array with one driven element. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. edges d. dipole b. d. infinite An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. TE 10 TM10 TE 11 TM11 it is the only mode possible it is more efficient c. The UHF range is: a. ferrite "loop-stick" none of the above The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. a reflector. focus b. Low-Power Directed Array c. Faraday Rotation d. 10 GHz b. b. c. both b and c 8. the number of nodes decreases d. Log-Periodic Dipole b. folded dipole 22. Marconi c. the distance traveled A nonresonant antenna: a. helical rotation b. phased d. with a magnetic field probe The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. an anechoic chamber c. d. d. an echo chamber b. 1 GHz d. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. d. horn c. a slotted line c. the number of lobes increases c. a dipole d. d. 100 GHz 2. the power level of the signal c. through a hole in the waveguide . d. an LC network all of the above c. the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. gamma rays c. TE 01 b. resistive c. none of the above A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. below the microwave range b. will not transmit b. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. a vacuum chamber an RF reflective chamber c. center c. it is dominant b. d. Yagi d. stacked array LPDA stands for: a.b. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. Antennas are often tested in: a. dispersed c. the shape of the waveguide b. inductive d. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. 100 MHz c. phased b. a loading coil c. is fixed b. depends on the frequency it carries c. at least one half-wavelength long at least one wavelength long 23. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: a. d. d. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Arrays can be: a. d. a shorted stub b. will cause SWR on the feed cable all of the above At resonance. a field-strength meter MICROWAVE DEVICES 1. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. 5. TM 01 d. an EIRP meter b. d. Log-Periodic Dipole Array Log Power Dipole Array 7. buildings and other structures on the ground fading faulty connection of the feed cable ground b. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a. the point of signal injection none of the above As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. above the microwave range same as the microwave range c. TM 01 6. mounted horizontally The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. driven efficiency decreases none of the above 4. d. mounted vertically b. b. of its circular symmetry c. will not receive 24. capacitive b. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. TE 01 c. inside the microwave range 3. c.
Yagis 24. TWT c. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. Traveling-Wave Tube Traveling-Wave Transmission c. d. continuous transmission 26. couple waveguides to antennas A resonant cavity is a type of: a. klystron d. radio depth and ranging 25. YIG 23. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. increases with increasing pulse duration b. YIG 22. d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide GaAs stands for: a. their coupling specification d. mechanical pressure . TWT c. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. d. their insertion loss c. slots b. TWT c. separates signals among various ports d. RADAR stands for: a. antenna none of the above c. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. Transverse-Wave Tube 20. radio detection and ranging remote detection and ranging An "isolator" is a device that: a. a magnetic field d. magnetron b. YIG 21. tuned circuit b. magnetron b. all of the above b. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide A "circulator" is a device that: a. d. gallium arsenide b. Transverse Wave Transmission b. couple sections of waveguide b. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. an E-plane TEE TWT stands for: a. radio ranging b. an electric field c. d. with an electric field probe d. pulsed transmission b. klystron d. d. defect in a waveguide A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. a "magic" TEE all of the above c. d. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. an "exciter" signal Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. d. gallium assembly IMPATT stands for: a. RADAR uses: a. d. decreases with increasing repetition rate 27. d. Fresnel lenses all of the above c. an H-plane TEE b. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet none of the above TERRESTRIAL MICROWAVE COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS c. d. impact avalanche and transit time b. decreases with increasing pulse duration c. gallium astenite none of the above c. couple components on a circuit board none of the above c. their directivity b.b. implied power at transmission terminal none of the above c. separates signals among various ports d. magnetron b. klystron d. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. the Doppler effect all of the above c. decreases with increasing pulse period none of the above c. induced mobility at transmission time YIG stands for: a. d. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. increases with increasing repetition rate b. all of the above Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. is always a tenth of the maximum range none of the above c. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b.
FM b.9% 99. 200 watts b. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. additional repeaters increase the: a. above 10 GHz below 10 GHz c. section b. hop Microwave systems use: a. excessive noise jitter The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System b. 90% b. jitter b. Fading is caused by: a. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. accumulation of noise is reduced d. d. 99. d. d. attenuation due to weather c. Low-power Microwave Distribution System 19. high-gain antennas b. bidirectional b. it requires less power b. noise level d. c. baseband type A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. LMDS is: a. reliability c. jitter b. low level of transmitted power TELEVISION . 60% of the Fresnel zone d. additional repeaters increase the: a. d. Microwave repeaters can be: a. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. SSB The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. Local Microwave Distribution System b.99% 13. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. 99% c. none of the above In analog microwave systems. d. d. d. less bandwidth is required c. skip jump b. LMDS stands for: a. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. diversity c. all of the above LOS stands for: a. all of the above 14. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems 18. Loss Of Skip b. multidirectional none of the above c. d. multipath reception b. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. Line-Of-Sight Line-Of-Signal c. 60% of the highest obstacle height Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. noise level d. all of the above 17.Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. none of the above tisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. high level of ERP good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio good energy per bit per noise density ratio c. reliability c. d. 20 watts d. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. a very narrow microwave beam b. a very wide microwave beam c. MMDS stands for: a. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. 60% of the Faraday zone c. when distance exceeds line-of-sight 15. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. 2 watts c. QAM all of the above 12. Loss Of Signal Too much antenna gain causes: a. ducting all of the above c. all of the above In digital microwave systems. power d. regenerative type all of the above 16. IF type b. unidirectional c. d. always b.
about the same d. IEEE RGB stands for: a. 30 d. whiter than white 21. in-phase color component. peak white c. 625 d. max white b. FM c. National Television Systems Commission b. vestigial sideband AM d. FCC c. dot b. 3 : 4 b. vestigial sideband AM d. horizontal resolution: a. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. 25 c. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. equalize the DC level d. FM 20. whiter than white b. 1024 b. NTSC units 16. quadrature phase color component b. much less b. all of the above 14. quadrature phase color component c. Y I Q refers to: a. resolution does not apply to color 18. whiter than white The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. 25 c. much greater c. none of the above The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. EIA b. National Television Systems Council d. SSB c. 60 The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. 525 c. foot-candles b. Compared to the luminance signal. 30 d. pic c. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. Red-Green Bandwidth d. 1250 The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. a method of demodulating stereo sound 17. Red-Green Brightness c. quadrature video color component d. is greater than vertical resolution b. is less than vertical resolution d. suppressed-carrier AM b. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. black d. white c. chroma d. Nippon Television Systems Commission The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. vestigial sideband AM d. luminance signal. 4 : 3 Luminance refers to: a. IRE d. pixel d. suppressed-carrier AM b. SSB c. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines 15. detect the presence of a color video signal . blacker than black 13. Red-Green Burst b. lumins The maximum luminance level is called: a. all white d. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. black d. 50 b. In a color TV receiver. suppressed-carrier AM b. white c. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. raster c. FM 19. blacker than black 12. IRE units d. Red-Green-Blue b. The smallest picture element is called a: a. 625 : 525 c. maintain horizontal sync b. composite video signal. When measured in lines. 60 The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. brightness b. in-phase video component. National Television Systems Committee c. composite color signal. in-phase color component. is about the same as vertical resolution c. contrast Luminance is measured in: a. maintain vertical sync c. 525 : 625 d. 50 b.NTSC stands for: a. SSB c.
A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. sync audio pulse b. direct-broadcast system direct-broadcast satellite low-noise amplitude low-noise array c. very small antenna terminal very small aperture terminal 16. depends on its orbit 7. LNA stands for: a. 17. d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. 3. transponders c. d. 357. power-down EIRP drop c. 104 watts 8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal AFPC stands for: a. television distribution master antenna 15. low north angle 12. DBS stands for: a. solar cells b.800 km b. 50 to 250 watts d. 101 watts c. much lower b. automatic frequency and phase control LLITE COMMUNICATIONS The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. VSAT stands for: a. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. is constant b. declination and elevation c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. batteries d. separate audio pulse c. automatic frequency and picture control d. none of the above c. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. down-beam signal 11. On the uplink from a terminal. separate audio program b. respectively. all of the above SAP stands for: a. 103 watts 2 b. depends on satellite velocity The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. 500 to 2500 watts b. orbital adjustments none of the above c. television repeater only 14.b. power-level adjustments 10. low-noise amplifier b. a VSAT system uses: a. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. downlink and uplink The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a.: a. 5 to 25 watts c. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. d. low power to a small antenna d. perigee and apogee d. television remote origin none of the above c. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. video satellite b. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal d.578 km c. allowed full picture chroma b. sync amplitude pulse d. azimuth and elevation c. uplink and downlink b. downlink d. 10 watts d. decibels of signal b. the yoke Compared to a monochrome CRT. d. c. plate The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. video signal antenna terminal The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. backdown b. d. the video transformer d. earth station c. all of the above 9. apogee and perigee 6. 35. TVRO stands for: a. television receive only b. much higher d. d. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. antenna maintenance b. low power to a large antenna LEO satellites ring . about the same c. azimuth and declination d. star c. is zero (freefall) c. backoff 13. time-division multiple access transmit delay minimum aperture c. apogee and perigee c. d. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. the isolation transformer c.780 km d. footprint b. the flyback transformer b. TDMA stands for: a. high power to a small antenna c. b.
Maximum In-band Noise Minimum In-band Noise c. AM c. Radio Cellular Carrier MSC stands for: a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. AM b. ESN stands for: a. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. Supervisory Audio Tone 15. d. LULAR RADIO AMPS stand for: a. Numerical Assignment Mode very high power all of the above c. Central Mobile Access Control Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. set its transmitted power level d. FSK b. d. d. Digital Communications Carrier Direct Channel Code c. Radio Common Carrier b. signal classification (analog or digital) maximum power level of a cell phone 20 GHz and 30 GHz none of the above c. SID stands for: a. recognize that it is "roaming" 13. CMAC stands for: a. Mobile Service Cellular MTSO stands for: a. set the access code of the cell phone c. repeater b. d. SCM identifies the: a. Numerical Access Mode b. DCC stands for: a. control access to the cell site b. Number Access Module Number Assignment Module 18. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. FM d. In an AMPS system. c. Supervisory Access Tone none of the above c. System Identification Number Signal Intensity Descriptor c. Maximum Signal Carrier Minimum Signal Carrier c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. code number of a cell phone b. SAT stands for: a. CDMA 19. b. Personal Communications Systems RCC stands for: a. mesh d. Mobile Switching Center b. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. Analog Mobile Phone Service PCS stands for: a. SCM stands for: a. low-earth orbit c. d. Digital Color Code b.b. Mobile Identification Number NAM stands for: a. tracking dish antennas d. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. The CMAC is used to: a. d. d. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. none of the above LEO stands for: a. Standard Identification Number 12. FSK CDMA c. Regional Cellular Carrier none of the above c. Station Antenna Tower b. Service Class Mark b. a constellation of satellites c. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. In an AMPS system. lateral earth orbit longitudinal earth orbit 9. long elliptic orbit b. d. American Mobile Phone System b. d. Station Class Mark 10. c. Personal Communications Service b. d. d. Digital Communications Code 14. LEO systems require: a. control-channel signals are sent using: a. Electronic Serial Number c. Advanced Mobile Phone System Advanced Mobile Phone Service Personal Cell phone Service Portable Communications Systems c. Control Mobile Access Code 16. d. less than 600 QW. d. Signal Class Mark Serial-Code Mode For real-time communication. FM c. Emitted Signal Number d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone 17. d. recognize an AMPS system c. Emission Strength Number between 1 and 2 watts . Maximum Transmitted Signal Output MIN stands for: a. b. voice is sent using: a. d. base-station class 11. Manual Identification Number b.
Lucent 8. increase the ERP b. both GSM and TDMA c. Cellular Digital Packet Data ONAL COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. SIM stands for: a. 3 d. Basic Service Contract Basic Service Code 6. Bell Labs Qualcomm c. IS-95 uses: a. second-generation c. less than in a TDMA phone c. bearer channels talking channels One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. d. d. d. GSM is used in: a. PCS cell sites are: a. d. from the base to the mobile b.9 GHz b. d. spread-spectrum none of the above 11. voice channels 10. CDMA technology was invented by: a. AMPS uses: a. voice d. less than 600 mW. third-generation digital-generation The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. erlangs c. Base Signal Controller c. no PCS system c. greater than in a TDMA phone b. 0. d. Code-Division Packet Data b. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. Intermodulation System Interference c. 4 b. 4 watts b. BSC c. as small as possible none of the above c. d. 800 MHz c. d. MTSO d. TDMA only b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. frequency hopping b. bigger b. AT&T b. GSM uses: a.b. In GSM. 900 MHz d. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. from mobile to mobile same as the uplink c. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. IMSI stands for: a. no better than in an AMPS phone d. number of users number of blocked calls c. distributed higher-power AMPS was designed for: a. Subscriber ID Module Subscriber ID Method c. Asia b. d. CDMA all of the above c. In GSM. voice channels are called: a. TDMA The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. calls b. d. frequency hopping c. d. Base Station Controller b. POTS c. CDMA b. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. Other things being equal. all of the above BSC stands for: a. Subscriber-Initiated Message 15. Europe 9. from the mobile to the base Compared to AMPS.5 km Phone traffic is measured in: a. 2 km b. CDMA . RF interface b. air interface The optimum cell-site radius is: a. GSM only d. first-generation b. Short Inbound Message b. 2 c. traffic channels b. many 7. d. decrease the number of cells d. d. 1. direct-sequence modulation 14. 12 GHz The "forward" PCS channel is: a. no better than a TDMA phone 12. smaller 13. North America all of the above c. d. Coded Digital Packet Data Cellular Digital Pulse Data c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. use built into an automobile 16. increase the number of cells c. decrease the ERP CDPD stands for: a.
2 to 8 nodes 2 to 16 nodes c. d.13 c. the UHF band. c. micronet b. TDMA In CDMA: a. transmitters use relatively high power d. multinet c. A typical pager system does not: a. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. Internet access ING & WIRELESS DATA NETWORKING b. 2 to 4 nodes 15. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group c. frequency hopping 12. and Messaging Industrial. 8. UHF band 802. VHF band b.10 c. QPSK all of the above c. and Medical c. d.11 d. Basic Service Set b. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group 16. d. 10 cm to 100 meters . ISM band infrared band c. d. rotating orthogonal c. the UHF band only c. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. Bluetooth uses the: a. the VHF band. unique The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. CDMA all of the above 6. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. Scientific. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. all of the above c. BSS stands for: a. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. and the ISM band ISM stands for: a. Time-Division Duplex b. Basic Service System 11. allow "roaming" c. UHF band 13. require "handoffs" b. both the VHF and UHF bands d.b. CDMA b. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. Time Delay Difference Total Distance Delay c. 2 nodes b. d.12 802. VHF band b. d. d. Scientific. all of the above IS-136 uses: a. Bluetooth uses: a. TDD stands for: a. d. IEEE Secure Message CAPCODE is: a. all pages are sent from all transmitters b. b. TDMA d. d. wider roaming area all of the above 9. all of the above 10. the VHF band only b. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. all frequencies are used in all cells b. 10 cm to 1 meter c. ISM band infrared band c. require error detection all of the above 7. Industrial. CDMA b. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. Bluetooth Service System none of the above Pagers use: a. d. frequency hopping b. Time-Delayed Duplex 14. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers In a one-way pager system: a. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. 802. d. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. 802. d. CSMA/CA c. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. TDD net scatternet POCSAG stands for: a. CSMA/CD d. common b. d. IEEE Standard Message b. faster data rates b.
Avalanche Photo Detector Advanced Photo Detector c. Infrared Restricted Data Area Infrared Roaming Data Area 8. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. The quantum of light is called: a. plastic Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. doesn't have an index of refraction Fiber-optic cables do not: a. LASER stands for: a. SC d. a photon a phonon Compared to the core. an erg b. less b. 1 foot 10 feet c. 1 meter b. 1 dB b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays 13. 0. E-H current 15. none of the above A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a. 0. 4 db per km d. can use diffused infrared beams c. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. baseline current c. dark current b. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b. carry current b. greater d. 10 meters Infrared networks: a. 10 cm to 10 meters d. d. zero loss IRDA stands for: a. 11. an e-v c. APD stands for: a. d. d. generate EMI all of the above c. 1 meter c. intersymbol interference all of the above IBER OPTIC SYSTEMS The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a. cannot penetrate walls b. Advanced Photodiode c. in an explosive environment b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. Infrared Digital Association The range of an IRDA system is: a. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. b.02 dB c. loss b. zero-point current d. amps per watt b. Infrared Data Association b. c.2 db d. d. cause crosstalk Single-mode fiber is made from: a. d. chromatic dispersion Scattering causes: a. responsivity is measured in: a. 0. d. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. QW per amp c. mA per joule Qsec per QW c. 3 dB 9. within 10 feet b. 40 dB per km c. the same c.02 dB c. dispersion 12.2 db d.b. 0. In a PIN diode. both a and b none of the above 14. 0. b. 1 dB b. modal dispersion b. R OPTICS several hundred meters several thousand meters. ST c. waveguide dispersion all of the above c. glass b. d. d.4 dB per km . d. several meters d. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. d. Avalanche Photodiode b. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. can use reflected infrared beams all of the above SMA all of the above The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. 3 dB 10. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. For a light detector. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d.
b. Optical Carrier level one b. d. type of particle b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement gigabit Ethernet all of the above c. OTDR stands for: a. type of pulse type of optical network Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. 100 km b. OC-1 stands for: a. common b. FITL b. STS stands for: a. 10 km In SONET. d. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. Fiber Input Timing Loss FTTC stands for: a. d. Synchronous Transport Signal c. experimental 14. Synchronous Optical Network none of the above 15. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. gain margin c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Optical Channel one Optical Cable type 1 In SONET. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. obsolete not possible c. SDH b. excess gain b. Simple Optical Network b. bit-synch d. WDM Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. Fiber To The Curb SONET stands for: a. FDDI c. Standard Optical Network DWDM stands for: a. c. d. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. FDDI c. Fiber Distributed Data Interface FITL stands for: a. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing A Soliton is a: a. high-speed Ethernet d. FTTC d. 13. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. SONET c. Frequency Input to The Loop Fiber Input Timing Loop c. d. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. Optical Time-Delay Response b. defect in the glass b. d. Synchronous Transmission System 12. bit stuffing c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer Optical Time-Division Relay c.FDDI stands for: a. system margin d. Synchronous Transmission Signal . Fiber Distribution Delay Interface Frequency-Division Data Interface Synchronous Transport System d. Optical Coupler unidirectional c. 100 miles d. d. 1000 miles c. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. Fiber In The Loop b. overdrive Typically.
This action might not be possible to undo. Are you sure you want to continue?
We've moved you to where you read on your other device.
Get the full title to continue listening from where you left off, or restart the preview.