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MUNICATION SYTEMS The theory of radio waves was originated by: a. Marconi b.

Bell

c. d.

Maxwell Hertz

11. Distortion is caused by: a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies d. all of the above 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its: a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum b. Fourier series d. all of the above 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is: a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above 14. Noise in a communication system originates in: a. the sender b. the receiver 15. "Man-made" noise can come from: a. equipment that sparks b. temperature

The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: a. Marconi c. Maxwell b. Bell d. Hertz The transmission of radio waves was first done by: a. Marconi c. b. Bell d. A complete communication system must include: a. a transmitter and receiver b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel Radians per second is equal to: a. 2T v f b. f z 2T Maxwell Hertz

c. d.

the channel all of the above

c. d. c. d.

static all of the above copper wire all of the above

c. d.

the phase angle none of the above

The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: a. sub-channeling c. SINAD b. signal switching d. Multiplexing TDM stands for: a. Time-Division Multiplexing b. Two-level Digital Modulation FDM stands for: a. Fast Digital Modulation b. Frequency Domain Measurement The wavelength of a radio signal is: a. equal to f z c b. equal to c z P c. the distance a wave travels in one period d. how far the signal can travel without distortion

16. Thermal noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors 17. Shot noise is generated in: a. transistors and diodes b. resistors 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is: a. the same at all frequencies b. greater at high frequencies 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called: a. random noise b. pink noise 20. "Pink" noise has: a. equal power per Hertz b. equal power per octave

c. d.

copper wire none of the above

c. d.

greater at low frequencies the same as "white" noise

c. d. c. d.

Time Domain Measurement none of the above Frequency-Division Multiplexing none of the above

c. d.

white noise partition noise

c. d.

constant power none of the above

21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is: a. VT = sqrt(V1 v V1 + V2 v V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 v V2) b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. VT = V1 + V2

Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above SINAD is calculated as: a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage b. signal power divided by noise power c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power d. none of the above Noise Figure is a measure of: a. how much noise is in a communications system b. how much noise is in the channel c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction b. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle IRCUITS The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: a. base time c. charge time b. transit time d. Miller time A real capacitor actually contains: a. capacitance and resistance only b. capacitance and inductance only Bypass capacitors are used to: a. remove RF from non-RF circuits b. couple RF around an amplifier A resonant circuit is: a. a simple form of bandpass filter b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit The "Miller Effect" can: a. cause an amplifier to oscillate b. cause an amplifier to lose gain c. d. capacitance, inductance, and resistance reactance only

7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by: a. using a common-emitter amplifier b. using a common-base amplifier 8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to: a. inductance of collector lead b. collector-to-emitter capacitance

c. d.

increasing the Q of the tuned circuit it cannot be avoided

c. d.

base-to-emitter capacitance base-to-collector capacitance

9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with: a. RC coupling c. direct coupling b. transformer coupling d. lumped reactance 10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane c. decoupling it d. none of the above 11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires: a. a nonlinear circuit b. a linear amplifier c. a signal containing harmonics d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency 12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: a. loop gain equal to unity b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees c. both a and b, but at just one frequency d. none of the above

c. d.

neutralize amplifiers reduce the Miller effect

13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called: a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria 14. The Hartley oscillator uses: a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal 15. The Colpitts VFO uses: a. a tapped inductor b. a two-capacitor divider 16. The Clapp oscillator is: a. a modified Hartley oscillator b. a modified Colpitts oscillator

c. d.

both a and b none of the above

c. d.

an RC time constant a piezoelectric crystal

c. d.

"multiply" the Q have no effect on Q

c. d.

a type of crystal-controlled oscillator only built with FETs

c. d.

reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier all of the above

A varactor is: a. a voltage-controlled capacitor b. a diode

c. d.

used in tuner circuits all of the above

4.The equation for full-carrier AM is: a. v(t) = (Ec + Em) v sin([ct) b. v(t) = (Ec + Em) v sin([mt) + sin([ct) 5. Overmodulation causes: a. distortion b. splatter

c. d.

v(t) = (Ec v Em) v sin([mt) v sin([ct) v(t) = (Ec + Em sin([mt)) v sin([ct) both a and b none of the above

Crystal-Controlled oscillators are: a. used for a precise frequency b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions d. all of the above If two signals, Va = sin([at) and Vb = sin([bt), are fed to a mixer, the output: a. will contain [1 = [a + [b and [2 = [a ± [b b. will contain [1 = [a / [b and [2 = [b / [a c. will contain [ = ([a + [b ) / 2 d. none of the above In a balanced mixer, the output: a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies b. contains the input frequencies c. does not contain the input frequencies d. is a linear mixture of the input signals "VFO" stands for: a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator

c. d.

6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is: a. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax ± Emin) / (Emax + Emin) b. m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax ± Emin) 7. If Va sin([at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin([ct), it will produce the frequencies: a. [c + [a and [c ± [a c. [c + [a and 2[c + 2[a b. ([c + [a)/2 and ([c ± [a)/2 d. none of the above 8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is: a. equal to the carrier power b. twice the carrier power c. d. half the carrier power 1.414 v carrier power

9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be: a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz b. 10 kHz d. none of the above 10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect: a. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase b. the received RF signal to increase d. all of the above 11. The modulation index can be derived from: a. the time-domain signal b. the frequency-domain signal

c. d.

Varactor-Frequency Oscillator Voltage-Feedback Oscillator

A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency c. a fixed-frequency RF generator d. same as a mixer LITUDE MODULATION AM stands for: a. Audio Modulation b. Amplitude Modulation The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. the baseband signal b. the carrier signal

c. d.

both a and b none of the above

12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be: a. requires too much bandwidth c. b. requires too much power d. c. d. Angle Modulation Antenna Modulation 13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM: a. is more efficient b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit c. requires less bandwidth d. all of the above 14. The SC in SSB SC stands for: a. single-carrier b. suppressed-carrier

incompatibility with ordinary AM radios all of the above

c. d.

the amplitude signal none of the above

If the audio Va sin([at) modulates the carrier Vc sin([ct), then the modulation index, m, is: a. m = [a / [c c. m = (Va / Vc)2 b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / [a

c. d.

sideband-carrier none of the above

500 watts d. reinsert the carrier d. FM bandwidth can be approximated by: a. sqrt(m1 v m1 + m2 v m2) To demodulate a USB SSB signal. the receiver must: a. uses DSBSC AM modulation b.PEP stands for: a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. is equal to twice the deviation One way to derive FM from PM is: a. the time delay between the L and R channels d. the threshold effect d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used 11. National Broadcast FM b. Non-Broadcast FM c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency d. be set to USB mode c. Pre-emphasis is used to: a. can use amplitude modulation b. commercial AM stations use low power c. the limit effect digital data all of the above 8. none of the above 9. a. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator d. video d. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a modulation index of m2. the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of: . the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs c. Near Band FM Narrowband FM 7. 250 watts b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator c. b. none of the above If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation. the threshold effect d. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. AM is susceptible to noise b. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible both a and b none of the above c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth d. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called: a. A pre-emphasis of 75 Qs refers to: a. sqrt(m1 v m2 + m2 v m1) b. is monaural all of the above 13. the capture effect c. audio c. d. only by using Bessel functions Mathematically. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations 10. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise. the time it takes for the circuit to work b. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. The total modulation index is: a. the "two-station" effect b. m1 + m2 c. the noise effect b. Bessel's Rule 6. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra Bessel functions c. has a higher S/N than mono FM is not compatible with mono FM c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. can use FM modulation Two tones modulate an AM carrier. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. 0 watts Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: a. Peak Envelope Product b. Armstrong's Rule b. b. FM stereo: a. d. Peak Efficiency Power d. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies c. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. d. Peak Envelope Power c. it is called: a. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency c. UENCY MODULATION / PHASE MODULATION The FM modulation index: a. what will it radiate with no modulation? a. b. all of the above The type of information that can be sent using AM is: a. Carson's Rule none of the above c. it is band-limited at the receiver d. d. d. An SCA signal: a. is implemented using an SCA signal 12. NBFM stands for: a. the capture effect c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero d. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies b. Taylor series fractals 5. 1000 watts c.

A direct FM modulator: a. start with full-carrier AM b. 300 ohms resistive b. a balanced modulator b. a test load c. none of the above ALC stands for: a. d. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use: a. essentially pulse-duration modulation all of the above c. Accurate Level Control none of the above maximize transmitted power all of the above 16. T network d. The carrier is suppressed in: a. Automatic Level Control In an AM transmitter. both a and b b. none of the above 21. the RF amplifiers must be Class A b. a frequency multiplier none of the above c. a bridge circuit 15. the power level of the modulation 20. integrates the modulating signal c. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator b. both a and b b. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A b. is a measure of efficiency c. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. heats the transmitter d. VFO b. expansion d. may require water cooling b. "high-level" refers to: a. a mechanical filter c. the power level of the final RF amplifier none of the above In high-level AM. has variable amplitude d. approximately four times the DC supply voltage d. A Class D amplifier is: a. is complex c. d. none of the above . varies the phase of the carrier oscillator c. a temporary load b. a dummy load d. d. very efficient b. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud c. approximately twice the DC supply voltage c. 600 ohms resistive 14. none of the above 13. d. An indirect FM modulator: a. all of the above Baseband compression produces: a. the RF amplifier d. the driver stage b. none of the above 22. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of: a. noninductive d. the power level of the carrier b. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator b. 75 ohms resistive d. d. the modulating amplifier c. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna. essentially pulse-width modulation 18. both a and b has variable frequency all of the above c. the resistor is called: a. start with DSBSC 19. spread-spectrum The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: a. keep the modulation close to 100% b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B With low-level AM: a. both a and b d. In high-level AM. a mixer c. the power in the sidebands comes from: a. a crystal filter d. start with a quadrature signal all of the above c. pi network c. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching? a. a heavy load c. minimum RF power is required all of the above c. the carrier d. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high b. To generate a SSB signal: a. ALC is used to: a. a smaller number of signals d. the resistor must be: a. approximately half the DC supply voltage b. c. the RF amplifiers must be Class B 12. d. the voltage of the final RF stage will be: a. keep the modulation below 100% With high-level AM: a. d. 50 ohms resistive c. 1% tolerance or better b. d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB c.NSMITTERS The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: a. the RF amplifiers must be linear the RF amplifiers must be low-power Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: a. all of the above 17. agility c. d. b. minimum modulation power is required With high-level AM: a. wire-wound c. Amplitude Level Control b.

d. the signal and the noise The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: a. The frequency of the local oscillator: a. the RF amplifier "IF" stands for: a. essentially mixers none of the above With mixing: a. d. two types of adjusting tools b. the AGC c. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer c. Automatic Frequency Control Audio Frequency Control 8. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value d. the mixer all of the above c. Phase distortion is important in: a. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by: a. a value of 1. it increases sensitivity c. the carrier frequency can be raised b. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier d. a value of 0. none of the above 11. Distortion in a receiver can occur in: a. d. d. d. the IF amplifiers all of the above c. the carrier frequency can be lowered c.414 dB is ideal b. 9. Active Gain Control Active Gain Conversion . the ability to receive one and reject the other c. When comparing values for shape factor: a. selectivity measures: a. the spurious response and the tracking d. the number of converters and the number of IFs c. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because: a.0 is ideal there is no ideal value c. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select b. is above the RF frequency b. intermediate frequency b. sensitivity measures: a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 b. Armstrong Hertz 12. is fixed. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received c. Automatic Gain Control c. none of the above The "front end" of a receiver can include: a. the tuner b. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses b. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface b. with two signals close in frequency. voice communications systems b. d. typically at 455 kHz. d. the weakest signal that can be usefully received b. small adjustable resistors "Skin effect" refers to: a.707 is ideal 13. the detector 15. Foster b. monochrome video receivers all of the above c. the dynamic range of the receiver b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 14. essentially balanced modulators b. small adjustable inductors small adjustable capacitors c. is below the RF frequency c. a value of 1. d. Basically. d. the type of detector circuit being used c. it increases selectivity d. When comparing values for shape factor: a. both values are basically equivalent none of the above c. Automatic Frequency Centering Frequency multipliers are: a. it is cheaper 10. Seeley Trimmers and padders are: a. the mixer b. Audio Gain Control b. Basically. the sensitivity and the selectivity b. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator d. the increase of wire resistance with frequency d. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal c. essentially Class C amplifiers c. noise generated in the receiver d. color video receivers c. the deviation is altered EIVERS The two basic specifications for a receiver are: a. indeterminate frequency image frequency 16. d. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion b. intermodulation frequency AGC stands for: a. can be either above of below the RF frequency d. d.AFC stands for: a.

Symmetrical Audio Wave b. SAW stands for: a. The function of a limiter is: a. quadrature detector all of the above Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: a. enter the mixer. Surface Acoustic Wave 34. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer c. carrier detection b. enter the mixer. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is: a. d. d. Silicon-Activated Wafer Software-Activated Wave c. d. with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency c. Low-Noise Audio Logarithmic Noise Amplification c.Image frequencies occur when two signals: a. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude d. it is a stable bandpass filter none of the above c. squelch d. a diode BFO stands for: a. all of the above 28. d. are transmitted on the same frequency b. it allows software radios to be built c. to limit spurious responses c. none of the above A common AM detector is the: a. prior to detection images cannot be rejected Image frequency problems would be reduced by: a. envelope detection ratio detection . d. LNA stands for: a. d. all of the above A common SSB detector is: a. DSP stands for: a. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency d. Beat Frequency Oscillator b. envelope detector An FM detector is the: a. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC Which would be best for DSBSC: a. d. prior to mixing b. Automatic Frequency Control Autonomous Frequency Control c. Foster-Seeley detector c. Barrier Frequency Oscillator c. you need to: a. The function of AFC is: a. PLL b. and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF An image must be rejected: a. one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF d. d. ratio detector 29. d. a BFO a product detector c. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver b. Distorted Signal Packet Digital Signal Processor c. AFC stands for: a. Low-Noise Amplifier c. coherent detection 35. Autodyne Frequency Compensation 32. d. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator Bistable Frequency Oscillator To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC. prior to IF amplification 27. keep the gain of the receiver constant b. AGC c. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor b. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator b. AFC b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes c. Direct Signal Phase c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity d. PLL b. d. all of the above 36. to remove amplitude variations b. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called: a. The important property of a SAW is: a. d. enter the mixer. maintain a constant IF frequency b. a quadrature detector d. ratio detector all of the above 31. Audio Frequency Compensator b. to limit dynamic range to limit noise response c. use double conversion d. a PLL b. The main function of the AGC is to: a. reinject the carrier c. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant c. Limited-Noise Amplifier b. a PLL detector b. Dynamic Signal Properties b. match the local oscillator to the received signal c. none of the above 33. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer d. they are faster than silicon diodes b. limiting 30.

8-bit numbers d. Ten-Digital Manchester Ten Dual-Manchester 14. d. a filter d. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique: a. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? a. Transmitted Radio Frequency Tuned Receiver Function c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low d. In North America. noise b. decreases as the bits per sample increases d. PCM PDM 12. The immediate result of sampling is: a. 10. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives: a. an amplifier c. I = ktB b. PDM c. d. d. d. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion b. Tuned Radio Frequency b. too few samples per second all of the above c. Time-Domain Multiplexing Hartley's Law is: a. d. c. They are two types of sampling error. 16-bit numbers . 19. c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) SR = 2fmax C = B log2(1 + S/N) SR = 2fmax C = B log2(1 + S/N) SR = 2fmax C = B log2(1 + S/N) SR = 2fmax a fixed sample rate an analog-to-digital converter c. Codec stands for: a. 12-bit numbers b. I = ktB b. d. Coder-Decoder b. Tracking Radio Frequency TAL COMMUNICATIONS The first digital code was the: a. c. compress the range of base-band frequencies b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates c. c. d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio TRF stands for: a. but not both. c. b. decreases as the sample rate decreases c. d. the E Law (alpha law) the Q Law (mu law) Code-Compression none of the above c. the Logarithmic Law b.SINAD stands for: a. all of the above TDM stands for: a. They are the same thing. I = ktB b. C = 2B log2M The Shannon Limit is given by: a. a sample-and-hold circuit b. 4-bit numbers c. Morse code none of the above 13. the Logarithmic Law b. true binary numbers c. companding uses: a. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion c. C = 2B log2M The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: a. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): a. Foldover distortion is caused by: a. You can have one or the other. the A Law 17. d. c. d. I = ktB b. b. Companding is used to: a. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. a sample alias b. C = 2B log2M Natural Sampling does not use: a. d. PWM d. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio d. PAM c. decreases as the sample rate increases b. the E Law (alpha law) the Q Law (mu law) c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample d. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal b. too many samples per second 11. the A Law 18. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission 16. C = 2B log2M The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: a. none of the above 15. a regenerative repeater b. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: a. Baudot code d. signal degradation can be removed using: a. d. Coded-Carrier c. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion c. ASCII code b. companding uses: a. decreases as the bits per sample decreases PPM PPS In digital transmission. d. Time-Division Multiplexing b. In Europe.

A vocoder implements compression by: a. the quality of the output of a vocoder is: a. d. synchronize the transmitter and receiver all of the above c. Local Area Telephone Access Local Area Transport Access a way of accessing a tandem office a way of accessing a central office . d. Compared to standard PCM systems. adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice: a. is a biphase code b. Local Access and Transport Area b. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. DTMF stands for: a. not as good TELEPHONE SYSTEMS 1. d.544 MB/s b. d.544 v 106 56 kb/s 8 kb/s 56 kb/s 8 kb/s c. delta modulation: a. The number of frames in a superframe is: a. only over shorter distances b. c. 1 b. d. carry signaling So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. Private Switched Telephone Network 3. using lossless techniques 37. 6 b. 2 Framing bits in DS-1 are used to: a. A typical T-1 line uses: a. Local Access Telephone Area 5. detect errors b. 2 The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. d. NRZ coding pulse-width coding In delta modulation. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. ringing all of the above Manchester coding: a. Manchester c. d. d. AMI b.544 Mb/s b. somewhat better d. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period c. about the same b. A T-1 cable uses: a. transmits fewer bits per sample b. busy signal c. Private Office Telephone System b. the signal changes too rapidly c. the sample is too large Compared to PCM. finding redundancies in the digitized data d. A LATA is a: a. d. Dual-Tone Multifrequency Digital Trunk Master Frequency c. bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: a. bipolar RZ AMI coding 33. the signal does not change d. requires a much higher sampling rate c. 64 kb/s In DS-1. twisted-pair wire b. unipolar NRZ bipolar RZ c. constructing a model of the human vocal system c. d. carry signaling The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. 4 8 c. "granular noise" is produced when: a. provides strong timing information d. Dial Tone Master Frequency 2. Manchester coding b. can suffer slope overload all of the above 32. d. only if the voice is band-limited Which coding scheme requires DC continuity: a. d. all of the above The number of framing bits in DS-1 is: a. 1 b. Primary Operational Test System Plain Old Telephone Service c. a local calling area b. constructing a model of the transmission medium b. d. d. c. "Signaling" is used to indicate: a. 1. coaxial cable 35. 4 8 c. c. 56 k The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: a. 24 48 c. 64 kb/s 36.Compared to PCM. a type of digital local network c. the bit rate is too high b. d. fiber-optic cable microwave c. 1. d. d. Primary Service Telephone Network Primary Service Telephone Numbers c. POTS stands for: a. on-hook/off-hook condition b. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency b. much better c. detect errors b. 8 k b. d. Public Switched Telephone Network b. 12 34. PSTN stands for: a. synchronize the transmitter and receiver all of the above c. LATA stands for: a. Primary Office Telephone Service 4. 64 k 1.

b. d. local loops b. d. occurs only on long-distance cables d. d. In DS-1. Fiber In the Toll Loop c. carry signaling c. mastergroups c. 12 d. 90 volts. 2 mA to 8 mA b. a toll station c. Private Automatic Branch Exchange c. Basic FDM groups can be combined into: a. provide synchronization b. POP stands for: a. 48 volts DC c. prevent "singing" d. 1 mW b. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. 200 QA to 800 QA d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop DC current flows through a telephone: a. d. when it is off hook c.Central offices are connected by: a. Public Automated Branch Exchange d. crossbar control d. twisted-pair copper wire b. 20 hertz AC c. 20 mA to 80 mA The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: a. 0 dBm Call blocking: a. allow signals to be multiplexed b. Subscriber Line Interface Card Standard Local Interface Circuit c. 48 volts. SSB c. 20 hertz AC d. supergroups b. 24 b. d. d. coaxial cable fiber-optic 22. via net loss voice noise level c. eliminate reflections b. Point Of Presence The cable used for local loops is mainly: a. PCM 25. d. d. trunk lines Local loops terminate at: a. Power-On Protocol none of the above c. 20 hertz AC c. Post Office Protocol b. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to: a. d. reduce the attenuation of voice signals c. DSBSC d. as long as it is attached to a local loop only when it is ringing The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: a. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is: a. 90 volts DC 90 volts. all of the above 19. 60 23. Standard Line Interface Card 27. ESS The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 20 hertz AC d. PDM b. Single-Line Interface Circuit b. jumbogroups all of the above 24. d. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. Power Amplification Before Transmission b. bits are "robbed" in order to: a. improve signal-to-noise ratio reduce power consumption c. Framing Information for Toll Loops b. prevent oscillation 21. d. a tandem office b. reduce crosstalk d. 20 QA to 80 QA c. voltage net loss b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire FITL stands for: a. step-by-step switching control c. volume net loss 20. common control b. d. 48 volts DC c. Framing In The Loop Fiber-In-The-Loop Loading coils were used to: a. 1 pW 0 dBr c. VNL stands for: a. both a and b none of the above 17. a central office an interexchange office 18. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. In telephone system FDM. The reference noise level for telephony is: a. when it is on hook b. PABX stands for: a. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded In telephony. SLIC stands for: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. voice is put on a carrier using: a. cancel echoes check for errors . 6 c. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data b. 90 volts DC b. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is: a. Public Access Branch Exchange 26. 48 volts.

Universal Automatic Receiver for Text 10. In asynchronous transmission. 128 bytes long d. the CRC bits b. a separate clock line 15. In synchronous transmission. binary data d. it is too slow c. d. Western Union Emile Baudot c. Integrated Services Data Network Information Systems Digital Network 7. alphanumeric characters b. American Standard Character-set 2 b. the Teletype Company Data codes are also called: a. All-Digital Subscriber Line b. the channel must be noise-free Compared to ISDN. b. the frames are: a. equal to zero c. 1024 bytes long 13. Unaltered Received Text d. data link control characters c. compensation b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits d. justification frame alignment c. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency b. d. they do not have any other name both a and b Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: a. it took to long to develop b. internet access using ADSL is typically: a. all of the above ADSL stands for: a. hence the name "asynchronous" 11. the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using: a. Line Forward Link Forward c. over short distances only c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted d. Line Feed b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required c. none of the above A TRANSMISSIONS In practical terms. character sets over any distance usually over a coaxial cable c.it-stuffing" is more formally called: a. the Morkum Company b. much more expensive b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line c. the time between consecutive frames is: a. d. In synchronous transmission. usually over long distances d. and CR are examples of: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits b. Information Services Digital Network Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. d. it has been surpassed by newer technologies d. escape characters 8. BS. parallel data transmission is sent: a. all of the above Character codes include: a. d. not a set length 12. American Standard Code 2 Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange . d. In asynchronous transmission. UART stands for: a. d. Allocated Digital Service Line Access to Data Services Line 9. all of the above 14. not synchronized at all. it is easier to implement than asynchronous d. character codes b. numerical data b. Link Feed c. the clock bits c. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization c. rectification ISDN stands for: a. The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. the data bits d. d. FIGS data c. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter b. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames b. graphic control characters all of the above ASCII stands for: a. about the same speed d. control characters none of the above c. d. nonstandard character codes b. equal to one bit-time d. FF. much longer than asynchronous frames c. Synchronous transmission is used because: a. Integrated Services Digital Network b. much faster c. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission: a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock c. LF stands for: a. the transmitter and receiver are: a. equal to the start and stop bit-times b.

The CD in CSMA/CD stands for: a. d. use UTP cable all of the above c. d. is a character-oriented protocol HDLC: a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected b. a network of networks b. Fixed Error Control b. Carrier Detection b. an ISO standard all of the above c. automatic receiver queue automatic request for queue c. Collision Detection Collision Delay c. in networks requiring central monitoring c. d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed Run-length encoding is used to: a. automatic request for retransmission ARQ is used to: a. none of the above 6. slower c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected d. Synchronous Data Link Control b. d. a bit-oriented protocol b. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring d. connection is usually done using a bus topology d. correct bit errors b. hub b. encrypt data b. a very large CSMA/CD network not really a network at all c. d. LRC parity c. d. The Internet is: a. different flags at either end of a frame The initials ARQ are used to designate: a. is a bit-oriented protocol The use of flags in SDLC requires: a. is an IBM product b. are based on Ethernet b. d. token c. In a circuit-switched network: a. Control Receiver Code b. is used to convey symmetric keys c. Compared to CSMA/CD systems. Client-Server Multi-Access b. based on SDLC LOCAL AREA NETWORK c. each channel carries only one data stream c. all of the above . d. Cyclic Redundancy Check Cycle Repeat Character 5. CSMA stands for: a. "bit-stuffing" b. Carrier Server Master Application none of the above c. Forward Error Control VRC is another name for: a. d. communication is half-duplex only b. compress data Public-key encryption: a. d. correct synchronization problems FEC stands for: a. SDLC stands for: a. d. all of the above 7. Most LANs: a. ARQ CRC stands for: a. token-passing rings are: a. FEC b. d. is identical to SDLC all of the above c. not as widely used b. d. put data into a temporary buffer none of the above Forward Error Correction False Error Condition c. correct data none of the above c. c. more expensive d. d. HDLC is: a. Dumb terminals are still used: a. requires the use of DLE all of the above 27. Carrier Sense Multiple Access 2. Each computer on a network is called a: a. a very large client-server network 4. Synchronous Data Line Control 28. d.BISYNC: a. allow errors to be detected and corrected c. allows the use of digital signatures b. node circuit c. FEC ARQ 1. d. automatic request for resynchronization b. use CSMA/CD c. in token-passing networks b. Correct Received Character Huffman codes: a. d. Synchronous Data Link Character Synchronous Data Line Character c. avoids the "password problem" all of the above 8. Carrier Delay 3. is an IBM product b.

A hub: a. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system d. fiber-optic cable b. Ethernet 21. excess traffic b. packets c. a central ring c. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is: a. d. NRZ encoding AMI encoding c. a T connector 26. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables. are more common in token-passing networks 29. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is: a. IBM b. to increase the data rate b. d. a BNC connector b. d. a node b. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. it is called: a. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: a. contention d. excess traffic b. A switch: a. UTP stands for: a. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. none of the above 22. d. IEEE 488. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. d. the network goes down b. multiple access One type of network that never has a collision is: a. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet Unicode Text Packet c. INTEL An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: a.1 d. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire c. contention d. nodes c. Network Interface Cable 25. token-passing all networks have collisions In an Ethernet-based network. Three-Level encoding A 100BaseT cable uses: a. d. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. a collision c. CAT-5 cables: a. Multiple Auxiliary Units none of the above The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: a. an RJ45 connector an RS11 connector c. a switch can be used to reduce the number of: a. Multistation Access Unit b. carriers b. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b.The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire b. to increase the data rate b. Manchester encoding b. d. Ethernet was invented by: a. Network Interface Code Network Internal Code c.3 CCITT ITU-E c. long messages are divided into "chunks" called: a. all of the above 24. collisions The effect of too many collisions is: a. are more common in token-passing networks IEEE 802. the network slows down MAU stands for: a. all of the above 23. a central bus d. RG-58U coaxial cable 50-ohm coaxial cable . to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress d. it is called: a. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps c. EIA 232 c. the cable carries baseband signals b. all of the above 28. sends incoming packets out to specific ports c. d. nodes d. the cable overheats data is lost c. Multiple Access Unit c. d. none of the above On networks. NIC stands for: a. allow faster bit rates b. 10BaseT cable typically uses: a. packets b. are cheaper c. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. users d. b. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it b. twisted-pair copper wires 27. Network Interface Card b. Xerox Digital Equipment Corporation c. tokens When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission c. multiple access When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time. a collision c. CSMA b.

Novell certified A "thin" client is: a. TCP/IP consists of: a. cable layer transport layer c. Transmission Control Protocol Metropolitan-Area Network Multiple Access Network 13. Transmission Control Process b. Standard Network Access b. c. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to d. d. IP stands for: a.25 b. is faster than X. d. all of the above Broadband LANs: a. ATM stands for: a. A bridge: a. depends on elapsed time since transmission c. d. virtual circuit 15. an application and a process datagrams c. 7 layers 14. store-and-forward b. d. both a and b b. link layer 6. frame layer b. depends on number of "hops" between nodes d. a PC with no disk drives b. does less error checking than X. is essentially forever b. d. basically. switched circuits SNA stands for: a. A virtual circuit is set up by the: a. d. network frame c. all of the above 11. Internet Protocol 12. connectionless protocol non-robust protocol c. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network: a. TCP stands for: a. link layer 8. client-server networks d. is approximately 200 milliseconds c. Multiple-Area Network Packet switching is based on: a. store records securely on a server b.An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. WINDOWS-based d. d. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access d. Transfer Connection Protocol none of the above c. multitasking b. 7 8 . none of the above The software that runs a client-server network must be: a. separates a network into "collision domains" b. none of the above Record locking is used to: a. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks d. d. allows for variable length packets all of the above c. 5 layers b. 5 c. Together. operate at the data-link level d. Standard Network Architecture Systems Network Architecture c. d. error-check layer link layer c. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the: a. Interconnect Protocol Interconnect Procedure WIDE-AREA NETWORKS AND THE INTERNET MAN stands for: a. Frame Relay: a. d. same as a "dumb" terminal all of the above c. Small Network Access The number of layers in ISO OSI is: a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode b. all of the above Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: a. modulate the data onto a carrier b. UNIX-based c. d. physical layer 7. Asynchronous Transmission Mode 10. peer-to-peer networks c.25 9. Bad frames are usually detected by the: a. connection-oriented protocol b. real-time delivery all of the above c. it is faster when used in large networks c. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously c. Internet Process b. d. Asynchronous Transmission Model Automatic Test Mode c. d. d. physical layer b. user b. use coaxial cables c. 3 b. a node that rarely sends data 5. Manchester Access Network b. looks at the address of each packet c. IP is a: a.

Short Message Transport Protocol b. d. a 32-bit binary number b. Domain Numbering System Domain Naming System 8. FSK c. Open Systems Internet none of the above c. M is the: a. Quadrature Amplitude Masking 4. telneting b. none of the above SMTP stands for: a. d. the eye is maximally closed 7. margin of noise b. In the equation I = ktB. amperes per second 5. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure b. too many bits low c. d. amperes b. In the equation C = 2Blog2M. I is measured in: a. the eye is maximally open b. dumb terminals b. QAM stands for: a. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure c. PSK stands for: a. d. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted" c. too many bits high b. User Data Protocol c. d. Pulse-Signal Keying b. Simple Mail Transport Protocol Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure c. Internet Service Procedure none of the above c. Phase-Signal Keying Phase-Shift Keying FTP is used to: a. Domain Name Server b. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by: a. Full-Signal Keying none of the above c. Open Standard Interconnection c. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use: a. Full-Shift Keying b. d. d. high-speed file transfer FTP stands for: a. Open Systems Interconnection b. Internet Service Provider The standard Internet address (or URL) is: a. Hypertext Markup Language b. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when: a. Internet Service Protocol b. a "firewall" b. the use of "spoofing" protocols 29. file transport HTML stands for: a. web page layout all of the above c.UDP stands for: a. OSI stands for: a. A DNS: a. stores all domain addresses d. d. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation b. d. running out of available values all of the above c. Hypertext Transport Protocol HTTP allows the use of: a. has become obsolete on the Internet b. d. AFSK d. a DNS c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network d. four groups of base-ten numbers DNS stands for: a. d. File Test Procedure Fast Transport Packet c. File Transfer Protocol b. the eye is half open the eye alternately opens and closes c. User Datagram Protocol b. a "brick wall" d. FSK stands for: a. d. number of possible states per symbol maximum number of symbols per second c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure d. modulation index 6. d. bits bits per second c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer High-speed Transfer-Mode Language DIGITAL MODULATION & MODEMS 1. Frequency-Shift Keying 2. translates words to numbers c. d. PSK QAM . Domain Name System c. User Data Packet Universal Data Packet HTTP stands for: a. describes the Internet address-naming procedure 28. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level HTML allows: a. Simple Message Transport Protocol ISP stands for: a. d. b. d. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of: a. File Transport Protocol 27. d. browsers none of the above c. Pulse-Shift Keying 3. intermodulation distortion intersymbol interference c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking none of the above c.

TD. angles of 0. a DSR 24. RTS. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are: a. d. the U. d. International Telephony Union The ITU is under the auspices of: a. signal ground is pin: a.Instead of a single bit. random bits The V. In RS-232. noise and interference b. Digital Signal Line c. XON and XOFF b. For QAM. the EIA b. 225. d. MNP5 and V. MNP4. TD. and signal ground TD. a training sequence a random sequence 29. XON/XOFF characters 22. T/4 DQPSK uses: a. 3 d. flow control is done using: a. d. RD. XON and XOFF b. RTS and CTS DSR and DCD c. ISO-232C/D ANSI-232C For QAM. IEEE ANSI 5 7 High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: a. DSR. uneven phase and frequency response c. location of symbols in "symbol space" b. a dibit a Q-bit 20. d. a DTR b. 1 c. MNP3. d. FSK 1200 bps. d. effects of noise on symbols all of the above c. In RS-232. 2T/4. 3 d. RD. data-compression schemes b. and 315 degrees d. RD. a DCE a DTE c. d. angles of 45. Gaussian bits b. and signal ground c.90 standard is issued by: a. and 4T/4 double phase-shift angles c. 1 c. a DSR c. separation of symbols in "symbol space" angles of T/4. data-compression schemes b. and MNP10 are all: a. d. full-duplex. In RS-232. a modem would be: a. TD and RD b. full-duplex. FSK b. 4 bits c. Software flow control uses: a. a "constellation diagram" shows: a. Hardware flow control uses: a. Digital Subscriber Line Double-Speed Loop . 27. full-duplex. b. International Telecommunications Union International Telecommunications Units 25. 1200 bps. 26. 300 bps. b. signal ground is pin: a. 600 bps. +9 volts b. the two dimensions of its symbol space are: a. 180. b. a byte b. error-correction protocols 21. both a and b none of the above c. c. The official name for RS-232C is: a. 90. a personal computer would be: a. d. TD and RD c. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin: a. d. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector. low SNR d. a DCE a DTE 5 7 c. d. a QPSK symbol contains: a.42 bis are both: a. a DTR b. d. +15 volts c.N. TD and RD c. d. EIA-232D 23. all of the above 31. RTS/CTS handshake b. error-correction protocols c. 3T/4. CCITT b. RS-232C b. International Telephony Unit b. d. the ITU the ISO 30. both a and b none of the above c. CTS. and signal ground 28. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector. amplitude and frequency c. 135. and 270 degrees c. the TIA MNP2. FSK c. half-duplex. amplitude and phase angle d. +12 volts d. Data Signal Line b. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel The bits sent to allow equalization are called: a. RTS and CTS DSR and DCD c. DSL stands for: a. I-bits and Q-bits The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: a. FSK ITU is an abbreviation for: a. d. frequency and phase angle b. both a and b none of the above To reduce the need for linearity. d.

the digital data bit rate c. A digital space switch is a: a. d. a direct-conversion receiver b. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement none of the above 14. signal switching b. d. d. HFC stands for: a. d. d. "Processing gain" is another term for: a. use: a. For a given data rate. TDM is used in RF communications d. Spread-spectrum can be done by using: a. cannot be used on an RF channel d. Hybrid Fiber-Coax Hybrid Fiber Control 9.ADSL stands for: a. d. direct-sequence method all of the above c. computerized Strowger switch crosspoint switch TIPLEXING & MULTIPLE-ACCESS TECHNIQUES TDMA stands for: a. spreading gain improved signal-to-noise ratio 16. line switching cross-point switching c. all the signals come from the same source b. timing bit b. crosspoint switching 11. a wideband receiver d. a narrowband receiver c. Analog DSL All DSL a. 24 channels The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. compared to standard RF systems. a DS-1 frame contains a: a. b. every sixth frame every twelfth frame c. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be: a. b. direct-sequence systems. ADSL Lite none of the above c. a wideband receiver d. Carrier Division Multiple Access TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. Hybrid Frequency Control In a CATV system. time switching c. d. d. d. a direct-conversion receiver b. signaling bit framing bit . 256 kbps Besides data bits. a narrowband receiver c. a CDMA receiver 18. every frame every other frame c. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. direct-sequence method all of the above c. the chip size 17. ADSL d. Any DSL scheme c. Time-Division Multiple Access CDMA stands for: a. Code-Division Multiple Access b. divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by: a. the type of media used c. frequency-hopping 13. computer speed c. much less bandwidth b. frequency-hopping A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. a "chip-rate" receiver 19. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be: a. the signals come from different sources c. approximately double the bandwidth 15. multiplexer b. time switching b. Cable Modem Transmission System c. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously c. T-bit In DS-1. the length of the channel d. RF gain b. To calculate processing gain. d. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. 1. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. Tone Division Multiple Access none of the above c. CMTS stands for: a. Asynchronous DSL b. 32 channels 64 channels c. the bandwidth of each signal b.544 Mbps c. CDMA: a. all of the above A DS-1 signal contains: a. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called: a. d. computer-controlled frequency reuse b. they mean the same thing When calculating the maximum number of users. a bit is "stolen" out of each channel: c. d. Head Frequency Control b. 12 channels b. a limiting factor in FDM is: a. The term "chip rate" is used in describing: a. Cable Modem Terminal System Cable Modem Transmission Server 10. d. about the same bandwidth c. Moving signals from one line to another is called: a. the S/N ratio b. space switching c. space switching d. 64 kbps b. TDM switch 12. Time Domain Multiple Access b.536 Mbps 1. bandwidth of original baseband d. much more bandwidth d. Asymmetrical DSL In a CATV system. d. Cable Modem Terminal Server b.

increases with length b. an open-wire-line cable all of the above When analyzing a transmission line. lumped c. a coaxial cable b. Sine Wave Response TDR stands for: a. the resistance per foot of the wire used b. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot d. propagation velocity c. decreases c.For optimal performance. voltage SWR none of the above c. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause: a. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. Compared to a 300-ohm line. increases with frequency c. would not reflect at all 13. transmission line impedances b. A Smith Chart is used to calculate: a. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit: a. NSMISSION LINES SWR stands for: a. stays the same changes periodically c. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable true-random PN sequences none of the above 11. the dielectric constant c. would not reflect at all 15. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit: a. The impedance "looking into" a matched line: a. vacuum SWR 18. the load on a cable should be: a. would be less c. the resistance of a wire: a. the Ohmic effect d. increases c. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: . lower than Z0 b. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on: a. Time-Domain Response Transmission Delay Ratio c. would reflect as a positive pulse b. would reflect as a positive pulse b. cannot be compared c. higher than Z0 The characteristic impedance of a cable: a. the skin effect b. b. would not reflect at all 14. d. would reflect as a negative pulse c. d. CDMA requires the use of: a. standing waves b. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance: a. d. The optimum value for SWR is: a. higher voltage peaks on cable all of the above stays the same there is no loss in a dielectric c. would reflect as a negative pulse c. d. d. increases with voltage none of the above 21. Shorted Wire Region none of the above 12. decreases d. is infinite b. increases b. is zero 19. Time-Domain Reflectometer An example of an unbalanced line is: a. the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power: a. would be more d. d. d. d. distributed d. loss of power to load 17. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. equal to Z0 50 ohms c. as large as possible there is no optimum value The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: a. Shorted Wave Radiation b. the wire resistance b. d. d. d. VSWR stands for: a. there is no such effect As frequency increases. would reflect as a negative pulse c. d. one 16. the loss in a cable's dielectric: a. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: a. ideal elements As frequency increases. zero b. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. b. would be the same b. I2R loss c. variable SWR b. its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: a. orthogonal PN sequences c. is the characteristic impedance 50 ohms c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d. equal reactances b. the inductance per foot all of the above c. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot For best matching. Total Distance of Reflection b. optimum length of a transmission line transmission line losses 20. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse d.

Ground waves are most effective: a. by using a "balun" cannot be connected a. the impedance b. Hertz d. d. none of the above The center of the Smith Chart always represents: a. EIRP stands for: a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power b. b. 300 v 106 meters per second c. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: a. many 12. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power 14. the microprocessor chip c. d. True Electromagnetic none of the above 3 v 106 miles per second 300 v 106 miles per second On a Smith Chart. b. Space waves are: . refraction b. replace a slotted-line d. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere c. above about 20 MHz 16. the characteristic impedance none of the above c. The "attenuation of free space" is due to: a. reflection c. reuse of frequencies b. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna: a. the Effective Internal Reflected Power d. all of the above Which of the following are electromagnetic: a. vertical c. the current d. gamma waves all of the above c. In free space. a flat metallic surface of the right size a flat body of water The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: a. Armstrong c. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power c. assuming it to be zero c. b. the voltage c. at microwave frequencies when using horizontally polarized waves c. a vertically polarized radiator c. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave: a. all of the above IO WAVE PROPAGATION Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: a. Marconi The technology that made cell phones practical was: a. d. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. high power levels c. circular b. light c. radio waves travel at a speed of: a. all of the above 10. a flat dielectric surface of the right size high-power microwave transmitters all of the above Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: a. diffusion d. radio waves b. multiplying it by 2T dividing it by Z0 8. d. d. Hertz d. d. TEM stands for: both a and b none of the above 17. 1 c. below about 2 MHz b. the miniature cell-site d. a flat insulating surface of the right size b. high antennas d. Transverse Electromagnetic Transmitted Electromagnetic c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront d. diffraction 18. vertical c. zero b. one A TDR is commonly used to: a. all of the above 11. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off: a. circular b. d. 13. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable b. horizontal d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront 15. you "normalize" the impedance by: a. a ground-wave antenna none of the above Maxwell Marconi Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: a. 3 v 106 meters per second b. Armstrong c. An antenna has "gain" as compared to: a. Maxwell b. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is: a. 2 d. dividing it by 2T d. d. perpendicular to each other c. find the position of a defect in a cable c. b. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space b. 3 b. b. an isotropic radiator b. directly by using a filter c. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of: a. horizontal d. b. 9.a.

a "funnel" receiver c. Meteor-trail propagation is: a. are same as space waves d. all of the above in the "silent" zone in the "skip" zone 2. d. far from the transmitter 29. a Hertz antenna c. b. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: a. "bounce" off the ionosphere c. d. resonance 7. directivity c. used to send data by radio ANTENNA c. in two directions d. d. close to the transmitter b. slightly longer than a half-wavelength b. the reflected signal d. the power levels are increased b. depends on the number of elements 6. spatial diversity "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: a. in one direction c. a Yagi antenna none of the above 3. highest layer of the atmosphere middle layer of the atmosphere c. c. 0 dB c. fading c. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: a. Effective Radiation Pattern c. the radiated signal c. one wavelength c. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: a. d. multipath distortion cancellation due to reflection A "repeater" is used to: a. d. the radio horizon the reuse of frequencies If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: a. from +90r to ±90r b. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to: a. repeaters c. used for radio telephony b. send a message multiple times over a channel b. active antenna b. c. standing wave pattern around the antenna c.a. multiple receivers b. radio signals reflecting off the ground . high power b. d. the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest: a. a "rake" receiver d. diffraction c. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is: a. 3 dB d. the SWR b. Equivalent Radiation Pattern b. Measured on the ground. radiation resistance of the antenna b. ERP stands for: a. extend the range of a radio communications system d. I2R loss of the antenna 5. d. cancel the effects of fading Cellular phone systems rely on: a. a Marconi antenna b. the cell area is split d. SWR along the feed cable d. selectivity d. infinite 8. fading b. d. lowest layer of the atmosphere the most ionized layer of the atmosphere Sky waves: a. from front to back c. none of the above The troposphere is the: 9. in all directions b. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. 10 dB b. Equivalent Radiated Power Effective Radiated Power 10. diffraction d. also called "ducting" not possible 1. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually: a. a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: a. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the: a. are line-of-sight b. b. between half-power points between the minor side-lobes both cells will handle the call nothing occurs To receive several data streams at once. a "sectoring" process occurs d. b. the number of channels is reduced As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: a. one half-wavelength d. d. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called: a. frequency diversity b. are radio waves used for satellite communications Sky waves cannot be "heard": a. line-of-sight reflected off the ionosphere same as sky waves radio waves used for satellite communications a. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength 4. the cell area is increased c. send a message over multiple channels at the same time c. a "handoff" process occurs c.

edges d. buildings and other structures on the ground fading faulty connection of the feed cable ground b. d. TE 10 TM10 TE 11 TM11 it is the only mode possible it is more efficient c. ferrite "loop-stick" none of the above The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: a. folded dipole 22. mounted horizontally The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: a. gamma rays c. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on: a. infinite An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: a. 100 MHz c. d. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is: a. the number of nodes decreases d. d. of its circular symmetry c. d. d. d. stacked array LPDA stands for: a. with a magnetic field probe The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is: a. a dipole d. driven efficiency decreases none of the above 4. a slotted line c. Faraday Rotation d. helical rotation b. center c. the distance traveled A nonresonant antenna: a. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section d. c. is fixed b. d. TM 01 d. will not transmit b. it is dominant b. phased d. phased b. a shorted stub b. none of the above A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: a. an anechoic chamber c. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because: a. focus b. Antennas are often tested in: a. TE 01 b. b. Log-Periodic Dipole b. a reflector. and one or more directors is called a: a. Log-Periodic Dipole Array Log Power Dipole Array 7. d. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is: a. Low-Power Directed Array c. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: a. an LC network all of the above c. above the microwave range same as the microwave range c. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide: a. below the microwave range b. dispersed c. 5. capacitive b. c. inductive d. TE 01 c. a field-strength meter MICROWAVE DEVICES 1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at: a. dipole b.b. Low-Power Dipole Array b. an EIRP meter b. collimated c. the shape of the waveguide b. a vacuum chamber an RF reflective chamber c. the point of signal injection none of the above As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: a. parasitic all of the above An array with one driven element. horn c. through a hole in the waveguide . b. resistive c. both b and c 8. mounted vertically b. d. d. 10 GHz b. d. an echo chamber b. inside the microwave range 3. will cause SWR on the feed cable all of the above At resonance. the number of lobes increases c. TM 01 6. will not receive 24. The UHF range is: a. Arrays can be: a. depends on the frequency it carries c. a loading coil c. 100 GHz 2. Marconi c. at least one half-wavelength long at least one wavelength long 23. Yagi d. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the: a. the power level of the signal c. the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: a. d. 1 GHz d. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with: a.

a magnetic field d. an E-plane TEE TWT stands for: a. slots b. Transverse-Wave Tube 20. RADAR uses: a. RADAR stands for: a. Transverse Wave Transmission b. A microwave phased array is often made using: a. induced mobility at transmission time YIG stands for: a. with an electric field probe d. gallium arsenide b. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide A "circulator" is a device that: a. decreases with increasing pulse period none of the above c. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the: a. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. isolates frequencies in a waveguide b. antenna none of the above c. TWT c. decreases with increasing pulse duration c. Traveling-Wave Tube Traveling-Wave Transmission c. YIG 22. d. magnetron b. the Doppler effect all of the above c. klystron d. d. impact avalanche and transit time b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium A YIG can be tuned by applying: a. mechanical pressure . The device commonly used in satellite communications is the: a. radio ranging b. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide GaAs stands for: a. YIG 23. is always a tenth of the maximum range none of the above c. separates signals among various ports d. all of the above Striplines and microstrips are used to: a. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar: a. an "exciter" signal Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: a. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar: a. YIG 21. separates signals among various ports d. d. d. continuous transmission 26. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium b. gallium astenite none of the above c.b. d. implied power at transmission terminal none of the above c. their directivity b. couple waveguides to antennas A resonant cavity is a type of: a. d. allows a signal to pass in one direction only c. klystron d. magnetron b. d. couple sections of waveguide b. defect in a waveguide A TEE connector used with waveguides is: a. all of the above b. their insertion loss c. an electric field c. d. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide b. magnetron b. TWT c. an H-plane TEE b. their coupling specification d. d. increases with increasing pulse duration b. pulsed transmission b. a "magic" TEE all of the above c. couple components on a circuit board none of the above c. increases with increasing repetition rate b. d. radio detection and ranging remote detection and ranging An "isolator" is a device that: a. Fresnel lenses all of the above c. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the: a. klystron d. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet none of the above TERRESTRIAL MICROWAVE COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS c. tuned circuit b. d. decreases with increasing repetition rate 27. d. TWT c. radio depth and ranging 25. Yagis 24. gallium assembly IMPATT stands for: a.

attenuation due to weather c. d. less bandwidth is required c. low level of transmitted power TELEVISION . excessive noise jitter The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: a. additional repeaters increase the: a. d. an ERP level that exceeds a given value c. LMDS is: a. FM b. d. Local Microwave Distribution System b. additional repeaters increase the: a. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using: a. Repeaters are used in a microwave system: a. jitter b. Local Multichannel Distribution System d. none of the above In analog microwave systems. c.Another term for a single microwave link is a: a. SSB The typical reliability of a microwave system is: a. baseband type A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: a. reliability c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower b. a very wide microwave beam c. noise level d. d. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System c. QAM all of the above 12. 60% of the highest obstacle height Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: a. Loss Of Signal Too much antenna gain causes: a. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems 18. 90% b. when distance exceeds line-of-sight 15. d. 60% of the Faraday zone c. IF type b. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is: a. all of the above In digital microwave systems. jitter b. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System b. high-gain antennas b. it requires less power b. bidirectional b. multidirectional none of the above c. all of the above LOS stands for: a. accumulation of noise is reduced d. regenerative type all of the above 16. always b. 200 watts b. unidirectional c. d. d. noise level d. LMDS stands for: a. Fading is caused by: a. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System d. skip jump b. hop Microwave systems use: a. multipath reception b. all of the above 17. Loss Of Skip b. above 10 GHz below 10 GHz c. power d. all of the above 14. reliability c. Local Multipoint Distribution System c. Microwave repeaters can be: a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value b. section b. MMDS stands for: a.9% 99. d. a very narrow microwave beam b. diversity c. d. ducting all of the above c. 20 watts d. d. 2 watts c. Low-power Microwave Distribution System 19. none of the above tisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a: a. Line-Of-Sight Line-Of-Signal c. 60% of the Fresnel zone d.99% 13. 99% c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value d. 99. high level of ERP good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio good energy per bit per noise density ratio c.

EIA b. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines 15. in-phase color component. suppressed-carrier AM b. 60 The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: a. much greater c. Red-Green-Blue b. 50 b. maintain horizontal sync b. Nippon Television Systems Commission The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. FM c. detect the presence of a color video signal . much less b. SSB c. 3 : 4 b. The function of the "color burst" is to: a. NTSC units 16. suppressed-carrier AM b. The smallest picture element is called a: a. maintain vertical sync c. white c. a method of demodulating stereo sound 17. FM 19. dot b. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. SSB c. resolution does not apply to color 18. pixel d. luminance signal. In a color TV receiver. vestigial sideband AM d. composite color signal. none of the above The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is: a. 525 : 625 d. 25 c.NTSC stands for: a. quadrature phase color component c. quadrature video color component d. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. 525 c. 1024 b. about the same d. 60 The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. equalize the DC level d. pic c. the horizontal resolution for color is: a. whiter than white b. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is: a. whiter than white 21. all white d. is greater than vertical resolution b. peak white c. composite video signal. lumins The maximum luminance level is called: a. contrast Luminance is measured in: a. foot-candles b. IEEE RGB stands for: a. 30 d. SSB c. in-phase color component. all of the above 14. white c. IRE units d. is less than vertical resolution d. IRE d. black d. 625 : 525 c. Red-Green Burst b. National Television Systems Committee c. Y I Q refers to: a. 1250 The number of NTSC frames sent per second is: a. 4 : 3 Luminance refers to: a. National Television Systems Commission b. is about the same as vertical resolution c. chroma d. 30 d. vestigial sideband AM d. blacker than black 12. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to: a. whiter than white The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of: a. quadrature phase color component b. vestigial sideband AM d. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of: a. FM 20. Red-Green Bandwidth d. blacker than black 13. 25 c. 50 b. in-phase video component. Red-Green Brightness c. FCC c. When measured in lines. raster c. brightness b. 625 d. max white b. Compared to the luminance signal. horizontal resolution: a. black d. National Television Systems Council d. suppressed-carrier AM b.

the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. automatic frequency and phase control LLITE COMMUNICATIONS The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. d. d. backdown b. VSAT stands for: a. b. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called: a. much higher d. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range: a. 5 to 25 watts c. d. the isolation transformer c. 500 to 2500 watts b. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called: a. downlink d. the flyback transformer b.800 km b. regenerate the color sub-carrier c. DBS stands for: a. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line d. A typical VSAT system is configured as a: a. TDMA stands for: a. 357. azimuth and declination d. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal d. TVRO stands for: a. star c. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink b. power-down EIRP drop c. the yoke Compared to a monochrome CRT. 104 watts 8. television distribution master antenna 15. the video transformer d. downlink and uplink The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal AFPC stands for: a. plate The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. On the uplink from a terminal. 101 watts c. separate audio pulse c. 17. backoff 13. "Station-keeping" refers to: a. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth d. about the same c. allowed full picture chroma b. power-level adjustments 10.b. d. orbital adjustments none of the above c. separate audio program b. direct-broadcast system direct-broadcast satellite low-noise amplitude low-noise array c. solar cells b. 35. television repeater only 14.780 km d. transponder-directed multiple antennas b. time-division multiple access transmit delay minimum aperture c. earth station c. azimuth and elevation c. low north angle 12. automatic frequency and picture control d. batteries d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. d. video signal antenna terminal The horizontal output transformer is also called: a.578 km c. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. video satellite b. depends on its orbit 7. 10 watts d. 103 watts 2 b. much lower b. television receive only b. depends on satellite velocity The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called. 3. sync amplitude pulse d. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of: a. is constant b. respectively. c. low power to a small antenna d. a VSAT system uses: a. none of the above c. low power to a large antenna LEO satellites ring . all of the above 9. declination and elevation c. antenna maintenance b. footprint b. very small antenna terminal very small aperture terminal 16. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal c. 50 to 250 watts d. apogee and perigee 6. low-noise amplifier b. television remote origin none of the above c. decibels of signal b. transponders c. d. all of the above SAP stands for: a. LNA stands for: a. perigee and apogee d. d. down-beam signal 11. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of: a.: a. high power to a small antenna c. sync audio pulse b. is zero (freefall) c.

FM c. d. Mobile Telephone Switching Office Mobile Transmission Time-Out c. System Identification Number Signal Intensity Descriptor c. lateral earth orbit longitudinal earth orbit 9. AM c. Digital Communications Code 14. control access to the cell site b. a constellation of satellites c. long elliptic orbit b. Manual Identification Number b. Mobile Switching Center b. Mobile Identification Number NAM stands for: a. d. Mobile Service Cellular MTSO stands for: a. b. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output b. repeater b. CMAC stands for: a. none of the above LEO stands for: a. AM b. recognize that it is "roaming" 13. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: a. Digital Communications Carrier Direct Channel Code c. The CMAC is used to: a. LEO systems require: a. SID stands for: a. set its transmitted power level d. tracking dish antennas d. Sequential Interrupt Demand b. low-earth orbit c. Digital Color Code b. LULAR RADIO AMPS stand for: a. Station Antenna Tower b. less than 600 QW. select the transmit channel for the cell phone 17. mesh d. Service Class Mark b. Control Mobile Attenuation Code b. American Mobile Phone System b. SCM stands for: a. In an AMPS system. d. Emission Strength Number between 1 and 2 watts . Maximum Signal Carrier Minimum Signal Carrier c. Personal Communications Systems RCC stands for: a.b. signal classification (analog or digital) maximum power level of a cell phone 20 GHz and 30 GHz none of the above c. set the access code of the cell phone c. c. recognize an AMPS system c. d. Personal Communications Service b. CDMA 19. d. d. Electronic Serial Number c. SCM identifies the: a. base-station class 11. d. b. Supervisory Audio Tone 15. The SID is used by a cell phone to: a. Station Class Mark 10. Radio Cellular Carrier MSC stands for: a. set the transmit power of the cell phone d. DCC stands for: a. In an AMPS system. Supervisory Access Tone none of the above c. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. ESN stands for: a. Control Mobile Access Code 16. Number Access Module Number Assignment Module 18. identify the type of system (analog or digital) b. FSK CDMA c. Numerical Assignment Mode very high power all of the above c. Advanced Mobile Phone System Advanced Mobile Phone Service Personal Cell phone Service Portable Communications Systems c. Radio Common Carrier b. Maximum In-band Noise Minimum In-band Noise c. d. SAT stands for: a. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: a. Analog Mobile Phone Service PCS stands for: a. Signal Class Mark Serial-Code Mode For real-time communication. d. Regional Cellular Carrier none of the above c. code number of a cell phone b. d. d. Central Mobile Access Control Carrier Mode Attenuation Control c. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. d. voice is sent using: a. FSK b. control-channel signals are sent using: a. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output MIN stands for: a. Numerical Access Mode b. d. c. FM d. Emitted Signal Number d. d. Standard Identification Number 12. d.

0. 4 b. many 7. d. d. 4 watts b. d. increase the number of cells c.5 km Phone traffic is measured in: a. both GSM and TDMA c. no better than in an AMPS phone d. Bell Labs Qualcomm c. d. decrease the ERP CDPD stands for: a. TDMA only b. Coded Digital Packet Data Cellular Digital Pulse Data c. all of the above BSC stands for: a. POTS c. TDMA The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: a. Subscriber ID Module Subscriber ID Method c. d. CDMA b. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is: a. CDMA . voice channels 10. PCS cell sites are: a. d. 3 d. number of users number of blocked calls c. d. Subscriber-Initiated Message 15. IS-95 uses: a. from the mobile to the base Compared to AMPS. from mobile to mobile same as the uplink c. first-generation b. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. CDMA all of the above c. Lucent 8. CDMA technology was invented by: a. as small as possible none of the above c. IMSI stands for: a. 800 MHz c. 12 GHz The "forward" PCS channel is: a. SIM stands for: a. use built into an automobile 16. decrease the number of cells d. In GSM. Intermodulation System Interference c. BSC c. increase the ERP b.b. d. d. smaller 13. traffic channels b. frequency hopping c. North America all of the above c. voice d. air interface The optimum cell-site radius is: a. 2 c. Basic Service Contract Basic Service Code 6. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. erlangs c. 900 MHz d. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. less than in a TDMA phone c. Base Station Controller b. frequency hopping b. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in: a. less than 600 mW. GSM only d. direct-sequence modulation 14. battery life in a GSM phone should be: a. d. MTSO d. second-generation c. RF interface b. In GSM. d. Cellular Digital Packet Data ONAL COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS Current PCS systems are referred to as: a. 1. spread-spectrum none of the above 11. d. no better than a TDMA phone 12. Europe 9. distributed higher-power AMPS was designed for: a.9 GHz b. AMPS uses: a. Asia b. bigger b. Code-Division Packet Data b. d. 2 km b. d. third-generation digital-generation The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: a. calls b. Base Signal Controller c. Short Inbound Message b. GSM is used in: a. AT&T b. greater than in a TDMA phone b. bearer channels talking channels One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: a. from the base to the mobile b. GSM uses: a. Other things being equal. voice channels are called: a. no PCS system c.

ISM band infrared band c.12 802. Basic Service System 11. all of the above 10. require error detection all of the above 7. Two or more connected piconets forms a: a. common b. multinet c. frequency hopping b. the UHF band. frequency hopping 12. allow "roaming" c. Industrial. UHF band 13. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers In a one-way pager system: a. d. all frequencies are used in all cells b. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: a. the VHF band only b. c. TDMA d. an error-detection scheme used for pagers d. d. b. Internet access ING & WIRELESS DATA NETWORKING b. Time-Delayed Duplex 14. d. CSMA/CA c. CDMA all of the above 6. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is: a. VHF band b. all of the above c. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 2 to 8 nodes 2 to 16 nodes c. d. Scientific. ISM band infrared band c. BSS stands for: a. d. Time Delay Difference Total Distance Delay c. micronet b. Time-Division Duplex b.b. UHF band 802. d. 2 to 4 nodes 15. TDMA In CDMA: a.10 c. Bluetooth uses: a. wider roaming area all of the above 9. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. transmitters use relatively high power d. rotating orthogonal c. 2 nodes b. Bluetooth uses the: a. unique The next generation of PCS is expected to have: a. Basic Service Set b. d. the UHF band only c. CDMA b.13 c. require "handoffs" b. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: a. VHF band b. d. TDD stands for: a. CSMA/CD d. and the ISM band ISM stands for: a. CDMA b. an encryption scheme used for pagers b. IEEE Standard Message b. the VHF band. d. Scientific. and Medical c. d. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group c. d. 8. TDD net scatternet POCSAG stands for: a. 10 cm to 100 meters . The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the: a. both the VHF and UHF bands d. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area c. faster data rates b. d. A typical pager system does not: a. 802. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of: a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group 16. and Messaging Industrial. QPSK all of the above c. d. Bluetooth Service System none of the above Pagers use: a. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base d. A Bluetooth "piconet" has: a. IEEE Secure Message CAPCODE is: a. 802.11 d. all of the above IS-136 uses: a. an addressing scheme used for pagers c. all pages are sent from all transmitters b.

d. 1 dB b. d. 1 meter b. cannot penetrate walls b. Infrared Restricted Data Area Infrared Roaming Data Area 8. SC d. chromatic dispersion Scattering causes: a. Avalanche Photodiode b. carry current b. d. amps per watt b. zero-point current d. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about: a. can use reflected infrared beams all of the above SMA all of the above The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: a. responsivity is measured in: a. d. 0. 0. cause crosstalk Single-mode fiber is made from: a. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector: a. greater d. mA per joule Qsec per QW c. to connect a transmitter to an antenna c. 10 cm to 10 meters d. The quantum of light is called: a. c. 4 db per km d. ST c. For a light detector. none of the above A single-mode cable does not suffer from: a.2 db d. can use diffused infrared beams c. d. an erg b. in an explosive environment b. dark current b. plastic Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: a. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about: a. Advanced Photodiode c. 11. dispersion 12. 0. several meters d. In a PIN diode. a photon a phonon Compared to the core.2 db d. less b. 3 dB 10. d.02 dB c. loss b. d. an e-v c. 1 meter c. waveguide dispersion all of the above c. baseline current c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays d. 0. glass b. generate EMI all of the above c. APD stands for: a. E-H current 15. intersymbol interference all of the above IBER OPTIC SYSTEMS The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about: a.4 dB per km . Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays 13.b. doesn't have an index of refraction Fiber-optic cables do not: a. QW per amp c. d. b. 40 dB per km c. 0. Avalanche Photo Detector Advanced Photo Detector c. 10 meters Infrared networks: a. 1 dB b. b. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard d. within 10 feet b. both a and b none of the above 14. R OPTICS several hundred meters several thousand meters. zero loss IRDA stands for: a. d. 3 dB 9. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation c. d. Infrared Data Association b. LASER stands for: a. modal dispersion b.02 dB c. leakage current in the absence of light is called: a. 1 foot 10 feet c. the index of refraction of the cladding must be: a. the same c. Infrared Digital Association The range of an IRDA system is: a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation b.

excess gain b. Synchronous Transmission System 12. Fiber Digital Data Interface b. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface Frequency-Division Data Interface Synchronous Transport System d. Fiber In The Loop b. d. FTTC d. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called: a. type of pulse type of optical network Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called: a. 100 km b. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer Optical Time-Division Relay c. Optical Time-Delay Response b. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation b. Standard Optical Network DWDM stands for: a. 1000 miles c. Optical Timing Delay Requirement gigabit Ethernet all of the above c. Synchronous Optical Network none of the above 15. SONET c. overdrive Typically. Fiber Distributed Data Interface FITL stands for: a. Optical Channel one Optical Cable type 1 In SONET. d. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint b. high-speed Ethernet d. bit stuffing c. type of particle b.FDDI stands for: a. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation c. Fiber Input Timing Loss FTTC stands for: a. OC-1 stands for: a. OTDR stands for: a. d. defect in the glass b. d. obsolete not possible c. Synchronous Transmission Signal . FDDI c. FDDI c. c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation d. Optical Coupler unidirectional c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable d. 100 miles d. SDH b. b. Synchronous Transport Signal c. 10 km In SONET. 13. Frequency Input to The Loop Fiber Input Timing Loop c. repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to: a. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee c. gain margin c. Simple Optical Network b. d. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is: a. STS stands for: a. d. FITL b. Fiber To The Curb SONET stands for: a. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is: a. experimental 14. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing A Soliton is a: a. WDM Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called: a. Optical Carrier level one b. common b. system margin d. bit-synch d. d.