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UPSC PT 2018 (QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION)
UPSC PT 2018: QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION
A/18/1 Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the
Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the opposition” was recognised for the first
time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members,
its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Rajagopalachari parted ways with the Congress in 1957 after being disillusioned by the path
it was taking. He founded the Swatantra Party in 1959.
Statement 2 is correct
The first leader of opposition in Lok Sabha, Ram Subhag Singh in 1969.
As per rules, any party needs to bag at least 10% of the total seats for its leader to claim
the status of the leader of the opposition that is 55.
Source:
https://www.livemint.com/Sundayapp/XlvTGlfJcdJu9mQGZcksTI/C-Rajagopalachari--
Why-Swatantra.html
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/16th-Lok-Sabha-wont-have-leader-of-
opposition/articleshow/37551926.cms
A/18/2 Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit
water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans:D
Explanation
The plants in the desert have hard, thick coatings and some are covered in
prickly spines (thorns) to prevent water loss and to protect them from animals
who might try to chew through them to get to their moisture.
Most desert plants have small leaves, spikes for leaves, or no leaves at all. The smaller or
fewer leaves a plant has, the less water is lost during transpiration since it has less surface
area open to the sun and wind.
A primary function of the leaf’s waxy cuticle is to reduce water loss through
the leaves, which is particularly important in arid deserts with little rainfall or
Mediterranean climates with seasonal rainfall.
Source: http://idahoptv.org/sciencetrek/topics/deserts/facts.cfm
KSG – (DELHI VN) 9717380832, (DELHI RN) 9811293743, (JAIPUR) 8290800441, (BHOPAL)
7509975361, (PATNA) 7463950774, (INDORE) 9893772941, www.ksgindia.com
A/18/3 As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural
Households”, Consider the following statements:
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households
among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60
percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 Percent of agricultural households reported to
have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural
activities.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural
households (78.4 percent) among its rural households. Agricultural activity (cultivation,
livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income
for majority of the agricultural households in all the major States, except Kerala where about
61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have received maximum income
from sources other than agricultural activities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: During the agricultural year July 2012- June 2013, rural India
had an estimated total of 90.2 million agricultural households, which constituted about 57.8
percent of the total estimated rural households of the country during the same period.Uttar
Pradesh, with an estimate of 18.05 million agricultural households, accounted for about 20
percent of all agricultural households in the country. Out of the total estimated
agricultural households in the country, about 45 percent belonged to Other Backward
Classes.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=113796
A/18/4 How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution
Control Board (CPCB)?
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been
created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of
litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of
streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect
Both CPCB and NGT has been constituted by an act of parliament.
Functions of CPCB:
Lay down, modify or annul, in consultation with the State Governments concerned, the
standards for stream or well, and lay down standards for the quality of air; and
Advise the Central Government on any matter concerning prevention and control of water
and air pollution and improvement of the quality of air.
Functions of NGT
As per the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010, the NGT aims to reduce the burden of
litigation on higher courts through “effective and expeditious disposal of cases” relating to
environment, forests and other natural resources
Source:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/topic/national-green-tribunal
http://re.indiaenvironmentportal.org.in/organisation/central-pollution-control-board-0
http://cpcb.nic.in/functions/
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/ngt-national-green-tribunal-delhi-smog-pollution-
swatanter-kumar-inside-the-ngt-as-it-turns-seven-4943859/

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule
of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined
by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the Centre has asserted the right of Parliament to insert any law
on reservation, aiming to give teeth to social equality, in the Ninth Schedule of the
Constitution barring courts from testing its constitutional validity.
Statements 2 is incorrect: "The power to grant absolute immunity at will is not compatible
with the basic structure doctrine and, therefore, after April 24, 1973 the laws included in
the Ninth Schedule would not have absolute immunity. The validity of such laws can be
challenged on the touchstone of basic structure such as reflected in Article 21 read with
Article 14 and Article 19, Article 15 and the principles underlying these Articles."
SOURCE: http://www.legalserviceindia.com/articles/nineth.htm
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/Parliament-can-put-quota-laws-in-9th-
Schedule/articleshow/132123.cms
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/IX-Schedule-laws-open-to-
review/article14705323.ece
A/18/6 Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate”
sometimes seen in news?
(a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments
through debits cards pertaining to that bank.
(b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit
cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his
customers through the bank’s debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting
digital payment by their customers through Points of Sale (Pos) machines
and debit cards.
Ans: C
Explanation
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has given its approval
for introduction of steps for promotion of payments through cards and digital means.
Merchant discount rate or MDR on debit cards is the amount that a merchant has to
pay to its service providers when a consumer swipes her card on the merchant’s point-
of-sales (PoS) terminal. It is also applicable for online transactions and QR-based
transactions.The amount that the merchant pays for every transaction gets distributed
among three stakeholders—the bank that enable the transaction, the vendor that installs the
PoS machine and the card network provider such as Visa or MasterCard. The MDR on credit
cards can range from nil to 2% of the transaction amount.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/Money/qD07t9msbVE0grcEX4V0cO/DeJargoned-
Merchant-Discount-Rate-on-debit-cards.html
A/18/7 What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the

member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-
Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
The NSG is the top club of countries which controls access to technology and guards against
proliferation. Its membership is important for India to access cutting-edge high technology.
NPT is not the essential criteria for joining NSG as in case of France, Brazil and the criteria
mentioned for joining NSG is not mandatory.
Source:-
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/indias-membership-to-nsg-delhi-works-on-beijing-
to-drop-objections-on-nuclear-suppliers-group-club-entry-5132252/
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/Dual-diplomacy-for-Mission-
NSG/article14420489.ece
A/18/8 With references to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online

advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim
a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreements”.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Explanation
Equalisation levy is part of finance act
The Indian government has deliberately introduced the levy as part of the finance bill and not
the Income Tax Act to ensure that the double taxation avoidance agreements that India has
with other countries is not violated. However, because of this, the online firms cannot seek
tax credit in their home country for this tax paid in India and are more likely to push the
Indian companies to foot the bill.
Source
https://www.incometaxindia.gov.in/Communications/Notification/Notification382016.pdf
https://www.livemint.com/Companies/kZUjJGnShlBEds67NV7ZkN/Indias-Google-tax-
may-raise-costs-for-Indian-units-of-globa.html

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review
Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ration of 60% for the
general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central
Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as
compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the
Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any
outstanding liabilities to the latter.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Statement 1 is correct: According to FRBM Review Committee Report the combined debt-
to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought down to 60 per cent by 2023
(comprising of 40 per cent for the Centre and 20% for states) as against the existing 49.4 per
cent, and 21per cent respectively.
In this context, the Union government, which has larger domestic liabilities of 49.23% of
GDP as compared to that of the States (21% of GDP), benefits more due to a negative interest
rate-growth differential. The combined debt dynamics necessitate States to run successively
lower primary and fiscal deficits just to maintain their combined debt to GDP ratio at the
current level.
Statement 3 is correct: As per Clause (3) of Article 293 of the Indian Constitution it is
mandatory for a State to take the Central government’s consent for raising any loan if the
former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. One or two States may indeed reach that
position, endangering this constitutional instrumentality of the Central government. It would
be interesting to see what happens when States cease to have any outstanding liabilities to
the Central government. Recently, the Union Cabinet has permitted State government entities
to directly borrow from bilateral partners for vital infrastructure projects. Incentivising
prudent fiscal management is a welcome initiative.
Source:https://www.indianeconomy.net/splclassroom/recommendations-of-the-nk-singh-
frbm-review-committee/
https://www.livemint.com/Politics/XhpJxHhdc3l80YJjFRPajO/NK-Singh-panel-
recommends-25-fiscal-deficit-target-by-FY.html
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/learning-to-run-twice-as-fast/article18260719.ece

1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production
of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported
edible oils as a special case.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
According to ICRA, India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with
contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted
from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production,
leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement).
India has increased import duties on various edible oils ranging between 60% to even 100%
on some oils like crude palm oil. With prices of oilseeds plunging way below the minimum
support price levels and oilseed crushing industry too facing competition from cheaper
imports, the industry had been demanding restrictions on import of edible oils in the
country.
Source:
//economictimes.indiatimes.com/articleshow/60360710.cms?utm_source=contentofinteres
t&utm_medium=text&utm_campaign=cppst
A/18/11 He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in

America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
Ans: C
Explanation
Lala Lajpat Rai
Gifted with a perceptive mind, he was a prolific writer and authored several works like –
“Unhappy India”, “Young India: An Interpretation”, “History of Arya Samaj”, “England’s Debt
to India” and a series of popular biographies on Mazzini, Garibaldi and Swami Dayanand.
The outbreak of the First World War in 1914 however disrupted his plan for staying in
England for six months and resulted in him moving to America on a self-imposed
exile. It was in America that he strongly raised his voice about the pitiable state of
India and Indians through his revolutionary speeches and books.
Hence the correct Option is C
Source:
https://www.thefamouspeople.com/profiles/lala-lajpat-rai-5307.php
https://pibindia.wordpress.com/2016/08/11/lala-lajpat-rai/

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the
Issuing Authority.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Explanation
Aadhaar is not a proof of citizenship, but a basic identity for a person to avail himself or
herself of various benefits provided by the government,
The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted”
permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the
agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give
the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in the absence of an effective
grievance redressal procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.
Source:
https://scroll.in/article/831939/aadhaar-is-a-legal-right-but-the-government-can-
suspend-a-citizens-number-without-prior-notice
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/aadhaar-is-not-a-proof-of-
citizenship-nilekani/article5617371.ece
A/18/13 Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent

past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: A
Explanation
The disappearance of the Aral Sea may be one of the larger man-made environmental
disasters, but dozens of smaller variants are found around the world. International fame
doesn’t protect water bodies, as widely known ones including the Dead Sea (Israel/Jordan),
the Great Salt Lake (Utah, USA), Lake Chad (West Africa), and Urmia Lake (Iran) are
threatened, along with a myriad of less famous, smaller lakes. To protect these water
resources and the services they provide, it would be helpful to know more about them.
Although other lakes are also shrinking but the question demands immensely
shrunk/dried water bodies and Hence the Answer would be ARAL SEA.
Source
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0960982217300088
A/18/14 “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
Ans: D
Explanation:
The WJP(World Justice Project) Rule of Law Index® measures rule of law adherence in 113
countries and jurisdictions worldwide based on more than 110,000 household and 3,000
expert surveys.
Source:-
https://worldjusticeproject.org/our-work/wjp-rule-law-index/wjp-rule-law-index-
2017%E2%80%932018
A/18/15 Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
(a) Indian Banks’ Association
(b) National Securities Depository Limited
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Ans: C
Explanation
National Financial Switch (NFS) ATM network having 37 members and connecting about
50,000 ATMs was taken over by NPCI from Institute for Development and Research in
Banking Technology (IDRBT) on December 14, 2009. Over the span of few years, NFS ATM
network has grown many folds and is now the leading multilateral ATM network in the
country. As on 31 st August’ 17, there were 941 members that includes 101 Direct, 776 Sub
members, 56 RRBs and 8 WLAOs using NFS network connected to more than 2.37 Lac ATM.
NFS has established a strong and sustainable operational model with in-house capabilities
and today can be compared at par with other major and well-established switch networks.
The operational functions and services are at par with most of the global ATM networks.
Source: https://www.npci.org.in/product-overview/national-financial-switch-product-
overview

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain
in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the
account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk weighted
assets and current liabilities. It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent
commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
Because of the nature of risk under which banks operate, capital regulations require banks
to maintain a minimum level of equity per loans and other assets. This required minimum
is designed for protection, allowing banks to sustain unanticipated losses. The minimum
is also designed to offer depositors confidence in the security of their deposits given the
asymmetric information.
Source:
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/capital-adequacy-ratio
https://www.investopedia.com/ask/answers/042915/why-capital-adequacy-ratio-
important-shareholders.asp
A/18/17 The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ Provides open “Application Programming

Interfaces (APIs)”.
1. It can be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation
An application programming interface (API) is a set of protocols, routines, functions and/or
commands that programmers use to develop software or facilitate interaction between distinct
systems. APIs are available for both desktop and mobile use.
The UIDAI's mandate is to issue every resident a unique identification number linked to the
resident's demographic and biometric information, which they can use to identify themselves
anywhere in India, and to access a host of benefits and service. The UIDAI proposes to provide
online authentication using demographic and biometric data.
Source:
https://www.programmableweb.com/api/aadhaar-uidai-authentication
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24407/application-programming-interface-api
A/18/18 Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either
suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation
caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Ans: D
Explanation
The world faces the largest humanitarian crisis since the UN was founded in 1945 with
more than 20 million people in four countries facing starvation and famine. Stephen O’Brien
told the UN Security Council (UNSC) that “without collective and coordinated global efforts,
people will simply starve to death” and “many more will suffer and die from disease.”He urged
an immediate injection of funds for Yemen, South Sudan, Somalia and northeast Nigeria
plus safe and unimpeded access for humanitarian aid “to avert a catastrophe.”
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Politics/Lr4ADueokbTJrgbJ4GBIlN/UN-says-world-
faces-largest-humanitarian-crisis-since-1945.html
A/18/19 Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was
recommended.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
Explanation:-
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
Some of the main recommendations may be summarized thus:
(1) It declared that the aim of Government's educational policy was the teaching of Western
education. "The education which we desire to see extended in India" wrote Wood in the
despatch, "is that which has for its object the diffusion of the improved arts, science,
philosophy and literature of Europe, in short of European knowledge".
(2) As to the medium of instruction, it declared that for higher education English language
was the most perfect medium of education. It also emphasized the importance of the
vernacular languages, for it was through the medium of the vernacular languages, that
European knowledge could in filter to the masses.
(3) It proposed the setting up of vernacular primary schools in the villages at the lowest
stage, followed by Anglo-Vernacular high schools and an affiliated college at the district
level.
(4) It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage and foster private enterprise in
the field of education. This grants in-aid was conditional on the institutions employing
qualified teachers and maintaining proper standards of teaching.
(5) A Department of Public Instruction under the charge of a Director in each of the five
provinces of the Company's territories was to review the progress of education in the province
and submit an annual report to the Government.
(6)Universities on the model of the London University were proposed for Calcutta,
Bombay and Madras.
Source: Modern India by B L Grover, pg- 259, Charle’s Wood Dispatch
A/18/20 With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary
Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. Conferred by the Constitution or
delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive
within the scope of the such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Ans: B
Explanation
Option B is correct
Committee on Subordinate Legislation Scrutinize and report to the House whether the powers
to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated
by Parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such
delegation.
Rules Committee Consider matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and
recommend any amendments or additions to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business
in Lok Sabha that are considered necessary.
Committee on Government Assurances Scrutinize the assurances, promises, undertakings
etc. given by Ministers from time to time and to report on the extent to which such assurances
etc. have been implemented and to see whether such implementation has taken place within
the minimum time necessary for the purpose.
Business Advisory Committee Recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion
of such Government, Legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the
Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Source:
http://164.100.47.194/Loksabha/Committee/Comm_Introductionnew.pdf#page=3

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment
as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the
minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of
Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required
to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the
National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly
under the State Governments.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans: B
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect while statement 2 is correct
The National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE), as the academic authority notified by
the Central Government, under the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
(RTE), Act 2009, has laid down the minimum educational & professional qualifications
for a person to be eligible for an appointment as a teacher for classes I-VIII, which are
applicable to all schools imparting elementary education, including the schools under the
State Governments and to qualify under a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).
From the mid-1960s to 1993, the number of TEIs in India went up from about 1,200 to about
1,500. After the NCTE was set up, the number of TEIs exploded, to about 16,000 (over 90%
private) by 2011.
Source:
http://righttoeducation.in/norms-appointment-teachers
https://www.livemint.com/Opinion/mMlpr6ApjWOftrA8ktpWRP/The-sordid-tale-of-teacher-
education-in-India.html
A/18/22 Consider the following pairs:

Tradition State
1. Chapchar Kut Festival Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation:-
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Chapchar Kut, the most important traditional festival of the Mizos
was celebrated across Mizoram and Mizo-inhabited areas in the neighbouring states.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using
Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty
British Empire in 1891. It is one of the most popular musical art forms of Manipur inciting
the spirit of patriotism and nationalism among the people at one time.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: A martial form with strong spiritual basis and a strict moral
and ethical code, Thang Ta is meant to protect and defend and is opposed to cruelty and
violence. It is a dance of Manipur.
The correct match is
Tradition State
1. Chapchar Kut Festival Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance Manipur
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-
school/mizoram/article17414538.ece
http://manipurtimes.com/reviving-the-dying-traditional-manipuri-music-khongjom-parva-
padma-shri-awardee-nameirakpam-ibemni/
http://www.thehindu.com/thehindu/yw/2003/05/10/stories/2003051001770200.htm

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of
Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the
charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of
Health and Family Welfare.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Statement 1 is correct:
On 5th August 2011The new Food Safety & Standards Act, Rules and Regulations replaces
the following food laws that were being implemented in the country.
1. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act,1954.
2. The Fruit Products Order,1955.
3. The Meat Food Products Order,1973.
4. The Vegetable Oil Products Order,1947.
5. The Edible Oil Packaging Order,1988.
6. The Solvent Extracted Oil, De oiled Meal, and Edible Flour Order, 1967.
7. The Milk and Milk Products Order,1992 and
8. Any order relating to food issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for
the implementation of FSSAI. the Act establishes an independent statutory Authority –
the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India with head office at Delhi. Food Safety and
Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) and the State Food Safety Authorities shall enforce
various provisions of the Act.
The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
(FSSAI) have already been appointed by Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank
of Secretary to Government of India.
Source: http://www.fssai.gov.in/home/about-us/introduction.html
https://foodsafetyhelpline.com/2013/01/objective-of-food-safety-and-standards-act/
A/18/24 The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context
of the affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Ans: B
Explanation
Two-state solution is seen as the only way to stability, peace, prosperity and development in
the Palestinian region. It aims at confronting the recent US decision to recognize Jerusalem
as the capital of Israel.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/two-state-solution-only-way-to-
end-palestinian-israeli-conflict-sisi/article22461546.ece
A/18/25 With references to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act,
2013, Consider the following statements.
1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only
are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the
head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home
ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months
thereafter.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: B
Explanation
Every person belonging to priority households, identified under sub-section (1) of section
10, shall be entitled to receive five kilograms of foodgrains per person per month at subsidised
prices specified in Schedule I from the State Government under the Targeted Public
Distribution System
Exclusion criteria for priority household
Three or more rooms with all rooms having pucca walls and roof
Households with non-agricultural enterprises registered with the Government
Household with any member as Government employee
Any member of the family earning more than Rs. 10,000 per month
Paying income tax
Paying professional tax
Two/three/four wheeler or fishing boat
The eldest woman who is not less than eighteen years of age, in every eligible household, shall
be head of the household for the purpose of issue of ration cards.
Subject to such schemes as may be framed by the Central Government, every pregnant
woman and lactating mother shall be entitled to meal, free of charge, during pregnancy
and six months after the child birth, through the local anganwadi, so as to meet the
nutritional standards specified in Schedule II; and maternity benefit of not less than rupees
six thousand, in such instalments as may be prescribed by the Central Government
Source:
http://www.nfsa.ap.gov.in/content/nfsaact.jsp#
http://megfcsca.gov.in/nfsa_phh.html
A/18/26 India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and

Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Ans: D
Explanation
Internationally, the initial evolution of GI as intellectual property has been traced to certain
European economies that depended substantially on agricultural goods. In the present day
international regime for GIs, the Trips Agreement is widely considered to be the most
influential treaty for the simple reason that all members of the World Trade Organization
(WTO) are obliged to be a party to it.
In India, the evolution of GI protection can be traced to India’s accession to WTO (and by
extension, the Trips Agreement) as well as to a spate of highly-publicized cases of “biopiracy”,
whereby attempts were made to obtain IPRs on certain traditional Indian
products/knowledge in various international jurisdictions.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/Companies/2IYuwv4skHLWnzyF7aHPcI/Management--
Geographical-indications-territorial-product.html

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal
mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: D
Explanation
in June 2015, several mineral-rich states presented a non-coal mineral auction plan to the
Centre. Showing their readiness, the state governments told the Central government that 100
mines would be auctioned by December 2015. However, until now, the states have been
able to auction only 29 mines.
By states, largest resources in terms of gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44 per cent)
followed by Rajasthan (25 per cent) and Karnataka (21 per cent), West Bengal, and Andhra
Pradesh (3 per cent each), Telangana & Madhya Pradesh (2 per cent each). Remaining very
small quantity of resources of ore are located in Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand, Kerala,
Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. In terms of metal content, Karnataka remained on top followed
by Rajasthan, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, etc. ( India year book)
India’s 96 per cent magnetite resources are located in four states, namely, Karnataka - 7,802
million tonnes (72 per cent) followed by Andhra Pradesh - 1,392 million tonnes (13 per cent),
Rajasthan - 617 million tonnes (6 per cent) and Tamil Nadu - 507 million tonnes (5 per cent).
Assam, Bihar, Goa, Jharkhand, Kerala, Maharashtra, Meghalaya and Nagaland together
account for the remaining 4 per cent resources
Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/business/govt-states-likely-to-auction-54-non-coal-
mines-in-fy18-4853479/
India year book, Under sub-topic Minerals, Ch-19
A/18/28 With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-
enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app
has only two factors of authentication
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Statement 1 is correct: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you
make simple, easy and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can
make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with
the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The BHIM apps has three levels of authentication. For one, the
app binds with a device’s ID and mobile number, second a user needs to sync whichever bank
account (UPI or non-UPI enabled) in order to the conduct transaction. Third, when a user
sets up the app they are asked to create a pin which is needed to log into the app. Further,
the UPI pin, which a user creates with their bank account is needed to go through with the
transaction.
Source: https://www.bhimupi.org.in/what-we-do
http://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/bhim-app-narendra-
modi-upi-online-transaction-safety-4453599/
A/18/29 Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of
Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
Ans: A
Explanation
Places Longitude
Delhi 77.22897
Bengaluru 77.59369
Hyderabad 78.45636
Nagpur 79.08491
Pune 73.85535
Source: http://latitudelongitude.org/in/
A/18/30 International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
(a) Child Labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace
Ans: A
Explanation
The eight fundamental Conventions are:
(1) Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organise Convention, 1948 (No.
87)
(2) Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention, 1949 (No. 98)
(3) Forced Labour Convention, 1930 (No. 29)
(4) Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957 (No. 105)
(5) Minimum Age Convention, 1973 (No. 138)
(6) Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 (No. 182)
(7) Equal Remuneration Convention, 1951 (No. 100)
(8) Discrimination (Employment and Occupation) Convention, 1958 (No. 111)
Source: http://www.ilo.org/global/standards/introduction-to-international-labour-
standards/conventions-and-recommendations/lang--en/index.htm
A/18/31 Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions
relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of
any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of
India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the
Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of
any guarantee by the Government of India.
Ans: C
Explanation
Option C is incorrect
(1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains
only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely:—
(a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
(b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government
of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or
to be undertaken by the Government of India;
(c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of
moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;
(d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
(e) the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
ofIndia or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;
(f) the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account
of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of
a State; or
(g) any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f).
(2) A Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the
imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for
licences or fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition,
abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local
purposes.
Source:
Article 110, Indian constitution
A/18/32 With references to the election of the President of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of
the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
In the college each MP and MLA is allocated a value to determine the vote value of an MLA, it
is calculated on the basis of the population of the state to which the MLA belongs in 1971.
Hence, the value of the vote of a MLA remains the same within his/her state but varies
across different states. For instance, the value of an Uttar Pradesh MLA is 208 while that
of a Sikkim MLA is 7. The sum total of the value of all MLAs’ votes is equal to the value
allocated to votes of all the MPs combined. All the MPs are allocated the same value for
their vote.
Source:
https://www.firstpost.com/politics/presidential-election-2017-heres-a-primer-on-17-july-
polls-which-will-decide-pranab-mukherjees-successor-3646335.html
A/18/33 In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Aditional
Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?
(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear
Suppliers Group (NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of NSG.
Ans: A
Explanation
Option A is correct
An Additional Protocol (AP) to the Safeguards Agreement between the Government of India
and the IAEA for the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities entered
into force on 25 July 2014.
Source:
https://www.iaea.org/newscenter/news/indias-additional-protocol-enters-force
A/18/34 Consider the following countries:

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Ans: C
Explanation
Apart from the ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) between ASEAN member states, the regional
trade bloc has signed several FTAs with some of the major economies in the Asia-Pacific
region. These include the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand FTA (AANZFTA), the ASEAN-China
FTA (ACFTA), the ASEAN-India FTA (AIFTA), the ASEAN-Korea FTA (AKFTA), and the
ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP). The aim of these FTAs is
to encourage and promote businesses of all sizes in ASEAN to trade regionally as well as
internationally without tariff barriers. Businesses with operations in ASEAN can use the FTAs
to gain easy access to new export markets for their products at low costs, and benefit from
simplified export and import procedures.
Source:
https://www.aseanbriefing.com/news/2017/12/07/aseans-free-trade-agreements-an-
overview.html
A/18/35 With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation
The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA), was launched on 23 September
2014 at the UN Climate Summit. GACSA is an independent alliance, governed by its
members through a Strategic Committee and its co-Chairs.
GACSA is a voluntary alliance of partners, dedicated to addressing the challenges facing
food security and agriculture under a changing climate. The Forum will be a dynamic
gathering, where the participants share solutions, discuss challenges, and build partnerships
on climate-smart agriculture.
India is not a member of GACSA
Source:
http://www.fao.org/gacsa/members/members-list/en/
A/18/36 Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the
Government of India?
1. Formation of India's own internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational
corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within
our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of
our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation
Only statement 3 is correct. Statement 1 and 2 are not the Aims of Digital India.
Digital India centred around three key areas: digital infrastructure for all the citizens of
India; emphasis on taking governance to people digitally and providing services online;
and the overall digital empowerment of the people.
Narendra Modi government embarked on an ambitious programme to bridge India's digital
divide, connect thousands of villages to the Internet and create millions of jobs. Digital India
is aimed at transforming the country into a digitally empowered society and a
knowledge economy.
Source:
http://digitalindia.gov.in/content/vision-and-vision-areas
https://www.indiatoday.in/mail-today/story/pm-modi-digital-india-mobile-governance-
326236-2016-05-30

Towns sometimes Country
mentioned in news
1. Aleppo Syria
2. Kirkuk Yemen
3. Mosul Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: B
Explanation
Cities Country
1. Aleppo Syria
2. Kirkuk Iraq
3. Mosul Iraq
4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/A-brief-history-of-the-Aleppo-
battle/article16919595.ece
https://www.livemint.com/Industry/mdZsAgsFbyPWboOmFB681J/Oil-prices-jump-as-
Iraqi-forces-move-towards-Kirkuk-seize-o.html
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/deaths-in-mosul/article23314857.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/mazar-i-sharif-afghanistan-april-
7-2018-afp/article23469762.ece
A/18/38 In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935,
residuary powers were given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Ans: B
Explanation
As regards the extent of Federal and Provincial laws, the Federal Legislature was to have
power to make laws for the whole or any party of British India or for any federate State while
a Provincial Legislature was to make laws for the Province or any part thereof. As regards the
subject matter of Federal and Provincial laws, there were three lists, the Federal Legislative
List, the Provincial Legislative List and the Concurrent Legislative List. The residuary
legislative powers under Government of India Act, 1935 were vested in the Governor-
General.
Source: Modern India by BL Grover, Pg-404

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if
he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate
his/her office immediately.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As per article 179 of the Indian Constitution a member holding office
as Speaker shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per article 179 whenever the Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker
shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly
after the dissolution.
Source: Constitution, article 179
A/18/40 Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between
law and liberty?
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Ans: B
Explanation
So that, however it may be mistaken, the end of law is not to abolish or restrain, but to
preserve and enlarge freedom: for in all the states of created beings capable of laws, where
there is no law, there is no freedom: for liberty is, to be free from restraint and violence
from others; which cannot be, where there is no law: but freedom is not, as we are told, a
liberty for every man to do what he lists.
Source
https://www.marxists.org/reference/subject/politics/locke/ch06.htm

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a
State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be
diminished during his term of office.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As per article 361 clause 2 no criminal proceedings shall be instituted
against the President or the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
Statement 2 is correct: As per article 158 clause 4 the emoluments and allowances of the
Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Source: Constitution of India, articles 361 and 158
A/18/42 The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

(a) Bundi school
(b) Jaipur school
(c) Kangra school
(d) Kishangarh school
Ans: D
Explanation
The Bani Thani painting belongs to the Kishangarh School of Paintings.
Source:https://www.livemint.com/Leisure/ElscsmCCwmd12rVyGwaV2H/Mastani-with-a-
twist.html
A/18/43 What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in
the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) An American anti-missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Ans: C
Explanation
The Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an American anti-ballistic missile,
similar to those deployed in South Korea to protect against a potential North Korean attack.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/pentagon-evaluating-us-west-
coast-missile-defense-sites-officials/article21253983.ece
A/18/44 With reference to cultural history of India, Consider the following the
statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord
Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya Kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord
Venkateshwara.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: B
Explanation
He was an ardent devotee of lord Rama. In his praise and honour he wrote numerous
musical operas, and about twenty four thousand songs, a claim that has been speculated
among music historians
Saint Tyagaraja used a lot of new ragas like Kaikavasi, Nadavarangini, Kalakanti, Kesari,
Jujahuli, Jingla etc, which has not been used by his predecessors like Annamacharya,
Purandara dasa, Ramadas, Kshethranja, and Narayana theertha or his contemporaries like
Muthuswami Deekshitar, Syamasasthri, Gopalakrishna Bharati or Swati Tirunal.
Thyagaraja, should be seen in the context of his predecessors and the influence of his
composer-father Rama Brahmam. Tamil pas urams by Alwars, Thevarams by the Tamil
quartet, composers like Annamacharya, Jayadeva and Oothukkadu Kavi all came before
him. Thus his learning was enriched by masterly compositions and could not help but be
inspired by such works steeped in art.
As the first known composer in Carnatic music, spanning about 96 years from the age of 16,
Annamacharya wrote about 32,000 songs in praise of Lord Venkateswara, the presiding
deity of the Seven Hills of Tirumala.
Source:
https://www.thenewsminute.com/article/remembering-tyagaraja-guardian-saint-carnatic-
music-his-250th-birth-anniversary-55754
http://www.thehansindia.com/posts/index/Commoner/2017-12-13/Annamacharya-The-
poet-saint-of-Tirumala/344956
http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/83938/9/09.chapter%203.pdf
https://blogs.timesofindia.indiatimes.com/tracking-indian-communities/a-tribute-to-the-
countless-greats-before-thyagaraja/
A/18/45 Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
1. Limitation of Powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
Explanation
Features of Rule of law
Hence the correct option is C

Source
https://www.ruleoflaw.org.au/principles/
A/18/46 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal
tender money?
(a) The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray to fee of legal
cases.
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement
of his claims.
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country.
Ans: B
Explanation
Option B is correct.
Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to
extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. The national currency is
legal tender in practically every country. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender
toward repayment of a debt.
A check, or a credit swipe, is therefore not legal tender; it merely represents a means by which
the holder of the check can eventually receive legal tender for the debt.
Source:
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/l/legal-tender.asp
A/18/47* If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

(a) the opportunity cost is Zero.
(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to
the tax-paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to
the Government.
A/18/48 Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of
economic development, if
(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) imports grow faster than exports.
Ans: C
Explanation
There are many barriers and difficulties in the way of economic development of less developed
countries. Development for developing nations is desirable but not achievable due to a lot of
hurdles. These obstacles are grouped into the following five categories:
1. Economic Obstacles
2. Social Obstacles
3. Cultural Obstacles
4. Political Obstacles and
5. Administrative Obstacles
A. ECONOMIC OBSTACLES
Some of the main economic obstacles are given below:
1- Deficiency of Capital and Foreign Exchange
There is scarcity of capital and foreign exchange in Pakistan. Lack of capital and
foreign exchange are a big hurdle in way of economic development. Per capita income is very
low i.e., $ 1095. Low level of per capita income results in low saving and low investment.
Domestic saving is just 9.9 % of GDP in Pakistan; it should be 25 % for rapid economic
development. Foreign exchange reserves of Pakistan are just $ 15.0 billion.
2- Vicious Circle of Poverty
According to Ranger Nurkse, vicious circle of poverty is the greatest obstacle in
way of economic development. In developing countries there is low income that leads to
low saving and low investment. Low level of investment causes low rate of capital formation,
which stops the economic development. Rate of capital formation is just 5%..
Source
http://ahsankhaneco.blogspot.com/2011/12/major-obstacles-in-way-of-economic.html

Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process
which enables
1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the
country.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible wealth.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: C
Explanation
According to the OECD, human capital is defined as:
“the knowledge, skills, competencies and other attributes embodied in individuals or groups
of individuals acquired during their life and used to produce goods, services or ideas in
market circumstances”.

Source
http://www.learncbse.in/human-capital-formation-india-cbse-notes-class-11-indian-
economic-development/
https://www.economicshelp.org/blog/26076/economics/human-capital-definition-and-
importance/
A/18/50 Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in
significant increase in output due to
(a) weak administrative machinery
(b) illiteracy
(c) high population density
(d) high capital-output ratio
Ans: D
Explanation
The rate of economic growth of a country depends upon the rate of capital formation and
capital-output ratio. Capital-output ratio determines the rate at which output grows as a
result of a given volume of capital investment. For example, a capital-output ratio of 4 would
mean, in Indian rupees, that a capital investment of Rs. 4 results in the addition of output
worth Re. 1. Hence, in order to produce a given level of output, smaller capital
investment would be needed if the capital-output ratio is lower than when it is higher.
Source
http://www.yourarticlelibrary.com/economics/determining-factors-and-limitations-of-
capital-output-ratio/38252
A/18/51 After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures
taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Ans: C
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct.
The Santhal rebellion opened a new chapter in the history of Bengal and Bihar. It convicted
the Government of the necessity of adopting prompt measures to bring the Santhali areas
under an effective administrative control. The Santhal insurrection made the East India
Company, then engaged in consolidating its hold on India, realise this fact fully. The Act
XXXVII of 1855 AD formed the Santali areas into a separate non – regulation district,
to be known by the general designation of the Santhal Parganas
Santhal Pargana Tenancy Act enacted in 1876 had been passed following the Santhal
rebellion in 1855 against feudal land tenure systems of the colonial government. The
1876 Act prohibits sale of Adivasi land to non-adivasis in Santhal Pargana region along
Jharkhand’s border with Bengal.
Source
http://www.researchpublish.com/download.php?file=Santhal%20Rebellion-
2299.pdf&act=book
https://scroll.in/article/822586/in-jharkhand-protests-break-out-over-changes-to-land-
tenancy-law-in-adivasi-areas
A/18/52 Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century
was the
(a) increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b) growth in the number on Indian owned factories.
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture.
(d) rapid increase in the urban population.
Ans: C
Explanation
In true sense, therefore, agriculture of India got a commercial orientation during the British
rule. Though markets and trade in agricultural goods existed in quite organized forms
and on a large scale in the pre-British period but the market expansion in the British
period marked a qualitative and quantitative break.
Source
http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/3378/9/09_chapter%205.pdf
A/18/53 If the president of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of
the Constitution in respect of a Particular State, then
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or
under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Ans: B
Explanation: Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to ensure that the government
of every state is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It is
this duty in the performance of which the Centre takes over the government of a state
under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in state. This is popularly
known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional
Emergency’.
Consequences of President’s Rule
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President’s Rule is
imposed in a state:
1. He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the
governor or any other executive authority in the state.
2. He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by
the Parliament.
3. He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional
provisions relating to any body or authority in the state.
Therefore, when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the
state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of
the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of
the state or the advisors appointed by the President.
Further, the President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly. The
Parliament passes the state legislative bills and the state budget.
Source: M Laxmikanth Chapter 16 on Emergency Provisions

Craft Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani saris Karnataka
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: A
Explanation: Of the tribes living in the Niligirs, the Todas are possibly the most unique.
Every aspect of their life — language, clothing, craft, worship, even their homes (half-
barrel huts made of bamboo) — has been practically unchanged for centuries. Part of
the cultural weave of the tribe is the intricate embroidery of their puthukkulli shawls,
accorded the prestigious GI tag. Women are taught the sophisticated craft of shawl
knitting from childhood. In this question, as the rest two other options are
incorrect, hence the only option left is A
Considered a ‘cousin’ of Mithila painting of Madhubani district but perhaps closer to
West Bengal’s Kantha, Sujani embroidery is achain stitch embroidery — of drunken
husbands, women at work, or indictments of social evils such as child marriage and
dowry. It belongs to Bihar and has been accorded GI tag.
Uppada Jamdani saris were once woven exclusively for the royal houses of Pitapuram,
Venkatagiri and Bobbili. Andhra Pradesh has been awarded the GI tag for these saris.
The saris are manually woven in such a way that the design is uniformly visible on both
sides of the cloth. The design also blends with the cloth in a way that it is not felt
separately from the cloth on which it is woven.
The correct match is
Craft Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli Shawls Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery West Bengal
3. Uppada Jambadani saris Andhra Pradesh
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/features/magazine/exquisite-
expensive/article4605547.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/society/bihars-sujani-embroidery-has-a-gi-tag-but-why-
does-no-one-know-about-it/article22917781.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tp-tamilnadu/Uppada-Jamdani-
saris-get-GI-tag/article16569928.ece
A/18/55 In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Explanation
Wireless telephone and data networks use GPS time to keep all of their base stations in perfect
synchronization. This allows mobile handsets to share limited radio spectrum more
efficiently. Major financial institutions use GPS to obtain precise time for setting internal
clocks used to create financial transaction timestamps. Power companies and utilities have
fundamental requirements for time and frequency to enable efficient power transmission and
distribution.
Hence the correct option is D
Source
https://www.gps.gov/applications/timing/
A/18/56 Consider the following statements

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India
Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no
treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Explanation
A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central
Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt
obligation. G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI.
In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities
while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the
State Development Loans (SDLs). G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are
called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.
Treasury bills are discount instruments. Rather than making interest payments, they are
issued at a discount to face value and mature at face value
Source
https://www.thestreet.com/topic/47247/treasury-bills.html
https://m.rbi.org.in/scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=79

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand
years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there
was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of
the Earth.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: C
Explanation
Scientists understand that Earth's magnetic field has flipped its polarity many times
over the millennia. In other words, if you were alive about 800,000 years ago, and facing
what we call north with a magnetic compass in your hand, the needle would point to 'south.'
The early atmosphere was probably mostly carbon dioxide with little or no oxygen. There
were smaller proportions of water vapour, ammonia and methane. As the Earth cooled down,
most of the water vapour condensed and formed the oceans.
Life started to have a major impact on the environment once photosynthetic organisms
evolved. These organisms, blue-green algae (picture of stromatolite, which is the rock formed
by these algae), fed off atmospheric carbon dioxide and converted much of it into marine
sediments consisting of the shells of sea creatures.
Source
http://www.bbc.co.uk/schools/gcsebitesize/science/aqa/earth/earthsatmosphererev3.sht
ml
https://www.nasa.gov/topics/earth/features/2012-poleReversal.html
https://globalchange.umich.edu/globalchange1/current/lectures/Perry_Samson_lectures/
evolution_atm/
A/18/58 The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the
news recently are related to
(a) Exoplanets
(b) Cryptocurrency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Ans: C
Explanation:
Types of cyber attack
Of the cybersecurity attacks, Ransomware attacks have been the most common in the
last few years (Ransomware is a type of software that threatens to publish a person’s
data or block it unless a ransom is paid). Apart from WannaCry and Petya, other
Ransomware attacks that made news globally were Locky, Cerber, Bucbi, SharkRaaS,
CryptXXX and SamSam. The success of each of these inspired new attacks. The ransom
demands also increased — the average mean ransom demand rose from $294 in 2015
to $1077 in 2016, according to Symantec.
Source:http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/for-a-safe-
cyberspace/article21864764.ece
A/18/59 With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of

“Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall
under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: C
Explanation
Conservation Agriculture is a set of soil management practices that minimize the disruption
of the soil's structure, composition and natural biodiversity. Despite high variability in the
types of crops grown and specific management regimes, all forms of conservation agriculture
share three core principles. These include:
o maintenance of permanent or semi-permanent soil cover (using either a previous crop
residue or specifically growing a cover crop for this purpose);
o minimum soil disturbance through tillage (just enough to get the seed into the ground)
;
o regular crop rotations to help combat the various biotic constraints;
Source
http://conservationagriculture.mannlib.cornell.edu/pages/aboutca/whatisca.html
A/18/60 The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the
news in the context of the discussion of
(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale
commercial farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts
of the world that may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near
future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the
mass extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs.
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the
world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which
may caused the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of
food biodiversity.
(d) Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources,
fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems
pollution and global climate change.
Ans: D
Explanation:
The sixth mass extinction of life on Earth is unfolding more quickly than feared, scientists
have warned. More than 30% of animals with a backbone — fish, birds, amphibians, reptiles
and mammals — are declining in both range and population, according to the first
comprehensive analysis of these trends. The main drivers of wildlife decline are habitat loss,
overconsumption, pollution, invasive species, disease, as well as poaching in the case of
tigers, elephants, rhinos and other large animals prized for their body parts.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/earth-facing-sixth-mass-
extinction/article19260792.ece
A/18/61 With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS),
consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in
geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global
coverage by the middle of 2019.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
Ans: A
Explanation:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has undertaken a project for developing an
indigenous regional positioning system for India known as Indian Regional Navigation
Satellite System (IRNSS). IRNSS consists of seven satellites in a constellation, three
satellites in geostationary orbit (GEO) and four satellites in geosynchronous orbit
(GSO). The objective of IRNSS is to provide positioning and navigational services for
India and surrounding region up to 1500 Km, with an absolute position accuracy of
better than 20 metres. India has no such satellite navigation system project to have a
global coverage. Here statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect. Hence
the right option is A.
Source:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=137292
A/18/62 Consider the following phenomena:

1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s
General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Explanation
Einstein’s theory predicts that the path of light will be bent by twice as much as does
Newton’s theory, due to a kind of positive feedback from gravity of other objects.
In April 1931 report to the Prussian Academy of Sciences, Einstein finally adopted a model
of an expanding universe.
According to the theory of general relativity, matter causes space to curve.
Source
https://www.physicsoftheuniverse.com/topics_relativity_general.html
https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/theory-of-relativity
https://phys.org/news/2014-02-einstein-conversion-static-universe.html#jCp
A/18/63 With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed
in India consider the following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the
property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and
hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab
Agricultural University
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation
The GM mustard, was developed by a Delhi University institution, is only the second food
crop which got its clearance from the central regulator.
Since statement 3 is in A,C 7D, So the only correct option can be Option B.
Source
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/indias-biotech-regulator-gives-green-signal-to-
gm-mustard-activists-oppose-the-move/articleshow/58631988.cms

Terms sometimes seen in news Context/Topic
1. Belle II experiment - Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology - Digital/ Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR - Cas9 - Particle physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation
Belle-II experiment in Tsukuba, Japan, today is the experiment designed to study violations
of the Standard Model and dark matter. Belle-II has a significant Indian participation both
on experimental and theoretical sides.
Blockchain technology is generally identified with cryptocurrencies, bitcoins in particular.
CRISPR technology is a simple yet powerful tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to
easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function
SOurce
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/belle-ii-rolls-in-to-collision-
point/article17929411.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/use-of-blockchain-beyond-
cryptocurrencies/article23638320.ece
https://www.livescience.com/58790-crispr-explained.html
A/18/65 Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought
about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
Ans: A
Explanation
The carbon fertilization effect (CFE) is in principle simple: the larger amount of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere that has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the
growth of plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. The effect ought to
increase crop yields – and that is some good news for farmers, amid the overwhelmingly
gloomy forecasts for other aspects of climate change.
Hence the correct option is A.
Source
http://environmentalresearchweb.org/cws/article/news/54347
A/18/66 When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and
tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on
automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather
and also indicated the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take
some groceries form your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the
shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items.
When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers
and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your
car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative
route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office
accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the
following terms best applies to the above scenario?
(a) Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network
Ans: B
Explanation
with the help of sensors we can collect a wide range of data regarding household appliances
usages and execute multiple tasks of IoT for the smart home monitoring system like energy
consumption management, interaction with appliances, detecting emergencies, home
security, remote management of household facilities such as lighting, heating, etc. sensors
can also be implemented in and around a house to warn owners of intruders, or of any
household problems, such as plumbing issues, sewage issues etc.
Source
http://www.attinadsoftware.com/blog/jacob-babu/how-iot-going-change-your-everyday-
life%E2%80%A6
A/18/67 With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following
statements.
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers
used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the solar Energy Corporation
of India
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Explanation
Statement 1 is Incorrect
Statement 2 is Incorrect
Solar tariffs are determined by State electricity Regulatory commissions. The Ministry of New
and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has issued a clarification that calls for procuring power from
small solar and wind projects through feed-in tariffs determined by their respective State
Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs).
Source
https://mercomindia.com/feed-in-tariff-solar-wind/
https://anysilicon.com/taiwan-maintains-largest-share-semiconductor-wafer-fab-capacity/
A/18/68 The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company form
Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were
(a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(c) Copper, silver, and gold, spices and tea
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Ans: D
Explanation
The English developed a system of country trade not unlike that of the Dutch, the profits of
which helped to pay for the annual investment of goods for England. Madras and Gujarat
supplied cotton goods, and Gujarat supplied indigo as well; silk, sugar, cotton and saltpetre
(for gunpowder) came from Bengal, while there was a spice trade along the Malabar
Coast from 1615 on a competitive basis with the Dutch and Portuguese. The British East
India Company established a monopoly on opium cultivation in the Indian province
of Bengal, where they developed a method of growing opium poppies cheaply and abundantly.
Source: https://www.britannica.com/place/India/The-British-1600-1740
https://www.britannica.com/topic/opium-trade
A/18/69 Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran
Satyagraha?
(a) Active all- India participation of lawyers, students and women in the
National Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the
National's Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest of India's National Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial
crops
Ans: C
Explanation
“The Champaran movement is significant because it was the first political action that Gandhi
led in India for a deeply oppressed peasantry in a remote part of the country.” Gandhi’s
subsequent localised movements in Ahmedabad (for mill workers) and Kheda (where he
supported distressed peasants) were, in a sense, the learning and training grounds for the
massive nation-wide protests that he launched from 1919 onwards.
Source
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/remembering-the-first-satyagraha-100-
years-of-champaran/story-myCg143UxOQJYuxlSrAqEJ.html
http://www.dailypioneer.com/sunday-edition/agenda/spirituality/the-significance-of-
champaran.html
A/18/70 Who among the following were the founder of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha"
established in 1948?
(a) B. Krishan Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
(c) C.P. Ramaswamy lyer, K. Kamaraj and Veereslingam Pantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G Mehta
Ans: D
Explanation:
HMS was founded in Calcutta during the trade union conference from 24th to 26th December
1948. The conference was attended by the representatives of Indian Federation of Labour
(IFL, founded in 1941), Hind Mazdoor Panchayat (HMP, founded in mid 1948), unions from
the Forward Block (Party set up by Sh. Subhash Chandra Bose) and leading independent
trade unions at that time. Over 600 trade union leaders participated, representing 427 unions
and a membership of over 600000 workers. There were leaders like Jay Prakash Narayan,
Sibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar and Ms. Maniben Kara who represented the railway unions;
Shri Dalvi and Sh Ramanujam attended on behalf of Post & Telegraph employees; Miners
were represented by Basawan Singh and P.B. Sinha while Textile workers were represented
by R.S. Ruikar, Anthony Pillai and P.S. Chinnadurai. There were also representatives of
Government employees, Teachers, Commercial employees, Port & Docks, Printing & Paper,
Tobacco, Plantations and Sugar. Although HMS as an organisation was new, the men and
women who founded it were veterans of the Indian trade union movement, most of who had
been instrumental in the formation and growth of AITUC earlier. The Founding Conference
elected Com. R.S. Ruikar as the first President, Com. Ashok Mehta as the General Secretary
and Com. G.G. Mehta and V.S. Mathur as Secretaries. Ms. Maniben Kara and Com. T.S.
Ramanujam were elected as Vice-Presidents of HMS and Com. R.A. Khedgikar as the
Treasurer. The members of the Working Committee included veteran leaders like -
Jayaprakash Narayan, V.G. Dalvi, Ms. Aruna Asaf Ali, V.B. Karnik, Dinkar Desai, N.V.
Phadke, M.V. Donde, Rajani Mukherjee, Haren Ghosh, Anthoni Pillai, P.S. Chinnadurai, Peter
Alwares, A.M. Williams, Munshi Ahmed Din, Vinayak Kulkarni, Nibran Ch. Bora and
Basawan Singh.
Source: http://www.hindmazdoorsabha.com/about-hms.php
A/18/71 With reference to the religious practices in India, the "sthanakvasi" sect
belongs to
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism
Ans:B
Explanation
Sthanakavasi, (Sanskrit: “meetinghouse-dweller”) a modern subsect of
the Shvetambara (“White-robed”) sect of Jainism, a religion of India. The group is also
sometimes called the Dhundhia (Sanskrit: “searchers”). The Sthanakavasi, whose name
refers to the subsect’s preference for performing religious duties at a secular place such as a
monks’ meetinghouse (sthanak) rather than at a temple, differs from the Shvetambara sect
in its rejection of image worship and temple ritual.
Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Sthanakavasi
A/18/72 With reference to the Cultural history of India, consider the following
statements:
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at
Fetehpur Sikri
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and
Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
Buland darwaza is made of red and buff sandstone, and decorated by carving and
inlaying of white and black marble.
In Rumi Darwaza the material used for the drawaza is bricks and its then coated with lime,
while the Mughals often used red sand stone. This is why the detailing on the Darwaza is
more intricate, which would be impossible to achieve in stone.
Source
https://www.sid-thewanderer.com/2017/04/rumi-darwaza-history-lucknow.html
https://www.culturalindia.net/monuments/buland-darwaza.html
A/18/73 Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about
diamonds and diamond mines of india?
(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Ans: B
Explanation
Jean- Baptiste Tavernier in September 1638, began a second journey, lasting to 1643,
traveling via Aleppo to Persia, thence to India as far as Agra, and from there to the Kingdom
of Golconda. He visited the court of the Great Mogul—Emperor Shah Jahan—and made his
first trip to the diamond mines.
The earliest trustworthy account of diamond mines, according to Mackenzie, was by
French jeweller, Jean Baptiste Tavernier (1605-1689), who made six journeys to India
to purchase precious stones.
Source:https://ipfs.io/ipfs/QmXoypizjW3WknFiJnKLwHCnL72vedxjQkDDP1mXWo6uco/wi
ki/Jean-Baptiste_Tavernier.html
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-features/tp-youngworld/saga-of-a-
stone/article2267870.ece
A/18/74 With reference to Indian history, Who among the following is a future Buddha,
yet to come to save the world?
(a) Avalokiteshvara (b) Lokesvara
(c) Maitreya (d) Padmapani
Ans: C
Explanation
Maitreya, in Buddhist tradition, the future Buddha, presently a bodhisattva residing in
the Tushita heaven, who will descend to earth to preach anew the dharma (“law”) when
the teachings of Gautama Buddha have completely decayed. Maitreya is the earliest
bodhisattva around whom a cult developed and is mentioned in scriptures from the 3rd
century CE. He was accepted by all schools of Buddhism and is still the only bodhisattva
generally honoured by the Theravada tradition.
Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Maitreya-Buddhism
A/18/75 Which on the following statement does not apply to the system of Subsidiary
Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
(a) To maintain a large standing army at other's expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Ans: C
Explanation
Lord Wellesley's 'Subsidiary Alliance' was designed to meet two objectives, namely, to make
the English the paramount power in India and to exterminate the French influence from
India for good.
In lieu of this guarantee the native ruler had to maintain a force under British command
and pay a subsidy for its maintenance to the Company.
Hence the right answer is Option C.
Source
http://www.preservearticles.com/2011082111231/what-were-the-main-features-of-the-
subsidiary-alliance.html
A/18/76 Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: D
Explanation
Statement 1 and 3 are correct: The Charter Act of 1813 allocated an amount of Rupees one
lakh towards educational development. Thereafter, a debate sparked off between the
advocates of western learning (Occidentalists) and the supporters of oriental learning
(Orientalists), which was finally resolved by Lord T.B. Macaulay's Minute of 1835. This led to
a thorough anglicization of the lower echelons of administration. Two decades later, British
administrators realised the need for establishing centres of higher education to effectively
produce superior native subordinates in the highly skilled areas of medicine, law, engineering
and liberal arts.
Statement 2 is correct: The recommendations of the Charter Act of 1813 were delayed until
1823 when the Governor General in Council appointed a General Committee of Public
Instruction (G.C.P.I.) for the Bengal Presidency to look after the development of education in
India.
The vagueness of the clause 43 of the Charter Act of 1813 intensified the Oriental and
Occidental educational controversy in India. One group was of the Orientalists who wanted
the promotion of Indian education through the medium of Sanskrit, Arabic, and Persian
whereas the other group was of Anglicists who were in favour of developing western education
in India through the medium of English. This fund was kept unspent till 1823 due to the
controversy.
Source:
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=23880
http://shodhganga.inflibnet.ac.in/bitstream/10603/102629/11/11_chapter%203.pdf
A/18/77 Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Ans: A
Explanation
Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in
the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamilnadu, India
Kolleru forms the largest shallow fresh water lake in Asia. Kolleru Lake acts as a natural
reservoir to balance the flow of excess river water from Krishna and Godavari deltas
Nainital Lake is a natural lake of tectonic origin located in the Kumaon Himalaya (between
29°24 N 79°28 E and 29.4°N 79.47°E) at an altitude of 1938 m above sea level.
Renuka Wetland is one of the most attractive natural wetlands of Himachal. The wetland is
situated at an altitude of 660 meters at a distance of about 37 kms. from Nahan in district
Sirmaur Source.
https://tamilnadu-favtourism.blogspot.com/2016/02/kodaikanal-lake-kodai-lake-
kodaikanal.html
http://aptdc.gov.in/special-tours/kolleru_waterlake.html
http://www.thehansindia.com/posts/index/Hans/2014-12-26/Shrinking-Kolleru-
Lake/122936
http://www.moef.nic.in/sites/default/files/nlcp/Lakes/Nainital%20Lake.pdf
http://www.rainwaterharvesting.org/renuka_lake/renuka_lake.htm
A/18/78 With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following
statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills
entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the
country to the National Skill Qualification framework.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Ans: C
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of
Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework
(NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and
Digital Literacy.
Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and certified under
the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the PMKVY Scheme. RPL aims
to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the NSQF.
Source
http://www.skilldevelopment.gov.in/pmkvy.html
A/18/79 Which among the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha"
(a) All India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South India Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society
Ans: A
Explanation:
Gandhi wrested the Home Rule League from Jinnah and renamed it as Swarjya Sabha.
Source: From Bharata to India: The Rape of Chrysee, M. K. Agarwal, pg-424
A/18/80 Which among the following events happened earliest ?

(a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan .
(C) Bankin Chandra Chattopadhayay wrote Anandmath .
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian
Civil Services Examination
Ans: B
Explanation
Arya Samaj, (Sanskrit: “Society of Nobles”) vigorous reform movement of modern Hinduism,
founded in 1875 by Dayananda Sarasvati, whose aim was to reestablish the Vedas, the
earliest Hindu scriptures, as revealed truth. He rejected all later accretions to the Vedas as
degenerate but, in his own interpretation, included much post-Vedic thought.
Dinbandhu Mitra, a Bengali dramatist and an employee of the colonial administration in
India, wrote his first play Nil Darpan (Indigo Mirror, published 1860) under a pseudonym.
Anandamath is a Bengali novel, written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and published in
1882. Set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century, it is
considered one of the most important novels in the history of Bengali and Indian literature.
Satyendranath Tagore, became the first Indian to qualify the ICS in 1863. Satyendranath was
allotted Bombay Presidency Cadre and retired after more than 30 years of service.
Source:
https://www.britannica.com/topic/Arya-Samaj
http://www.oxfordreference.com/view/10.1093/oi/authority.20110803100202199
https://www.auro-ebooks.com/anandamath
https://www.hindustantimes.com/chandigarh/the-men-who-ran-the-raj/story-
S6yQeWGkqIw7xzgRhH5wIO.html
A/18/81 Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining
in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollutions of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation
Over the years, extensive damage has been caused to the ecosystem of these rivers, has
weakened the river beds, led to destruction of natural habitats of organisms living on them,
affected fish breeding and migration, spelled disaster for the conservation of many bird
species, increased salinity of water in the rivers etc.
Sand mining can change the shape and form of rivers, increasing flood risks and the safety
of structures such as bridges. It can negatively impact groundwater quantity and
quality, the primary water source of millions.
Sand acts like a sponge , which helps in recharging the water table; its
progressive depletion in the river is accompanied by declining water tables in the
nearby areas, adversely impacting people’s daily lives and ultimately, their livelihood.
Source
https://www.scribd.com/doc/211435249/IMPACT-OF-RIVER-SAND-MINING-ON-THE-
GROUNDWATER-REGIME-IN-KERALA-AN-OVERVIEW-P-Nandakumaran-T-S-Anitha-
Shyam-Mini-Chandran-V
http://www.nluassam.ac.in/data3/lexterraissue23/Article%202.pdf
https://thewire.in/environment/sand-mining-reforms-west-bengal
A/18/82 With reference to agricultural soils consider the following statements

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water
holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some
agricultural lands.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation
The addition of organic matter to the soil usually increases the water holding capacity
of the soil. This is because the addition of organic matter increases the number of micropores
and macropores in the soil either by “gluing” soil particles together or by creating favourable
living conditions for soil organisms.
Sulfur-containing proteins are degraded into their constituent amino acids by the action of a
variety of soil organisms. The sulfur of the amino acids is converted to hydrogen
sulfide (H2S) by another series of soil microbes. In the presence of oxygen, H2S is converted
to sulfur and then to sulfate by sulfur bacteria. Eventually the sulfate becomes H2S.
Hence we are left with only one option, i.e Option B
Source
http://www.fao.org/docrep/009/a0100e/a0100e08.htm
https://www.britannica.com/science/sulfur-cycle
A/18/83 The Partnership for action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to

assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies,
emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio
de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015
Paris
(d) The word sustainable Development summit 2016, New Delhi
Ans: B
Explanation
Option B is correct
In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held
in Brazil. The conference’s outcome document entitled The Future We Want was a call to
action for governments, business and the UN alike to support countries interested in
transition to a green economy. PAGE was created as the UN’s direct response to this call
of action.
Source:
http://www.un-page.org/about/who-are-we
A/18/84 "3D printing" has application in which of the following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive Industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies
(a) 1,3 and 4 only
(b) 2,3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3,4, and 5
Ans: D
Explanation
The lightweight design of a 3D printer allows it to create a hand in four separate parts,
customized to fit the patient using scans of their body
When General Motors started to build the 2014 Chevrolet Malibu, engineers at the company
used 3D printing to save time required in prototyping the parts for the vehicle.
3D food printers are already available, but you can print a complete and healthy meal in less
than two minutes with only a few ingredients.
Hence we are left with only option, i.e, Option D
Source
https://www.forbes.com/sites/forbestechcouncil/2018/02/06/11-tech-pros-share-their-
favorite-applications-of-3d-printing-technology/#cdb2cb17545a
https://www.forbes.com/sites/amitchowdhry/2013/10/08/what-can-3d-printing-do-here-
are-6-creative-examples/2/#4eea128f703c

1. The barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian
territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar
3. The last time the Barren Island Volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has
remained inactive since then.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
Ans: A
Explanation:
The Barren island volcano is the India’s only active volcano in the Andaman & Nicobar
islands. The Barren Island is about 140 km northeast of Port Blair and is about 3 km
in diameter. It has a big crater, about 0.5 km from the shore.The Barren Island stands
in the midst of a volcanic belt on the edge of the Indian and Burmese tectonic plates. It
is the northern-most active system of the Indonesian volcanic arc. Though forming part
of the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar, it is totally uninhabited. It is accessible
only to the Coast Guard and naval ships which monitor the island on a regular basis for
any eruption. In 1991, it spewed so massively that smoke billowed out for about six
months. Ever since, there have been eruptions every two-three years, the last in
February 2016.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-barren-islandvolcano-erupts-
again/article17369862.ece
http://www.thehindu.com/2005/05/31/stories/2005053102671300.htm
A/18/86 Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides
(d) None of the above
Ans: B
Explanation
The forest department took the decision to remove the Prosopis Juliflora as the plants have
started affecting the growth of the other plants in the forests because the species suck
out huge quantities of water for its growth. During the drought period, the impact used to
be extremely worse.
Source: http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/Forest-department-to-
weed-out-prosopis-juliflora/article14489517.ece

1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. more than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the territories
of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by
tropical rainforests.
Ans: D
Explanation
Most reefs are located between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, in the Pacific Ocean, the
Indian Ocean, the Caribbean Sea, the Red Sea, and the Persian Gulf.
The Indonesian/Philippines archipelago has the world’s greatest concentration of reefs and
the greatest coral diversity. Other area of reef concentration is the Great Barrier Reef of
Australia.
Coral reefs are believed by many to have the highest biodiversity of any ecosystem on the
planet—even more than a tropical rainforest. Occupying less than one percent of the ocean
floor, coral reefs are home to more than twenty-five percent of marine life.
Source
https://coral.org/coral-reefs-101/coral-reef-ecology/geography/
https://coral.org/coral-reefs-101/coral-reef-ecology/coral-reef-biodiversity/
https://coral.aims.gov.au/info/reefs-distribution.jsp
A/18/88 “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The world Meteorological Organization
Ans: C
Explanation:
Momentum for Change is an initiative spearheaded by the UN Climate Change
secretariat (UNFCCC SECRETARIAT) to shine a light on the enormous groundswell of
activities underway across the globe that are moving the world toward a highly resilient,
low-carbon future. Momentum for Change recognizes innovative and transformative
solutions that address both climate change and wider economic, social and
environmental challenges.
Source: https://unfccc.int/climate-action/momentum-for-change
A/18/89 With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India,

consider the following pairs:
Institution Founder
1. Sanskrit collage at Benaras - William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa - Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College - Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans: B
Explanation:
Sanskrit College at Benaras was founded by Jonathan Duncan. Calcutta Madarsa was
founded by Warren Hastings while Fort William College at Calcutta was founded by Lord
Wellesley, then Governor-general of British India (Arthur Wellesley was his younger
brother).
Source: Modern India by BL Grover Chapter 29 (History of the Growth and Development
of Education In India) Page no 257

Regions sometimes Country
mentioned in news
1. Catalonia - Spain
2. Crimea - Hungary
3. Mindanao - Philippines
4. Oromia - Nigeria
Which of the Pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Ans: C
Explanation
Catalonia is an autonomous community of Spain in the north-east end of the Iberian
Peninsula, designated as a nationality by its Statute of Autonomy. It has four provinces:
Barcelona, Girona, Lleida, and Tarragona. The capital and largest city is Barcelona, which is
the second most populated city in Spain.
The Crimean Peninsula is located in the Black Sea Narrowly attached to the Ukrainian
Mainland. It has a strategic eastern boundary which touches eastern Russia.
Mindanao, island, the second largest (after Luzon) in the Philippines, in the southern part of
the archipelago, surrounded by the Bohol, Philippine, Celebes and Sulu seas.
Oromia is located in the horn of Africa, Ethiopia. The landscape varies from rugged mountain
ranges in the center and the north, to flat grassland to the south east.
The Correct Match is
Regions sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Catalonia Spain
2. Crimea Ukraine
3. Mindanao Phillipines
4. Oromia Ehitopia
Source:-
http://www.thehindu.com/news/international/all-you-need-to-know-about-catalonias-
independence-referendum/article18984755.ece
https://www.mapsofworld.com/ukraine/crimea-location-map.html
https://www.britannica.com/place/Mindanao
http://www.africa.upenn.edu/Articles_Gen/Oromo.html
A/18/91 Consider the following events:

1. The First democratically elected communist party government formed in
a State in India
2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State
Bank of India'.
3. Air India was nationalised and become the national carrier.
4. Goa become a part of independent India.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above
events?
(a) 4-1-2-3
(b) 3-2-1-4
(c) 4-2-1-3
(d) 3-1-2-4
Ans: B
Explanation
In 1957, the Communist Party of India (CPI), led by EMS Namboodiripad became one of the
first democratically elected Communist governments in the world, winning elections Kerala.
The State Bank of India was formed by the nationalization of the Imperial Bank of India in
July 1955.
In 1953, when the government nationalised Air India “through the back door”, as Tata
himself put it, it was one of the best airlines in the world.
Unlike the Indian freedom struggle against the British, in which many heroes rose and stood
against the British rule, Goa freedom struggle was overtly brief and it was more of a collective
effort Armed guerrillas, satyagrahis, journalists, film artists and many others and India’s land
of joy got its freedom on December 19, 1961, with the help of Operation Vijay by Indian army.
Source:
https://scroll.in/video/838212/watch-democratic-india-got-its-first-communist-
government-60-years-ago-in-kerala
http://www.thebusinessquiz.com/2014/11/13/indian-banks-the-story-of-state-bank-of-
india/
https://www.indiatimes.com/news/india/on-this-day-in-1961-here-s-how-india-liberated-
goa-from-450-year-old-portuguese-rule-335926.htm
A/18/92 Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal
Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and
appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the
Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of the State Policy in part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in part III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the
Constitution
Ans: C
Explanation
Option c is correct
A nine-judge Constitution bench headed by Chief Justice JS Khehar ruled that "right to
privacy is an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 and entire
Part III of the Constitution".
Source:
https://www.firstpost.com/india/right-to-privacy-is-fundamental-right-reasonable-
restrictions-remain-as-supreme-court-delivers-historic-judgment-3968169.html
A/18/93 Consider the following :

1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economics Affairs has announced the Minimum
support price for which of the above ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Ans: B
Explanation:
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), set up with a view to evolving a
balanced and integrated price structure, is mandated to advise on the price policy (MSP) of
23 crops. These include seven cereal crops (paddy, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi and
barley), five pulse crops (gram, tur, moong, urad and lentil), seven oilseeds (groundnut,
sunflower seed, soyabean, rapeseed—mustard, safflower, niger seed and sesamum), copra
(dried coconut), coon, raw jute and sugarcane fair and remunerative prices (FRP) instead of
MSP.
The Narendra Modi government has decided to include millets in the public distribution
system for which it is procuring these grains at federally fixed minimum support prices,
agriculture minister Radha Mohan Singh said.
Source: India Year Book, Chapter -4, Crop Insurance
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/millets-to-be-procured-at-msp-for-public-
distribution-system-agri-minister/story-cMQiSpeWBubIYTqy9EDVdK.html
A/18/94 In which one of the following states is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
Ans: A
Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
Source: http://www.arunachaltourism.com/pakhui-wildlife-sanctuary.php
A/18/95 With references to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following
statement :
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring
whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellite.
2. Satellite launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the
same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages
using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid
rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with
lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km
altitude.
The remote sensing satellites orbit the earth from pole-to-pole (at about 98 deg orbital-plane
inclination).
GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two
solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.
Source
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-the-difference-between-gslv-and-
pslv/article6742299.ece
https://www.isro.gov.in/launchers/gslv-mk-iii
A/18/96 With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider
the following statement :
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has
steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks
with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
Ans: C
Explanation
Even as the government has progressively stepped up its capital infusion in state-owned
banks throughout the last decade, the lenders have seen their bottomlines take a steady
slide. In the past couple of years, public sector banks incurred combined net losses of over
Rs 19,529 crore, even as the government capital infusion during these two years, at Rs 47,915
crore, was the highest in the last decade, according to data sourced from the finance ministry
and stock exchanges.
Statement 2 is also correct.
The acquisition of subsidiary banks of State Bank is an important step towards strengthening
the banking sector through consolidation of public sector banks. It is in pursuance of the
Indradhanush action plan of the Government and it is expected to strengthen the banking
sector and improve its efficiency and profitability.
Source
http://indianexpress.com/article/business/banking-and-finance/10-year-review-of-psu-
banks-equity-return-bank-profitability-fails-to-keep-pace-with-govt-capital-infusion-
4765680/
A/18/97* Consider the following items :

1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services
Tax)?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
A/18/98 Consider the following statements :

1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest
Rights Act, 2006
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially
decides and declares Habitat Rights for primitive and vulnerable Tribal
Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
Explanation
The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
The state Governments need to make all-out effort to recognize the habitat rights of the PVTGs
and intimate the Ministry of Tribal Affairs on the Steps taken towards recognition of the rights
in the periodic repots submitted by them.
Since 3 is incorrect, we are left with only option, i.e A
Source:
http://fra.org.in/document/Habitat%20Rights__1st%20Newsletter_Subrat%20Kumar%20N
ayak_Vasundhara.pdf
A/18/99 Consider the following:

1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
Explanation
Diseases that attack the leaves of a plant are primarily spread by wind, but they can also
move to nearby plants by taking a ride on splashing water droplets from rain or irrigation.
The pathogen spreading itself by way of its persistent growth or certain structures of the
pathogen carried independently by natural agencies like wind, water, animals, insects, mites,
nematodes, birds etc. are the different methods of indirect transmissions.
Since, option 1,3 and 4 are correct , we are left with only one option, i.e, Option D
Source:
https://www.sciencefriday.com/educational-resources/how-do-diseases-spread-between-
plants/
https://www.indiaagronet.com/indiaagronet/Disease_management/content/transmission_
of_plant_diseases.htm
A/18/100. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production'(NPOP) is operated
under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural
Development.
2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development
Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation
of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: B
Explanation
Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production
(NPOP) since 2001
APEDA shall function as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP. The
responsibilities of APEDA, as a Secretariat, shall include, inter alia, the following: (i) Take
steps for the implementation of the decisions of the NSC, NAB and the Committees
constituted under the NPOP. (ii) Organize and convene all the meetings under NPOP
Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state by implementing organic practices on
around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land.
Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Sikkim-becomes-India%E2%80%99s-first-
organic-state/article13999445.ece
http://apeda.gov.in/apedawebsite/organic/organic_contents/Chapter_2.pdf

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UPSC PT 2018 (QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION)

UPSC PT 2018: QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION

A/18/1 Consider the following statements:

A/18/5 Consider the following statements:

A/18/7 What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the

A/18/8 With references to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online

A/18/9 Consider the following statements:

A/18/10 Consider the following statements:

A/18/11 He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in

A/18/12 Consider the following statements:

A/18/13 Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent

A/18/14 “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following?

A/18/16 Consider the following statements:

A/18/17 The identity platform ‘Aadhaar’ Provides open “Application Programming

A/18/21 Consider the following statements:

A/18/22 Consider the following pairs:

A/18/23 Consider the following statements:

A/18/26 India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and

A/18/27 Consider the following statements:

A/18/28 With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

A/18/34 Consider the following countries:

A/18/37 Consider the following pairs:

A/18/39 Consider the following statements:

A/18/41 Consider the following statements:

A/18/42 The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

Hence the correct option is C

A/18/47* If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

A/18/49 Consider the following statements:

Hence the correct option is C

A/18/54 Consider the following pairs:

A/18/55 In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

A/18/56 Consider the following statements

A/18/57 Consider the following statements:

A/18/59 With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of

A/18/62 Consider the following phenomena:

A/18/64 Consider the following pairs:

A/18/65 Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"

A/18/77 Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

A/18/80 Which among the following events happened earliest ?

A/18/82 With reference to agricultural soils consider the following statements

A/18/83 The Partnership for action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to

A/18/84 "3D printing" has application in which of the following?

A/18/85 Consider the following statements:

A/18/86 Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

A/18/87 Consider the following statements:

A/18/88 “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

A/18/89 With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India,

A/18/90 Consider the following pairs:

A/18/91 Consider the following events:

A/18/93 Consider the following :

A/18/97* Consider the following items :

A/18/98 Consider the following statements :

A/18/99 Consider the following:

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