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You are on page 1of 20

FULL TEST – X

Paper 1

Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u ll y . Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n u t es

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.

Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f

t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS

A. General Instructions

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.

2. This question paper contains Three Parts.

3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.

4. Each part is further divided into Two sections: Section-A & Section-C

5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be

provided for rough work.

6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic

devices, in any form, are not allowed.

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers

on OMR sheet.

2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your

Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.

3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

1. Section-A (01– 07, 19 – 25, 37 - 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or

more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2

marks for wrong answer

Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.

Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns

and 4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).

Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows

designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).

Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and

–1 mark for wrong answer.

2. Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as

numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no

negative marking.

Enrolment No.

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 2

Useful Data

PHYSICS

Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s

Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C

Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg

Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2

Density of water water = 103 kg/m3

Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2

Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1

= 1.987 2 Cal K1 mol1

Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023 1023

Planck’s constant h = 6.625 1034 Js

= 6.625 10–27 ergs

1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb

1 calorie = 4.2 joule

1 amu = 1.66 10–27 kg

1 eV = 1.6 10–19 J

N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,

Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,

Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,

Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56, Pb=82,

U=92.

Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,

F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,

Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,

Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,

Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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3 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

Physics PART – I

SECTION – A

This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for

its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct

k

spring of spring constant k. The system is placed on v0

a horizontal frictionless surface. Now at t =0, the

block 2m is projected horizontally with velocity v 0

towards right. Then

2m

(A) Minimum time when the elongation in spring is maximum is t = .

2 3k

v0

(B) The minimum speed of block of mass 2m is .

3

(C) The maximum elongation in the spring is 2mv 20 / 3k .

(D) The amplitude of oscillation of block of mass 2m with respect the centre of mass frame of the

2mv 20

system is .

27k

2. Gravitational constant G, Bulk modulus B and coefficient of viscosity are used to form a unit of

mass M and length L. Then the correct option(s) is/are

(A) M 3/ 2 (B) M G1/2

(C) L 2 (D) L B 3/2

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 4

3. An object of mass m moving with velocity v, explodes suddenly in two parts of mass ratio 1 : 2. If

the direction of motion of two parts makes an angle 60° with each other after explosion and de

Broglie wavelength of the lighter part is half of the de-Broglie wavelength of the heavier part, then

6v

(A) Speed of the smaller part after explosion is .

7

3v

(B) Speed of the heavier part after explosion is .

2 7

4

(C) Increase in kinetic energy of the system due to explosion is mv 2

7

(D) Ratio of kinetic energy of lighter part to that of heavier part is 4 : 1

horizontal ring of radius R made of insulating material. The

bead can move on the circular track without friction and is

initially at rest. A magnetic field that is cylindrically symmetric

R

about the axis of the ring is present and directed along the

axis. The magnitude of magnetic field at a distance r from the

K m, q

axis and at time t is given as B t , where K is a constant.

r

Then

Kqt

(A) Velocity of the bead at time t is v

2m

Kqt

(B) Velocity of the bead at time t is v

m

(C) Normal force acting on the bead at time t is N = 0

K 2 q2 t 2

(D) Normal force acting on the bead at time t is N

mR

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5 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

are located on the same normal to a wall. The wall recedes

source Receiver

the receiver with a velocity 1 m/s. Velocity of sound in air is

S R vwall = 1 m/s

1000

v= m/s.

3

(A) The wavelength of sound changes by 0.6% after reflection from the wall.

(B) The wavelength of sound changes by 0.3% after reflection from the wall..

(C) The frequency of echo heard by the receiver is 994 Hz.

(D) The beat frequency detected by the receiver is 6 Hz.

6. A stationary Pb206 nucleus emits an -alpha particle with kinetic energy 5.77 MeV. Then

(A) The recoil speed of the daughter nucleus is approximately equal to 3.4 105 m / s .

(B) The total energy released in the decay is approximately equal to 5.88 MeV.

(C) The recoil speed of the daughter nucleus is approximately equal to 6.8 × 105 m/s.

(D) The total energy released is approximately equal to 6.22 MeV.

of capacitance 2F and 4F, a resistor of resistance

R = 10 and an ideal battery of emf 3V. Initially the

switch S was open for a long time and the capacitors

were fully charged. Then after the switch S is closed, 2F S 4F

(A) Heat produced in the circuit after the switch is C C

closed is 12 J.

(B) Energy supplied by the battery after the switch is

closed is 24 J 10

(C) Change in energy stored in the capacitor of capacitance 4 F after the switch is closed

is 16 J

(D) Charge flown through the battery after the switch is closed is 12 C

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 6

Each of 2 tables with 3 Columns and 4 Rows has three questions. Column-1 will be with 4 rows

designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV). Column-2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column-3

will be with 4 rows designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Each question has four options with only ONE correct

Answer questions 8, 9 and 10 by appropriately matching the information given in the three

columns of the following table.

Column-1 shows four situations of standard Young’s double slit arrangement with the screen

placed at a distance D = 1.5 m from the slits S1 and S2. The distance between the slits is d = 1

mm and wavelength (in air) of light source S used in the experiment is = 500 nm. The

maximum fringe intensity on the screen is Im. In column-2 (P) denote the path difference at

point P and in column-3 I(P) denote the intensity at point P. A transparent sheet of thickness t

and refractive index is placed in front of one of the slits in third and fourth cases of column-1

as shown in the figure.

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3

S1 P2

2 Im

(I) S P1 (i) P2 (P) I P2

3 2

S2

D D

S1 P2

(II) d P1 (ii) P1 (Q) I P2 Im cos 2

8 6 12

S S2

D D

S1 P2

Im

S P1 I P2

(III) (iii) P2 (R) 4

D S2 4

μ - 1 t = 5 D

12

S1 P2

S

5d P1

8 11

S2 3Im

(IV) (iv) P2 (S) I(P1 )

6 4

D D

μ-1 t = λ

3

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7 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

5

8. Which of the following option is the only correct representation of a situation in which (P1 )

12

(A) (I) (i) (Q) (B) (II)(ii) (S)

(C) (III) (iii) (P) (D) (IV) (iv) (R)

9. Which of the following option is the only correct representation of a situation in which I(P2) = 0.

(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II)(ii) (S)

(C) (III) (iii) (Q) (D) (IV) (iv) (R)

10. Which of the following option is the only correct representation of a situation in which (P1 ) 0 .

(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II)(ii) (R)

(C) (I) (i) (R) (D) (IV) (iv) (Q)

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 8

Answer questions 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the

three columns of the following table.

An ideal diatomic gas is Bulk modulus of the

compressed such that its Heat is rejected by gas for the process is

(I) (i) (P)

pressure P T 7/2 where T the gas 3P

B .

is temperature of the gas 2

An ideal monatomic gas is Coefficient of volume

compressed such that Heat supplied to the expansion of the gas =

(II) (ii) (Q)

P V 3 /2 where V is gas is zero 1

.

volume of the gas 2T

An ideal diatomic gas

expanded such that its

1 The Bulk modulus of

internal energy U Pressure of gas

(III) (iii) (R) the gas for the process

remains constant

is B = 0.

where is density of the

gas

An ideal monatomic gas Compressibility of the

Its temperature gas for the process

expands such that its

(IV) (iv) versus pressure (S) 5

pressure P V where V

graph is a parabola = .

is the volume of the gas 7P

11. Which of the following option is the only correct representation of the process in

which U = PdV ?

(A) (II) (i) (S) (B) (III) (ii) (R)

(C) (I) (ii) (P) (D) (I) (ii) (S)

12. Which of the following option is the only correct representation in which molar heat capacity of the

gas is negative?

(A) (II) (iii) (P) (B) (II) (i) (P)

(C) (IV) (iii) (Q) (D) (I) (ii) (R)

13. Which of the following options is the correct combination in which U = Q PV?

(A) (IV) (iii) (Q) (B) (I) (ii) (Q)

(C) (III) (iii) (R) (D) (I) (i) (Q)

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9 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

SECTION – C

(One Integer Value Correct Type)

This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9

(both inclusive).

A

22

for the given circuit equals

n

volts find the value of n. All the 1 1 1 1 1 1

1 1 1 1

cells are ideal, and emf of each cell

is 1 Volt. B

1V 1V 1V 1V

and a movable slab of thickness d and dielectric constant k

placed between then. The slab can freely rotate about the axis

O and practically fills the entire gap between the fixed plate. A

constant voltage V is maintained between the plates. If the O

torque acting on the dielectric slab when the slab is displaced to

an angle as shown in the figure, due to electrostatic force is

k 1 0R2 V 2

find the value of n.

nd

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 10

mass of mB 45kg. They are placed on a rotating

horizontal surface and are connected to a massless

string passing through a frictionless pulley as shown A

B

in the figure. The horizontal surface is rotating about

a = 30 cm

a vertical axis with uniform angular velocity as

shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction

between the blocks and the surface is = 0.25. If b = 40 cm

the value of angular speed of the surface at which

10

the blocks will start sliding on the surface is

n

rad/sec, find the value of n. (given g = 10 m/s2)

25

17. A rod of mass m and length L m is hinged in a plank of

6

same mass m. The plank is kept on a smooth horizontal

surface and rod makes angle with the vertical. The system

is released from rest from = 0°. The velocity (in m/s) of the

plank when the angle = 180° is (Take g = 10 m/s2).

18. The nuclei of a radioactive element A decay into nuclei of radioactive element B with decay

constant . The nuclei of B further decay into stable nuclei of an element with decay constant 2.

At t = 0 the number of nuclei of A was N0 = 2×1021 and that of B was zero, if the number of nuclei

of B when its activity is maximum is p 1020 then find the value of p

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11 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for

its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct

19. p-Toluidine reacts with benzenediazonium chloride to form a compound, which on boiling with

H2SO4, gives product/s:

(A) (B) OH

H2N Me

(C) (D)

NH2 HO Me

20. Which of the following cation/s do/does not give coloured bead in borax bead test?

(A) Cu+2 (B) Co+3

+2

(C) Cd (D) Al+3

(A) Cross linkage polymer. (B) Condensation polymer.

(C) Thermosetting polymer. (D) Addition polymer.

22. Which of the following species is/are planar and non-polar with lone pair/s, of electrons on the

central atom?

(A) ClF3 (B) XeF5

(C) PCl5 (D) BrF5

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 12

(A) Complex Na2[Fe(CN)5NO].2H2O is formed during brown ring test for nitrate.

(B) The oxidation number of Fe in the above given complex is +3.

(C) Complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]+2 is brown in colour.

(D) Oxidation number of Fe in sodium nitroprusside complex is +1.

24. Which of the following statement is/are not correct regarding CuSO4?

(A) It reacts with KI to give iodine.

(B) It reacts with KCl to give Cu2Cl2.

(C) It reacts with NaOH and glucose to give Cu2O.

(D) It gives CuO on strong heating in air.

(A) OH Cl

and

can be differented by victor Mayer's test.

Cl HO

(B) Monomer of orlon is acrylonitrile.

(C) Aspartane is a dipeptide of L-aspartic acid and L-phenylalanine.

(D) D-Glucose, D-Fructose and L-Mannose give same osazone with Ph – NH – NH2.

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13 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

Each of 2 tables with 3 Columns and 4 Rows has three questions. Column-1 will be with 4 rows

designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV). Column-2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column-3

will be with 4 rows designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Each question has four options with only ONE correct

Answer questions 26, 27 and 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the

three columns of the following table.

(I) Smelting (i) Copper glance (P) Cu2S

(II) Self reduction (ii) Malachite (Q) Fe2O3

(III) Electrolytic (iii) Haematite (R) Al2O3.2H2O

reduction

(IV) Hydrometallurgy (iv) Bauxite (S) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2

(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II)(i) (P)

(C) (III) (i) (S) (D) (IV) (i) (P)

(A) (I) (ii) (R) (B) (IV) (ii) (P)

(C) (IV) (ii) (S) (D) (III) (ii) (S)

(A) (II) (iii) (Q) (B) (III) (iii) (R)

(C) (III) (iii) (Q) (D) (I) (iii) (Q)

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 14

Answer questions 29, 30 and 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the

three columns of the following table.

(I) 1s orbital (i) (P)

R

2 4 R 2 r

r

r

R

2

4 R2r

r

r

2

R 4 R2r

r

r

2

R 4 R 2 r

r r

(A) (II) (ii) (R) (B) (II)(iii) (R)

(C) (II) (iii) (P) (D) (II) (iv) (S)

(A) (III) (iii) (P) (B) (III) (iv) (Q)

(C) (III) (i) (S) (D) (III) (i) (Q)

(A) (IV) (iii) (S) (B) (IV) (iv) (S)

(C) (IV) (ii) (Q) (D) (IV) (iii) (Q)

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15 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

SECTION – C

(One Integer Value Correct Type)

This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9

(both inclusive).

A = Number of black precipitates

B = Number of sulphides which is/are soluble in HCl.

C = Number of sulphides which is/are soluble in CH3COOH

D = Number of sulphides which is/are soluble in conc. HNO3

What will be the value of A + B + C + D?

B gas

PhOH NaNH2

CH3 OH NaH C gas

CH3 SH EtLi D gas

PhSO3H Na E gas

If the molecular weight of A, B, C, D, E is x, y, z, w, v. then find the value of (y + z + w + v) – x.

(i) P (red) (ii) H4P2O5 (iii) H4P2O7 (iv) PO3 (v) PO3 (vi) P4 O10

3 2

(i) All adiabatic process must be fast.

(ii) All reversible process must be slow.

(iii) For adiabatic process, dq = 0.

(iv) If q = 0, process must be adiabatic.

(v) Absolute value of internal energy can not be determined.

(vi) H = E + PV is applicable only for ideal gases.

(vii) Hof D2 g 0, at 298 K.

(viii) Gof H aq 0, at 298 K.

(ix) Expansion of an ideal gas not always represent an increase in entropy of system.

36. How many isomeric dienes with a six membered ring are possible of the compound with the

molecular formula C7H10, while two consecutive double bonds are not possible in six membered

ring.

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 16

SECTION – A

This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for

its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct

/2

2017

37. The integral 2cot x dx is equal to

/4

1008

2

(A) 2 2

t 2017

dt (B) 2

2 2

t 2

4 dt

t

0 t 4 2

8 1007

n 1 2 2017

22012 t 4 et e t

(C) 4 dt (D) 2 t t

dt

63 4

t 0 e e

1 1 1

38. Sum of series 3 3 3

3 3 3

3

..... to 2196 terms is

1 2 4 4 6 9 9 12 3 16

3

(C) less than 13 (D) 3 2196 1

39. Let A = tan–1(cot 65º + 2 tan 40º); B cos1 3 sin80º 2 sin50º then

(A) cos(2B – A) > 0 (B) cot(A + B) > –1

(C) sin(2A + 3B) > 0 (D) tan(2A – B) > 1

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17 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

40. Let f be a twice differentiable function on (0, ) such that f(x) > 0, f(x) > 0 and f(x) > 0 x > 0. If

f x f x 1

lim 2

then

x

f x 3

f x 2

(A) lim f x (B) lim

x x xf x 3

xf x 3 f x f x

(C) lim (D) lim 1

x f x 2 x

f x

2

41. The tangent to the circle x 2 + y2 = 4 at a point P intersect the parabola y2 = 4x at points Q and R.

Tangents to the parabola at Q and R intersect at S. If Q lies in the first quadrant such that PQ = 1

unit, then

35

(A) PR = 8 units (B) SR units

4

7 343

(C) SQ units (D) area of SQR = sq. units

2 16

42. Let a , b and c be three non-coplanar vectors and d be a non-zero vector perpendicular to

a b c . Now d a b sin x b c cos y 2 c a , then

d a c d a c

(A) 2 (B) 2

a b c a b c

2 5 2

(C) minimum value of x2 + y2 = (D) minimum value of x2 + y2 =

4 4

43. If the two curves y = ax 3 – 6ax2 + (12a + 12)x – (8a + 16) where a R and y = x3 touches each

other at some point, then possible value of ‘a’ are

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 3 2 3 3 (D) e

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 18

Each of 2 tables with 3 Columns and 4 Rows has three questions. Column-1 will be with 4 rows

designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV). Column-2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column-3

will be with 4 rows designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Each question has four options with only ONE correct

Answer questions 44, 45 and 46 by appropriately matching the information given in the

three columns of the following table.

Let S = {A: A = [aij]2 2, aij {0, 1, 2}}, column-1 and column-2 contain some conditions satisfied by a

matrix A S. Each entry in column-3 is the number of matrices A in S that satisfy one condition from

column-I and one condition from column-II

T

(I) A = A (i) |A| = 0 (P) 5

T

(II) A = –A (ii) |A| 0 (Q) 8

(III) A2 = I (iii) Tr(A) = 0 (R) 17

(IV) AAT = I (iv) Tr(A) 0 (S) 20

Where AT, |A| and Tr(A) denote the transpose of A, the determinant of A and the trace of A respectively

(A) (I) (ii) (R) (B) (II) (iv) (Q)

(C) (III) (iii) (S) (D) (IV) (iii) (P)

(A) (III) (i) (R) (B) (I) (iii) (S)

(C) (II) (ii) (P) (D) (IV) (ii) (Q)

(A) (II) (iii) (Q) (B) (IV) (iv) (P)

(C) (III) (iv) (P) (D) (I) (i) (R)

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942

website: www.fiitjee.com

19 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

Answer questions 47, 48 and 49 by appropriately matching the information given in the

three columns of the following table.

x a x 0 x 1 x0

Let f x , g x 2 . Where a and b are non negative real numbers

x 1 x 0 x 1 b x 0

Column-1 contains information about g(f(x)). Column-2 contains information about interval of g(f(x)).

Column-3 contains information about continuity and differentiability of g(f(x)) in R match the following

Column(s)

(I) g(f(x)) = x + a + 1 (i) x 1 (P) g(f(x)) is continuous for all x then a = 1, b = 1

(II) g(f(x)) = x2 + b (ii) x < –a (Q) g(f(x)) is continuous for all x then a = 1, b = 0

(III) g(f(x)) = (x + a – 1)2 + b (iii) –a x < 0 (R) g(f(x)) is differentiable at x = 1 for a = 1, b = 0

(IV) g(f(x)) = (x – 2)2 + b (iv) 0 x < 1 (S) g(f(x)) is non-differentiable at x = –1 for a = 1, b = 0

(A) (I) (ii) (Q) (B) (II) (i) (P)

(C) (III) (iv) (R) (D) (IV) (iii) (S)

(A) (I) (ii) (P) (B) (II) (ii) (R)

(C) (III) (iii) (Q) (D) (IV) (iv) (S)

(A) (III) (iii) (R) (B) (II) (ii) (Q)

(C) (III) (ii) (P) (D) (IV) (i) (S)

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942

website: www.fiitjee.com

AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 20

SECTION – C

(One Integer Value Correct Type)

This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9

(both inclusive).

50. Consider a parabola 4y = x2 and point B(0, 1). Let A1(x1, y1), A2(x2, y2), ..... An(xn, yn) are n points

r 1 n

on the parabola such that x r > 0 and OBAr (r = 1, 2, 3, ....., n) then lim BA r is

2n x n

r 1

equal to _____

51. Let N be the number of function f: A A where A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, such that f({1, 2, 3}) and

f(f({1, 2, 3})) are disjoint. Let M be the sum of all the prime factor of N, then the value of M is

equal to _____

52.

The number of solutions of log x 2018 1 log 1 x ..... x2016 log4034 2017log x , is _____

dx

1 4xy x

2 2

is k(x2y)2 + y3 – x3 = c, then

k is equal to _____

54. ABC is an equilateral triangle with circumcentre (1, 2) and vertex A lying on the line 5x + 2y = 4.

A circle with centre I(2, 0) passes through the vertices B and C and intersects the sides AC and

AB at D and E respectively. If area of quadrilateral BCDE is , then find the value of is

10 3

_____

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942

website: www.fiitjee.com

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