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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2018

FULL TEST – X

Paper 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183


 Pl ea s e r ea d t h e i n s t r u c t i o n s c a r ef u ll y . Yo u a r e a l l o t t ed 5 m i n u t es
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES

s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
 Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into Two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
1. Section-A (01– 07, 19 – 25, 37 - 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2
marks for wrong answer
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.

Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns
and 4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and
–1 mark for wrong answer.

2. Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.

Name of the Candidate

Enrolment No.

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Useful Data

PHYSICS

Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2


Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6  1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1  1031 kg
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2/N-m2
Density of water water = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1

CHEMISTRY

Gas Constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1


= 0.0821 Lit atm K1 mol1
= 1.987  2 Cal K1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s constant h = 6.625  1034 Js
= 6.625  10–27 ergs
1 Faraday = 96500 coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 amu = 1.66  10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J

Atomic No: H=1, He = 2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8,


N=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Si=14, Al=13, P=15, S=16,
Cl=17, Ar=18, K =19, Ca=20, Cr=24, Mn=25,
Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu = 29, Zn=30, As=33,
Br=35, Ag=47, Sn=50, I=53, Xe=54, Ba=56, Pb=82,
U=92.

Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.

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Physics PART – I

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type


This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct

1. Two blocks of mass m and 2m are connected by a m 2m


k
spring of spring constant k. The system is placed on v0
a horizontal frictionless surface. Now at t =0, the
block 2m is projected horizontally with velocity v 0
towards right. Then
 2m
(A) Minimum time when the elongation in spring is maximum is t = .
2 3k
v0
(B) The minimum speed of block of mass 2m is .
3
(C) The maximum elongation in the spring is 2mv 20 / 3k .
(D) The amplitude of oscillation of block of mass 2m with respect the centre of mass frame of the
2mv 20
system is .
27k

2. Gravitational constant G, Bulk modulus B and coefficient of viscosity  are used to form a unit of
mass M and length L. Then the correct option(s) is/are
(A) M  3/ 2 (B) M  G1/2
(C) L  2 (D) L  B 3/2

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3. An object of mass m moving with velocity v, explodes suddenly in two parts of mass ratio 1 : 2. If
the direction of motion of two parts makes an angle 60° with each other after explosion and de
Broglie wavelength of the lighter part is half of the de-Broglie wavelength of the heavier part, then
6v
(A) Speed of the smaller part after explosion is .
7
3v
(B) Speed of the heavier part after explosion is .
2 7
4
(C) Increase in kinetic energy of the system due to explosion is mv 2
7
(D) Ratio of kinetic energy of lighter part to that of heavier part is 4 : 1

4. A small bead of mass m and charge q is threaded on a thin


horizontal ring of radius R made of insulating material. The
bead can move on the circular track without friction and is
initially at rest. A magnetic field that is cylindrically symmetric
R
about the axis of the ring is present and directed along the
axis. The magnitude of magnetic field at a distance r from the
K m, q
axis and at time t is given as B  t , where K is a constant.
r
Then
Kqt
(A) Velocity of the bead at time t is v 
2m
Kqt
(B) Velocity of the bead at time t is v 
m
(C) Normal force acting on the bead at time t is N = 0
K 2 q2 t 2
(D) Normal force acting on the bead at time t is N 
mR

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5. A source of sound of frequency f = 1000 Hz and a receiver wall


are located on the same normal to a wall. The wall recedes
source Receiver
the receiver with a velocity 1 m/s. Velocity of sound in air is
S R vwall = 1 m/s
1000
v= m/s.
3
(A) The wavelength of sound changes by 0.6% after reflection from the wall.
(B) The wavelength of sound changes by 0.3% after reflection from the wall..
(C) The frequency of echo heard by the receiver is 994 Hz.
(D) The beat frequency detected by the receiver is 6 Hz.

6. A stationary Pb206 nucleus emits an -alpha particle with kinetic energy 5.77 MeV. Then
(A) The recoil speed of the daughter nucleus is approximately equal to 3.4  105 m / s .
(B) The total energy released in the decay is approximately equal to 5.88 MeV.
(C) The recoil speed of the daughter nucleus is approximately equal to 6.8 × 105 m/s.
(D) The total energy released is approximately equal to 6.22 MeV.

7. The circuit shown in figure consists of two capacitors 3V


of capacitance 2F and 4F, a resistor of resistance
R = 10  and an ideal battery of emf 3V. Initially the
switch S was open for a long time and the capacitors
were fully charged. Then after the switch S is closed, 2F S 4F
(A) Heat produced in the circuit after the switch is C C
closed is 12 J.
(B) Energy supplied by the battery after the switch is
closed is 24 J 10
(C) Change in energy stored in the capacitor of capacitance 4 F after the switch is closed
is 16 J
(D) Charge flown through the battery after the switch is closed is 12 C

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Matrix Match Types


Each of 2 tables with 3 Columns and 4 Rows has three questions. Column-1 will be with 4 rows
designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV). Column-2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column-3
will be with 4 rows designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Each question has four options with only ONE correct
Answer questions 8, 9 and 10 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Column-1 shows four situations of standard Young’s double slit arrangement with the screen
placed at a distance D = 1.5 m from the slits S1 and S2. The distance between the slits is d = 1
mm and wavelength (in air) of light source S used in the experiment is  = 500 nm. The
maximum fringe intensity on the screen is Im. In column-2 (P) denote the path difference at
point P and in column-3 I(P) denote the intensity at point P. A transparent sheet of thickness t
and refractive index  is placed in front of one of the slits in third and fourth cases of column-1
as shown in the figure.
Column 1 Column 2 Column 3

S1 P2
2 Im
(I) S P1 (i)  P2   (P) I  P2  
3 2
S2

D D

S1 P2

 
(II) d P1 (ii)  P1   (Q) I  P2   Im cos 2
8 6 12
S S2

D D

S1 P2
Im
S P1  I  P2  
(III) (iii)   P2   (R) 4
D S2 4

μ - 1 t = 5 D
12

S1 P2
S
5d P1
8 11
S2 3Im
(IV) (iv)  P2   (S) I(P1 ) 
6 4
D D

μ-1 t = λ
3

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5
8. Which of the following option is the only correct representation of a situation in which (P1 ) 
12
(A) (I) (i) (Q) (B) (II)(ii) (S)
(C) (III) (iii) (P) (D) (IV) (iv) (R)

9. Which of the following option is the only correct representation of a situation in which I(P2) = 0.
(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II)(ii) (S)
(C) (III) (iii) (Q) (D) (IV) (iv) (R)

10. Which of the following option is the only correct representation of a situation in which (P1 )  0 .
(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II)(ii) (R)
(C) (I) (i) (R) (D) (IV) (iv) (Q)

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Answer questions 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3


An ideal diatomic gas is Bulk modulus of the
compressed such that its Heat is rejected by gas for the process is
(I) (i) (P)
pressure P  T 7/2 where T the gas 3P
B .
is temperature of the gas 2
An ideal monatomic gas is Coefficient of volume
compressed such that Heat supplied to the expansion of the gas =
(II) (ii) (Q)
P  V 3 /2 where V is gas is zero 1
.
volume of the gas 2T
An ideal diatomic gas
expanded such that its
1 The Bulk modulus of
internal energy U Pressure of gas
(III) (iii) (R) the gas for the process
 remains constant
is B = 0.
where  is density of the
gas
An ideal monatomic gas Compressibility of the
Its temperature gas for the process
expands such that its
(IV) (iv) versus pressure (S) 5
pressure P  V where V
graph is a parabola = .
is the volume of the gas 7P

11. Which of the following option is the only correct representation of the process in
which U =   PdV ?
(A) (II) (i) (S) (B) (III) (ii) (R)
(C) (I) (ii) (P) (D) (I) (ii) (S)

12. Which of the following option is the only correct representation in which molar heat capacity of the
gas is negative?
(A) (II) (iii) (P) (B) (II) (i) (P)
(C) (IV) (iii) (Q) (D) (I) (ii) (R)

13. Which of the following options is the correct combination in which U = Q  PV?
(A) (IV) (iii) (Q) (B) (I) (ii) (Q)
(C) (III) (iii) (R) (D) (I) (i) (Q)

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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

14. If the potential difference VA  VB 1V 1V 1V 1V


A
22
for the given circuit equals
n
volts find the value of n. All the 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
cells are ideal, and emf of each cell
is 1 Volt. B
1V 1V 1V 1V

15. A capacitor consists of two fixed semicircular plates of radius R


and a movable slab of thickness d and dielectric constant k
placed between then. The slab can freely rotate about the axis
O and practically fills the entire gap between the fixed plate. A 
constant voltage V is maintained between the plates. If the O
torque acting on the dielectric slab when the slab is displaced to
an angle  as shown in the figure, due to electrostatic force is
k  1 0R2 V 2
 find the value of n.
nd

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16. Block A has a mass mA  15 kg and block B has axis



mass of mB  45kg. They are placed on a rotating
horizontal surface and are connected to a massless
string passing through a frictionless pulley as shown A
B
in the figure. The horizontal surface is rotating about
a = 30 cm
a vertical axis with uniform angular velocity  as
shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction
between the blocks and the surface is  = 0.25. If b = 40 cm
the value of angular speed of the surface at which
10
the blocks will start sliding on the surface is  
n
rad/sec, find the value of n. (given g = 10 m/s2)

25
17. A rod of mass m and length L  m is hinged in a plank of
6 
same mass m. The plank is kept on a smooth horizontal
surface and rod makes angle  with the vertical. The system
is released from rest from  = 0°. The velocity (in m/s) of the
plank when the angle  = 180° is (Take g = 10 m/s2).

18. The nuclei of a radioactive element A decay into nuclei of radioactive element B with decay
constant . The nuclei of B further decay into stable nuclei of an element with decay constant 2.
At t = 0 the number of nuclei of A was N0 = 2×1021 and that of B was zero, if the number of nuclei
of B when its activity is maximum is p  1020 then find the value of p

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Chemistry PART – II

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type


This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct

19. p-Toluidine reacts with benzenediazonium chloride to form a compound, which on boiling with
H2SO4, gives product/s:
(A) (B) OH
H2N Me

(C) (D)
NH2 HO Me

20. Which of the following cation/s do/does not give coloured bead in borax bead test?
(A) Cu+2 (B) Co+3
+2
(C) Cd (D) Al+3

21. Which of the following are true for Bakelite?


(A) Cross linkage polymer. (B) Condensation polymer.
(C) Thermosetting polymer. (D) Addition polymer.

22. Which of the following species is/are planar and non-polar with lone pair/s, of electrons on the
central atom?
(A) ClF3 (B) XeF5
(C) PCl5 (D) BrF5

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23. Which of the following statement/s, is/are incorrect?


(A) Complex Na2[Fe(CN)5NO].2H2O is formed during brown ring test for nitrate.
(B) The oxidation number of Fe in the above given complex is +3.
(C) Complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]+2 is brown in colour.
(D) Oxidation number of Fe in sodium nitroprusside complex is +1.

24. Which of the following statement is/are not correct regarding CuSO4?
(A) It reacts with KI to give iodine.
(B) It reacts with KCl to give Cu2Cl2.
(C) It reacts with NaOH and glucose to give Cu2O.
(D) It gives CuO on strong heating in air.

25. Which of the following is/are correct option(s):


(A) OH Cl

and
can be differented by victor Mayer's test.
Cl HO
(B) Monomer of orlon is acrylonitrile.
(C) Aspartane is a dipeptide of L-aspartic acid and L-phenylalanine.
(D) D-Glucose, D-Fructose and L-Mannose give same osazone with Ph – NH – NH2.

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Matrix Match Types

Each of 2 tables with 3 Columns and 4 Rows has three questions. Column-1 will be with 4 rows
designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV). Column-2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column-3
will be with 4 rows designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Each question has four options with only ONE correct

Answer questions 26, 27 and 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3


(I) Smelting (i) Copper glance (P) Cu2S
(II) Self reduction (ii) Malachite (Q) Fe2O3
(III) Electrolytic (iii) Haematite (R) Al2O3.2H2O
reduction
(IV) Hydrometallurgy (iv) Bauxite (S) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2

26. Which of the following combination is CORRECT for Copper glance?


(A) (I) (i) (S) (B) (II)(i) (P)
(C) (III) (i) (S) (D) (IV) (i) (P)

27. Which of the following combination is CORRECT for malachite?


(A) (I) (ii) (R) (B) (IV) (ii) (P)
(C) (IV) (ii) (S) (D) (III) (ii) (S)

28. Which of the following combination is CORRECT for Hematite?


(A) (II) (iii) (Q) (B) (III) (iii) (R)
(C) (III) (iii) (Q) (D) (I) (iii) (Q)

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Answer questions 29, 30 and 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3


(I) 1s orbital (i) (P)

R
2 4 R 2 r

r
r

(II) 2s orbital (ii) (Q)

R
2
4 R2r

r
r

(III) 2p orbital (iii) (R)

2
R 4 R2r

r
r

(IV) 3p orbital (iv) (S)

2
R 4 R 2 r

r r

29. Which of the following combination is CORRECT for 2s-orbital?


(A) (II) (ii) (R) (B) (II)(iii) (R)
(C) (II) (iii) (P) (D) (II) (iv) (S)

30. Which of the following combination is CORRECT for 2p-orbital?


(A) (III) (iii) (P) (B) (III) (iv) (Q)
(C) (III) (i) (S) (D) (III) (i) (Q)

31. Which of the following combination is CORRECT for 3p-orbital?


(A) (IV) (iii) (S) (B) (IV) (iv) (S)
(C) (IV) (ii) (Q) (D) (IV) (iii) (Q)

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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

32. Out of NiS, CoS, MnS, ZnS


A = Number of black precipitates
B = Number of sulphides which is/are soluble in HCl.
C = Number of sulphides which is/are soluble in CH3COOH
D = Number of sulphides which is/are soluble in conc. HNO3
What will be the value of A + B + C + D?

33. PhCO 2H  NaHCO3  A  gas 


 B  gas 
PhOH  NaNH2 
CH3 OH  NaH  C  gas 
CH3 SH  EtLi  D  gas 
PhSO3H  Na  E  gas 
If the molecular weight of A, B, C, D, E is x, y, z, w, v. then find the value of (y + z + w + v) – x.

34. How many among the following species contain P – P bond(s):


(i) P (red) (ii) H4P2O5 (iii) H4P2O7 (iv)  PO3  (v)  PO3  (vi) P4 O10
3 2

(vii) P4S3 (viii) P4O6 (ix) P4

35. Identify the number of correct statements:


(i) All adiabatic process must be fast.
(ii) All reversible process must be slow.
(iii) For adiabatic process, dq = 0.
(iv) If q = 0, process must be adiabatic.
(v) Absolute value of internal energy can not be determined.
(vi) H = E + PV is applicable only for ideal gases.
(vii) Hof D2  g   0, at 298 K.
(viii) Gof  H aq  0, at 298 K.
(ix) Expansion of an ideal gas not always represent an increase in entropy of system.

36. How many isomeric dienes with a six membered ring are possible of the compound with the
molecular formula C7H10, while two consecutive double bonds are not possible in six membered
ring.

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Mathematics PART – III

SECTION – A

Straight Objective Type


This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct

 /2
2017
37. The integral   2cot x  dx is equal to
 /4
1008
2
(A) 2 2
t 2017
dt (B) 2
2 2
t 2
4  dt
 t
0 t 4 2

8 1007 
n 1 2  2017
22012  t  4 et  e t 
(C)  4 dt (D) 2   t t 
dt
63 4
t 0 e e 

1 1 1
38. Sum of series 3 3 3
 3 3 3
 3
 ..... to 2196 terms is
1 2  4 4 6 9 9  12  3 16
3

(A) a rational number (B) an irrational number


(C) less than 13 (D) 3 2196  1

39. Let A = tan–1(cot 65º + 2 tan 40º); B  cos1  3 sin80º 2 sin50º then 
(A) cos(2B – A) > 0 (B) cot(A + B) > –1
(C) sin(2A + 3B) > 0 (D) tan(2A – B) > 1

Space for rough work

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40. Let f be a twice differentiable function on (0, ) such that f(x) > 0, f(x) > 0 and f(x) > 0  x > 0. If
f   x  f   x  1
lim 2
 then
x 
 f   x   3

f x 2
(A) lim f  x    (B) lim 
x  x  xf   x  3
xf   x  3 f  x  f   x 
(C) lim  (D) lim 1
x  f x 2 x 
 f   x 
2

41. The tangent to the circle x 2 + y2 = 4 at a point P intersect the parabola y2 = 4x at points Q and R.
Tangents to the parabola at Q and R intersect at S. If Q lies in the first quadrant such that PQ = 1
unit, then
35
(A) PR = 8 units (B) SR  units
4
7 343
(C) SQ  units (D) area of SQR = sq. units
2 16
   
42. Let a , b and c be three non-coplanar vectors and d be a non-zero vector perpendicular to
         
   
a  b  c . Now d  a  b sin x  b  c cos y  2 c  a  , then
     
d  a  c  d  a  c 
(A) 2 (B)  2
a b c  a b c 
2 5 2
(C) minimum value of x2 + y2 = (D) minimum value of x2 + y2 =
4 4

43. If the two curves y = ax 3 – 6ax2 + (12a + 12)x – (8a + 16) where a  R and y = x3 touches each
other at some point, then possible value of ‘a’ are
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 3 2  3 3 (D) e

Space for rough work

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 18

Matrix Match Types

Each of 2 tables with 3 Columns and 4 Rows has three questions. Column-1 will be with 4 rows
designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV). Column-2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column-3
will be with 4 rows designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Each question has four options with only ONE correct

Answer questions 44, 45 and 46 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.

Let S = {A: A = [aij]2  2, aij  {0, 1, 2}}, column-1 and column-2 contain some conditions satisfied by a
matrix A  S. Each entry in column-3 is the number of matrices A in S that satisfy one condition from
column-I and one condition from column-II

Column–1 Column–2 Column–3


T
(I) A = A (i) |A| = 0 (P) 5
T
(II) A = –A (ii) |A|  0 (Q) 8
(III) A2 = I (iii) Tr(A) = 0 (R) 17
(IV) AAT = I (iv) Tr(A)  0 (S) 20

Where AT, |A| and Tr(A) denote the transpose of A, the determinant of A and the trace of A respectively

44. Which of the following is the only correct combination?


(A) (I) (ii) (R) (B) (II) (iv) (Q)
(C) (III) (iii) (S) (D) (IV) (iii) (P)

45. Which of the following is the only correct combination?


(A) (III) (i) (R) (B) (I) (iii) (S)
(C) (II) (ii) (P) (D) (IV) (ii) (Q)

46. Which of the following is the only correct combination?


(A) (II) (iii) (Q) (B) (IV) (iv) (P)
(C) (III) (iv) (P) (D) (I) (i) (R)

Space for rough work

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19 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18

Answer questions 47, 48 and 49 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.

x  a x  0  x  1 x0
Let f  x    , g x   2 . Where a and b are non negative real numbers
 x 1 x  0  x  1  b x  0
Column-1 contains information about g(f(x)). Column-2 contains information about interval of g(f(x)).
Column-3 contains information about continuity and differentiability of g(f(x)) in R match the following
Column(s)

Column–1 Column–2 Column–3


(I) g(f(x)) = x + a + 1 (i) x  1 (P) g(f(x)) is continuous for all x then a = 1, b = 1
(II) g(f(x)) = x2 + b (ii) x < –a (Q) g(f(x)) is continuous for all x then a = 1, b = 0
(III) g(f(x)) = (x + a – 1)2 + b (iii) –a  x < 0 (R) g(f(x)) is differentiable at x = 1 for a = 1, b = 0
(IV) g(f(x)) = (x – 2)2 + b (iv) 0  x < 1 (S) g(f(x)) is non-differentiable at x = –1 for a = 1, b = 0

47. Which of the following is the only correct combination?


(A) (I) (ii) (Q) (B) (II) (i) (P)
(C) (III) (iv) (R) (D) (IV) (iii) (S)

48. Which of the following is the only correct combination?


(A) (I) (ii) (P) (B) (II) (ii) (R)
(C) (III) (iii) (Q) (D) (IV) (iv) (S)

49. Which of the following is the only correct combination?


(A) (III) (iii) (R) (B) (II) (ii) (Q)
(C) (III) (ii) (P) (D) (IV) (i) (S)

Space for rough work

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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 20

SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).

50. Consider a parabola 4y = x2 and point B(0, 1). Let A1(x1, y1), A2(x2, y2), ..... An(xn, yn) are n points
r  1 n 
on the parabola such that x r > 0 and OBAr  (r = 1, 2, 3, ....., n) then   lim  BA r  is
2n x  n
 r 1 
equal to _____

51. Let N be the number of function f: A  A where A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, such that f({1, 2, 3}) and
f(f({1, 2, 3})) are disjoint. Let M be the sum of all the prime factor of N, then the value of M is
equal to _____

52.    
The number of solutions of log x 2018  1  log 1  x  .....  x2016  log4034  2017log x , is _____

53. If the solution of the differential equation y 2x 4  y   dy


dx
 1  4xy  x
2 2
is k(x2y)2 + y3 – x3 = c, then

k is equal to _____

54. ABC is an equilateral triangle with circumcentre (1, 2) and vertex A lying on the line 5x + 2y = 4.
A circle with centre I(2, 0) passes through the vertices B and C and intersects the sides AC and

AB at D and E respectively. If area of quadrilateral BCDE is , then find the value of is
10 3
_____

Space for rough work

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