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GENERAL INTELLIGENCE

Directions (1-2) : In each of the questions given below' there is an address


which has been reproduced against (l), (2) (3) and (4). Of them, three have some
mistakes or the other while one is EXACTLY the same as the given below. You
are to choose the one as your answer which is EXACTLY the same reproduction
of the given address.
1. Mr. Rajiv Parmar
C/o Sanjiv Singh
BadiBazar Begusarai (BIHAR)
804032
(1) Mr. Rajiv Parmar
C/o Sanjiv Singh
BadiBazar Begusarai (BIHAR)
804032
(2) Mr. Rajiv Parmar
C/o Sanjeev Singh
BadiBazar Begusarai (BIHAR)
804032
(3) Mr. Rajiv Parmar
C/oSanjivSingh
BadiBazzar Begusarai (BIHAR)
804032
(4) Mr. Rajiv Parmar
C/o Sanjiv Singh
BadiBazar Beguserai (BIHAR)
804032
2. Ms. Karmini Kaushal
'KAUSAL NIWAS'.
Rajendra Nagar (Road no. 2)
PATNA-800043 .
(1) Ms. Kamini Kaushal
'KASAUAL NAGAR
(Roadno.2)
PATNA-800043
(2) Ms. Kamini Kaushal
'KAUSAL NIWAS'
Rajendra Nagar
(Road no. 2)
PATNA-80043
3.Ms. Kamini Kaushal
'KAUSAL NIWAS
Rajendr Nagar
(Road no. 2)
PATNA-800043
(4) Ms. Kamini Kaushal
'KAUSAL NIWAS'
Rajendra Nagar
(Road no. 2)
PATNA-800043
Directions (3-8) : Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given
alternatives.
3. ACCE : EGGI : : IKKM: ?
(1) MOOQ (2) NOOP
(3) MPPQ
(4) NPPR
4. 11:121 : 110: : 15 : 225 : 210 : : ?
(1) 9 : 81 : 70
(2) 19: 361 : 342
(3) 1'7 : 288 : 272
'(4) 16 :255 : 239
5. Dream: Reality: : Falsehood: ?
(1) Untruth (2) Truth
(3) Fairness (4) Correctness'
6. Question Figures:

Directions (9-10) : The name of a town and a date is given followed by four
alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). Of these alternatives, only one matches the town
and the date given below while others have some mistakes or the other. You are
to choose the alternative as your answer which is EXACTLY the same as the
given one.
9. Volgogard
2nd March, 1913
(1) Volgogard
2th March, 1913
(2) Volgogord
2nd March, 1913
(3) Volgogard.
2nd March .. 1913
(4) Volgogard
2nd March. 1931
10.Krasnoyarsk
21st September, 1916
(1) Krasnoyarsk
21st September. 1916
(2) Krasnoyersk
21st September. 1916
(3) Krasnoyarsk
21sl September, 1916
(4) Kresnoyarsk
21st September. 1916 Directions (11-19) : Select the odd word/ letters / number / figure/
pair from the given responses.
11. (1) 11-13 (2) 11-17 (3) 31 – 35 (4) 23 - 29
12.(1) 25 (2) 37
(3) 49 (4) 57
15. (1) Conceal (2) Divulge
(3) cover (4) Hide
16. (1) Pistol (2) Sword
(3) Gun (4) Rifle
17. (1) Aeroplane (2) Bird
(3) Tanker (4) Parachute
18. (1) QOOM (2) WUUS
(3) JIIF (4) VTTR
19. (1) HDFT (2) NJEO
(3) SOQT (4) WSXZ

Directions (20-21) : Given below are letters A to Z. Under each capital


letter a small letter is written which is to be used as a code fOl' the capital
letter.

20.a e u f x t

(1) K G Z J W S
(2)KG Z W J S
(3) KG J Z W S
(4) KG Z SY W
21. m n o s t e
(1) C L Q H S G
(2)C LH QTG
(3)C LQ H G S
(4) C L Q H S G
22. Arrange the following words according to the dictionary :
(A) Grasp (B) Granite
(C) Grass (D) Graph
(E) Grape
(1)E,A, B,C,D
(2) E, A, C, B, D
(3) B, E, D, A, C
(4) B, E, A, D, C

Directions (23-24) : Some numbers are given in different Rows/Columns.


Which one of the given Rows/Columns are connected/related with each other
in someway?

Rows Columns
I II III IV V
1 22 19 21 20 18
2 105 95 98 91 90
3 8 5 7 6 4
4 225 185 196 169 180
5 360 304 322 286 292
(1) Columns II, IV and V
(2) Columns I, III and IV
_ (3) Columns I, II and III
(4) Columns I, III and IV
Rows Colwnns
I II III IV V
1 6 9 8 11 7
2 24 30 27 36 35
3 84 81 72 99 85
4 12 11 10 13 14
5 85 83 74 101 92

(1) Columns II, III and IV-


(2) Columns I, III and V
(3) Columns III, IV and V

(4) Columns II, IV and V


Directions (25-29) : Select the missing number/letters/figure from the given
responses.
25. ADH, DGK, GJN, 2.
(1) ORV (2) JMP
(3) JLM (4) JMQ
30. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in given letter
series shall complete it?
r __ se __ os __ ro __ er __ se
(1) o r e s o (2) r o r e s
(3) o e s' r s (4) r o e s o
Directions In the following question you have to identity the correct response
from the given premises stated according to the following symbols,
31. If + means 'minus' -- means 'multiplied by', .;- means 'plus' and x means 'divied
by', then
10 x 5 .;- 3 - 2 + 3 = ?
(1)5 (2)21
(3) 53/3 (4) 18
Directions (32-33) : In the table given below, the first two digits form the
advertising agency numbers and the last four digits advertiser numbers. Now,
answer the following questions.

213150 182732 192595 183592


184323 142959 212732 148303
202591 207801 186791 197000
142958 215132 203982 213080
223610 183218 142808 206119
202594 192600 192959 223582

32.Which of the following agency has maximum number of advertisers?


(1) 18 (2) 20
(3) 19 (4) 14

33. Which advertising agency is rep' resented minimum number of times?


(1) 19 (2) 21
(3) 22 (4) 14
Directions Find the missing number from the given responses.

34. 25 49 81
5 7 ?
15 13 11
20 20 20

(1) 9 (2) 3
(3) 61 (4) 31
35. The word 'UNITED' is coded as 'SLGRCB'. How should the word 'DISOWN' be
coded?
(1) BGQMUL
(2)CGRLTK
(3) CGRTLK
(4) BGQLUM
36. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one
cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word.
ENCYCLOPEDIA
(1) CYCLE (2) PENCIL
(3) YOKE (4) DIAL
37. In a certin code the following numbers are coded in a certain way by assigning
signs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X- + > < ^ v
Which number can be decoded from the following?
> xv+
(1) 59821 (2) 59182
(3) 52981 (4) 59281

38. A, B, C, D, are four friends. Average age of A and C is 35 years and that of B, and
D is 40 years. Average age of B, C and D is 40 years. The sum of the ages of A and
D is equal to that of B and C. Find out the ages (in years) of A, B, C and D.

(1) 20, 30, 40, 50


(2) 20, 25, 30, 35
(3) 30, 35, 40, 45
(4) 30, 40, 50, 60
39. A word is given in capital letters.
It is following by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed
from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be
formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters. PHILANTHROPIST
(1) FIST (2) LARK

(3) HYPOCRISY (4) PISTON

40. Six friends are sitting in a circle and playing cards. Kenny is to 'the left of Danny.
Michael is in between Bobby and Johnny. Roger is in between Kenny and Bobby.
Who is sitting to the right of Michael?
(1) Danny (2) Johnny'
(3) Kenny (4) Bobby
41. Two statements are given following by two conclusions I and II You have to
consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the given conclusions
definitely follows from the given statements.
Statements:
(I) Conflicts in mind create tension.
(II) Resolution of conflict leads to good mental health.
Conclusions:
(I) One becomes very hefty and strong by resolving one's conflicts.
(II) Freedom from conflicts leads to good mental health.
(1) Only conclusion I follows
(2) Only conclusion 11 follows
(3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(4) Both conclusions I and II follow
42. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider
the statement to be true even if it- seems to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions are implicit in the given
statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct.
Statement:
You can fool some of the people all the time.
Assumptions :
(I) There is a time when you cannot fool somebody.
(II) Someone can be fooled all the time.
(1) Only assumption I is implicit
(2) Both assumptions land II are implicit
(3) Only assumption II is implicit
(4).Neither assumption I nor II is implicit

Directions (43-44) : In the following questions there are 6 check posts A, B,C,
D, E and F. Check-post F is 15 km to the North of D which is 25 km to the North-
East of B. Check post A is5 km West of E and 15 km to the South-West of C.
Check-posts B, A and E are in a straight line. The check. posts B, and E are 30 km
apart from each other.

43, If a jeep moves from E to F via A, B, and D, how much distance will it
have to cover?
(1) 70 km (2) 120 km
(3) 100 km (4) 90 km

44. Which check-post is the farthest to the South-West of D?


(1) A (2) B
(3}C (4) D
45. Given below are four views of a cube. Each face is marked with a certain symbol.
In figure B which symbol will appear on the face opposite to the face having
symbol * ?
46. Which one of the following figures represents the relationship among Males,
Fathers, Advocates?

47. There are two dots placed in the question figure. Find out the answer figure which
has the possibility of placing the dots satisfying the same condition as in the
question figure. '

48. Which one of the answer figures shall complete the given question
figure? .
49. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden /
embedded.

50. A piece, of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given
responses indicate how it will appear when opened.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (51:...55) : In the following questions read each sentence to find out
whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
The number of that part is the answer.' (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any):
51. In a fit of anger (Ill he told his superior (2)/ that he will go on leave (3)/ from the
same day. (4)
52. After he had read the two first chapters (1)/ of the novel (2)/ he felt like reading
(3) / the book at one sitting. (4)
53. He came very close to me (1)/ and asked me that if (2) / I would lend (3)/ him
some money. (4)
·54. Although he is my bosom friend (1)/ I cannot ask him for (2)/. money without any
(3)/ vividly
reason. (4) .
55. We are aware (1) / that we do not (2)/ always gets what (3)/ we want to get. (4)
Directions (56-60) : In the following questions five groups of four words each
are given. In each group one word is miss pelt. Find the misspelt word.
56. (1) Carrer (2) Draught
(3) Edition (4) Gather
57. (1) Pictorial (2) Priest
(3) Reffere (4) Monson
58. (1) Government (2) Fortnight
(3) Ledger (4) Eerly
59. (1) Migration (2)Luggege
(3) Noodle (4) Pluck
60. (1) Decision (2) Explain
(3) Moniter (4) Explicit
Directions (61-65) : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to
fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
61. Ramesh was criticised for his rude behaviour.
(1) apparently (2) vehemently
(3) severely (4) glaringly
62. We need such a banking system which top class services
to its customers.
(1) arranges (2) provides
(3) avails (4) motivates
63.______________Suresh is religious in his behaviour.
(1) deeply (2) wisely

(3)amicably (4)forcefully
64. We should not our emotions openly

(1) yield (2) render

(3) provoke (4) display

65. She had put on a dress which was not for the occasion.

(1) accustomed (2) familiar

(3) appropriate (4) adapted

Directions (66-70) : In the following questions you have a brief passage with
five questions following each passage. Read the following passage carefully and
answer the questions given below them ..
Once there lived a widow named Mangala who became poor after her husband, a
small trader of coal, died of a prolonged illness. When her son Guniram grew up, she
said to him one day, "You ought to start a business like your father. Before, it is too
late, you better go to the rich merchant Deen Dayal, who' gives loans to promising
young men like you". The next morning when Guniram went to Deen Dayal's house,
he found him shouting at a young man, RamlaJ. "I gave you enough money to start a
good business. You have not made any profit. You have not saved enough to pay the
interest on the loan. You don't know how to do business". "No Sir." said Ramlal.
"Look! Even with that dead mouse as stock-in-trade", the merchant said pointing to a
dead mouse on the floor. "a clever man would be able to do business and make
money".
Guniram, who was hearing this, thought for a moment and picked up the mouse. "I
am taking this from you on loan," he said to the merchant and at this. Guniram. On
his way carrying the dead mouse was stopped by another merchant, who purchased
the dead mouse to feed his hungry cat in exchange for two handfuls of fried p.eas.
Guniram arranged a pot of cold water, sat on the road side and served water and peas
to the returning wood cutters from the forests in exchange for firewood. He sold the
wood in the market and purchased peas. He further offered water and peas to the
wood cutters regularly and started saving money. Later on, he was able to start a
small business of firewood on his own. Once during a rainy season when there was a
shortage of firewood in the city, Guniram sold his stock with a high price. By efforts
and skills, within a few years, he could become one of the richest young merchants in
the city. One day, he went to Deen Dayal, from whom he had taken loan, with a
house made in gold and told him his success story. The merchant was so happy to
hear Guniram that he gave him his daughter Jayanti in marriage.
66. By dint of his sustained efforts, Guniram could achieve the distinction of being
the city's .
(1) richest merchant
(2) youngest merchant
(3) largest stockiest of firewood
(4) one of the richest young merchants
67. According to the passage, who among the following had failed in his business?
(1) Guniram's father
(2) The merchant who gave loan (3) Ramlal
(4)The merchant who purchased dead mouse
68. In the context of the passage, what could be in the mind of the merchant when he
laughed at Guniram's statement?
(1) One cannot start a business with a dead mouse.
(2) A dead mouse cannot be an instrument for loan
(3)The dead mouse being asked for loan did not belong to him.
(4)The dead mouse cannot be kept as security for loan.
69. The whole story speaks of how many merchants involved in business of any
kind?
(l)Two (2)Three
(3) Four (4) Five
70. By saying "No Sir" Ramlal was trying to say _
(1) that he did not lose in business
(2) that he did not take loan for his business
(3) that he could prove his success in business
(4) that he would repay the capital with interest
Directions (71-75) : In the following questions the 1st and the last sentences of
the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four sentences
and named P, Q, Rand S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read
the passage and find out which of the four combinations is Correct. Then find the
correct answer.
71. 1. You live either in a village or a town to India.
P. Many villages and towns form a tehsil or a taluka. .,
Q. There are also some areas in our country called Union Territories.
R. Many tehsils or talukas form a district and many districts form a State.
S. These, together with all the states of our country make India.
6. India is our motherland.
(1) PQRS (2) PRQS~
(3) QPRS (4) RPQS
72. 1. The tooth had assessed and was causing considerable pain.
P. Finally, in desperation, she went inside a wooden pyramid model and sat down
praying for miracles
Q. Since it was Sunday morning, no dentist was available.
R. What happened she is not sure but after ten minutes the pain simply faded
away.
S. Common pain killers had been of no avail.
6. It has not returned to this day.
(1) PSRQ (2) QSPR
(3) QRSP (4) SRQP
73. 1. The Third Five-Year Plan ran into rough weather from the very start.
P. Large funds had to be diverted from development to defence.
Q. Food situation became critical and prices began to rise steep after the Indo-
Pak conflict.
R. During this period, there was also the war with Pakistan in 1965.
S. There was the China war in 1962 which completely upset our economy.
6. The government had '1.0 resort to devaluation of the rupee.
(1) PSRQ (2) QPSR
(3) RPQS (4) SPRQ
74. 1.' The art of growing old is one which the passage of time has forced upon
my attention.
P. One of these is undue absorption in the past.
Q. One's thoughts must be directed to the future and to things about which there
is something to be done.
R. Psychologically, there are two dangers to be guarded against in old age.
S. It does not do live in memories, in regrets for the good old days, or in sadness
about friends who are dead.
6. This is not always easy; one's own past is a gradually increasing weight.
(1) QPRS (2) RPQS
(3) RPSQ (4) QSRP
75. 1. Religion is not a matter of mere dogmatic conformity.
P. It is not merely going through the ritual prescribe to us.
Q. It is not a question of ceremonial piety.
R. Unless that kind of transformation occurs, you are not an authentically
religious man.
S. It is the remaking of your own self, the transformation of your nature.
6. A man of that character is free from fear, free from hatred.
(I)PSRQ (2)QPSR
(3) SPQR (4) SPRQ
Directions (76-80) : In the following questions out of the four alternatives choose
the one which can be substituted for the given words I sentences.
76. Printed notice of somebody's death
(1) Condolence (2) Calumny
(3) Obituary (4) Ouija
77. A room leading into a large room or hall
(1) Anteroom (2) Lounge
(3) Lobby (4) Pantry
78. Just punishment for wrong doing
(1) Nemesis (2) Purgation
(3) Wrath (4) Catharsis
79. A person who has just started learning
(1) Foreman (2) Accomplice
(3) Novice
(4) Apprentice
80.. A low-area storm with high winds rotating about a centre of low atmospheric
pressure
(l)Cyclone
(2) Tornado
(3) Typhoon
(4) Hurricane
Directions (81-85) : In the following questions. some idioms, phrases and
sayings have been given in bold at the question places. Each of them has been
followed by four options of its meaning or sense. Out of the given alternatives you
have to choose one which denotes the most suitable sense or meaning' of the given
idiom/ phrase/ saying.
81. To all intents and purposes
(1) Virtually
(2) without brightness and vitality
{3) relaxed and at ease
(4) with complete innocence
82. To cast one's net wide
(1) to smile inwardly
(2) to avoid a serious problem
(3) to cover a wide field of activities
4) to be out of a trying situation
83. To make one's blood creep
(1) to dismiss something casually
(2) to lead a miserable life
(3) to guide someone onward
(4) to fill one with horror
84. To carry off one's feet
(1) to be too late to introduce any change
(2) to belie'1"e something with enthusiasm
(3) to be wild with excitement
(4) to take decisions in an outgoing project
85. To make ducks and drakes
(1) to quarrel like fool
(2) to move Vigorously
(3) to squander
. (4) to die fighting
Directions (86-90) : In the following questions, certain words are printed in
bold at the question places and against each four options· of its meaning are
given. You have to select the word which has right meaning or sense of the
word from each group of four words.
86. IMPASSE
(1) deadlock (2) firmness (3) ability
(4) readiness
87. VITIATE
(1) accord (2) impair (3) split
(4) punish
88. TRANSCEND
(1) attend (2) install (3) warrant
(4) surpass
89. AVER
(1) declare (2) implicate (3) dedicate
(4) discover
90.FRUGAL
(1) thrifty (2) intolerant
(3) eager (4) durable
Directions (91-95) : In the following questions. out of the four alternatives.
choose the one which is most opposite in meaning of the word given in bold.
.
91. EASE
(1) tackle (2) improve (3) want (4) instigate
92. VENERATE
(1) alter (2) abuse
(3) reverse (4) veer
93. DOUR
(1) teeming (2) confined
(3) cheerful (4) congested
94. DEFIANCE
(1) subordination
(2) honour
(3) love
(4) favour
95. VAGUE
(1) intelligent
(2) required
(3) distant
(4) clear
Directions (96-100) : In each of the following questions, a sentence has
been given in Active (or Passive) Voice. Out of the four alternatives 'suggested
select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive (or Active)
Voice.
96. The noise of the traffic kept me awake.
(1) I remained awake by the noise of the traffic.
(2) I was kept waking by the noise of the traffic.
(3) I was kept awake by the noise of the traffic.
(4) The traffic kept me awake by the noise
97. I remember my sister taking me to the museum.
(1) I remember taken to the museum by my sister.
(2) I remember myself being taken to the museum by my sister.
(3) I remember I was taken to the museum by my sister.
(4) I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.
98. Why do you waste time?
(1) Why is time wasted by you?
(2) Why is time been wasted by you? .
(3) Why has time been wasted by you ?
(4) Why is time being wasted by you?
99. Who teaches you English?
(1) By whom were you taught English?
(2) By whom are you taught by whom?
(3) English is taught by whom?
(4) By whom will you be taught English?
100.We hope that we shall win the match.
(1) The match is hoped to be won.
(2) Match winning is our hope.
(3) It is hoped that the match will be won by us.
(4) Winning the match is hoped by us.
101.The smallest natural number. by which 3000 must be divided Lo make the
quotient a perfect cube. is:
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
102.There are some boys and girls in a room. The square of the number of the girls is
less than the square of the number of boys by 28. If there were two more girls' the
number of boys would have been the same as that of the girls .. The total number
of the boys and girls in the room are
(1) 56 (2) 14
(3) 10 (4) 7
103.The H.C.F. of two numbers, each having three digits . is 17 and their L.C.M. is
714. The sum of the numbers will be :
(1) 289 (2) 391
(3) 221 (4) 731
104.The number of trees in each row of a garden is equal Lo the total number of rows
in the garden. After III trees have been uprooted in a storm. there remain
. 10914 trees in the garden. The number of rows of trees in the garden is:
(1) 100 (2) 105
(3) 115 (4) 125
110. If √7 – 2 / √7 + 2 = a √7 + b then the value of a is
(1) 11/3 (2) – 4/3
(3) 4/3 (4) -4 √7 / 3
2.75 x 2.75 x 2.75 - 2.25 x 2.25 x 2.25)
106. 2.75 x 2.75 + 2.75 x 2.25 + 2.25 x 2.25
is equal to :
(1) - 5 (2) 0.5
(3) -0.5 (4) 5
107. The numbers of the sequence 56. 72, 90,110, 132, 154. form a pattern. Which
of them is a misfit in the pattern?
(1) 72 (2) 110
(3) 132 (4) 154
108. If © is an operation such that a © b = 2a when a > b
= a + b when a < b = a2 when a = b,
then, (5©7)+(4©4) / 3(5© 5) - (15 © 11) - 3 is
equal to:
(1) 1/3 (2) 14/23 (3) 2/3 (4) 14/13
109. In the adjoining figure:
LABC + LBCD + LCDE + LDEA + LEAB =
(1) 3600 (2) 5400
(3) 7200 (4) None of these
110. In the adjoining figure:
LA + LB + LC + LD + LE =

(1) 9000 (2) 7200


(3) 1800 (4) 5400
111.The first period of a class starts at 10 : 30 hours and fourth ends at 13 : 45 hours. If
periods are of equal duration and after each period a break of 5 minutes is given to
the students, the exact duration of each period is :
(1) 35 minutes (2) 42 minutes (3) 45 minutes
(4) 40 minutes
112. The ratio of an interior angle to the exterior angle of a regular polygon is 5 : 1.
The number of sides of polygon is :
(2)
(1) 10 (2) 11
43650
(3) 12 (4) 14
113. The(4)number nearest to 43582 divisible by each of 25, 50 and 75 is:
43550
(1) 43500 (2) 43650 (3) 43600 (4) 43550
114. A point 0 in the interior of a rectangle ABCD is joined with each of the
vertices A, B, C and D. Then:
(1) OB + OD = OC + OA
(2) OB2 + ON = OC2 + OD2
(3) OB . OD = OC . OA
(4).OB2 + OD2 = OC2 + OA2
115. The smallest positive integer n, for which 864n is a perfect cube, is:
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
116. A, 8 and C can complete a work in 10, 12 and 15 days respectively. They
started the work together. But A left the work before 5 days of its completion. 8
also left the work 2 days after A left. In how many days was the work' completed?
(I) 4 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 8
117. A can complete a piece of work in 10 days. Bin 15 days and C in 20 days. A
and C worked together for two days and then A was replaced by 8. In how many
days, altogether, was the work completed?
(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 6 (4) 8
118. The radius of the base and height of a metallic solid cylinder are r cm and 6 cm
respectively. It is melted and recast into a solid cone of the same radius of base,
The height of the cone is :
(1) 54 cm (2) 27 cm
(3) 18 cm (4) 9 cm
119. Two pipes A and 8 can fill a water tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a
third pipe C can empty at the rate of 3 gallons per minute. If A, 8 and C opened
together fill the tank in 15 minutes, the capacity (in gallons) of the tank is :
(1) 180 (2) 150
(3J 120 (4} 60
120. If 10 men or 20 boys can make 260 mats in 20 days, then how many mats will
be made by 8 men and 4 boys in 20 days?
(I) 260 (2) 240
(3) 280 (4) 520
121. If the area of the base of a cone is 770 cm2 and the area of the curved surface is
814 cm2, then its volume (in cm3) is :
(1) 213.15 (2) 392.15
(3) 55015 (4) 61615
122. If the perimeter of a right-angled isosceles triangle is ,( 4√2 + 4) cm, the length
of the hypotenuse is:
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm
(3) 8 cm (4) 10 cm
123. If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 2 : 4 and C : D = 2 : 5, then A : D is equal to:
(1)2: 15 (2)2:5
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 3 : 5
124. A fan is listed at Rs. 1,400 and the discount offered is 10%. What additional
discount must be given to bring the net selling price to Rs. 1,200 ?

(1) 16 2/3% (2) 5% (3)4 16/21% (4) 6%


125. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 3 : 2. Their volumes will be in the
ratio:
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 8 : 27 (4) 27 : 8
126. The areas of two equilateral triangles are in the ratio 25 : 36. Their altitudes
will be in the ratio:
(1) 36 : 25 (2) 25 : 36 (3) 5 : 6 (4) √5 : √6
127. If O is the centre of the circle then ‘x’ is

(I) 720 (2) 620


(3) 820 (4) 520
128. [n a family the average age of father and mother is 38 years whereas the
average age of father, mother and their only daughter is 28 years. Then the age of
the daughter is :
(1) 5 years (2) 6 years
(3) 8 years (4).10 years
129.The milk and water in a mixture are in the ratio 7 : 5. When 15 Litres of water
are added to it, the ratio of milk and water in the new mixture becomes 7 : 8. The
total quantity of water in the new mixture is
(1) 35 Litres (2) 40 Litres
(3) 60 litres (4) 96 Litres
130. Rs. 2010 are to be divided among
. A, Band C in such a way that if A gets Rs. 5 then B must get Rs. 12 and if B gets
Rs. 4 then C must get Rs. 5.50. The share of C will exceed that of B by
. (I)Rs. 620 (2)Rs.430
(3) Rs. 360 (4) Rs. 270
131. A person blends two varieties of tea - one costing Rs. 160 per kg and the other
costing Rs. 200 per kg, in the ratio 5 : 4. He sells the blended variety at Rs. 192
per kg. His profit per cent is :
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 12
132. A man goes from A Lo B at a uniform speed of 12 kmph and returns with a
uniform speed of 4 kmph His average speed (in kmph) for the whole journey is :
(1)8 (2)7.5
(3) 6 (4) 4.5
133. ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AS = AC. If D and E are the mid-points
of AB and AC respectively. The point B, C. D, E are:
A
D E

B C
(1). collinear
(2) non-collinear ,
(3) concyclic
(4) None of these
134. A man buys a field or agricultural land for Rs. 3,60,000. He sells one-third at a
loss of 20% and two.-fifths at a gain of 25%. At what price must he sell the re-
maining field so as to make an overall profit of 10 % ?
(1) Rs. 1,00,000
(2) Rs. 1,15,000
(3) Rs. 1,20,000
(4) Rs. 1,25,000
135. The marked price of an electric iron is Rs. 300. The shopkeeper allows a
9iscount of 12% and still gains 10%. If no discount is allowed, his gain per cent
would have been:
(1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 27 (4) 30
136. If the price of a commodity is decreased by 20% and its consumption is
increased by 20%, what will be the increase or decrease in the expenditure on the
commodity?
(1) 4% increase (2) 4% decrease
(3) 8% decrease (4) 8% increase
137. If sin θ - cos φ = 0 then which of the following is true?
(1) θ + φ = 2π (2) θ + φ = π

(3) θ + φ = π /'2 (4) θ - φ = π/3

138.The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 12% and 15%
respectively. Its area will be increased by :
(1) 27 1/5-% (2) 28 4/5-%
(3) 27% (4) 28%
139. The range of the function f(x)= a cos (bx + c) + d., (a> 0) is :
(1) [-1, a]
(2) [- a -d, a - d]
(3) [- d-a, d+ a]
(4) [d-a. d+ a]
140. In the expression xy2, the values of both variables x and yare· decreased by
20%. By this, the value of the expression is decreased by
(1) 40% (2) 80%
(3) 48.8% (4) 51.2%
141. If the angles of a tower from two points distant a and b (b > a) from its foot
and in the same straight line from it are 60° and 30°, then the height 'of the tower
is:

(1) √a – b (2) √b-a


(3) √ab (4) √a/b

142.A train passes a platform 90 metre long in 30 seconds and a man standing on the
platform in 15 seconds. The speed of the train is:
(1) 12.4 kmph
(2) 14.6 kmph
(3) 18.4 kmph
(4) 21.6 kmph
143. A runs twice as fast as Band B runs thrice as fast as C. The distance covered by
C in 72 minutes, will be covered by A in :
(1) ,18 minutes
(2) 24 minutes
(3) 16 minutes
(4) 12 minutes
144. The difference between compound interest (compounded annually) and simple
interest on a certain sum of money at 10% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 40. The
sum is :
(1) Rs. 4000 (2) Rs. 3600
(3) Rs. 4200 (4) Rs. 3200
145. A certain sum of money doubles itself in 4 years at some rate of compound
interest, compounded annually. At the same rate, it will amount to eight times of
itself in :
(1) 10 years (2) 12 years
(3) 14 years (4) 16 years
146. A motorboat in still water travels at a speed of 36 kmph. It goes 56 km
upstream in I hour 45 minutes. The time taken by it to cover the same distance
down the stream will be :
(1) 2 hours 25 minutes (2) 3 hours
(3) 1 hour 24 minutes (4) 2 hours 21 minutes
Directions (147 - 150) : The bar graph given here shows the number of job-
seekers of a state in various years at different stages of education.
Study the graph carefully' and answer the questions based on it.
Job-Seekers in Various Years
147.In which year was the number of Graduate job-seekers the same as that of Senior
Secondary jobseekers?
(1) 2006 (2) 2007
(3) 2008 (4) 2009
148. In comparison to the year 2006, how many more job-seekers in all, were there in
the year 2010?
(1) 700 (2) 1700
(3) 2375 (4) 2150
149. In which year, was the number of Matriculate job-seekers maximum?
(1) 2006 (2) 2008
(3) 2005 (4) 2010
150.The number of job-seekers, having their qualification as Senior Secondary, in the
year 2007 was:
(1) 525 (2) 800
(3) 1050 (4) 700
GENERAL AWARENESS
151.In our country, the highest peace-lime gallantry award, equivalent to the Param
Vir Chakrais-
(1) President's Medal (2) Ashok Chakra
(3) Vir Chakra
(4) Shanti Chakra
152, The book 'Cricket My Style' has been written by
(1) Sunil Gavaskar
(2) Mohinder Amamath (3) lmran Khan
(4) Kapil Dev
153.What is the minimum age of a person (in years) to be eligible to get concessions
available to senior citizens for travelling in railways?
(1) 60 (2) 62
(3) 65 (4) 70
154. In the context of the stock market, IPO stands for
(1) Immediate Payment Order
(2) Internal policy Obligation
(3) Initial Public Offer
(4) International Payment Obligation
155. Attainment of Swaraj as the main goal of the Indian National Congress was first
mentioned in the Presidential address of -
(1) B.G. Tilak
(2) G. K. Gokhale
(3)Dadabhai Naoroji
(4) Lala Lajpat Rai
156. In India 'NO DB' means
(1) National District Development Board
(2) National Demand Development Board
(3) National Dairy Development Board
(4) National Deposit Development Board
157. A handwritten message can be instantly transmitted as such to any part of the
world by means of-
(1) E-mail (2) Speed post
(3) fax (4) Telex
158. The jet plane engine works on the principle of -
(1) Pascal's law
(2) Angular momentum (3) Linear momentum
(4) Newton's Laws of Motion
159. A sailor in a submarine can see objects on the surface of the sea with the help of a
-
(1) Gyroscope
(2) Telescope
(3) Stereoscope
(4) Periscope
1.60. The 11 th meeting of the India Russia Inter-Governmental Commission on
Military and Technical Cooperation was held in October 20 11 'in
(1) New Delhi' (2) St. Petersberg
(3) Moscow (4) Chennai
161. Cooling in a refrigerator is produced by the -
(1) Ice deposits on the freezer
(2) Sudden expansion of a compressed gas
(3) Evaporation of a volatile liquid
(4) Both (1) and (2) above
162. Which of the following is known as the "Bible of Tamil Land"?
(1) Aingwunaru
(2) Tirukkural
(3) Silappadhikaram (4) Murugarrt,lpaddi
163. Very small-time intervals are accurately measured by the-
(1) Pulsars (2) White dwarft
(3) Atomic clocks
(4) Quartz clocks
164. People have eyes of different colours, e.g. brown, black or blue, depending upon
the particular pigment present in the-
(1) Iris (2) Cornea
(3) Pupil (4) Choroid
165. The biological death of a patient means death of tissues of the -
(1) Heart (2) brain
(3) Lungs (4) Kidneys
166. What is the name of the world's smallest republic which has an area of21 sq. km
only?
(1) Nauru (2) Palermo
(3) Vatican City (4) Namur
167. The pH of human blood is between-
(1) 5 - 6.5 (2) 6.5 - 7.5 (3) 7.5 – 8 (4) 8 - 8.5
168. Who, from among the following rulers, had ruled over the largest part of India?
(1) Kanishka
(2) Chandragupta-I
(3) Chandragupla Maurya (4) Ashoka
169. Electron microscope was discovered by
(1) Garhn andShbrlt
(2) Knoll and Ruska
(3) Farmer and Moore
(4) Janseen and Janseen
170. Which of the following does not comprise a stage in human history ?
(1) Savagery
(2) Cannibalism
(3) Barbarianism
(4) Civilization
171. Which of the following temples has acquired the name of the Black Pagoda?
(1) Sun temple
(2) Lingaraj temple
(3) Bhuvaneshwari temple
(4) Jagannathdeva temple
172. Who among the following was contemporary of Ashvaghosha ?
173. (1) Menander (2) Harsh
(3) Kanishka (4) Ashoka
173. Name the later Gupta ruler who had performed the Ashwamedha' Yajna (horse
sacrifice) and assumed the imperial title of Maharajadhiraj?
(1) Skandagupla
(21 Mahasena Gupta (3) Adityasen
(4) Kumaragupta II
174. In which town is the mausoleum of Sher Shah located?
(1) Lahore
(2) Fatehpur Sikri (3) Sasaram
(4) Agra
175. The first leader of opposition to get recognition in the Indian Parliament was-
(1) C.M. Stephen
(2) A.K. Gopalan
(3) Y.B. Chavan (4) R.S. Singh
176. With what subject does the Mitakshara, deal?
(1) Law . (2) Granunar
(3) Medicine (4) Theology
177. Which of the following statements cannot be attributed to M.K. Gandhi?
(1) Cowards can never be moral
(2) He who eats two grains must produce four
(3) Man is born free, yet everywhere he is found in chains
(4) Politics bereft of religion is a death - trap because it can kill the soul
178. The process of metamorphosis of rocks may involve -
(1) Sandstone turning into quartzite
(2) Limestone becoming marble
(3) Shale getting converted into slate
(4) All of the above
179. The outermost layer of the sun is called the -
(1) Corona
(2) Lithosphere
(3) Photoshpere (4) Chromosphere
180. The prime source of terrestrial moisture is represented by
(1) Human-made sources
(2) Oceans
(3) Rivers (4) Lakes
181. Which of the following instruments is used to measure humidity?
(1) Hygrometer (2) Barometer
(3) Thermometer (4) Hydrometer
182. What are high pressure winds blowing outward from the centre called?
(1) Doldrums
(2) Anti-cyclones
(3) Pressurized winds (4) Cyclones
183. The monsoon lands are the most conducive to the occupation of:
(1) Forestry (2) Fishing
(3) Industry (4) Agriculture
184. Tomas Transtromer, the Swedish poet, won the 2011 Nobel Prize in Literature on
October 6, 2011. In which year did two Swedish authos won the Nobel Prize in
Literature last time?
(1) 1970 (2) 1976
(3) 1972 (4) 1974
185. Union Communications and IT Minister Kapil Sibal on October 5, 2011 launched
the world's cheapest tabled personal computer, named
(1) Gagan (2) Bhuvan
(3) Aakash (4) Jugnu
186. The climate of India is of which of the following types?
(1) Tropical (2) Savana
(3) Monsoonal
(4) Mediterranean
187. Language of the Sangam Literature was-
(1) Pali (2) Sanskrit
(3) Tamil (4) Prakrit
188. The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in
(1) any Sessions Court
(2) High Court
(3) Supreme Court
(4) any court of law within the territory of India
189. Which country is known as the 'Land of Thousand Lakes' ?
(1) Norway (2) Finland
(3) Canada (4) Ireland
190. Which of the following dynasties existed for one of the longest periods in Indian
history?
(1) Senas (2) Palas
(3) Pratiharas
(4) Western Gangas
191. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India describes tribal
administration of Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram?
(1) First (2) Fifth
(3) Sixth (4) Eighth
192. The fundamental right which has been described by Dr. B.R Ambedkar as 'The
heart and soul of the Constitution' is the right to- /
(1) Equality
(2) Property
(3) Freedom of religion
(4) Constitutional remedies
193. The Chairman of the drafting committee of the Constitution at the time of
independence was -
(1) S. Radhakrishnan

(2) J.L. Nehru


(3) B.R. Ambedkar
(4) Sardar Patel
194. Who is the author of "Buddha Charita"? .;;
(I) Parsnava (2) Vasumitra
(3) Bana Bhatta
(4) Ashvaghosha
195. Bhutan's fifth monarch. King Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuk married on
October 13, 2011 to
(I) Malvika Druk
(2) Devyani Gyal
(3) Jetsun Perna
(4) Jansheen Shama
196. Who was the first Governor-General of East India Company?
(1) Lord Canning
(2) Lord Wellesely
(3) Lord Dalhousie'
(4) Warren Hastings
197. The Constituent Assembly had become a sovereign body after
(1) January 26, 1946
(2) August 15, 1947
(3) November 14, 1949 (4) January 26, 1950 .
198. The special constitutional position of Jammu & Kashmir is that-
(1) It is not one of the States of the Indian Union
(2) It is beyond the purview of the Indian Constitution
(3) Indian laws do not apply to it
(4) It has its own Constitution
199. The inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India was presided over by
-
(I) M.N. Roy (2) C.R. Das
(3) Sachchidananda Sinha
(4) Sardar Patel
200. Match the personalities mentioned below with the activity they are associated
with:
(a) Mark Spitz
(b) Sabeer Bhatia
(c) Shovana Narayan
(d) Adoor Gopalakrishnw'l
(1) Kathak Dancing
(2) Films
(3) Swimming
(4) Software Industry
(a) (b) (c) (d).
(1) 1 3 2 4
(2) 2 4 3 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 4 2 1 3
ANSWERS

1. (1) 2.(4) 3.(1) 4.(2) 5.(2) 6.(2) 7.(4) 8.(3) 9.(3) 10.(1)

11,(3) 12.(2) 13.(3) 14.(2) 15.(2) 16.(2) 17.(3) 18.(4) 19.(4) 20.(1)

21.(4) 22.(3) 23.(4) 24.(1) 25.(4) 26.(4) 27.(4) 28.(4) 29.(1) 30.(1)

31.(1) 32.(4) 33.(3) 34.(1) 35.(1) 36.(3) 37.(4) 38.(3) 39.(4) 40.(4)

41.(2) 42.(4) 43.(1) 44.(2) 45.(2) 46.(1) 47.(4) 48.(1) 49.(2) 50.(2)

51.(3) 52.(1) 53.(2) 54.(4) 55.(3) 56.(1) 57.(3) 58.(4) 59.(2) 60.(3)

61.(3) 62.(2) 63.(1) 64.(4) 65.(3) 66.(4) 67.(3) 68.(2) 69.(3) 70.(3)

71.(2) 72.(2) 73.(1) 74.(3) 75.(2) 76.(3) 77.(1) 78.(1) 79.(4) 80.(1)

81.(1) 82.(3) 83.(4) 84.(3) 85.(3) 86.(1) 87.(2) 88.(4) 89.(1) 90.(1)

91.(4) 92.(2) 93.(3) 94.(1) 95.(4) 96.(3) 97.(4) 98.(1) 99.(2) 100.(3)

101.(1) 102.(2) 103.(3) 104.(2) 105.(2) 106.(2) 107.(4) 108.(3) 109.(2) 110.(3)

111.(3) 112.(3) 113.(2) 114.(4) 115.(2) 116.(3) 117.(4) 118.(3) 119.(1) 120.(1)

121.(4) 122.(1) 123.(1) 124.(3) 125.(4) 126.(3) 127.(3) 128.(3) 129.(2) 130.(4)

131.(1) 132.(3) 133.(3) 134.(3) 135.(2) 136.(2) 137.(3) 138.(2) 139.(4) 140.(3)

141.(3) 142.(4) 143.(4) 144.(1) 145.(2) 146.(3) 147.(2) 148.(3) 149.(4) 150.(2)

151.(2) 152.(4) 153.(1) 154.(3) 155.(3) 156.(3) 157.(3) 158.(3) 159.(4) 160.(3)

161.(3) 162.(2) 163.(3) 164.(1) 165.(2)1 166.(1) 167.(3) 168.(3) 169.(2) 170.(2)

171.(1) 172.(1) 173.(3) 174.(3 175.(3) 176.(1) 177.(3) 178.(4) 179.(4) 180.(4)

181.(1) 182.(2) 183.(4) 184.(4) 185.(3) 186.(3) 187.(3) 188.(4) 189.(2) 190.(2)

191.(2) 192.(4) 193.(3) 194.(4) 195.(3) 196.(1) 197.(2) 198.(4) 199.(3) 200.(3)

EXPALNATIONS.

1. (1) Mr.Rajiv Parmar

C/o Sanjiv Singh


Badi Bazar

Begusarai (BIHAR)

804032

2. (4). Ms. Kamini Kaushal

KAUSHAL NIWAS

Rajendra Nagar

(Road No. 2)

PATNA – 800043

3. (1) 1 3 3 5 5 7 7 9

A C C E E G G I

+4

+4

+4

+4

Similarly,

9 11 11 13 13 15 15 17

I K K M M O O Q

+4

+4
+4

+4

4.(2) The second number is the square of the first number and the third number is obtained by
subtracting first number from the second number

(11)2 = 12 1 and 121 – 11 = 110

(15)2 = 225 and 225 – 15 = 220

Similarly,

(19)2 = 361 and 361 – 19 = 342

5. (2) Dream is antonym of Reality. Similarly , Falsehood is antonym of Truth

6. (2) There are three line segments in the first figure and these three line segments are
converted in to a three sided geometrical figure i.e., a triangle. Similarly six line segments
would be converted into hexagon.

7. (4). From last figure to second figure one of the three designs is deleted and the other and
two designs are rotate through 90° clockwise and half part of each circle gets shaded. Similar
changes would occur from third figure to answer figure.

8. (3) From first figure to second figure the design rotates through 180°

9. (3) Vologogard

2 nd March , 1913

10. (1) Krasnoyarsk

21 st March , 1916.

11. (3) Except in number pair 31 – 35 in all others both the numbers are Prime numbers.

12. (2) Among the four numbers , 37 is a Prime number

13. (3) In all other figures are inner line segments from triangles
14. (2) Except in figure (2) in all other figures all the five segments are of equal length.

15. (2) Except Divulge, all other words imply similar meaning.

16. (2) Except sword, all others are firearms.

17. (3) Except tanker all others make movements in air

18. ( 4) Except in letter Group VTTR, in all other letter groups the two middle letters are
vowels.

19. (4) 8 4 6 9

H -4 D +2 F +3 I

14 10 12 15

N -4 J +2 L +3 O

10 15 17 20

S -4 O +2 Q +3 T

But, 23 19 24 26

W -4 S +5 X +2 Z

20. (1)

a e u f x t K G Z J W S
21. (4)

m n o s t e C L Q H S G

22. ( 3) Arrangements of words according to the dictionary:

2.Granite

5.Grape

4.Graph

1.Grasp

3. Grase

23. (4) Column I Column III

15 + 7 = 22 14 + 7 = 21

15 X 7 = 105 14 X 7 = 98

15 – 7 = 8 14 – 7 = 7

(15)2 = 225 (14)2 = 196

Total 360 Total 322

Column IV

13 + 7 = 20
13 X 7 = 91

13 – 7 = 6

(13)2 = 169

Total 286

24.(1)

Column II Column III Column IV

27 ÷ 3 = 9 24 ÷ 3 = 8 33 ÷ 3 = 11

27 + 3 = 30 24 + 3 = 27 33 +3 = 36

27 x 3 = 81 24 x 3 = 72 33 x 3 = 99

(27 ÷ 3) +2 = 11 (24 ÷3) +2 = 10 (33 ÷ 3 ) +2 = 13

(27 x 3) +2 = 83 (24 x 3) + 2 = 74 (33 x 3 ) +2 = 101

25. (4)

1 4 7 10

A +3 D +3 G +3 J

4 7 10 13

D +3 G +3 J +3 M

8 11 14 17

H +3 K +3 N +3 Q

26. (4) In each subsequent figure the main design rotates through 90° anticlockwise and one line
segment is deleted.

27. (4) 118 + 64 = 182 and 182 + 4 = 186 , 186 + 36 = 222 and 222 + 4 = 226
28. (4) In each subsequent figure the main design rotates through 90° clockwise.

29. (1) In each subsequent figure the shaded sector moves two steps in clockwise direction while
the sector containing plus signs moves three steps in anticlockwise direction.

30. (1) The pattern rose is repeated

rose rose rose rose

31. (1)
+ --- --- X

+ + X +

10 x 5 ÷ 3 – 2 + 3 = ? or ? = 10 ÷ 5 + 3 x 2 – 3 or, ? = 2 + 6 – 3 = 5

32. (4) 14 === 8303

33. (3) Agency 22 has been represented only two times.

34. (1) The second number in each column is square root of the first number. Again, the sum of
second and third numbers is equal to the lowermost number in each column.

√81 = 9 or 20 – 11 = 9

Similarly

36. (3) There is no 'K' letter in the Keyword. Therefore, the word YOKE cannot be

formed.
37.(4) > x V ÷

5 9 2 8 1
38. (3) A + C = 70 years
B + D = 80 years
B + C + D = 120 years
:. C= 40 years and A = 30 years A+D=B+C
or, 30 + D = B + 40 or, D - B = 10
:. B = 35 years and D = 45 years
39.(4) There is no 'F' letter in the keyword. Therefore, the word FIST cannot be
formed.
There is no 'K' letter in the keyword. Therefore, the word LARK cannot be
formed.
There is no 'C' or 'Y' letter in the keyword, Therefore, the word HYPOCRISY cannot

Be formed

40 . (4)

41. (2) It is clear from the statement II that conclusion II follows.

42.(4) Neither of the assumptions is implicit.


43. (1) Required distance
= 30 + 25 + 15 = 70 km
44.(2) Check post B is the farthest lo the South-West of D,
45.(2) The concentric circles are on the face opposite lo star.
46.(1) All fathers must be males.
Some males may be advocates and vice-versa. Some fathers may be advocates and
vice-versa,
46. (4) In the question figure one dot is common to rectangle and circle only.
The second dot is common to triangle and circle only

ENGLISH

51. (3) Use he would go in the place of he will go because Reporting Verb told is in
Past Tense. If the Reporting Verb is in Past Tense then in Indirect Narration we
should use would in the place of will. should instead of shall and might in the
place of may.
For example.
He said. "Meera will go there". (Direct Narration)
He· said that Meera would go there (Indirect Narration)
52. (1) Use the first two chapters in the place of the two first chapters as Ordinal
Adjectives (First. Second. Next. Last etc.) come before the Cardinal Adjectives
(One. Two. Three etc.)
For example.
The first five chapters of this book is very lengthy.
53. (2) Use asked me if in the place of asked me that if. In other words. the term that
has to be omitted. In Indirect Question. That or As To is not used before if.
whether. who. which. what. when. where. whose. Whom eetc.
For example.
(i) She asked me why I was angry.
(ii) I wanted to know if/whether he was guilty.
54. (4) Use vivid reason in the place of vividly reason because vividly is an Adverb
while vivid is an Adjective and reason is a Noun which can be defined by an
Adjective.
For example.
(i) A vivid reason
(ii) A vivid description But.
(ill) A vividly described situation
55.(3) Use get in the place of gets.
56.(1) The correct spelling is : career.
57.(3) The correct spelling is : referee.
58.(4) The correct spelling is : early.
59.(2) The correct spelling is : luggage.
60.(3) The correct spelling is : monitor.
61. (3) severely 62. (2) provides
63. (1) deeply 64. (4) display
65.(3) appropriate
66.(4) one of the richest young merchants
67.(3) Ramlal
68.(2) A dead mouse cannot be an instrument for loan
69. (3) Four
(3) that he could prove his success in business
71. (2) PRQS 72. (2) QSPR
73. (1) PSRQ 74. (3) RPSQ
75. (2) QPSR 76. (3) obituary
77. (1) Anteroom 78. (1) Nemesis 79. (4) Apprentice
SO. (1) Cyclone
81.(1) Idiom to all intents and purposes means: practically, virtually. in all important
respects etc. Therefore its suitable meaning would be Virtually.
(i) To all intents and purposes the Prime Minister of India is the ruler of the
country.
(ii) Although there was still a faint heartbeat. he was to all intents and purposes
dead.
82.(3) Idiom to cast one's 'net wide means : to cover a wide field of supply.
activities. inquiry etc. Therefore. its suitable meaning should be to cover a wide
field of activities.
For example.
The company is casting its net wide ill its search for a new sales director.
83.(4) Idiom to make one's blood creep means : to fill one with horror. To make one
horrified, To make one fearful with terrible acts etc. Therefore its suitable
meaning would be to fill one with horror.
For example.
The incidents of murder. which were witnessed yesterday made my blood creep.
84.(3) Idiom to carry off one's feet means: to be wild with excitement, cause
somebody to lose self-control or Be very excited etc. Therefore. its suitable
meaning would be to be wild with excitement.
For example.
He was carried of this feet when he was declared to have got the success.
85: (3) Idiom to make ducks and drakes means: to squander. To spend injudiciously.
To destroy anything etc. Therefore we can ·select to squander.
For example.
He is young and foolish, he made ducks and drakes of his patrimony.
86.(1) The meanings of the word Impasse (Noun) are: blind alley. dead end. dead lock. halt.
stalemate. standstill. etc. Therefore. we can select deadlock.
For example.
The different Signatory parties of the treaty had reached an impasse and a
permanent solution of the dilemma seemed hopeless.
87. (2) The different meanings of the word Vitiate (Verb) are: blunt. damage, devalue.
diminish,
 harm. hinder. impair. injure, reduce, spoil, undermine, weaken. worsen, etc.
Therefore, its suitable synonym would be impair which is given in option (2).
For example.
Sordid and sensational books tend to vitiate the public taste.
88. (4) The different meanings of the word Transcend (Verb) are : eclipse, exceed,
excel, out do, out rival. out shine, out strip. overstep. surmount, surpass. etc.
Therefore we can select surpass. For example.
Man aspires for his spiritual life which can be achieved only by transcending .the
needs of his mundane existence.
89. (1) The different meanings of Aver (Verb) are: earnestly entreat, urge, appeal to.
solemnly command. etc. Therefore. we can select declare.
For example.
I aver that my motives are genuine and sincere.
They aver that they have been . faithful and have carried out the
orders.
90. (1) The word Frugal (Adjective) is used in different senses viz. careful,
economical, meagre. parsimonious, pennywise. provident. prudent. saving.
sparing. thrifty. etc.
For example.
(i) Now-a-days he is bankrupt. He never liked frugal living.
(ii) He is judicious and frugal in his dealings.
91. (4) The word Ease (Noun/Verb) is used in different senses. viz. : (Noun)-
cleverness, deftness. effortlessness. facility. naturalness. skilfulness. affiuence,
comfort, enjoyment, happiness. rest. etc. (Verb)-abate, calm. forward, lessen,
mitigate. pacify. quiet. relax, smooth. tranquilise, etc. Therefore, its antonym
should be instigate.
92. (2) The different meanings of the word Venerate (Verb) are-adore, esteem, hallow,
honour, respect. revere, worship, etc. Therefore its antonym should be abuse.
93. (3) The different meanings of the word Dour (Adjective) are : austere, dismal,
dreary, forbidding, gloomy, grim, hard, inflexible, morose, obstinate, rigid, severe,
strict, sour, unfriendly, unyielding, etc. Therefore, its' antonym should be would be
cheerful.
94.(I) The different meanings of the word Defiance (Noun) are : challenge,
confrontation, contempt, disobedience, disregard, insolence, insubordination,
opposition, provocation, -rebelliousness, spite, etc. Therefore its antonym would be
subordination.
95. (4) The different meanings of the word Vague (Adjective) are : ambiguous,
amorphous, cloudy, confused, dim, fuzzy, hazy, imprecise, indefinite, indistinct,
misty, nebulous, obscure, shapeless, uncertain, unclear, etc. Therefore its antonym
would be clear.
96.(3) I was kept aw*e by the noise of the traffic. .
97.(4) I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.
98. (1) Why is time wasted by you?
99. (2) By whom are you taught by whom?
100.(3) It is hoped that the match will be won by us.
101.(1) 3000 = 3 x 1000 = 3 X 103 Clearly, when we divide 3000 by natural
number 3, the quotient is 1000 which is a perfect cube.

102.(2) Let the number of boys and girls in the room be x and y respectively.
According to the question, x2 = y2 + 28
~ Xl - if = 28 ..............(i)
and
x=y+2
~ x- y = 2 ............(ii)
On dividing equation (i) by equation (ii), we have
X2 – y2 / x – y = 28/2
~ (x+y) (x-y) / x – y = 14
=x + y = 14
.. Total number of boys and girls = 14
108. (3) a @ b = 2a if a > b

= a + b if a < b = a2 if a = b

= (5 @ 7 ) + (4 @ 4) / 3(5@5) – (5 @ 11) – 3

= (5 + 7) + 42 / 3x52 – 2 x 15 – 3

= 12 + 16 / 75 – 30 – 3 = 28 / 42 = 2/3

109. (2) Here

L ABC + L BCD + L CDE + L DEA + L EAB

= 3 ( sum of angles of triangle)

= 3 x 180° = 540°

110. (3) Here LA + LI + L2 = LB + L3 + L4

= LC + L6 + L5 = LD + L7+ L8
= LE + L9 + L 10 = 1800
~ LA + LB + LC + LD + LE + L 1 +L2+L3+L4+L5+L6+L7+ L8'+' L9 + LIO =
1800 x 5 = 9000
Also Ll + L2 + L3 + L4 + L5 + L6 + L7 + L8 + L9 + LI0
= 7200
~ LA + LB + LC + LD + LE = 9000 - 7200
= 1800
111. (3) Time interval between the first period and last fourth period = 1 : 45 pm. – 10.30 am

= 3 hours 15 minutes

= break after each period = 5 minutes

Total break = 15 minutes

= Time period of classes = 3 hours

15 minutes – 15 minutes = 3 hours

Exact duration of each period = ¾ hour = 45minutes.

112. (3) Sum of one interior angle and exterior angle = 180°
Ratio of one interior and one exterior angle = 5 : 1
Each exterior angle
1/6x180°=30°
As sum of all exterior angle = 360°
Let n be number of sides
n x 30 = 360
n = 360 = 12
30
113. (2) LCM of 25, 50 and 75 = 150
On dividing 43582 by 150, remainder = 82

Illustration: 150) 43582(290 300 / 1358


1350/82

... Required number'


= 43582 + (150 - 82) = 43650
114.(4) Draw EF I I AB
In right angled ∆. EOA and ∆. OCF OA2 = OE2 + AE2 and OC2
= OF2 + CF2
... OA2 + OC2 = OE2 + AE2+ OF2+
CF2 .....................(i)
In right angled ∆ DEO and ∆. OBF
OD2 = OE2 + DE2 , OB2 = 0F2 + BF2
=> OD2+ OB2= OE2+ OF2+ DE2+
BF2 .................(ii)
As FB = EA and DE = CF Here from (i) and (ii) OA2+ OC2= OD2+ OB2

115. (2) 864 /2

432 /2 216/ 2 108/ 2 54 /2 27/ 3 9/3 3

.. 864 = 23 x 33 X 22
For 864n to be a perfect cube, n=2
116.(3) Let the work be completed in x days.
According to the question,

X – 5 /10 + x – 3/12 + x / 15 =1

6x – 30 + 5x -15 + 4x / 60 = 1

15x – 45 = 60
=> 15x = 105 => x = - = 7 15
Hence, the work will be completed in 7 days.
117. (4) Work done by (A + C) in 2

Days = 2 ( 1/10 + 1/20)

= 2 (2 + 1)/20 = 6/20 = 3/10

Remaining work = 1—3/10 = 7/10

(B+C) ‘s 1 days work =

1/15 + 1/20 = 4 + 3 / 60 = 7/60

Time taken by ( B + C) to finish

7/10 part of work = 60 /7 x 7/10 = 6 days.


... Total time = 2 + 6 = 8 days
118. (3) Volume of the cylinder
= πr2x h = πr2X 6 = 6πr2 cm3 Let the height of the cone be h cm.
... Volume of the cone = 1/3πr2 h

According to the question, Volume of the cone = Volume of the cylinder

1/3πr2 h = 6πr2 ===


== h = 18 cm
119. (3) Let the capacity of the tank be x gallons.
Quantity of water filled in the tank in 1 minute when all the pipes A, Band C are
opened simultaneously
= x/20 + x/24 – 3
According to the question,
x/20 + x / 24 – 3 = x/15
= x /20 + x / 24 – x/15 = 3
6x + 5x- 8x = 3
=> 120
=> 3x = 3 x 120
== 3 x 120 / 3
= 120 gallons

120. (I) 10 men'" 20 boys . . 1 man '" 2 boys


.. 8 men +4 boys
= (I6 + 4) boys = 20 boys Hence 8 men and 5 boys will make 260 mates in 20
days.
121.(4) Area of the base of cone = 770 cm2
=> πr2= 770 22/7 r2 = 770

770 x 7 = 245
22
... r= √245 = 7,√5 cm Curved surface area of the cone => πrl=814
22/7 x 7 √5 x 1 = 814
= l = 814 / 22 x √5 = 37 /√5 cm

If the height of the cone be h cm, then


= h2 x r2 = l2 = h2 + (7 √5)2 =( 37/√5)2
= h2 +245 = 1369 / 5 = h2 = 1369 / 5 = 245
= h2 = 1369 – 1225 / 5 = 144/5 ==== h = 12/√5 cm
Volume of the cone = 3 πr2 h
1/3 x 22/7 x 7/√5 x 7/√5 = 12 / √5 = 616 √5 cm2

Let ABC be a right-angled isosceles triangle where


AB = BC = x and LB = 90°.
:. AC = ~x2 +x2 = /2x
.. Perimeter of the triangle ABC = 4//2 + 4
=> x + x + /2x = 4/2 + 4 => 2x + /2x = 4/2 + 4 => 2x + /2x
2.2/2 +/2. 2/2 => x=2/2
. . Length of the hypotenuse
= /2.x J2.2J2 = 4 cm.
123. (1) A/B x B/C x C/D = 2/3 x 2/4 x 2/5 ==== A/D = 2/15
124. (3) Marked price of the fan = Rs. 1400
SP after allowing a discount of 10% = 90% of 1400
1400 x 90
100 = Rs. 1260
Second discount
= Rs. (1260 - 1200 ) = Rs. 60 Let the second discount be x%.
.. x% of 1260 = 60
= 60 x 100 / 1260 = 100/21 = 4 16/21 %
125. (4) Ratio of the volumes of both
Spheres = 4/3 πr13/ 4/3 πr23 =
= 27/8
126.(3) The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of squares of
the corresponding altitudes.

Ratio of altitudes = √25/ √35 = 5/6

127.(3) LACB = LADB = 32° LACD = LABD = 50°


:. x= LBCD
= LACB + LACD = 82°
128.(3) The age of the daughter = (3 x 28 - 2 x 38) years
= (84 - 76) years = 8 years
129.(2) Let the quantity of milk in the mixture = 7 x litres and that of water = 5x litres.
According to the question,
7x
---=- === 7/8
5x + 15
=> 56x = 35x + 105 => 56 x - 35 x = 105

=> 21x= 105 => x= -=105/ 21


.. Required quantity of water = (5x + 15) litres
= 5 x 5 + 15 = 40 Htres
130. (4) According to the question, A: B = 5 : 12 = .10: 24
B : C = 4 : 5.59 = 24 : 33 . . A: B : C = 10 : 24 : 33 Sum of the ratios
= 10 -+- 24 + 33 = 67
Difference between the shares of C and B
= Rs. (33—24/ 67 X201O)
= Rs. (9/67 x 2010) = Rs. 270

131. (1) Let the person sell 9kg of blended tea.


CP of 9 kg of blended tea = Rs"( 5 x 160 + 4 x 200)
= Rs. (800 + 800) = Rs. 1600 SP of 9 kg, of blended tea
= Rs.(192 x 9) = Rs. 1728 Profit = Rs.(1728 - 1600)
= Rs. 128
:. Gain per cent = 128/1600x 100 = 8%

132.(3) If two equal distances are covered at two unequal speeds of x kmph and y
kmph, then average speed
= ( 2xy / x+y) kmPh

2 x 12 x 4 = 96/ 6
12+4 =6kmph

133.(3) As DE II BC, so LADE =LABC


Also, LABC = LACB
:. LADE =LACB (.: AB = AC) :. LADE + LEDB = 180°
=> LACB + LEDB = 180°
Hence, B, C, D and E are concyclic.
134.(3) SP of total agricultural field _ Rs (360000 x 110/100)
= Rs. 396000
SP of one-third of the field
= 1/3 x 360000 x 80/100 = Rs' 96000
SP of 2/5 th of the field
= 2/5 " x 360000 x 125/100
= Rs. 180000
.. SP of the remaining field
= Rs.(396000 - 96000 - 180000) = Rs. 120000
135.(2) SP of electric iron = 88% of Rs. 300
300 x 88
= Rs. 100 = Rs. 264
Profit = 10%
.. CP of electric iron = 100/110x 264
= Rs. 240
After no discount,
Gain = 300 - 240 = Rs. 60
Gain per cent = 60/240 x 100 = 25
136.(2) Let the CP of each article
= Rs. 100 and consumption = 100 units

= Rs.(100 x 100) = Rs. 10000 New price of article = Rs. 80 Consumption = 120
units Expenditure = Rs. (120 x 80) = Rs. 9600
Decrease = Rs. (10000 - 9600) = Rs. 400
. . Percentage decrease

400 x 100/ 10000 = 4%


137.(3) sinθ = cosφ=> sin θ = Sin(π/2 - φ)
θ = π/2 – φ=========== θ +φ = π/2
138.(2) Percentage increase in the area of rectangle
_ (12+15+ 12 x 15)% = 27 + 9/5 % = 28 4/5 %
- 100
139.(4) As - 1 ≤ cos θ ≤1 - a ≤a cos (bx + c) ≤ a
- a + d ≤a cos (bx + c) + d≤ a + d
Hence range of the function l(xl is
[- a + d, a + d] or [d - a, d + a]
140. (3) Let x = 10 and y = 10 :. xy2 = 10 x 10 x 10
= 1000 units
Decreasing values of x and y by 20%.
Expression = xy2 = 8 x 8 x 8 = 512
Decrease = 1000 - 512 = 488 units
Percentage decrease
488 / 1000 x 100 = 48.8 %
141. (3) Let AB be the tower such that CB = a and BD = b
In ∆ ABC

= 60° = AB / BC = AB / a ===== AB = a √3 (i)

In ∆ ABD
tan30°=- AB / BD ======== 1/√3 = AB / b (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii) (AB)2 = ab
AB =.√ab
142.(4) Let the length of the train = x metres
According to the question. Speed of the train

x +90/30 = x/15
~ x + 90 = 2x ==== x = 90 m
Speed of train = 90/15
= 6 metre/second
= 6x 18/5 kmph = 108/5 = 21.6 kmph
143. (4) Ratio of the speed of A, Band C=6:3:1
Ratio of the times taken
1/6 : 1/3 : 1 = 1: 2 : 6
:. lime taken by A
72/6 =12 minutes
144. (1) ,Let the principal be Rs. x.
Compound interest
= Principal [(1 + Rate/100)Time -1]
= x {( 1 + 10/100)2 – 1 }
x [(1.1)2 - 11
= x (1.21 - 1)'= Rs. 0.21x
X x2xl0/100 = .x /5
= Rs. 0.2x
According to the question, 0,21x - 0.2x = 40
~ 0.0lx = 40
~ x = 40/0.01 = Rs. 4000
145.(2) Let the rate of interest = r% p.a. and principal = Re. 1
2 = 1 ( 1+ r/100)4
23 = 13 ( 1 + r/100)12 ======= 8 = 1(1 + r/100 )12
:. Time = 12 years
146. (3) Speed of the motorboat upstream
56km / 1 ¾ hours 56 x 4 / 7 = 32 kmph
Let the speed of the current = x kmph
:. 36 - x = 32
~ x = 36 - 32 = 4 kmph
Speed of motor boat downstream = 36 + 4 = 40 kmph
:. Time taken to cover 56 km at 40
kmph = 56/7 = 7/5 hours ,
= 1 hour 24 minutes
147. (2) Number of Graduate job seekers in 2007 = 525
Number of Senior secondary job -seekers in 2007
= 1050 - 525 = 525
148. (3) Number of job-seekers:
Year 2006 - 1625
Year 2010 - 4000
Difference = 4000 - 1625 = 2375
149. (4) Number of Matriculate jobseekers:
Year 2009 -----3300 - 1800 = 1500
Year 2010 ----- 4000 - 2200 = 1800
150. (2) Required number of job- seekers = 1850 - 1050 = 800
151. (2) Ashok Chakra
152. (4) Kapil Dev
153. (I) 60
154. (4) Initial Public Offer
155. (3) Dadabhai Naoroji
156. (3) National Dairy Development Board
157. (3) Fax
158. (3) Linear momentum
159. (4) Periscope 160. (3) Moscow
160. (3) Evaporation of a volatile liquid
161. (2) Tirukkural
162. (3) Atomic clocks
163. (1) Iris 164. (1) Iris 165. (2) brain
166. (1) Nauru 167. (3) 7.5 -'8
168. (3) Chandragupta Maurya
169. (2) Knoll and Ruska
170. (2)-Cannibalism
171. (1) Sun temple
172. (3) Kanishka 173. (3) Adityasen
174.(3) Sasaram
175.(3) Y.B. Chavan
176.(1) Law
177.(3) Man is born free, yet every where he is found in chains
178. (4) All of the above
179. (4) Chromosphere
180.. (4) Lakes '
181. (1) Hygrometer
182. (2) Anti-cyclones
183. (4) Agriculture
184. (4) 1974
185. (3) Aakash
'186. (3) Monsoonal 187. (3) Tamil
188. (4) any court of law within the territory of India
189. (2) Finland
190. (2) Pal as 191. (3) Sixth
192. (4) Constitutional remedies 193.,(3) B RAmbedkar
194. (4) Ashvaghosha
195. (3) JetsunPema 196.(1) Lord Canning
197.(2) August 15, 1947
198.(4) It has its own Constitution
199.(3) Sachchidahanda Sinha
200.(3) (a) (b) (c) (d) ---- 3 4 1 2

1) The value of

 3  38 7  4 3 is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 8

2. (0.798) 2  (0.404) x 0.798  (0.202) 2 + equals


(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 1.596 (4) 0.404
3. A path of uniform width surrounds a circular park. The difference of
internal and external circumferences of this circular path is 132 metres. Its
width is:

(Taken π =22/7)
(1) 22m (2) 20 m
(3) 21m (4) 24m
4. The perimeter of a rhombus is 40 m and its height is 5 m. Its area is:
(1) 60 m2 (2) 50 m2
(3) 45 m2 (4) 55m2
5. A merchant fixes the sale price of his goods at 15% above the cost price. He sells
his goods at 12% less than the fixed price. His percentage of profit is :

(1)2 ½ (2) 1 1/5 (3) 1 ½ (4) 2

6. A train 800 metre long is running at the speed of 78 km/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in
1 minute, then the length of the tunnel (in metres) is:
(1)77200 (2)500
(3) 1300 (4) 13
7. A man rows a boat 18 kilometres in 4 hours downstream and returns upstream in
12 hours. The speed of the stream (in km per hour) is:
(1) 1 (2) 1.5
(3) 2. (4) 1.75
8. 8% of the voters in an election· did not cast their votes. In this election, there
were only two candidates. The winner by obtaining 48% of the total votes
defeated his contestant by 1100 votes. The total number of voters in the election
was:
(1) 21000 (2) 23500
(3) 22000 (4) 27500
9. In the adjoining figure DC and AB are two poles of lengths 1 I m and 6 m
respectively. Distance between their feet is 12 m. The distance between their tops
is : C

A 11m
6m
B D
12m
(1)5 m (2)6 m
(3)13m (4) 17m
10. In a .certain year, the average monthly income of a person is Rs. 3400 and that for
the first eight months is Rs. 3160 and for 1ihe last five months is Rs. 4120. The
income in the eighth month of the year is:
(1) Rs. 5080 (2) Rs. 6080
(3) Rs. 5180 (4) Rs. 3880
11. HCF and LCM of two numbers are 7 and 140 respectively. If the numbers are
between 20 and 45, the sum of the numbers, is :
(I) 70 (2) 77
(3) 63 (4) 56
12. The present age of a father is 3 years more than three times the age of his son.
Three years hence, father's age will be 10 years more than twice the age of the
son. The father's present age is :
(1) 33 years (2) 39 years
(3) 45 years (4) 40 years

13. In the adjoining figure, &ABO L\DCO. If AB =' 3 cm, CD


= 2cm. OC = 3.8 cm and OD = 3.2 cm. then (OA + OS) is
equal to :

(1)4.8 cm (2) 5.7 cm


(3) 10.5 cm (4) 11.5 cm
14. If one of the interior angles of a regular polygon is found to be 9/8

times of one of the interior angles of a regular hexagon. then the number of sides
of the polygon is:
(1) 8 (2) 14
(3) 12 (4) 10
15. In the adjoining figure, the value of x and yare :

(1)5,4 (2)3.4
(3) 2, 1 (4) None of these
16. In what time will Rs. 1000 amount to Rs. 1331 at 20% per annum, compounded
half yearly?
(I) 1 1/2 years (2) 2 years (3) 1 year (4) 2 ½ years

17. What sum of money will amount to Rs. 520 in 5 years and to Rs. 568 in 7 years at
simple interest?
(1) Rs. 400 (2) Rs. 120 (3) Rs. 510 (4) Rs. 220
18. A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days
and then B left. After another 20 days. A finished the remaining work. In how
many days A alone can finish the job?
(1)50 (2)60
(3)48 (4)54
19. Two pipes A and B can separately fill a cistern in 60 minutes and 75 minutes
respectively. There is a third pipe in the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all
the three pipes are simultaneously opened .. then the cistern is full in 50 minutes.
In how much time the third pipe alone can empty the cistern?
(1) 110 minutes
(2)100 minutes
(3) 120 minutes
(4) 90 minutes
20. If a right circular cone of height' 24 cm has a volume of 1232 cm 3. then the
area of its curved surface (Take π = 22/7) is
(1) 1254 cm2
(2)704 cm2
(3) 550 cm2
(4) 154 cm2
21. Directions (21-25) : A table showing the percentage of the total population of a
State by age groups for the year 2010 is given below. Answer the questions given
below it.

Age group Percent


(in years)
up to 15 30.00
16 - 25 17.75
26 - 35 17.25
36 - 45 14.50
46 - 55 14.25
56 - 65 5.12
66 & above 1.13
Total 100.00

21. Which age group accounts for the maximum population in the State?
(1) 16 - 25
(2) 26 - 35
(3)36 - 45
(4) 56 - 65
22. Out of every 4200 persons. the number of persons below 26 years is :
(1) 2006 approx.
(2)1260 approx.
(3) 746 approx.
(4) 515 approx.
23. There are 200 million people below 36 years. How many millions (approx.)
people are in the age group 56 - 65 ?
(1) 30.07 (2) 15.75 (3) 12.72 (4) 59.30
24. I~ there are 10 millions people in the age group 56 years and above, what is the
difference between the numbers of people in the age groups 16 - 25 and 4655?
(1) 6.8 millions
(2) 5.6 millions
(3) 28.4 millions
(4)34.7 millions
25. If the difference between the number of people in the age groups 46 - 55 and 26 -
35 is 11.75 millions, then the total population of the State is approximately:
(1)360.23 millions
(2)391.67 millions
(3) 400 milli0ns
(4)460.67 millions
26. P and Q are the centres of two circles whose radii are 12 cm and 5 cm
respectively. The direct common tangents to the circles meet PQ at 0, Then 0
divides PQ:
(1) externally in the ratio 12 : 5
(2) externally' in the ratio 5: 12
(3) internally in the ratio 12 : 5
(4) internally in the ratio 5: 12
27.In centre of a triangle lies in the interior of :
(1) an equilateral triangle only
(2) an isosceles triangle only
(3) right triangle only
(4) any triangle
28.Which of the following statements are true:
I. cos 600 = 1 - 2 sin2 300 II. cos 900 = 2 cos2 450 -1
tan 60° - tan 30° / 1 + tan 60° tan 30° = tan 30°
(1) Only III
~(2) I and II
(3) All of these (4) None of these
29.If cos2 450 + Xl + sin2 300 ="2'
then x is:
(1) cos 600 (2) sin 60°
(3) tan 60° (4) 0
30. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 200m from its foot is 30°.
Height of the tower is
(1) 10M m (2) 200/13 m
(3) 20013 m (4) 100/13 m
31. The simplified value of 1/3 + 1/3 x 1/3 / 1/3 +1/3 x 1/3 – 1/9 is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/9
32. The value of
0.051 x 0.051 x 0.051 + 0.041 x 0.041 x 0.041 0.051 x 0.051- 0.051 x 0.041 + 0.041 x
0.041 is:
(1) 0.92 . (2) 0.092 (3) 0.0092 (4) 0.00092
33. Of the following the largest fraction is 6/7, 5/6, 7/8, 4/5
(1) 6/7 (2) 4/5 (3) 5/6 (4) 7/8
34. Si

35. Average age of 6 sons of a family is 8 years. Average age of sons together with
their parents is 22 years. If the father is older than the mother by 8 years,. the age
of I:TIother (in' years) is :
(1) 44 (2) 52
(3) 60 (4) 68

36. A man sells two tables at the same price. On one he makes a profit of 10% and .on
the other he suffers a loss of 10%. His loss per cent on the whole transaction is:
0) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 5

37. The marked price of an article is Rs. 500. It is sold at successive discounts of 20%
and 10%. The selling' price of the article (in rupees) is :
0) 350 (2) 375
(3) 360 (4) 400

38. If 60% of A's income is equal to 75% of B's income, then B's income is equal to x
% of A's income. The value of x is :
0) 70 (2) 60
(3) 80 (4) 90
39. The area of an equilateral triangle is 400 √3 sq.m. Its perimeter is:
(1) 120 m (2) 150 m
. (3) 90 m (4) 135 m
40. A cistern of capacity 8000 litres measures externally 3.3 m by 2.6 m by 1. 1 m
and its walls are 5 cm thick. The thickness of the bottom is:
0) 1m (2) 1.1 m
(3) 1 dm (4) 90 cm

41. A, Band C start at the same time in the same direction to run around a circular
stadium. A completes a round in 252 seconds, B in 308 seconds and C in 198
seconds, all starting at the same point. After what time will they next meet at the
starting point again? .

1) 46 minutes 12 seconds

(2) 45 minutes

(3) 42 minutes 36 seconds (4) 26 minutes 18 seconds

42. A trader marks his goods at 20% above the cost price. If he allows a discount of
5% on the marked price, what profit per cent does he make?
0) 14% (2) 16%
(3) 18% (4) 20%
43. 8 men can do a work in 12 days.
After 6 days of work, 4 more men were engaged to finish the work.
In how many days would the remaining work be completed?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
21
44. If a : b = 2/9 : 1/3’
b : c = 2/7 : 5/14 and d : c = 7/10 : 3/5
then a : b : c : d is
(1) 4 : 6 : 7 : 9
(2) 16.: 24 : 30 : 35
(3) 8 : 12 : 15 : 7
(4) 30 : 35 : 24 : 16

45. In an alloy, the ratio of copper and zinc is 5 : 2. If 1.250 kg of zinc is mixed in 17
kg 500 g of alloy, then the ratio of copper and zinc will be
1)2 : 1 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 2

46. The simple interest on a certain sum for 8 months at 4% per annum is Rs. 129 less
than the simple interest on the same sum for .15 months at 5% per annum. The
sum is:
(1) Rs. 2,580 (2) Rs. 2400
(3) Rs. 2529 (4) Rs. 3600

47. A candidate who gets 20% marks in an examination fails by 30 marks but another
candidate who gets 32% gets 42 marks more than the pass mark. Then the
percentage of pass marks is :
(1) 52% (2) 50%
(3) 33% (4) 25%

48. 40 Litres of a mixture of milk and water contains 10% of water, the water to be
added, to make the water content 20% in- the new mixture is:
(1) 6 Litres (2) 6.5 litres
(3) 5.5 litres (4) 5 litres
49. (a + b + c)2 - (a - b - c)2 = ?
1) 4a (b + c)
(2) 2a (b + c)
(3) 3a (b + c)
(4) 4a (b- c)
50. The value of 999 995 /999 x 999 is
1) 990809 (2) 998996 (3) 999824
(4) 998999

ANSWER

1.(2) 2.(2) 3.(3) 4.(2)


, 5.(2) 6.(2) 7.(2) 8.(4)
9.(3) 10.0) 11.(3) 12.(1)
13.(3) 14.0) 15.(1) 16.(1)
17.(1) 18.(2) 19'.(2) 20.(3)
2.1.(1) 22.(1) 23.(2) 24.(2)
25.(2) 26.(1) 27.(4) 28.(3)
29.(2) 30.(2) 31.(1) 32.(2)
33.(4) 34.(4) 35.(3) 36.(2)
37.(3) 38.(3) 39.(1) 40.(3)
41.(1) 42.(1) 43.(3) 44.(2)
45.(1) 46.(4) 47.(4) 48.(4)
49.(1) 50.(2)

EXPALNATIONS

1. (2)

2
 3 38 7  4 3  3  3  8 4  3  2 x2 x 3   3 3  8 22  3  2 x2 x 3
2
  3 3  8 (2  3)   3 3  8 (2  3)   3 3  16  8 3

  3 ( 3 ) 2  ( 4)  2 x 4 x 3   3 (4  3)2   3 4 3  4 2

2. (2)

3.
2
(0.798) 2  0.404 x 0.798  (0.202) 1  (0.798) 2  2 x 0.798 x 0.202  (0.202) 2  1  (0.798  0.202) 2 
 (1.000) 2  1  1  1  2
3. (3) Let the internal radius of the park be r and the external radius (with the path) be
R.
The difference between the internal and external circumferences is 132 m.
.. 2nR - 2nr = 132 ~ 2n (R - Ii = 132

132 ~ R- r = 2n

=132x7=21 2x22
Hence, the width of path = 21 metres

Perimeter of rhombus = 4 x side .. 4 x side = 40

~ side = 40 = 10m.
4
As a rhombus is a parallelogram of equal sides, its area = base x height = 10 x 5 =
50m2.
5. (2) Let the cost price be Rs. 100. .. Marked price •
= Rs. (100 + 15% of 100) = Rs. 115
The goods are sold at the discount of 12%.
.. S.P. = (115 - 12% of 115) = Rs. (115 - 13.80)
= Rs. 101.20
Profit = Rs. (101.20 -100) = Rs. 1.20

_ 1.20 _0
:. Profit % - 100x 100 - 1.2 lIo

2 1
=1-=1-%
10 5

6. (2) When a train crosses a tunnel, it covers a distance equal to th~sum of its own
length and tunnel.
Let the length of tunnel be x metres.
Speed = 78 kmph
78x 1000
60 x 60 m/ sec.

65 / 3 m / sec

Distance .. Speed = Time

65 /3 = 800+x / 60
~ (800 + xl x 3 = 65x 60 ~ 800 + x = 65 x 20
~ x = 1300 - 800 = 500 .. Length of tunnel
= 500 metres.
7. (2) Rate downstream

18 /4 = 9/2 =-kmph

Rate upstream = - = 18 /12 = 3/2 kmph.


Now, speed of the stream
Rate downstream - Rate upstream /2
9/2—3/2 / 2 = 6/4 = 3/2 = 1.5 kmph.

8. (4) Let the total number of votes be 100.


Number of uncast votes = 8
:. Number of votes polled = 92 Number of votes obtained by the winner = 48
:. Number of votes obtained by the loser = 48 - 44 = 4
If the difference of win be 4 votes . total voters = 100
.. When the difference be 1100 votes, total voters

100 =-xl100=27500 4

9. (3) As we can see that distance between tops of poles = AC

Also in MEC, EC = DC - DE = ll-AB


= 11 - 6 = 5cm
Also, AE = BD ~ AE = 12 m :. AC = ~AE2+ EC2
= ~122 +52
= "144 + 25 = 13m
10.(1) Total income in 12 months
= Rs. (3400 x 12) = Rs. 40800 Total income in the first 8 months = Rs. (3160 x 8) =
Rs. 25280 Total income in the last 5 months = Rs. (4120 x 5) = Rs. 20600
.. Income in the eighth month
= Rs. (25280 + 20600 - 40800) = Rs. 5080
11. (3) Let the numbers be 7 x and 7 y where x and yare co-prime. Now, LCM of 7x
and 7y = 7xy
.. 7xy = 140
~ xy = 140/7 = 20
Now, required values of x and y whose product is 50 and are coprime, will be 4 and
5.
.. Numbers are 28 and 35 which lie between 20 and 45.
.. Required sum = 28 + 35 = 63.
12. (1) Let the son's present age = x years
.. Father's age = (3x + 3) years. After 3 years,
(3x + 3) + 3 = 2(x + 3) + 10 ~ 3x + 6 = 2x + 16
~ x= 10
.. Father's present age = 3x + 3 = 3 x 10 + 3 = 33 years
13. (3) As ∆MOB - ∆.DOC
AB/ DC = AO/OD = BO/OC === AB / DC = AO / OD = = 3/2 = AO/3.2

=AO = 3 x 3.2/2 = 4.8 cm


And AB /DC = BO/OC === 3/2 = BO /3.8

~ BO = 3 x 3.8/2 = 5.7 cm
~ Required sum = OA + OB = 4.8 + 5.7.= l0.5 cm
14. (1) Exterior angle of a regular hexagon
_ 3600 / 6 = 600 Each of interior angles = 180º – 60º = 120º
Each interior angle of the given polygon = 9/8 x 120º = 135º

Each of exterior angle of the given polygon = 180º – 135º = 45º

= 360/n = 45º n = 360/45 = 8º

15. (1) L ADB = L DBC === 28 = 7y === y = 28/7 = 4

Also LABD = LBDC = 12x = 60º === x = 60/12 = 5=== x = 5º

16. (1) Let the required time = t years, interest is compounded half
yearly

Time = 2t years and rate = 20/2 = 10% = 1000 (1+10/100)2t = 1331

=== (11/10)2t = 1331 / 1000 === (11/10)2t = (11/100)3 === 2t = 3 == t = 3/2

======= t = 3/2 years.

17. (1) Simple interest for 2 years Rs. (568 – 520) = Rs. 48

Interest for 5 years = Rs. 48/2 x 5 = Rs.120

Principal = Rs. (520 -- 120 ) = Rs. 400

18. (2) (A+B) ‘s 1 day work = 1/30=== (A+B)’s 20 days work =


20/30=2/3

Remaining work = 1 – 2/3 = 1/3 . Now 1/3 part of work is done by A in 20 days.

Whole work will be done by A alone in 20 x 3 = 60 days.

19. (2)Let the third pipe can empty the cistern in x minutes.

Part of cistern filled in 1 minute when all three pipes are opened

simultaneously = 1/60 + 1/75 = 1/x

According to the question 1/60 + 1/75 – 1/x = 1/50

=== 1/x = 1/60 + 1/75 – 1/50 == 5+4 – 6 / 300 = == x = 300/3 = 100 minutes.
20.(3) Volume of cone = 1/3 πr2h ======= 1232 = 1/3 x 22/7 x r2 x 24

=== r2 = 1232 x 3 x 7 / 22 x 24 = 49 ==== r2 = 49 === r = 7

Slant height √(24)2 = (7)2 = √576+49 = √625 = 25 cm

Area of curved surface = πrl = 22/7 x 7 x 25 = 550 cm2.

21. (1) From the table it is clear that age upto 15 years accounts for maximum
population as its share is 30 % but out of the given options , the age group ( 16 –
25 ) years accounts for maximum population. Hence equation (1) is true.
22. (1) Below 26 years, the percent of population is (30+17.75) = 47.75.
. The required answer = 47.75% of 4200
47.75 x 4200
100
= 2005.5 = 2006
23. (2) Below 36 years, the percent of population is
(30 + 17.75 + 17.25) =65
:. The required number of people = 200 x 5.12 / 65 = 15.75 millions.

24. (2) Per cent of population in the age group 56 yerars and above
= 5.12 + 1.13 = 6.25
Now. 6.25% of population
= 10 millions
:. Total Population
Difference in per cent of people in the age groups ('16 - 25) and (46 - 55)
= 17.75 - 14.25 = 3.5 .. The required difference = 3.5% of 160 millions
3.5 x 160 /100 = 5.6 millions
Required ratio = 12/5 = 12 : 5
27.(4) In centre is the centre of the circle, so it always lies inside the triangle

27.

28. (3) I. cos 60º = ½ , = 1 – 2sin2 30º = 1 – 2(1/2)2 = 1 – ½ = ½


II. Cos 90º = 0 = 2cos245º – 1 == 2(1/√2) – 1 = 1 – 1 = 0
III. tan 60º – tan 30º / 1 + tan60º x tan30º = tan(60º – 30º) = tan 30º

29. (2) cos2 45º =x2 +sin230º = 3/2 === ½ +x2 + ¼ = 3/2
== x2 + ¾ = 3/2 ==== x2 = 3/2 – ¾ = ¾ === x = √3/2 = sin 60º
30. (2) Let QR be the tower PQ = 200 m and θ = 30º

= 5.6 millions
25. (2) Difference in per cent of people in the age groups (46 - 55) and (26 - 35)
= 17.25 - 14.25 = 3
:. 3% of total Population = 11.75 million
:. Total Population
11.75 x 100
3
= 391.67 millions (approx.)
Then tan 30º = RQ /PQ == RQ = PQ tan 30º == 200x 1/√3 = 200 /√3 m
31. (1) The given expression = 1/3 x 3 x 1/3 / 1/3 ÷(1/3x1/3) – 1/9
==== 1/3 / 1/3÷1/9 – 1/9 == 1/3 / 1/3x9 – 1/9
==== 1/3 /3 – 1/9 == 1/9 – 1/9 = 0
32 (2) Let 0.051 = x and 0.041 = y
The given expression x3 + y3 / x2 – xy + y2 == (x+y)(x2-xy+y2)/x2-xy+y2
== x + y = 0.051 + 0.041 = 0.092.
33.(4) The decimal equivalents of : 6/7=0.857, 5/6 = 0.833, 7/8 = 0.875, 4/5 = 0.8
Obviously, 0.875 is the greatest, 7/8 is the largest fraction.
34. (4) The given expression 11/4 / 11/6÷7/8 (4+3)/12 + 5/7 +3/4 of 3/7
=== (11/4 x 6/11) ÷7/8 x 7/12 +5/7 ÷ (3/4 x 3/7)
==== 3/2 ÷ 7/8 x 7/12 + 5/7 ÷ 9/28 === 3/2 x 8/7 x 7/12 + 5/7 x 28/9
===== 1 + 20/9 = 9 + 20 / 9 = 29/9 = 3 2/9
35. (3) let the mother’s age = x years.
Father’s age = ( x + 8) years
Sum of ages of 6 sons = 8 x 6 = 48 years.
Sum of ages of 6 sons and parents = 22 x 8 = 176 years.
Age of parents = 176 – 48 = 128 years. ==== x + x +8 = 128
2x = 120 ======== x = 120/2 = 60 years.
36. (2) if the S.P. of each of two items sold be the same, on one of them there
is x% loss and on other there is a gain of x% then there is always a loss given by
the rule.
X% of x or x2/100 % === Loss% = (10)2/100 = 1%
37.(3) Equivalent discount of successive discounts of 20% and 105
= (20 +10 – 20 x 10 / 100)% = 28%
Selling price = (100 – 28)% of rs 500.=== 72% of Rs.500
== Rs. 500 x 72/100 = Rs.360.
38.(3) let A’s income = Rs.a and b’s income = Rs.b
A x 60% = b x 75% == a x 4 = 5 x b === b/a = 4/5
Now, b = a x x% === b/a = x/100 ==== x/100 = 4/5 === x = 4/5 x 100 = 80
39. (1) Area of equilateral triangle = √3/4 (side)2 == √3/4 x (side)2 = 400√3
== (side)2 = 400√3 x 4 / √3 == side = √4 x 400 = 40 metres.
Perimeter = 3 x side === 3 x 40 = 120 metres.
40.(3) Walls are 5 cm thick,
Internal length = (330 – 2 x 5 ) cm == 320 cm
Breadth = (260 – 10)cm = 250 cm
Height = (110 – x ) cm Here, the cistern is assumed to be open and x is
thickness of bottom 320 x 250 x (110 – x) = 8000 liters
320 x 250 x (110 – x) == 8000 x 1000 cm3
=== 9110 – x ) = 8000000 / 320 x 250 = = 110 – x = 100
=== x = 10 cm = 1 dm.
41.(1)required time = LCM of 252, 308 and 198 seconds.
Now, 252 = 2 x 2 x 3 x3 x 7 , 308 = 2 x 2 x 7 x 11
198 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 11 === LCM = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 7 x 11
== 36 x 77 = 36 x 77/ 60 = 231/ 5 = 46 minutes 12 seconds.
42.(1) let the cost price = Rs. x, Marked price = x + 20% of x
= x = x/5 = Rs. 6x /5,=== Selling price = Rs. (6x/5 – 5% of 6x/5)
= Rs. 6x/5 (1 – 1/20) == Rs. 6x/5 x 19/20 = Rs. 57x/50
= profit = 57x/50 – x = Rs.7x/50, Profit % = 7x/50/x x 100 = 14%
43.(3) Work done by 8 men in 6 days = 6/12 = ½
Remaining work = 1 – ½ = ½, 4 more men are engaged.
Total number of men = 8 + 4 = 12
By work and time formula = W1 / M1D1 = W2/M2D2, we have
= 1/8x12 = ½ /12xD2 = = D2 = ½ x 8x12/12 = 4 days.
44.(2) a : b = 2/9 : 1/3 = 2 : 3
b : c = 2/7 : 5/14 = 4 : 5
d : c = 7/10 : 3/5 = 7 : 6 ========= c : d = 6 : 7
Thus, a : b = 2 : 3, b : c = 4 : 5, c : d = 6 : 7
a:b:c:d =2x4x6 :3x4x6:3x5x6:3x5x7
=== 16 : 24 : 30 : 35
45.(1) Weight of copper in 17 kg 500 g i.e., 17500 gm of alloy
5/7 x 17500 = 12500 gm Weight of Zinc = (17500 – 12500) = 5000 gm
1250 gm of zinc is mixed in alloy.
Total weight of zinc = 1250 + 5000 = 6250 gm
Required ratio = 12500 : 62500 = 2 : 1
46.(40 Let the sum be Rs. x
= x x 5 x 15 / 100 x 12 = x x 4 x 8 / 100 x 12 = 129
=== x / 100 x 12 (75 – 32) = 129 ====== x = 129 x 1200 / 43 = Rs.3600
47.(4) Difference of percentages of maximum marks obtained by two candidates
= 32 % -- 20% = 12% Difference of scores between two candidates =
= 32 + 42 = 72, 12% of maximum marks = 72
= maximum marks = 72 x 100/12 = 600
= pass marks = 20% of 600 = 30 = 120 + 30 = 150
Required percentage = 150/600 x 100 = 25%
48.(4) Water content in 40 liters of mixture = 40 x 10/100 = 4 liters
Milk content = 40 – 4 = 36 liters
Let x liters of water is mixed == 4 + x / 40 + x = 20 / 100
= 4 + x / 40 + x = 1/5 == 20 + 5x = 40 + x === 4x = 20
= x = 20/4 = 5 , x = 5 liters.
49.(1) (a + b + c )2 – (a – b – c)2 = ( a + b + c + a – b – c ( a +b + c – a + b + c )
= 2a ( 2b + 2c) = 4a (b + c )
50.(2) The given expression
== 999 995/999x 999 = (999 + 995/999) 999
=== 999 x 999 + 995/999 x 999
=== (1000 – 1 ) 999 + 995 == 999000 – 999 + 995
=== 999000 – 4 = 998996.
REASONING

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) 56 (2) 35
(3) 49 (4) 42
(5) 51
2. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the
fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter
only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word
can be formed your answer is M. If no such word can be formed your answer is N.
(1) I (2) A
(3) L (4) M
(5) N
3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have
as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English
alphabet?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
4. If in the number 3856490271, positions' of the first and the second digits are
interchanged, positions of the third and fourth digits are interchanged and'so on till
the positions of 9th & 10th digits are interchanged, then which digit will be fifth
from the left end ?
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 9 (4) 0
(5) None of these
5. In a certain code MODE is written as #8%6 and DEAF is written as %67$. How is
FOAM written in that code?
(1) $87# (2) $#7%
(3) #87% (4) $87%
(5) None of these
6. If the digits of the number 783219 are arranged in ascending order within the
number, how many digits will be as far away from the beginning of the number as
they are in the number?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
7. If in the word DOCUMENT all the vowels are first arranged alphabetically
followed by all the consonants arranged alphabetically then which letter will be fifth
from the right?
(1) U (2) D
(3) M (4) N
(5) None of these
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to the group?
(1) Salt
(2) Pepper (3) Chilli
(4) Corriander (5) Cumin
9. What will Come next in the series? 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 5 2 4 6 1 3 5
(1) 2 (2) 9
(3) 6 (4) 7
(5) None of these
10.If '+' means '-', '-' means 'x', 'x' means '÷' and '÷' means '+' then what is the value of
9 - 7 + 85 x 17 ÷ 15 ?
(1) 73 (2) 83
(3) 7-9 (4) 68
(5) None of these
Directions (11-15) :. In each of the questions below are given three statements
followed by .two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion" or II follows.
Give answer (4) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II follow.
11. Statements:
Some chalks are sticks. All sticks are pens.
Some pens are notebooks, Conclusions:
I. Some notebooks are chalks.
II. No notebook is chalk.
12. Statements:
Some stones are bricks. Some bricks are rods. All rods are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are bricks.
II. Some rods are stones,
13. Statements:
All leaves are fruits. Some fruits are stems. All stems are roots.
Conclusions:
I. Some roots are fruits.
II. Some stems are fruits.
14. Statements:
Some bags are trolleys.
. Some trolleys are belts.
No belt is machine.
Conclusions:
I. No trolley is machine.
II. No bag is machine.
15. Statements:
All fans are blades.
All blades are computers.
All computers are systems.
Conclusions:
I. All systems are blades.,
II. All fans are systems.
Directions (16-20) : These questions are based on the following letter / numbers/
symbol arrangement. Study' it carefully to answer these questions.
16. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which element will be
eleventh from the right end? '
(1) G (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) E
(5) None of these
17. Which element is seventh to the left of nineteenth element from the left?
(I) $ (2) 3
(3) G (4) E
(5) None of these
18. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement. each of which is
immediately preceded by a number or immediately followed by a number or
both ?
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 4
(5) None of these
19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
the group?
(I) F 6 D (2) AIR
(3) L # I (4) 5 MU
(5) E# G
20. Which element will be sixth to the left of fifteenth from the left if the order of all
the elements is reversed?
(1) L (2) 1
(3). R (4) I
(5) None of these
Directions (21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I ·and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements
and .
Give answer (1) : if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the
question. while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (2) : if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question. while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) : if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are
sufficient .to answer the question.
Give answer (4) : if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (5) : if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary
to answer the question.
21. Among P, Q. R, Sand T who reached the office first, if each of them reached in
different time? 1. R reached before Q only.
II. S reached after P only.
22. What is the code for 'brave' in the code language ?
I. In the code language 'boy is brave' is written as 'ha ka ta'.
II. In the code language 'brave and clever' is written as 'na pe ka·.
23.How many children does Suneeta have?
I. X is the only daughter of Suneeta.
II. Y is brother of X.
24. How many children are there in the class?
1. Shamika ranks 13th from the top and is 3 ranks above Rajesh who is 18th from
the bottom.
II. Rajesh is 16th from the top and is 5 ranks above Suresh who is 13th from the
bottom.
25. Pole X is in which direction with respect to 'pole Y?
1. Pole H is to the north-east of pole X and to the north of pole Y. II. Pole R is to
the east of pole X and to the north of pole Y.
Directions (26-30) : Study the following information carefully to answer these
questions.
Eight friends A. B, C. D. E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the
centre. H is to the immediate left of E who is third to the right of B. C is second to the
right of D and is not a neighbour of B. F is second to the right of G and is not a
neighbour of C.
26. Who is second to the right 'of E?
(1) F (2) H
(3) C (4) A
(5) None of these
27. Who is third to the left of A?
(1) B (2) H
(3) E (4) F
(5) None of these
28. Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate right of
the second person?
(1) DA (2) AC (3) GC
(4) BF (5) None of these
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and based on their positions in the
above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
the group?
(1) EC (2) AS
(3) FD (4) HA
(5) CH
30. Who is the immediate left of B?
(1) G (2) C
(3) F' . (4) D
(5) None of these
Directions (31-35) : These questions are based on the following set of numbers.
358 426 853 674 592
31. 1fT is subtracted from the middle digit of each number and then the numbers
are arranged in descending order, what will be the sum of the digits of the
second newly formed number?
(I) 16 (2) 15
(3) 11 (4) 12
(5) None of these
32. If in each number the first and the third digits are interchanged then which
number will be the largest?
(I) 358 (2) 426
(3) 853 (4) 674
(5) 592
33. If the first and the second digits in each number are interchanged then which
number will be the smallest?
(1) 358 (2) 426 (3) 853 (4) 674 (5) 592
34. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order what will be the difference
between the third digit of second number and second digit of third number? .
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 5
(5) None of these
35. If in each number first. digit is replaced by the third digit. second digit is replaced
by the first digit and third digit is replaced by the second digit then which number
will be the smallest?
(1) 358 (2) 426
(3) 853 (4) 674 . (5) 592
36. If the alphabets are assigned values such as A = 3, D = 6, G = 8, I = 2, L = 4 and T = 5
then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
(1) 26
(2) 28
(3) 30
(4) 32
(5) None of these

37. If in the word RECITAL, each vowel is replaced by the next letter in English
alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the previous letter in English alphabet
and then all the letters are arranged alphabetically which letter will be third from the
right?
(1) F (2) K
(3) S (4) J.
(5) None of these
38. AF : CH :: KT : ?
(1) . MU (2) LU
(3) LV (4) MV
(5) None of these
Directions (39-40) : These questions are based on the following
information :
'A x B' means 'A is mother of B', 'A + B' means 'A is son of B',
'A + B' means 'A is husband of B'. 'A - B' means 'A is sister of B',
39. Which of the following expressions indicate M is daughter of H ?
(I) M - R ÷ H
(2) M x R ÷ H
(3) R + M - H
(4) H x R- M
(5) None of these
40. If F + K x V -T, how is V related to F?
(1) Son
(2) Niece
(3) Nephew
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of
the questions.
Long ago, the Kingdom of Gandhara was ruled by adjust and good King. His
subjects were very content, but as the King grew older, everyone wondered anxiously
what would happen to the Kingdom. After all the King did not have any children who
could take over the reins of the Kingdom. ,
Now, the King was an avid gardener and put lots of time and effort into tending his
garden and planting the finest flowers, fruits and vegetables. One day, he proclaimed,
"Tomorrow, I shall distribute seeds to the' children of the Kingdom. The one who Is
able to grow the biggest, healthiest plant within three months will be the prince or the
princess." The next day, there was a long line of parents and children outside the palace.
Everyone was eager to get a seed and have the opportunity to be the next King. A poor
, farmer's son was among these children.
Like the King, he too was fond of gardening. His backyard was full of beautiful plants.
He took the seed from the King and planted it in a pot with great care. The weeks passed
and he tilled it with water and manure, but no plant appeared. He tried changing the soil
and even transferred the seed to another pot, but at the end of three months, nothing had
grown.
At last, the day came when the children had to go to the King to show him their plants.
They started walking to the palace, dressed in their belt, holding beautiful plants in their
hands, The farmer's son stood sadly, watching them go by. His father had watched him
working hard with the' seed and felt sorry for him. "Why don't you go to the King with
the empty pot?" he suggested. At least he will know you tried your best. "So the farmer's
son too wore his best clothes and joined the others outside the palace, holding his empty
pot in his hand and ignoring the laughter of those who saw him. Soon the King arrived
and began his inspection. "r have' watered this beautiful flower with the water from the
sacred river," said one. "I have kept my plant in a beautiful glass house to protect It from
bad weather aid another. I have spent all my spare time carrying for this plant said a
third. Thus the children came forward one by one holding flowers of different shades,
which were both beautiful and healthy. The King however did not look happy. At the end
of the line stood the fanner's son, and when the King reached him he stopped In surprise
Child, why have you come with an empty pot? Could you not grow anything?
The boy looked down and said, Forgive me, Your Highness. I tried my best, I gave It the
best soli and manure I had ,but the plant would riot grow, the King's face broke Into a
smile. He enveloped the fanner's son In his arms and announced, "Here Is the crown
princel I had given everyone ,roasted seeds, ,which would never grow, I wanted to see
which child would admit he or she had not been able to grow anything. Only this boy
Kirigdom with Integrity." And that was what happened,. When the. King grew old and
died many years later, the fanner's son, who had learnt everything from him, came to the
throne and ruled Gandhara justly.
51.Which of the following can be Said about the King's subjects?
(AI They were all prosperous and could afford fine clothes.
(B) they had lost confidence in the King’s ability to rule because he had grown old.
(c) They often requested the King to marry and start a family.
(1) Only(A)
(2) Both (A) and '(B)
(3) Only (C) .
(4) All (A) (B) and (C)
(5) None of these
52.Which of the following describes the farmer’s son?
(1) He was preserving by nature
(2) He spent his spare time gardening instead of playing
(3) he loved gardening but was not good at it
(4) He wasted his opportunity to be King
(5) he was the king’s favourite subject.
53. Why did the King choose the farmer’s son as Gandhara’s future King?
(1) The King realized that e had a good character and would make a worthy
ruler.
(2) he knew that he could easily manipulate the farmer’s son
(3) He felt sorry for the farmer’s son and wanted to give him an opportunity.
(4) To reward his honesty in not asking his parents for help to grow the plant.
(5) He was the one who pointed out the King’s mistake of distributing roasted
seeds.
54. Why did the king distribute seeds to the children of his kingdom?
(1) To share his love of gardening with them
(2) To make sure that the future ruler had respect for all living things
(3) It was a test to select the child most suited to be the next ruler
(4) To see if they were ambitious and competed fairly
(5) None of these.
55. Why did the children bring beautiful plants to the palace?
(1) They wanted to gift them to the King for his garden
(2) It was a sign of affection for the King who was retiring
(3) Their parents had forced them to present flowers to the King
(4) To show the King they were more suited than the farmer’s son to rule.
(5) None of these
56. What excuse did the farmer’s son give for not being able to grow a plant
successfully?
(1) His father had refused to help him
(2) The soil and fertilizer he had used were not suitable
(3) He had shifted the seed while it was growing
(4) There was something wrong with the seed
(5) None of these
57. What was worrying the King’s subjects?
(1) The King was too old to bear the burden of running a kingdom
(2) The King devoted too much time to gardening
(3) The King was sick and could die at any time.
4) The King had no heir to the throne
(5) The King had selected a farmer's son to be their King
58. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) The King deliberately roasted the seeds as he did' not want to give up his throne
(2) The King regarded honesty as an important trait for a ruler
(3) Only boys were given the opportunity to prove they were worthy to rule
(4) The King was angry that the farmer's son had come empty handed
(5) The farmer knew why the seed given to his son would not grow.
59. What made the King unhappy with the children?
(A) They had not realised that the seeds he had given them were roasted. •
(B) They had cheated by allowing their parents to grow their plants.
(C) Since they had successfully grown plants he was forced to choose one of them
as King.
(1) Only (B)
(2) Both (A) and (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) None of these
60. How did the farmer deal with the fact that his son had not been able to grow
anything?
(1) Being a farmer, he was ashamed that his son could not cultivate a healthy plant
(2) He was understanding, as it was impossible to grow a plant in three months
(3) He was disappointed because his son would not get the chance to be King
(4) He was sympathetic because his son had worked very hard
(5) None of these
Directions (61-63) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in
meaning as the word printed in bold as 'used in the passage.
61.IGNORING
(l) unaware (2) delaying
(3) disregarding (4) humiliating (5) lacking
62.ENVELOPED
(1) surrounded (2) included
(3) wrapped (4) closed (5) hid
63.PILED
(1) handled (2) poured
(3) utilised (4) provided (5) drowned
Directions (64-65) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning
to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
64.CONTENT
(1) 'pitying (2)miserable
(3) sorrow (4) unlucky
(5) unfortunate, .
65.AVID
(1) unenthusiastic (2) efficient
(3) boring (4) impartial
(5) incompetent .
, Directions (66-70): Rearrange the following six sentences {A}, (B}, (C), (D),
(E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the
questions given below them.
(A) When this boy was twelve years old he attended a party given by his parents.
(B) A boy was considered a dunce and his usual place in class was standing in a
comer as punishment.
(C) The boy timidly quoted the rest of the poem and named the author.
(D) The guest, a famous writer, was delighted and said "You are a bright boy who will
achieve a lot one day" .
(E) This one word of encouragement changed the boy's life - . he went on to become a
famous poet.
(F) One of the guests saw two lines of poetry underneath a painting and wanted to
know who the poet was, but no one knew.
66. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearangement?
(l)B (2) C
(3) D (4) E
(5) F
67. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after
rearrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
68. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?'
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
69. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after re
arrangement?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(5) E
70. Which of the following should be the TIDRD sentence after rearrangement?
(l)B (2) C
(3) D (4) E
(5) F
Directions (71-75) : In each question below a sentence with four words printed
in bold type is given. These are numbered as (I), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four
words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of
the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The
number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly
spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) Le. 'All correct' as
your answer.
71. It is impossible (1)/ to complete (2)/ the entire (3)/
project within the specified (4)/ time frame. All correct (5)
72. The Government is certain (1)/ to amend (2)/ the law to prevail (3)/ the crisis
(4)/. All correct (5)
73. Except (1)/ [or a few, the majority (2)/ of our staff has been recruited (3)/
temporary (4)/. All correct (5) •
74. They patiently (1)/ explained (2) / the procedure (3) for appling (4)/ for a loan
to the villagers. All correct (5)
75. One can succeed (1)/ in business unless (2)/ one is prepared (3)/ to take risks
(4)/. All correct (5)
Directions (76-80) : Which of the phrases (l), (2), (3) and (4) given below each
sentence should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to
make the sentence grammatic31ly meaningful and correct. If the sentence is
correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
76. Inspite of trying his best, Karthik delivered whatever he had promised.
(1) was unable to deliver what (2) delivered none of
(3) could not deliver
(4) cannot deliver however (5) No correction required
77. It was very hot last year that the roads used to be empty in the afternoon.
(1) being so hot (2) was so hot
(3) had been very hot (4) was much hotter
(5) No correction required
78. The salaries we pay our employees are equal the ones that commercial banks pay
theirs.
(1) are equally like
(2) were alike
(3) is similar to
(4) are equivalent to
(5) No correction required
79. To develop their problem solving skills trainees are encouraged to analyse
situations and came to its own solutions.
(1) come up with their
(2) came forward with their
(3) come down with its
(4) come with its
(5) No correction required
80. Overcoming obstacles in the course of her job giving her a lot of self-confidence.
(1) is given her
(2) she has been given
(3) will give her
(4) by giving her
(5) No correction required
Directions (81-90) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is '5'. (Ignore the
errors of punctuation, if any).
81. Rajiv is the best person (1)/ to advise you since(2)/ he faced plenty of difficulty
(3)/ while setting up his business. (4)/ No error (5)
82. The University that (1)/ I taught was (2)/ located on the (3)/ outskirts of the city.
(4)/ No error (5)
83. Most of my (I)/ co-workers have been (2) / transfened to various (3)/ neig1'l.bour
districts. (4)/ No error (5)
84. Though my father spent (1)/ a lot of money on (2)/ our education he refused to
(3)/ give us no pocket money. (4)/ No error (5)
85. Often ideas and concepts (I)/ are passed on from (2)/ one generation to the next
(3)/ without being questioned. (4)/ No error (5)
86. Funds that are collected (I)/ in the morning has (2) / to be disbursed as (3)/ new
loans by afternoon. (4)/ No error (5)
87. Your promotion depends (1)/ on the number of (2) / projects your handling (3)/
during the year.
(4)/ No error (5) .
88. Our team has spent(I)/ the night entirely (2)/ awake trying to decide 13) / what
strategy to adopt. (4)/ No error (5)
89. I have finally managed (I)/ to convince my parents (2)/ to allow myself (3)/ to
study abroad. (4)/ No error (5)
90. When he took a loan (1)/ for the .first time (2)/ he was so nervous that (3)/ he
repay it early. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (91-100) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which
has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out
the appropriate word in each case.
One day my son called me after his exams. I could make out from his voice that
he was (91) 'The exam did
. not go so well. It was not that I did not know but I made a careless mistake." I tried to
(92) him saying, "Don't worry, you will do better next time." He was not pleased to
hear my words. "You don't realise how competitive it is here and how difficult it is to
(93) any thing."
A few days later I got another call from him. "A (94) thing happened", he said.
"When I got my paper I saw that I had (95) marks for the question I had answered
incorrectly. My friends '(96) me to keep quiet as the Professor must have made a
mistake. But you taught me the value of honesty so I emailed him saying I did not
(97) the marks." His reply was more surprising. "It was (98)," he said. "My interaction
with you throughout the year (99) me that you knew how to
solve the problem. That is the reason I gave you those marks." I was happier about my
son's (100) than his marks.
91. (1) bother (2)sad (3) unwell (4) distress
(5) confused
92. (1) pity (2) forgive
(3) console (4) cheer
(5) sympathise
93. (1) strive (2) triumph
(3) succeed (4) want
(5) achieve
94. (1) thrilled (2) routine.
(3) disastrous (4) funny (5) different
95. (1) assigned
(2) awarded
(3) obtain (4) received
(5) given
96. (1) suggested (2) advised
(3) warn (4) made
(5) recommended
97. (1) deserve (2) qualify
(3) need (4) receive
(5) justify
98. (1) knowing (2) mistaken
(3) oversight (4) deliberate (5) intend
99. (1) persuade (2) merited
(3) convinced (4) proved (5) informed
100.(1) value (3) truth
Directions (101 - 125) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in
the following questions ?
101. 64% of 460 = ?
(1) 288 (2) 300.8
(3) 276 (4) 294.4
(5) None of these
102. 1615 + (50 x 0.85) = ?
(1) 36 (2) 38
, (3) 40 (4) 42
(5) None of these
103: 65 - 63 = ?
(1) 36 (2) 216
(3) 7560 (4) 1296
(5) None of these
104.15.5 x ? = 1178
(1) 66 (2) 70
(3) 74 (4) 78
(5) None of these
105.676.66 x 0.76 + 06.66 -76.76 = ?
(l) 444.1616 (2) 444.1515
. (3) 444.1414 (4) 444.1313
(5) None of these
106.547 x 37 - 20000 = ?
(1) 239 (2) 237
(3) 235 (4) 233
(5) None of these
107.88.8 x 8.8 x 0.08 = ?
(I) 625.152 (2) 62.5152
(3) 6.25152 (4) 0.625152
(5) None of these /
108.38% of 818 - ?% of 636 = 158.2
(1) 12 (2) 24
(3) 36 (4) 48
(5) None of these
109.783 + 9 + 0.75 = ?
(1) 130 (2) 124
(3) 118 (4) 112
(5) None of these
110. 8 1/3 + 10 5/6 = ?
(1) 5/6 (2) 2/3
(3) 10/13 (4) 11/13
(5) None of these
111. 41 x ? = 23616 ÷ 32
(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 17
(5) None of these
112.77745 - 43892 - 12673 = ?
(1) 21180 (2) 21810
(3) 21108 (4) 21801
(5) None of these
113. 13.8 x 16.7 x 21.4 - 2931.844 =?
(1) 1800 (2) 1900
(3) 2000 (4) 2100
(5) None of these
114.16 + 19 x 72 ÷ 12 = ?
(1) 210 (2) 140
(3) 160 (4) 180
(5) None of these

3 4 5
115. 3/10 of 4/7 of "5/8 of 616 = ?
(1) 72 (2) 66
(3) 58 (4) 44
(5) None of these
116. (51)3 x (14)3 - (19077)2 = ?
(1) 62415
(2) 33793
(3) 57238 (4) 46933
(5) None of these
117.? ÷ 48 x 17 = 612
(1) 1680 (2) 1728
(3) 1874· (4) 1936
(5) None of these
118.983.12 - 411.25 + 99.06 = ?
(1).670.63 (2) 670.93
(3) 670.73 (4) 670.83
(5) None of these
119. 101120 ÷ J? = 316 x 5
(1) 4096 (2) 64
(3) 62 (4) 3844
(5) None of these
120; 39 x 528 ÷ 33 - 19 = ?
(1) 601 (2) 602
(3) 603 (4) 604
(5) None of these
121.82% of 850 - (?)2 = (16)2
(l) 30 (2) 27
(3) 24 (4) 21
(5) None of these
122.13498 + 8932 - 1159 =' ? x 89
(1) 231 (2) 233
(3) 237 (4) 239
. (5) None of these
123.84963 + 31825 = ? – 99900
(1) 216868
(2) 216688
(3) 218866 (4) 218686
(5) None of these
124.1637 + 1832 = (45)2 + (?)2
(1) 38 (2) 42
(3) 46 (4) 54
(5) None of these
125. J? + 25 = J 4489
(1) 1936 (2) 1444
(3) 1681 (4) 1722
(5) None of these
126. Akshama invests Rs. 3,888, which is 18% of her monthly income, in mutual
funds. What is her annual income?
(l) Rs. 2,59,200 (2) Rs. 21,600 (3) Rs. 1,29,600
(4) Rs. 64,800
(5) None of these
127.Mr. Gagan Rathee deposits an amount of Rs. 96,000 to obtain compound interest
at the rate of 10. p.c.p.a. for 3 years. What total amount will Mr. Gagan Rathee
get at the end of 3 years 7
(1) Rs. 1,24,776
(2) Rs. 1,25,776
(3) Rs. 1,26,776
(4) Rs. 1,27,776
(5) None of these
128.A single person takes 10 minutes to stitch a bag. If from 10.00 a.m.
to 12.30 p.m., 1245 bags are to be stitched, how many persons should be
employed on this job?
(1) 81 (2) 82
(3) 83 (4) 84
(5) None of these
129.In an examination it is required to get 290 of the aggregate marks to pass. A
student gets 203 marks and is declared failed by 12% of total marks. what are the
maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(1) 775 (2) 750
(3) 725
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
130.The cost of 8 diaries and 10 calendars is Rs. 3,138. What is the cost of 12 diaries
and 15 calendars?
(1) Rs. 4,707 (2) Rs. 4,606 (3) Rs. 4,505
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
131.The ages of Vaibhav and Jagat are in the ratio of 12 : 7 respectively. After 6 years
the ratio of their ages will be 3 : 2. What is the difference in their ages?
(1) 8 years (2) 12 years
(3) 9 years (4) 10 years
(5) None of these
132.What is the least number to be added to 8008 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 273 (2) 87
(3) 264 (4) 92
133.(5) None of these The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6723. What is
the square root of the smaller number?
(1) 9 (2) 729
(3) 6561 (4) 81
(5) None of these
134.What is 519 times 176?
(1) 91168 (2) 91344
(3) 91520 (4) 91696
(5) None of these -
135.60 per cent of first number is 40 per cent of the second number. What is the
respective ratio of the first number to the second number 7
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 21 : 31
(3) 7: 10
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
136.The owner of a book shop charges his customer 28% more than the cost price. If a
customer paid Rs. 1,408 for some books, then what was the cost price of the
books?
(1) Rs. 1,1 00 (2) Rs. 1, 111
(3) Rs. 1,110 (4) Rs. 1,000 (5) None of these
137.The difference between 56% of a number and 39% of the same number is 425.
What is 63% of that number?
(1) 1525 (2) 1650
(3) 1700 (4) 1575
(5) None of these
138.In an annual examination Sumati scores a total of 762 marks out of925. What is
her approximate percentage in the annual examination?
(1) 74 (2)90 (3) 78 (4) 86 (5) 82
139. Find the average of the following set of scores :
456, 328, 489, 453, 511, 328, 222, 205
(1) 374 (2) 388
(3) 362 (4) 391
(5) None of these
140. 61 % of a number is 9028. What is 46% of that number?
('1) 6660 (2) 6956
(3) 7104 (4) 6808
(5) None of these
141.What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 12,500 at the
rate of 12 p.c.p.a. after 2 years?
(1) Rs. 3,180 (21 Fos. 3,360
(3) Rs. 3,540 (4) I's. 3,720 (5) None of these
142.ff an amount of Rs. 1,42,136 is distributed equally amongst 163 persons, how
much amount would each persons 1 get?
(1) Rs. 862 (2) Rs.. 872
. (3) Rs. 882 (4) Rs. 892
(5) None of these
143.The average age or a woman and her daughter is 46, years. The ratio of their ages
b 15: 8 respectively. What will be the respective ratio of their ages after 8 years?
(1) 8 : 5 (2) 10 : 17
(3) 17 : 10 (4) ') : 8
(5) None of these
144.If (33)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 5272.
What is the number?
(1) 223 (2) 193
(3) 213 (4) 203
(5) None of these
145.What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 7,385 at the rale
of 10 p.c.p.a. after 8 years?
(1) Rs. 5,302
(2) Rs. 5,504
(3) Rs. 5,706
(4) Rs. 5,908
(5) None of these.
146.What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following question?
'6783÷ 129 x (12)2 -717 =?
(1) 6455 (2) 6555
(3) 6655 (4) 6755
(5) 6855
147.If (150)2 is added to the cube of a number, the answer so obtained is 77372. What
is the number?
(1) 32 (2) 34
(3) 36 (4) 38
(5) None of these
148.The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, D and E is 55. What is the
product of Band D ?
(1) 2915 . (2) 3127
(3) 3021 (4) 2703
(5) None of these.

149. If the fractions 4/5, 7/9, 5/6, 8/9, 6/11 and 10/11 are arranged in ascending order of their
values, which one will be the third?

(1) 4/5 (2) 8/9 (3) 7/9 (4) 6/11 (5) 5/6

150.A bus covers a distance of 1488 km in 24 hours. What is the average speed of the
bus?
(1) 63 kmph
(2) 64kmph
(3) 68kmph
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

151. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money
laundering. Which of the following' acts/norms are launched by the banks to
prevent money laundering in general ?

(1) Know Your Customer Norms

(2) Banking Regulation Act


(3) Negotiable Instrument Act
(4) Narcotics and Psychotropic . Substance Act .
(5) None of these'
152.Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M~Banking Facility to their
customers. What is the full form of' M' in 'M-Banking'?
(1) Money
(2) Marginal
(3) Message
(4) Mutual Fund (5) Mobile Phone
Which of the following is/are true about the "Sub-Prime Crisis"? (The term was very
much in news recently).
(a) It is a mortgage crisis referring to Credit default by· the borrowers.
(h) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk
borrowers:
(c) This crisis originated because of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers.
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) All A, Band C
(5) None of these
154.Which of the following is NOT the part of the structure of the Financial System in
India?
(1) Industrial Finance
{2) Agricultural Finance
(3) Government Finance
(4) Development Finance
(5) Personal Finance
155.Which of the following is NOT the part of the scheduled banking structure in
India?
(1) Money Lenders
(2) Public Sector Banks
(3) Private Sector Banks
(4) Regional Rural Banks
(5) State Co-operative Banks
156.As we all know Government of India collects tax revenue on various activities' in
the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ? (al
Tax on Income
(b) Tax on Expenditure
(c) Tax on Property or Capital
Asset
(d) Tax on Goods and Services
(1) Both A and C only
(2) Both B and D only
(3) All A, B. C and D
(4) Only B. C and D
(5) None of these
157.We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers.
These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives?
(1) To attract foreign investment directly.
(2) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals.
(3) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities.
(I) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A. B and C (5) None of these
158.Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global
emission of carbon every year?
(I) US. China, India, South Africa
(2) India. China, Russia, Britain
(3) South Africa. Nepal, Myanmar
(4) US. Russia, China & India (5) None of these
159.Which of the following correctly describes the concept of "Nuclear Bank" floated
by International Atomic Energy Agency?
(a) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly
(b) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium.
(c) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the
nations.
(I) Only A .
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and C Only (4) Only C
(5) Both A and B only
160.Many times we read about Futrue Trading in newspapers. What is 'Future
Trading' ?
(a) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges where in it decided to
purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year.
(b) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the
future at a predetermined price.
(c) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of
each other under any' circumstances in future or for a given period of time.
(I) Only A (2) Only B (3) Only C
(4) All A, B and C (5) None of these
161. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/ indicators?
(1) Cost of Living Index (COLI)
(2) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(3) Gross Domestic Product
(4) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(5) None of these
162.Name the scientist whose death was unknown to the Nobel Prize Committee when
it made the announcement for 2011 Nobel Prize for Medicine in October 2011.
(1) Jules Hoffman
(2) Dr. Ralph M Steinman
(3) Harriet Wallberg
(4) Bruce Beutler
(5) None of these
163.Which golfing great has dropped out of the top 50 in the World ranking in October
2011 for the first time in nearly 15 years?
(1) Tiger Woods
(2) Ryo Ishikawa
(3) Daisuke Maruyama
(4) Tetsuji Hiratsuka
(5) None of these
164.Hypersonic missile of India Shourya- was successfully testfired from a
canister from Integrated Test Range at Chandipur on .September 24, 20 II. It
was ___ successful flight of the missile in a row.
(1) third (2) fourth
(3) fifth (4) second
(5) None of these
165.Who among the following won the women's race in the Berlin Marathon on
September 25. 2011 ?
(I) Paula Radcliffe of England
(2) Irina Mikitenko of Germany
(3) Florence Kiplagat of Kenya
(4) Zhong Xianxin of China
(5) None of these
166.The 14th edition of India International Security Expo was organised from October
12 to October 15. 2011 in
(1) Mumbai (2) Kolkata
(3) New Delhi
(4) Jaipur (5) None of these
167.The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which
of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of
the same?
(I) Tobacco
(2) Alcoholic drinks (3) Junk Food
(5) None of these
168.According to the revised provisions of the rules. a political party must
secure how many per cent of the total votes polled in general elections to
the state assembly or Lok Sabha to be recognised as state-level political
party. even if it does not win a
seat?
(1) 6 per cent (2) 8 per cent (3) ten per cent
(4) four per cent
(5) None of these
169.India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of various rivers.
Which of the following rivers is NOT covered under these agreements?
(I) Kosi (2) Gandak
(3) Ganga (4) Mahakali
(5) All these rivers are covered
170. Which of the following names is NOT closely associated with
space programme of India or any other country ?
(1) CARTOSAT
(2) NLS-5
(3) RUBIN-8 (4) GSLV
(5) SCOPE
171.Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of ---
(1) Hockey (2) Cricket
(3) Badminton (4) Football
(5) Golf

172. On which of the following dates in the month of October the World Standard Day
is celebrated every year ?
(1) 12th (2) 14th
(3) 16th (4) 18th
(5) None of the"

173. Which of the following schemes is NOT a social development Scheme?


(1) Indira Awas yojana (2) Mid Day Meal
(3) Bharat Nirman Yojana
(4) Sarva Shikasha Abhiyan (5) All are social schemes
174.Which of the following is NOT a member of ASEAN ?
(1) Malaysia
(2) Indonesia
(3) Vietnam
(4) Britain
(5) Singapore

175. Which of the following Awards are given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(1) Kalinga Prize
(2) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(3) Arjuna Award
(4) Pulitzer Prize (5) None of these

176. RBI's open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate---
(1) Liquidity in the economy
(2) Prices of essenties commodities
(3) In1lation
(4) Borrowing power of the banks (5) All of the above

177. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in
cordination with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is gener-
aly known as ----
(1) Participation
(2) Consortium
(3) Syndication
(4) Multiple banking (5) None of these
178.Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control
credit expansion in to economy means .—
(1) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(2) Issuance of different types of bonds
(3) Auction of gold
(4) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(5) None of these

179. The bank rate means ---


(1) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
(2) Rate of interest at which Commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers.
(3) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
(4) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of ex.change of commercial
banks.
(5) None of these
180. What is an Indian Depository Receipt?
(1) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
(2) A depository account with any of Depositories in India
(3) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository
against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
(4) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
(5) None of these
181. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold,
stocks etc.) is known as ---
(1) Derivative
(2) Securitisation Receipts
(3) Hedge Fund
(4) Factoring
(5) None of these
182.Fiscal deficit is ---
(1) total income less Govt. borrowing
(2) total payments less total receipts
(3) total payments less capital receipts
(4) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
(5) None of these
183.In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to ----
(1) purchase of securities to cover the sale
(2) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase
(3) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price
(4) variation in different markets
(5) Any of the above
184. Reverse repo means –
-(i) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Govt.
securities.
(2) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. securities.
(3) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhance economic growth rate
(4) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market
(5) Any of the above

185. The stance of RBI monetary policy is ----


inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
(2) improving credit quality of the banks
(3) strengthening credit delivery mechanism
(4) supporting investment demand in the economy
(5) Any of the above

186.Currency Swap? is an instrument to manage ---


(1) currency risk
(2) interest rate risk
(3) currency and interest rate risk
(4) cash flows in different currencies
(5) All of the above
187."Sub-prime" refers to---
(1) lending done by banks at rates below PLR
(2) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates
(3) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Banker's Almanac
(4) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with
normally required credit appraisal standards
(5) All of the above
188. Euro Bond is an instrument
(1) issued in the European market
(2) issued in Euro currency
(3) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
(4) All of the above (5) None of these
188. Money Laundering normally involves ---
(1) placement of funds . (2) layering of funds
(3) integration of funds
(4) All (1), (2) and (3) (5) None of these
190.The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to----
(1) strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and
prosperous global economy
(2) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation
(3) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction
(4) All (1), (2) and (3)
(5) None of these
191. Capital Market regulator is--
(1) RBI (2) IRDA
(3) NSE • (4) BSE
(5) SEBI
192. Who among the following was honoured with the first Hridaynath Award on
September 28, 2011 in Mumbai ?
(1) Asha Bhosale
(2) Lata Mangeshkar (3) Sadha Sargam
(4) Sardna Malik
(5) None of these
193. FDI refers to ---
(1) Fixed Deposit Interest
(2) Fixed Deposit Investment
(3) Foreign Direct Investment
(4) Future Derivative Investment (5) None of these
194. What is Call Money?
(1) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(2) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
(3) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
(4) Money borrowed for more than one day but up to 14 days (5) None of these
196.Which is the. first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ?
(1) Reliance (2) TCS
(3) HCL (4) Infosys
(5) None of these
196. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India ?
(1) RBI (2) SBI
(3) SIDBI (4) SEBI
(5) None of these
197. The Economic Survey 2010-11, tabled by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee in
Parliament on February 25, 2011,
IN Noted that policy reforms were required to bring about better convergence of schemes to
avoid duplication and leakages to ensure that the intended benefits reach the targeted
groups. .
(B) Advised the government to carry out nearly a dozen reforms pertaining to various
sectors of the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1) Neither (A) nor (B)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(5) None of these
198. The Railway Budget 2011-2012, presented in the Parliament on February 25, 20
II, announced:
IN Run double-stack container trains from Gujarat ports to the major ICD at Gurgaon.
(B) Issuing paperless railway receipts. .
(C) Centres of Excellence for development and prototyping various types of Mechatronics
systems at RCF /Kapurthala and DMW /Patiala.
Which of the statements given 3.!?ove is/are correct?
(1) Only (C) (2) Only (B)
(3) Only (A)
(4) All of the above (5) None of these
199.Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee presenting the Union Budget 2011-2012 in
the Parliament on February 28, 2011, announced a new simplified form ' __ ' to be
introduced to reduce the compliance burden of small tax payers falling within
presumptive taxation.
(1) Suvidha (2) Sahara
(3) Sugam (4) Sulabh (5) None of these
200. Red Bull's Sebastian Vettel of Germany became the youngest Formula One
driver to win backto-back world championships on October 9, 2011 when he
finished third in the Japanese Grand Prix. and joined an elite band of racers
like Ayrton Senna, Michael Schumacher and , Fernando Alonso, who have
won two successive world championships. The winner of Japanese Grand Prix
was
(1) Jenson Button
(2) Mark Webber
(3) Lewis Hamilton
(4) Nico Roseberg
(5) None of these
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

201.Restarting a computer which is already running is referred to as


(1) booting (2) starting
. (3) rebooting
(4) second-starting
(5) None of these
202. If you open a menu and then decide you don't want to select an option after all.
click the menu title again or press the __ key
to close the menu.
(1) Shift (2) Tab
(3) F1 (4) Esc
·(5) None of these
203.__ provides process and memory management services that allow two or more tasks,
jobs, or 2 programs to run simultaneously.
(1) Multitasking
(2) Multithreading
(3) Multiprocessing
(4) Multi computing
204.(5) None of these To make the number pad act as directional arrows, you press the
__ key.
(1) num lock (2) caps lock
(3) arrow lock (4) shift
(5) None of these
205. A computer cannot "boot" if it does not have the
(1) Compiler
(2) Loader
(3) Operating System (4) Assembler
(5) None of these
206.A key that will erase information from the computer's memory and characters on the
screen
(1) edit (2) delete key
(3) dummy out (4) trust key (5) esc key
207. The primary goal of a computer system is to turn data into _
(1) ideas (2) suggestions
(3) information (4) reports
(5) pictures
208. To keep files organised, related documents are often stored in __ (also called
directories) located on the storage medium.
(1) indexes (2) labels
(3) folders (4) programs
(5) home pages
209. Terminal is
(1) a device to give power supply to the computer
(2) a point at which data enters or leaves the computer
(3) the last Instruction in a program
(4) any input / output device (5) None of these
210. The computer abbreviation KB usually means
(1) Key Block (2) Kernel Boot
(3) Kilo Byte (4) Kit Bit
(5J None of these
211.A series of statements explaining how the data is to be processed is called
(1) instruction (2) compiler
(3) program (4) interpreter
(5) None of these
212. Computers that are portable and convenient for users who travel are known as
(1) supercomputers (2) laptops
(3) minicomputers
(4) file servers (5) None of these
213. A computer's type, processor, and operating system define its
(I) brand (2) size
(3) platform (4) speed
(5) format
214.__ is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(1) Tracking (2) Formatting
(3) Crashing (4) Allotting
(5) Dicing
215. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be
(1) distributed (2) wireless
(3) centralised (4) open source (5) scattered
216.A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be
changed or erased by the user is _
(1) memory-only
(2) write-only
(3) read-only
(4) run-only
(5) non-changeable
217. Arithmetic operations.
(1) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater
than, equal to, or less than the other item.
(2) sort data items according to standard. predefined criteria in ascending order or de-
scending order
(3) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR, and NOT
(4) include addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division
(5) None of these
218. Wh1ch of the fo1lowing .is not true?
(I) Chatting is like e-mail
(2) Chatting can only be done with a single person .
(3) Chatting can involve multiple persons
(4) Chatting is an electronic dialogue
(5) None of these
219. A keyboard is this kind of device
(I) scanning (2) black
(3) output (4) input
(5) word processing
220. A __ is hardware used to read disks.
(1) floppy disk (2) hardware
(3) software (4) disk drive (5) CPU
221. The __ is the brain of the computer.
(I) hardware (2) hard disk
(3) CPU (4) floppy disk
(5) keyboard
222. Files deleted from the hard disk are sent to the _
0) recycle Bin . (2) floppy disk
(3) clipboard (4)motherboard
(5) None of these
223. What are the two parts of an Email address?
(1) User name and street address
(2) Legal name and phone number
(3) Initials and password
(4) User name and domain name (5) None of these
224. A is often used to select or highlight.
(1) icon
(2) keyboard
(3) hard disk (4) floppy disk (5) mouse
225; The copy command saves to
(1) the desktop
(2) the clipboard
(3) printer
(4) Microsoft Word (5) paste
226. Computer equipment itself is called _
(1) hardware (2) byte
(3) mouse (4) software
(5) default
227. Mr. X has no printer to print his report He wants to take it to Mr Y's computer
because Mr . .Y has a printer. Mr. X could save 'his report on a_
(1) hard drive
(2) piece of paper (3) scanner
(4) monitor (5) floppy disk
228. Removable disks are often called what?
(I) floppies (2) hard drives
(3) RAM drives
(4) expansion cards (5) None of these
229. A __ is the general term for hardware not necessary to the basic function of the
computer. connected externally.
(1) icon (2) bit
(3) keyboard (4) printer
(5) None of these
230. Sending an E-mail is similar to _
(1) writing a letter
(2) drawing a picture
(3) talking on the phone
(4) sending a package
(5) None of these
231. What part of the computer stores programs and files for later use? (1) RAM memory
(2) hard drive
(3) mother board
(4) adapter board
(5) None of these
232. If you are going to a site you use often. instead of having to type in the address
every time, you should .
(1) make a copy of it
(2) save it as a file
(3) memorise it
(4) bookmark it
(5) note it in your diary
233. The most frequently used piece of hardware for inputting data is the
(1) keyboard
(3) cursor
(5) hardware
234. What does a 6rowser do ?
(l) Looks through magazines and books in the library
(2) Reads material really fast
(3) It wastes your time
(4) It provides help menus
(5) It is software used to view web pages'
235. This is a permanent storage device
(1) floppy disk (2) monitor
(3) RAM (4) cache
(5) hard disk
236. The __ may also be called the screen or monitor.
(1) printer (2) scanner
(3) hard disk (4) software (5) display
237. Something which has easily-understood instructions is said to be
(1) hyper (2) icon
(3) information
(4) word processing. (5) user friendly
238. The __ settings are automatic and standard.
(1) icon (2) default
(3) CPU (4) peripheral
(5) user friendly
239. The _ of a system includes the programs or instructions.
(1) peripheral (2) software
(3) information (4) icon
(5) hardware
240. Windows 95, Windows 98. and
. Windows NT are known as what?
( 1) processors
(2) domain names (3) modems
(4) operating systems (5) None of these
241. Checking that a pin code number is valid before it is entered into the system is an
example of
(1) Error correction
(2) Backup and recovery (3) Data preparation
(4) Data validation
(5) None of these
242. A compiler translates higher-level programs into a machine language program,
which is called
(1) Source code
(2) Object code
(3) Compiled code
(4) Beta code
(5) None of these
243.The two major categories of software include
(1) operating system and utility
(2) Personal productivity and system
(3) System and application
(4) System and utility
(5) None of these
244.Windows 95. Windows 98 and Windows NT are known as
, (1) Processors
(2) Domain names (3) Modems
(4) Operating systems (5) None of these
245. A computer's clock speed is measured in: ..
(1) Gigabytes.
(2) Bits.
(3) Bytes
(4) Megahertz or Gigahertz. (5) None of these
246. A group of related fields in a database is called a(n):
(1) Record. (2) Object.
(3) Memo. . (4) Table.
(5) None of these
247. A _ is a collection of computers and device connected together.
(1) Protocol
(2) Memory card (3) Network
(4) central Processing Unit (5) None of these
248. Multiplexing involves -------------- path and ---------- channel
(1) One, one (2) One, multiple
(3) Multiple, one (4) Multiple, multiple
(5) None of these
249. Choose the web browser among the following
(1) World Wide Web (2) Yahoo
(3) Web Portal (4) Internet Explorer
(5) None of these
250. In the URL http :: // www.kiranprakashan.com the portion labeled
http is the -----
(1) Host (2) Domain name
(3) Protocol (4) Top-level domain (5) None of these.

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3)

5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (5) 8. (1)


9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (1)
13. (5) 14. (4) 15. (2) 16. (3)
17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (5) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (5) 23. (4) 24. (3)
25. (3) 26. (4) 27.(2) 28. (3)

.30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (1)


29. (5)

33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (5) 36. (3)

37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (5)


41. (1) .42. (3) 43. (4) 44~(3)
45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (1)
50. (5) 51. (5) 52. (1)
49. (3) 50. (5) 51. (5) 52. (1)
53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (5)
57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (4) 60. (4)
61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (4) 64. (2)
65.(1) 66. (3) 67. (5) 68. (2)
69. (1) 70. (5) 71. (5) 72. (3)
73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (1)
77. (2) 78. (4) 79. (1) 80. (3)
81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (4)
85. (5) 86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (3)
89. (5) 90.(4) 91. (2) 92. (3)
93.(5) 94. (4) 95. (4) 96. (1)
97. (1) 98. (4) 99. (3) 100. (4)
101. (4) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (5)
105. (1) 106. (1) 107. (2) 108. (2)
109. (5) 110. (3) 111. (5) 112. (1)
113. (3) 114. (5) 115. (2) 116. (1)
117. (2) 118. (2) 119. (1) 120. (5)
121. (4) 122. (4) 123. (2) 124. (1)
125. [5) 126.(1) 127. (4) 128. (3)
129. (3) 130. (1) 131. (4) 132. (4)
133. (1) 134. (2) 135. (1) 136. (1)
137. (4) 138. (5) 139. (1) 140. (4)
141. (1) 142. (2) 143. (3) 144. (4)
145. (4) 146. (5) 147. (4) 148. (3)
149. (1) 150. (1) 151. (1) 152. (5)
153. (4) 154. (5) 155. (1) 156. (3)
157. (4) 158.(1) 159. (4) 160. (2)
161. (4) 162. (2) 163. (1) 164. (1)
165. (3) 166. (3) 167. (1) 168. (2)
169. (3) 170. (5) 171. (2) 172. (2)
173. (3) 174. (4) 175. (3) 176. (5)
177. (2) 178. (2) 179. (4) 180. (3)
181. (1) 182. (4) 183. (4) 184. (1)
185.(1) 186. (4) 187. (4) 188. (3)
189. (4) 190. (4) 191. (5) 192. (2)
193. (3) 194.(1) 195. (4) 196. (4)
197. (4) 198. (4) 199. (3) 200.(1)
201. (3) 202. (4) 203. (1) 204. (1)
205. (3) 206. (2) 207. (3) 208. (3)
209. (4) 210. (3) 211. (3) 212. (2)
213. (3) 214. (2) 215. (2) 216. (3)
217. (4) 218. (1) 219. (4) 220. (4)
221. (3) 222.(1) 223. (4) 224. (5)
225. (2) 226.(1) 227. (5) 228. (1)
229. (4) 230.(1) 231. (2) 232. (4)
233. (1) 234. (5) 235. (5) 236. (5)
237. (5) 238. (2) 239. (2) 240. (4)
241. (4) 242. (2) 243. (3) 244. (4)
245. (4) 246. (1) 247. (3) 248. (2)
249. (4) 250. (3)

EXPLANATIONS

1. (3). The number 49 is a perfect square of a natural number.

2.(2) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

P H Y S I C A L

Meaningful Word === HAIL

3.(2) 10 21 19 20 9 6 25

J U S T I F Y

4.(3) According to question, new arrangement will be

8 3 6 5 9 4 2 0 1 7

5th from left

Trick : 6th from left in the original number

5.(1) M O D F D E A F

# 8 % 6 % 6 7 8
Therefore

F O A M

8 8 7 #

6.(3) 7 8 3 2 1 9

1 2 3 7 8 9

7.(5) E O U C D M N T

5th from left

8.(1) Except salt all other are spices

9.(4) 1, 2, 13, 24, 135, 246, 135, 7

10.(1) ? = 9 – 7 + 85 x 17 ÷ 15

=== ? = 9 x 7 – 85 ÷17 + 15

=== ? = 9 x 7 – 5 + 15

=== ? = 63 – 5 + 15 = 73.

(11 – 15)

(i) All sticks are pens ~ Universal Affirmative (A-type)


(ii) Some pens are notebooks ~ Particular Affirmative (I-type)
(ill) No notebook is chalk ~ Universal Negative (E- type).
(iv) Some notebooks are not Chalks ~ Particular Negative (O-type).
11.(3) Some chalks are sticks
All sticks are pens

I + A === type of Conclusion “ Some chalks are pens”

Conclusions I and II form complementary pair. Therefore either I or II


follows.

12.(1) Some bricks are rods

Al rods are windows

I + A === I- type of conclusion “ Some bricks are windows”

Conclusion I is converse of this conclusion.

13.(5) Some fruits are stems

All stems are roots

I + A === I –type of conclusion “ Some fruits are roots”

Conclusion I is converse of the second premise

14.(4) Some trolleys are bells

No belt is machine

I + E === O type of conclusion “ Some trolleys are not machines”.


15. (2) All fans are blades.

All blades are computers.

A + A ~ A-type of Conclusion "AII fans are computers."


All blades are computers.

All computers are systerns.

A + A ~ A-type of Conclusion "AII blades are systems."


All· fans are computers·.

All computers are systems.

A + A ~ A-type of Conclusion "AII fans are systems."


This is Conclusion II.
16. (3) According to question, the new arrangement will be :
H I 6 D F 9 R A B 3 4 G E I L Q M U 5 7 1

17. (1) 7th to the left of 19th from the left means 12 th from left i.e., S
18. (4)
Number Symbol

Symbol Number

Number Symbol Number


Such combinations are : 9%, $3, #1 5@7
19.(5)
F -2 6 +1 D
A -2 T +1 R
L -2 # +1 I
5 -2 M +1 U
E +1 # -2 G

20. (2) 6th to the left of 15th from the left means 9th from the left. But, the order of all
the elements has been reversed.
Therefore, required element would be 9th from the right in the original sequence,
Le. 1.
21. (2) From statement I P, S, T > R> Q
From statement II P > S > Q, R, T'
22. (5) From both the statements
boy is I brave I ~ ha ka to
I brave I and clever na pe ka
23.(4) From both the statements. Suneeta has two children. However, she may have more sons.

24.(3) From statement I

Rank of Shamika from the bottom = 21st

Total number of children = 13 + 21 -- 1 = 33

From statement II

Rank of Rajesh from the bottom = 18th

Total number of children = 16 + 18 – 1 = 33

25.(3) From the statement I NW N NE

H W E
X Y SW S SE

X R

(26 – 30 ); Sitting arrangement

26. (4) A is second to right of A

27.(2) H is third to the left of A.


28.(3) G is to the immediate right of C.
29.(5) Except in CH, in all others the first person is third to the left of second person.
30.(1) G is to the immediate left of B.
31.(1) 358 === 348; 426 === 416 853 == 843; 674 === 664, 592 === 582
843 > 664 > 582 .. 6 + 6 + 4 = 16
32. (1) 358 == 853; 426 == 624 853 == 358; 674 == 476 592 == 295
Largest number = 853 == 358
33. (2) 358 == 538; 426 == 246 853 == 583; 67 4 == 764 592 === 952
Smallest number = 246 == 426
34. (4)853 > 674 > 592 > 426 > 358 9 – 4 = 5
35. (5) 358 == 835; 426 == 642; 853 == 385; 67 4 == 467 592 == 259
Smallest number = 259 == 592
36. (3) D I G I T A L
6+2+8+2+5+3+4
= 30

37. (2) R E C I T A L
-1 +1 -1 +1 -1 +1 -1

Q F B I S B K
B B F J K Q S
38.(4) A +2 C

F +2 H
Similarly, K +2 M
T +2 V

.39. (1) M - R ~ M is sister of R.


R -;. H ~ R is son of H.
Therefore~ M is daughter of H.
40. (5) f1 + K ~ F is husband of K.
K x V ~ K is motel' of V. V - T ~ V is sister of T.
Therefore, V is daughter of F.
41. (1) [n each subsequent Figure one new design IS introduced in clockwise
direction and the designs move in clockwise direction along the main design with
one step increasing.
. 42. (3) From Problem Figure (1) to (2) the designs show following changes

Similar changes would occur from Problem Figure (5) to Answer Figure.
43. (4) From Problem Figure (1) to (2) all the four designs are inverted and the third
design moves to the top position. Similar changes would occur from Problem Fig-
ure (3) to (4) and from Problem Figure (5) to Answer Figure.
44. (3) In the subsequent figures the upper design rotates through 90 anticlockwise
and remains the same for two figures. The right design also rotates through 90
anticlockwise and remains the same for two figures. The lower and the left
designs rotate E through 900 anticlockwise after every two figures.
45. ) From Problem Figure (1) to (2) the rightmost design of the upper row moves to
the leftmost side. From Problem Figure (2) to (3) the right most designs of the second
and the third rows move to the left side. From Problem Figure (3) to (4) the rightmost
design of the lowermost row moves to the left side. From Problem Figure (4) to (5) the
right most designs of the first and the second rows move to the left side. Therefore:
from Problem Figure. (5) to Answer Figure the
rightmost design of the third row will move to the left side.
46. (4) The movement of designs and other changes in designs can be shown as:
1 to 2 2 to 3

These two steps are repeated alternately in the 9ubsequent figures.


47.(2) From Problem Figure (1) to (2) the lowermost design moves to the second
position and the first design is replaced with a new design. From Problem Figure (2) to
(3) the first design moves to the third position and the lowermost design is replaced
with a new design. These two steps are repeated alternately in the subsequent figures.
48.(1) In each subsequent figure the first design shows no change, the other two
designs move one and half steps in anticlockwise direction and shaded part of one of
these two designs moves anticlockwise.
49.(3) In the subsequent figures the designs descend obliquely stepwise and ascend
diagonally in one step. In each subsequent figure one of the three designs is replaced
with a new design in a set order.
50.(5) In the. subsequent figures respectively 23, 22, 20, 17 and 13 ovals remain and
one oval deleted in the provisions step reappears in the next step.
51. (5) None of these
52.(1) He was persevering by nature
53.(1) The King realised that he had a good character and would make a worthy ruler
54. (3) It was a test to select the child most suited to be the next ruler.
55.(4) To show the King they were more suited than the farmer's son to rule
56. (5) None of these
57. (4) The King had no heir to the throne
58.(2) The King regarded honesty as an important trait for a ruler
59.(4) Only(A)
60.(4) He was sympathetic because his son had worked very hard
61.(3) The meaning of the word Ignore (Verb) as used in the passage is : to pay no
attention to something; disregard; take no notice of.
Look at the sentences:
He ignored all the 'No smoking' signs and lit up a Cigarette.
We cannot afford to ignore their advice.
Hence, the words ignoring and disregarding are synonymous.
62.(3) The meaning of the word Envelop (Verb) as used in the passage is : to wrap
somebody / something up or cover them or it completely. .
Look at the sentences:
She was enveloped in a towel. Clouds enveloped the mountain top.
Hence, the words enveloped and wrapped are synonymous.
63.(4) The meaning of the word Pile (Verb) as used in the passage is : to give
somebody more or too much of something.
Look at the sentence:
The Indian team piled on the pressure in the last hour.
Hence, the words piled and provided are synonymous.
64.(2) The meaning of the word Content (Adjective) as used in the passage is : happy
and satisfied with what you have.
Look at the sentences:
He seemed more content, less bitter.
He had to be content with third place.
Of the given alternatives the word Miserable (Adjective) means: very unhappy or
uncomfortable, depressing.
Look at the sentence:
He knows how to make life miserable for his employees.
Hence, the words content and miserable are antonymous.
65.(1) The. meaning of the word Avid (Adjective) as used in the passage is : very
enthusiastic about something; keen; wanting to get something very much.
Look at the sentences:
He has taken an avid interest in the project.
He was avid for more information. Hence, the words avid and unenthusiastic are
antonymous.
66.3) D
67. (5) E
68. (2) B
69. (1) A
70. (5) F
71.(5) All correct
72.(3) Replace the word 'prevail' by 'overcome'.
73.(4) Replace the word 'temporary' by 'temporarily' (Adverb).
74.(4) The correct spelling is : applying.
75.(1) Replace the word 'succeed' by 'fail'.
76.(1) was unable to deliver what
77. (2) was so hot
78.(4) are equivalent to
79. (1) come up with their 80.. (3) will give her
80.(3) 'Plenty of is followed by Plural Noun. Hence, replace group of words 'he faced
plenty of difficulty' by 'he faced plenty of difficulties'.
81.(1) To provide clarity to the meaning of the sentence, it is proper to use 'The
University where' in place of 'The University that'.
82.(4) To quality a Noun, an Adjective is used.
Hence, use 'neighbourly districts' in place of 'neighbour districts.'
84.(4) The word 'refuse' gives a negative sense.
Hence, replace 'give us no pocket money' by 'give us any pocket money.'
85. (5) No error
86.(2) The subject of the sentence, 'funds' is in Plural Number.
Hence, replace 'in the morning has' by 'in the morning have'.
87.(3) Use 'projects you handle' in place of 'projects your handling'.
88.(3) Replace 'awake V1) trying to decide' by 'awaken (V3) trying to decide'.
89. (5) No error
90.(4) The sense of the sentence shows past.
Hence, use 'he repaid it early' in place of 'he repay it early'.
91. (2) sad
92. (3) console
93. (5) achieve
94. (4) funny
95. (4) received
96.(1) suggested
97.(1) deserve
98. (4) deliberate
99. (3) convinced
100. (4) honesty
101. (4) ? = 64% of 460
= 64 x 460 /100 =_ 294.40
102. (2) ? = 1615.÷ (50 x 0.85) = 1615.÷ 42.5 = 38
103. (3) ? = 65 - 63
= 63 (62 -1) = 63 x 35·= 7560
104. (5) ? =1178/ 15.5 = 76

105. (1) ? = 676.66 x 0.76 + 6.66 76.76


= 514.2616 + 6.66 - 76.76 = 444.1616
106. (1) ? = 547 x 37 - 20000 = 20239 - 20000 = 239
107. (2) 7 = 88.8 x 8.8 x 0.08 = 62.5152
108. (2) 818 x 38/100 – 636 x ? / 100 = 158.2
~ 31084 - 636 x ?
= 158.2 x 100 = 15820
~ 636 x ? = 31084 - 15820 = 15264
. ? = 15264 = 24
636
109.(5) ? = 783 / 9 x 0.75 = 116
110. (3) ? = 25/3 ÷ 65/6
= 25/3 x 6/65 = 10/13
111.(5) 41 x ? = 23616/32 = 738
= == ? = 738/41 = 18

112. (1) ? = 77745 - 43892 - 12673 = 21180


113. (3) ? = 13.8 x 16.7 x 21.4 2931.844
= 4931.844 - 2931.844 = 2000
114. (5) ? = 16+19 x 72 / 12
= 16 + 114 = 130

115.(2) ? =616x5/8x4/7x3/lO = 66
116. (1) ? = (51)3 X (14)3 - (19077)2
= 132651 x 2744 - 363931929 = 363994344 - 363931929
= 62415
117.(2) ? /48 x 17 = 612
? = 612x48 = 1728
17

118. (2) ? = (983.12 + 99.06) - 411.25 = 1082.18 - 411.25


= 670.93
119.(1) 101120/ √?=316x5
~ 316 x 5 x √? = 101120 √? = 101120 / 316 x 5 = 64
:. ? = 64 x 64 = 4096
120.(5)?, = .39.v.528/33 – 19
= 624 - 19 = 605
121.(4) 850x82
100 -(?)2 = (16)2
~ 697 - (?)2 = 256
=> (?)2 = 697 - 256 = 441
:.? = √441 =21
122. (4) ? x 89 = 13498 + 8932 - 1159 =>? x 89 = 21271
=>?= 21271 =239
89

123. (2) 84963 + 31825 = ? - 99900 => 116788 = ? - 99900


=>? = 116788 + 99900 = 216688
124. (1) 1637 + 1832 = (45)2 + [?)2 => 3469 = 2025 + (?)2
=> (?)2 = 3469 -2025 = 1444
:. ? = √1444 = 38
125. (5) √? + 25 = √4489= 67 => .√? = 67 - 25 = 42
:. ? = 42 x 42 '= 1764
126. (1) Let Akshama's monthly income be Rs. x.
According to the question, 18% of x = 3888

18 x x/100 = 3888

X = 3888 x 100 / 18 = Rs. 21600

Akshama’s annual income = Rs. 259200

127.(4) Amount

Principal { 1+ rate / 100} Time = 96000 {1+10/100}3

= 96000 x 11/10 x 11/10 x 11/10 = Rs. 127776.

128.(3)

Bag Time (In minutes) Men

1 10 1
1245 150 x

1 : 1245

150 : 10 :: 1 : x ==== 1 z 150 x x = 10 x 1245 x 1

= x = 10 x 1245 / 150 = 83.

129.(3) Let the maximum marks in the examination be x

According to the question.

12% of x = 290 – 203

= x x 12/100 = 87 === x = 87 x 100 /12 = 725

130. (1) Let the CP of 1 diary and 1 calendar be Rs. x and Rs. y respectively.
According to the question. 8x + 10y = 3138
Multiplying both sides by 3/2 we have,
12x + 15y = 3138 x 3/2
= Rs. 4707

131. (4) Let the present ages of Vaibhav and Jagat be 12x and 7 x years respectively.
According to the question.
12x+6
---=- = 3/2
7x + 6
=> 24x + 12 = 21x + 18 => 24 x- 21x
= 18 - 12
=> 3x = 6
=>x=6/3 =2
:. Required difference = 12 x- 7x = 5x =5x2
= 10 years
132. (4) .√8008'" = 89.5
892 = 7921; 902 = 8100 :. Required number
= 8100 - 8008 = 92
l33. (1) 81 x 83 = 6723
:. Smaller number'" 81
Now, √81 = 9
134.(2) 519 x 176 = 91344
135. (1) Let the first number be x and the second number be y. According to the
question,=== x x 60/100 = y x 40/100 === 3x/5 = 2y/5 === x/y = 2/3
136. (1) CP of the books
_ '100 x 1408
128
= Rs. 1100
,137. (4) Let the number be x.
According to the question. (56 - 39) % of x '" 425
X x17/100= 425 ===== x = 425 x 100 / 17 = 42500/17 63% of x
= 42500x 63= 1575
17 100
138. (5) Sumati's percentage of marks
= 762x 100 = 82
925
139. (1) .Required average

456 + 328 + 489 + 453 +511 + 328 + 222 + 205 / 8


2992/8 = 374
140. (4) Let the number be x.
. xx61/100-=9028
X = 9028 x 1 00 _ = 14800
61
:. 46 % of 14800 == 14800 x 46 / 100 = 6808
141.(1) CI = P {[ 1+ R/100]T – 1}
== 12500 { [ 1+ 12/100]2 – 1}
== 12500 { [ 1+ 3/25]2 – 1}
== 12500 { [28/25]2 – 1} === 12500[ 784/625 – 1]
== 12500 [ 784 – 625 / 625] ==== 12500 x 159/625 = Rs. 3180
142.(2) Amount received by each person
Rs. [ 142136/163] = Rs.872.

143. (3) Let the present ages of the woman and her daughter be 15x and 8x years
respectively, According to the question,
15x + 8x! = 2 x 46
=> 23x = 92 => x == 92/23 = 4
Required ratio
= (15x+ 8): (8x+ 8)
= (15 x 4 + 8) : (8 x 4 + 8) = 68 : 40 = 1 7 : 10
144. (4) Let the number be x.
According to the question, x2 - (33)3 = 5272
=> x2 - 35937 = 5272 => x2 = 35937 + 5272 = 41209
:. x = .141209='203
145.(4) S.I = Principal x Time x Rate / 100
= 7385 x 8 x 10 / 100 = Rs. 5908
146.(5)? = 6783/129 x 12 x 12 – 717 = 7572 – 717 = 6855

147. (4) Let the number be x.


According to the question, x3 + 1502 = 77372
=> x3 + 22500 = 77372'
=> x3 = 77372 - 22500 = 3√54872
= 3√38 x 38 x 38 = 38

Note : It is advisable to take alternatives into consideration to solve this problem.


148. (3) According to the question. x+x+2+x+4+x+6+x+8 = 5 x 55
~ 5x + 20 = 275 .
~ 5x = 270 - 20 = 255
= x = 255/5 = 51
:.A=51; B=53andD=57 :. B x D = 53 x 57 = 3021
149. (1) Decimal equivalents of fractions;
4/5 = 0.8 : 7/9 = 0.78
5/6 = 0.83 : 8/9 = 0.89
6/11 = 0.545 : 10/11 = 0.91
Clearly,
6/11 < 7/9 < 4/5 < 5/6 < 8/9 < 10/11
150.(1) Average speed of the bus
= Distance covered / Time taken
= 1488 = 62 kmph
24
151. (1) Know Your Customer Norms
152. (5) Mobile Phone
153. (4) All A, Band C
154. (5) Personal Finance
155. (l) Money Lenders
156. (3) All A, B, C and D
157. (4) All A. Band C
158. (l) US, China, India. South Africa
159. (4) Only C
160. (2) Only B
161. (4) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
162. (2) Dr. Ralph M Steinman
163. (1) Tiger Woods
164. (l) third
165. (3) Florence Kiplagat of Kenya
166. (3) New Delhi
167. 167; (1) Tobacco
168. (2) 8 per cent
169. (3) Ganga
170. (5) SCOPE
171. (2) Cricket
172. (2) 14th
173. (3) Bharat Nirman Yojana
174. (4) Britain
175. (3) Arjuna Award
176. (5) All of the above
177. (2) Consortium
178. (2) Issuance of different types of bonds

179. (4) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial
banks.

ISO. (3) An instrument In the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against
underlying equity shares of the Issuing company
181. (1) Derivative
182. (4) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
183. (4) variation in different markets

184. (I) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase' of Govt.
securities.
185. (I) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
186. (4) cash flows In different currencies
187. (4) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not
meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards
188.(3) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
189.(4) All (1), 121 and (3)
190. (4) All (1), (2) and (3)
191.. (5) SEBI
192.(2) Lata Mangeshkar
193.(3) Foreign Direct Investment
194.(1) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
195.(4) HCL
196. (4) SEBI
197. (4) Both (A) and (B)
198. (4) All of the above
199. (3) Sugam
200. (1) Jenson Button
201. (3) rebooting
202.(4) Esc
203(1) Multitasking
204(l) num lock
205, (3) Operating System
206. (2) delete key
207. (3) information
208. (3) folders
209.(4) any Input / output device
210. (3) KiloByte
211. (3) program
212. (2) laptops
213. (3) platform
214.(2) Formatting
215. (2) Wireless
216.(3) read-only
217(4) Include addition, subtraction, Multiplication and division
218. (1) Chatting is like e-mail
219. (4) input
220. (4) disk drive
221. (3) CPU
222. (l) Recycle Bin
223. (4) User name and domain name
224. (5) mouse
225.(2) the clipboard
226. (l) hardware
227. (5) floppy disk
228. (l) floppies
'229. (4) Printer
226. 5) hard disk
227. (5) display
228. (5) user friendly
229. (2) default
230. (2) software
231. (4) operating systems
232. (4) Data validation
233. (2) Object code
229. (1) writing a 'letter
230. (2) hard drive
231. (4) bookmark it
232. (1) keyboard
241. (4) Data validation

242. (2) Object code

243. (3) System and application

244. (4) Operating Systems

245. (4) Megahertz or Gigahertz

246. (1) Record

247. (3) Network

248. (2) One, multiple

249. (4) Internet Explorer

250. (3) Protocol

(4) Internet Explorer


Directionss: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate
option.
1. "Development. is a never ending process." This idea is associated with
( 1) Principle of integration
(2) Principle of interaction
(3) Principle of interrelation
(4) Principle- of continuity
2. Four distinct stages of children's intellectual development are identified by
( I r Skinner (2) Piaget
(3) Kohlberg (4) Erikson
3.Parents should playa _____ role in the learning process of young children.
( 1 ) sympathetic
(2) neutral
(3) negative
(4) proactive
4. The 'insight. theory of learning' is promoted by
(I) Jean Piaget.
(2) Vygotsky
(3) 'Gestalt.' theorists (4) Pavlov
5. Motivation', in the process of learning.
(1) makes learners think unidirectionally
(2) creat.es interest for learning among young learners
(3) sharpens the memory of learners
(4) differentiates new learning from old learning
6. Which of the following is not a sign of an intelligent young child?
One who carries on thinking in an abstract manner.
(2) One who can adjust oneself in a new environment.
(3) One who has the ability to cram long essays very quickly.
(4) One who has the ability to communicate fluently and appropriately.
7. Which is the place where the child's 'cognitive' development is defined in the best
way?
(1) Auditorium (2) Home
(3) Playground
(4) School and classroom environment
8. The stage in which a child begins to think logically about objects and events is
known as
(1) Pre-operational stage
(2) Concrete operational stage
(3) Sensori-motor stage
(4) Formal operational stage
9. Which of the following is not related to the socio-psychological needs of the child?
(1) Regular elimination of waste' products from the body.
(2) Need for company
(3) Need for appreciation or social approval.
(4) Need for emotional security
10. Which of the following will foster creativity among learners?
(1) Emphasizing achievement. goals from the beginning of school life.
(2) Coaching students for good marks in examination. .
(3) Teaching the students the practical value of good education.
(4) Providing opportunities to questions and to nurture the innate talents of every
learner.
11. 'Mind mapping' refers to
(1) drawing the picture of a mind.
(2) Researching the functioning of the mind.
(3) a technique to enhance comprehension.
(4) a plan of action for an adventure.
12. "A young child responds to a new situation on the basis of the response made by
him/her in a similar situation as in the past." This is related to
(1) 'Law of Attitude' of learning process
(2) 'Law of Readiness' of learning
(3) 'Law of Analogy' of learning:
(4) 'Law of Effect' of learning.
13. The best way, specially at primary level ,to address the learning difficulties of stu-
dents is to use
(1) Easy and interesting textbooks
(2) Story-telling method
(3) A variety of teaching methods suited to the disability.
(4) Expensive and glossy support material.
14. Education of children with special needs should be provided
(1) in special schools
(2) by special teachers in special schools.
(3) along with other normal children.
(4) by methods developed for special children in special schools.
15. 'Dyslexia' is associated with
(1) Reading disorder
(2) Behavioural disorder
(3) Mental disorder
(4) Mathematical disorder
16.__ is not considered a sign of 'being gifted'.
(1) Novelty in expression. (2) Curiosity
(3) Creative ideas
(4) Fighting with others
17.A student of V-grade-with 'visual deficiency' should be
(I) Treated normally in the classroom and provided support through Audio CDs
(2) Given special treatment in the classroom.
(3) Excused to do a lower level of work.
(4) Helped with his/her routine-work by parents and friends.
18. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of. the process
of learning?
(1) Learning is goal: oriented
(2) Unlearning is also a learning process.
(3) Educational institutions are the only place where learning takes place.
(4) Learning is a comprehensive process.
19. Learning can be enriched if (1) teachers use different types of lectures and
explanation.
(2) due attention is paid to periodic tests in the class.
(3) situations from the real word are brough into the class in which students interact
with each other and the teacher facilitates.
(4) more and more teaching aids are used in the class.
20. To make assessment a 'useful and interesting' process, one should becareful about
(1) using a variety of ways to collect information about the student's learning across the
scholastic and co-scholastic boundaries.
(2) using technical language to give feedback.
(3) making comparisons between different students.
(4) labelling students as in tellingent or average learners.
21. A teacher. because of his/her democratic nature, allows students to sit allover the
class. Some sit together and discuss or do group reading. Some sit quietly and read
themselves. A parent does not like it. Which of the following may be the best way
to handle the situation?
(1) Parents should show trust in the teacher and discuss the problem with the teacher.
(2) Parents should take away the child, from that school.
(3) Parents should complain against the teacher to the, principle.
(4) Parents should request the principal to change the section of their ward.
22. Which of the following should be considered the most important quality of a
teacher at primary level?
(1) Competence in methods of teaching and knowledge of subjects.
(2) Competence to teach in highly standardised language.
(3) Eagerness to teach
(4) Patience and perseverance.
23. is considered a sign
of motivated teaching.
(1) Questioning by students.
(2) Pin drop silence in the class.
(3) Maximum attendance in the class.
(4) Remedial work given by the teacher.
24. At lower classes, play-way method of teaching is based on
(1) Psychological principles of development and growth.
(2) Sociological principles of teaching.
(3) Theory of physical education programmes,
(4) Principles of methods of teaching.
25. The term 'curriculum' in the I field of education refers to
(1) Evaluation process.
(2) Text-material to be used in the class.
(3) Methods of teaching and the content to be taught
(4) Overall programme of the school which students experience on a day-to-day
basis. .
26. According to Piaget. at which . of the following stages does a . child
begin to think logically about abstract proposal lions?
(1) Sensori-motor stage (Birth-02 years)
(2) Pre-operational stage (02- 07 years) .
(3) Concrete operational stage (07 -11 years)
(4) Formal operational stage (11 years and up)
27. A teacher should make an attempt to understand the potentialities of her/his stu-
dents. Which of the following fields is related to this objective7'
(1) Media - 'psychology
(2) Educational Psychology
(3) Educational Sociology
(4) Social Philosophy
28. Kritika who does not talk much at home, talks a lot at school. It shows that
(1) She does not like her home at all
(2) Her thoughts get acknowledged at school
(3) The school provides opportunities to children to talk a lot
(4) Teachers demand that children should talk a lot at school.
29. "Children actively construct their understanding of the world" is a statement attrib-
uted to
(I) Kohlberg (2) Skinner
(3) Piaget (4) Pavlov
30. In which of the following stages do children become active members of their peer
group?
(1) Early childhood
(2) Childhood
(3) Adolescence
(4) Adulthood
MATHEMATICS
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate
option.
31.Which is true for a hexagonal pyramid?
(1) It has six faces and each face is a hexagon
(2) It has a hexagonal base with six triangular faces meeting at a point
(3) It has two hexagonal faces and six rectangular faces
(4) It has six hexagonal faces joined by six rectangular faces.
32. The length of a rectangles is l and its width is half of its length. What will be the
perimeter of the rectangle if the length is doubled keeping the width same?
(1) 4l (2) 5l (3) 6l (4) 3l
33.In the following which is the greatest number?
(1) (4)2 (2) ( 2 x 2 x 2)2
(3)[(2 + 2)2]2 (4) ( 2 + 2 + 2 )2
34. A teacher asked in a class to represent 1/8 of Which amongst the
following is an incorrect representation?
35.407928 is read as
(1)Four lakh seventy nine thousand twenty eight
(2)Forty seven thousand nine hundred twenty eight
(3)Forty thousand nine hundred twenty eight
(4)Four lakh seven thousand nine hundred twenty eight
36. If an operator  is defined as 4  3 = 4 + 5 + 6
5  4=5+6+7+8 6  4=6+7+8+9
What will n  8 be equal to?
(1)n + 28 (2) 8n + 28 (3) 8n + 36 (4) n + 36
37. These days prices have started rising. Which amongst the following graphs
represents this situation?
38. The weight of some
mangoes is 2 kg 600g and that of some apples is 1 kg 450 g. The weight of mangoes
is greater than that of the apples by
(1)4kg 60g (2) 1 kg 150g (3) 1kg 200g (4) 150g
39. Examine the following match stick patterns.
If the pattern continues, how many matchsucks are needed in the 15 th stage?
(1)105 (2) 65 (3) 61 (4) 62
40. Look at the following table:

Which bus takes the least time to reach Mathura from New Delhi?
(1)Bus 1 (2)Bus 2 (3) Bus 3
(4) Both Bus 2 and Bus 3 take equal time.
41. In a dice, the numbers on the opposite faces add up to 7 . Which amongst
the following will fold into a dice?
42. The number 49532
rounded off to the nearest thousand is
(1)49000 (2) 49500 (3) 41000 (4) 50000
43. How many 4-digit numbers are there in the Hindu-Arabic Numeration System?
(1) 99 (2) 8999
. (3) 9999 (4) 9000
44.
45.A rhombus has diagonals of length 8 cm and 6 cm. Find its perimeter.
(1) 18 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 24 cm (4) 28 cm
46.When faced with word problems, Rajan usually asks "Should I add or subtract?"
"Should I multply or divide ?" Such questions suggest
(1) Rajan seeks opportunities to disturb the class
(2) Rajan has problems in comprehending language
(3) Rajan lacks understanding of number operations
(4) Rajan cannot add and multiply
47. When teaching 'shapes', a teacher can plan a trip of historical places as
(1) she has completed most of the syllabus well in time and needs to provide leisure.
(2) it would be a good break from the routine mathematics class and an opportunity
to improve communicative skills.
(3) field trips have been recommended by CBSE, so they are a must.
(4) shapes are an integral part of any architecture and such trips encourage con-
nections across disciplines
48.The NCF (2005) considers that Mathematics involves 'a certain way of thinking
and reasoning'.
From the statements ·given below, pick' out one which does not reflect the above
principle:
(1) The way the material presented in the textbooks is written
, (2) The activities and exercises chosen for the class
(3) The method by which it is taught
(4) Giving students set formulae to solve the numerical questions
49.Sequence the following tasks as they are taken up while developing the concept
of measurement:
a. Learners use standard units to measure length.
b. Learners use non-standard units to measure length.
c. Learners verify objects using simple observation.
d. Learners understand the relationship between metric units.
(1) a, b, d, c (2) b, a, c, d
(3)c,b,a ,d (4)d, a, c ,b
50.Sequence the following tasks as they would be taken up while developing of
understanding of shapes and space across primary classes:
a. Matches the properties of 2-D shapes by observing their sides and comers.
b. Describes intuitively the' properties of 2-D shapes.
c. Sorts 2-D shapes
d. Describes the various 2-D shapes by counting their sides, comers and diago-
nals.
(1) d, b, a, c (2) c, b, d, a
(3) a, d, b, c (4) c, a, d, b
51. "Problem solving" as a strategy of doing mathematics involves
(1) extensive practices
(2) using clues to arrive to a solution
(3) Activity based approach (4) estimation
52.The purpose of a diagnostic test in mathematics is
(1) to know the gaps in children's understanding .
(2) to give feedback to the parents
(3) to fill the progress report
(4) to plan the question paper for the end-term examination
53. Vikas teaches mathematics to a class of 56 students. He believes that conducting
a test is effective if the feedback is given immediately. He conducted a short
class test of 10 marks. What is the best possible way of giving the feedback
effectively?
(1) He can let the students check each other's answer.
(2) He can explain the solution of each problem on the board and ask the students to
check their answer on their own.
(3) He can have a whole class discussion on ways in which they have got their
solutions and which is the effective strategy to arrive at the correct answer.

(4).Pick out any copy at random and discuss the method followed in the copy
on the board.

54.To introduce the concept of area a teacher can start with

(1)comparing area of any figure with the help of different objects like palm ,
leaf, pencil, note book etc.

(2) calculating area of a rectangle by finding length and breadth of a rectangle


and using the formula for area of a rectangle i.e., length x breadth.

(3)calculating area of figures with the help of counting unit square.

(4) explaining of formulae for finding area of figures of different shapes.

55. To introduce the concept of fractions, a teacher can begin with

(1)identifying numerators and denominators of different fractions

(2) finding fractions on a number line

(3) writing fractions in the form of a/a where b≠0


(4) identifying fractional parts of things around them.

56.Which teaching comparison of fractions in which the numerators are same

e.g. 3/5 and 3/7. Rohit’s response was Since the numerators are same and since
7 is larger than 5, therefore 3/7 is bigger than 3/5. “This suggest that

(1) Rohit does not understand the magnitude of fractions

(2) Rohit does not know the concept of numerator and denominator

(3) Rohit does not know the concept of equivalent fractions

(4) Rohit has not practiced well.

57.When teaching addition of fractions, a teacher came across the following


error: ½ + ½ = 2/3 What remedial action can the teacher take in such a
situation?

(1) Ask the child to practice as much as she can

(2) No intervention is needed because she will understand as she grows.

(3) help the child to understand the magnitude of each fraction.

(4) Help the child to understand the concept of LCM

58. The chapters in the NCERT text book of mathematics of class-IV have
titles like “ The Junk Seller” “Trip to Bhopal” “The Way the World Looks”
This shift has been done to

(1) challenge the students to guess the mathematical content in the chapters.

(2) make them understand differently

(3) make it interesting by relating it to everyday life

(4) know about selling junk and travelling.

59. To be a “good” mathematician one must be able to


(1) memorise most of the formulae

(2) solve the problem in no time

(3) understand apply and make connections across the concepts.

(4) master the techniques of answering questions.

60. “Start a Discussion in the class on things in the child’s environment which
roll and slide. Help children to look at their shapes and see how some things
roll and others slide”

Source “ Math Magic II , NCERT

Suggestions like this have been given in the NCERT text book of class – II to
help a teacher understand that

(1) Discussion is the best strategy for the mathematics classroom.

(2) It is imperative for the teachers to draw the children’s attention to the
things around them.

(3) Discussions supplemented with demonstration help students to understand


concept better.

(4) Discussions bring multiple perspectives into the classroom.

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most


appropriate option.

61. It has been observed that the process of digestion is faster inside the
stomach than outside because.

(1)the digestive juices inside the stomach are acidic while outside they are
alkaline
(2)the amount of digestive juices produced in the stomach in the presence of
food is much more.

(3) the digestive juices when kept outside the stomach become inactive.

(4) the food is churned in the stomach thereby increasing the surface area for
quicker enzyme action.

62.Cooked rice can be preserved for a longer time in a refrigerator because.

(1) microbes become inactive at low temperature

(2) microbes are destroyed and killed at low temperature.

(3) moisture content in the food is reduced at low temperature.

(4) refrigerators contain certain chemicals which kill the microbes.

63. A lemon sinks in normal water but floats on salty water because the density
of

(1) salt water is more than normal water

(2)normal water is more than salt water

(3) lemon increases in salt water

(4) Lemon decrease in salt water.

64.Malaria can be detected by testing the blood for the presence of

(1) ruptured liver cells in blood

(2) larvae of mosquito in blood

(3) eggs of mosquito in red blood cells

(4) Plasmodium in red blood cells.

65. A shooting Star is a


(1) shining object which moves with a constant speed in the atmosphere.

(2) star with a tail at the end

(3) meteoroid which catches fire as it enters the Earth’s atmosphere.

(4) star which moves with a constant speed.

66. Durga lives in a village and cooks food on a chulha (earthen stove) using
wood or cowdung cakes as fuel. She has been suffering from severe cough for
the last three months. This may be due to the

(1) carbon monoxide produced by burning fuel which may have been
deposited in her respiratory tract

(2) soot produced by burning the fuels which may have been deposited in her
respiratory tract.

(3) smoke produced by burning fuels which may have caused her allgey

(4) old age and pollution inside and outside her hut.

67. A man with blood group ‘O’ marries a woman with blood group ‘A’. The
chance of their first child having blood group ‘O’ is

(1) 50% (2) 100% (3) 25% (4) 75%

68. The difference between boiling and evaporation is that

(1) boiling causes a change of state of water while evaporation does not.

(2)evaporation can take place at any temperature while


boiling cannot
(3) boiling causes reduction in volume of liquid while
evaporation does not
(4) changing Of boiling liquid
into vapour can be seen but evaporation cannot be seen
69. A farmer wanted to separate the grains from the chaff. This can !:?e achieved by
the process called
(1) Threshing
(2) Winnowing
(3) Harvesting
(4) Handpicking
70. In rural areas, cow dung is used to coat the Door and walls of huts to
(1) make them smooth and clean •
(2) make them rough to incase friction
(3) give a natural colour to the /floor
(4) keep the insects away
71. Mira and Divya are young girls.
Mira likes to eat samosas, cutlets and bread, Divya, on the other hand, takes an
iron deficient diet. Which of the following disorders are Mira and Divya likely to
suffer from, respectively?
(1) Anaemia and night blindness
(2) Obesity and anaemia
(3) Obesity and scurvy
(4) Scurvy and anaemia
72. Vitamins are substances
(1) required as medicines to
make us healthy
(2) that build muscles to keep
us strong
(3) required in small quantities to prevent deficiency diseases
(4) that increase our metabolic rate leading to loss of weight
73. Chipko ~ Movement _was strengthened under the leadership of
(1) Amrita Devi Bishnoi
(2) Medha Patkar
(3) AX BaneIjee
(4) Sunder La! Bahuguna
74. Rina separated the garbage from the house into two piles as shown below :
Banana skin Jam bottles sauce
vegetable peals bottle used
75. Rina has separated the garbage waste into two piles depending on the criteria
dried leaves toothpaste tube
(1) can be decomposed/ cannot be decomposed
newspapers
(2) can be recycled/cannot be recycled Plastic toys

(3) are household/industrial , waste


(4) have odour/are odourless
75. An egret bird is often seen on a buffalo's back. This is because the egret
(1) loves to sing while Sitting on the buffalo's back
(2) rests after /lying for a while (3) feeds on parasites on the buffalo's back
(4) feeds on insects present in the grass
76. Which of the following statements is not an. objective of teaching EVS at the primary
level?
(1) Arouse curiosity about the natural and social environment
(2) Engage in explorat.ory and hands-on activities that lead to the development of
cognitive and psychomotor skills
(3) To load learners with terms and, definitions for assessment
(4) To internalise the values of concern for life and environment.
77. The idea of showing a sample of a railway ticket in the EVS textbook is to
(1) give the students an idea of the rail fare
(2) provide them the knowledge of various abbreviations used

(3) enhance the skills of students to arrive at conclusions


(4) give them an opportunity to interact with real information and develop the skill of
observation

(2) Provide them the knowledge of various abbreviations used in the ticket.
(3) Enhance the skills of students to arrive at conclusions.
(4) Give them an opportunity to interact with real information and develop the
skill of observation.
77. The concept of 'seed germination' can be taught best by
( 1) showing germinated seeds to the class and explaining the process of
germination
(2) presenting the germination stages through drawings on the board
(3) asking the students to perform an activity to sow seeds. observe different stages
and draw them
(4) showing photographs of seed germination
79. Which one of the following is not an objective of including riddles and puzzles in
the EVS textbook?
(1) To develop critical thinking ability in students
(2) To develop reasoning ability in students
(3) To confuse the mind of the students and let them enjoy the confusion
(4) To develop curiosity and ability to think creatively
80. As an EVS teacher, you plan to take the students to the zoo. Which of the
following activities would you not allow the students to undertake?
(1) Collect photographs of the animals they expect to see at the zoo
(2) Take their drawing books along with them to draw what they see at the zoo
(3) Take along lots of eatables for the animals at the zoo
(4) Try to find out the food taken up by different animals at the zoo
81. At the primary stage. assessments should consist of
(1) continuous and unstructured ,teacher observations to be shared with learners and
parents
(2) formal tests and games done every week and recorded in the Report, Card
(3) half-yearly and annual examinations at the end of the year
(4) home assignments and class assignments every week to rate young learners under
the categories of pass or fail '
82.Simple experiments and demonstrations can be performed in the EVS class
(1) to enable children to learn on their own and sharpen their observation skills
(2) to follow what is being done in the senior classes
(3) to discuss ideas, record and analyse observations on the basis of questions raised
by students
(4) to control the students to ensure discipline in the class
83. Which of the following statements about assignments is correct?
(1) Assignments need to be given as class work followed by homework every day to
provide variety and practice
(2) Assignments should be the only method of assessment
(3) Assignments provide learners an opportunity to search for information, construct
their own ideas and articulate them
(4) Assignments can be done by parents, brothers or sisters depending on the talent
that they possess
84. The skills required to read a map include
(1) excellent drawing and painting skills
(2) ability to use calculations and sketch positions on a globe
(3) excellent communication skills to draw out the expressive ability
(4) ability to understand relative position of places, distances and directions
85.The use of poems and story telling to explain concepts in an EVS class helps to
(1) make the lesson enjoyable and interesting
(2) promote the ability to. imagine and explore the nature of the world at the local
and global level
(3) take care of the language and cultural diversity among learners
(4) channelize the energies of the students in the right direction
86. To make children aware of different kinds of fuel, a teacher can.
(1) show pictures of fuels on a chart
(2) ask children to list different fuels
(3) show some samples of fuels in the class
(4). discuss with children about possible kinds of fuel that can be used for cooking.
along with a short film
87. Giving importance to individual experiences of children in an EVS class will
benefit the teacher
(1) to know the unique experiences of children
(2) to help and improve the language and communication skills of the children
(3) to connect the subject to the learners experiential world ·and promote reflection
and learning
(4) to save her energy as children enjoy talking
88. Which of the following represents one of the objectives of teaching EVS at
Primary School?
(1) To make learners aware of technical terms and definitions
(2) To assess technical terms related to EVS
(3) To inform the learners about the books they should read to expand their
knowledge
(4) To connect the experiences of the learners in school with the outside world
89. A school planned an educational trip for class-V students to Rajasthan. What
would be your expectation from the children during the visit?
(1) They should enjoy themselves
(2) They should observe keenly. make notes and share their observations with other
students and the teacher
(3) They should note down their questions, if any, and ask the parents after reaching
home
(4) They should observe everything without asking questions about it
90. After the lunch break, while teaching EVS, you find that students are not
taking interest in the lesson. What would you do?
(1) Use audio-visual aids based on multiple intelligences to make the lesson interest-
ing
(2) Change the topic immediately
(3) Take the children out to play in the ground
(4) Ask them to put their heads down on the desk and relax

Directions (91-1 00) : Read the passage given below and answer the
questions that follow by selecting the most appropriate option.
I. Max Weber laid the foundation for may belief that decent and hard-working
people with high aspirations make great nations, no matter what the odds are.
This was the first piece of the development puzzle for me. Mahatma Gandhi
opened my eyes to the importance of good leadership in raising the
aspirations of people, making them accept sacrifices to achieve a grand vi-
sion. and most importantly, in converting that vision into reality. He
unleashed the most
powerful instrument for gaining trust-leadership by example. He ate, dressed.
travelled and lived like the poor. Walking the talk was extremely important to the
Mahatma who understood the pulse of our people like no other Indian leader. The
biggest lesson for me from Gandhi's book and life is the importance of leading by
example. I realised fairly early that this was the second piece of the development
puzzle.
2. Frantz Fanon's book on the colonizer mindset of elites in a post-colonial society
opened my eyes to the role of the bureaucracy and the elite in decelerating the
progress of the poor and the disenfranchised. The colonial mindset of the 'dark
elite in white masks' in a post-colonial society-the mindset that the ruled and the
rulers have different sets of right and responsibilities with a huge asymmetry in
favour of the rulers-was indeed the third piece of the development puzzle. I see
this attitude of the Indian elite every day in how they said their children to English
medium schools while forcing the children of the poor into vernacular schools.
extol the virtues of poverty while living in . luxury, and glorify the rural life while
they sit comfortably in cities.
Source: 'A Better India, A Better World'
- N.R. Narayana Murthy (Adapted)
91.The main purpose of the author in the above passage is to
(1) discuss the different writers he has read
(2) argue why India should not be considered a developed country
(3) delineate the lessons he has learnt for the development of the nation
(4) prioritise goals for only economic development of India
92. The first piece of the development puzzle. according to the author, is
(1) creating a team of industrious people for a national cause
(2) the importance of decent, inspired and industrious people for a nation's devel-
opment
(3) imbuing the citizens of the country with decency and aspirations
(4) the need for making people understand the importance of leading an idealistic
and simple life
93. Mahatma Gandhi proved that only leadership by example can
(1) mobilise the people of a country against colonial rule
(2) fully and properly understand the pulse of the people of a country
(3) gain the trust of the people so that they are willing to make sacrifices for a larger
cause
(4) inspire people to eat, dress, travel and live like the poor
94. The expression 'walking the talk' means
(1) addressing public gatherings in an election campaign
(2) talking to the common people by mingling with them
(3) being diplomatic in one's behaviour and words
(4) practising what one preaches
95. The colonial mind set of 'dark elite in white masks' with reference to the passage
is
(1) discriminating people on the basis of the colour of their skin
(2) an assumption that the administrators and politicians have more rights and
privileges than the comon people
(3).looking down upon the poor and the disenfranchised
(4) the bureaucratic practice of accorclJ1g topmost priority to contidentrality in
official dealings
96. Extolling 'the virtues of poverty while living in luxury' is an instance of
(1) the hypocrisy of the people of our country
(2) practising what you preach
(3) the ideal of a good government
(4) the need to make people adopt a simple life
97. 'I realised fairly early that this was the second piece of the development puzzle.'
The underlined part of this sentence is a/an
(I) Adjective clause
(2) Adverbial phrase
(3) Noun clause
(4) Verb clause
98. Pick out a word or phrase from the second paragraph of the passage that means
the same as 'to make (something) go slower.'
(1) disenfranchised
(2) dark elite
(3) decelerating
(4) vernacular.
99. 'Development' is a noun with 'ment' as a suffix. Which of the following will
become a noun if we add the suffix 'ment' to it?
(1) Extort (2) Enter
(3) Enchant (4) Endure
Directions (100 - 105} : Read the poem given below and answer the questions
thatfollow by selecting the most appropriate option.
On A Tired Housewife
Here lies a poor woman who was always tired,
She lived in a house where help wasn't hired:
Her last words on earth were: 'Dear Friends',
I am going
To where there's no cooking, or washing, or sewing,
For everything there is exact to my wishes,
For where they don't eat there's no washing
of dishes.
I'I1 be where loud anthems will always be ringing,
But having no voice I'l1 be quit of the singing.
Don’t mourn for me now, don't mourn for me never,
1 am going to do nothing for ever and ever.' .
Anonymous
100.The woman described in the poem
(I) was very busy doing chores
(2) was no more
(3) lived in her own house
(4) worked in the house of a rich man
101.The woman was always tired because
(1) she was physically very weak
(2) she was suffering from a serious ailment
(3) she did all the household work without any help
(4) she had hardly anything to eat
102. The woman wanted to go to a place where
(1) people didn't sing or dance
(2) people didn't cook, wash or sew
(3) people would take good care of her
(4) people would Sincerely mourn for her
103.The woman's account in the poem shows
(1) how overworked a housewife is
(2) that there is no work in heaven
(3) how a woman can escape from work
(4) how we should help each other
104.'For-everything there is exact to my wishes,' In this line, the word 'exact' can be
interpreted to mean
(1) contrary
(2) contributing
(3) according
(4) leading
105.The rhyme pattern in the poem is
(1) ab, ab. ab. ab, aD

(2) da, ab, cd, cd, ec


(3) da, bb, ee, dd, ee
(4) aa, ab, be, cd, de
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate
option.
106.Ria is unable Lo pronounce the words 'smile' and 'school' clearly. As her
teacher, what will you do?
(I) Make Ria repeat the 'words' many times
(2) Make Ria understand the meaning and -sound pattern and get the class as a
whole to listen to these words through an audio visual medium
(3).Humiliate Ria by isolating her and asking her to repeat the words
(4) Asking the entire class to repeat the words and appreciating Ria 'when she
repeats them correctly
107.Lalita, a teacher of young learners. provides them with opportunities to play
with clay, water and sand so as to
(1) build fine motor skills, especially of the fingers and thumb
(2). encourage play with no other objective
(3) please them and make them happy
(4) dirty their hands so' that they may learn to wash them
108.The spoken skills in a language teaching classroom can be developed through
(1) engaging in small talk as confident agressive learners
(2) emotionally connecting with learners
(3).enabiling activities with a focus on conversation skills leading to communicative
competence
(4) group activities where learners can talk in which- 1 ever language they would like
to
109.Ritu often makes errors in Subject-Verb concord. The teacher can help her by
(1) taking up many examples for the entire class and paying special attention to Ritu
(2) explaining to her the rules of grammar
(3) asking Ritu to learn the rules and scolding her
(4) asking Ritu to write the rules ten times in her notebook
110. How will a teacher best teach 'writing' skills to a class?
(1) By brainstorming ideas and asking students to write in their own words
(2) By asking students to write neatly
(3) Through dictation
(4).By asking students to learn articles and rewrite them
Ill. In a diverse classroom, learners find it difficult to speak and write good
English and often lapse into their mothertongue because
(1) they are not motivated to learn
(2) they lack enough competence and the structures of the two languages are different
(3) they do not have the ability to learn English
(4) they are slow learners
112. Read the two sentences given below:
The lizard ate the fly. The fly ate the lizard.
A teacher can use this example to explain that
(1).there is no difference in the two sentences because both have the same words
(2) when subject and object change positions, the meaning of the sentence changes
(3) they are examples of reported speech
(4) they are a collection of words
113.Mary, a young teacher, believes in personalised learning because she thinks that
(1) every person must be exposed to learning
(2) every learner is uriique and needs to be given a chance to develop to the best of
their ability
(3) all learners must learn on their own
(4) children must enjoy their learning
114. Grammar should be taught by
(1) asking students to learn rules
(2) making learners do written assignments .
(3) giving clear explanations
(4) enabling practice in context
115. child studying in Class-III says: "I dranked the water." It indicates that
the child
(1) has not learnt grammar rules properly
(2) should memorise the correct sentence
(3) has over generalised the rule for making past tense verbs, showing that learning is
taking place
(4) is careless and needs to be told that she should be conscious of such errors
116.Children who are differently abled join a new school. Teachers give different
reactions. Which one reflects the concept of inclusive education?
(1) "Oh! How can I teach children who cannot even read?"
(2) ''I'm worried that my class may not accept these children and some of the mis-
chievous children may even harm that poor kids."
(3) "Good, it will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each
other and be supportive."
(4) "Such children should go to special schools where they will learn better."
117. Leena uses Big Reading Books in her language classes to
(1) allow students to read at home
(2) ensure books carry a lot of information
(3) use these illustrated colourful books for reading together
(4) use them for big students of different ages
118. A teacher can cater to the learning styles of all the children by
( 1) teaching every lesson thor0ughly and revising the lessons
(2) testing the children frequently
(3) advising the children to join drawing/dance/music classes
(4) employing a variety of teaching methods and modes of assessment which cater to
diversity among learners
119.The Right of Children to Free and compulsory Education Act, 2009 stipulates
that learning should be
(1) restricted to co-scholastic subjects
(2) carefully monitored by frequent testing
(3) throught activities in a . child-friendly manner
(4) supported by extra coaching
120.At part of a class project, a teacher planned a salad fruit celebration day
in which all learners needed to participate. The boys protested as they
felt that boys do not cook. The teacher should
ignore such protests and tell the boys what she thinks of their· bias
(2) complain to the head of the school seeking action against the boys
(3) make an attempt to counsel the boys, impressing upon them that gender ste-
reotyping is not heal thy
(4) respect the sentiments of the boys and allow them not ·to participate in the class
project

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (3)


5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2)
9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3)
13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1) 16. (4)
17.(1) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (4) 23.(1) 24. (1)
25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2)
33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (4) 36. (2)
37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (3)
41. (1) 42. (4) 43. (4) 44. (3)
45. (2) 46. (3) 47.(4) 48.(4)
49. (3) 50. (4) 51. (3) 52. (1)
53. (3) 54.(1) 55. (4) 56. (3)
57. (4) 58 . (3) 59. (3) 60. (3)
61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64.(4)
65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (2)
69. (2) 70. (4) 71. (2) 72.,(3)
73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (3) 76. (3)
77. (4) 78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (3)
81.(1) 82.(1) 83. (3) 84. (4)
85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (4)
89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (3) 92. (2)
93. (3) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96.(1)
97. (3) 98. (3t 99. (3) 100. (2)
101. (3) 102. (2) 103.(1) 104. (3)
105. (3) 106. (21 107. (2) 108. (3)
109.(1) 110. (1) 111. (2) 112. (2)
113. (2) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (3)
117. (3) 118. (4) 119. (3) 120. (3)

EXPLANATIONS

1. (4) Principle of continuity


2. (2) Piaget
3. (4) proactive
4. (3) 'Gestalt' theorists
5. (2) creates interest for learning among young learners
6. (3) One who has the ability to cram long essays very quickly.
7. (4) School and classroom environment
8. (2) Concrete operational stage
9. (1) Regular elimination of waste products from the body.
10.(4) Providing opportunities to' questions and to nurture the innate talents of every
learner.
11.(2) Researching the functioning of the mind.
12.(3) 'Law of Analogy' of learning.
13.(3) A variety of teaching methods suited to the disability.
14.(3) along with other normal
children.
15.(1) Reading disorder
16.(4) Fighting with others
17.(1) Treated normally in the classroom and provided support through Audio CDs
18.(3) Educational institutions are the only place where learning takes place.
19.(3) situations from the real word are brought into the class in which students
interact with each other and the teacher facilitates.
20.(1) using a variety of ways to collect information about the student's l earning
across the scholastic and co-scholastic boundaries.
21.(1) Parents should show trust in the teacher and discuss the problem with the
teacher.
22.(4) Patience and perseverance.
23.(1) Questioning by students.
24.(1) Psychological principles of development and growth.
25.(4) Overall programme of the school which students experience on a day-to-day
basis.
26. (4) Formal operational stage (11 years and up)
27.(2) Educational Psychology
28.(2) Her thoughts get acknowledged at school
29. (3) Piaget
3O~ (3) Adolescence
31.(2) It has a hexagonal base with six triangular faces meetings at a point
32.(2) 5l
33. (3) [(2 + 22)J2
34. (4)
35.(4) Four lakh seven thousand . nine hundred twenty eight
36.(2) 8n + 28
37.) (3)

38.(3) 1 kg 200 g
39.(4) 62
40.(3) Bus 3
41. (1)
42.(4) 9000

43. (3) Bus 3

44.(3)
45.(2) 20cm
46.(3) Rajan lacks understanding of number operations
47. (4) shapes are an integral part of any architecture and such trips encourage
connections across disciplines
48.(4) Giving students set formulae to solve the numerical questions
49.(3) c, b, a, d
50.(4) c, a, d, b
51.(3) activity based approach
52.(1) to know the gaps in children's understanding
53. (3) He can have a whole class discussion on ways in which they have got their
solutions and which is the effective strategy to arrive at the correct answer.
54. (1) comparing area of any figure with the help of different objects like palm, leaf.
pencil, notebook, etc.
55.4) identifying fractional parts of things around them.
56. (3) Rohit does not know the concept of equivalent fractions
57. (4) Help the child to understand the concept of LCM.
58. (3) make it interesting by relating it to everyday life
59. (3) understand. apply and . make connections across the concepts.
60. (3) discussions supplemented with demonstration help students to understand
concept better
61. (4) the food is churned in the stomach thereby increasing the surface area for
quicker enzyme action
62. (1) microbes become inactive at low temperature
63. (4) lemon decreases in salt water
64. (4) Plasmodium in red blood cells
65. (3) meteoroid which catches fire as it enters the Earth's atmosphere
66. (2) soot produced by burning the fuels which may have been deposited in her
respiratory tract
67. (1) 50%
68. (2) evaporation can take place at any temperature while boiling cannot
69. (2) Winnowing
70. (4) keep the insects away
71. (2) Obesity and anaemia
72. (3) required in small quantities to prevent deficiency diseases
73.(4) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
74. (1) can be decomposed/cannot be decomposed
75. (3) feeds on parasites on the buffalo's back
76. (3) To load learners with terms and definitions for assessment
77. (4) give them an opportunity to interact with real information and develop the
skill of observation
78. (3) asking the students to perform an activity to sow seeds. observe different
stages and draw them
79. (3) To confuse the mind of the students and let them enjoy the confusion
80. (3) Take along lots of eatables for the animals at the zoo
81. (1) continuous and unstructured teacher observations to be shared with learners and . parents
82. (1) to enable children to learn on their own and sharpen their observation skills
83. (3) Assignrnents provide learners an opportunity to search for information.
construct their own ideas and articulate them
84. (4) ability to understand relative position of places, distances and directions
85. (1) make the lesson enjoyable and interesting
86. (4) discuss with children about possible kinds of fuel that can be used for
cooking. along with a short film
87. (3) to connect the subject to the learners' experiential world and promote
reflection and learning.
88. (4) To connect the experiences of the learners in school . with the outside
world
89. (2) They should observe keenly. make notes and share their observations with
other students and the teacher
90. (1) Use audio-visual aids based on multiple intelligences to make the lesson interesting
91. (3) delineate the lessons he has learnt for the development of the nation
92. (2) the importance' of decent. inspired and industrious people for a nation's
development
93. (3) gain the trust of the people so that they are willing to make sacrifices for a
larger cause
94.(4) practising what one preaches
95. (2) an assumption that the administrators and politicians have more rights and
privileges than the comon people
96. (1) the hypocrisy of the people of our country
97.(3) Noun clause
98. (3) decelerating
99. (3) Enchant
100.(2) was no more
101.(3) she did all the household work without any help
102.(2) people didn't cook, wash or sew
103.(1) how: oven worked a house wife is
104.(3) according
105.(3) aa. bb, ce, dd, ee
106'. (2) Make Ria understand the meaning and sound pattern and get the class as a
whole to listen to these words through an audio'-visual medium
107. (2) encourage play with no . other objective
108.(3) enabiling activities with a focus on conversation skills leading to
communicative competence
109. (1) taking up many examples . for the entire class and paying special attention Lo Ritu
110.(1) By brainstorming ideas and asking students to write in their own words
(2) they lack enough competence and the structures
of the two· languages are different
112.(2) when subject and object change positions. the meaning of the sentence
changes
113.(2) every learner is unique and needs to be given a chance to develop to the best
of their ability
114.(4) enabling practice in context
115. (3) has over generalised the rule . for making past tense verbs. showing that
learning is taking place
116.(3) "Good. it will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help
each other and be supportive."
117.(3) use these illustrated colourful books for reading together
118.(4) employing a variety of teaching methods and modes of assessment which
cater to diversity among learners
119.(3) throught activities in a child-friendly manner
120.(3) make an attempt to counsel the boys, impressing; upon them that gender
stereotyping is not healthy

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