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STATIC GK

Question Bank for MBA Entrance


Static GK Question Bank for MBA
Entrance Exams
(IIFT, SNAP, XAT, CMAT, MAT, etc…)

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INDEX

S. No. Topic Pg. No.

1. History ________________________________________________ 1

2. Business & Economy _________________________________ 17

3. Finance & Banking ___________________________________ 31

4. Geography ____________________________________________ 46

5. Environment __________________________________________ 70

6. Indian Polity___________________________________________ 84

7. Government Schemes ________________________________ 99

8. National & International Organisations ____________ 114

9. Science and Technology _____________________________ 128

10. Books, Authors and Culture _________________________ 140

11. Sports _________________________________________________ 152

12. Miscellaneous _________________________________________ 164

13. Answer keys __________________________________________ 178

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No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, by mimeograph or any other means, without permission in writing from
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1

GK Indian History Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Who is known as the "Prophet of New India"?

A) Dayanand Saraswati B) Sri Ramakrishna C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy D) Swami Vivekananda E) Mahatma Gandhi

Question No. : 2

Who among the following was the first woman to preside over the Indian National Congress?

A) Mrs. Indira Gandhi B) Mrs. Annie Bessant C) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani D) Sarojini Nadu

Question No. : 3

The Gayatri Mantra is contained in the

A) Rigveda  B) Mundak Upanishad C) Dharmashastras D) Puranas

Question No. : 4

Mahatma Gandhi’s first experiment with “Satyagraha” took place in

A) Champaran B) South Africa C) Ahmedabad D) Kheda

Question No. : 5

Who was the first to address M.K Gandhi as the “Father of the Nation”?

A) J.L. Nehru B) V.B. Patel C) Subhas Bose D) C.R. Dass

Question No. : 6

“Long, long ago, we had a tryst with destiny. And today we are going to renew that pledge, not partly or fully, but very
substantially. Today, when the whole world sleeps, India shall wake to freedom at the strike of the midnight four ______”. These
famous poetic lines were uttered by

A) Mahatma Gandhi B) J.L. Nehru C) Sardar Patel D) B.R. Ambedkar

Question No. : 7

Which freedom fighter died after 64 days of fasting in jail?

A) SN Sanyal B) BC Vohra C) Ras Behari Bose D) Jatin Dass

Question No. : 8

The Cheras used to rule in today's

A) Tamil Nadu B) Gujarat C) Kerala D) Assam

Question No. : 9

Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last Mughal emperor, was deported by the British to

A) Malaya B) Rangoon C) Singapore D)  The Andamans

Question No. : 10

The basic idea of the Bhakti Movement was the

A) Denial of privileges to Brahmins B) Renunciation of worldly pleasures C) The devotion and love of devotee for his God
D) Attack on existing social systems
2

GK Indian History Test 01


Question No. : 11

The remains of the Vijayanagar Empire can be found in

A) Golconda B) Bijapur C) Thanjavur D) Hampi

Question No. : 12

The Apbhramshas are

A) Jain books B) Buddhist books C) Corrupt languages D) Sanskrit books.

Question No. : 13

The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between the _____ and _____.

A) Afghans and Marathas B) Afghans and Sikhs C) Marathas and Turkish D) Marathas and Mughals

Question No. : 14

Delhi Chalo – This slogan was a part of the

A) INA Movement B) Limited Satyagraha Movement C) Quit India Movement D) Rowaltt Satygraha

Question No. : 15

The language used in all of Ashoka’s edicts is

A) Brahmi B) Pali C) Prakrit D) Sanskrit

Question No. : 16

“I am the scourge of God“. Which medieval invader in India uttered this line?

A) Changez Khan B) Mahmud of Ghazni C) Mohammed Ghauri D) Halaku

Question No. : 17

Arrange the following in the correct chronological order.

A. First Round Table Conference B. Non-Cooperation Movement

C. Rowlatt Act D. Dandi March

A) C- B- D- A B) C- B- A- D C) C- D- A- B D) B- C- D- A

Question No. : 18

The first woman to sit on the throne of Delhi was

A) Gulbadan Beghum B) Chand Bibi C) Ahilya Devi D) Razia Sultan

Question No. : 19

The revenue minister of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was

A) Faqir Azizuddin B) Deewan Deena Nath C) Sher Bahadur D) Hari Singh Nalwa

Question No. : 20

The Simon Commission came to India in

A) 1928 B) 1927 C) 1929 D) 1930


3

GK Indian History Test 01


Question No. : 21

The Bardoli Satyagraha took place in

A) 1922 B) 1927 C) 1928 D) 1929

Question No. : 22

The Indian leader credited with the integration of princely States into India after independence was

A) J.L. Nehru B) V.B. Patel C) M.K Gandhi D) C.R. Dass

Question No. : 23

Who led the Bardoli Satyagraha against the resettlement enhancements proposed by the Government?

A) Babu Rajendra Prasad B) Manik Lal Verma C) Vallabhbhai Patel D) Mahatma Gandhi

Question No. : 24

Which important political party was formed in 1906?

A) Indian Swaraj Party B) Indian National Congress C) Muslim League D) Indian Independence League

Question No. : 25

Which period is referred to as the period of Hindu revival or renaissance?

A) Mauryan period B) Period of Harsha C) Gupta period D) Kushan period

Question No. : 26

The capital of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was at

A) Amritsar B) Lahore C) Patiala D) Chandimandir

Question No. : 27

Who emphasized democratization of local administration of India?

A) Charles Metcalf B) Lord Mayo C) Lord Ripon D) Lord Dufferin

Question No. : 28

Who among the following was a remarkably modern and scientific man / woman and took the French officers’ help to train his
/ her army?

A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh B) Tipu Sultan C) Rani Lakshmi Bai D) Swai Jai Singh

Question No. : 29

Who said “Go back to Vedas”?

A) Dayanand Saraswati B) Ram Mohan Roy C) R.K. Purandaradasa D) Pandit Vidyasagar

Question No. : 30

When was the ‘Vikrami Era’ started?

A) 58 B.C. B) 78 A.D. C) 319 AD D) 58 A.D.

Question No. : 31

The custom of sati was banned by the British in

A) 1829 B) 1830 C) 1885 D) 1831


4

GK Indian History Test 01


Question No. : 32

The first English newspaper in India was

A) The Bengal Gazette B) The Calcutta Gazette C) The Bengal Journal D) The Bengal Herald

Question No. : 33

The oldest book in vedic literature is

A) Sama Veda B) Rig Veda C) Yajur Veda D) Atharva Veda

Question No. : 34

The lion capital on currency notes was taken from

A) Bharut B) Sanchi C) Bodh Gaya D) Sarnath

Question No. : 35

Which Indian ruler was made a prisoner during the Revolt of 1857?

A) Rani of Jhansi-Lakshmi Bai B) Nana Saheb C) Bahadur Shah Zafar D) None of the above

Question No. : 36

During whose reign did the East India Company establish its first factory in India?

A) Jahangir B) Shahjahan C) Aurangzeb D) Bahadur Shah-I

Question No. : 37

The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in

A) 1914 B) 1916 C) 1919 D) 1929

Question No. : 38

Gautama Buddha attained Mahapariniban in

A) Anga B) Magadha C) Malla D) Vatsa

Question No. : 39

Who among the following was the founder of Agra?

A) Balban B) Bahlol Lodhi C) Sikandar Lodhi D) Firoz Tughlaq

Question No. : 40

Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905)?

A) Surendranath Banerjee B) C.R.Das C) Ashutosh Mukherjee D) Rabindra Nath Tagore


5

GK Indian History Test 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

Question No. : 1

Who found the sea route to India?

A) Vasco da Gama B) Amerigo Vespucci C) Bartholomew Diaz D) Marco Polo

Question No. : 2

The founder of the Yoga school of philosophy was

A) Adiguru Shankracharya B) Gemini C) Charvaka D) Patanjli

Question No. : 3

Gautam Buddha belonged to a

A) Kshatriya clan B) Shudra clan C) Brahmana clan D) Vaishya clan

Question No. : 4

Who was the Prime Minister of England at the time of India’s Independence?

A) Winston Churchill B) Lord Mountbatten C) Alfred Powell D) Clement Atlee

Question No. : 5

The man who did the most for widow remarriges in India during British era was

A) Ram Mohan Roy  B) Ishwar Chander Vidyasagar C) Jyotiba Phule   D) Swami Vivekanand

Question No. : 6

The Dilwara Temples are situated in

A) Jaipur B) Mt. Abu C) Alwar D) Udaipur

Question No. : 7

Who is called the “wisest fool” in Indian history?

A) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq B) Mohammed Tughlaq C) Feroz Tughlaq D) Aurangzab

Question No. : 8

The Quit India resolution was passed at the Bombay session of the Indian National Congress in

A) 1940 B) 1941 C) 1942 D) 1945

Question No. : 9

Goswami Tulsidas was a contemporary of

A) Akbar B) Jahangir C) Shahjehan D) Aurangzeb

Question No. : 10

Which son of Shah Jehan was deeply religious and got the Vedas translated into Persian?

A) Shuja B) Murad C) Dara D) Aurangzeb


6

GK Indian History Test 02


Question No. : 11

Which Mughal king died while coming down the stairs of his library?

A) Akbar B) Humayun C) Babar D) Jahangir

Question No. : 12

Most of the coins in Buddha’s times consist of

A) Silver  B) Gold C) Iron D) Copper

Question No. : 13

Who among the following built the city of Jaipur?

A) Sawai Madho Singh B) Rattan Singh C) Sawai Jai Singh D) Jairattan Singh

Question No. : 14

The Shudras find mention first of all in the

A) Rigveda B) Samveda C) Yajurveda D) Atharvaveda

Question No. : 15

Hindi is written in the _____ script.

A) Persian B) Roman C) Devnagari D) Sanskriti

Question No. : 16

Vasco de Gama arrived at Calicut in

A) 1492 B) 1510 C) 1491 D) 1498

Question No. : 17

The Cabinet Mission came to India in

A) 1946 B) 1945 C) 1942 D) 1944

Question No. : 18

The All-India Muslim League was formed in

A) Lahore B) Karachi C) Dhaka D) Amritsar

Question No. : 19

The third battle of Panipat was fought in the year

A) 1761 B) 1865 C) 1757 D) 1526

Question No. : 20

Gautam Buddha delivered his first sermon at

A) Bodh Gaya B) Varanasi C) Sarnath D) Lumbini

Question No. : 21

The Jantar Mantar was built by

A) Mann Singh B) Rattan Singh C) Sawai Jai Singh D) Ranbir Singh


7

GK Indian History Test 02


Question No. : 22

The famous slogan “Do or Die” was given by

A) M.K. Gandhi B) Subhas Chandra Bose C) Bhagat Singh    D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Question No. : 23

The Mughal architecture reveals a happy blending of

A) Turkish and Afghan styles B) Turkish and Persian styles C) Persian and Indian styles D) Timurid and Indian styles

Question No. : 24

The main occupation of the people in the Indus Valley civilization was

A) Agriculture B) Hunting C) Cattle rearing D) Trade

Question No. : 25

Albuquerque captured Goa from the ruler of

A) Bijapur B) Golkonda C) Ahmednagar    D) Vijayanagar

Question No. : 26

Who pioneered the movement leading to the Widow Remarriage Act?

A) Swami Vivekanand B) Raja Ram Mohun Roy C) Keshab Chandra Sen D) Ishwar C. Vidyasagar

Question No. : 27

Which one of the following is famous for its sun temple?

A) Khajuraho B) Konark C) Pattadakkal D) Thanjavur

Question No. : 28

The outstanding achievement of Todar Mal was in

A) Military conquests B) Revenue administration C) Religious reforms D) Art and architecture

Question No. : 29

The first European nation to establish its territorial rule in India was

A) Portugal B) England C) France D) Holland

Question No. : 30

Lala Har Dayal was well known as the leader of

A) Anushilan Party B) Ghadar Party    C) Swaraj Party D) Hindustan Republican Association

Question No. : 31

The Battle of Plassey was fought in

A) 1757        B) 1782 C) 1748 D) 1764

Question No. : 32

Who was the first Indian selected as a member of British Parliament?

A) J.L.Nehru B) Dada Bhai Naoroji C) M.K.Gandhi D) None of these


8

GK Indian History Test 02


Question No. : 33

Who was called the ‘Iron Man’ ?

A) J.L.Nehru B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Subhas Chandra Bose

Question No. : 34

During the reign of which Sultan did Chinghiz Khan invade India?
 

A) Iltutmish B) Alauddin Khilji C) Ghiyasuddin Balban    D) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

Question No. : 35

When did Royal Indian Navy Revolt in Bombay take place?


 

A) 1942    B) 1944    C) 1945    D) 1946 

Question No. : 36

“The Servants of India’ Society was founded by


 
 

A) M.N.Joshi B) H.N.Kunzru C) B.G.Tilak D) V.D.Savarkar

Question No. : 37

Buddha had delivered the maximum number of sermons at


 

A) Vaishali B) Sravasti C) Kaushambi D) Rajgriha 

Question No. : 38

Which one of the following rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
 

A) Haider Ali B) Mir Qasim C) Shah Alam II D) Tipu Sultan

Question No. : 39

The only session of the Indian National Congress which was presided over by Mahatma Gandhi was held at

A) Amravati B) Belgaum C) Karachi D) Nagpur

Question No. : 40

Which among the following leaders escaped from the prison and organized underground activities during the ‘Quit India
Movement’?

A) J.B.Kriplani B) Ram Manohar Lohia C) Achyut Patwardhan D) Jai Prakash Narayan


9

GK Indian History Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.


Question No. : 1

The women’s wing of the Indian National Army of Subhash Chandra Bose was called

A) Jijamata Regiment B) Durga Devi Regiment C) Rani Jhansi Regiment D) None of the above

Question No. : 2

Mahatma Gandhi launched the legendary “Quit India” struggle on

A) 8th August, 1942 B) 9th August, 1942 C) 8th August, 1945 D) 9th August 1945

Question No. : 3

Which of the following Vedas in concerned with the musical rendition of hymns?

A) Atharva Veda B) Yajur Veda C) Sam Veda D) Rig Veda

Question No. : 4

Who is known as the greatest dramatist in Sanskrit after Kalidasa?

A) Bhavbhuti B) Shudraka C) Kalhana D) Panini

Question No. : 5

The name of the political party established by Subhash Bose after he left the Congress is

A) Revolutionary Socialist Party   B) Forward Bloc C) Congress Socialist Party D) Communist Party of India

Question No. : 6

The famous Khajuraho temples were built by the

A) Chandellas B) Parmars C) Gangas D) Chetis

Question No. : 7

The ‘Sarvodaya’ movement was started by

A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Jayaprakash Narayan C) Vinoba Bhave D) J L Nehru

Question No. : 8

Akbar’s regent was

A) Abul Fazal B) his father C) Bairam Khan D) Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana

Question No. : 9

William Hawkins visited the Mughal Court to get a right to trade in Mughal ports during the reign of

A) Shah Jahan B) Jahangir C) Akbar D) Aurangzeb

Question No. : 10

Who took away the Peacock Throne of Shahjehan?

A) Ahmed Shah Abdali B) Nadir Shah C) Changez Khan D) Mahmud of Ghazni

Question No. : 11

The Meenakshi Temple is in

A) Chennai B) Thanajvur C) Madurai D) Hampi


10

GK Indian History Test 03


Question No. : 12

What was the real name of Noorjehan, Jahangir’s wife, who had considerable political influence?

A) Mehrun Nissa B) Munia Khan C) Jodha Bai D) Razia Beghum

Question No. : 13

The Salt Satygraha in 1930 had started from

A) Dharsana B) Ahmedabad C) Dandi D) Bardoli

Question No. : 14

The central feature of the later vedic times was the

A) Rituals B) Social divisions C) A and B D) None of these

Question No. : 15

Which medieval king was famous for his chain of justice?

A) Akbar B) Balban C) Jahangir D) Shahjehan

Question No. : 16

The Qutab Minar was erected in the honour of

A) Qutabuddin Aibak B) Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki C) Qutab Shah D) None of these

Question No. : 17

Akbar was crowned the king in

A) 1542    B) 1564    C) 1584 D) 1556

Question No. : 18

The concept of “Panchsheel” was given first of all by

A) Pt. Nehru B) Marshal Tito    C) A & B D) Gautam Buddha

Question No. : 19

The Qutab Minar was built by

A) Qutubuddin Aibak B) Illtutmish C) Balban D) Razia Sultan

Question No. : 20

“The Grand Old Man of India” is a title given to

A) Gandhiji B) Dadabhai Nauroji C) C.R. Dass D) Justice Ranade

Question No. : 21

Mahatma Gandhi’s first experiment with Satyagraha on an all-India scale was the

A) Champaran Satyagraha B) Rowlatt Satyagraha C) Khilafat Satyagraha D) Civil Disobedience Movement

Question No. : 22

The first martyr of the 1857 revolt was

A) Rani Jhansi B) Mangal Pandey C) An unknown Indian D) Tantiya Tope


11

GK Indian History Test 03


Question No. : 23

The river most commonly mentioned in early Vedic literature is

A) Sindhu B) Sutudri C) Ganga D) Sarasvati

Question No. : 24

Aryabhatta lived during the reign of which among the following?

A) Chandragupta – II B) Chandragupta Maurya C) Ashoka, the Great D) Samudragupta

Question No. : 25

Akbar founded the Din-i-llahi primarily to

A) Put an end to the differences between Hindus and Muslims.


B) Establish a national religion, which would be acceptable to the Muslim and Hindus
C) Ensure racial and communal harmony D) Found a religious club

Question No. : 26

The Aligarh Movement was associated with

A) Syed Ahmed Khan B) M.A. Jinnah     C) Maulana Mohammed Ali D) Liaqat Ali

Question No. : 27

The Ratha Temple is in

A) Madurai B) Mahabalipuram C) Cambodia D) Thanjavur

Question No. : 28

The deity most praised in the Rigveda is

A) Indra B) Agni     C) Mitra D) Varuna

Question No. : 29

The Poorna Swaraj resolution was passed in 1929 in

A) Lahore B) Bombay C) Karachi D) Calcutta

Question No. : 30

“Atharvaveda” deals with

A) Prayers B) Musical hymns C) Rituals D) Charms, spells

Question No. : 31

Which Mughal emperor banned singing at the court?

A) Aurangzeb B) Dara Shikoh C) Bahadur Shah Zafar D) Jahangir

Question No. : 32

Khilafat Movement started in

A) 1930 B) 1911 C) 1919 D) 1917

Question No. : 33

Who criticized the economic consequences of the British rule in India?

A) B.G Tilak  B) Dadabhai Naoroji C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Subhash Chandra Bose


12

GK Indian History Test 03


Question No. : 34

Which of the following Indian States could not be annexed by Akbar?


 

A) Kashmir B) Bengal C) Bihar    D) Assam 

Question No. : 35

The first political society started under the British rule in India was
 
 

A) Brahma Samaj B) Arya Samaj      C) Bengal land-holders’ society D) None of the above

Question No. : 36

Why were the Indians dissatisfied with the Simon Commission?


 

A) Because no Indian was taken as a member of the Commission


B) Because Indians never wanted the review of the working of Act of 1919 
C) Because it recommended that Dyarchy in the provinces should be abolished. D) None of the above 

Question No. : 37

Sardeshmukhi and Chauth were the taxes imposed by

A) Jai Singh B) Shivjai C) Aurangzeb D) Mohammed Tughlaq 

Question No. : 38

Who among the following was the one to have escaped after the ‘Kakori Conspiracy Case’?
 

A) Ashfaqullah Khan B) Rajendra Lahiri C) Ram Prasad Bismil D) Chandra Shekhar Azad

Question No. : 39

Who among the following leaders of the Revolution of 1857 had the real name of Ram Chandra Pandurang?

A) Kunwar Singh B) Nana Saheb C) Tatiya Tope D) Mangal Pandey

Question No. : 40

After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his second Satyagraha in

A) Ahmedabad B) Chauri-Chaura C) Bardoli D) Dandi


13

GK World History Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the right option


Question No. : 1

Which of the following became the first European country to ban the burqa and niqab in public?

A) France B) Switzerland C) Denmark D) Belgium

Question No. : 2

 
Who amongst the following is the founder of the Grameen Bank, an organization in Bangladesh?

A) Taslima Nasreen B) Salman Rushdie C) Mujeebur Rehman D) Shaikh Haseena Wahid E) Mohammad Yunus

Question No. : 3

The American Declaration of Independence was signed by

A) Thomas Carlyle B) George Washington C) Thomas Jefferson D) Abraham Lincoln

Question No. : 4

The famous October revolution took place

A) In 1917 in Russia B) In 1920 in China C) In 1868 in Japan D) In 1949 in China

Question No. : 5

Borobudur is famous for

A) Ancient temples B) Its architecture C) Its merchant activities D) Its strategic location

Question No. : 6

The famous Borobudur temple is in

A) Indonesia B) Thailand C) Surinam D) Cambodia

Question No. : 7

The present Christian calendar is based on the system given by

A) St. Augustus B) Samudragupta C) Saka D) Pope Gregory

Question No. : 8

After being captured, Napoleon Bonaparte was kept in

A) St. Helena B) St. Kitts C) St. Carribea D) None of these

Question No. : 9

Liberty, Equality and Fraternity were the buzzwords of the

A) Russian Revolution B) French Revolution C) Japanese Revolution D) Chinese Revolution

Question No. : 10

“I may or may not agree with what you say you, but I shall defend till death your right to say it.”
 
This famous line belongs to a person who was approached by a revolutionary thinker who had been hounded out of his own
country due to his radical ideas. Can you identify the person who uttered this line?

A) Voltaire B) Rousseau C) Karl Marx D) Osho Rajneesh


14

GK World History Test 01


Question No. : 11

Taoism was a well-known religious sect in ancient

A) Japan B) China C) Korea D) Indonesia

Question No. : 12

The only Hindu kingdom in the world is

A) Indonesia B) Mauritius C) Nepal D) Surinam

Question No. : 13

“Give me good mothers, I’ll give you a good nation”. Who said this?

A) Benito Mussolini B) Subhash Bose C) Napoleon Bonaparte D) Winston Churchill

Question No. : 14

The American Declaration of Independence was signed in

A) 1876    B) 1779 C) 1776 D) 1834

Question No. : 15

Who was responsible for killing millions of people in concentration camps?

A) Idi Amin B) Adolf Hitler C) Pol Pot D) None of these

Question No. : 16

“The Little Corporal” is a title given to

A) Lal Bahadur Shastri B) Napoleon C) Bismarck         D) Winston Churchill

Question No. : 17

“England expects every man to do his duty”. This famous quote is attributed to

A) Atlee    B) Winston Churchill C) Ramsay McDonald D) Lord Nelson

Question No. : 18

The Neolithic people had their settlements in:

A) Quartzite rocks B) Granite rocks C) Natural rocks D) Houses of mud bricks

Question No. : 19

‘Mein Kampf’ was written by

A) Adolf Hitler B) Mussolini C) General Franco D) Ottovon Bismarck

Question No. : 20

Who among the following Chinese travellers to India was the first to report that certain Buddhist monastic communities in India
were given to magical practices?

A) Wang Hiuen Tse B) Itsing C) Fa-hien D) Hiuen Tsang

Question No. : 21

Ancient Rome became a republic in

A) 6th century BC B) 3rd century BC C) 1st century AD D) 2nd century AD


15

GK World History Test 01


Question No. : 22

The French Revolution gave its modern meaning to the term

A) Nation B) Sovereignty C) Republic D) Capitalism

Question No. : 23

Who said that, 'Man is a social animal'?

A) Socrates B) Aristotle C) Kahn D) Plato

Question No. : 24

Whose teaching inspired the French Revolution?

A) Rousseau B) Locke C) Hegel D) Wagner

Question No. : 25

Taiwan was earlier known as

A) Fuchow B) Marshall Island C) Formosa D) Macau

Question No. : 26

India became a member of UNO in

A) 1945 B) 1947 C) 1950 D) 1952

Question No. : 27

Who was the first ever woman appointed as the Prime Minister of a country?

A) Indira Gandhi B) Margret Thatcher C) Sirimavo Bandaranaike D) Golda Meir

Question No. : 28

Ms Angela Markel is the:

A) First woman Chancellor of Germany B) President of South Africa C) Prime Minister of Dominica
D) President of Denmark E) None of these

Question No. : 29

Which treaty led to the creation of the single European Currency '"Euro"?

A) Maastricht Treaty B) Vienna Monetary Treaty C) Plaza Accord D) Bretton Woods Agreement

Question No. : 30

The framework of European Union was set with the signing of

A) Treaty of Paris B) Maastricht Treaty C) Treaty of Lisbon D) Treaty of Rome

Question No. : 31

On which side did Japan fight in the First World War ?

A) against Russia on its own B) with United Kingdom against Germany C) none, it was neutral
D) with Germany against United Kingdom

Question No. : 32

Of the following, in which did Napoleonic France suffer final defeat?

A) Battle of Pyramids B) Battle of Austerlitz C) Battle of Waterloo  D) Battle of Wakram


16

GK World History Test 01


Question No. : 33

The Japanese attack on which place brought the USA into the Second World War?

A) Seychelles B) Pearl Harbour C) Florida D) New York

Question No. : 34

When did the second world war end?

A) 1918 B) 1945 C) 1946 D) 1939

Question No. : 35

Industrial Revolution was started from which country

A) France B) Germany C) Italy D) England

Question No. : 36

Renaissance started first in

A) England B) Russia C) Italy D) Greece

Question No. : 37

The Fall of Bastille is associated with the

A) Russian Revolution B) French Revolution C) Greek War of Independence D) American War of Independence

Question No. : 38

Vasco-de-gama was a native of:

A) Britain B) Portugal C) Australia D) America

Question No. : 39

Who amongst the following was not associated with the Unification of Italy ?

A) Cavour B) Garibaldi C) Mussolini D) Mazzini

Question No. : 40

Which of the following was NOT an outcome of the French Revolution(1789-1799 A.D)?

A) Abolition of the French monarchy


B) Establishment of a secular and democratic republic that became increasingly authoritarian and militaristic
C) Fall of Napoleon Bonaparte D) Radical social change based on liberalism and other Enlightenment principles
17

GK Business & Economy Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

What does S & P 500 relate to?

A) Supercomputer B) A new technique in bridge building C) A new technique in e-business
D) An index of stocks of large companies

Question No. : 2

Which of the following is not a Public Sector Unit/Undertaking/Agency?

A) ECGC B) SIDBI C) SEBI D) Axis Bank

Question No. : 3

Which of the following companies has announced its plan to roll out 4G wireless broadband services in West Bengal by March
2014 and to infuse Rs. 30, 000 crores into the state?

A) Tata Docomo B) Reliance Jio Infocom C) Reliance Communications D) Bharti Airtel

Question No. : 4

 
Which of the following reports is/are the major source of knowing about various aspects of “global well being and deprivation”?

A) Human Development Report of the UNO B) Annual Reports of the World Bank
C) Approach Paper prepared by the Planning Commission of India every year D) Inflation in major countries of the world
E) All of these

Question No. : 5

 
The most important small scale industry in India is the

A) Handloom industry B) Textile industry C) Jute industry D) Paper industry E) None of these

Question No. : 6

Which company markets the cult brand "Amul" in India?

A) Dabur B) NDDB C) Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF) D) Pepsi Co E) None of these

Question No. : 7

 
The world economic crisis of which period is termed as the Great Depression?

A) 1929-33 B) 1930-40 C) 1935-45 D) 1950-60

Question No. : 8

Match the women CEOs with the company.


CEO                                                  Company
a. Ms Shikha Sharma                          i. HSBC
b. Ms Naina Lal Kidwai                     ii. Axis bank
c. Ms Indra Nooyi                             iii. Biocon India
d. Ms Kiran Majumdar Shaw             iv. Pepsico
 

A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii C) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
18

GK Business & Economy Test 01


Question No. : 9

Which of the two partnered the formation of Apple Inc.?

A) Steve Jobs & Steve Ballmer B) Steve Winwood & Steve Jobs C) Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniak D) Steve Wood & Steve Jobs

Question No. : 10

The central co-operative banks are in direct touch with?

A) Farmers B) State Co-Operative Banks C) Land Development Banks D) Central Government

Question No. : 11

‘Globalisation of Indian Economy’ means -

A) giving up programmes of import substitution


B) having minimum possible restrictions on economic relation with other countries C) stepping up external borrowings
D) establishing Indian Business units abroad

Question No. : 12

Indian government is planning to introduce GAAR. What is the purpose of GAAR?

A) Increase rural income B) Regulatory authority for managing agriculture resources


C) Regulate foreign investment in agriculture D) Curtail tax avoidance

Question No. : 13

If you were wearing something genuine since 1937, what would you be wearing?

A) Ray Ban B) Picasso Paloma C) Mont Blanc D) Sheffers

Question No. : 14

Dr V Kurien was associated with:

A) Operation Flood B) Operation Milk C) Operation Blue Star D) Operation X

Question No. : 15

Hero group and Honda terminated their 26-year-old joint venture known as Hero Honda. MoU allows the Hero Honda group
to use Honda brand name on new models until

A) 2012 B) 2013 C) 2014 D) 2015

Question No. : 16

Iron and steel industry is

A) auxiliary industry B) basic industry C) light industry D) None of these

Question No. : 17

The famous International Company ‘De Beers' is engaged in the business of

A) Lager Beer B) Animal skins C) Shares and stocks D) Diamonds

Question No. : 18

“Standard and Poor’s” is a/an

A) Credit Rating Agency B) Investment consultancy C) Merchant Banking Co. D) Development Bank
19

GK Business & Economy Test 01


Question No. : 19

Nikkei is the sensitive index of which stock exchange?

A) Tokyo B) Singapore C) New York D) Frankfurt

Question No. : 20

The maximum share of the Gross Domestic Product now comes from

A) Agriculture B) Manufacturing C) Services D) Livestock

Question No. : 21

The Videocon Industries is owned by the

A) Hindujas B) Wadias C) Ambanis D) Dhoots

Question No. : 22

Omega is a well-known brand of

A) Watches B) Tyres C) Automobiles D) Safety razors

Question No. : 23

The highest milk producing state in India is

A) Gujarat B) Punjab C) Uttar Pradesh D) Tamil Nadu

Question No. : 24

Which one of the following is an example of consumer goods?

A) Cloth B) Machines C) Equipment D) Tools

Question No. : 25

Amartya Sen, the NRI Nobel laureate got the honour for his work on

A) Game theory B) Securities analysis C) Poverty and famines D) Industrialization

Question No. : 26

“Bank Rate” is the

A) rate of interest charged by banks on loans B) interest rate given by banks on FDs
C) rate at which the bills of exchnage are rediscounted by the RBI D) None of the above

Question No. : 27

The World Bank is really known as

A) International Development Bank B) International Bank For Reconstruction and Development


C) International Monetary Fund D) None of these

Question No. : 28

‘Yen’ is the currency of:

A) Bulgaria B) Brazil C) Chile D) Japan

Question No. : 29

Dirham is the currency of


 

A) Japan B) Russia C) Kuwait D) UAE


20

GK Business & Economy Test 01


Question No. : 30

Which of the following authority sanctions foreign exchange for the import of goods?

A) Any Nationalised Bank B) Exchange Bank C) Reserve Bank of India D) Ministry of Finance

Question No. : 31

Which of the following is not true in respect of globalization impact on Indian agriculture?

A) Climate change B) Emphasis on cash crops C) Growth of income inequality D) Reduction of subsidies

Question No. : 32

The Indian economy can be described as__

A) A backward and stagnant economy B) A developing economy C) An underdeveloped economy
D) A developed economy

Question No. : 33

On the lines of Amul in Gujarat, which one of the following states has come forward to bring a ‘White Revolution’ in the state?

A) Himachal Pradesh B) Punjab C) Uttarakhand D) Uttar Pradesh

Question No. : 34

The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio of their cash in hand to total assets. This is called.

A) Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR) B) Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR) C) Central Liquid Reserve(CLR)
D) Liquidity Adequacy Ratio (LAR)

Question No. : 35

What do you mean by home banking?

A) Home banking is an extended version of tele-banking


B) The customer can access his bank account from his home for availing of a variety of services made available
C) Home banking is availed through the customer’s personal computer attached to a telephone line and modem
D) All the above

Question No. : 36

The purchase of shares and bonds of Indian companies by Foreign Institutional Investors is called

A) Foreign Direct Investment B) Portfolio Investment C) NRI Investment D) Foreign Indirect Investment

Question No. : 37

Which of the following is a Credit Card Association?

A) India Card B) Master Card C) SBI Card D) Citi Bank Cards

Question No. : 38

The rate at which the domestic currency can be converted into foreign currency and vice versa is known as

A) Exchange rate B) MIBOR C) Inter-bank call money rate D) Base rate

Question No. : 39

Which of the following is considered Non Tax Revenue of the Government of India as projected in the Union Budget?

A) Income Tax B) Custom Duty C) Service Tax D) Dividends and Profits


21

GK Business & Economy Test 01


Question No. : 40

The rates charged by the banks on loans given to customers are

A) Fixed by the Indian Banks Association B) Set by the banks themselves


C) Set by the R.B.I. as directed by the Union Ministry of Finance D) Set by R.B.I. as advised by the Indian Banks Association
22

GK Business & Economy Test 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Which of the following names is not a Public Sector Unit/Undertaking/Agency?

A) NABARD B) GIC C) LIC D) GE Money

Question No. : 2

The Brand Ambassador for BSNL is

A) Sachin Tendulkar B) Preeti Zinta C) Deepika Padukone D) Mahendra Singh Dhoni

Question No. : 3

The Ad line ‘Life’s Good’ is associated with which company?

A) Samsung B) Phillips C) LG D) Godrej

Question No. : 4

 
Which of the following is considered the main and primary asset in rural areas in India?
 
(A) Manpower             (B) Land          (C) Cattle

A) Only (A) B) Only (B) C) Only (C) D) All (A), (B) & (C) E) None of these

Question No. : 5

At the time of Independence in 1947, India had less than 300 dams whereas by the year 2000 the
number had gone upto over 4000. Why has India made a huge investment in dams despite a severe criticism from
many sectors, which was also epitomized by the Sardar Sarovar project?
 
(A) Dams were built primarily for flood control, water supply and power generation.
(B) Dams were built to provide irrigation facilities to dry areas.
(C) Dams were built to displace certain old fashioned tribal villages so that the residents of those places can
be inducted in the main stream

A) Only (A) B) Only (B) C) Only (C) D) Both (A) & (B) E) All (A), (B) & (C)

Question No. : 6

 
The Centre distributes subsidized grain to BPL families. They are eligible for __________ kg of grain a month

A) 15 B) 25 C) 35 D) 45 E) 50

Question No. : 7

“Operation Flood” involves milk. “Operation Golden Flow” involves

A) Petroleum B) Edible oil C) Fruit-based drinks D) Mining of gold

Question No. : 8

McCann Ericsson is the name of

A) an advertising agency B) a firm manufacturing cell phones C) a Swedish optical instruments company
D) a financial consultancy firm

Question No. : 9

State Bank of India, the first Indian bank in China, opened its branch in

A) Nanjing B) Shanghai C) Hongkong D) None of the above


23

GK Business & Economy Test 02


Question No. : 10

3G refers to the world of

A) Computers B) Retail C) Telecom D) Demograhics

Question No. : 11

CPI and WPI as acronyms, refer to:

A) Political Parties B) Purchasing capacity indices C) Price Indices D) Poverty Indices

Question No. : 12

A few combinations of names of companies and their products are given below. Choose the right option:

A) Amazon - Kindle; Roxio - Angry Birds; Google - Ad Sense; Zynga - Nook


B) Amazon - Kindle; Nintendo - Wii; Rovio - Angry Birds; Zynga - CastleVille
C) Zynga - Angry Birds; Nintendo - Wii; Google - Ad Sense; Rovio - CastleVille
D) Amazon - Nook; Sony - Wii; Zynga - Castle Ville; Google - Ad Sense

Question No. : 13

Debenture holders of a company are its

A) debtors B) shareholders C) creditors D) workers

Question No. : 14

The largest employer in the world is

A) Indian Railways B) Reliance Industries C) General Motors D) State Bank of India

Question No. : 15

National Income of India is compiled by

A) Finance Commission B) Indian Statistical Institute C) National Development Council


D) Central Statistical Organisation

Question No. : 16

Which of the following is an organization of Software and Service Companies?

A) NASDAQ B) NCSA C) NASSCOM D) NCAER

Question No. : 17

India signed an agreement for loan of 255 million US dollars with World Bank for the National AIDS Control Project (NACP-IV)
in New Delhi. The objective of the project is to increase safe behaviors among high risk groups in order to contribute to India’s
national goal of reversal of the HIV epidemic by

A) 2014 B) 2017 C) 2020 D) 2024

Question No. : 18

The fiscal policy is concerned with

A) Imports and exports B) Debt and public finance C) Credit creation D) Issuance of currency

Question No. : 19

The largest industry in terms of employment potential in India is

A) The mining sector B) The Railways C) The textiles sector D) Small-scale and cottage industries
24

GK Business & Economy Test 02


Question No. : 20

A rise in inflation generally favours the

A) Debtors B) Creditors C) Banks D) Stock brokers

Question No. : 21

Which among the following is a direct tax?

A) Excise Duty B) Sales Tax C) Income Tax D) Customs Duty

Question No. : 22

A rolling plan means a

A) Five-year plan B) Year-to-year plan C) Long-term plan D) No definite plan

Question No. : 23

The 12th Finance Commission was chaired by

A) K.C. Pant B) Raja Chelliah C) Manmohan Singh D) Dr. C. Rangrajan

Question No. : 24

‘White Paper’ is a

A) paper of good quality B) paper having white colour


C) issued by the Government on important issues of national concern D) paper used for bearer bonds

Question No. : 25

The mutual fund in India are regulated by the

A) Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) B) Reserve Bank of India C) Banking Ombudsman
D) Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

Question No. : 26

Which of the following is a part of fiscal policy?

A) Money supply B) Taxation C) Public debt D) Both B and C

Question No. : 27

The statutory liquidity ratio of commercial banks is fixed by the

A) Finance Ministry B) SEBI C) Finance Commission D) RBI

Question No. : 28

Which of the following is the currency of Myanmar?

A) Dinar B) Kyat C) Pesso D) Euro

Question No. : 29

The value of the Indian Rupee in the international exchange is decided by

A) Market forces B) Reserve Bnak of India C) World Bank D) International Monetary Fund

Question No. : 30

MODVAT is related to

A) Excise duty B) Value Added Tax (VAT) C) Wealth Tax D) Income Tax
25

GK Business & Economy Test 02


Question No. : 31

Which of the following States has the minimum percentage of population below poverty line?

A) Punjab B) Haryana C) Himachal Pradesh D) Delhi

Question No. : 32

In India the Finance Commission is constituted every?

A) 4 years B) 5 years C) 6 years D) 7 years

Question No. : 33

Which one of the following is not a source of public revenue?

A) Income Tax B) Public Borrowing C) VAT(Value Added Tax) D) Subsidy

Question No. : 34

Which one of the following Five Year Plans recognized human developments as the core of all development efforts?

A) Third Five Year Plan B) Fifth Five Year Plan C) Sixth Five Year Plan D) Eighth Five Year Plan

Question No. : 35

National income ignores

A) sales of a firm B) salary of employees C) exports of the IT sector D) sale of land

Question No. : 36

Which of the following is a private bank in India?

A) Oriental Bank of Commerce B) Corporation Bank C) South Indian Bank D) Syndicate Bank

Question No. : 37

Which of the following Indian companies makes trucks?

A) Maruti Suzuki B) Ford Motors C) Ashok Leyland D) Mahindra Gujarat

Question No. : 38

Which of the following is the purpose of introducing ‘Know Your Customer’ norms by the banks?

A) To bring more and more people under the banking net B) Identifying people who do not pay Income Tax
C) To ensure that the money deposited in banks has come from genuine sources
D) To ensure whether the money deposited in the bank is of an Indian or a foreign national

Question No. : 39

We know that the Industrial sector plays an important role in the development of India. Which sector does not come under
Industrial sector?

A) Mining B) Manufacturing C) Banking D) Utilities

Question No. : 40

Which of the following is NOT a Private Bank in India?

A) Yes Bank B) HDFC Bank C) Axis Bank D) State Bank of India


26

GK Business & Economy Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

What is the full form of the abbreviation IPO?

A) Indian Public Offer B) Industrial Purchase Order C) Initial Public Offer D) Indian purchase Offer

Question No. : 2

India’s largest overseas investment in the UK is the Tata Corus deal. What is UK’s largest investment in India?

A) Vodafone B) Tetley C) Idea D) None of these

Question No. : 3

 
Which of the following states falls under “High Poverty Group”?

A) West Bengal B) Andhra Pradesh C) Gujarat D) Kerala E) Karnataka

Question No. : 4

The retail giant Wal-Mart belongs to which country?

A) US B) Australia C) Britain D) France E) Canada

Question No. : 5

 
Which of the following statement(s) best describes what ‘poverty’ is?
 
(A) It is minimum level of living rather than a reasonable level of living
(B) It is a condition in which a person’s family does not have full time Employment.
(C) It is a condition in which the income of the family falls below the average income of a family in the country

A) Only (B) B) Only (A) C) Only (C) D) Both (A) & (B) E) All (A), (B) & (C)

Question No. : 6

Which one of the following statements does not relate to the concept of carbon credits?

A) For one tonne of carbon dioxide emission reduction a company receives a carbon emission certificate which can be
traded like any other commodity
B) The carbon emission certificates are sold to companies in developed economies like power utilities
C) Carbon credit certificates are traded under UN-mandated international convention on climate change
D) Developing economies are allowed to offset some of their emissions from cars, factories and homes by funding clean
energy projects in developed ones.

Question No. : 7

The slogans in the table given below have been matched with the company they relate to. Choose the correct match.
Slogan                                               Company
a. Let’s make things better                  i. HP
b. Technology you can trust                ii. Phillips
c. Sponsors of tomorrow                   iii. Microsoft
d. Your potential our passion              iv. Intel
 

A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv B) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv C) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii D) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

Question No. : 8

With which of the following companies does McDonald have a JV in India to manage the brand in the Western Region?

A) Connaught Plaza Restaurant B) Dosa Diners Restaurants Ltd C) Hard Castle Restaurant D) Sahara Hotels & Restaurants Ltd
27

GK Business & Economy Test 03


Question No. : 9

The German Stock Market Index is called

A) NIFTY B) Standard and Poor C) Dow Jones D) MID-DAX

Question No. : 10

The price of any currency in the international market is determined by

A) The World Bank B) The demand for goods and services provided by that country
C) The amount of gold that country has in reserve D) The economic stability of that country

Question No. : 11

Black money is -

A) counterfeit currency B) illegally earned money C) income on which payment of tax is evaded
D) money earned through underhand deals

Question No. : 12

Which of the following educational institutions was Mr. Rajat Gupta, the former McKinsey chief associated with?

A) XLRI Jamshedpur B) Indian Institute of Management Calcutta C) Indian Institute of Management Bangalore
D) Indian School of Business, Hyderabad

Question No. : 13

The Indian income tax is


 
I. Direct           II. Progressive             III. Indirect       IV. Proportional

A) I and II B) I and IV C) II and III D) III and IV

Question No. : 14

 
Which of the following is not a method of estimating national income?

A) Output method B) Export-Import method C) Income method D) Expenditure method

Question No. : 15

Where are the headquarters of Volkswagen Auto Company?

A) France B) Britain C) USA D) Germany

Question No. : 16

The terms "bull" and "bear" are used in the

A) Bihar Government's Animal Husbandry Department B) Income Tax Department C) CBI D) Stock Exchange

Question No. : 17

Which new feature was introduced by Facebook Inc. in 2013 for identification of topics for discussions?

A) @ sign (at the rate tags) B) # sign (Hash tags) C) * sign (asterisk tags) D) ! sign (exclamation tags)

Question No. : 18

Brainstorming is a technique used in

A) Sports B) Finance C) Brain surgery D) Creativity


28

GK Business & Economy Test 03


Question No. : 19

Viagra was a blockbuster drug marketed by

A) Ranbaxy B) Novartis C) Pfizer D) Sun Pharma

Question No. : 20

The Reserve Bank of India was established in

A) 1935  B) 1934    C) 1947 D) 1950

Question No. : 21

Which of the following is a term NOT connected with stock exchanges in India?

A) SEBI    B) Badla C) Hawala D) Nifty

Question No. : 22

Before the NITI Aayog came into being, the apex body for approval, monitoring and appraisal of five – year plans in India was

A) The Planning Commission B) National Development Council C) The Union Cabinet D) The Parliament

Question No. : 23

After the policy of liberalization came intio effect, the first bank to be set up in the private sector under it was

A) IndusInd Bank B) Citi Bank C) UTI Bank D) Bank of Punjab

Question No. : 24

“Garuda” is the emblem of the

A) Indonesian Airlines B) Thai Airlines C) Mauritius Airlines D) Fiji Airlines

Question No. : 25

Which of the following areas of output is witnessing a new revolution?

A) Oilseeds B) Fisheries C) Fruits    D) Cereals

Question No. : 26

Forward Trading a is term used in the context of

A) Stock exchanges B) Reserve Bank of India C) Banks D) World Bank

Question No. : 27

NABARD is a /an

A) Cooperative Bank B) Agricultural Refinance Bank C) Commercial Bank D) Industrial Finance Institution

Question No. : 28

What is the currency of Brazil?

A) Euro B) Dinar C) Real D) Dollar

Question No. : 29

In India when population of an urban settlement crosses 100,000 it is called___

A) Town B) City C) Metropolis D) Meghalopolis


29

GK Business & Economy Test 03


Question No. : 30

Which type of economy does India have?

A) Socialist B) Gandhian C) Mixed D) Free

Question No. : 31

What was the priority of the First Five Year Plan?

A) Industrialization B) Urbanization C) Development of Agriculture D) Spread of Education

Question No. : 32

Which public sector bank of India is the first fully Indian bank, established by an Indian national?

A) Allahabad Bank B) Punjab National Bank C) State Bank of India D) Central Bank of India

Question No. : 33

The Narsimham Committee for financial sector reforms suggested reduction in

A) SLR and CRR B) SLR, CRR and increase in Priority Sector Financing C) SLR and Financing to capital goods sector
D) CRR, Priority Sector Financing and Financing to capital goods sector

Question No. : 34

Which of the following is not an objective of financial sector reforms in India?

A) Creating an efficient, productive and profitable financial sector industry


B) Preparing the financial system for increasing international competition
C) Opening the external sector in a calibrated manner D) Reducing the budget deficit

Question No. : 35

Which one among the following statements about globalization is not correct?

A) Advocates of globalization argue that it will result in greater economic growth


B) Critics of globalization argue that it will result in greater economic disparity
C) Advocates of globalization argue that it will result in cultural homogenization
D) Critics of globalization argue that it will result in cultural homogenization

Question No. : 36

Which of the following is NOT a major IT company in India?

A) CMC Ltd B) Raymonds C) HCL Technologies D) Infosys Technologies

Question No. : 37

Which of the following is not an electronic banking delivery channel?

A) Mobile Vans B) Mobile Phone Banking C) Internet Banking D) Tele Banking

Question No. : 38

“Core Industries witness lower growth in last few months”- was the news in some major newspapers recently. This means the
performance of which of the following is NOT taken into account?

A) Steel B) Cement C) Coal D) Gem and Jewellery

Question No. : 39

A lack of access to financial services is technically known as

A) financial instability B) financial inclusion C) financial stability D) financial exclusion


30

GK Business & Economy Test 03


Question No. : 40

Which of the following is/are NOT the functions of a bank?


 
A. Accepting deposits from the public
B. Grant of loans and advances
C. Providing finance to all those who cannot earn enough to survive
 

A) Only A B) Only B C) Only C D) All A, B & C


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GK Finance & Banking Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

What does 'Financial Inclusion' mean?

A) Allow the merger and acquisition of banks so that only few big banks exist and continue to cater to the need of corporate sector
B) Providing insurance cover to each and every citizen so that he/she can live a healthy and long life
C) Expanding the network of banks and financial institutions in such a way that people from lower strata of society also get access to
sustainable financial services, whether it is savings, credit or insurance
D) None of these

Question No. : 2

Name the banks which according to the Central government can not be called govt. owned banks?

A) ICICI Bank & HDFC Bank B) ICICI Bank & Axis Bank C) HDFC Bank & Federal Bank D) IDBI Bank & HDFC Bank

Question No. : 3

 
Which of the following is certainly a part of the measures “Financial Inclusion”?

A) Introduction of no frill Accounts by the Banks B) Special Economic Zones C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
D) Look East Policy E) None of These

Question No. : 4

 
Inflation is

A) Loss of purchasing power of a currency due to price increase B) An increase in the prices and particularly that of necessities
C) Growth of an economy D) Both a and b

Question No. : 5

Which countries in Europe were most hit by the sovereign debt crisis?

A) Greece, Germany, Spain, Iceland B) Portugal, Spain, Italy, Czech Republic C) Greece, Spain, France, Switzerland
D) Spain, Greece, Iceland, Portugal

Question No. : 6

A crossed cheque is one, which can be encashed only

A) by the drawee B) through a bank C) at the State Bank of India D) after it has been transferred to another person

Question No. : 7

Which of the following is a direct tax?

A) Excise duty B) Sales tax C) Income tax D) Both (b) and (c)

Question No. : 8

A 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account' facility is available ___________.

A) to all individuals irrespective of their background B) all individuals from below poverty line families only
C) only to individuals from the SC/ST only D) only to individuals from the minority communities only
E) only to individuals from weaker sections of the society

Question No. : 9

AXIS Bank was formerly known as ________

A) Yes Bank B) UTI Bank C) City Union Bank D) HDFC Bank E) Centurion Bank
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GK Finance & Banking Test 01


Question No. : 10

Which of the following is one of the main functions of the Reserve Bank of India?

A) Regulation of the Stock Markets B) Regulation of General Insurance C) Regulation of Housing Sector
D) Regulation of Mutual Fund in India E) Banker’s Bank

Question No. : 11

Platinum Jubilee year of the Reserve Bank of India is:

A) 2008-2009 B) 2009-2010 C) 2010-2011 D) None of these

Question No. : 12

 
Punchline ‘Relationship beyond banking’ is associated with which bank?

A) Bank of India B) Indian Bank C) Bank of Baroda D) City Bank

Question No. : 13

The abbreviation EMV stands for:


 

A) European Master Visa B) EuroPay Master VisaEuropean Master’s Voice C) European Master's Voice
D) European Minimum Visa

Question No. : 14

The adline ‘The banker to every Indian’ is linked with which bank ?

A) ICICI Bank B) HDFC Bank C) State Bank of India D) Bank of India

Question No. : 15

As per the reports published in various newspapers, RBI has asked banks to make plan to provide banking services in villages
having population of 2000. This directive issued by the RBI will fall in which of the following categories?

A) Plan for financial inclusion B) Efforts to meet Priority sector lending C) Extension of Internet & Branchless banking
D) None of these

Question No. : 16

RBI’s action to reduce CRR would

A) increase stress on money markets. B) Decrease stress on money markets


C) warrant banks to invest more in government securities D) warrant increase in interest rates by banks.

Question No. : 17

The rate at which a Central Bank gives credit to the Commercial Banks is called

A) Bank Rate B) Prime Lending Rate C) Base Rate D) Repo Rate E) None of these

Question No. : 18

When RBI lowers the credit creation capacity of the system, i.e. increase in CRR/SLR, it is said to be following a _______________.

A) Tight money policy B) Easy money policy C) Open money policy D) Closed money policy

Question No. : 19

Coin of which of the following denominations is called Small Coin?

A) Rs. 1/- B) Rs. 2/- C) Rs. 5/- D) 50 paisa E) Rs. 10/-
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GK Finance & Banking Test 01


Question No. : 20

Funding of which of the following is not a lending for infrastructure sector?

A) Highway project B) Construction of Educational Institution C) Construction of Hospital


D) Laying of petroleum pipelines E) Higher Studies

Question No. : 21

What do you understand by the term ‘Mortgage’?

A) Sale of a moveable security in the event of default by the borrower


B) Registration of change with the Registrar of Companies
C) Making the security of immovable properly available as a cover for a home loan by the borrower
D) Registration of charge with the Regional Transport Authority
E) Returning of the security to borrower by the bank on receipt of full payment

Question No. : 22

Which one of the following is a Credit Card Association?

A) India Card B) Master Card C) SBI Cards D) Citi Bank Cards E) BOB Card

Question No. : 23

Crossing on a cheque can be cancelled by the ____ of the cheque, under his full signature.

A) payee B) drawee C) endorser D) holder E) drawer

Question No. : 24

NRE deposit is

A) Non Resident External deposit B) Non Resident Extra deposit C) Non Resident Exchange deposit
D) Non Refundable External deposit E) Non Resident Extended deposit

Question No. : 25

Which one of the following is not a salient feature of Debit Card ?

A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery B) No interest earning for banks
C) Works like a normal withdrawal mode D) Can be used at ATM and POS E) 45 days credit is given to the card holder

Question No. : 26

Which of the following is not a type of Cheque ?

A) Crossed cheque B) Blank cheque C) Speed cheque D) Bearer cheque E) Order cheque

Question No. : 27

What is the maximum balance amount that is eligible for earning interest in a normal savings bank account ?

A) Rs. 1 lac B) Rs. 2 lacs C) Rs. 3 lacs D) Rs. 5 lacs E) No limit

Question No. : 28

The term “Deficit Financing” means the government borrows money from the

A) IMF B) Local bodies C) RBI D) Large corporate E) Public at large

Question No. : 29

Lending by banks to Microfinance institutions is considered as finance to which one of the following categories ?

A) Non Priority sector B) Priority Sector C) Commercial Sector D) Manufacturing Sector E) Industrial Sector
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GK Finance & Banking Test 01


Question No. : 30

Which of the following is the main purpose of issuing Know Your Customer(KYC) guidelines by the RBI ?

A) To provide better customer service B) To keep a check on money laundering
C) To bring more & more people in the income tax net. D) To make high value transactions faster
E) Other than those given as options

Question No. : 31

Which of the following terms is NOT associated with banking/finance?

A) RTGS B) SLR C) Repo Rate D) Credit E) LBW

Question No. : 32

What does the letter 'C' denote in the term 'ECB' as used in banking and financial operations ?

A) Cartel B) Credit C) Control D) Caution E) Commercial

Question No. : 33

RBI's policy stance to manage interest and liquidity are used for

A) Moderate inflation and maintain economic growth B) Moderate competition among private and public sector banks
C) Eradicate un-employment in public sector D) Moderate currency supply in public hands
E) Moderate deposits in public sector banks.

Question No. : 34

When a customer draws a cheque on a bank,

A) it is a mandate on that bank to pay. B) it is a mandate on the Government of India to pay.
C)  it is a mandate on the State Government to pay D)  it is a mandate on the RBI to pay
E) it is a mandate on the Finance Ministry to pay.

Question No. : 35

Which of the following is a Private Bank in India?

A) Union Bank of India B) Syndicate Bank C) Panjab National Bank D) UCO Bank E) HDFC Bank

Question No. : 36

A Savings Bank Account opened with a commercial bank with zero balance or very minimal balance is known as_______

A) Savings Bank - Ordinary Account B) Student Savings Bank Account C) No Frill Account D) Current Account
E) Call Deposit

Question No. : 37

Banking Sector will fall under which of the following ?

A) Agricultural Sector B) Service Sector C) Manufacturing Sector D) Industrial Sector E) Small Scale Sector

Question No. : 38

In a bank, the following are the usual types of deposit accounts

A) Savings accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts


B) Fixed deposits, Post office savings bank accounts and current deposit accounts
C) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts
D) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts E) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts
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GK Finance & Banking Test 01


Question No. : 39

NEFT and RTGS in banking terminology speak of __________

A) Various deposit products B) Various loan products C) Electronic Payment Products within a bank
D) Electronic Fund Transfer from bank to bank E) Cheque Truncation Process

Question No. : 40

Which of the following banks in India has maximum number of branches and ATMs in India?

A) IDBI Bank B) Bank of India C) Punjab National Bank D) ICICI Bank E) State Bank of India
36

GK Finance & Banking Test 02


DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 1

Which of the following is an Indian origin banking firm ?

A) HSBC B) Citibank C) Yes Bank D) RBS

Question No. : 2

Which of the following services is NOT provided by a bank ?

A) Transfer of money B) Corporate loans C) Help in getting passports D) Sale of Demand Drafts
E) Savings Bank Account

Question No. : 3

Who among the following is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India at present ?

A) Dr. K. C. Chakraborty B) Mr. U. K. Sinha C) Dr. Raghuram Rajan D) Shri Anand Sinha E) None of these

Question No. : 4

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is located in ?

A) Kolkata B) Hyderabad C) New Delhi D) Mumbai

Question No. : 5

Bank rate in India is determined by

A) Commercial Banks B) NABARD C) Cooperative Banks D) Reserve Bank of India

Question No. : 6

Ms. Chanda Kochhar is associated with which bank?

A) Citibank B) Punjab National Bank C) HDFC Bank D) ICICI Bank

Question No. : 7

As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ‘small borrowers’ in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for
their credit needs. Which of the following is the ‘informal route’ of credit in financial sector ?

A) Credit cards B) Loan against gold from financial institutions C) Debit cards D) Money lender E) None of these

Question No. : 8

The largest chunk of revenue for the Union government comes from

A) Income Tax B) Central Excise C) Corporate Tax D) Customs Duty

Question No. : 9

Which Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) got in-principle approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for establishing
as well as operating White Label ATMs (WLAs)?

A) USB Financial Corporation Ltd. B) Mahindra& Mahindra Financial Services Ltd. C) Escorts Finance Ltd.
D) Muthoot Finance

Question No. : 10

Which of the following is the Banker of the Banks?

A) IDBI B) SBI C) RBI D) SBI and RBI


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GK Finance & Banking Test 02


Question No. : 11

Which of the following is an Indirect tax?

A) Income Tax B) Service Tax C) Excise Duty D) Both B & C

Question No. : 12

The Reserve Bank of India recently issued guidelines allowing minors over 10 years of age to operate bank accounts
independently with a view to______.

A) Promote Financial inclusion B) increase low cost deposits of banks C) improve CASA percentage of banks
D) Mobilise Saving Bank Deposits of Banks E) To put ATMs and other infrastructure to optimum use

Question No. : 13

One rupee note bears the signature of _______

A) President of India B) Vice President of India C) Finance Secretary  D) Finance Minister E) Commerce Minister

Question No. : 14

Which bank projects itself as "India's International Bank" ?

A) State Bank of India B) Indian Bank C) Bank of Baroda D) Bank of India

Question No. : 15

Headquarters of Asian Development Bank (ADB) is located at which place?

A) Karachi B) Colombo C) Manila D) Kathmandu

Question No. : 16

 
Which of the following is not a foreign bank in India?

A) Deutsche Bank B) Barclays Bank C) BNP Paribas D) Yes Bank

Question No. : 17

The 12th five year plan in India is for which time period?

A) 2014-2019 B) 2012-2017 C) 2013-2018 D) 2011-2016

Question No. : 18

What is the full form of the term 'NPA' as used in banking environment?

A) Not Profitable Assets B) New Potential Accounts C) Non Performing Assets D) Net Performing Assets

Question No. : 19

Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?

A) ADR B) GDR C) Both ADR & GDR D) SDR

Question No. : 20

Which of the following organisations has become an example of the great success of microfinancing in the world ?

A) Doha Bank B) Grameen Bank C) Habib Bank Ltd D) RAK Bank E) None of these

Question No. : 21

Which of the following is NOT the part of the structure of the Financial System in India?

A) Industrial Finance B) Agricultural Finance C) Government Finance D) Development Finance E) Personal Finance
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GK Finance & Banking Test 02


Question No. : 22

Which of the following is the most essential financial service which should be provided to the poor people to bring them in the
network of financial inclusion?

A) Insurance for life B) Investment plan for future C) Pension for old age
D) A bank account where he/she can save small amounts
E) Health insurance for minor illnesses and hospitalization in case of need

Question No. : 23

Which of the following is NOT a function of a commercial bank?

A) Providing project finance B) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers


C) Deciding policy rates like CRR, SLR, & Repo Rates D) Issuing credit/debit/ATM cards
E) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances

Question No. : 24

What type of loan is granted by banks for purchase of white goods?

A) Consumption loan B) Mortgage loan C) Consumer durables loan D) Home plan E) None of these

Question No. : 25

Credit risk to the bank is high from which of these cards?

A) Debit cards B) Credit cards C) ATM cards D) All the above E) None of these

Question No. : 26

Which one of the following is not an electronic banking delivery channel?

A) Mobile Vans B) Mobile Phone Banking C) Internet Banking D) Tele Banking E) ATM

Question No. : 27

Like telephone/Mobile number portability, the Ministry of Finance/RBI is now also considering to provide bank account
number portability to bank customers. Which of the following would it mean ?

A) Any customer/account holder can withdraw cash from any other Bank through his/her own cheques drawn on other bank
even without ATM
B) Any borrower can draw funds from his/her loan account from any other bank also
C) The account number of any account holder will remain the same even if he/she is getting his/her account transferred to
another bank also.
D) Bank customers would have the facility of mobile Banks to withdraw cash nearby his/her place E) None of these

Question No. : 28

What is offshore banking ?

A) It is a bank located in the sea (i.e. island) B) It is a bank located in SEZ
C) It is a bank located in a neighbouring country D) It is a bank located outside the country of residence of the depositor
E) Offshore banking is basically dealing in foreign exchange

Question No. : 29

Banks are considered as 'financial intermediaries'. Which of the following activity correctly and comprehensively explains this
role of banks ?

A) Accepting deposits of money for the purpose of lending and investment


B) Granting loans to the weaker sections of the society C) Accepting money for remittance and issuing bank drafts
D) Providing safe deposit services E) Opening accounts and accepting deposits therein
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GK Finance & Banking Test 02


Question No. : 30

With a view to facilitate the payment of balance in deposit account to the person named by the depositor without any hassles
in the event of death of the account holder, the following facility was introduced in bank accounts in our country.

A) Will B) Registration C) Nomination D) Indemnity E) Guarantee

Question No. : 31

When a customer opens a Deposit Account with the Bank, which one of the following is the status of the Bank?

A) Debtor B) Creditor C) Trustee D) Beneficiary        E) None of these

Question No. : 32

Which of the following is NOT a Banking or Finance Company?

A) Barclays B) Lufthansa C) BNP Paribas D) American Express E) HSBC

Question No. : 33

Kisan Credit Cards are issued to farmers        

A) To withdraw money from ATM in rural branches B) To purchase farm new land for farming
C) To purchase agriculture implements on credit from dealers
D) To meet their cultivation needs and non-farm requirements E) For payment of land revenue

Question No. : 34

Which of the following services is provided only by the Reserve bank of India?

A) Compilation of economic data B) Issue of currency notes C) Purchase and sale of gold/gold coins
D) Sale of Demand Drafts E) Safe deposit lockers for keeping valuables

Question No. : 35

Which of the following is a function of the Reserve Bank of India?

A) Issuing Kisan Credit Cards B) Issuing Aadhar Cards C) Acting as Banker's Bank
D) Deciding the slabs of personal income tax E) Issuing National Savings Certificates

Question No. : 36

KYC means_______

A) Know your Company B) Know your Customer C) Know your Currency D) Know-your Creditors E) None of these

Question No. : 37

In India, the interest rate on savings bank accounts in all nationalized commercial banks is fixed by

A) Union Ministry of Finance B) Union Finance Commission C) Indian Banks Association D) Reserve Bank of India
E) Banks decide individually

Question No. : 38

A nationalized bank is also called

A) Private Sector Bank B) Self Help Group C) Cooperative Bank D) Grameen Bank E) Public Sector Bank

Question No. : 39

For using safe deposit locker facilities, the bank customers pay

A) commission on locker B) interest on locker C) rent on locker D) exchange on locker E) safe custody charges
40

GK Finance & Banking Test 02


Question No. : 40

What does the letter 'R' denote in the abbreviation 'BR Act' which controls banking activities in the country?

A) Reformation B) Regulation C) Reporting D) Resolution E) Ranking


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GK Finance & Banking Test 03


DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 1

A Saving Bank Deposit Account is one where ________

A) The deposits are made only once in a year


B) Amounts are deposited and are withdrawn as per requirement of the customers
C) Periodical Fixed amount are deposited month wise and withdrawal are allowed after a fixed period
D) The deposits are made once in every month E) None of these

Question No. : 2

When a bank dishonours a cheque

A)  it is called settlement of the cheque B) it is called withdrawing of the cheque C) it is called nullifying of the cheque
D) it is called truncating of the cheque E) it is called return of the cheque unpaid

Question No. : 3

The ownership of Public sector banks rests_______

A) Wholly with Government of India B) Jointly with Government of India and State Bank of India
C) Wholly with shareholders from the public D) Jointly with Government of India and Reserve Bank of India
E) Jointly with Government of India and shareholders from the public

Question No. : 4

EFT means_______

A) Effective Funds Transfer B) Efficient Funds Transfer C) Easy Funds Transfer D) Electronic Funds Transfer
E) Electric Funds Transfer

Question No. : 5

Which Insurance Company uses the tag line `jiyo befikar'?

A) LIC B) ICICI Prudential C) TATA-AIG D) Bajaj Allianz

Question No. : 6

Which organization is called Bankers' Bank ?

A) Ministry of Finance B) Reserve Bank of India C) Securities & Exchange Board of India
D) National Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development E) All Nationalised Banks

Question No. : 7

Which is a Nationalised Bank ?

A) Yes Bank B) Axis Bank C) South Indian Bank D) Bank of Maharashtra E) Karnataka Bank

Question No. : 8

Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation ‘IFRS’ as used in corporate/finance sector?

A) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards B) Interpretation & Formal Reporting System


C) International Financial Reporting Standards D) International Financial Reporting System E) None of these

Question No. : 9

Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget means

A) The sum of budgetary deficit and net increase in internal and external borrowing
B) The difference between current expenditure and current revenue
C) Net increase in Union Government borrowings from reserve Bank of India D) The sum of monetize deficit and budgetary deficit
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GK Finance & Banking Test 03


Question No. : 10

 
Small Loans provided by the banks to very poor families most often without any collateral are popularly known as —

A) Personal finance B) Project finance C) Micro finance D) Macro finance E) None of these

Question No. : 11

Commercial banks finance rural credit directly and through-

A) NABARD B) Rural banks C) Cooperative societies D) State government E) Money Lenders

Question No. : 12

"With you all the way" is the tag line of which bank?

A) Allahabad Bank B) State Bank of India C) Indian Bank D) Union Bank of India

Question No. : 13

 
RBI is a

A) Private bank B) Central bank C) Commercial bank D) Foreign bank

Question No. : 14

Repo Rate implies the rate at which

A) Interest is paid by the banks to depositors B) Interest is charged by the banks from borrowers
C) The interest charged on inter-bank loans D) The Reserve Bank of India gives loans to commercial banks

Question No. : 15

Which of the following is not an achievement of the RBI?

A) Elimination of seasonal variations in prices B) Successful management of public debt C) Extension of rural credit
D) None of the above

Question No. : 16

Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. commercial Paper
can be issued in denominations of ________

A) Rs. one lac or multiples thereof B) Rs. two lac or multiples thereof C) Rs. Three lac or multiples thereof
D) Rs. Five lac or multiples thereof E) Rs. Ten lac or multiples thereof

Question No. : 17

A cheque bearing the date earlier than the date of submission to the bank is known as

A) Bearer Cheque B) State Cheque C) Crossed Cheque D) Posted Dated Cheque E) Anti Dated Cheque

Question No. : 18

Which of the following is not a private Indian Bank ?

A) Canara Bank B) IDBI Bank Ltd C) HDFC Bank Ltd D) Bank of Rajasthan

Question No. : 19

A “hot money” or the “refugee capital” is one which

A) is transferred from one centre to another for greater safety B) is earned by a refugee
C) deposited by a refugee who is taking refuge in the country D) given loan for a single day
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GK Finance & Banking Test 03


Question No. : 20

Which bank has recently launched ‘Vishwa Yatra Card’ offering cashless international travel throughout the world with ease?

A) Bank of India B) Bank of Baroda C) State Bank of India D) Punjab National Bank

Question No. : 21

Raghuram Rajan is the ________  Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

A) 23rd B) 19th C) 24th D) 21st

Question No. : 22

Which three public sector lenders have entered into a joint venture agreement for setting up a banking subsidiary, India BIA
Bank (Malaysia) Bhd, in Malaysia?

A) Bank of India, Indian Overseas Bank and Andhra Bank B) Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and Bank of India
C) Bank of Baroda, Indian Overseas Bank and Andhra Bank D) Bank of Baroda, Indian Bank, and Andhra Bank

Question No. : 23

Which one of the following group of banks formed a joint venture in Life Insurance Sector?

A) Canara Bank, HSBC, Oriental Bank of Commerce Limited B) Canara Bank, HDFC, Syndicate Bank
C) HDFC, HSBC, Oriental Bank of Commerce Limited D) Canara Bank, Axis Bank, HDFC

Question No. : 24

Relationship between micro finance and charity may be described as ___________

A) synonymous B) mutually exclusive C) one as a sub set of the other D) partially related to each other
E) cannot be established

Question No. : 25

Which of the following is NOT a part of the scheduled banking structure in India?

A) Money Lenders B) Public Sector Banks C) Private Sector Banks D) Regional Rural Banks
E) State Co-operative Banks

Question No. : 26

What does the letter F denote in 'NBFCs', a term seen very frequently in Banking world these days?

A) Formal B) Fiscal C) Federal D) Functional E) Financial

Question No. : 27

What is money laundering?

A) Conversion of assets into cash B) Conversion of money which is illegally obtained C) Conversion of cash into gold
D) Conversion of gold into cash E) Conversion of gold with foreign currency

Question No. : 28

Ram has been nominated in the Savings account of Sita. Ram requests the bank authorities to allow him to operate Sita’s
account as she is unwell. What will the bank do?

A) Bank will allow Ram to operate the account as he is the nominee.


B) As nomination will come into effect only after death of depositor, Bank will not allow.
C) As Ram is husband of sita in addition to being the nominee, the Bank should allow.
D) Out of pity for Sita and on account of long term relationship, the Bank may allow
E) Bank can take a promissory note form Ram and allow him to operate the account
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GK Finance & Banking Test 03


Question No. : 29

Which of the following is NOT a source of funds of a commercial bank?

A) Capital B) Borrowings from RBI C) Call money borrowings D) Deposits E) Cash Reserves with RBI

Question No. : 30

The rate at which the domestic currency can be converted into foreign currency and vice-versa is known as the:

A) Exchange rate B) MIBOR C) Inter bank Call money rate D) Base rate E) LIBOR

Question No. : 31

Which of the following is correct ?

A) Illiterates cannot open any account in a bank B) Illiterate women cannot open any account in a bank
C) Illiterates can open savings bank accounts in a bank D) Advance can be granted to a minor
E) Advance can be granted to a minor if he is of sound mind

Question No. : 32

The rate below which banks cannot generally lend is called

A) Base rate B) Floor rate C) Repo rate D) Call money rate E) Ceiling rate

Question No. : 33

Which of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument ?

A) Cheque B) Fixed Deposit Receipt C) Promissory Note D) Bill of Exchange


E) All 1 to 4 above are negotiable instruments

Question No. : 34

Which of the following functions is not being performed by the Reserve Bank of India ?

A) Regulation of Banks in India B) Regulation of Foreign Direct Investment in India


C) Foreign Currency Management in India D) Control & Supervision of Money Supply E) Currency Management in India

Question No. : 35

The Reserve Bank of India does NOT decide the

A) Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate B) Marginal Standing Facility Rates C) Bank Rate
D) Rate of Dearness Allowance to Govt. Employees E) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Question No. : 36

Which of the following is not a part of India's financial system?

A) Bill Market B) Call Money Market C) Banks D) Mutual Funds E) Indian Gold Council

Question No. : 37

Dr. D. Subbarao is a well known name in the field of:

A) Science & Technology B) Politics C) Sports D) Banking E) Literature

Question No. : 38

Which of the following terms is NOT used in the field of banking and finance ?

A) Real Time Gross Settlement B) Special Drawing Rights C) Ways and Means Advance D) Amplitude
E) Open Market Operations
45

GK Finance & Banking Test 03


Question No. : 39

Which Bank is the Banker to the Central Government ?

A) Central Bank of India B) Reserve Bank of India C) Punjab National Bank D) State Bank of India E) All of these

Question No. : 40

What is Repo Rate ?

A) It is a rate at which RBI sell government securities to banks B) It is a rate at which RBI allows small loans in the market
C) It is a rate at which banks borrow from the Reserve Bank of India.
D) It is a rate which is offered by Banks to their most valued customers or prime customers E) None of these
46

GK Indian Geography Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

The State that produces largest quantity of rubber is

A) Assam B) Kerala C) Karnataka D) Tamil Nadu

Question No. : 2

Surajgarh Fort is located in which State?

A) UP B) Gujarat C) Rajasthan D) Haryana

Question No. : 3

 
India’s first Genetically Modified Crop was—

A) Maize B) Cotton C) Potato D) Sugarcane E) None of these

Question No. : 4

The Uri Hydro-electric Project is in

A) Himachal Pradesh B) J&K C) U P D) M P

Question No. : 5

Which country owns, buys and consumes the most gold in the world?

A) China B) USA C) India D) South Africa

Question No. : 6

Which of the following states has the lowest population density?

A) Assam B) Arunachal Pradesh C) Mizoram D) Tripura

Question No. : 7

The southernmost point of India’s territory is

A) The Indira Point B) Kanyakumari   C) Pondicherry D) Lakshadweep

Question No. : 8

The Ganges is known as _______ after entering Bangladesh.

A) Bhagirthi B) Padma C) Gomti D) Dihang

Question No. : 9

Ootacomund is a famous tourist-spot in

A) Gujarat B) Kerala C) Tamil Nadu D) Andhra Pradesh

Question No. : 10

The driest place in India is

A) Jaipur B) Jodhpur C) Jaisalmer D) Bikaner

Question No. : 11

The ideal region for growing cotton in India is the

A) Deccan Plateau B) Indo-Gangetic Plains C) Brahmaputra Valley D) Rann of Kutch


47

GK Indian Geography Test 01


Question No. : 12

The Pichola Lake is a famous landmark in

A) Jaipur B) Mount Abu C) Udaipur D) Ranthambore

Question No. : 13

The only wetland in Punjab is at

A) Kanjli B) Harike C) Sultanpur D) Sukhna

Question No. : 14

Which is the only coral island in India?

A) Andaman-Nicobars B) Pondicherry C) Lakshdwep D) Kiribati

Question No. : 15

The first Multipurpose Project in India was

A) Damodar Valley Project B) Bhakra Nangal Project C) Narmada Valley Project D) None of these

Question No. : 16

Which among the following rivers flows west-wards?

A) Krishna B) Cauvery C) Mahanadi D) Narmada

Question No. : 17

Geologically the oldest mountains amongst the following are

A) The Western Ghats B) The Aravallis C) The Himalayas D) The Vindhayas

Question No. : 18

Which of the following regions of the world supplies most of our imports (in rupee value)?

A) Africa B) America C) Asia and Oceania D) Europe

Question No. : 19

Which of the following rivers does not originate in India?

A) Kaveri B) Narmada C) Brahmaputra D) Ganga

Question No. : 20

How many oceans touch the Indian mainland?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

Question No. : 21

Mullaperiyar Dam is located in which of the following States?

A) Maharashtra B) Karnataka C) Andhra Pradesh D) Kerala

Question No. : 22

India is the largest producer of-

A) Coffee B) Sugarcane C) Oil seeds D) Tobacco


48

GK Indian Geography Test 01


Question No. : 23

Which of the following places is called the 'City of Oranges' in India?

A) Mumbai B) Jaipur C) Lucknow D) Nagpur

Question No. : 24

The famous Bhakra Nangal Dam is built on which of the following rivers?

A) Ganga B) Narmada C) Godavari D) Satluj

Question No. : 25

Which of the following is the capital of Manipur?

A) Kohima B) Imphal C) Guwahati D) Shillong

Question No. : 26

Which of the following hydroelectric power projects has the largest installed capacity (M.W.) for generation of electricity?

A) Sabari Giri(Kerala) B) Koyna (Maharashtra) C) Bhakra-Nangal(Punjab) D) Kundah (Tamil Nadu)

Question No. : 27

Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to ___

A) The difference in their altitudes B) Their distance from sea C) Snowfall in Shimla D) Pollution in Amritsar

Question No. : 28

The highest wheat –producing State of India is __

A) Haryana B) Punjab C) Bihar D) Uttar Pradesh

Question No. : 29

The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river

A) Ganga B) Kaveri C) Narmada D) Godavari

Question No. : 30

Gol Gumbaz is in:

A) Konark B) Hyderabad C) Puri D) Bijapur

Question No. : 31

 
Which of the following is known as ‘City of Festivals’?

A) Madurai B) Mathura C) Varanasi D) Udaipur

Question No. : 32

Where is India's first nuclear power station?

A) Korba B) Kalpakkam C) Tarapore D) Trombay

Question No. : 33

Indus Water Treaty is a pact on sharing of river water between India and

A) Afghanistan B) Bangladesh C) Pakistan D) Nepal


49

GK Indian Geography Test 01


Question No. : 34

Paradip Port is located in which state of India ?

A) Odisha B) Andhra Pradesh C) Gujarat D) Kerala

Question No. : 35

Baglihar dam has been a matter of dispute between which nations?

A) Bangladesh and Myanmar B) Myanmar and China C) India and China D) India and Pakistan

Question No. : 36

The Yarlung Zangbo river, in india, is knows as

A) Ganga B) Brahmaputra C) Indus D) Mahanadi

Question No. : 37

Growing of which of the following crops comparatively needs lot of water ?


 
A. Jowar
B. Paddy
C. Groundnut

A) Only (A) B) Only (B) C) Only (C) D) Only (A) & (C)            E) Only (B) & (C)

Question No. : 38

Which of the following is the capital of Lakshdweep?

A) Kavaratti B) Aizwal C) Port Blair D) Silvassa

Question No. : 39

As per the data released by the Union Health Ministry (of India) the infant mortality rate is lowest in ____________

A) Tamil Nadu B) Maharashtra C) Goa D) Uttar Pradesh E) Madhya Pradesh

Question No. : 40

Which of the following dams is built across Narmada River ?

A) Tehri Dam B) Mullaperiyar Dam C) Bhakra Dam D) Hirakud Dam E) Sardar Sarovar Dam
50

GK Indian Geography Test 02

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option

Question No. : 1

India’s Spaceport at Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota is located in

A) Orissa B) Andhra Pradesh C) Kerala D) Karnataka

Question No. : 2

The Census of India, which was first conducted synchronously in 1881, collected universal caste-wise population data until

A) 1911 B) 1921 C) 1931 D) 1941

Question No. : 3

 
Ethnic group "Mongoloids" are found in India in

A) southern region B) south-central region C) north-western region D) north-eastern region E) central region

Question No. : 4

The longest irrigation canal in India is called

A) Upper Bari Doab Canal B) Indira Gandhi Canal C) Sirhind Canal D) Yamuna Canal

Question No. : 5

Which of the following countries in India’s neighborhood has agreed that Indians staying in the border areas will be allowed to
visit upto 16 km inside its boundary without obtaining visa/permits?

A) Bangladesh B) Nepal C) China D) Myanmar

Question No. : 6

Which of the following cities became the first 100% e – literate city of India?

A) Pune B) Hyderabad C) Kozhikode D) Jaipur

Question No. : 7

Thorium is found in abundance along the coast of

A) Tamil Nadu B) Kerala C) Gujarat D) Andhra Pradesh

Question No. : 8

India leads the world in the production of

A) Copper B) Mica C) Manganese D) Coal

Question No. : 9

The Dabhol Project is in

A) Orissa B) Maharashtra C) Gujarat D) Andhra Pradesh

Question No. : 10

The territorial waters of India extend upto _____ nautical miles into the sea.

A) 12 B) 14 C) 13 D) 25


51

GK Indian Geography Test 02


Question No. : 11

Which of the following is part of a plateau?

A) The Aravallis B) The Nilgiris C) The Himalayas D) The Kanchanjunga

Question No. : 12

Identify the correct state-capital pairing:-

A) Arunachal Pradesh: Itanagar B) Sikkim: Dzongri C) Manipur: Aizwal D) Puducherry: Port Blair

Question No. : 13

The highest contribution to the central pool in case of wheat is made by

A) Punjab B) U.P. C) Haryana D) Madhya Pradesh

Question No. : 14

Ayodhya is located on the river

A) Ganga B) Saraswati C) Saryu D) Gomti

Question No. : 15

Out of the following, which one is a commercial crop?

A) Cotton B) Jowar C) Paddy D) None of these

Question No. : 16

The Durand Line divides

A) China and Afghanistan B) Pakistan and India C) Tibet and India D) Pakistan and Afghanistan

Question No. : 17

The largest amount of saffron comes from

A) Uttar Pradesh   B) Jammu and Kashmir C) Kerala D) Assam

Question No. : 18

Which is India’s longest river?

A) Godavari B) Krishna C) Mahanadi D) Ganga

Question No. : 19

In which state is the Silent Valley located?

A) Maharashtra B) Kerala C) Uttarakhand D) Karnataka

Question No. : 20

Which of the following is a form of irrigation used in India?

A) Drip B) Booting C) Amalga D) Extension Service

Question No. : 21

The International airport in Tamil Nadu is

A) Palam B) Dum Dum C) Santa Cruz D) Meenambakkam


52

GK Indian Geography Test 02


Question No. : 22

The famous 'Rock Garden' is located in which city in India?

A) Ambala B) Jaipur C) Bangalore D) Chandigarh

Question No. : 23

Which among the following rivers does not flow in India?

A) Yamuna B) Gomti C) Saryu D) Nile

Question No. : 24

In the east of West Bengal lie

A) Assam and Bangladesh B) Bihar and Jharkhand C) Sikkim and Bhutan D) Orissa and Jharkhand

Question No. : 25

The state known as the ‘Garden of Spices’ in India is

A) Karnataka B) Kerala C) Maharashtra D) Tamil Nadu

Question No. : 26

Coal mines in Jharkhand are located at___

A) Jharia B) Jamshedpur C) Ranchi D) Lohardaga

Question No. : 27

Which one of the following cities is not located on the bank of river Ganga?

A) Fatehpur B) Bhagalpur C) Uttarkashi D) Kanpur

Question No. : 28

The Salal Project is on the river

A) Chenab B) Jhelum C) Ravi D) Sutlej

Question No. : 29

Nilgris is a mountain range in the Indian state of ____

A) Kerala B) Tamilnadu C) Karnataka D) AP E) Telangana

Question No. : 30

 
Tribal settlements in India are usually concentrated -

A) on the plains B) near big rivers C) in the hilly and forested areas D) on the periphery of townships

Question No. : 31

The Radcliffe line is a boundary between

A) India and Pakistan B) India and China C) India and Myanmar D) India and Afghanistan
53

GK Indian Geography Test 02


Question No. : 32

Where would you find the Chilka lake?

A) Orissa B) Assam C) Gujarat D) Kerala

Question No. : 33

Which of the following is one of the sites from where rockets are launched by ISRO, the Space Agency of India ?

A) Sriharikota B) Tarapore C) Guwahati D) Trombay

Question No. : 34

Famous Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on which of the following rivers?

A) Krishna B) Ganga C) Narmada D) Sabarmati E) Beas

Question No. : 35

The deposits of the ancient Tethys Sea were folded to form which of the following mountain ranges?

A) Himalayas B) Andes C) Alps D) Rockies

Question No. : 36

'Pisciculture' is not a very common activity in ______________

A) West Bengal B) Kerala C) Goa D) Maharashtra E) Rajasthan

Question No. : 37

Kaziranga sanctuary is in

A) Assam B) Bihar C) Madhya Pradesh D) Uttar Pradesh

Question No. : 38

In which year was the human population census last conducted in India?

A) 2010 B) 2011 C) 2009 D) 2008

Question No. : 39

Which of the following represents female literacy rate in India ? (As per provisional figures of Census 2011)

A) 60% B) 62% C) 65% D) 70% E) None of these

Question No. : 40

India accounts for nearly __________ percent of world population.

A) 6 B) 11 C) 16 D) 21


54

GK Indian Geography Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

 
The agricultural activities in which of the following state are NO MORE dependent on rains only?

A) Punjab B) Uttar Pradesh C) Orissa D) Bihar E) Jharkhand

Question No. : 2

 
Which Indian city is known as the ‘Manchester of the South’?

A) Madurai B) Coimbatore C) Kancheepuram D) Tanjore

Question No. : 3

With which country does India not share an de-facto international boundary?

A) Bangladesh B) Afghanistan C) Nepal D) Myanmar

Question No. : 4

Which of the following is the capital of Lakshadweep?

A) Silvassa B) Daman C) Kavaratti D) Hubli

Question No. : 5

The World’s first Homeopathy University is being established in ____.

A) Rajasthan B) Kerala C) Bihar D) Karnataka

Question No. : 6

India receives most of its monsoon rainfall by means of the

A) South-West monsoons B) North-West monsoons C) South-North monsoons D) North-East monsoons

Question No. : 7

The most important food crop in India is

A) Wheat B) Rice C) Barley D) None of these

Question No. : 8

Which of the following is a land-locked state?

A) Gujarat B) Andhra Pradesh  C) Uttar Pradesh D) Tamil Nadu


 

Question No. : 9

The winter rains in north-west India are due to

A) Westerly depressions B) Retreating monsoons C) Trade winds D) South-west monsoons

Question No. : 10

Which of the following is a rabi crop?

A) Cotton B) Jute C) Rice D) Gram


55

GK Indian Geography Test 03


Question No. : 11

Which river of India is known as Tsangpo in some of its reaches?

A) Sutlej B) Ganga C) Brahamputra D) Kosi

Question No. : 12

The highest peak in India is called

A) Kanchenjunga B) Mt. Everest C) Gaumukh D) Kangto

Question No. : 13

Which of the following states tops in sugar cane output in India?

A) U.P. B) Punjab C) Haryana D) Maharashtra

Question No. : 14

Rubber is a product of

A) Plantation agriculture B) Mediterranean agriculture C) Mixed agriculture D) Specialized horticulture

Question No. : 15

The source of the river Narmada is Amarkantak. In which state is Amarkantak located?

A) Andhra Pradesh B) Gujarat C) Maharashtra D) Madhya Pradesh

Question No. : 16

The Rohtang pass lies in

A) Himachal Pradesh B) Jammu and Kashmir C) Sikkim D) Uttarakhand

Question No. : 17

Which of the following became the 29th State of India?

A) Uttaranchal B) Jharkhand C) Chhatisgarh D) Telangana

Question No. : 18

Which of the following geographical features is not found in India?

A) Lagoon B) Glacier C) Iceberg D) Desert

Question No. : 19

The country which shares the longest border with India is

A) China B) Bangladesh C) Nepal D) Pakistan

Question No. : 20

The famous Sardar Sarovar Dam is built across which of the following rivers?

A) Ganga B) Tapti C) Krishna D) Narmada

Question No. : 21

Which state in India is the leading producer of Copper?

A) Assam B) Rajasthan C) Maharashtra D) Chhatisgarh


56

GK Indian Geography Test 03


Question No. : 22

Which of the following is a major wheat producing state in India?


 

A) Kerala B) Punjab C) Jammu & Kashmir D) West Bengal

Question No. : 23

Which of the following places in India does not have a port?

A) Cochin B) Kandla C) Paradip D) Allahabad

Question No. : 24

Which Iron and Steel Plant is called the ‘Ruhr of India’?

A) Bhilai B) Durgapur C) Rourkela D) Jamshedpur

Question No. : 25

In India, the States with the largest area under very dense forests are

A) Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh B) Madhya Pradesh, Chhatisgarh C) Maharashtra, Karnataka D) Odisha, Uttrakhand

Question No. : 26

The large States of India in the order of area are__

A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra  B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra


C) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh D) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan

Question No. : 27

Nilgiri Mountain Range lies in___

A) Tamil Nadu B) Maharashtra C) Orissa D) Uttarakhand

Question No. : 28

In which city annual Elephant Festival was celebrated in Rajasthan?

A) Jaipur B) Jodhpur C) Ajmer D) Kota

Question No. : 29

Siachen is a

A) frontier zone between China and India B) glacier frontier zone between India and Pakistan
C) frontier zone between India and Myanmar D) desert frontier between Pakistan and India

Question No. : 30

Dudhwa National Park is located it

A) U.P. B) Uttarakhand C) M.P D) West Bonsal

Question No. : 31

Where is Bandipur National Park?

A) Rajasthan B) Andhra Pradesh C) Assam D) Karnataka

Question No. : 32

Which of the following States is a major producer of Sugar in India?

A) Goa B) Punjab C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Andhra Pradesh


57

GK Indian Geography Test 03


Question No. : 33

Which one of the following national park established by government of India is the relatively the latest one?
 

A) Madhav National Park, Madhya Pradesh B) Khangchendzonga National Park, Sikkim


C) Corbett National Park, Uttaranchal D) Tadoba National Park, Maharashtra

Question No. : 34

The longest highway in India runs from

A) Kolkata to Jammu B) Shillong to Amritsar C) Ambala to Nagercoil D) Varanasi to Kanyakumari

Question No. : 35

Carpet weaving is a very prominent micro/small industry in which of the following areas ?

A) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) B) Agra (Uttar Pradesh) C) Nashik (Maharashtra) D) Bhadohi (Uttar Pradesh)
E) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)

Question No. : 36

What percent of our population is below 25 years of age ?

A) More than 25 percent B) Less than 25 percent C) More than 30 percent D) less than 30 percent E) None of these

Question No. : 37

Which of the following city is widely regarded or known as the ‘garden’ of India ?

A) Chandigarh B) Bengaluru C) Jaipur D) Srinagar

Question No. : 38

India's population in cities is expected to grow to a staggering 200 million by the year

A) 2015 B) 2020 C) 2025 D) 2022

Question No. : 39

Which of the following is the literacy rate in India as per new data released by the Census Commissioner? About

A) 60% B) 68% C) 70% D) 75% E) 83%

Question No. : 40

What is a good estimate for the length of the coastline of mainland India?

A) 6000 kms. B) 7500 kms. C) 9000 kms. D) 11,000 kms.


58

GK World Geography Test 01

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 1

The country with the highest population density is

A) Bangladesh B) India C) China D) Singapore

Question No. : 2

Which strait separates Europe from Africa?

A) Mallaica B) Gibralter C) Berring D) Palk

Question No. : 3

What is Davos famous for?

A) It is best known tourist place of Switzerland B) G8 members meet here, every year C) EU financial headquarter
D) World Economic Forum

Question No. : 4

Asteroids are found between the planets

A) Mars and Jupiter B) Mercury and Venus C) Earth and Venus D) Jupiter and Saturn

Question No. : 5

“Ursa Major” is a

A) Galaxy B) Constellation    C) Asteroid D) Star

Question No. : 6

The atmospheric layer responsible for most of the weather phenomena is referred to as the

A) Mesophere B) Stratosphere C) Ionosphere D) Troposphere

Question No. : 7

The doldrums are

A) Equatorial low pressure belts B) Polar low-pressure belts C) Polar high pressure belts
D) Equatorial high pressure belts

Question No. : 8

Who was the first man to suggest that the Earth revolves round the Sun and not vice-versa?

A) Kepler B) Newton C) Copernicus D) Descartes

Question No. : 9

The Earth is approximately  _____ old.

A) 8.5 billion years B) 4.5 billion years C) 2.6 billion years D) 15.5 billion years

Question No. : 10

Contours are the lines on a map joining places of equal

A) Average rainfall B) Height from the sea level C) Sunshine D) Atmospheric pressure
59

GK World Geography Test 01


Question No. : 11

The Great Barrier Reef is a

A) Hill range B) Man-made wall C) Tidal bore D) Coral formation

Question No. : 12

Normal atmospheric pressure is equal to ______ of Mercury column.

A) 76 mm. B) 750 cm. C) 76 cm. D) 176 cm.

Question No. : 13

The Big Bang means

A) A massive explosion that took place when the earth was formed B) The five big nuclear powers
C) The five permanent members of the Security Council D) A project to investigate the formation of the Universe

Question No. : 14

The Tienmann Square is a famous location in


 

A) London B) Washington C) Beijing D) Bombay

Question No. : 15

The Bhilai Steel Plant was set up with

A) American aid   B) U.K. aid C) German aid D) Soviet aid

Question No. : 16

Crescograph is an instrument used to measure

A) Plant growth B) Wind velocity C) Earthquakes D) Very high temperature

Question No. : 17

Which branch is concerned with the description and mapping of the main features of the Universe?

A) Cosmology B) Geomorphology C) Cosmography D) Astronomy

Question No. : 18

Savana grasslands are found in

A) East Asia B) Africa C) Australia D) America

Question No. : 19

The name ‘Red Sea’ is derived from the reddish coloration caused by the presence of _____ algae.

A) Brown B) Red C) Blue green D) Green

Question No. : 20

The top spot in maize production worldwide is occupied by

A) Russia B) China C) U.S.A D) New Zealand


60

GK World Geography Test 01


Question No. : 21

The great Victoria Desert is located in

A) Canada B) West Africa C) Australia D) North America

Question No. : 22

The driest area of the Earth is

A) Arabian desert B) Atacama desert C) Gobi desert D) Thar desert

Question No. : 23

The celestial body nearest to the earth is

A) Sun B) Moon C) Venus D) Proxima Centauri

Question No. : 24

An area drained by a river and its tributaries is called a

A) Basin B) Canal C) Dam D) Strait

Question No. : 25

The imaginary line on the Earth’s surface that closely follows the 1800 Meridian is:

A) Prime Meridian B) Equator C) International Date Line D) Tropic of Cancer

Question No. : 26

The intersecting lines drawn on maps and globes are

A) latitudes B) longitudes C) geographic grids D) None of the above

Question No. : 27

As we go up, the temperature increases rapidly beyond

A) ionosphere B) exosphere C) stratosphere D) troposphere

Question No. : 28

The largest reserves of mineral oil in the world are found in

A) Canada B) Iran C) Saudi Arabia D) Venezuela

Question No. : 29

Which of the following is the name of a country?

A) Kwanza B) Chad C) Krone D) Ruble

Question No. : 30

More than one-thirds of the world's crude steel production comes from
 

A) China B) Japan C) Russia D) The USA

Question No. : 31

Which of the following is not a capital city?

A) Canberra B) Sydney C) Wellington D) Riyadh


61

GK World Geography Test 01


Question No. : 32

Major source of oceanic salinity is ___

A) Rivers B) Land C) Wind D) Ash from volcanoes

Question No. : 33

Which of these is the largest desert of the World?

A) Kalahari desert B) Gobi desert C) Sahara desert D) Thar desert

Question No. : 34

The Yellow Stone National Park is located in __

A) Brazil B) Canada C) South Africa D) USA

Question No. : 35

Which European country is determined to abandon Nuclear Power for good and is betting billions on expanding the use of
renewable energy?

A) Portugal B) Germany C) France D) Great Britain

Question No. : 36

Which is the third most populous country of the world?

A) India B) China C) USA D) Russia E) Bangladesh

Question No. : 37

The country with the largest population of Muslims is

A) Pakistan B) Indonesia C) Bangladesh D) Saudi Arabia

Question No. : 38

Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious type of wind which brings a lot of disaster?

A) Trade winds B) Hurricane C) Cirrus D) Stratus E) None of these

Question No. : 39

'Seychelles', where China is going to set up its new military base, is a country in

A) Bay of Bengal B) China Sea C) Indian Ocean D) Red Sea E) Caspian Sea

Question No. : 40

India is providing financial help to which of the following countries for building a large harbour there named as Kankasanthurai
Harbour?

A) Nepal B) Myanmar C) Bangladesh D) Sri Lanka E) Vietnam


62

GK World Geography Test 02

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 1

Durand Line is the border common to which two nations?

A) Pakistan and Afghanistan B) India and China C) India and Tibet D) China and Afghanistan

Question No. : 2

The International Date Line is located

A) On the Equator B) Along 0 degree Longitude C) Along 180 degree Longitude D) At Greenwich in UK

Question No. : 3

 
Mogadishu is the capital of

A) Ethiopia B) Somalia C) Sudan D) Kenya

Question No. : 4

Which of the following is known as the “Vineyard of the World”?

A) Russia B) Sweden C) France D) Canada

Question No. : 5

The International Date Line is an imaginary line, which lies along

A) 0 degree meridian B) 45 degree meridian C) 90 degree meridian D) 180 degree meridian

Question No. : 6

The title Clove Islands is applied to

A) Mauritius B) Andaman-Nicobar C) Lakshdweep D) Zanzibar

Question No. : 7

The “sea of tranquility” is on the

A) Jupiter B) Moon C) Sun D) Pacific ocean

Question No. : 8

A type of climate, with high day temperature and daily occurrence of conventional rainfall is called

A) Equatorial Type B) Mediterranean C) Continental  Climate D) Temperate

Question No. : 9

The height of Mt. Everest is

A) 8898 m. B) 8848 m. C) 8848 ft. D) 8898 ft.

Question No. : 10

The deepest ocean in the world is

A) The Indian ocean B) The Atlantic ocean C) The Pacific ocean D) None of these
63

GK World Geography Test 02


Question No. : 11

The Ural Mountains are a prominent feature of the landscape in

A) The USA B) Japan C) Canada D) None of these

Question No. : 12

Smog is a

A) Type of fast-blowing wind in the Australian deserts B) Type of cloud which results in torrential rains
C) Colloidal mixture of smoke and fog D) The name of a structure formed by the river in its upper course

Question No. : 13

Blizzards are a characteristic feature of the ______ region.

A) Antarctic B) Equatorial C) Temperate D) Tropical

Question No. : 14

The damage due to earthquake depends upon the distance of ______ of the earthquake from the location.

A) Epifocus B) Epicentre C) Seismic Point D) Zero Point

Question No. : 15

Brazil is world-famous as a producer of

A) Iron B) Coal C) Maize D) Coffee

Question No. : 16

The only thing on the earth that is visible from the moon is the

A) Great Wall of China B) The Nile River C) The Everest D) The Mississippi-Missouri

Question No. : 17

Which of the following is the largest river in the world?

A) Nile B) Yangtze C) Amazon D) Mississippi-Missouri

Question No. : 18

The landmass of which of the following continents is the least?

A) Africa B) Asia C) Australia D) Europe

Question No. : 19

The biggest delta in the world is the

A) Nile Delta B) Sunderbans Delta C) The Amazon Delta D) The Rhine Delta

Question No. : 20

That the universe is heliocentric (Sun occupies central position in the universe) was enunciated by

A) By Copernicus B) By Newton C) First by Galileo and then by Kepler D) First by Newton and later by Copernicus

Question No. : 21

The Black Mountains are located in

A) Canada B) Norway C) Switzerland D) USA


64

GK World Geography Test 02


Question No. : 22

Banana and pineapples are mainly grown in the

A) Tropical region B) Mediterranean region C) Mountains D) Desert oases

Question No. : 23

The equator does not pass through

A) North America B) South America C) Africa D) Any of these continents

Question No. : 24

What is the time difference between GMT and IST?

A) 4 hrs 30 min. B) 5 hrs 30 min. C) 6 hrs D) 6 hrs 30 min.

Question No. : 25

The main area where the icebergs are found is in

A) The West Coast of Greenland B) The East Coast of Japan C) The North Coast of Siberia D) The West Coast of Africa

Question No. : 26

In which one of the following countries does river Thames flow?

A) Chile B) Argentina C) Ireland D) United Kingdom

Question No. : 27

Which of  the following is called “Blue Planet”?

A) Saturn B) Earth C) Jupiter D) Mars

Question No. : 28

Which country is at the top in the production of milk globally?

A) India B) Brazil C) Japan D) The USA

Question No. : 29

The McMohan Line demarcates the boundary between


 

A) India and Pakistan B) India and China C) India and Nepal D) India and Bangladesh

Question No. : 30

The Sun City is located in

A) Italy B) Japan C) Mexico D) South Africa

Question No. : 31

The largest coal producer country in the world is

A) India B) USA C) China D) Russia

Question No. : 32

Which of the following do not belong to solar system?

A) Asteroids B) Comets C) Planets D) Nebulae


65

GK World Geography Test 02


Question No. : 33

Coniferous forests are mainly found__

A) Tropical region B) Temperate region C) Coastal region D) Noen ofthese

Question No. : 34

The deepest lake of the world is__

A) Baikal B) Crater Lake C) Nyasa D) Tanganyika

Question No. : 35

Which country stands to gain from the turmoil in Middle East and Japan through selling extra gas and energy to the world?

A) Russia B) Armenia C) Ukraine D) Iran

Question No. : 36

What is the name of the tallest bridge in the world?

A) Baluarte, Mexico B) London C) Golden Gate Bridge, California D) Brooklyn bridge, New York

Question No. : 37

The country whose name comes from an aboriginal word 'kanata', which means 'Village' or 'settlement' is ___

A) Cambodia B) Chile C) Canada D) China

Question No. : 38

Havana is the capital of:

A) Namibia B) Cuba C) Zimbabwe D) Iceland

Question No. : 39

Which of the following is the Capital of Australia?

A) Perth B) Sydney C) Hobart D) Darwin E) Canberra

Question No. : 40

When it is 11:15 hours as per Greenwich Mean Time, what will be the time in Delhi?

A) 04:45 hours B) 05:45 hours C) 17:45 hours D) 16:45 hours


66

GK World Geography Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.


Question No. : 1

Which is the longest shipping canal in the world?

A) Panama Canal B) Suez Canal C) White Sea-Baltic Canal D) Kiel Canal

Question No. : 2

Which two independent nations does the 17th Parallel separate?

A) North and South Korea B) North and South Vietnam C) East and West Germany D) Mexico and Panama

Question No. : 3

“Formosa” was the old name of

A) Zaire B) Cambodia C) Taiwan D) Burma

Question No. : 4

 The inhabitants of which of the following geographical regions live in trees due to the fear of insects?

A) Equatorial region B) Mediterranean region C) Arctic region D) None of these

Question No. : 5

At which particular place on the Earth are days and nights always of equal duration?

A) Poles B) Equator C) Prime meridian D) Nowhere

Question No. : 6

A narrow strip of land bordered on both sides by water and connecting two large bodies of land is called

A) An Isthmus B) A lagoon C) A peninsula D) A strait

Question No. : 7

The Earth is a part of the _____ galaxy

A) Ursa Major B) Ursa Minor C) Milky Way D) Andromeda

Question No. : 8

Penguin is the only animal found in the

A) Antarctica B) Arctic region C) African Desert D) None of these

Question No. : 9

An “Archipelago” is a group of
 

A) Stars B) Islands C) Galaxies D) Coral reef islands

Question No. : 10

Deserts normally occur on the _______ side of the continents

A) Eastern B) Western C) Southern D) Northern


67

GK World Geography Test 03


Question No. : 11

The Kurds are a race in

A) Iraq B) South Africa C) Andhra Pradesh D) Khasi hills

Question No. : 12

Aurora Borealis is

A) A plant that glows at nighttime B) Multi-coloured lights observed at night in the northern hemisphere
C) Multi-coloured lights observed at night in the southern hemisphere D) A prominent constellation

Question No. : 13

Windhoek is the capital of which of the following countries?

A) Albania B) Zaire C) Congo D) Namibia

Question No. : 14

Mount Fujiyama is a volcano-based structure in

A) South Korea B) Japan C) Italy D) Indonesia

Question No. : 15

The Palk Strait is in the

A) Pacific Ocean B) Indian Ocean C) Atlantic Ocean D) Dead Sea

Question No. : 16

Rainfall caused due to the presence of the mountains in the way of winds is known as

A) Orographic rain B) Convectional rain C) Cyclonic rain D) Advectional rain

Question No. : 17

In the Northern Hemisphere, the geographical belt of coniferous forest south of Tundra, is called

A) Taiga B) Prairie C) Steppe D) Chaparral

Question No. : 18

Which country is the largest producer of mica in the world?

A) Brazil B) USA C) U.S.S.R D) India

Question No. : 19

How many days does the moon take to revolve round the earth?

A) 26 B) 27 C) 28 D) 29½

Question No. : 20

Who was the first man to set foot on the moon?

A) Neil Armstrong B) Alan Shepard   C) Yuri Gagarin D) Aldrin

Question No. : 21

The inter-section point of the Prime Meridian and the Equator lies in

A) Atlantic ocean B) Ghana C) Morocco D) Pacific Ocean


68

GK World Geography Test 03


Question No. : 22

The path of a planet around the sun is called its

A) Revolution B) Rotation C) Orbit D) Spin

Question No. : 23

Large salt water masses smaller than oceans are called

A) lakes B) Islands C) Seas D) Rivers

Question No. : 24

Over 90% of the world’s biomass is in :

A) Tropical rain forests B) Freshwater wetlands C) Topsoils D) Tundra

Question No. : 25

What is a cloudburst?

A) it refers to sudden and copious rainfall over a small area which often lasts for only a few minutes
B) it refers to 50 mm rain over a period of time C) it is caused by rapid condensation of very high clouds
D) it refers to a thunderstorm with little rain

Question No. : 26

Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called

A) Slovakia B) Scandinavia C) Netherland D) Australia

Question No. : 27

The Prime Meridian does not pass through


 

A) Algeria B) France C) Niger D) Spain

Question No. : 28

The term ‘epicentre’ is associated with

A) Earthquakes B) Volcanoes C) Cyclones D) Landslides

Question No. : 29

Which of the following soils is favorable for cotton cultivation?


 

A) Red Soil B) Regur/Black Soil C) Alluvial Soil D) Laterite Soil

Question No. : 30

Which strait connects the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean?

A) Bab-el-Mandeb B) Hormuz C) Bosporus D) Malacca

Question No. : 31

Folding is the result of ___

A) Epeirogenetic force B) Coriolis force C) Orogenetic force D) Exogenetic


69

GK World Geography Test 03


Question No. : 32

Where is Atacama desert?

A) Asia B) South America C) Africa D) North America

Question No. : 33

The highest amount of salinity is found in ___

A) Pacific Ocean B) Indian Ocean C) Mediterranean Sea D) Dead Sea

Question No. : 34

The famous military training institution ‘Sandhurst’ is located in which country?

A) England B) USA C) Germany D) Italy

Question No. : 35

Which is the largest glacier in the world?

A) Siachen Glacier B) Lambert Glacier C) Baltoro Glacier D) Hubbard Glacier

Question No. : 36

Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English letter 'S'?

A) Atlantic B) Pacific C) Indian D) Arctic

Question No. : 37

Reykjavik is the capital of

A) Bahamas B) Botswana C) Iceland D) Tajikistan

Question No. : 38

Which of the following was known as 'Pearl of the Antilles'?

A) Mumbai B) Cuba C) Manila D) Shanghai

Question No. : 39

Which rivers flows between India and China?

A) Ganga B) Narmada C) Brahmaputra D) Chambal E) Krishna

Question No. : 40

Jaffna is situated in the part of Sri Lanka

A) Western B) Southern C) Northern D) Eastern


70

GK Environment Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark thee best option


Question No. : 1

The ‘Chipko Movement’ is related to

A) Wildlife preservation B) Scientific agriculture C) Forest conservation D) Deforestation

Question No. : 2

 An ecosystem consists of:-

A) producers,consumers and decomposers in a particular area B) all the  plants and animals of an area
C) carnivorous and herbivorous of an area D) a living community and its environment E) none  of these

Question No. : 3

Biodiversity is under severe threat worldwide. Why is the loss of biodiversity an issue of economic concern?
(A) Biodiversity has great pharmaceutical value.
(B) Biodiversity is important for good health of ecosystem.
(C) Biodiversity is a source of tourism in some places.

A) Only (A)  B) Only (B) C) Only (C) D) All (A), (B) & (C) E) None of these

Question No. : 4

 
Monsoon is caused by

A) Impact of summer temperatures on the seas B) Movement of Clouds C) Seasonal reversal of winds
D) Rise in temperatures

Question No. : 5

Which one of the following trees is not eco-friendly?

A) Babul B) Eucalyptus C) Neem D) Pipal

Question No. : 6

Name the Indian tribe which is still living on trees?

A) Jenu Kuruba B) Khasi C) Paharia D) Oangs

Question No. : 7

In ecology, what name is given to the measure of diversity that is often used to quantify the biodiversity of a habitat, by taking
into account the number of species present, as well as the abundance of each species?

A) Simpson Index B) Herfindahl-Hirschman Index C) Flintstone Index D) Bio-volatility Index

Question No. : 8

The animal-assisted therapy is employed in

A) operations B) ICU C) old age homes D) training animals E) natural healing

Question No. : 9

Which of the following is protected under Wild life (Protection) Act, 1972?

A) Bandicoot rat B) Squirrel C) Porcupine D) Gerbil


71

GK Environment Test 01
Question No. : 10

The concept of carbon credit is associated with

A) lending to mineral exploring companies B) development of coal mines C) protection of environment


D) development of uranium

Question No. : 11

Bonsai is

A) the art of growing trees in small pots B) the art of embroidery on cloth C) the art of arranging flowers
D) the art of making dolls

Question No. : 12

Which is the largest animal in world ? 

A) Giraffe B) Elephant C) Orang Utan D) Blue Whale E) None of these

Question No. : 13

Near which city is the Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History located ?

A) Panaji (Goa) B) Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu) C) Bharatpur (Rajasthan) D) Sultanpur (Haryana) E) None of these

Question No. : 14

The Red Data Books published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources enumerate

A) Biodiversity parks and wild life sanctuaries in different countrie B) Centres of origin of cultivated plants
C) Centres of origin of all economically important plants D) Threatened species of plants and animals

Question No. : 15

Which one of the following is included in the World List of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO?

A) Kinnaur Region B) Spiti Valley C) Nallamalai Hills D) Sunderbans

Question No. : 16

Which of the following three R's are regarded as environment friendly?

A) Reduce, Rebuild, Restrict B) Random, Reduce, Recall C) Read, Register, Recall D) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

Question No. : 17

Which one of the following statements does not relate to the concept of carbon credits?

A) For one tonne of carbon dioxide emission reduction a company receives a carbon emission certificate
B) The carbon emission certificates are sold to companies in developed economies like power utilities.
C) Carbon credit certificates are traded under UN-mandated international convention on climate change.
D) Developing economies are allowed to offset some of their emissions from cars, factories and homes by funding clean
energy projects in developed ones.
E) None of the above

Question No. : 18

The "Friends for Life" - an elephant conservation project has been launched by World Wide Fund for Nature India and ________

A) Aditya Birla Group B) Muthoot Group C) Manapuram Group D) Reliance Ltd. 


72

GK Environment Test 01
Question No. : 19

Name the renowned Indian ecologist who has been chosen for the prestigious 2015 Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement
on 23 March 2015? 

A) MS Swaminathan B) Kasthuri Rangan C) Jayaram Ramesh D) Madhav Gadgil

Question No. : 20

Recently, which country became the first member country to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to
submit its action plan on Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC)?

A) India B) Switzerland C) Australia D) Singapore

Question No. : 21

A renowned Indian ecologist has been chosen for the prestigious Tiger prize' environmental achievement award along with Dr. Jane Lubchenco. Who is
the Indian ecologist?

A) Madhav Gadgill B) Rajpal Singh Yadav C) Raman Sukumar D) Madhab Chandra dash E) Sultan Ahmed Ismail

Question No. : 22

SPM stands for :

A) Suspended Particulate Matter   B) Suspended Particular Matter C) Suspicious Parts Million


D) Specific Particular Matter

Question No. : 23

Sunder Lai Bahuguna popularized :

A) Narmada Bachao Andolan B) Chipko Movement C) Appiko Movement D) Save the Silent Valley Movement

Question No. : 24

Among the biotic components of the eco-system, the producer system is :

A) Cow B) Peacock C) Tiger    D) Green Plants 

Question No. : 25

Carbon credit is a term used fur:

A) A copy of the credit note B) A diamond obtained on loan  C) Denoting carbon dioxide emissions
D) Denoting effluents discharged in water

Question No. : 26

'The Hornbill Festival' is observed in the first week of December every year in the Indian State of    ___

A) Sikkim B) Arunachal Pradesh C) Meghalaya D) Nagaland E) Manipur

Question No. : 27

According to the UN calendar of observances, the 'International Mountain Day' is observed every year on __________

A) 11th November B) 11th October C) 11th September D) 11th December E) 11th January

Question No. : 28

Bamboo is a

A) Grass B) Herb C) Shrub D) Tree


73

GK Environment Test 01
Question No. : 29

'Greenhouse effect' means

A) pollution in houses in tropical region B) trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric carbon dioxide
C) prevention from ultraviolet radiations by the ozone layer D) None of these

Question No. : 30

Which of the following have not undergone much of a change during the process of evolution over millions of years?
 
A. Crocodile    B. Cockroach   C. Horse
 

A) A and B B) B and C C) A and C D) A, B and C


74

GK Environment Test 02
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 1

'Agenda-21' refers to

A) UN Secretary General's Report to tin Security Council B) Charter of Demands of the developing countries
C) Rio Earth Summit's document D) India's modernization programme to usher in the 21st century

Question No. : 2

Acid rain is caused mainly due to the emissions of

A) Calcium oxide and sulfur dioxide B) Nitrogen oxide and sulfur dioxide C) Sodium oxide and nitrogen oxide
D) Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide

Question No. : 3
The International agreement for control of Green House Gas (GHG) emissions is named

A) Adelaide Agreement B) Kyoto Protocol C) Manila Convention D) Kuala Lumpur Treaty

Question No. : 4

A report by Wildlife Institute of India enlisted major threats to three tiger reserves which are Kalakad-Mundanthurai, Anamalai
and Mudumalai. In which one of the following states are these tiger reserves located?

A) Tamil Nadu B) Kerala C) Bihar D) West Bengal E) None of these

Question No. : 5

Which of the following atmospheric gases constitute greenhouse gases:


 
1. carbon dioxide         2. nitrogen                   3. nitrous oxide            4. water vapour
 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
 

A) 1 and 3 B) 1, 2 and 4 C) 1, 3 and 4 D) 1 and 4

Question No. : 6

The natural environment refers to:

A) the atmosphere in a forest B) the plants and animals in a forest


C) the atmosphere of an area – a forest, lake, or an ocean
D) the living organisms and non-living objects or factors in an area undisturbed by human activity

Question No. : 7

The biosphere is the zone of earth where life is found. It includes parts of:

A) hydrosphere B) lithosphere C) stratosphere D) troposphere


75

GK Environment Test 02
Question No. : 8

Excessive emissions of carbon dioxide are responsible for ocean acidification. It means that:
 
1. oceanic waters become acidic
2. Only the surface waters become acidic
3. the surface waters only become less alkaline
 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
 

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 2 and 3 D) 3 only

Question No. : 9

The liquified petroleum gas (LPG) is produced during refining of crude oil, its major components are:

A) Methane and butane B) Methane and ethane C) Propane and butane D) Propane and methane  

Question No. : 10

Crude oil is sometimes labelled as sour because:

A) It is more acidic. B) It is more alkaline. C) It has higher amounts of sulphur D) It has lower levels of sulphur.

Question No. : 11

Which of the following city in India is considered the greenest?

A) Bangalore B) Chandigarh C) Delhi D) Thiruvananthpuram

Question No. : 12

Which one of the following countries is the largest solar power producer in the world?

A) China B) Germany C) Japan D) USA

Question No. : 13

Consider the following statements:


 
1. Biodiversity rich areas have day temperatures between 18° and 32°C and annual rainfall below 150cm
2. Areas with annual rainfall above 150cm and day temperatures between 18° and 32°C are richer in biodiversity
3. Biodiversity is lower at higher altitudes 
 
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 2 only

Question No. : 14

A biome is:

A) A complex of communities characterised by distinctive climate and vegetation B) A delimited area
C) A collection of rare plants and animals D) A group of plants growing in a particular area

Question No. : 15

The biosphere refers to:

A) The atmosphere surrounding the living organisms B) The area of the land inhabited by living organisms
C) The part of ocean inhabited by plants and/or animals
D) The portion of the earth, including the oceans, the land, the soil and the atmosphere inhabited by living organisms
76

GK Environment Test 02
Question No. : 16

The Basel convention is an international treaty concerned with:

A) Conservation of biodiversity B) Depletion of ozone layer


C) Control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal
D) Regulation of environmental impact of projects having transboundary effects

Question No. : 17

The natural cause of whitening of corals i.e. coral bleaching is:

A) Increased photosynthetically active radiation and UV light band B) Changes in salinity of sea water
C) Increased or reduced temperature of sea water
D) Stress-introduced expulsion or death of their symbiotic protozoa, zooxanthellae

Question No. : 18

The most endangered Asiatic top predator on the edge of extinction is:

A) Siberian Tiger B) Dhole C) Black bear D) Asiatic lion

Question No. : 19

Environmental degradation is the deterioration of the environment through 


 
1. Depletion of resources such as air, water and soil
2. Destruction of ecosystems
3. Progressive increase in wild life
4. Extinction of wild life

A) 1,2,3 B) 1,2,4 C) 1 only D) 2, 4 only

Question No. : 20

The richest and most diverse hotspot containing about a sixth of plant life in less than 1% of the World's land area is:

A) Tumbes-Choco-Magdalenda B) Tropical Andes C) Mediterranean Basiri D) Mesoamerica

Question No. : 21

The greatest threat to the world's coral reef systems emanates from:

A) UV light band B) Starvation caused by decline in zooplankton C) Cyanide fishing D) More frequent coral bleaching

Question No. : 22

The rich biodiversity of India is under severe threat due to:


 
1. Habitat destruction
2. Degradation
3. Fragmentation
4. Overexploitation

A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4

Question No. : 23

Biodiversity hotspots in India are


 
1. The Eastern Ghat
2. Eastern Himalayas
3. Andaman and Nicobar islands
4. The Western Ghat

A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 2,4 D) 2,3,4


77

GK Environment Test 02
Question No. : 24

The Red List of Threatened Plants and Animals includes


 
1. All extinct species
2. Critically endangered speices
3. Endangered species
4. Vulnerable species
 
The correct response is

A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Question No. : 25

Asia's largest inland saltwater lagoon as well as world's largest breeding place for colonies of flamingoes, white-bellied sea
eagles, jacanas and herons is

A) Bhittarkanika Wild Life Sanctuary B) Ranganathittu Wild Life Sanctuary C) Thattekad Bird Sanctuary
D) Chilka Lake Bird Sanctuary

Question No. : 26

Which of the following swathes of healthy forests be totally out of bounds for all mining activities and coal excavation to
preserve its/their biodiversity biomass and prevent any further loss of endangered species?
 
1. National Parks         2. Wildlife Sanctuaries         3. Tiger Reserves         4. Wildlife corridors
 
The correct response is :

A) 1, 2 B) 2,3, 4 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 3 only

Question No. : 27

The International Year of Biodiversity was

A) 2006 B) 2010 C) 1996 D) 1999

Question No. : 28

The Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity, coordinating the International Year of Biodiversity campaign, was
based in

A) London B) Italy C) Montreal D) Toronto

Question No. : 29

Which of the following affects biodiversity:

A) Environmental pollution B) Ocean acidification C) Climate change D) All of the above

Question No. : 30

The air pollutants obtained by combustion are


 
I.  carbon dioxide        II.  Nitrogen dioxide    III.  Ammonia     IV.  Sulphur dioxide
 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) I and II only B) III and IV only C) I,II and IV only D) I, II, III and IV

Question No. : 31

The gas accidentally released by Union Carbide pesticide plant (Bhopal gas tragedy) in 1984 was

A) Carbon monoxide B) Sulphur dioxide  C) Methyl isocyanate  D) Methane


78

GK Environment Test 02
Question No. : 32

The Trade Pact with US and France will help India fight global warming with

A) Heat energy B) Microwave energy C) Nuclear energy D) Electrical energy

Question No. : 33

Consider the following as possible result of reversal of the dates of aphelion and perihelion:
 
I. Summer of northern hemisphere will be warmer
II. Winter of northern hemisphere will be cooler
III. Summer of southern hemisphere will get cooler
IV. Winter of southern hemisphere will get warmer.
 
Which of the above statement/statements is/are true?

A) I, II and III B) II,III and IV C) I,III, and IV D) I, II, III and IV

Question No. : 34

Consider the following factors :


 
I. Climatic changes due to astronomical factors like changes in the orbit of the earth or the solar activity are secular changes.
II. Climatic changes caused by factors like volcanic activity are also always secular.
 
Which of the above statement/statements is/are true ?

A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II

Question No. : 35

Consider the following statements:


 
I. Increased amount of carbon dioxide in air is an important cause of increasing temperature of the earth
II.  Smoke from forest fires and industries adds soot to the air enhancing the warming.
 
Which of the above statement/statements is/are true?earth

A) I only B) II only  C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II

Question No. : 36

Which of the following contributes the maximum to the greenhouse effect ?

A) carbon dioxide B) Water vapour C) Methane D) Nitrous oxide

Question No. : 37

Consider the following statements:


 
1. Kyoto Protocol provided for legally binding commitments on the part of the developed countries to reduce carbon
emissions.
2. During the Cancun Conference the legally binding commitments were diluted to an agreement rather than a binding treaty.
 
Which of the above statement/statements is/are true?

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2


79

GK Environment Test 02
Question No. : 38

What can be the benefit of parks in urban areas in terms of regional climate?

A) They keep temperature low due to shade of trees


B) Watering of plants in the parks adds moisture to air thus adding to warming
C) Parks act as carbon sinks in the otherwise concrete environment D) They add to the aesthetics of the environment

Question No. : 39

What would be the impact of global warming on mangrove forests?

A) They will grow more luxurious B) Large areas of mangroves will be submerged
C) Their role as carbon sinks will become more important D) Both (a) and (c) above

Question No. : 40

Why is carbon dioxide taken as the major contributor to global warming while methane absorbs more heat per molecule?
 
(i). Carbon dioxide forms a larger proportion of atmosphere. Hence the overall impact of carbon dioxide is stronger.
(ii) Carbon dioxide has a much longer life span in atmosphere and keeps contributing for a far longer period
(iii)  Methane is not generated through anthropogenic causes.
 
Which of the above statement/statements is/are true?
 

A) i only B) i and ii C) i and iii D) i, ii and iii
80

GK Environment Test 03
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 1

Which of the following components form a larger proportion in exhaust of a petrol engine than of a diesel engine?
 
i. Nitrogen 
ii. Carbon monoxide
iii. Particulate matter
iv.  Nitrogen
 

A) i and ii B) i, ii and iii C) ii and iv D) i, ii and iv

Question No. : 2

The ecosystem comprises:

A) all the individuals of a particular species living in an area B) all the animal species living in an area
C) all the organisms living in an area D) all the living organisms and the non-living components in an area

Question No. : 3

The concept of carbon credit is associated with

A) lending to mineral exploring companies B) development of coal mines C) protection of environment


D) development of uranium E) None of these

Question No. : 4

Bonsai is

A) the art of growing trees in small pots B) the art of embroidery on cloth C) the art of arranging flowers
D) the art of making dolls E) None of these

Question No. : 5

The Red Data Books published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources enumerate

A) Biodiversity parks and wild life sanctuaries in different countrie B) Centres of origin of cultivated plants
C) Centres of origin of all economically important plants D) Threatened species of plants and animals E) None of these

Question No. : 6

____________ is currently the largest carbon emitter in the world in terms of per capita emission as per data revealed by the
World Resources Institute (WRI).

A) India B) China C) USA D) Russia 

Question No. : 7

Which state ranks 1st  in the country in terms of total installed capacity of solar energy ?
 

A) Maharashtra B) Gujrat C) Tamil Nadu D) Uttar Pradesh

Question No. : 8

Ganga Talao is a crater lake situated in a secluded mountain area in the district of Savanne, deep in the heart of __________

A) Indonesia B) Maldives C) Mauritius D) Malaysia E) Thailand


81

GK Environment Test 03
Question No. : 9

Which one of the following rivers of India is called 'biological desert'?

A) Noyyal B) Damodar C) Bhiwani D) Bhadar E) Narmada

Question No. : 10

The driving force of the ecosystem is

A) Solar energy B) Trees C) Biomass D) Carbohydrates in producers E) Forests

Question No. : 11

On March 31, which two countries have joined the league of countries who have declared their commitments to a climate action plan to cut post-2020
greenhouse gas emission?

A) India and China B) India and Russia C) USA and Russia D) USA and China  E) None of these

Question No. : 12

Tamil Nadu Government has banned .............., a non-steroid anti inflammatory drug to save critically endangered vulture
preparation in the state.
 

A) Ketoprofen B) Riboflavin C) Ketoxanthomide D) Acetyl salicylic acid

Question No. : 13

We must recognize our obligation __________ future generation and protect our environment.
 

A) For B) Towards C) To D) Upto 

Question No. : 14

What should be the proportion of forest cover for India to maintain her ecological balance?

A) 11.1 percent B) 22.2 percent C) 33.3 percent D) 44.4 percent

Question No. : 15

Following is the most widely discussed impact of climate change

A) Deforestation B) Soil erosion C) Acid rain D) Increase in the average sea level

Question No. : 16

Which one among the following is a 'hot spot' for biological diversity in India ?

A) Western Ghats B) Sundarbans C) Chilika Lagoon D) Eastern Ghats

Question No. : 17

Which of the following weeds has been found useful to check water pollution caused by industrial affluents ?

A) Parthenium B) Elephant grass C) Water hyacinth D) Both (1) and (2) above

Question No. : 18

The land of maximum biodiversity is

A) Tropical B) Temperate C) Monsoonal D) Equatorial


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GK Environment Test 03
Question No. : 19

The forest in Sunderban is called

A) Scrub jungle B) Mangrove C) Deciduous forest D) Tundra

Question No. : 20

Soil erosion on hill slopes can be checked by

A) Afforestation B) Terrace cultivation C) Strip cropping D) Contour ploughing

Question No. : 21

'Darwin finches' refers to a group of

A) Fishes B) Lizards C) Birds D) Amphibians

Question No. : 22

An artificial ecosystem is represented by:

A) Pisciculture tank B) Agricultural land C) Zoo D) Aquarium

Question No. : 23

Which is the most stable eco-system?

A) Desert B) Ocean C) Mountain D) Forest

Question No. : 24

The coral reefs are the marine counterparts of

A) Temperate forests B) Tropical rain forests C) Savannahs D) Scrubland

Question No. : 25

The Refrigerant 'FREON' is

A) Calcium Tetra Fluoride B) Difluoro Dichloro Methane C) Fluorspar and Felspar D) Hydrofluosilicic Acid

Question No. : 26

What would be the impact of global warming on mangrove forests ?

A) They will grow more luxurious B) Large areas of mangroves will be submerged
C) Their role as carbon sinks will become more important D) Both (A) and (C) above

Question No. : 27

Which one of the following is an act of man that disturbs the ecological balance ?

A) Vanamahotsav B) Afforestation C) Lumbering D) Social forestry

Question No. : 28

The increasing abudance of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has led to the following effects except

A) Global warming B) Depletion of ozone layer in the stratosphere C) Oxygen fertilisation effect
D) Carbon dioxide fertilization effect

Question No. : 29

Which of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution?

A) Diesel B) Kerosene C) Hydrogen D) Coal


83

GK Environment Test 03
Question No. : 30

Minamata epidemic that caused several deaths in Japan in 1965 occurred due to pollution in water by

A) Lead B) Mercury C) Fluoride D) DDT

Question No. : 31

Ozone affects human health by causing severe pulmonary edema at a concentration of-

A) 0.2ppm B) 0.3ppm C) 3.0ppm D) 9.0ppm

Question No. : 32

Kaziranga National Park is situated in

A) Odisha B) Gujarat C) Rajasthan D) Assam

Question No. : 33

The substance that causes the worst air pollution is

A) sulphur dioxide B) carbon dioxide C) carbon monoxide D) smoke 

Question No. : 34

Pila globosa is used as biofilter in cleaning pollution of water by:

A) Mercury   B) Arsenic C) Cadmium D) Algal blooms

Question No. : 35

The International agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008 - 2012 is known as :

A) Rule of 70 B) Rio Protocol C) Kyoto Protocol D) Agenda 21

Question No. : 36

The disease that kills more people than lung cancer as a consequence of air pollution is :

A) Chronic bronchitis B) Asthma C) Emphesema D) Heart attack

Question No. : 37

The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on

A) micro-organisms and fishes B) micro-organisms and zoo Planktons C) fishes and reptiles
D) producers and consumers

Question No. : 38

The main factor which determines balance of nature is

A) human activities B) Rabit and habitat C) environmental conditions D) availability of food

Question No. : 39

Which of the following weeds has been found useful to check water pollution caused by industrial affluents ?

A) Parthenium B) Elephant grass C) Water hyacinth D) Both (A) and (B) above

Question No. : 40

Certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry form. This serves as a means of

A) protective Mechanism against their predators B) limiting factor of the organism


C) adaptation of the organism to the environment D) countering the problem of food scarcity 
84

GK Indian Polity Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Which is the Nodal Union Ministry for implementing the Biodiesel Mission?

A) Ministry of Agriculture B) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy C) Ministry of Science and Technology
D) Ministry of Rural Development

Question No. : 2

Name the country's oldest para-military force, which has completed 175 years of existence.

A) CRPF B) BSF C) ITBP D) Assam Rifles

Question No. : 3

Financial distribution between the union and the states takes place on the basis of the recommendations of

A) Niti Aayog B) The Sarkaria Commission C) Inter-State Commission D) The Finance Commission

Question No. : 4

Article 32 of the Indian Constitution deals with the

A) Right to life and liberty B) Right to speech and expression C) Right to form unions D) Right to constitutional remedies

Question No. : 5

Who presides over the joint sitting of both houses of Parliament?

A) Speaker of Lok Sabha B) President C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha D) Prime Minister

Question No. : 6

 
Which one of the following is not a constitutional body?

A) Union Public Service Commission B) Election Commission C) NITI Aayog D) Finance Commission

Question No. : 7

In case of which of the following, the method of removal from office is the same?
 
I.    A Judge of the Supreme Court
II.   Chief Election Commissioner
III.   President of India

A) I and II B) II and III C) I and III D) I, II and III

Question No. : 8

Which of the following is NOT a constitutional body?


 
A. Planning Commission         B. Finance Commission          C. Inter-State Council
 

A) A and B B) B and C C) A, B and C D) A only

Question No. : 9

A candidate for election to the Loksabha stands to forfeit his security deposit it if he fails to get at least

A) 1/6th of the total votes polled B) 1/6th of the total valid votes polled C) 1/5th of the total valid votes polled
D) 1/8th of the total votes polled
85

GK Indian Polity Test 01


Question No. : 10

The Fundamental Right To Property was abolished by the

A) 42nd Amendment B) 44th Amendment C) 61st Amendment D) 73rd Amendment

Question No. : 11

The Directive Principles of State policy are contained in part ____of the Constitution and are _____

A) III, non – justiciable B) III, justiciable C) IV, non-justiciable D) IV, justicible

Question No. : 12

The Supreme Court Judges retire at the age of

A) 60 years B) 62 years C) 65 years D) 58 years

Question No. : 13

The constitution of India describes India as a

A) Federation B) Confederation C) Union of States D) Loose Federation

Question No. : 14

A Supreme Court Judge can be removed from his office by

A) The government at will B) The President’s order    C) Impeachment   D) The Loksabha

Question No. : 15

A lame-duck government is one which

A) has lost a no-confidence motion in Loksabha and is asked to continue as caretaker govt. B) has an absolute majority
C) hurtles from one crisis to the other D) None of these

Question No. : 16

Article 143 deals with the

A) allocation of funds among states B) collective responsibility of the Cabinet


C) advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court D) None of these

Question No. : 17

The members of the panchayat are

A) nominated by the district officer B) nominated by local self-government minister of the state
C) elected  by the electorate of the respective territorial constituencies
D) nominated by the block development organization

Question No. : 18

Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right in India?

A) Right to Expression B) Right to Association C) Right to Work D) Right to Education

Question No. : 19

A case for enforcement of Fundamental Rights can be filed in the

A) Supreme Court only B) Both Supreme and High Courts C) High and District Courts D) None of these
86

GK Indian Polity Test 01


Question No. : 20

The campaigning for the Loksabha elections must come to an end

A) 48 hours before polling ends B) 72 hours before polling starts C) 60 hours before polling begins
D) 48 hours before polling begins

Question No. : 21

The Emergency provisions of the Indian Constitution are modeled on the

A) German pattern B) American pattern C) South African pattern D) British pattern

Question No. : 22

Anyone can contest for Indian Prime Ministership if he / she is at least

A) 30 yr. of age B) 35 yr. of age C) 25 yr. of age D) 18 yr. of age

Question No. : 23

The Constitution Review commission was headed

A) MN Venkatchaliah B) PN Bhawati C) VB Eradi D) Nagender Singh

Question No. : 24

Hindi is mentioned as the official language in article ________ of the Constitution.

A) 351 B) 334 C) 335 D) 324

Question No. : 25

Linguistic and religious minorities in India enjoy special rights under

A) Article 16 B) 42nd Amendment C) Article 25 D) Article 29

Question No. : 26

Who among the following is associated with the Local Self Government Act?

A) Dalhousie B) William Bentick C) Cornwallis D) Ripon

Question No. : 27

The framers of the Constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review, from the Constitution of

A) France B) USA     C) United Kingdom D) All of these

Question No. : 28

How many types of emergency have been visualized in the Constitution of India?

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

Question No. : 29

How many members can be nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President?

A) 2 B) 4          C) 5          D) 12

Question No. : 30

The Finance Commission is appointed for

A) Passing the money bills B) Approving the money bills C) Drafting the budget
D) Making recommendations to the President regarding the distribution between the Union and the States of the net
proceeds of taxes
87

GK Indian Polity Test 01


Question No. : 31

The 52nd amendment of the constitution deals with


 

A) Extension of President’s rule B) Anti-defection law C) The lowering of voting age  D) Panchayati Raj
 

Question No. : 32

The erstwhile Planning Commission was

A) Political body B) Statutory body C) Non-political body D) Quasi-political body

Question No. : 33

The number of writs that can be prayed for and issued by the Supreme Court and/or a High Court is:

A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 6

Question No. : 34

The pension of a high court judge is charged to the

A) Contingency Fund of India B) Consolidated Funds of the different states where he has served
C) Consolidated Fund of the state where he last served D) Consolidated Fund of India

Question No. : 35

The members of a State Commission can be removed by the:

A) governor on a report by the Supreme Court B) president on a report by the Supreme Court
C) governor on a resolution passed by Parliament D) president on a resolution passed by Parliament

Question No. : 36

Voting right by the youths at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General Election of ___
 

A) 1987 B) 1988 C) 1989 D) 1990 

Question No. : 37

The Rajya Sabha consists of __

A) 280 members of which 20 members are nominated by the President of India 


B) 275 members of which 18 members are nominated by the President of India
C) 250 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India
D) 252 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India 

Question No. : 38

Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?
 

A) Right to Constitutional remedies  B) Freedom to speech  C) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country
D) Freedom to acquire property

Question No. : 39

Of the following statements, which one is NOT correct?

A) The Supreme Court was constituted in 1950 B) The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country
C) The Supreme Court can hear an appeal arising from any High Court/Tribunals except from a Court-martial
D) The Supreme Court can hear an appeal arising from any High Court/Tribunals as well as from a Court-martial
88

GK Indian Polity Test 01


Question No. : 40

The emergency provisions in India's Constitution are derived from the constitution of

A) The UK B) The USSR C) Germany D) The USA 


89

GK Indian Polity Test 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Which one of the following in not included in Article 19 of the Constitution of India, pertaining to the Right to Freedom?

A) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India B) Right to form associations or unions
C) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions D) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms

Question No. : 2

National Disaster Management Authority has been established by the Government of India under the Ministry of

A) HRD B) Urban Development C) Home Affairs D) Defence

Question No. : 3

 
The Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act deals with

A) Panchayati Raj B) Extension of reservations C) Centre-state relations D) Anti-Defection law

Question No. : 4

The Finance Commission is constituted under which Artcile of the Indian Constitution?

A) Art 280 B) Art 352 C) Art. 356 D) Art 324

Question No. : 5

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is inspired by the ideas of

A) Jean Jacques Rousseau B) Marie Antoinette C) John Locke D) Gautam Buddha

Question No. : 6

 
The Plan Holiday refers to the period-

A) 1965-68 B) 1966-69 C) 1967-70 D) 1978-80

Question No. : 7

Examine the following statements and select the correct one/ ones.
 
A. The Election Commission of India is a 3-member body and this is allowed as per the constitution.
B. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only by initiating an impeachment motion.
C. The CEC does not exercise overriding authority and all its decisions are taken on a majority basis.
 

A) A and C B) A and B C) C only D) A, B and C

Question No. : 8

The recommendation for elections to a Loksabha Constituency is initiated by the

A) Election Commission of India B) Loksabha Speaker C) Home Ministry D) State Election Commission

Question No. : 9

The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the

A) Prime Minister B) President C) Vice-President D) Loksabha Speaker


90

GK Indian Polity Test 02


Question No. : 10

Consider the following political parties:


 
A. Revolutionary Socialist party          B. Forward Bloc          C. Muslim League        D. Akali Dal
 
Which of the following is / are national parties as per Election Commission guidelines?
 

A) A and B B) C and D C) A, B and D D) None of these

Question No. : 11

The President may refer a matter to the Supreme Court for its opinion thereon. This provision is contained in

A) Article 75 of the Constitution B) Article 78 of the Constitution C) Article 143 of the Constitution
D) Article 58 of the Constitution

Question No. : 12

In which of the following cases is a prior presidential consent required for a bill?

A) A bill regarding the creation of new states B) It is required for every single bill
C) A bill regarding the defence forces, external affairs and currency in  India D) A Finance bill

Question No. : 13

When was the first session of Lok Sabha held?

A) 15th August,1950 B) 13th May,1952 C) 15th August,1952 D) 12th January,1953

Question No. : 14

Which of the following constitutional amendments is referred to as the “mini-constitution?

A) 44th B) 48th C) 42nd D) 24th

Question No. : 15

The Panchayati Raj system is a

A) four-tier institution B) two-tier institution C) three-tier institution D) None of these

Question No. : 16

Which of the following comprise the Indian Parliament?


 
A. Loksabha                B. Rajyasabha              C. President
 

A) A and B B) B and C C) A, B and C D) None of these

Question No. : 17

A Loksabha MP can be expelled from it if he absents without information for more than ___ days.

A) 100 B) 90 C) 60 D) 80

Question No. : 18

Sikkim was made a full-fledged state of India vide the

A) 34th Amendment B) 44th Amendment C) 36th Amendment D) 24th amendment


91

GK Indian Polity Test 02


Question No. : 19

Who /which among the following decides whether a bill is a money bill or not?

A) Finance Minister B) Speaker, Lok Sabha C) Chairman, Rajya Sabha D) President

Question No. : 20

The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

A) Election Commission of India B) Parliament C) High courts D) Supreme Court

Question No. : 21

The maximum number of Loksabha seats contributed by any state is

A) 58 B) 61 C) 84 D) 85

Question No. : 22

“The Left” in politics refers to

A) Progressive, radical groups B) Conservative groups C) Those sitting on the left in Parliament D) None of these

Question No. : 23

Fundamental Duties were incorporated by means of the

A) 42nd Amendment B) 24th Amendment C) 44th Amendment D) 61st Amendment

Question No. : 24

The House of Parliament must meet after an interval

A) Not exceeding 6 months in any case B) Of not more than 4 months C) Of not more than 3 months
D) The interval may be extended by a Presidential order

Question No. : 25

Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?

A) Rajendra Prasad B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D) C Rajagoplachari

Question No. : 26

The collegium system was earlier prevalent in case of

A) Allocation of ministerial portfolios B) Selection of ministers C) Passing a bill in Parliament


D) Appointments to Supreme Court and High Courts

Question No. : 27

The Rajya Sabha can delay the enactment of a money bill for a maximum period of

A) One year B) Three months C) One month D) Fourteen days

Question No. : 28

It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our Constitution lies in the

A) Preamble B) Fundamental Rights C) Fundamental Rights D) Directive Principles


92

GK Indian Polity Test 02


Question No. : 29

A dispute regarding the election of the President of India of India is referred to

A) Chief Election Commission B) Supreme Court C) Parliament D) Attorney General

Question No. : 30

Which of the following is included in the Union List?

A) Posts and Telegraphs B) Criminal Law C) Land Revenue D) Police

Question No. : 31

The Parliament can legislate with respect to a matter in the State List provided it is in the
 

A) National interest B) Interest of the concerned State C) Interest of the underprivileged D) Interest of the minority 

Question No. : 32

‘Equal pay for equal work for both men and women’ is a

A) Directive Principle of State Policy B) Fundamental Right  C) Statutory provision in Labour Law 
  D) None of the above 

Question No. : 33

Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment of children in any factory below the age of

A) 14 years B) 12 years C) 7 years D) 15 years

Question No. : 34

Which of the follwing is/ are prohibited by the Constitution of India?

A) Untouchability B) Begaar (Unpaid work) C) Both A and B D) Manual scavenging work

Question No. : 35

Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?

A) Attorney General of India B) Chief Election Commissioner of India C) Chief Justice of India
D) National Security Advisor 
 

Question No. : 36

Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to resolve for the
creation of the Legislative Council?
 

A) 168       B) 169 C) 170      D) 171 

Question No. : 37

January 26 was selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution because
 

A) The Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930 and the date had become quite popular
B) On that day, the Quit India Movement was started in 1942  C) It was considered to be an auspicious day
D) None of the above
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GK Indian Polity Test 02


Question No. : 38

The president addresses both the Houses of Parliament assembled together:

A) During emergency session summoned for the purpose B) Every Session


C) First session after each general election and the first session of each year D) Any Session

Question No. : 39

Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments?


 

A) Chief Minister B) Governor C) Speaker D) High Court Judge 


 

Question No. : 40

Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India?
 

A) Right to Information    B) Right to Work  C) Right to Education D) Right to Housing


94

GK Indian Polity Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency?

A) Kangra B) Kachchh C) Ladakh D) Bhilwara

Question No. : 2

 
Which separate part has been added to the Constitution through the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992?

A) Part VII B) Part VIII C) Part IX D) Part X

Question No. : 3

The results of the Lok Sabha elections are declared by the

A) Election Commission of India B) State Election Commission C) Returning Officer D) District Magistrate

Question No. : 4

The name of a candidate for the office of president of India may be proposed by

A) Any five citizens of India B) Any ten members of the Electoral College C) Any five members of the Parliament
D) Any one member of the Electoral College

Question No. : 5

Which state of India has the highest number of Lok Sabha seats?

A) UP B) West Bengal C) Maharashtra D) Bihar

Question No. : 6

Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?

A) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment B) Freedoms of movement, residence and profession
C) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
D) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law

Question No. : 7

Who is the ex-officio chairman of the newly created NITI Aayog, which has replaced the earlier Planning Commission?

A) Minister of Finance B) Prime Minister C) President D) Vice President

Question No. : 8

A bill sent by the Cabinet for Presidential assent.

A) Must be signed by the President in all circumstances B) May or may not be signed by the President
C) May be returned by the President to the cabinet for re-consideration, but upon being re-presented to him, he must
declare his assent to it
D) Cannot be returned by the President for re-consideration
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GK Indian Polity Test 03


Question No. : 9

Examine the following statements:


A. If a member of the Cabinet loses a non-confidence motion on the floor of a House, the entire ministry has to resign.
B. If the Prime minister puts in his resignation, the ministry has to resign as a whole
C. A person can assume Prime-Ministership even without being a member of the Loksabha
 
Chose the correct set of responses:
 

A) A only B) C only C) A and C D) A, B and C

Question No. : 10

The words “socialist, secular” were added to the Preamble to the Indian Constitution vide

A) The 44th amendment B) The 61st amendment C) The 42nd amendment D) The 59th amendment

Question No. : 11

The only Indian P.M. who never faced the Loksabha was

A) Rajeev Gandhi B) Gulzari Lal Nanda C) Charan Singh   D) A.B. Vajpayee

Question No. : 12

Article 356 of the constitution deals with the

A) Declaration of a financial emergency B) Declaration of a national emergency


C) Procedure for constitutional amendment D) Imposition of President’s rule in a state

Question No. : 13

The Lok Sabha has _____ powers as compared to the Rajya Sabha in case of money bills

A) Constantly changing B) Equal C) Lesser D) More

Question No. : 14

A person can move a court if his fundamental rights are infringed in all of the following except when

A) Right to speech is violated B) Right to property is violated C) Right to equal treatment before law is violated
D) Right to religious freedom is violated

Question No. : 15

The first speaker of the Indian Loksabha was

A) Gurdial Singh B) Baldev Singh   C) JL Nehru D) GV Mavlankar

Question No. : 16

Article 352 deals with the

A) President’s rule B) National emergency C) Censorship D) Financial emergency

Question No. : 17

What is the Quorum of a Legislative House?

A) 1/ 4th of membership B) One-fourth of its total membership or 10 C) 1/10th of membership/ ten whichever is greater
D) 25
96

GK Indian Polity Test 03


Question No. : 18

Out of the following, which one is not a Union Subject?

A) Land Revenue B) Posts and Telegraphs C) Corporate Tax D) Income Tax

Question No. : 19

An ordinance can be remain in operation for a maximum of

A) 3 Months B) 2 Months C) 6 Months D) 1 Year

Question No. : 20

The voting age for elections was lowered by means of the

A) 59th amendment B) 64th amendment C) 61st amendment D) 42nd amendment

Question No. : 21

The Loksabha speaker gives his resignation letter to the

A) Prime Minister B) President C) Vice President D) Deputy Speaker

Question No. : 22

Article 14 of the constitution deals with

A) Equality before law B) Abolition of untouchability C) Freedom of expression D) Right to property

Question No. : 23

The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers:

A) only during national emergency B) at all times


C) during national emergency as well as constitutional emergency as well in a state D) None of the above

Question No. : 24

The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is _____ in origin and is _____ of the Constitution.

A) American, a part B) French, not a part C) Canadian, a part D) French, a part

Question No. : 25

Match List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List-II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists.
 
List – I List – II
Country from which it was
Item in the Indian Constitution
derived
P. Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Australia
Q. Fundamental Rights 2. Canada
R. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 3. Ireland
S. India as a Union of States with greater powers to
4. United Kingdom
the Union
  5. United States of America
 

A) 5-4-1-2 B) 5-4-2-1 C) 3-5-1-2 D) 3-5-2-1 


 
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GK Indian Polity Test 03


Question No. : 26

In which of the following systems of Government, can the Government be removed through no-confidence motion passed by
the Parliament?

A) Parliamentary B) Unitary C) Federal D) Presidential

Question No. : 27

Universal adult franchise implies a right to vote to all

A) Adult male citizens of the State B) Adult residents of the State C) Residents of the State
D) Adult citizens of the State

Question No. : 28

Who elects the President of India?

A) An electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament
B) An electoral college comprising elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and those of all State Legislative
Assemblies.
C) People of India           
D) An electoral college consisting of the elected members of Lok Sabha and the elected members of all the State Legislative
Assemblies.

Question No. : 29

The Council of Ministers of the Union of India is responsible to the

A) Rajya Sabha B) Prime Minister C) Prime Minister D) Lok Sabha

Question No. : 30

The first woman Governor in independent India was

A) Sarojini Naidu B) Sucheta Kriplani          C) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur D) None of these

Question No. : 31

The panchayats in India


 

A) Are authorized to levy taxes only B) Have no power to levy taxes C) Are entitled to Government grants only
D) Are authorized to levy and collect taxes, duties, tolls and fees

Question No. : 32

The Parliament exercises control over council of ministers, the real executive, in several ways. Which one of the following has
been wrongly listed as a method of control over executive?

A) Questions B) Supplementary questions C) Adjournment motions D) None of the above

Question No. : 33

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha


 

A) Votes only in case of a tie B) Votes like any other member of the Lok Sabha C) Has no right to vote
D) Has two votes-one in ordinary course and another in case of a tie

Question No. : 34

The minimum age of the voter in India is:

A) 18 Years B) 21 Years C) 16 Years D) 22 Years


98

GK Indian Polity Test 03


Question No. : 35

Which one of the following statements about the parliament of India is not correct?
 

A) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government


B) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet
C) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House.
D) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the popular Chamber

Question No. : 36

The Indian Constitution comprises of ___

A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules B) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules
C) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules D) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules

Question No. : 37

Of the following statements, which one is not correct?


 

A) The Rajya Sabha is power-less in money matter  B) Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha
C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14 days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha
D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha

Question No. : 38

A Financial Emergency may be declared by the President of India in line with


 

A) Article 360 B) Article 352 C) Article 370 D) Article 356

Question No. : 39

The Ashok Mehta Committee had recommended


 

A) two-tier government of Panchyati Raj  B) a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj


  C) single-tier government in Panchayati Raj
D) multiple-tier government in Panchayati Raj 

Question No. : 40

The president can dissolve the Lok Sabha on:

A) advice of the prime minister B) advice of the chief justice of India C) recommendation of Lok Sabha
D) recommendation of the Rajya Sabha
99

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act provides for at least how many days of wage employment to every rural
household in a year?

A) 90 days B) 180 days C) 100 days D) 300 days

Question No. : 2

The Govt. of India has introduced a large number of programmes aimed at reduction of poverty. Which of the following is NOT ONE of
them?

A) Integrated Rural Development Programme B) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana


C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act D) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana E) Voluntary Disclosure Scheme

Question No. : 3

The president can dismiss a member of the council of ministers:

A) On his own B) Only under emergency conditions C) With the consent of the speaker
D) On the recommendation of the prime ministers

Question No. : 4

NRHM Stands for:

A) National Roads and Highway Mission B) National Rural Health Mission C) National and Regional Highway Mission
D) National and Regional Health Mission

Question No. : 5

Antyodaya programme was chiefly aimed at the upliftment of

A) industrial workers B) rural poor C) labourers D) farmers

Question No. : 6

"Swabhiman Scheme" of the Govt. of India will provide which of the following to about 5 crore people in India?

A) Free housing facility B) Insurance cover C) Access to banking services D) Free medical treatment for critical diseases
E) None of these

Question No. : 7

Which of the following is one of the objectives of the National Population Policy 2000 ?

A) Reduction in Urban population by 30% B) Providing better facilities in urban slums


C) Creating better irrigation facilities in villages D) Conducting population survey in tribal areas
E) Reduction in infant mortality rate

Question No. : 8

Which scheme has been launched by the Govt. of India to make Indian Metros/Cities Slum free ?

A) Indira Awas Yojana B) Rajiv Gandhi Awas Yojana C) Kutir Jyoti D) ASHA E) Bharat Nirman

Question No. : 9

Look East Policy is associated with

A) SAARC B) EU C) ASEAN D) OPEC


100

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 01


Question No. : 10

Which is the only state in India to have Common Civil Code in force ?

A) Goa B) Mizoram C) Nagaland D) Jammu & Kashmir E) Sikkim

Question No. : 11

Which of the following is/are the salient feature(s) of the National Food Security Act?

A) 75% of rural and 50% of the urban population entitled to 5 kg of rice, wheat and coarse grains at Rs. 3, Rs. 2, Rs. 1 per kg
respectively per month.
B) Pregnant women and lactating mothers entitled to nutritious meals and maternity benefit of at least Rs. 6000 for six
months.
C) Central Government will provide funds to States in case of food grain short supply, and will protect the current allocation
to States.
D) All these

Question No. : 12

Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls which aims at enhancing the nutritional and economic status of
adolescent girls has been named as

A) POSHAN B) SABLA C) LAKSHMI D) YUVIKA

Question No. : 13

The women centre created at the village level under National Mission for Empowerment of women is

A) Poorna Shakti Kendra (PSK) B) Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK) C) Rashtriya Mahila Kendra (RMK)
D) Mahila Vigyan Kendra (MVK)

Question No. : 14

Bharat II is meant to control:

A) AIDS B) Vehicular emission norms C) Water Pollution D) Terrorism

Question No. : 15

Prime Minister Modi has launched the "Give it up" campaign for voluntarily giving up

A) Use of tobacco products B) LPG subsidy C) Use of incandescent bulbs  D) Use of plastics

Question No. : 16

Garuda Shakti III is a military exercise between India and which country?

A) Nepal B) Russia C) Indonesia D) China

Question No. : 17

 
Which of the following organizations was formed to give voice to the poor self employed women from informal sector in India?

A) ASHA B) SEWA C) YWCA D) UNICEF E) None of These

Question No. : 18

Project Varsha, India's new naval base under construction is near which of the following cities?

A) Kochi B) Karwar C) Visakhapatnam D) Chennai


101

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 01


Question No. : 19

The third installment of the basel accords was developed in response to the deficiencies in financial regulations revealed by financial crisis of 2007-08.
Basel II was supposed to strengthen bank capital requirements by increasing bank liquidity and decreasing bank leverage. The transitional period for full
implementation of Basel III capital regulations in India is extended upto _________.

A) 31st March 2020 B) 31st March 2016 C) 31st March 2017 D) 31st March 2018 E) 31st March 2019

Question No. : 20

A Rs. 20,000 crore bank, which would primarily be responsible for refinancing all micro-finance institutions is to be launched. This unique bank is
christened as _________

A) MSE Bank B) MSME Bank C) MUDRA Bank D) SAMUDRA Bank E) SSI Bank

Question No. : 21

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has developed an application to connect payments across smart phones. The application is

A) Unified Payment Interface B) Payment Interface C) Unique Payment Interface D) Union of Payment Interface
E) People's Payment Interface

Question No. : 22

What is the full form of the term ‘PDS’ which is a channel of distribution of foodgrains and other essentials to poor people at
subsidized rates?

A) Public Distribution System B) Potential Development System C) Profitable Distribution Source


D) Public Development Syndication

Question No. : 23

Who is the Vice-Chairman of the newly created NITI Aayog which has replaced the Planning Commission?

A) Rajiv Kumar B) Sindhushree Khullar C) Raghuram Rajan D) Jagdish Bhagwati

Question No. : 24

Which of the following is not a Maharatna Company?

A) Power Grid Corporation B) NTPC C) BHEL D) GAIL

Question No. : 25

Which country has signed a MoU with the government of Andhra Pradesh to develop its world class capital city?

A) The US B) Japan C) China D) Singapore

Question No. : 26

GOI has launched a new digital platform in association with ________.

A) Google B) Twitter C) Facebook D) Linked in

Question No. : 27

The "Pudhu Vazhvu Scheme" is an empowerment and poverty reduction initiative launched by______

A) Tamil Nadu B) Andhra C) Kerala D) West Bengal E) Telangana

Question No. : 28

Who amongst the following holds the majority stake in the share capital of the recently opened 'Bhartiya Mahila Bank?

A) LIC of India B) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India C) Government of India
D) Reserve Bank of India E) General Insurance Corporation of India
102

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 01


Question No. : 29

The minimum lock in period under the recently re-launched 'Kisan Vikas Patra' Scheme is _____

A) One year and six months B) One year C) Two years and six months D) Two years E) Two years and three months

Question No. : 30

An account can be opened under the recently launched 'Sukanya Samridhi Yojana' at any time from the birth of a girl child till
she attains the age of

A) Fifteen tears B) Eighteen Years C) Twenty One Years D) Thirteen Years E) Ten Years

Question No. : 31

Indian Government has announced setting up of a new IIT in_________

A) Karnataka B) Gujarat C) Kerala D) Punjab

Question No. : 32

Which of the following sectors is not the part of infrastructure?

A) Railways B) Power C) Food Processing D) Roads

Question No. : 33

Which of the following committees, that has recently submitted its report, was setup to suggest ways and means to raise the
revenue of Indian Railways?

A) Y. V. Reddy Committee B) D. K. Mittal Committee C) Bezbaruah Committee D) Madhav Menon Committee
E) Bimal Jatan Committee

Question No. : 34

What is NREGA?

A) Income Tax Scheme B) Life Insurance Policy C) Employment Guarantee Scheme D) Bank Rate on Saving Account

Question No. : 35

Which of the following is an example of trade barrier ?

A) Foreign investment        B) Tax on imports C) Delay or damage to goods D) FDI outflows

Question No. : 36

The term blue revolution is associated with :

A) Fishery B) Edible oil C) Egg and Poultry D) Indigo

Question No. : 37

Which of the following is true about the relationship between a banker and a customer when the bank accepts valuables for
safe custody?

A) Trustee-beneficiary B) Principal-agent C) Debtor-Creditor D) None of the above

Question No. : 38

What is the full form of the term 'PDS' which is a channel of distribution of foodgrains and other essentials to poor people on
subsidized rates?

A) Public Distribution system B) Potential development System C) Profitable Distribution Source


D) Public Development Syndication
103

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 01


Question No. : 39

The abbreviation ‘CSR’ stands for __________

A) Collective Social Responsibility B) Collective Shared Responsibility C) Corporate Social Responsibility


D) Corporate Shared Responsibility E) Commercial Shared Responsibility

Question No. : 40

 
Which of the following will help the poor in a country to come out of poverty?
 
(A)  If they get good Health Services.                             
(B)  If they have freedom from illiteracy. 
(C)  If the nation attains optimum Sex Ratio.

A) Only (A) B) Only (B) C) Both (A) & (B) D) Only (C) E) All (A), (B), & (C)
104

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

 
Which of the following organizations was formed to give voice to the poor self employed women from informal sector in India?

A) ASHA B) SEWA C) YWCA D) UNICEF E) None of These

Question No. : 2

Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana has been restructured and renamed as

A) Livelihood Mission B) National Rural Livelihood Mission C) National Self-Employment Programme


D) Employment for All Schemes

Question No. : 3

UDAAN is a skill development programme launched for youngsters of which state?

A) Punjab B) Uttar Pradesh C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Karnataka

Question No. : 4

What is the full form of NBAS?

A) Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan Scheme B) Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan Sanyojana C) New Bharat Abhiyan Scheme
D) Newest Bharat Abhiyan Scheme

Question No. : 5

Which of the following schemes launched by the govt. of India is aimed at developing rural infrastructure?

A) MNREGA B) ASHA C) Bharat Nirman D) Operation Flood E) Operation Black board

Question No. : 6

Which of the following Acts ensures that every child gets school education?

A) RTI Act B) RTE Act C) Apprentice Act D) Govt. Grants Act E) None of these

Question No. : 7

Which of the following programmes was launched by the government to develop rural infrastructure in India?

A) SHGs B) Bharat Nirman C) JNNURM D) IAY

Question No. : 8

Select the correct Organization — Purpose match:


Organization                             Purpose
1 NABARD                             i Financial assistance for warehousing
2 NCDC                                  ii Refinancing agricultural credit
3 SCARDB                             iii Inter-state sale of agricultural products
4 NAFED                               iv Land development
 

A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii B) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i

Question No. : 9

Which of the following is the name of a bank finance scheme launched by the Govt. of India to provide employment
opportunities to poor people

A) SJSRY B) RAY C) ASHA D) SEWA E) Bharat Nirman


105

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 02


Question No. : 10

'Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan' (NBA) is an initiative of the

A) Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation, GOI. B) Ministry of Minority Affairs, GOI.
C) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, GOI. D) Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, GOI.

Question No. : 11

NRHM Stands for:

A) National Roads and Highway Mission B) National Rural Health Mission C) National and Regional Highway Mission
D) National and Regional Health Mission

Question No. : 12

Census 2011 was ________ Indian Census after its independence

A) Fifth B) Sixth C) Seventh D) Eighth

Question No. : 13

The basic principle of Gandhian economy was

A) State Control B) Trusteeship C) Competition D) Rural Co-operation

Question No. : 14

The ISRO has developed a "Flood Hazard Atlas" by mapping flood prone and vulnerable areas in which state?

A) Kerala B) Maharashtra C) Assam D) Tripura

Question No. : 15

The recently announced Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana aims to boost?

A) Organic Farming B) Drip Irrigation C) Horticulture crops D) Vegetable Production

Question No. : 16

The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act” was enacted in

A) 1986 B) 1956 C) 2013 D) 2012

Question No. : 17

Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) in collaboration with the Union Bank of India and the National payment Corporation of
India has launched RuPay pre-paid debit card service. The maximum loading limit of these cards with partial KYC is ________.

A) Rs. 1,00,000/- B) Rs. 10,000/- C) Rs. 15,000/- D) Rs. 50,000/- E) Rs. 25,000/-

Question No. : 18

Country First E-ration card has been launched in ____________.

A) Maharashtra B) Rajasthan C) Delhi D) Gujarat E) Tamil Nadu

Question No. : 19

Saakshar Bharat Mission is concerned with

A) National Mission for Female Literacy B) National Mission for Male Literacy C) National Mission for Adult Literacy
D) National Mission for Children's Literacy

Question No. : 20
e-KYC is possible only for those who have

A) PAN number B) Driving License C) Other than those given as options D) Aadhaar Number E) Ration card
106

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 02


Question No. : 21

What is the percentage of India's population to the world population?

A) 6 percent B) 16 percent C) 26 percent D) 36 percent

Question No. : 22

Which state recently launched Farmers Debt Redemption Scheme to help farmers?

A) Telangana B) Tamil Nadu C) Odisha D) Andhra Pradesh

Question No. : 23

In November, 2014 Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi flagged off first passenger train from

A) Nagaland B) Meghalaya C) Arunachal Pradesh D) Tripura

Question No. : 24

Which of the following is an employment generating programme of Govt. of India?

A) MGNREGA B) NRHM C) Bharat Nirman D) Pulse Polio

Question No. : 25

The proposed Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (MUDRA Bank) will have a Credit Guarantee corpus of____________

A) Rs. 15,000crore B) Rs. 10,000crore C) Rs. 3,000crore D) Rs. 20,000crore E) Rs. 5,000crore

Question No. : 26

Under the Sukanya Samridhi Yojana (SSN), the interest is payable by the Bank at the rate of_______

A) 8% B) 7% C) 8.5% D) 8.9% E) 9.1%

Question No. : 27

The 'PMJDY' launched by the Government of India is a massive

A) Tribal Welfare Programme B) Financial Literacy Programme C) Infrastructure Development Programme


D) Financial Inclusion Programme E) Social Security Programme

Question No. : 28

Which of the following institutes presided over by the Union Minister of Agriculture is an autonomous body responsible for
coordinating agricultural education and research in India?

A) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) B) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)
C) Indian Institute of Agriculture Research and Education (MARE) D) Institute of Agricultural Research in India [IARI)
E) Indian Council of Agriculture Research and Education (ICARE)

Question No. : 29

Which of the following is a Social Development programme launched by the Government of India for school children?

A) Bharat Nirman B) ASHA C) Kutir Jyoti D) Mid Day Meal Scheme

Question No. : 30

Advance ticket booking facility for railway passengers is available _______ days before the start of the journey

A) 60 B) 90 C) 120 D) None of these


107

GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 02


Question No. : 31

Approximately what percentage of Indian population is living below poverty line as announced by the government?

A) 21.9% B) 26% C) 32% D) 36%

Question No. : 32

Which of the following schemes aims at tackling malnutrition and health problems of children below the age of 6 years and
their members?

A) Kasturba Gandhi Shishu sangopan yojana B) Kishore vaigyanic yojana C) Janani suraksha yojana
D) Other than those given as options E) Integrated child development services

Question No. : 33

The Central government plans to launch a 'Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan,' or 'National Innovation Mission' to inculcate a desire for
__________.

A) Society oriented learning B) Enquiry-based learning C) Job oriented learning D) Employment oriented learning
E) Academics oriented learning

Question No. : 34

What is the time span of twelfth five-year plan?

A) 1st April 2010 to 31st March 2015 B) 1st April 2011 to 31st March 2016 C) 1st April 2012 to 31st March 2017
D) 1st April 2013 to 31st March 2018 

Question No. : 35

Which is Sarva Shiksha Abhivan?

A) It is a scheme under which elementary education is to be provided to all children below the age of 14. 
B) It is a scheme under which elementary education is to be provided to all children between the age of 6 to 14. 
C) It is a scheme that provides for free and compulsory education to all including illiterate adults
D) It is a scheme particularly aims to educate illiterate adults 

Question No. : 36

Which of the following aims at providing branchless banking through the use of technology?

A) Swabhiman B) Swayam Sidha C) Swalamban D) E-banking

Question No. : 37

What is the targeted literacy rate by the end of the 12th Plan ?

A) 70% B) 80% C) 65% D) 75%

Question No. : 38

What is the purpose of the India Brand Equity Fund?

A) To organise trade fairs B) To promote in-bound tourism C) To make 'Made in India' a label of quality
D) To provide venture capital to IT sector

Question No. : 39

Which of the following Programmes is a inclusion programme recently launched by the government of _________

A) PMAGY B) PMEGP C) PMSSY D) PMJDY E) PMGSY


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Question No. : 40

 
Which of the following was NOT an objective of the Antyodaya Anna Yojana introduced in 2000 in India?
 
 

A) to ensure food security for all B) to create more employment C) to create a hunger free India
D) to reform and improve the public distribution system E) to serve the poorest of the poor in rural and urban India
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GK Govt. Schemes & Policy Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option

Question No. : 1

Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls which aims at enhancing the nutritional and economic status of
adolescent girls has been named as

A) POSHAN B) SABLA C) LAKSHMI D) YUVIKA

Question No. : 2

Saakshar Bharat Mission is concerned with

A) National Mission for Female Literacy B) National Mission for Male Literacy C) National Mission for Adult Literacy
D) National Mission for Children's Literacy

Question No. : 3

In which year was the Family Planning Programme started in India?

A) 1950 B) 1951 C) 1952 D) 1955

Question No. : 4

Farmers in India are covered by some welfare schemes. Which of the following is the name of one of them?

A) Swasthya Bima Yojana B) Varsha Bima Yojana C) National Pension Scheme for unorganized sector
D) Food for Work Scheme

Question No. : 5

One of modern India's biggest schemes - the Unique Identification Number has been named as

A) Aadhar B) Prarambh C) Sweekar D) Uphaar

Question No. : 6

"Swayamsidha" is a scheme launched by the Government of India to help

A) School Children only B) Health workers only C) Senior citizen without any regular income D) Women only

Question No. : 7

Mark the correct match of Public Programmes with the Ministry:


 
Public Programmes Ministry of
a. MNREGS i. Rural Development
b. JNNURM ii. Panchayati Raj
C. RHM iii. Urban Development
d. IAY iv. Health & Family Welfare

A) a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv B) a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-iii C) a-i; b-iv; c-iii; d-ii D) a-ii; b-iii; c-iv; d-i

Question No. : 8

Who was appointed as the Chairman of the National Innovation Council in August 2010?

A) Shashi Tharoor B) Chetan Bhagat C) Arindam Chaudhury D) Sam Pitroda


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Question No. : 9

Which of the following schemes provides a guaranteed 100 days employment to those who wish to take up manual jobs?

A) Training of rural youth for Self Employment B) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
C) Bharat Nirman D) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana    E) All of these

Question No. : 10

Which of the following schemes/systems is operated to provide food grains and other essentials to poor people from fair price
shops?

A) Public Distribution System B) Mid Day Meal Scheme C) Food for work D) Kutir Jyoti E) ASHA

Question No. : 11

Govt. of India has launched which of the following schemes to provide safe water supply to the rural areas in India?

A) Water shed Development Programme B) Nirmal Gram Swaraj Yojana C) Swajaldhara


D) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Yojana E) Kutir Jyoti Scheme

Question No. : 12

Which of the following is a Social Welfare scheme launched by the Govt. of India ?

A) Bharat Nirman B) Look East Policy C) Mid-Day Meal Scheme D) National Highway Development Scheme
E) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

Question No. : 13

What is the full form of abbreviation 'SEWA'?

A) Self Employed Women's Association  B) Self Employed Workers’ Association C) Self Empowered Women's Association
D) State Energy Workers' Association E) Safe Energy, Water and Air

Question No. : 14

Which of the following schemes is launched to make cities and metros slum free?

A) Indira Awas Yojana B) Rajiv Awas Yojana C) Interest Subsidy scheme for Housing the Urban Poor
D) Basic Services to Urban Poor E) All of these

Question No. : 15

Who among the following gave the concept of Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Areas (PURA)?

A) Mrs. Indira Gandhi B) Mr.Sam Pitroda C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam D) Dr. M.S.Swaminathan E) Dr.M.S.Ahluwalia

Question No. : 16

Which of the following schemes is launched to provide pension facility to the workers in the  unorganized sector?

A) Parivartan B) Swavalamban C) Arogya Nidhi D) USHA E) ASHA

Question No. : 17

Which of the following is associated with Health Schemes launched by the Govt. of India ?

A) ASHA B) Kutir Jyoti C) Aadhar D) Subhjivan E) None of these


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Question No. : 18

Bharat Nirman is a development plan for rural infrastructure, undertaken by the Government of India since 2005. Which of the
following programmes come/s under   this plan ?
 
A. MGNREGS  B. Right to Education   C. Right to Information

A) A & B B) B only C) A only D) A, B & C

Question No. : 19

The "National Rural Livelihood Mission" (NRLM) scheme launched by the Government of India for national poverty reduction, is
run by which of the following ministries of the Central Government ?

A) Rural Development B) Tribal Welfare C) Human Resource Development D) Youth Welfare

Question No. : 20

The Govt. of India launched the Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission in __________,

A) 2002 B) 2005 C) 2007 D) 2010

Question No. : 21

Which of the following schemes has been launched by the Govt. of India to motivate school children to attend school regularly?

A) Kutir Jyoti B) Mid-Day Meal C) MNREGA D) RAY E) Bharat Nirman

Question No. : 22

'Nirmal Gram Puraskar' is an incentive to promote

A) Good attendance in schools B) Total sanitation in villages C) Free and compulsory education
D) Awareness towards women empowerment E) All of these

Question No. : 23

Which of the following schemes is/are NOT launched as employment generation scheme ?

A) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme B) Mid Day Meal Scheme C) Food for Work scheme
D) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana E) Sampooma Grameen Rozgar Yojana

Question No. : 24

World Development Report (1986) says there should be "access to all people at all times to enough food for an active healthy
life." This is known as the concept of

A) Food Preservation B) Food Production C) Food Distribution System D) Food Security E) Crop Management

Question No. : 25

Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) is the national insurance programme targeting which of the following groups of people
?

A) People residing in rural areas only B) People living below poverty line C) People residing in urban slums
D) Women in micro and small enterprises E) Construction worker and casual labour

Question No. : 26

Which of the following schemes is launched for empowerment of adolescent girls in India ?

A) Kutir Jyoti B) Sabla C) SEWA D) Prerna E) Aastha


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Question No. : 27

Which of the following schemes is launched by the Govt. of India with the aim of increasing self reliance and autonomy of
women by providing wage employment or self employment ?

A) Priyadarshini B) IFAD C) STEP D) Aadhaar E) NMEW

Question No. : 28

Which of the following statements is not true about Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana launched by the Govt. of India?

A) This scheme is only for children up to 14 years of age B) Scheme was launched in 2008
C) It provides for cashless insurance of poor for hospitalization in public as well private hospitals
D) The scheme is run on shared financial contribution by both central and state governments E) None of these.

Question No. : 29

Which of the following schemes/programmes is launched to develop rural infrastructure in India ?

A) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act B) Bharat Nirman C) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
D) Total Sanitation Campaign E) Indira Awas Yojana

Question No. : 30

Which is the highest civilian award in India ?

A) Padam Shri B) Padam Bhushan C) Padam Vibhushan D) Bharat Ratna E) None of these

Question No. : 31

Which of the following is a financial inclusion plan?

A) Bharat Nirman B) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan C) Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana D) MGNREGS E) Jan Dhan Yojana

Question No. : 32

The IGMSY' is a scheme for the welfare of people. Who amongst the following will benefit from the scheme ?
 

A) Mothers and pregnant women B) Children upto 12 years of age. C) Youth D) Old and Senior Citizens
E) All the above

Question No. : 33

The Govt. of India provides direct financial support to which of the following schemes ?

A) Jeevan Bharati Scheme B) ULIP C) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana D) Packing Credit Guarantee Scheme
E) All of the above

Question No. : 34

National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) was launched in:

A) 2005 B) 2008 C) 2006 D) 2007

Question No. : 35

As we all know child labour is totally banned in India. As per the "Child labour prohibition & Regulation Act", 'Child' means a
person who has not completed

A) 18 years of his/her age B) 16 years of his/her age C) 14 years of his/her age D) 20 years of his/her age
E) 21 years of his/her age
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Question No. : 36
Which committee was appointed by RBI to provide recommendations on financial services for small businesses and low income households in the year
2013?

A) Nachiket Mor Committee B) Bimal Jalan Committee C) Tarapore Committee D) Damodaran Committee

Question No. : 37

Rasthtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was launched to provide insurance cover to:

A) People living Below Poverty Line (BPL) in unorganized sector.


B) Women staying in Women Hostels and are widowed divorced or without children
C) All the employees in public sector units having income of 3 lakh per year or less than that
D) All medical practitioner posted in rural areas E) None of these

Question No. : 38

Under the Right to Information Act, the information sought must be supplied to the applicant within

A) 30 days B) 90 days C) 45 days D) 60 days E) 65 days

Question No. : 39

“Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana” is a nation wide mission to promote ……………

A) Financial Inclusion B) Wealth Accumulation C) Financial Hoarding D) Wealth Concentration E) None of these

Question No. : 40

The recently launched ‘Deen Dayal Upadhayaya Gramin Kaushalya Yojana (DDUGKY) has  set the robust target of training a
million rural youths by …………

A) 2016 B) 2016 C) 2017 D) 2020 E) None of these


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DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


 
Question No. : 1

Which amongst the following nations is not a member of the SAARC?

A) Bangladesh B) Nepal C) Bhutan D) South Africa

Question No. : 2

India is a member of which of the following?

A) Asian Development Bank B) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
C) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation D) None of these

Question No. : 3

The U.N.O. Security Council has permanent members numbering

A) 6 B) 8 C) 5 D) 4

Question No. : 4

Which of the following is not a SAARC country?

A) Afghanistan B) Myanmar C) Maldives D) Bhutan

Question No. : 5

Out of the following name the country which is not a permanent member of the Security Council?

A) U.S.A. B) U.K. C) Russia D) India

Question No. : 6

The headquarters of the International Court of Justice is at

A) The Hague B) New York C) Geneva D) Paris

Question No. : 7

The International Labour Organization was established in

A) 1942 B) 1927 C) 1919 D) 1930

Question No. : 8

Which of the following organizations mainly promotes the industries in Micro, Small & Medium industrial sectors in India?

A) NABARD B) SIDBI C) IDBI Bank D) EXIM Bank

Question No. : 9

Which of the following nations is a member of G-8?

A) New Zeland B) Libya C) China D) Canada

Question No. : 10

Which of the following is NOT a government-sponsored organization ?

A) Small Industries Development Bank of India B) NABARD C) National Housing Bank D) ICICI Bank
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GK Int. & National Org Test 01


Question No. : 11

The Headquarters of UNESCO is at

A) Paris B) Geneva C) Hague D) Washington

Question No. : 12

Which organ of the UNO is considered as the World Parliament ?

A) General Assembly B) International Court of Justice C) Security Council D) Trusteeship Council

Question No. : 13

 
The nuclear security summit aimed at strengthening national measures on protecting nuclear material and combating their
trafficking was held in

A) Pans B) New York C) Washington D) Geneva

Question No. : 14

Which of the following countries is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)?

A) Russia B) USA C) France D) Iran

Question No. : 15

What does “S” denotes in the ‘BRICS’?

A) South Korea B) Venezuela C) South Africa D) Malaysia

Question No. : 16

The first woman Secretary General of SAARC is from which country?

A) Maldives B) Bhutan C) Sri Lanka D) India

Question No. : 17

Which among the following is also known as a Pacific Rim Trade Group ?

A) Marcosur B) ASEAN C) APEC D) OPEC

Question No. : 18

As per news reports in various newspapers and journals, ‘IAEA’ Governors approved the safety plan, so that it can be
implemented by all the countries, willing to adopt it. IAEA is an agency/organization working in the area of:

A) Nuclear Energy B) World Trade C) International Banking D) Defence E) Social Welfare

Question No. : 19

Who among the following represented India in 17th SAARC Summit held at Addu in Maldives in November 2011 ?

A) Smt. Sonia Gandhi B) Dr. Manmohan Singh C) Shri Pranab Mukherjee D) Shri P Chidambaram
E) Shri Rahul Gandhi

Question No. : 20

India and Pakistan started fresh talks on conventional CBM – was the news in all major newspapers. What does the letter ‘M’
denote in the term’CBM’ as used above?

A) Money B) Mechanism C) Modalities D) Measures E) Memorial


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Question No. : 21

Which of the following is NOT a financial institution/agency ?

A) IRDA B) BCCI C) FPSB D) SEBI E) CAG

Question No. : 22

Which of the following organizations/bodies formulates the rule of international trade among / between the nations?

A) World Trade Organisation B) Asian Development Bank C) International Monetary Fund D) World Bank
E) United Nations Development Programme

Question No. : 23

Which of the following organisation/agencies is specifically set up to boost overall rural development in India?

A) RBI B) SIDBI C) NABARD D) SEBI E) EXIM

Question No. : 24

UNESCO is an organization working in the field of_________

A) Social Welfare B) Protecting interest of prisoners of war C) Framing international laws


D) International collaboration through education, culture and science. E) Protecting children's right

Question No. : 25

Which of the following is a Member of G-8 ?

A) India B) Pakistan C) Afghanistan D) Nepal E) Italy

Question No. : 26

Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of Municipal schools through
its School Excellence Programmes (SEP)?

A) IMF B) UNDP C) UNICEF D) ADB E) None of these

Question No. : 27

Choose the correct statement:

A) India has a veto power in UNO B) India is one of the developed countries C) India is one of the developing countries
D) Veto power is vested in the USA only, therefore it is known as one of the superpowers

Question No. : 28

The seat of International Criminal Court is at

A) The Hague B) Geneva C) Washington D) Tokyo

Question No. : 29

When was SAARC formed?

A) November, 1984 B) December, 1985 C) December, 1986 D) March, 1989

Question No. : 30

NASA is the space agency of

A) The UK B) Indonesia C) France D) The USA E) Iran


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DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 31

The economically diverse region of MENA nations refers to the countries in

A) Middle East and North African Countries B) Middle East and North American Countries
C) Mediterranean Europe and North Atlantic Countries D) None of the above

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 32

Which city houses the headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?

A) Tokyo (Japan) B) Vienna (Austria) C) Geneva (Switzerland) D) New York (USA) E) Brussels (Belgium)

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 33

United States Atomic Energy Act 1954 establishes an agreement of cooperation as a prerequisite for nuclear deals between US
and any other nation. Such an agreement is popularly known as _______.

A) Agreement of Cooperation B) 123'Agreement C) PL 480 D) A to Z Agreement E) Nuclear Deal

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 34

Who among the following former Indian cricketers has become the brand ambassador for the National Tobacco Control
Campaign of the Government of India?

A) Saurav Ganguly B) Anil Kumble C) Rahul Dravid D) Md. Azharuddin

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 35

The Ufa city, where annual BRICS summit-2015 is scheduled to be held is in which country?

A) China B) Russia C) South Africa D) Brazil

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 36

India has been a member of the United Nations since________.

A) 1945 B) 1946 C) 1947 D) 1951

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 37

Presently, who is the President of the World Bank?

A) Ban Ki-moon B) Jim Yong Kim C) Kofi Annan D) Axel van Trotsenburg
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DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 38

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is expected to be operational by the end of 2015 and its headquarters will be
located at

A) Beijing B) Tokyo C) Seol D) Dubai

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 39

The abbreviation 'PLA' stands for _______

A) Private Liberation Army B) People's Liberation Armed Force C) Public Liberation Army D) People's Liberation Army
E) People's Liberty Army

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 40

The abbreviation 'FCAT stands for _________

A) Film Censorship Appellate Tribunal B) Film Censorship Appellate Trust C) Film Certification Appellate Tribunal
D) Film Certification Administrative Tribunal E) Film Certification Appellate Trial
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GK Int. & National Org Test 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Which of the countries represent letter 'C' in the category known as BRIC countries?

A) Canada B) Cuba C) Chile D) China

Question No. : 2

Which of the following statement (s) about BRICS Summit 2014 is/are correct?
 
A. The BRICS Summit was held in Brazil
 
B. A decision to start a New Development Bank was taken.
 
C. South Africa was admitted at the summit as a new member of the grouping.
 

A) A Only B) B and C C) A, B and C D) A, B E) B, C and D

Question No. : 3

Christian Lagarde heads the

A) World Bank B) UNICEF C) International Monetary Fund D) WHO

Question No. : 4

The UN’s global body for accessing and spreading scientific knowledge on climate change is

A) UNESCO B) IPCC C) WHO D) UNICEF

Question No. : 5

When did Pakistan become a member of the UN?

A) 1948 B) 1947 C) 1950 D) 1951

Question No. : 6

The Headquarters of the European Union is in

A) Brussels B) Helsinki C) Paris D) Rome

Question No. : 7

Which of the following days was proclaimed as “International Literacy Day” by UNESCO?

A) 8th September B) 18th September C) 18th October D) 8th October

Question No. : 8

Which of the following nations is 'not' a member of SAARC?

A) Nepal B) Mauritius C) Bhutan D) Afghanistan E) Maldives

Question No. : 9

‘IAEA’ is an organization which functions in the area of

A) Prevention of Money Laundering B) Control of Foreign Direct Investment C) Nuclear Energy D) World Trade
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Question No. : 10

Which of the following is not a member of North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)?

A) Italy B) Germany C) USA D) India

Question No. : 11

The headquarters of World Health Organisation is in

A) New York B) Paris C) Geneva D) Nairobi

Question No. : 12

Which of the following organisations keeps a check on prices of essential commodities ?

A) Indian Bureau of Standards B) MRTP Commission C) Merchants Chamber of Commerce


D) Ministry of Food and Civil Supplies

Question No. : 13

Who has been elected as the 9th President of the International Olympic Committee (IOC)?

A) Thomas Bach B) Juan Antonio Samaranch C) Jacques Rogge D) Michael Morris

Question No. : 14

UNDP reports publishes every year the Human Development Index. Which of the following is not a criteria used to measure the
Human Development Index?

A) Health B) Education C) Living Standards D) Human Rights

Question No. : 15

Match the international Organization-Location-Country


 
International Organization Location Country
a. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) i. Lyons 1. Austria
b. World Wild Life fund (WWF) ii. Vienna 2. Switzerland
c. Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
iii. Gland 3. France
(OPEC)
d. International Police (INTERPOLE) iv. Brussels 4. Belgium
 
 

A) a-iii-2, b-iv-4, c-i-3, d-ii-1 B) a-iv-4, b-iii-2, c-ii,1, d-i-3 C) a-ii-4, b-iv-3,c-iii-1,d-i-2 D) a-i-4, b-iii-1, c-ii-3, d-iv-2

Question No. : 16

Which of the following UN agencies/organizations is associated with the welfare of children worldwide?

A) UNESCO B) UNICEF C) ILO D) UNCTAD E) UNIDO

Question No. : 17

WTO replaced 'GATT' in

A) 1990 B) 1997 C) 1989 D) 2001 E) 1995

Question No. : 18

Which of the following is the name of an autonomous organization for rural technology ?

A) CAPART B) MGNREGA C) PURA D) IRDP E) NGAPS


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Question No. : 19

The UNO was founded in which year?

A) 1950 B) 1947 C) 1948 D) 1945

Question No. : 20

USA and some other European coutries had imposed fresh sanctions on which of the following countries as they are not in
favour of its nuclear advancement?

A) Iraq B) Pakistan C) India D) Iran E) Kuwait

Question No. : 21

The United Nations Organisation has declared certain Millennium Development Goals. These goals are to be achieved by the
year

A) 2013 B) 2014 C) 2015 D) 2016 E) 2020

Question No. : 22

The headquarters of World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is located in

A) Paris B) Geneva C) Madrid D) New York

Question No. : 23

Compilation of data on industrial production in India is done by which of the following agencies / organizations?

A) National Testing Lab B) Reserve Bank of India C) Census Commission of India D) Planning Commission of India
E) Central Statistics Office

Question No. : 24

Which of the following countries is a Member of G-8?

A) Iran B) Turkev C) France D) Brazil E) China

Question No. : 25

Which of the following is NOT a member of BRICS ?

A) Brazil B) Russia C) Iran D) China E) South Africa

Question No. : 26

In which one of the following countries was the recent meet of G-20 Countries organized?

A) Japan B) Turkey C) India D) England E) China

Question No. : 27

The headquarters of International Labour Organisation (ILO) is situated, in

A) Paris B) New York C) Vienna D) Geneva

Question No. : 28

The headquarter of IMF is in

A) New York B) Washington DC C) London D) Manila

Question No. : 29

The Permanent Secretariat of SAARC is in:

A) Islamabad B) New Delhi C) Kathmandu D) Colombo


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Question No. : 30

Where was 16th NAM Summit held?

A) Tehran B) Mehran C) Turban D) Bagdad

Question No. : 31

Which two institutions are popularly referred to as the 'Bretton Woods Twins?

A) International Monetary Fund and World Bank B) World Bank and Asian Development Bank
C) Asian Development Bank and International Monetary Fund D) United Nations and World Trade Organisation

Question No. : 32

The G-7 is a group consisting of:

A) the heads of the states of US, UK, France, Germany, Italy, Canada and Japan
B) the finance ministers of US, UK, France, Germany, Italy, Canada and Japan
C) the heads of the states of US, UK, France, Germany, Russia, Canada and Japan
D) the finance ministers of US, UK, France, Germany, Russia, Canada and Japan
E) the heads of the states of US, UK, France, Germany, Russia, Italy and Japan

Question No. : 33

The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) is headquartered in

A) Camp David, Maryland USA B) Geneva C) Brussels D) Sweden E) New York 


 

Question No. : 34

ISRO stands for

A) International Scientific Research Organisation B) Indian Salt Research Organisation


C) Indian Space Research Organisation D) International Space Research Organisation

Question No. : 35

Indian Space Research Organization(ISRO) will recently conferred 'Space Pioneer Award' by the National Space Society(NSS) of
which country over the historic feat on successfully sending an orbit to Martian atmosphere in its very first attempt?

A) France B) European Union C) China D) USA

Question No. : 36

There are _______members of SAARC?

A) 5 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8

Question No. : 37

Which one of the following countries is not a member of the European Union?

A) Austria B) Estonia C) Slovakia D) Serbia

Question No. : 38

Who is the Chief financial officer of search engine giant Google?

A) Vikram Pandit B) Patrick Pichelte C) None of these D) Ruth Porat


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GK Int. & National Org Test 02


Question No. : 39

'Renminbi' is the currency of the _______

A) People's republic of China B) People's republic of bulgaria C) People's republic of Korea


D) People's Republic of Ethiopia E) People's Republic of Bangladesh

Question No. : 40

Mr. Robert Mugabe, who has recently ascended to the rotating chairmanship of the African Union is the president of _________

A) central African Republic B) Republic of Kenya C) Republic of Zimbabwe D) Republic of Uganda


E) Democratic Republic of Congo
124

GK Int. & National Org Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Which of the following countries is not a part of G-7?

A) Germany B) Russia C) United Kingdom D) France

Question No. : 2

The World Health Organization is based in

A) Geneva B) Paris C) Rome D) New York

Question No. : 3

The Kyoto Protocol pertains to

A) banning the hunting of whales B) reducing greenhouse gas emissions C) securing the release of circus animals
D) disallowing civilian airports for military use

Question No. : 4

Irina Bokova is currently the head of –

A) UNESCO B) WHO C) ILO D) UNICEF

Question No. : 5

The non-permanent members of the UN Security Council are elected for a period of

A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 3 years D) 4 years

Question No. : 6

The Headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency is in

A) Geneva B) Paris C) Vienna D) Washington

Question No. : 7

Which of the following countries is NOT a member of ASEAN?

A) Thailand B) Myanmar C) Singapore D) Brazil

Question No. : 8

TRIPS, TRIMS, EMR --- all these terms are relevant to

A) World Trade Organization B) International Union For Climate Change C) World Health Organization D) The Internet

Question No. : 9

Which of the following is the abbreviated name of an organization working for women's welfare?

A) CII B) CIC C) SEWA D) CRY

Question No. : 10

OPEC is a group of countries which

A) Export Oil B) Produce Cotton C) Are members of G-20 D) Are developing and poor

Question No. : 11

The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is located at which of the following places ?

A) Vienna B) Paris C) Rome D) Geneva


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GK Int. & National Org Test 03


Question No. : 12

The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), which has the potential to become a powerful economic lobby of the developing world,
presently has how many members?

A) 98 B) 108 C) 120 D) 128

Question No. : 13

Which one of the following is not a member of ASEAN?

A) Cambodia B) Malaysia C) Singapore D) South Korea

Question No. : 14

Which of the following is not a member of SAARC?

A) Bhutan B) Bangladesh C) Burma D) Maldives

Question No. : 15

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change meeting of 2010 December was held in which of the following
places?

A) Colorado B) Canberra C) Cancun D) None of the above

Question No. : 16

'Freedom House' is an organization which works in the area of:

A) Human Rights B) Political Asylum C) Child Welfare D) Managing Refugee Camps E) Protection from AIDS

Question No. : 17

Which of the following organizations is associated with women empowerment ?

A) SEWA B) ASHA C) AKSHARA Foundation D) ERY E) None of these

Question No. : 18

Which of the following countries is NOT a member of ASEAN ?

A) Thailand B) Myanmar C) Singapore D) Vietnam E) Brazil

Question No. : 19

Ms Christine Lagarde is holding which of the following positions at present?

A) Chief of Asian Development Bank B) Chief of International Monetary Fund C) Chancellor of Germany
D) Chief of Morgan Stanley E) Chief of World Bank

Question No. : 20

Who among the following was elected unanimously as the Secretary General of the UNO for the second term ?

A) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf B) John Lagarde C) Hillary linton D) Jacob Mathew E) Ban-Ki moon

Question No. : 21

Human Development Report is published by which of the following organizations/agencies ?

A) WTO B) UNDP C) Food Foundation D) ILO E) UNESCO


126

GK Int. & National Org Test 03


Question No. : 22

What is the full form of the name 'ILO', an agency of the United Nations ?

A) International Labour Organisation B) International Legal Organisation C) Indian Labour Organisation


D) Indian Lawyer's Organisation E) Information & Legal Organisation

Question No. : 23

The Head Quarters of the World Bank is located in_________

A) London B) Paris C) New York D) Tokyo E) Washington D. C.

Question No. : 24

ISI is the intelligence agency of

A) United Kingdom B) United States of America C) Israel D) Pakistan E) India

Question No. : 25

Which of the following organizations recently celebrated Silver Jubilee Year (25th Year) of its establishment ?

A) ASEAN B) G-20 C) Common Wealth D) NATO E) SAARC

Question No. : 26

Which UN body deals with population problem?

A) UNFPA B) UNDP C) UNICEF D) UNESCO

Question No. : 27

The summit of BRICS 2014 was held in?

A) India B) China C) Brazil D) Russia

Question No. : 28

Which agency is the watchdog of international trade?

A) World Bank B) WTO C) IMF D) ILO

Question No. : 29

The five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are

A) Canada, China, France, USA., UK B) China, France, Russia, U.S.A., UK C) Japan, Germany, Russia, U.S.A., UK
D) Germany, China, Russia, U.S.A., UK E) None of these

Question No. : 30

Which global organization was founded in the Treaty of Versailles and sought to guarantee global peace through "collective
security"?

A) SEATO B) United Nations C) League of Nations D) Freedom House

Question No. : 31

India signed the Kyoto Protocol in the year:

A) 2000 B) 1998 C) 2002 D) 1995


127

GK Int. & National Org Test 03


Question No. : 32

In addition to India and China, ........ are also members of the 'BRICS' grouping.

A) Bangladesh, Russia and Sri Lanka B) Belgium, Romania and South Africa C) Belgium, Russia and Saudi Arabia
D) Brazil, Russia and South Africa E) Bhutan, Russia and Sri Lanka

Question No. : 33

The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations concerned with international public health.
It is headquartered in

A) Sweden B) Switzerland C) United Kingdom D) France E) Germany

Question No. : 34

The headquarters of the Organization of Peteroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is at

A) Lagos B) Algiers C) Kuwait D) Vienna

Question No. : 35

Head quarters of International Labour Organisation are situated at

A) Geneva B) New York C) Washington D) Paris

Question No. : 36

Secretary General SAARC Ahmed Saleem belongs to?

A) Pakistan B) India C) Maldives D) Bhutan

Question No. : 37

Who among the following is currently the Chairman of ISRO?

A) R.K. Sinha B) Shekhar Basu C) K Radhakrishnan D) A.S. Kiran Kumar

Question No. : 38

The United Nations Children Funds (UNICEF) is a united nations program that provides humanitarian and development
assistance to children and mothers in developing countries. Its headquarters in

A) Geneva, Switzerland B) Paris, France C) Vienna, Austria D) New York, USA E) Rome, Italy

Question No. : 39

The 'Asian News International (ANI) is a news agency based in

A) Singapore B) New Delhi, India C) Rawalpindi, Pakistan D) Tokyo, Japan E) Beijing, China

Question No. : 40
The headquarters of the World Bank (WB) is situated at

A) Montreal, Canada B) Washington, D.C, U.S.A C) Geneva, Switzerland D) Madrid, Spain E) Other than those given as options
128

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 01

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option.

Question No. : 1

What is the full from of iPod?

A) Portable digital radio B) Pocket digital radio C) Portable decoder recording D) Pocket digital recorder

Question No. : 2

 
Which of the following is NOT a Green House Gas?

A) Carbon Dioxide B) Carbon Mono Oxide C) Methane D) Nitrous Oxide E) Carbon hexafluoride

Question No. : 3

 
Which of the following is NOT a disease under surveillance target?

A) Tuberculosis B) Cholera C) Typhoid D) Plague E) Cancer

Question No. : 4

 
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of Vitamin

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) None of these

Question No. : 5

Thalassemia is

A) due to nutrient deficiency B) a genetic disorder C) due to heavy metal toxicity D) caused by parasitic fungi

Question No. : 6

What level of noise is considered permissible in human habitats?

A) Upto 50 decibels B) Less than 40 decibels C) Upto 30 decibels D) Less than 20 decibels

Question No. : 7

Internet is controlled by

A) The U.S.A. B) The U.K. C) Switzerland D) None of the above

Question No. : 8

The point on the Earth which bears the brunt of an earthquake is called the

A) Epicentre B) Epipoint C) Seismic Focus D) Epifocus

Question No. : 9

Which of the following pairs is incorrect?

A) Pasteur : Bacteriology B) Newton : Law of Gravitation C) Roentgen : X-rays D) Faraday : Diffusion of gases

Question No. : 10

The only metal, which exists in a free state, is

A) Silver B) Sodium C) Gold D) Uranium


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GK Sci. & Tech. Test 01


Question No. : 11

A test-tube baby is best described as a baby

A) Created in a test-tube in the laboratory B) Fertilized in the laboratory and transplanted to the womb later
C) Fertilized in the body and developed outside D) None of these

Question No. : 12

The most commonly used gas in filling bulbs is Nitrogen. This is widely used for this purpose because

A) It is easily available B) It is chemically inactive C) It is cheap D) None of these

Question No. : 13

Technically speaking, a whale is a

A) Fish B) Reptile C) Mammal D) Coelenterate

Question No. : 14

The smallest particle of matter, which exists independently and can take part in chemical reactions, is called

A) Atom B) Ion C) Radical D) Molecule

Question No. : 15

India's first satellite 'Aryabhata' was launched by

A) America B) Erstwhile Soviet Union C) India D) France

Question No. : 16

Which of the following is NOT  a cyber-crime?

A) We-mailing B) Phishing C) Vishing D) Hacking

Question No. : 17

A fully-grown human adult has __________ bones in the body.

A) 212 B) 209 C) 206 D) 208

Question No. : 18

Which of the following contributes most to the “Greenhouse effect”?

A) Nitrogen B) Methane C) Carbon Dioxide D) Oxygen

Question No. : 19

The common lead pencils are made of

A) Lead B) Charcoal C) Asphalt D) Graphite

Question No. : 20

Which of the following is a computer term?

A) ROM B) SVP C) TNT     D) NTP

Question No. : 21

The rear-view mirror used in two-wheelers is

A) Concave B) Convex C) Concavo-convex D) Cylinderical


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GK Sci. & Tech. Test 01


Question No. : 22

Which of the following is NOT a compound?

A) Water B) Marsh Gas C) Air D) Dry Ice

Question No. : 23

The energy conversions in a megaphone (loudspeaker) are from

A)  Sound to mechanical to electrical B) Electrical to mechanical to sound C) Sound to electrical to sound


D) None of these

Question No. : 24

A kilobyte contains

A) 1000 bytes B) 1048 bytes C) 1024 bytes D) 1056 bytes

Question No. : 25

Water pipes can burst in the winters due to

A) Low temperature B) Condensation    C) Expansion D) Both 1 and 3

Question No. : 26

Which among are known as the scavengers of the earth?

A) Bacteria and fungi B) Insects C) Viruses D) Birds     

Question No. : 27

Who among the follwoing was a relative of Newton and is credited with developing the first-ever intelligence test?

A) Galton B) Kepler C) Descartes D) Copernicus

Question No. : 28

The pH value of a soil measures its

A) Fertility rate B) Iron and lime content C) Water retention D) Acid content

Question No. : 29

Which hormone is responsible for the fight-or-flight response of the body in emergency situations?

A) Thyroid gland B) Insulin C) Adrenaline D) Testosterone

Question No. : 30

The most common metal in the earth’s crust is

A) Copper B) Iron C) Aluminium D) Silicon

Question No. : 31

India’s atomic research programme was spearheaded by

A) CV Raman B) Meghnad Saha C) Raja Ramanna D) Homi J. Bhabha

Question No. : 32

Galvanized iron sheets are coated with

A) Zinc B) Chromium C) Copper D) Strontium


131

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 01


Question No. : 33

Which of the following is a warm-blooded animal?

A) Frog B) Fish C) Crocodile D) Pigeon

Question No. : 34

Ventilators are always provided near the ceiling of a room because

A) It is a convention to do so B) Hot air rises above and leaves through them C) They bring in fresh air
D) The ceiling of a room is the hottest part of it

Question No. : 35

The actual spot where the exchange of gases takes place in the lungs is the

A) Bronchi B) Trachea C) Alveoli D) Diaphragm

Question No. : 36

The nib of good quality fountain pens is usually made of

A) Stainless Steel B) Chromium C) Nichrome D) Tungsten

Question No. : 37

The marble used in buildings is basically

A) Hydrated Calcium Sulphate B) Calcium Hydroxide C) Calcium Carbonate D) Sodium Bicarbonate

Question No. : 38

The hardest substance available on the earth is

A) Gold B) Iron C) Diamond D) Platinum

Question No. : 39

The lightest substance known so far is

A) Air B) Hydrogen C) Helium D) Oxygen

Question No. : 40

Jasmine is the name of a plant commonly called

A) Dophar-khili B) Amar Bel C) Raat Ki Rani D) Kalpavariksh


132

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

 
Which of the following is not used as a measure of Biological Control?

A) use of pesticides B) use of neem extracts C) pheromone traps D) use of predators of a pest E) None of these

Question No. : 2

The part of the eye responsible for its characteristic colour is the

A) Pupil B) Iris C) Cornea D) Choroid

Question No. : 3

The Congress Grass (Chatak Chandni) is technically known as

A) Parthenium B) Ocimum C) Frantoum D) Petunia

Question No. : 4

If saccharine, an artificial sweetener which is 70 times sweeter than sugar, is kept in the open, which one of these insects will it attract first?

A) ants B) bees C) house-flies D) None of the above

Question No. : 5

What is meaning of one unit carbon permit?

A) One cubic meter of carbon dioxide B) One quintal of carbon dioxide C) One metric ton of carbon dioxide
D) One thousand metric tons of carbon dioxide

Question No. : 6

Which of the following acids helps in human digestion?

A) Lactic B) Tartaric C) Hydrochloric D) Sulphuric

Question No. : 7

The blockbuster drug Viagra was developed by

A) GSK Pharma B) Novartis C) Pfizer D) Monsanto

Question No. : 8

Camels are able to survive severe water shortage by

A) Using water present in muscles B) Using the fat stored in the hump C) Reducing metabolic activity
D) Reducing water use

Question No. : 9

The movie, which you see in a cinema hall, involves _______ of the film characters.

A) Real motion B) Apparent motion C) Both A and B D) None of these

Question No. : 10

If you open a scent bottle in one corner of a room, the fragrance quickly spreads all around due to

A) Imbibition B) Osmosis C) Diffusion D) Condensation


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GK Sci. & Tech. Test 02


Question No. : 11

The TV transmission process makes use of

A) Infra-red waves B) FM waves C) Audio-visual waves D) Ultra-sonic waves

Question No. : 12

If a feather and a steel ball of equal mass and equal volume are dropped from a height simultaneously in vacuum

A) The feather will touch the ground earlier B) The ball will touch the ground earlier
C) Both will touch the ground simultaneously D) It is difficult to predict what will happen

Question No. : 13

The material most commonly used for outer coating in case of non-stick materials is

A) P.V.C. B) Teflon C) Freon D) Bakelite

Question No. : 14

The best variety of coal from the viewpoint of carbon content and its fuel value is

A) Anthracite B) Lignite C) Peat D) Bituminous

Question No. : 15

The sea-horse is a/an

A) Fish B) Insect C) Echinodermate D) Mammal

Question No. : 16

The ozone hole was discovered first of all in

A) America B) The Arctic region C) The Antarctica region D) Canada

Question No. : 17

You feel hot and sultry on a rainy day because of the

A) High Temperature B) Low Temperature C) Sweat not drying up D) None of these

Question No. : 18

You prefer wearing white-coloured clothing in the summer season. You do so because white clothes

A) Absorb most radiations B) Reflect most radiations C) It is pleasant to look at D) None of these

Question No. : 19

The mirage in a desert during hot summers is an example of

A) Interference B) Diffraction C) Reflection D) Total Internal Reflection

Question No. : 20

‘Amnesia’ refers to the loss of

A) Appetite B) Memory C) Sight     D) Sense of touch

Question No. : 21

Microwave ovens cook dishes by means of

A) Ultraviolet rays B) Infra-red rays   C) Convection D) Conduction


134

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 02


Question No. : 22

The function of a fuse wire in an electrical circuit is to

A) Help avoid electric shocks B) Regulate the current flow C) Break an overloaded circuit D) Increase the voltage

Question No. : 23

Menthol tablets create a cooling effect by means of

A) Distillation B) Evaporation C) Solidification D) Diffusion

Question No. : 24

If a pendulum clock is taken to the moon, it will run

A) Slower B) Faster C) Normally D) Irregularly

Question No. : 25

The man who actually invented the motor car was

A) Henry Ford B) Michael Faraday C) Wright Brothers D) Karl Benz

Question No. : 26

Alzheimer’s Disease primarily affects the

A) Heart    B) Liver    C) Kidney D) Brain

Question No. : 27

The tape in a tape recorder is coated with

A) Copper Sulphate B) Ferromagnetic Powder C) Silica D) Zinc Suphide

Question No. : 28

The average temperature of a healthy human body is:

A) 40.5 degree C B) 98.6 degree C C) 36.9 degree C D) 82.4 degree C

Question No. : 29

the birds sitting on high-tension wires do not get electrocuted because

A) of low current B) of natural body defences C) The circuit does not get completed
D) Their bodies have natural resitance to electric current

Question No. : 30

Sphygmomanometer is used to measure

A) Heart beat B) Blood pressure C) Lung pressure D) Atmospheric pressure

Question No. : 31

The Science Day in India is observed to

A) Coincide with the discovery of the Raman Effect B) Celebrate the discovery made by JC Bose
C) Coincide with the winning of the Nobel by Hargobind Khurana D) None of these

Question No. : 32

The fastest growing plant in the world is

A) Triticale B) Rhododendron C) Rafflesia D) Bamboo


135

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 02


Question No. : 33

If a mad dog bites a person, that person is likley to suffer from

A) Rabies B) Diphtheria C) Hydrophobia      D) Whooping Cough

Question No. : 34

Spot the correct pair.

A) Vitamin A : Milk B) Vitamin D : Citrus C) Vitamin B : Green Vegetables D) Vitamin C : Eggs

Question No. : 35

Which of the following is known as green fuel?

A) Unleaded petrol B) Compressed Natural Gas C) Kerosene D) Both A and B

Question No. : 36

Athlete’s Foot is a/ an

A) Book on athletics B) Olympic oath C) Disease D) Novel by Jesse Owens

Question No. : 37

The largest bone in the body is the

A) Stapes B) Forearm bone C) Knee bone D) Thigh bone

Question No. : 38

The Plaster of Paris is technically known as

A) Potassium Permanganate B) Potassium Permanganate C) Hydrated Calcium Sulphate D) Calcium Carbonate

Question No. : 39

The gas predominantly responsible for the yellowing of the Taj is

A) Sulphur dioxide B) Carbon dioxide C) Both of these   D) None of these

Question No. : 40

Which of the following is NOT a legume crop?

A) Pea B) Wheat C) Pulses D) Gram


136

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option.


Question No. : 1

Light year is a unit of

A) Distance B) Time C) Sound D) Light intensity

Question No. : 2

The Red Sea is so called because

A) red sand is carried into the sea at low tide B) the famous ‘Titanic’ sank over there
C) dead algae remains on the ocean floor turn to reddish brown D) there are red coloured sea weeds in the seabed

Question No. : 3

 
If you keep the door of your working refrigerator open, the temperature of your room likely to

A) Go up B) Go down C) It will depend on room temperature D) Cannot say

Question No. : 4

IRNSS is

A) Indian Regional Navigational Satellite System B) India's Rural Navigational Space System
C) India's Regional Navigational Space System D) Indian Regional Navigational Space Satellite

Question No. : 5

The sea water, on an average, contains _______ % salt in it.

A) 35 B) 45 C) 3.5 D) None of these

Question No. : 6

Which of the following is/are a mode/modes of transmission of AIDS?


 
A. Handshake    B. Kissing    C. Sharing meals   D. Sharing drug-needles    E. Sex
 
 
Select you answer using the following options.
 

A) A and D B) D and E C) C, D and E D) B, C, D and E

Question No. : 7

The Eureka ! experience is associated with

A) Euclid B) Newton C) Galileo D) Archimedes

Question No. : 8

A patient is put on the dialysis if he suffers from a

A) Liver problem B) Kidney problem C) Heart problem D) Blood pressure problem

Question No. : 9

The funny bone in the body is otherwise known as the

A) Femur B) Ulna C) Radius D) Stapes


137

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 03


Question No. : 10

Which of the following terms is not connected with the Internet?

A) HTTP B) Vortal C) HTML D) TTML

Question No. : 11

The first heart transplant in the world was performed by

A) Dr. Joseph Lister B) Dr. Christian Bernard C) Dr. P. Venu Gopal D) Dr. Alexander Fleming

Question No. : 12

Sound travels at 340 m /sec in the air. If you are on the moon and your friend fires a shot four feet away from you, its sound will
reach you in

A) 1 sec B) 0.004 sec C) 0.002 sec D) None of these

Question No. : 13

An example of a renewable energy source is

A) Coal B) Petroleum C) Natural gas D) Solar energy

Question No. : 14

A computer virus is the one

A) that destroys the computer hardware B) that destroys the software of the computer
C) that spreads fast through e-mail           D) None of these

Question No. : 15

The name given to the latest element is

A) Actinium B) Seaborgium C) Ranchanum D) Cesium

Question No. : 16

If an automobile has 1000cc capacity, it implies that

A) Its fuel-holding capacity is 10 times that B) The volume of its cylinder equals that
C) Exhaust gases per minute equal that figure D) None of these

Question No. : 17

The least pure variety of coal is

A) Peat B) Lignite C) Anthracite D) Bituminous

Question No. : 18

In case of nuclear fission, the energy is released in which form?

A) Light    B) Heat     C) Chemical D) Mechanical

Question No. : 19

Chemically speaking, Washing Soda is called


 

A) Sodium Carbonate B) Calcium Carbonate C) Sodium Bicarbonate D) Potassium Carbonate


138

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 03


Question No. : 20

Which of the following is used in making computer chips?

A) Carbon B) Uranium C) Silicon D) Rubidium

Question No. : 21

In order to see an object on the surface while travelling in a ship, you would make use of a

A) Telescope B) Periscope C) Marinoscope    D) None of these

Question No. : 22

Which of the following is another name for global warming?

A) Ozone hole depletion B) Greenhouse effect C) Agent Orange D) Aurora borealis

Question No. : 23

Which of the following metals is kept in kerosene oil to prevent its burning in the air?

A) Sodium B) Uranium C) Lithium D) Radium

Question No. : 24

The earliest known computer to man is the

A) Mark I B) IBM-753 C) Abacus D) Mac I

Question No. : 25

Medically speaking, a person can remain without food (and can survive on water) for a maximum of

A) 60 days B) 30 days C) 14 days D) 50 days

Question No. : 26

Which technique is useful in solving mysteries related to robberies, apes and thefts?

A) Radio Carbon-Dating   B) Computer Tomography C) Gene Cloning D) DNA Fingerprinting

Question No. : 27

An unfertilized human egg would contain

A) Single Y chromosome B) Single X chromosome C) Two X Chromosomes D) One X and one Y chromosome

Question No. : 28

It is difficult to cook on the hills using a pressure cooker because on hills, the

A) Atmospheric pressure is low B) Atmospheric pressure is high C) The vegetables are hard D) None of these

Question No. : 29

If a train suddenly comes to a halt, the passengers get a sudden shock due to

A) The Law of Conservation of Momentum B) The Law of Inertia C) The Law of Gravitation
D) The Law of Equal Action and Reaction

Question No. : 30

Which of the following gadgets would be used to know the purity of milk?

A) Hygrometer B) Lactometer C) Anemometer D) Tachometer


139

GK Sci. & Tech. Test 03


Question No. : 31

Hooch or poisonous wine contains

A) Methyl Alcohol B) Ethyl Alcohol C) Propyl Alcohol D) Butyl Alcohol

Question No. : 32

Which of the following is the principal means of transmission of heat from the Sun to the Earth?

A) Conduction B) Convection C) Diffusion D) Radiation

Question No. : 33

Which of the following is a non-biodegradable waste?

A) Kitchen Refuse B) Plastic C) Dead plants D) Dead animals

Question No. : 34

A charged particle always has

A) Kinetic energy B) Potential energy C) Both A and B      D) Mechanical energy

Question No. : 35

Out of the following media, the minimum speed of light will be in

A) Vacuum B) Air C) Water D) Glass

Question No. : 36

The first test-tube baby in the world was named

A) Barbara McCray B) Louis Brown C) Indira D) McCarthy Donald

Question No. : 37

Hematite is an ore of

A) Zinc B) Silver C) Aluminium D) Iron

Question No. : 38

The leading cause of blindness among Indians is

A) Deficiency of Vitamin A  B) Congenital defects C) Watching Cinema, T.V. D) Deficiency of Vitamin C

Question No. : 39

The visible range of the human eye is between

A) 20-20000 Hz B) 3800-7600 Angstrom C) 180-600 micrometer D) 120 decibel

Question No. : 40

Ordinary Table Salt gets wet in the rainy season due to the presence of

A) Magnesium Chloride B) Magnesium Sulphate C) Sodium Chloride D) Sodium


140

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

The National Film Awards in India are given by the

A) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting B) Department of Culture C) Film and Television Institute of India
D) Central Board of Film Certification

Question No. : 2

 
Who among the following is the biographer of Mother Teresa, for the book published by Penguin Books India?

A) Navin Chawla B) Karan Singh C) Shashi Tharoor D) David Davidar E) None of these

Question No. : 3

The Pritzker Prize and the Agha Khan Prize are given in the field of

A) Architecture B) Literature C) Sports D) Journalism

Question No. : 4

"Straight from the Gut" is written by

A) Bill Gates B) NR Narayan Murthy C) Jack Welch D) Andy Grover

Question No. : 5

 
Which of these is a film directed by Mira Nair?

A) Earth B) The Namesake C) Cooking with Stella D) It’s a Wonderful Afterlife

Question No. : 6

Who among the following has written the book, Wings of Fire: An Autobiography?

A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam B) Shobha De C) Atal Behari Vajpayee D) K.R.Narayanan

Question No. : 7

Name the only film star who has been decorated with the prestigious Nishan-i-Pakistan, the topmost civilian honour in
Pakistan?

A) Raj Kapoor B) Dev Anand  C) Amitabh Bachchan  D) Dilip Kumar 

Question No. : 8

“Gul-e-Naghma” is a famous poetic work by

A) Dr. Mohammed Iqbal B) Mirza Ghalib   C) Kaifi Azmi  D) Firaq Gorakhpuri

Question No. : 9

Anna Kerenina is a world-famous creation by


 

A) F. Dostovsky B) Leo Tolstoy C) Maxim Gorky D) None of these

Question No. : 10

Who wrote the famous book - 'We the people'?

A) J.R.D. Tata B) Nani Palkhivala C) Khushwant Singh D) T.N. Kaul


141

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 01


Question No. : 11

“Gora” and “Gitanjali” are two famous novels/poems written by

A) Prem Chand B) Rabindernath Tagore C) Amrit Nagar D) Harivansh Rai Bachchan

Question No. : 12

Mahashweta Devi, recipient of the Jnanpith Award, writes in

A) Oriya  B) Malayalam  C) Tamil D) Bengali

Question No. : 13

“Our sweetest songs are those that tell of our saddest thoughts” was said by

A) P. B. Shelley   B) Shakesphere  C) Wordworth  D) Keats

Question No. : 14

Who among the following was a recipient of the Gandhi Peace Prize?

A) Robert Mugabe  B) Nelson Mandela C) Rajiv Gandhi D) Mother Teresa

Question No. : 15

Who wrote 'Anandamath'?

A) Prem Chand B) Rabindranath Tagore C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee D) Mahatma Gandhi

Question No. : 16

Vinaya Patrika is a famous work by

A) Goswami Tulsidas B) Sant Gyaneshwar C) Pt. Narender Sharma D) Jaidev

Question No. : 17

Socrates was a

A) Dramatist B) Essayist C) Philosopher D) Novelist

Question No. : 18

In which year was the Pulitzer Prize established?

A) 1917 B) 1918 C) 1922 D) 1928

Question No. : 19

Who is considered to be the Father of English Poetry?

A) Shakespeare B) Keats C) Wordsworth     D) Geoffrey Chaucer

Question No. : 20

“Better to live as a tiger for one day than live like a sheep for a lifetime”. Who said this?

A) Hari Singh Nalwa B) Tipu Sultan C) Rani Jhansi D) Haider Ali

Question No. : 21

B. C. Roy Award is given in the field of

A) Medicine B) Music C) Journalism D) Environment


142

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 01


Question No. : 22

“Young India” was a journal edited by

A) Subhash Bose B) Lajpat Rai C) M.K. Gandhi    D) Tilak

Question No. : 23

Select the wrong pair.

A) My Experiments with Truth - Mahatma Gandhi B) The Indian Unrest - Lala Lajpat Rai
C) Poverty and Un-British Rule in India   - Dadabhai Naoroji D) The First War of Independence - V.D. Savarkar

Question No. : 24

Kautilya was the author of

A) Indica B) Arthashastra C) Mahabharatha D) Ramayana

Question No. : 25

Who was the famous British writer of ‘Himalayan Gazetteer’?

A) P. Baron B) E. Atkinson C) Jim Corbett D) J.Wilson

Question No. : 26

Which of the following books has been written by Kishwar Desai?

A) The Red Devil B) Witness the Night C) Tonight This Savage Rite D) Earth and Ashes

Question No. : 27

‘Lajja’ is a book written by

A) Salman Rushdie  B) Taslima Nasrin  C) Sunil Ganguli  D) Rabindranath Tagore

Question No. : 28

Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Straight from the Heart”?

A) Ravi Shastri B) Kapil Dev C) M.S. Dhoni D) Sourav Gaungly

Question No. : 29

Which of the following books is NOT written by Chetan Bhagat?

A) One Night@The Call Centre  B) Two States  C) Revolution 2020  D) Can Love Happen Twice?

Question No. : 30

'Meghdoot' by Kalidas was written in

A) Hindi  B) Sanskrit  C) Maithili  D) Pali 

Question No. : 31

Which book is written by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam?

A) India My Dream B) My Presidential Years C) My Story D) Sunny Days

Question No. : 32

The Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawna Award is given for

A) Work among minorities  B) National integration  C) Children’s education  D) Abolition of bonded labour 
143

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 01


Question No. : 33

Dada Saheb Phalke Awards are given by the Ministry of ………

A) Social Welfare B) Corporate Affairs C) Home Affairs D) Information & Broadcasting

Question No. : 34

The Man Booker Prize is given for

A) Literature  B) Social Service C) Sports D) Cinema

Question No. : 35

Who among the following is NOT one of the Femina Miss India winners?

A) Jhatlekha  B) Lara Hyaden  C) Prachi Mishra  D) Vanya Mishra 

Question No. : 36

The ‘Jnanpith Award’ is given for excellence in

A) Sports  B) Music C) Literature D) Government Service

Question No. : 37

The well-known book ‘The Rediscovery of India' has been written by


 

A) Anita Desai  B) Arvind Adiga  C) Meghnad Desai D) Vikram Seth

Question No. : 38

Which folk art form is from Maharashtra?

A) Garba  B) Jatra  C) Ankia Nat  D) Nachani 

Question No. : 39

The book ‘Malgudi Days’ was written by

A) K.R. Narayanan  B) Rabindra Nath Tagore  C) R.K. Narayan D) Prem Chand

Question No. : 40

Who among the following directed the movie “Peepli Live”?

A) Ashutosh Gowarikar  B) Kiran Rao C) Anusha Rizvi D) Seema Chisti


144

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the right option


Question No. : 1

Which of the following prizes is given by UNESCO?

A) Magsaysay Award B) Pulitzer Prize C) Kalinga Prize D) Booker Prize

Question No. : 2

‘A Long Walk To Freedom’ is the memoir of

A) Bill Gates B) Nelson Mandela C) Tony Blair D) George Bush E) Stephen Hawking

Question No. : 3

The annual Oscar awards for excellence in different aspects of Cinema are awarded by

A) American Film Producers Association B) The Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences
C) American Academy of Motion Pictures D) US Film Journalists Association

Question No. : 4

Who is author of "Imagining India"?

A) Khushwant Singh B) Nandan Nilekani C) Gurcharan Das D) Chetan Bhagat

Question No. : 5

Who among the following was suspended by CNN / Time magazine because he had copied an article from The New Yorker
Time Magazine?

A) Rajat Gupta B) Dharun Ravi C) Fareed Zakaria D) Jill Lepore

Question No. : 6

Which British-Indian author won the Commonwealth Writers Prize for the 'Best Book' for his epic story ‘Solo’?

A) Rana Das Gupta B) Rana Singh C) Jaiveer Rana D) K.K. Mehta

Question No. : 7

Identify the correct pair:-

A) I Follow the Mahatma: Mahadev Desai B) Poverty and Un-British Rule in India: Dadabhai Nauroji
C) First War of Indian Independence: Lokmanya Tilak D) Life Divine: G.K. Gokhale

Question No. : 8

Golden Globe, BAFTA, Cannes Festival ---- All these are related to

A) Books B) Football C) Films D) Sand sculpture

Question No. : 9

“Aye Mere Watan Ke Logo, Zara_______” the soul-stirring lyric was penned by

A) Shailendra B) Kavi Pradeep   C) Yogesh D) Gopal Das ‘Neeraj’

Question No. : 10

Sutta Pitaka is a well-known religious book in

A) Jainism B) Hinduism C) Buddhism D) Zoroastrianism


145

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 02


Question No. : 11

The book 'Shakuntala' was written by

A) Rabindranath Tagore B) Tulsidas C) Kalidas D) Vikram Seth

Question No. : 12

Match the following:              


 
Scripture                     Subject       
 
I. Rig Veda                  A.  Musical hymns                              
II. Yajur Veda              B.  Rituals and ceremonies
III. Sama Veda            C.  Charms and spells
IV. Atharva Veda         D.  Hymns and prayers
 

A) I -D, II-B, III-A, IV-C B) I- C, II -B, III - D, IV- A C) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C D) I-B, II-C III-A, IV-D

Question No. : 13

“Man is born free and everywhere he is in chains”, was said by

A) Thomas Hardy  B) William Shakespeare  C) Jean Jacques Rousseau  D) Locke

Question No. : 14

“The Poet of the East” is a title given to

A) Firaq Gorakhpuri B) Mirza Ghalib C) Dr. Mohammed Iqbal  D) Bahadur Shah Zafar

Question No. : 15

“Saare Jahan Se Achha” – This patriotic song was penned by

A) Firaq Gorakhpuri B) Kazi Nazrul Islam C) Mohammed Iqbal D) Tagore

Question No. : 16

Who among the following is not an author/ ess?

A) Anita Desai B) RK Laxman C) Linda Goodman D) Barbara Cartland

Question No. : 17

Shahnama is a classic work written by

A) Ibn- Batuta B) Firdausi C) Alberuni D) Chand Bardai

Question No. : 18

The first man to use Hindi for literary purposes was

A) Bhartendu Harishchandra B) Amir Khusro C) Kabir D) Ras Khan

Question No. : 19

“Between the Lines” is a famous book by

A) Khushwant Singh B) Nalini Singh C) S. Sahay D) Kuldip Nayar

Question No. : 20

“Ain-i-Akbari” is a famous work by

A) Firdausi B) Ibn-e-Batuta C) Abul Fazl D) Faizi


146

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 02


Question No. : 21

The highest peace-time award for bravery given by the Government of India is

A) Kirti Chakra B) Padma Bhushan C) Ashoka Chakra D) Mahavir Chakra

Question No. : 22

“A Farewell To Arms” is a renowned work by

A) George Orwell B) Ernest Hemingway C) G.B. Shaw D) Bertrand Russel

Question No. : 23

Albert Einstein got the Nobel Prize for his work on


 

A) Relativity B) Quantum Theory C) Photo-electric Effect D) Atomic Bomb

Question No. : 24

Who wrote Tahqiq-I-Hind?

A) Alberuni B) Al Biladari C) Sulaiman D) Al Masudi

Question No. : 25

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?


 

A) D.P. Mishra – Living an Era  B) Jawahar Lal Nehru – India Divided  C) Rajendra Prasad - Discovery of India 
D) Subhash Chandra Bose - Freedom at Midnight

Question No. : 26

Raag Darbari is a famous satirical book written in Hindi by

A) Amar Kant  B) Shrilal Shukla  C) Nirmal Verma  D) Harivansh Rai Bachchan 

Question No. : 27

'Cricket My Style’ is a book written by

A) Sachin Tendulkar B) Sunil Gavaskar C) Rahul Dravid D) Kapil Dev

Question No. : 28

Which of the following folk dance forms is associated with Gujarat?


 

A) Bhangra  B) Kathakali C) Garba D) Ghoomer

Question No. : 29

Who wrote ‘Whom gods loves die young’?

A) John Keats B) PB Shelly C) Lord Byron D) William Wordsworth

Question No. : 30

Who wrote Jana Gana Man?

A) Ram Prasad Bismil  B) Bankim Chandar Chaterjee  C) Rabindra Nath Tagore  D) Tara Shankar Bandopadhyaya 
147

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 02


Question No. : 31

Chandi Prasad Bhatt, the Gandhi Peace Prize laureate, works for

A) Disarmament  B) Environment C) Children’s rights  D) Prostitutes’ emancipation 

Question No. : 32

Who among the following was NOT a musician?

A) Mozart  B) Beethoven  C) Elvis Presley  D) Rousseau 

Question No. : 33

Which of the following awards is given to a sports coach?


 

A) Arjuna Award  B) Khel Ratna Puraskar C) Khel Khiladi Puraskar  D) Dronacharya Award

Question No. : 34

Neelima Mishra is the recipient of

A) Ramon Magsaysay Award  B) Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award  C) Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration 
D) Right Livelihood Award

Question No. : 35

Which country produces the most number of feature films every year?

A) India  B) China  C) The USA  D) The UK 

Question No. : 36

'Hamlet' is a famous play written by

A) Khuswant Singh B) Rabindranath Tagore C) William Shakespeare  D) Sophocles

Question No. : 37

Who is the author of "An Equal Music"?

A) Dick Francis B) Vikram Seth C) Salman Rushdie D) Anurag Mathur

Question No. : 38

Who wrote the famous book 'Gulliver's Travel'?

A) Pearl Buck  B) J.K. Rowling  C) Jonathan Swift D) Elizabeth Gilbert 

Question No. : 39

The movie Three Idiots was based on the book

A) Where do you want to go? B) Five Point Someone C) Two States D) Revolution 2020

Question No. : 40

Anant Pai, better known as ‘Uncle Pai’ was the creater of which comic series?

A) Chacha Chaudhary B) Chandamama C) Indrajaal D) Amar Chitra Katha


148

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 03

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option:

Question No. : 1

Bollywood celebrated 100 years of Indian cinema in the year

A) 2014 B) 2012 C) 2013 D) 2011

Question No. : 2

Ghoomar is a famous folk-dance of

A) Haryana B) UP C) MP D) Rajasthan

Question No. : 3

The Ramon Magsaysay award is named after the former President of

A) Thailand B) The Philippines C) Indonesia D) The USA

Question No. : 4

 
Who is the writer of the book “Before Memory Fades”?

A) Fali S. Nariman B) S. Ramnathan C) Pranab Bardhan D) Mushirul Hasan

Question No. : 5

The Dadasaheb Phalke prize is given for

A) The best movie in Hindi annually B) The best movie in any Indian language annually C) The best direction annually
D) None of these

Question No. : 6

Who among the following is the author of the book The Algebra of Infinite Justice?

A) Aravind Adiga B) Arundhati Roy C) Michael Portillo D) Ben Okri

Question No. : 7

“Beyond the Last Blue Mountain” is the biography of

A) G.D. Birla B) J.R.D Tata C) Ratan Tata D) HP Nanda

Question No. : 8

Who among the following has won the coveted “Booker’s Booker” Prize?

A) Reddy Doyle B) Salman Rushdie  C) Gita Hariharan  D) Mulk Raj Anand 

Question No. : 9

“A single step for man, a gaint leap for mankind”. Who said this?

A) Neil Armstrong B) Edvin Aldrin C) Yuri Gagrin D) Sq. Ldr. Rakesh Sharma

Question No. : 10

“Kagaz Te Canvas” is an award-winning work by

A) H.S. Mehboob B) Amrita Pritam C) Surjit Pattar D) Harbhajan Singh


149

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 03


Question No. : 11

The ancient classic “Kamasutra” was authored by

A) Panini B) Patanjli C) Kalidasa D) Vatsyayana

Question No. : 12

‘James Bond’ was created by

A) Desmond Bagley B) Agatha Christie C) Ian Fleming D) Stanley Gardner

Question No. : 13

Who wrote 'War and Peace'?

A) Leo Tolstoy B) Mahatma Gandhi C) Charles Dickens D) Rudyard Kipling

Question No. : 14

“What’s in a name? A rose by any other name would smell as sweet.” The quote belongs to

A) John Keats B) TS Eliot C) William Shakespeare D) Alfred Tennyson

Question No. : 15

Who is the author of the best-selling book Ignited Minds?

A) Dr.A.P.J.Abdul Kalam B) Dale Carnegie C) Nandan Nilekani D) Shiv Khera

Question No. : 16

“The Coral Island” is a well-known work by

A) RK Narayana B) Pearl S Buck C) Rudyard Kipling D) Julius Verne

Question No. : 17

The Chameli Devi Jain Prize is given to

A) Woman journalists B) Journalists C) Photographers D) Painters

Question No. : 18

“East is East and West is West and never shall the twain meet” was said by

A) Rudyard Kipling B) Winston Churchill C) Mark Twain D) Rabindernath Tagore

Question No. : 19

“It's Always Possible” is written by

A) K.J. Alphonse B) Kiran Bedi C) Maneka Gandhi D) TN Seshan

Question No. : 20

Who among the following is/are recipients/s of the Nobel Prize twice?

A) Marie Curie B) Linus Pauling C) Both 1 and 2 D) None of these

Question No. : 21

Who among the following is the first Indian to win an Oscar Award?

A) Bhanu Athaiya B) Shabana Azmi C) Satyajit Ray D) Rohini Hattangadl


150

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 03


Question No. : 22

“Geet Govindam” is a famous work by

A) Jayadev B) Kabir C) Meera Bai D) None of these

Question No. : 23

‘Baburnama’ was written by


 

A) Abul Fazal  B) Firdausi  C) Atif Latifi  D) Babur

Question No. : 24

Which of the following books was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak?


 

A) India in Transition  B) Gita Rahasya C) Gokhale-My Political Guru D) Discovery of India

Question No. : 25

The editor of ‘Young India’ and ‘Harijan’ was

A) JL Nehru  B) BR Ambedkar  C) Mahatma Gandhi  D) Subhash Chandra Bose 

Question No. : 26

Eminent poet Kedar Nath Singh writes in which of the following languages?

A) Hindi B) Urdu C) Oriya D) Tamil

Question No. : 27

Who wrote the book “Origin of Species”?

A) JP Morgan  B) Gregor Mendel  C) Malthus D) Charles Darwin

Question No. : 28

Who was the writer of Mahabharata?

A) Kalidas B) Ved Vyas C) Tulsidas D) Kautilya

Question No. : 29

The controversial documentary 'Hell's Angel' is based on

A) Mother Teresa  B) Saddam Hussain C) Hitler D) Stalin

Question No. : 30

"India: A Portrait" has been written by

A) Khuswant Singh  B) Kuldip Nayar C) Patrick French D) J.M. Keynes

Question No. : 31

The Lata Mangeshkar Prize is given by the

A) Madhya Pradesh Government  B) Government of India  C) Uttar Pradesh Government 


D) Information and Broadcasting Ministry 

Question No. : 32

The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given for excellence in

A) Literature B) Music C) Sports D) Science and Technology


151

GK Books, Authors, Art, Culture Test 03


Question No. : 33

The "Cannes Award' is given for excellence in

A) Literature  B) Films  C) Journalism D) Economics

Question No. : 34

Who among the following is NOT a Hollywood actress?

A) Jennifer Lopez  B) Oprah Winfrey  C) Angelina Jolie  D) Nicole Kidman 

Question No. : 35

Which state has declared camel as its state animal?


 

A) Rajasthan  B) Madhya Pradesh C) Maharashtra D) Gujarat E) Orissa

Question No. : 36

Bangladeshi Nobel Laureate, Muhammad Yunus received the Nobel Peace Prize for his work in microfinance in

A) 2004 B) 2006 C) 2007 D) 2009

Question No. : 37

Philip Kotler is associated with

A) Economics B) Marketing Management C) Chemistry D) Politics

Question No. : 38

The Censor Board in India works under the

A) Ministry of Culture B) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting C) Department of Films


D) Ministry of Communications

Question No. : 39

Which country gives the Magsaysay awards?

A) Indonesia B) Australia C) The Philippines D) South Korea

Question No. : 40

Which honour is known as the Asian Nobel Prize?

A) Magasasay Award B) Kalinga Prize C) The Right Livelihood Foundation Prize D) Gandhi Peace Prize
152

GK Sports Test 01

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the right option

Question No. : 1

One of the most storied journeys in world football came to an end when Alex Ferguson, the world famous manager of
___________ announced his retirement from football, marking the end of an era in the sport.

A) Manchester United B) Chelsea C) Liverpool D) Real Madrid

Question No. : 2

The cricketers who were accused of spot fixing in the sixth edition of the IPL and were arrested by the Delhi Police played for
which franchise?

A) Sunrisers Hyderabad B) Chennai Super Kings C) Royal Challengers Banglaore D) Rajasthan Royals

Question No. : 3

Who was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title?

A) Wilson Jones B) Geet Sethi C) Michael Ferreira D) Manoj Kothari

Question No. : 4

Jamie Dwyer, a prominent name on the field of hockey, belongs to:

A) Germany B) England C) Netherlands D) Australia

Question No. : 5

Who won the British Grand Prix, 2014?

A) Lewis Hamilton B) Sebastian Vettel C) Michael Schumacher D) Fernando Alonso

Question No. : 6

Name the owner of Delhi franchise of hockey India

A) Tata Group B) Wave Group C) Bharti Group D) Aircel and Reliance

Question No. : 7

What was the slogan for Asian Games 2014?

A) The Games of your life B) Green, Clean and Friendship C) Diversity Shines Here D) We Cheer, We Share, We Win

Question No. : 8

Identify the incorrect pair:-

A) Sania Mirza: Badminton B) Saina Nehwal: Badminton C) Sarita Devi: Boxing D) Usain Bolt: Athletics

Question No. : 9

Bodyline is a term connected with


 

A) Boxing B) Hockey C) Cricket D) Golf

Question No. : 10

The national game of India is

A) Hockey B) Kabbadi C) Wrestling D) Cricket


153

GK Sports Test 01
Question No. : 11

The Subroto Cup is associated with

A) Cricket B) Hockey C) Football D) Badminton

Question No. : 12

Find the odd man out.

A) Rangaswamy Cup: Hockey B) Durand Cup: Football C) Devdhar Trophy: Cricket D) Obaidullah Cup: Badminton

Question No. : 13

Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

A) Rangaswamy Cup-Hockey B) Santosh Trophy-Football C) Nehru Trophy – Chess D) Thomas Cup-Badminton

Question No. : 14

The Uber Cup is associated with

A) Men’s Badminton Tournament B) Women’s Badminton Tournament C) Men’s Lawn Tennis Championship
D) Women’s National Hockey

Question No. : 15

The term “Stalemate” is related to the game of

A) Chess B) Cricket C) Badminton D) Tennis

Question No. : 16

Milkha Singh got the title of the Flying Sikh after the

A) London Olympics B) Athens Olympics C) Rome Olympics D) Bangkok Olympics

Question No. : 17

The national game of Japan is

A) Badminton B) Taikwando C) Sumo wrestling D) Jujutsu

Question No. : 18

Michael Phelps, the record-making Olympian with the maximum number of gold medals, is associated with

A) Athletics B) Boxing C) Swimming D) Javelin Throw

Question No. : 19

The most ancient game in the world is

A) Wrestling B) Table Tennis C) Badminton D) Hockey

Question No. : 20

Who among the following is a Golf player and represents India in International events?

A) Mahesh Bhupathi B) Pankaj Advani C) Jeev Milkha Singh D) Vijendra Singh

Question No. : 21

Which of the following trophies is associated with the game of Football?

A) Evert Cup B) Mardeka Cup C) Mumbai Gold Cup D) Bharat Ram Cup
154

GK Sports Test 01
Question No. : 22

Gagan Narang who won 4 gold medals in Delhi Commonwealth Games is basically a ____

A) Weight lifter B) Badminton player C) Table Tennis player D) Air Rifle shooter

Question No. : 23

Vijender Singh is associated with which one of the following games?

A) Shooting B) Boxing C) Athletics D) Badminton

Question No. : 24

Mansur Ali Khan Pataudi was associated with which of the following games?

A) Badminton B) Cricket C) Football D) Hockey

Question No. : 25

‘Fianchetto’ is a strategy in the game of –

A) Billiards B) Chess C) Car racing D) Bullfight

Question No. : 26

Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of sports?

A) Kalidas Samman B) Dhyanchand Award C) Shram Vir Award D) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award

Question No. : 27

Sachin Tendulkar scored his 100th century on March 16, 2012. Against which country was the century scored?

A) Pakistan B) Sri Lanka C) Bangladesh D) England

Question No. : 28

The headquarters of the International Olympic Committee is at

A) Lausanne (Switzerland) B) Los Angeles C) Moscow D) New York

Question No. : 29

 
In which year did India win the Cricket World Cup?

A) 1987 B) 1983 C) 1975 D) 1979

Question No. : 30

Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is associated with the game of

A) Cricket B) Football C) Badminton D) Hockey

Question No. : 31

Which sports man is branded as "Fastest Man on Earth"?

A) Michael Jordan B) Tiger Woods C) Usain Bolt D) Shane Warne

Question No. : 32

Find the mismatch

A)  Somdev Devvarman Badminton   B)  Gagan Narang Shooting  


C)  Arjun Atwal Golf   D)  Anita Sood Swimming  
155

GK Sports Test 01
Question No. : 33

By what name were the Commonwealth Games known when they were first held in 1930 in Ontario, Canada?

A) British Commonwealth Games B) British Empire and Commonwealth Games C) British Empire Games
D) Queen's Empire Games

Question No. : 34

In IPL-5, Kevin Pietersen has been selected to play with which team ?

A) Delhi Daredevils B) Deccan Chargers C) Rajasthan Royals D) Royal Challengers

Question No. : 35

FIFA World Cup Football hosts for 2018 and 2022 respectively are

A) Russia and Qatar B) Germany and France C) England and Italy D) Spain and Argentina

Question No. : 36

Sundarrajan Kidambi is associated with:

A) Rowing B) Chess C) Cricket D) Hockey

Question No. : 37

Which of the following countries is selected as a host of Common Wealth Games-2018?

A) India B) Australia C) Pakistan D) South Africa E) Sri Lanka

Question No. : 38

Who among the following is NOT a Sports person?

A) Sania Mirza B) Azim H. Premji C) Leander Trouble D) Ricky Ponting E) Rahul Dravid

Question No. : 39

Which of the following would be the venue of the World Athletic Championship 2013 ?

A) New Delhi B) Tokyo C) London D) Paris E) Moscow

Question No. : 40

The term ‘lob' is used in which game/sport?

A) Volleyball B) Swimming C) Basketball D) Tennis


156

GK Sports Test 02

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option

Question No. : 1

Name the winner of the F1 Austrian Grand Prix, 2014.

A) Nico Rosberg B) Mark Webber C) Sebestian Vettel D) Adrian Sutil

Question No. : 2

Somdev Devvarman is related to __________

A) Tennis B) Badminton C) Golf D) Chess

Question No. : 3

The only F1 track in India, named Buddh International Circuit, is located at

A) Greater Noida B) New Delhi C) Faridabad D) Pune

Question No. : 4

Which city will host the Olympic Games in 2016?

A) London B) Chicago C) Singapore D) Rio de Janeiro

Question No. : 5

Who won the FIFA world cup 2014?

A) Germany B) France C) Brazil D) Argentina

Question No. : 6

Name the Secretary of the Bengal Tennis Association who has been appointed as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of The All
India Tennis Association (AITA).

A) Manik Goswami B) Hironmoy Chatterjee C) Abhey Singh Chautala D) Gaganjeet Bhullar

Question No. : 7

Jhulam Goswami is a

A) Writer B) Sportsman C) Businesswomen D) Politician

Question No. : 8

The term “Checkmate” is related to the game of

A) Chess B) Bridge C) Snooker D) Golf

Question No. : 9

The highest cricket-ground in the world is at

A) Chail    B) Shimla C) Berne D) Dharamshala

Question No. : 10

The Olympics were re-started by

A) Pierre de Cubertin B) Henri  Dunant C) Antonio Samaranch D) None of these


157

GK Sports Test 02
Question No. : 11

Identify the correct pairing.

A) Linford Christie: Gymnastics B) Cedric D’ Souza: Football C) Tanya Sachdev: Swimming


D) Narayan Karthikeyan: Car-racing

Question No. : 12

In which of the following years did India organize Asian Games?

A) 1986 B) 1974 C) 1983    D) 1982

Question No. : 13

With which sport is Agha Khan Cup associated?

A) Hockey B) Cricket C) Football D) Golf

Question No. : 14

What is meant by a ‘seeded player’?

A) A raw player B) Handicapped player  C) Expert player  D) Player under training

Question No. : 15

The only black to win the Wimbledon title is

A) Carl Louis B) Robert Smith    C) John Mcnore D) Arthur Ash

Question No. : 16

Jesse Owens was related to the game of         

A) Boxing B) Wrestling C) Judo D) Athletics

Question No. : 17

Famous Tennis player Serena Williams belongs to

A) Sweden  B) Norway C) Italy D) UK


 

Question No. : 18

Mithir Sen is associated with:

A) Swimming B) Polo C) Cricket D) Hockey

Question No. : 19

The first man to swim across the Palk Strait is:

A) Mihir Sen B) Roger Benister C) Arthur Ashe D) Milkha Singh

Question No. : 20

India’s Dipika Pallikal and Sarah Cardwell of Australia are

A) Badminton players B) Golf players C) Chess players D) Squash players

Question No. : 21

Which of the following terms is NOT related with the game of cricket?

A) Googly B) Silly Point C) Smash D) Mid Wicket


158

GK Sports Test 02
Question No. : 22

Which of the following trophies/cups is NOT associated with the game of Football?

A) Challenge Cup B) Nehru Gold Cup C) Carling Cup D) FIFA World Cup

Question No. : 23

Which of the following terms is used in the game of Lawn Tennis ?

A) Double Fault B) Half Nelson C) Cox D) Crease

Question No. : 24

Krishna Poonia is associated with:

A) Football B) Lawn Tennis C) Hockey D) Chess

Question No. : 25

Tennis star Roger Federer hails from-

A)  The UK B) Switzerland C) The USA D) France

Question No. : 26

Which of the following is the name of the game not included in Olympics?

A) Kabaddi B) Table Tennis C) Rifle Shooting D) 100 meters Race

Question No. : 27

The term ‘Pitcher’ is associated with

A) Wrestling B) Boxing C) Baseball D) Basketball

Question No. : 28

Wimbledon, known for lawn tennis courts, is in

A) London B) New York C) Washington D.C. D) Rome

Question No. : 29

 
Shiv Kapur is associated with

A) Cricket B) Badminton C) Golf D) Hockey

Question No. : 30

Which team won the Fair Play award in FIFA-2014?

A) Argentina B) Columbia C) Germany D) France

Question No. : 31

For how many terms has Sepp Blatter served as FIFA President?

A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6

Question No. : 32

Name the sports personality who was not an ambassador for the Common Wealth Games 2010?

A) Samaranth Jung B) Sushil Kumar C) MC Mary Kom D) Tejeswini Sawant


159

GK Sports Test 02
Question No. : 33

Indian driver Karun Chandok was in the news for which of the following?

A) Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Force India for the 2011 Formula One season.
B) Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Lotus for the 2011 Formula One season.
C) Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Ferrari for the 2011 Formula One season. D) None of the above.

Question No. : 34

Yankee stadium in Newyork is associated with:

A) Baseball B) Hockey C) Lawn Tennis D) Badminton

Question No. : 35

Cannon is a term associated with which of the following games?

A) Golf B) Chess C) Billiards D) Badminton

Question No. : 36

Who was the head coach of the Indian cricket team that won the Cricket World Cup played in India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
during March-April 2011 ?

A) John Wright B) Shaun Pollock C) Gary Kirsten D) Duncan Fletcher

Question No. : 37

Which of the following Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis?

A) FIFA Cup B) Champions Trophy C) Ranji Trophy D) Subrato Cup E) Davis Cup

Question No. : 38

India first took part in the Olympic games in the year:

A) 1928 B) 1947 C) 1972 D) 1920 E) 1960

Question No. : 39

Who was named best player of the Euro 2012 international soccer tournament?       

A) Mario Gomez B) Andres Iniesta C) Fernando Torres D) Cristiano Ronaldo

Question No. : 40

Which of the following sports was included in the Olympics for the first time ever, in the 2012 edition of the Games held in
London?

A) Tennis Mixed Doubles B) Karate C) Women's Boxing D) Beach Volleyball


160

GK Sports Test 03

DIRECTION for the question: Mark the best option

Question No. : 1

Star footballer Lionel Messi belongs to

A) Portugal B) Brazil C) France D) Argentina

Question No. : 2

Which was the 1st non Test playing country to beat India in an international match?

A) Zimbabwe B) Sri Lanka C) East Africa D) Canada

Question No. : 3

The 2018  FIFA World Cup would be held in which of the following countries?

A) Russia B) France C) Netherlands D) Germany

Question No. : 4

Saina Nehwal is associated with which game?

A) Bad Minton B) Table Tennis C) Lawn Tennis D) Kabaddi

Question No. : 5

Which player has won the European Golden Boot Award 2014?

A) Luis Suarez B) Lionel Messi C) Luis Enrique D) Sergi Roberto

Question No. : 6

Which of the following trophies is associated with the game of Football?

A) Evert Cup B) Merdeka Cup C) Mumbai Gold Cup D) Bharat Ram Cup

Question No. : 7

The Olympics were re-started in the year

A) 1846    B) 1926 C) 1900 D) 1896

Question No. : 8

Who among the following is known as the Wizard of Hockey?

A) Dhyan Chand B) Milkha Singh C) Pargat Singh D) Cedric D’Souza

Question No. : 9

Rupali Ramdass is related to which of the following sports?

A) Badminton B) Volleyball C) Hockey D) Swimming

Question No. : 10

At which of the following places did the first Asian Games take place?

A) Bangkok B) Kualalampur C) Ceylon D) New Delhi


161

GK Sports Test 03
Question No. : 11

The sports/adventure activity which consumes the highest no. of calories per minute is

A) Running fast    B) Swimming C) Lifting weights D) Mountaineering

Question No. : 12

Which stadium is popularly known as ‘Cricket ka Kashi’?

A) Lord’s B) Oval C) Eden Garden D) Niyaz

Question No. : 13

The national game of Canada is

A) Hockey B) Ice Hockey C) Cricket D) Baseball

Question No. : 14

The term ‘breast stroke’ is associated with

A) Croquet B) Rifle shooting C) Skiing D) Swimming

Question No. : 15

The term "Feint" is related to which of the following?

A) Cricket B) Badminton C) Swimming D) Hockey

Question No. : 16

Baseball is the national game of

A) Sweden B) Canada C) Spain D) U.S.A

Question No. : 17

How many players are there in a Volleyball team?

A) 6 B) 7 C) 5 D) 8

Question No. : 18

Iron, Dribbling --- These terms belong to which of the following games?

A) Boxing B) Hockey C) Squash D) Chess

Question No. : 19

Which of the following international events is associated with the game of car racing?

A) Twenty 20 B) FIFA World Cup C) Dubai Open D) Singapore Grand prix

Question No. : 20

Citius, Altius, Fortius --- These words in the Olymopic motto refers to
 

A) Stronger, Higher, Better  B) Faster, Higher, Longer  C) Faster, Higher, Better  D) Faster, Higher, Stronger 
     

Question No. : 21

Hashim Amla who was awarded the player of the year in his category is a famous_____

A) Tennis player B) Badminton player C) Hockey player D) Cricket player


162

GK Sports Test 03
Question No. : 22

Bull fighting is the national game of

A) Italy B) Poland C) Spain D) Sudan

Question No. : 23

The game of Hockey originated in:

A) India B) Canada C) England D) France

Question No. : 24

2010 Winter Olympic was held in:

A) USA B) Russia C) Australia D) Vancouver

Question No. : 25

What is the distance of running in a marathon race?

A) 26 miles 385 yards B) 26 miles 405 yards C) 26 miles 180 yards D) 26 miles

Question No. : 26

Which of the following terms is NOT used in the game of cricket?

A) Short Leg B) Silly Point C) Follow On D) Gambit

Question No. : 27

Name the Cycling Coach of Indian national team, who died in a road accident near Nalgadha village on Noida Expressway in
Uttar Pradesh.

A) Ruma Chatterjee B) Ruma Mukherjee C) Ruma Banerjee D) Ruma Chakrobarty

Question No. : 28

 
M.C. Mary Kom is associated with which sport?

A) Chess B) Cricket C) Boxing D) Hockey

Question No. : 29

Who won the Hungarian Grand prix 2014 :

A) Daniel Ricciardo B) Fernando Alonso C) Nico Rosberg D) Lewis Hamilton

Question No. : 30

In 2013, Pakistan’s Shahid Afridi became the first cricketer to hit 400 sixes in international career. Against which cricketing
nation did he achieve this rare distinction?

A) Sri Lanka B) West Indies C) Zimbabwe D) New Zealand

Question No. : 31

The term '16 yards hit' is associated with

A) Badminton B) Baseball C) Polo D) Hockey

Question No. : 32

Who won the 2011 FIFA Women's World Cup Final?

A) Sweden B) Japan C) USA D) France


163

GK Sports Test 03
Question No. : 33

Which Irish player scored the fastest Century in the history of World Cup Cricket?

A) Niall O' Brien B) Kevin O' Brien C) A. Cusack D) Ed Joyce

Question No. : 34

Which countries co-hosted the One-day cricket World Cup in 2011?

A) India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka B) India, Bangladesh and Pakistan C) India, Sri Lanka and Pakistan
D) India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Pakistan

Question No. : 35

Pullela Gopichand is associated with:

A) Badminton B) Basketball C) Cricket D) Hockey

Question No. : 36

Which of the following sports will  not feature in the  London  2012 Olympic Games of the International Olympic Committee
being held from 27 July 2012 to 12 August 2012 ?

A) F1 Racing B) Karate C) Kabaddi D) All these

Question No. : 37

Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?

A) Heave B) Silly Point C) Tee D) Smash E) Grand slam

Question No. : 38

The ASIAD is held every:

A) 2 year B) 1 year C) 4 year D) 5 year E) 3 year

Question No. : 39

The now retired South African cricket player Mark Boucher is the most successful wicket-keeper in the world with dismissals in
Test matches

A) 666 B) 444 C) 555 D) 333

Question No. : 40

Which country won the Davis Cup Tennis Tournament 2011 held in December 2011?

A) Argentina B) USA C) Australia D) Japan E) Spain


164

GK Miscellaneous Test 01

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

 
World Heart Day is observed on ……….

A) 18 September B) 20 September C) 25 September D) 28 September

Question No. : 2

With which of the following scams would you associate Vijay Singla and Mahesh Kumar?

A) Coalgate B) 2G Spectrum C) Railgate D) Saradha Chit fund

Question No. : 3

National Girl Child Day is observed on

A) January 14 B) January 24 C) February 2 D) February 8

Question No. : 4

Which university has signed comprehensive partnerships with two top universities of China, thus becoming the first Indian
institution to enter the flourishing Chinese education market?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru University B) Manipal University C) Rajasthan University D) Panjab University E) Delhi University

Question No. : 5

 
The World Environment Day is celebrated every year on which of the following days?

A) 5th August B) 5th July C) 5th June D) 15th June E) 15th July

Question No. : 6

The first test-tube baby in the world was named

A) Barbara McCray B) Louis Brown C) Indira D) McCarthy Donald

Question No. : 7

When is the International Day for Non-Violence and Peace observed?

A) May 31 B) October 2 C) July 11 D) December 10

Question No. : 8

Whose death anniversary is observed as the Rashtriya Sadbhavna Divas?

A) Rajiv Gandhi B) Indira Gandhi C) Swami Vivekanand D) Mahatama Gandhi

Question No. : 9

 
The first Monday of which month is observed as World Habitat Day?

A) September B) October C) November D) December

Question No. : 10

When is the raising day for ITBP observed in the year?

A) October 20 B) October 22 C) October 21 D) October 24


165

GK Miscellaneous Test 01
Question No. : 11

The number of female children per 1000 male children in India, as per Census 2011, is

A) 933 B) 940 C) 916 D) 892

Question No. : 12

Which day is celebrated as the World Metrological Day?

A) 21st March B) 22nd March C) 23rd March D) 24th March

Question No. : 13

Light houses are places with powerful lights to

A) guide and resolve traffic jams in crowded metro-cities during nights


B) guide and help large crowds at religious gatherings during nights
C) indicate to the incoming war-ships, the location of a harbor during night
D) guide and warn the ships coming from different directions in the ocean

Question No. : 14

The Company ‘Associated Journals Ltd.’ (AJL) is the publisher of now-defunct daily newspaper____

A) Young India B) The Independent C) Amrit Bazaar Patrika D) National Herald E) Bombay Chronicle

Question No. : 15

May 8 is observed as

A) World Standards Day B) World Telecommunication Day C) World Red Cross Day D) Commonwealth Day

Question No. : 16

 
Laura Chinchilla has been elected as the first woman president of _________.

A) Argentina B) Costa Rica C) Brazil D) Spain

Question No. : 17

Syed Mamnoon Hussain has been sworn in as the new President of Pakistan. Which of the following statements about him is
not correct?

A) He was born in the Indian city of Agra B) He is a Nawaz Sharif loyalist
C) He succeeds Asif Ali Zardari as the 10th President of Pakistan D) He is a Textile businessman and Politician

Question No. : 18

Who spearheaded the mass agitation against corruption and demanded the early introduction of Lokpal bill?

A) Anna Hazare B) Arvind Kejriwal C) Kiran Bedi D) Swami Agnivesh

Question No. : 19

The Pashmina variety of wool is obtained from

A) Sheep B) Camel C) Rabbit D) Goat

Question No. : 20

The year 2010 is represented in Roman Numerals as

A) LLX B) MMX C) IIXX D) CCXX


166

GK Miscellaneous Test 01
Question No. : 21

Julian Assange, the founder of WikiLeaks, was arrested in which of the following countries?

A) U.K B) Sweden C) U.S.A D) Denmark

Question No. : 22

What does the letter ‘C’ denote in the name NCAER, the research institute?

A) Corporation B) Committee C) Core D) Council E) Campus

Question No. : 23

To mark the 100th anniversary of International Women's Day, the 'UN Women' has launched special programme only for the
women of India, Nepal and Sri Lanka. The programme will focus only on a particular section of women who are____

A) Widows B) Serving in Para Military Forces C) Victims of terrorism D) Victims of domestic violence
E) Street dwellers and rag pickers

Question No. : 24

Who amongst the following is popularly known as the Milkman of India ?

A) Medha Patkar B) Sundarlal Bahuguna C) Mahendra Singh Tikait D) Sudha Murthy E) Verghese Kurien

Question No. : 25

The Election Commission of India is giving training to the electoral officers of which of the following countries in its
neighborhood?

A) Nepal B) Pakistan C) China D) Bangladesh E) Bhutan

Question No. : 26

Which of the following days is observed as Teacher’s Day in India ?

A) 5th October B) 5th November C) 5th September D) 15th November E) 15th September

Question No. : 27

Yingluck Shinawatra, who had to leave her post due to a court order, was the Prime Minister of

A) Japan B) Thailand C) South Korea D) Singapore E) Indonesia

Question No. : 28

Which state has the largest urban population in India?

A) Maharashtra B) Kerala C) Chattisgarh D) West Bengal

Question No. : 29

The synagogue is

A) an epic B) a religion C) Jewish House of Prayer D) the Parsi temple E) a palace

Question No. : 30

According to a recent newspaper survey, which one of the following is the most preferred language for leisure reading among
the Indian Youth?
 

A) Hindi B) Marathi C) Bengali D) Telugu E) English


167

GK Miscellaneous Test 01
Question No. : 31

Who among the following is a famous cartoonist ?

A) Barkha Dutt B) Saeed Naqvi C) Prabhu Chawla D) R. K. Laxman E) M. F. Hussain

Question No. : 32

Which terrorist outfit has claimed the responsibility for the assassination of Afghanistan President Hamid Karzai's younger
brother Ahmed Wali Karzai, calling it one of its biggest achievements?

A) Taliban B) HuJI C) Al Qaeda D) LeT

Question No. : 33

While inaugurating an International Buddhist conclave in Varanasi in 2012, the government took initiative to plan something to
give facilities to nationals from countries such as Thailand and Malaysia. What’s the plan?

A) Religious Harmony Pact (RHP) B) Visa-on-Arrival (VOA) C) Easy-Visa- for Tourism (EVT) D) Buddhist Trade Pact

Question No. : 34

On which one of the following characters is Biometric Security based?

A) Finger prints and palm recognition only B) Face recognition and voice recognition only
C) Hand writing and manual recognition only D) Only 1 and 2 E) All 1, 2 and 3

Question No. : 35

Which of the following countries meet more than one fourths of their energy requirements from nuclear" power?

A) France, U.S, Russia, Germany B) France, Ukraine, Sweden, Korea C) France, India, Ukraine, Germany
D) Germany, Russia, Canada, Japan E) Japan, Germany, Korea, England

Question No. : 36

The Supreme Court had declared "Salva Judum" unconstitutional. What is 'Salva Judam' ?

A) A terrorist outfit B) An armed civilian group formed to combat Maoists C) A money-chain business
D) Custom of killing a girl for inter-caste marriage in the name of honour

Question No. : 37

The group of languages spoken by the largest number of people in India is:

A) Austro-Asiatic B) Indo-Aryan C) Dravidian D) None of these

Question No. : 38

Which scientist was known as 'Wizard of Menlo Park' ?

A) Isaac Newton B) Albert Einstein C) Louis Pasteur D) Thomas Alva Edison E) Tesla

Question No. : 39

On which day is the World Press Freedom Day celebrated?

A) 1st May B) 2nd May C) 3rd May D) 4th May E) 21st May

Question No. : 40

Jorge Bergoglio, who has been elected the new Pope, belongs to

A) Brazil B) Argentina C) Italy D) India E) France


168

GK Miscellaneous Test 02

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Which country has successfully launched two intercontinental missiles Sineva?

A) Russia B) USA C) Israel D) Iran

Question No. : 2

Name the Indian American high schooler who received the Intel Foundation Young Scientist Award of $50,000 at Phoneix,
Arozona, for inventing a revolutionary device that can fully charge a cell-phone in 20-30 seconds.

A) Parijat Roy B) Rubel Chakrovart C) Eesha Khare D) Divya Sharma

Question No. : 3

India has developed supersonic cruise missile “BrahMos” in collaboration with which country?

A) France B) Israel C) USA D) Russia

Question No. : 4

 
National Youth Day is observed on –

A) 15 January B) 12 January C) 20 January D) 28 January E) 30 January

Question No. : 5

 
In India, Gender Inequality is manifest in multiple forms. Which of the following is/are some of these forms?

(A) Adverse Sex ratio


(B) Bad nutrition and health care
(C) Differential rates of wages
(D) Poor Legal rights

A) Only (A) & (C) B) Only (B) & (C) C) All (A), (B), (C), & (D) D) Only (B) & (D) E) None of these

Question No. : 6

“Man is born free, yet everywhere he is in chains”. Who said this?

A) Jean Jacques Rousseau B) Shakespeare C) Wordsworth D) Lord Tennyson

Question No. : 7

Which of the following has declared the House sparrow as its official bird?

A) Gujarat B) Uttar Pradesh C) Haryana D) Delhi

Question No. : 8

World Population Day is observed on

A) 1 July B) 5 July C) 7 July D) 11 July

Question No. : 9

Who was the first woman Prime Minister in the world?

A) Indira Gandhi B) Srimavo Bhandaranaike C) Margaret Thatcher D) Benazir Bhutto


169

GK Miscellaneous Test 02
Question No. : 10

Which state government of India signed MoU with the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) Ltd for a
scheme as per which it will bear all the expenses for senior citizens to go on select pilgrimages?

A) Rajasthan B) Odisha C) Madhya Pradesh D) Punjab

Question No. : 11

The NRI Day is observed on:

A) 9th January B) 19th January C) 29th January D) 19th January

Question No. : 12

Pakistan, in the year 2014, successfully test fired the nuclear capable…………, a short range surface-to-surface missile

A) Hatf III B) Hatf I C) Hatf I D) Hatf IV

Question No. : 13

Name the Venezuela's president and a prominent US-baiter who died on March 5, 2013 after a struggle with cancer.

A) Hugo Chavez B) Stephane Hessel C) Bruce Reynolds D) None of these

Question No. : 14

The ‘International Day of Older Persons’ is observed every year on ______

A) 31st October B) 21st October C) 1st October  D) 11th October E) 19th September

Question No. : 15

C.I.S. consists of the republics of former

A) Czechoslovakia B) Indo-China C) Yugoslavia D) Soviet Union

Question No. : 16

Name the country which has moved to the forefront of a campaign to restrict the wearing of the Muslim veil by women when a
key vote left it on track to become the first European country to ban the burqa and naqaab in public.

A) France B) Switzerland C) Denmark D) Belgium

Question No. : 17

India occupies which position in the Global Competitiveness Report 2014, by the Geneva based World Economic Forum (WEF)?

A) 39th B) 50th C) 60th D) 65th

Question No. : 18

What is the name of the fastest express train that provides non-stop point-to-point service between Metros and major capitals,
which was introduced in 2009-10?

A) Rajdhani B) Duronto C) Shatabdi Express D) Garib Rath

Question No. : 19

Which of the following is India’s national flower?

A) Rose B) Lotus C) Marigold D) Rhododendron


170

GK Miscellaneous Test 02
Question No. : 20

A group of words that share the same spelling and the same pronunciation but have different meanings, e,g. left (opposite of
right) and left (past tense of leave)

A) Synonyms B) Homonyms C) Heteronyms D) Acronyms

Question No. : 21

In February 2011, Gopa Sabharwal was appointed as the first Vice Chancellor of which University of international stature?

A) Jawaharlal Nehru University B) Azim Premji University C) Visva-Bharati University


D) Nalanda International University

Question No. : 22

What is the full form of term 'HDR' as used as a source of information on various aspects of global well being?

A) Higher Developmental Ratio B) Human Deployment and Resources C) Human Development Report
D) Health & Democratic Rights E) Housing Demand & Reforms

Question No. : 23

What is the real name of the fictional character ‘Winnie – the – Pooh’?

A) Edward Bear B) Christopher Robin C) A.A.Milen D) None of these

Question No. : 24

Who amongst the following is the chairperson of the Farmers Commission of India at present ?

A) Dr. M. S.Ahluwalia B) Dr. Bimal Jalan            C) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan D) Dr. Y. V. Reddy E) None of these

Question No. : 25

Which of the following days was proclaimed “International Literacy Day” by UNESCO?

A) 8th September B) 18th September C) 18th October D) 8th October E) 28th November

Question No. : 26

Which of the following countries has agreed to accept the payment for oil and petroleum exportss to India, in rupee terms
instead of dollar or any other currency?

A) Kuwait B) UAE C) Iran D) Iraq E) Libya

Question No. : 27

In 1958, who became the first Indian to receive Raman Magsaysay Award ?

A) Vinoba Bhave B) Baba Amte C) Satyajit Ray D) Jai Prakash Narain E) Jagjivan Ram

Question No. : 28

Kargil Vijay Divas is celebrated on every year in honour of Kargil war heroes

A) 2 November B) 26 July C) 27 November D) 15 July


171

GK Miscellaneous Test 02
Question No. : 29

The Air Traffic Controller's job involves


 
A. control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
B. control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
C. following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
D. control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
E. to authorize and regulate commercial flights

A) (a), (b) B) (b), (c) C) (a), (b), (c) D) (a), (b), (c),(d), (e) E) (c), (d), (e)

Question No. : 30

The white revolution in India is associated with

A) J. V. Narlikar B) J.C. Bose C) Verghese Kurien D) M.S. Swaminathan E) C. Rangarajan

Question No. : 31

Name the first of the seven areas, the control of which has been handed over to Afghan forces by NATO forces, a step seen as a
critical step in transition of power to Afghanistan government.

A) Central Province of Bamiyan B) Panjshir Province C) Kabul Province D) Heart City

Question No. : 32

Name the person who has been sworn in as president of world's newest nation, South Sudan, ushering in hope for peace after
half century of disturbance.

A) Gier Chuang Aluong B) Paul Mayom Akech C) Gen. Salva Kiir Mayardit D) David Deng Athorbei

Question No. : 33

Which of the following has been hailed as the “ Super food of Tomorrow” by the World Health Organization.?

A) Soya bean B) Egg C) Spirulina D) Groundnut

Question No. : 34

The first Earth Day was observed on April 20 in the year

A) 1970 B) 1975 C) 1985 D) 1990

Question No. : 35

Which country launched a long-range rocket Unha-3 on 12 December 2012 despite international opposition and growing
tensions in the region?

A) North Korea B) South America C) Ukraine D) South Korea

Question No. : 36

The World Heritage Day is observed on

A) March 18 B) April 20 C) March 20 D) April 18

Question No. : 37

Name the bird that migrates from the North Pole to the South Pole and back...

A) Arctic tern B) Swallow C) Crane D) Penguin


172

GK Miscellaneous Test 02
Question No. : 38

In 1953, who became the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) ?

A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur B) Sucheta Kriplani C) Vijay Laxmi Pandit D) Sarojini Naidu E) None of these

Question No. : 39

Commercial services were started on a India Radio for the first time in

A) 1957 B) 1959 C) 1967 D) 1969

Question No. : 40

The ISIS is most active in

A) Syria, Iraq B) Syria C) Nigeria D) Iraq E) Iran


173

GK Miscellaneous Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option


Question No. : 1

Who was the Chief guest at the 64th Indian Republic Day parade in 2014?

A) Shinzo Abe B) Jim-Chang C) Lee Peng D) Kim-Jon-II

Question No. : 2

After the spot-fixing scandal hit the IPL, the IPL drama took another dramatic turn with the league’s costliest franchise
announcing its decision to pull out of the T-20 extravaganza over financial differences with the BCCI. Name the franchise:

A) Kings XI Punjab B) Delhi Daredevils C) Pune Warriors India D) Sunrisers Hyderabad

Question No. : 3

The US Senate in 2013 voted 97- 0 to confirm  ________ to a judgeship on the prestigious US Court of Appeals, considered the
most important in the country after the Supreme Court. This is the highest judicial appointment achieved by an Indian –
American so far.

A) Srikanth Srinivasan B) Srinath Srnivasan C) Sreesanth Srinivasan D) Srinathan Srinivasan

Question No. : 4

 
To promote clean energy sources, India has approved a policy that calls for blending at least what per cent of biofuels in diesel and petrol
by 2017

A) 25 percent B) 10 percent C) 20 percent D) 15 percent E) 5 percent

Question No. : 5

 
Aang San Su Kyi, who has waging a war against the ruling junta belongs to which of the following countries?

A) Vietnam B) Brazil C) Burma D) China

Question No. : 6

The present Christian calendar is based on the system given by:

A) St. John B) St. Augustus C) Emperor Nero D) Pope Gregory

Question No. : 7

Match the following lists and choose the correct answer from the given codes.
 
i. World Health Day                            A. 7 April
ii. Water Resources Day                   B. 10 April
iii. World Haemophilia Day                C. 17 April
iv. World Earth Day                           D. 22 April

A) A                      B                      C                     D B) C                     D                     A                      B


C) B                      C                     A                      D D) D                     C                     A                      B

Question No. : 8

 
The International Day for Elimination of Racial Discrimination is observed on

A) 21st February B) 20th February C) 20th  March D) 21st March


174

GK Miscellaneous Test 03
Question No. : 9

Rajdhani Express trains run

A) only between New Delhi and all State capitals B) only between New Delhi and State capitals
C) only between New Delhi and important cities D) only between New Delhi and Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai

Question No. : 10

Geo-stationary satellites, which enable the trasnmission of TV chaneels, are positioned at a height of

A) 11.2 Km B) 36000 Km C) 16000 Km D) Any height of choice

Question No. : 11

On which date was the Earth Hour observed in 2014?

A) 26 Jan B) 26 Feb C) 26 March D) 19 March

Question No. : 12

National Education Day is celebrated in India on

A) 11 November B) 11 December C) 21 November D) 21 December

Question No. : 13

Telangana has recently become the 29th State of India. Which of the following statement regarding the state is NOT true?
 

A) It shares boundaries with Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra


B) It is the 12th largest state of the country in terms of population
C) It is the first state to be carved out on a linguistic basis D) It is the 12th largest state of the country in terms of Area
E) It has 119 seats in the Assembly and 40 seats in the council. 

Question No. : 14

Peter Drucker was a famous

A) economist B) management theorist C) environmentalist D) industrialist

Question No. : 15

 
The study of coins and medals is known as

A) Mycology B) Philately C) Calisthenics D) Numismatics

Question No. : 16

 
Central Drug Research Institute is located at which place?

A) Lucknow B) New Delhi C) Chennai D) Jaipur

Question No. : 17

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) closed down the Telegram service in 2013, making Telegraph a thing of past. In which
year was first Telegram sent in India?

A) 1848 B) 1850 C) 1853 D) 1857


175

GK Miscellaneous Test 03
Question No. : 18

To which country does General Ali Mohsen belong, who in spite of being very close to the President, switched sides and
expressed his support to pro-democracy protesters?

A) Syria B) Tunisia C) Libya D) Yemen

Question No. : 19

Pakistan has raised objection over the construction of Kishanganga Hydro Power project being developed in —

A) Rajasthan B) Jammu & Kashmir C) Gujarat D) Punjab

Question No. : 20

Indian Rupee received a unique symbol which blends the scripts of      

A) Devanagari and Palli B) Sanskrit and Roman C) Devanagari and Roman D) None of the above

Question No. : 21

Which of the following years was/is declared "International Year of Forest" by the UNO?

A) 2010 B) 2009 C) 2012 D) 2011 E) None of these

Question No. : 22

Which of the following is NOT considered a negative effect of employment in call centers?

A) High pressure and stress B) Distortion of moral values C) Distortion of language


D) Higher remuneration for low skill jobs E) Low remuneration for high skill jobs

Question No. : 23

December 10 is observed as

A) World Health Day B) U.N. Day C) Red Cross Day D) Human Rights Day

Question No. : 24

World's AIDS Day is observed on which of the following days?

A) 1st December B) 1st March C) 1st April D) 1st May E) 1st January

Question No. : 25

 Which of the following is one of the main reasons of the High Drop out Rate among school going children ?

A) Poor infrastructure in schools B) Shortage of books and reading material


C) Cropping pattern followed by farmers (It needs more manpower for farming activities) D) Low level of female literacy
E) High rate of urbanization

Question No. : 26

Which of the following countries has announced to freeze its Nuclear Programme so that it can avail of food aid from the US
and other countries?
 

A) North Korea B) South Korea C) Iran D) India E) Pakistan

Question No. : 27

The World Post Day is celebrated on

A) 9 October B) 30 January C) 2November D) 27 November


176

GK Miscellaneous Test 03
Question No. : 28

Which country includes its income from cocaine and narcotics in its GDP ?

A) Columbia B) Venezuela C) Afghanistan D) Peru

Question No. : 29

In broad gauge, the distance between the rails is

A) 1.00 meter B) 3 meters C) 1.67 meters D) 2.67 meters E) 0.76 meters

Question No. : 30

Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product ?

A) Tea B) Jowar C) Urad D) Apple E) Calcium

Question No. : 31

Which country has formally recognized Transitional National Council (TNC), the rebel group of Libya, as its legitimate
government, potentially opening up a huge funding stream for rebels?

A) Canada B) UK C) USA D) Germany

Question No. : 32

Which country is the world's first one to declare itself fully wi-fi?

A) Vatican City B) Vanatu C) Estonia D) Luxembourg

Question No. : 33

In which one of the following States is the uranium project proposed to be set up?

A) Manipur B) Meghalaya C) Orissa D) Assam E) Nagaland

Question No. : 34

The study of population is called:

A) Demography B) Biography C) Cartography D) Anthropology

Question No. : 35

Currently, the Chinese Premier is:

A) Mo Yan B) Kim Jong Un C) Mao Je Dong D) Xi Jinping

Question No. : 36

What is the offspring of an elephant called?

A) Cub B) Calf C) Elephantine D) Kid

Question No. : 37

He is a famous playwright, socialist and one of the Co-Founders of London School of Economics, name the person:

A) Beatrice Webb B) George Bernard Shaw C) Arnold Bennett D) Richard Brome

Question No. : 38

Which Indian state has the highest per capita milk availability?

A) Punjab B) Gujarat C) MP D) UP E) Haryana


177

GK Miscellaneous Test 03
Question No. : 39

Grand Central Terminal, Park Avenue, New York is the world's

A) Highest railway station B) Largest railway station C) Longest railway station D) Smallest railway station
E) None of these

Question No. : 40

Which of the following is at the bottom of the Human Development Index Report of the UNDP released in December, 2014?

A) Somalia B) Congo C) Sierra Leone D) Chad E) Mozambique


178

Static GK Tests Answer Keys


GK Indian GK Indian GK Indian GK World GK Business GK Business
History Test History Test History Test History Test & Economy & Economy
01 02 03 01 Test 01 Test 02

1. C 1. A 1. C 1. A 1. D 1. D
2. B 2. D 2. A 2. E 2. D 2. C
3. A 3. A 3. C 3. C 3. B 3. C
4. B 4. D 4. A 4. A 4. A 4. B
5. C 5. B 5. B 5. A 5. A 5. D
6. B 6. B 6. A 6. A 6. C 6. C
7. D 7. B 7. C 7. D 7. A 7. B
8. C 8. C 8. C 8. A 8. C 8. A
9. B 9. A 9. B 9. B 9. C 9. B
10. C 10. C 10. B 10. A 10. B 10. C
11. D 11. B 11. C 11. B 11. B 11. C
12. C 12. A 12. A 12. C 12. D 12. B
13. A 13. C 13. C 13. C 13. A 13. C
14. B 14. A 14. C 14. C 14. A 14. A
15. A 15. C 15. C 15. B 15. C 15. D
16. A 16. D 16. B 16. B 16. B 16. C
17. A 17. A 17. D 17. D 17. D 17. B
18. D 18. C 18. D 18. D 18. A 18. B
19. B 19. A 19. B 19. A 19. A 19. D
20. B 20. C 20. B 20. D 20. C 20. A
21. C 21. C 21. B 21. A 21. D 21. C
22. B 22. A 22. B 22. A 22. A 22. B
23. C 23. C 23. A 23. B 23. A 23. D
24. C 24. D 24. A 24. A 24. A 24. C
25. C 25. A 25. C 25. C 25. C 25. D
26. B 26. D 26. A 26. A 26. C 26. D
27. C 27. B 27. B 27. C 27. B 27. D
28. B 28. B 28. A 28. A 28. D 28. B
29. A 29. A 29. A 29. A 29. D 29. A
30. A 30. B 30. D 30. B 30. C 30. A
31. A 31. A 31. A 31. B 31. A 31. A
32. A 32. B 32. C 32. C 32. B 32. B
33. A 33. B 33. B 33. B 33. C 33. D
34. D 34. A 34. D 34. B 34. B 34. C
35. C 35. D 35. C 35. D 35. D 35. D
36. A 36. D 36. A 36. C 36. B 36. C
37. C 37. B 37. B 37. B 37. B 37. D
38. C 38. D 38. D 38. B 38. A 38. C
39. C 39. B 39. C 39. C 39. D 39. C
40. A 40. D 40. A 40. C 40. B 40. D
179

GK Business GK Finance GK Finance GK Finance GK Indian GK Indian


& Economy & Banking & Banking & Banking Geography Geography
Test 03 Test 01 Test 02 Test 03 Test 01 Test 02

1. C 1. C 1. C 1. B 1. B 1. B
2. A 2. A 2. C 2. E 2. C 2. C
3. C 3. A 3. C 3. E 3. B 3. D
4. A 4. D 4. D 4. D 4. B 4. B
5. C 5. D 5. D 5. D 5. C 5. D
6. D 6. B 6. D 6. B 6. B 6. C
7. C 7. C 7. D 7. D 7. A 7. B
8. C 8. A 8. B 8. C 8. B 8. B
9. D 9. B 9. D 9. B 9. C 9. B
10. B 10. E 10. C 10. C 10. C 10. A
11. C 11. B 11. D 11. B 11. A 11. B
12. D 12. A 12. A 12. B 12. C 12. A
13. A 13. B 13. C 13. B 13. B 13. A
14. B 14. C 14. C 14. D 14. C 14. C
15. D 15. A 15. C 15. A 15. B 15. A
16. D 16. B 16. D 16. D 16. D 16. D
17. B 17. A 17. B 17. E 17. B 17. B
18. D 18. A 18. C 18. A 18. D 18. D
19. C 19. D 19. D 19. A 19. C 19. B
20. A 20. E 20. B 20. C 20. B 20. A
21. C 21. C 21. E 21. A 21. D 21. D
22. B 22. B 22. D 22. C 22. B 22. D
23. A 23. E 23. C 23. A 23. D 23. D
24. A 24. A 24. C 24. E 24. D 24. A
25. A 25. E 25. B 25. A 25. B 25. B
26. A 26. E 26. A 26. E 26. C 26. A
27. B 27. E 27. C 27. B 27. A 27. A
28. C 28. C 28. D 28. B 28. D 28. A
29. A 29. B 29. A 29. E 29. D 29. B
30. C 30. B 30. C 30. A 30. D 30. C
31. C 31. E 31. A 31. C 31. A 31. A
32. B 32. E 32. B 32. A 32. C 32. A
33. A 33. A 33. C 33. E 33. C 33. A
34. D 34. A 34. B 34. B 34. A 34. C
35. D 35. E 35. C 35. D 35. D 35. A
36. B 36. C 36. B 36. E 36. B 36. E
37. A 37. B 37. E 37. D 37. B 37. A
38. D 38. C 38. E 38. D 38. A 38. B
39. D 39. D 39. C 39. B 39. E 39. C
40. C 40. E 40. B 40. C 40. E 40. C
180

GK Indian GK GK GK GK GK GK
Geography Environment Environment Environment Indian Indian Indian
Test 03 Test 01 Test 02 Test 03 Polity Polity Polity
Test 01 Test 02 Test 03
1. A 1. C 1. C 1. D 1. D 1. C 1. C
2. B 2. B 2. B 2. D 2. D 2. C 2. C
3. B 3. D 3. B 3. C 3. D 3. D 3. C
4. C 4. C 4. A 4. A 4. D 4. A 4. B
5. A 5. B 5. C 5. D 5. A 5. A 5. A
6. A 6. A 6. D 6. B 6. C 6. B 6. D
7. B 7. A 7. C 7. C 7. A 7. D 7. B
8. C 8. E 8. D 8. C 8. D 8. C 8. C
9. B 9. A 9. C 9. B 9. B 9. B 9. D
10. A 10. C 10. C 10. A 10. B 10. D 10. C
11. C 11. A 11. B 11. C 11. C 11. C 11. C
12. A 12. D 12. A 12. A 12. C 12. A 12. D
13. A 13. B 13. C 13. C 13. C 13. B 13. D
14. A 14. D 14. A 14. C 14. C 14. C 14. B
15. D 15. D 15. D 15. D 15. A 15. C 15. D
16. A 16. D 16. C 16. A 16. C 16. C 16. B
17. D 17. D 17. D 17. C 17. C 17. C 17. C
18. C 18. B 18. B 18. D 18. C 18. C 18. A
19. B 19. D 19. B 19. B 19. B 19. B 19. C
20. D 20. B 20. B 20. B 20. A 20. C 20. C
21. B 21. A 21. D 21. C 21. A 21. D 21. D
22. B 22. A 22. D 22. D 22. C 22. A 22. A
23. D 23. B 23. C 23. B 23. A 23. A 23. B
24. B 24. D 24. B 24. B 24. A 24. A 24. A
25. A 25. C 25. D 25. B 25. D 25. B 25. C
26. A 26. D 26. C 26. B 26. D 26. D 26. A
27. A 27. D 27. B 27. C 27. B 27. D 27. D
28. A 28. A 28. C 28. C 28. C 28. A 28. B
29. B 29. B 29. D 29. C 29. A 29. B 29. D
30. A 30. A 30. C 30. B 30. D 30. A 30. A
31. D 31. C 31. D 31. B 31. A 31. D
32. D 32. C 32. D 32. D 32. A 32. D
33. B 33. D 33. C 33. B 33. A 33. A
34. D 34. A 34. D 34. D 34. C 34. A
35. D 35. C 35. C 35. B 35. A 35. C
36. C 36. B 36. A 36. C 36. B 36. A
37. B 37. C 37. D 37. C 37. A 37. B
38. B 38. C 38. C 38. A 38. C 38. A
39. D 39. B 39. C 39. D 39. B 39. B
40. A 40. B 40. C 40. C 40. C 40. A
181

GK Govt. GK Govt. GK Govt. GK Int. & GK Int. & GK Int. &


Schemes & Schemes & Schemes & National National Org National Org
Policy Test Policy Test Policy Test Org Test 01 Test 02 Test 03
01 02 03
1. C 1. B 1. B 1. D 1. D 1. B
2. E 2. B 2. C 2. A 2. D 2. A
3. D 3. C 3. C 3. C 3. C 3. B
4. B 4. A 4. B 4. B 4. B 4. A
5. B 5. A 5. A 5. D 5. B 5. B
6. C 6. B 6. D 6. A 6. A 6. C
7. E 7. B 7. D 7. C 7. A 7. D
8. B 8. A 8. D 8. B 8. B 8. A
9. C 9. A 9. B 9. D 9. C 9. C
10. A 10. A 10. A 10. D 10. D 10. A
11. D 11. B 11. C 11. A 11. C 11. D
12. B 12. C 12. C 12. A 12. D 12. C
13. A 13. B 13. A 13. C 13. A 13. D
14. B 14. C 14. B 14. D 14. D 14. C
15. B 15. A 15. C 15. C 15. B 15. C
16. C 16. D 16. B 16. A 16. B 16. A
17. B 17. B 17. A 17. C 17. E 17. A
18. C 18. C 18. C 18. A 18. A 18. E
19. E 19. C 19. A 19. A 19. D 19. B
20. C 20. D 20. B 20. D 20. D 20. A
21. A 21. B 21. B 21. B 21. C 21. B
22. A 22. D 22. B 22. A 22. B 22. A
23. A 23. B 23. B 23. C 23. E 23. E
24. A 24. A 24. D 24. D 24. C 24. D
25. D 25. C 25. B 25. E 25. C 25. E
26. A 26. E 26. B 26. C 26. B 26. A
27. A 27. D 27. C 27. C 27. D 27. D
28. A 28. A 28. A 28. A 28. B 28. B
29. C 29. D 29. B 29. B 29. C 29. B
30. E 30. C 30. D 30. D 30. A 30. C
31. A 31. A 31. E 31. A 31. A 31. C
32. C 32. E 32. A 32. B 32. B 32. D
33. B 33. B 33. C 33. B 33. C 33. B
34. C 34. C 34. B 34. C 34. C 34. D
35. B 35. B 35. C 35. A 35. D 35. A
36. A 36. A 36. A 36. A 36. D 36. C
37. A 37. B 37. A 37. B 37. D 37. D
38. A 38. C 38. B 38. A 38. D 38. D
39. C 39. D 39. A 39. D 39. A 39. B
40. B 40. B 40. C 40. E 40. C 40. B
182

GK Sci. & GK Sci. & GK Sci. & GK Books, GK Books, GK Books,


Tech. Test Tech. Test Tech. Test Authors, Authors, Authors, Art,
01 02 03 Art, Culture Art, Culture Culture Test
Test 01 Test 02 03
1. A 1. D 1. A 1. A 1. C 1. C
2. E 2. B 2. C 2. A 2. B 2. D
3. E 3. A 3. A 3. A 3. B 3. B
4. C 4. A 4. A 4. C 4. B 4. A
5. B 5. C 5. C 5. B 5. C 5. D
6. A 6. C 6. B 6. A 6. A 6. B
7. A 7. C 7. D 7. C 7. B 7. B
8. A 8. B 8. B 8. D 8. C 8. B
9. D 9. B 9. B 9. B 9. B 9. A
10. C 10. C 10. D 10. B 10. C 10. B
11. B 11. B 11. B 11. B 11. C 11. D
12. B 12. C 12. D 12. D 12. A 12. C
13. C 13. B 13. D 13. A 13. C 13. A
14. D 14. A 14. B 14. B 14. C 14. C
15. B 15. A 15. B 15. C 15. C 15. A
16. A 16. C 16. B 16. A 16. B 16. C
17. C 17. C 17. A 17. C 17. B 17. A
18. C 18. B 18. B 18. A 18. A 18. A
19. D 19. D 19. A 19. D 19. D 19. B
20. A 20. B 20. C 20. B 20. C 20. C
21. B 21. B 21. B 21. A 21. C 21. A
22. C 22. C 22. B 22. C 22. B 22. A
23. C 23. B 23. A 23. B 23. C 23. D
24. C 24. A 24. C 24. B 24. A 24. B
25. C 25. D 25. C 25. B 25. A 25. C
26. A 26. D 26. D 26. B 26. B 26. A
27. A 27. B 27. B 27. B 27. D 27. D
28. D 28. C 28. A 28. B 28. C 28. B
29. C 29. C 29. B 29. D 29. A 29. A
30. C 30. B 30. B 30. B 30. C 30. C
31. D 31. A 31. A 31. A 31. B 31. A
32. A 32. D 32. D 32. B 32. D 32. D
33. D 33. A 33. B 33. D 33. D 33. B
34. B 34. A 34. B 34. A 34. A 34. B
35. C 35. D 35. D 35. B 35. A 35. A
36. D 36. C 36. B 36. C 36. C 36. B
37. C 37. D 37. D 37. C 37. B 37. B
38. C 38. C 38. A 38. B 38. C 38. B
39. B 39. A 39. B 39. C 39. B 39. C
40. C 40. B 40. A 40. C 40. D 40. C
183

GK Sports GK Sports GK Sports GK GK GK


Test 01 Test 02 Test 03 Miscellaneous Miscellaneous Miscellaneous
Test 01 Test 02 Test 03

1. A 1. A 1. D 1. D 1. A 1. A
2. D 2. A 2. B 2. C 2. C 2. C
3. A 3. A 3. A 3. B 3. D 3. A
4. D 4. D 4. A 4. D 4. B 4. C
5. A 5. A 5. A 5. C 5. C 5. C
6. B 6. B 6. B 6. B 6. A 6. D
7. C 7. B 7. D 7. B 7. D 7. A
8. A 8. A 8. A 8. A 8. D 8. D
9. C 9. A 9. D 9. B 9. B 9. C
10. A 10. A 10. D 10. D 10. A 10. B
11. C 11. D 11. D 11. B 11. A 11. D
12. D 12. D 12. A 12. C 12. A 12. A
13. C 13. A 13. B 13. D 13. A 13. C
14. B 14. C 14. D 14. D 14. C 14. B
15. A 15. D 15. B 15. C 15. D 15. D
16. C 16. D 16. D 16. B 16. D 16. A
17. D 17. D 17. A 17. C 17. C 17. B
18. C 18. A 18. B 18. A 18. B 18. D
19. A 19. A 19. D 19. A 19. B 19. B
20. C 20. D 20. D 20. B 20. B 20. C
21. B 21. C 21. D 21. A 21. D 21. D
22. D 22. A 22. C 22. D 22. C 22. D
23. B 23. A 23. D 23. A 23. D 23. D
24. B 24. D 24. D 24. E 24. C 24. A
25. B 25. B 25. A 25. E 25. A 25. C
26. B 26. A 26. D 26. C 26. C 26. A
27. C 27. C 27. A 27. B 27. A 27. A
28. A 28. A 28. C 28. A 28. B 28. D
29. B 29. C 29. A 29. C 29. D 29. C
30. D 30. B 30. B 30. E 30. C 30. E
31. C 31. B 31. D 31. D 31. A 31. C
32. A 32. D 32. B 32. A 32. C 32. C
33. C 33. B 33. B 33. B 33. C 33. C
34. A 34. A 34. A 34. D 34. A 34. A
35. A 35. C 35. A 35. B 35. A 35. D
36. B 36. C 36. D 36. B 36. D 36. B
37. B 37. E 37. B 37. B 37. A 37. B
38. B 38. D 38. C 38. D 38. C 38. A
39. E 39. B 39. C 39. C 39. A 39. B
40. D 40. C 40. E 40. B 40. A 40. C