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FocusIAS

ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2017

Test Booklet Series

TEST NO-11

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER- I A


Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

I N S T R U C T I O N S

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD


CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you
want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct
response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
5. All items carry equal marks.
6. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per
instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
9. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN
THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

D O NO T O P E N T H I S B O O K L E T U N T IL Y O U A R E A SK ED T O DO SO

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1. Which of the following is Incorrect (d) Governor
about Consultative Committees
(a) Consultative committees consist of 4. A President’s rule can be imposed in a
members of both the Houses of state under the provisions of:
Parliament 1. Article 356
(b) They are attached to various 2. Article 360
ministries /departments of the 3. Article 352
Central Government 4. Article 365
(c) These committees are constituted (a) only 1
by the Ministry of Parliamentary (b) 1 and 3
Affairs (c) 1 and 4
(d) Speaker/Chairman nominates (d) 1 and 2
members to these committees
5. Which of the following Constitutional
2. Which of the following statements are Amendment act provided for the
true about the Governor of a state? appointment of the same person as
1. The executive power of the state is Governor for two or more states?
vested in him. (a) 4th Amendment
2. He must have attained 35 years of (b) 7th Amendment
age. (c) 11th Amendment
3. He holds office during the pleasure (d) 24th Amendment
of the President.
4. The grounds for his removal are 6. The correct statements about ordinance
laid down in the Constitution. making power of the Governor are:
(a) 1, 2, and 4 1. It is laid down in Article 213.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 2. It can be issued by him after the
(c) 1, 3 and 4 advice of the President or state
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 council of ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative
3. Money bill can be introduced in the power of the state legislature.
state legislature only on the 4. It can be issued only during the
recommendation of: recess of State Legislative Assembly
(a) Speaker and not the Legislative Council.
(b) Finance Minister 5. It cannot be withdrawn by him
(c) Chief Minister anytime.

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(a) 2, 3 and 4 3. Has the power to appoint and remove
(b) 1, 3 and 5 the members of State Public Service
(c) 1, 2 and 3 Commission.
(d) 2, 4 and 5 4. Has the power to allocate business of
the government among the various
7. The Governor of a state: ministers.
1. Possesses executive, legislative and Of the above, the correct statements are:
judicial powers analogous to the (a) 1 and 2
President. (b) 2, 3 and 4
2. Has to act with the aid and advice of (c) 1 and 4
the council of ministers always. (d) 1, 3 and 4
3. Has the power to appoint and remove
the members of State Public Service 9. Article 16 provides that No citizen can be
4. Commission. discriminated against or be ineligible for any
employment or office under the State on
5. Has the power to allocate business of
grounds of only
the government among the various
1. Descent
ministers.
2. language
Of the above, the correct statements are: 3. place of birth
(a) 1 and 2 4. race
(b) 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) 1 and 4 given below.
(d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
8. Which of the following statements are (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
correct about the difference between a (d) 3 and 4 only
censure motion and a no-confidence motion?
1. A censure motion should state the 10. If both speaker and deputy speaker of Lok
reasons for its adoption whereas a no Sabha is absent from a joint sitting, then who
confidence motion need not state the presides over such a sitting?
reason for its adoption. (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. A no-confidence motion can be moved (b) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
only against the council of ministers, (c) A person as may be determined by the
whereas a censure motion can be members present.
moved (d) None of the above.

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11. Who among the following can be 13. Which of the following is/are a
appointed as an acting Chief Justice of India Fundamental Right under part 3 of the
by the President? Indian Constitution?
1. a judge of Supreme Court. 1. 1. Right to form trade unions.
2. a judge of any High Court. 2. Right to obtain recognition of the trade
3. a senior advocate of a Supreme Court. union.
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. Right to Strike
given below. Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12. The ordinance making power of Governor
is co-extensive with the legislative power of 14. Bio-fencing in place of electric fencing can
the state legislature. This means help in
1. Ordinance can only be promulgated 1. Reducing man-animal conflict.
when Legislative assembly is not in 2. Stopping animals from coming in
session. human habitations.
2. Ordinance can be promulgated only on 3. Saving lives of animals.
those subjects on which state 4. Protecting crops.
legislature can make laws. Select the correct answer using the codes
3. Governor can promulgate ordinance given below.
only on the advice of Council of (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ministers. (b) 1 and 3 only
4. An ordinance cease to operate on the (c) 2 and 3 only
expiry of six weeks after the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
reassembly of state legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes 15. Indian constitution is a combination of
given below. federal and non-federal features. Point out
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only the non-federal features from these:
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. All India Services
(c) 2 only 2. Flexibility of the constitution
(d) 2 and 4 only 3. Supremacy of constitution
4. Bicameralism

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Select the correct answer using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Ocean seeding refers to 19. 'Ghatikas' during the early medieval India
(a) Growing plants inside ocean. refers to
(b) Quick germination of seeds inside (a) Association of traders.
ocean water. (b) Colleges and centres providing
(c) Encouraging growth of phytoplankton Brahmanical learning in south India.
to remove carbon. (c) Jaina cave monasteries and centre of
(d) None of the above learning in Kalinga areas.
(d) None
17. Which of the following is/are an example
of active remote sensing? 20. Which of the following is/are an example
1. camera with its flash turned on. of live vaccine?
2. spectrometer. 1. BCG
3. LIDAR 2. Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. Varicella Vaccine
given below. Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
18. QR codes are being increasingly used
everywhere. Which of the following is/are true 21. With reference to oil spills, consider the
about QR codes? following statements:
1. QR code is a three dimensional matrix 1. They make the water deficient in
code. oxygen.
2. They are free from security issues. 2. They can cause algal blooms.
3. They contain more information than Which of the statements given above is/are
conventional barcodes. correct?
(a) 1 only

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(b) 2 only 1. It introduced a system of open
(c) Both 1 and 2 competition for selection of civil
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 servants.
2. It ended the activities of the East India
22. Although the Constitution came into force Company as a commercial body.
on 26 January 1950, some provisions of the Which of the statements given above is/are
constitution came into force on November 26, correct?
1949 itself. These included (a) 1 only
1. Fundamental Rights (b) 2 only
2. Citizenship (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Elections (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. 25. Water in a wetland can be:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Fresh
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. Brackish
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Static
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
23. Consider the following statements about (a) 1 and 2 only
scattering of solar radiation waves: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. Scattering happens when the diameter (c) 2 and 3 only
of dust particles in the air is shorter (d) 1, 2 and 3
than the wavelengths of the solar
radiation waves. 26. Which of the following statements is/are
2. A major portion of the scattered solar true about ‘Impeachment of the President’?
energy is sent back to the space. 1. Elected Members of Legislative
Which of the statements given above is/are members of UT participate in the
correct? process
(a) 1 only 2. The process can be initiated in Lok
(b) 2 only Sabha Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The charges should be signed by 2/3rd
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the members of the House
Select the correct code:-
24. With reference to Charter Act of 1833, (a) 1 only
consider the following statements: (b) 1 and 2
(c) none

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(d) 3 only 1. Because India adopted parliamentary
system of government.
27. Consider the following statements about 2. Avoid conflict between Prime Minister
resolution and motion: and President.
1. Every resolution is a particular type 3. After independence India had limited
motion. financial sources to conduct dual
2. All resolutions are required to be voted Direct election for MPs and President.
upon. 4. The direct election of the President
Which of the statements given above is/are would have been very costly and time
correct? and energy consuming due to the vast
(a) 1 only size of the electorate.
(b) 2 only Choose following correct reasons
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
28. Arun Jaitly is a member of Rajya sabha (d) 1,2,3,4
as well as the Finance minister. Being a
minister he has some rights in Lok sabha too. 30. A joint session of the parliament can be
In this context which of the following is/are called under which of the following
correct? circumstances
1. He can speak in Lok sabha. 1. If Lok Sabha (LS) passes a bill but
2. He can participate in the proceeding of Rajya Sabha (RS) rejects it.
Lok sabha. 2. If LS passes a bill but 3 months lapse
3. He can vote in Lok sabha. without Rs passing it.
4. He can become member of public 3. If LS passes a bill, but RS passes it
account committee. with certain amendments that LS
Select the correct answer using the codes disagrees with.
given below. Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
29. Why Constitution makers choose the
indirect election method for Presidents
election?

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31. Consider the following statements Choose the correct answer using the codes
1. The position of the Rajya Sabha in our below:
constitutional system is not as strong (a) 1 and 2 Only
as that of the House of Lords in the (b) 1 and 3 Only
British constitutional system (c) 2 and 3 Only
2. The USA, the Senate seats are (d) All
allocated to States based on the
population just like for Rajya Sabha in 34. Which of the following statements about
India Resolution is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1. Private Members’ Resolution can be
(a) 1 Only discussed every Friday
(b) 2 Only 2. Government Resolution can be taken
(c) Both up from Monday to Friday
(d) None 3. Statutory Resolution can be moved by
either private member or minister.
32. Which of the following is/are the Select the correct code:
restrictions placed on the adjournment (a) 1 and 2
motion? (b) 2 and 3
1. It cannot cover more than one matter (c) 1 and 3
2. It can raise a question of privilege (d) 3 only
Which of the Statements given below is/are
correct? 35. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only 1. Rajya Sabha must return the money
(b) 2 only bill to Lok Sabha within two weeks
(c) All of the above 2. The President can not return the
(d) None of the above money bill for reconsideration of the
Parliament
33. During the Budget session, which of the 3. The money bill is introduced only on
following expenditures is/are non-votable the recommendation of the Union
by the Parliament? cabinet
1. Salaries and pensions of the judge of Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the Supreme Court (a) 1 and 3 Only
2. Salaries and allowances of All India (b) 2 and 3 Only
Services officers (c) 1 and 2 Only
3. Pensions of the judges of high courts (d) All

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36. Consider the following statements. (d) If he is convinced the administration
1. The fourth schedule of the constitution cannot be carried in accordance with
deals with the allocation of seats in the the provision of constitution of India.
Rajya Sabha to the states and Union
territories. 39. Which of the following is/are correct
2. In Rajya Sabha has 245 member out of regarding the office of Governor in India?
these 6 member represent the Union 1. One Governor can act as Governor of
territories. more than one State
Which of the Statements given below is/are 2. The Governor has the power to grant
correct? pardons, reprieves, remission of
(a) 1 only punishment to persons convicted
(b) 2 only under the State Law
(c) All of the above 3. The Governor is appointed by the
(d) None of the above President on the recommendation of
the Chief Minister of the respective
37. Which of the following is/are included in State.
the Legislative Powers of the President? (a) 1 and 2
1. He nominates 12 members of the Rajya (b) 1 and 3
Sabha (c) 2 and 3
2. He appoints Attorney General of India (d) 1,2 and 3
3. He administers the UTs through
administrators appointed by him. 40. The principle of ‘collective responsibility’
Select the correct code :- under parliamentary democracy implies That
(a) 1only 1. a motion of no-confidence can be
(b) 1 and 2 moved in the Council of Ministers as a
(c) 2 and 3 whole as well as an individual minister
(d) 1 and 3 2. No person shall be nominated to the
Cabinet except on the advice of the
38. The Governor may recommend the Prime Minister
imposition of the President’s rule in the State: 3. No person shall be retained as a
(a) On the recommendation of state member of the Cabinet if the Prime
legislature Minister says that he shall be
(b) On the recommendation of president dismissed
(c) On the recommendation of chief Select the correct answer using the code
minister given below:
(a) 1 and 2

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(b) 1 and 3 2. Salaries, allowances and pensions of
(c) 2 and 3 the Judges of the Supreme Court &
(d) 1,2 and 3 high court.
Select the correct code
41. Which of the following statements are (a) 1 only
correct: (b) 2 only
1. President can nominate 2 members (c) Both
from the Anglo – Indian community if (d) None
not adequately represented in LS.
2. Governor can nominate 2 members 44. Which of the following is/are correct:
from the Anglo – Indian community if 1. A Money bill can be introduced only in
not adequately represented in LA. Lok Sabha.
Select the correct code: 2. A Money bill is also a Financial Bill.
(a) 1 only 3. All Financial bills can be introduced
(b) 2 only only on the recommendation of the
(c) Both President.
(d) None Select the correct code
(a) 1 only
42. Which of the following officials take the (b) 1 & 2 only
Oath that has the following lines: (c) 1, 2 & 3
“To preserve protect and defend the (d) None of these
constitution”
1. President. 45. In India, the Judges of the High Court of
2. Governor. a State are appointed by
3. Chief Justice of India. (a) President
Select the correct code (b) Vice president
(a) 1 only. (c) Governor
(b) 1 & 2 only. (d) Chief justice of India
(c) 1, 2 & 3.
(d) None of the above. 46. What do you understand by constituent
function of parliament?
43. Which of the following Expenditure is/are (a) To constitute election of the President
the expenditure ‘Charged’ on the and Vice President of India.
Consolidated fund of India: (b) The Parliament constitute legislations
1. Emoluments and allowances of for the country
President & Vice President.

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(c) Ensure executive does not overstep its 49. The Consultative Committee of members
authority and remains responsible to of Parliament for Railway Zones in
the people who have elected them. constituted by the
(d) The Parliament has the power of (a) President of India
discussing and enacting changes to (b) Chairman of Rajya sabha
the Constitution. (c) Speaker of Lok sabha
(d) Ministry of parliamentary affairs
47. Which of the following are the
discretionary powers given to the Governor of 50. Which of the following statements is/are
a State correct ?
1. Sending a report to the President of 1. The Council of Ministers of Indian
India for imposing the President’s rule Union is collectively responsible to the
2. Appointing the Ministers parliament
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the 2. President form the part of Union
State Legislature for consideration of executive and is the head of state in
the President of India India
4. Making the rules to conduct the (a) 1 only
business of the State Government (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Both
given below: (d) none
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,2 and 3 51. Who decides whether a bill is a money bill
(c) 1 and 3 or not?
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (a) President
(b) Presiding officer of any house
48. Who among the following discharges the (c) Lok sabha speaker
functions of the President of India when the (d) Prime minister
offices of the President and the Vice-President
are vacant? 52. The joint sitting of the House of People
(a) Governor and the Council of States is summoned by
(b) Speaker of Lok sabha (a) The president
(c) Chief justice of India (b) Lok sabha speaker
(d) Prime minister (c) Parliament
(d) Chairman of Rajya sabha

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53. Who nominates the Chairman of the proportional representation for the election of
Public Accounts Committee of Indian members to the Lok Sabha, the Constitution
Parliament? has not adopted the system due to-
(a) The speaker of lok sabha 1. Difficulty for the voters to understand
(b) The prime minister the system (which is complicated) due
(c) President to low literacy scale in the country
(d) Chairman of Rajya sabha 2. It would have increased territorial and
sectoral divide
54. Consider the following statements (a) Only 1
1. The Union Executive consists of only (b) Only 2
the President and the Council of (c) Both 1 & 2
Ministers with the Prime Minister as (d) None
the head.
2. The President may, by writing under 57. Which of the following statement
his hand-addressed to the Vice- regarding Legislative council is Incorrect-
President, resign his office. (a) The maximum strength of the council
3. Executive power of the Union is vested is fixed at half of the total strength of
in the Prime Minister. the assembly and the minimum
Which of the statements given above is/are strength is fixed at 40
correct? (b) In a legislative council 1/3 are elected
(a) 1 and 2 by the members of local bodies in the
(b) 2 and 3 state like municipalities, district
(c) 2 only boards, etc.,
(d) 3 only (c) 1/3 are elected by the members of the
legislative assembly of the state from
55. Who among the following can attend the amongst persons who are not members
meetings of both Houses of Parliament while of the assembly
being not a member of either House ? (d) 1/6 are nominated by the governor
(a) Solicitor general of India
(b) Vice president of India 58. Which of the following is correct regarding
(c) Comptroller and auditor general of Rajya Sabha membership
India 1. He must be not less than 30 years of
(d) Attorney general of India. age
2. He must be registered as an elector in
56. Though some members of the Constituent that particular state
Assembly had advocated the system of (a) Only 1

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(b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 3
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) None
(d) None
61. In case of ordinary bills of Bicameral
59. Which of the following statement(s) is/are State Legislature, which of the following
correct statements is incorrect
1. The state executive consists only of the (a) If the assembly rejects the
governor, the chief minister and the amendments suggested by the council
council of ministers or the council rejects the bill altogether
2. The oath of office to the governor is or the council does not take any action
administered by the president for three months, then the assembly
(a) Only 1 may pass the bill again and transmit
(b) Only 2 the same to the council.
(c) Both 1 & 2 (b) If the council rejects the bill again or
(d) None passes the bill with amendments not
acceptable to the assembly or does not
60. A person cannot be a member of both pass the bill within one month, a joint
Houses of Parliament at the same time. sitting is called.
The Representation of People Act (1951) (c) when a bill, which has originated in
provides for rules for this. Which of following the council and was sent to the
is Incorrect in this regard- assembly, is rejected by the assembly,
1. If a person is elected to both the the bill ends.
Houses of Parliament, he must (d) All are correct
intimate within 10 days in which
House he desires to serve. In default of 62. Which of the following is correct incorrect
such intimation, his seat in the Rajya regarding privileges of a state legislature
Sabha becomes vacant. (a) The courts are prohibited to inquire
2. If a sitting member of one House is into the proceedings of a House or its
also elected to the other House, his Committees
seat in the first House becomes vacant (b) The privileges of the state legislature
3. If a person is elected to two seats in a are not available to the governor
House, he should exercise his option (c) Members cannot be arrested for
for one. Otherwise, both seats become proceedings under any civil or criminal
vacant. cases, during the session of the state
(a) 1 only legislature and 40 days before the
(b) 2 only

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beginning and 40 days after the end of LokSabha, arising on the ground of
such session. defection under the provisions of the
(d) No member is liable to any proceedings Tenth Schedule.
in any court for anything said or any 2. The decision of the Speaker in this
vote given by him in the state regard is final and outside judicial
legislature or its committees. review.
(a) Only 1
63. Which of the following regarding to (b) Only 2
Speaker is INCORRECT (c) Both 1 & 2
1. The date of election of the Speaker is (d) None
fixed by the old Speaker
2. he resigns by writing to the President 66. Which of the following statement is
3. He can be removed only by a correct-
resolution passed by the Lok Sabha by (a) a member of the state legislature can
an absolute majority participate in the proceedings of the
(a) 1 only House before he takes the oath but
(b) 1 and 2 can’t vote.
(c) 2 and 3 (b) A person is liable to a penalty of `500
(d) 1 and 3 for each day he sits or votes as a
member in a House before taking and
64. Which of the following statements are subscribing the prescribed oath or
correct affirmation
(a) Governor appoints and removes the (c) a member of scheduled castes or
state election commissioner scheduled tribes can only contest seats
(b) He can nominate two member to the reserved for them.
state legislature assembly from the (d) All are correct
Anglo-Indian Community
(c) He decides on the question of 67. Select the largest committee of parliament
disqualification of members of the on the basis of number of members from
state legislature in consultation with following as your answer
the Election Commission (a) Public Accounts Committee
(d) All are correct. (b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertaking
65. Identify the correct statements: (d) Departmental Standing Committee
1. Speaker decides the questions of
disqualification of a member of the

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68. Which of the following is Incorrect 71. The organisation known as “Tarun Bharat
regarding Parliamentary Forums Sangh”
(a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the
President of all the Forums (a) Promotes decentralised, community-
(b) Each Forum consists of not more than led management of natural resources.
31 members (excluding the President (b) Rescues victims of human trafficking
and ex-officio Vice- Presidents) and rehabilitates them.
(c) The Secretary-General of Lok Sabha is (c) Creates awareness about, as well as
the Secretary to the forums protect and defend human rights as
(d) The duration of the office of members enshrined in the Universal Declaration
of the forum is co-terminus with their of Human Rights.
membership in the respective Houses. (d) Identifies and educates village
communities on the causes and effects
69. In what is being called a ‘radical of gender violence, and offers services
experiment’, which country is testing a that address the needs of abused and
programme of giving its citizens a guaranteed violated women.
income of US Dollars 590 a month, regardless
of their “income, wealth, or employment 72. Which of the following statements with
status”? reference to the concept of “securitisation”
(a) Australia is/are correct?
(b) Canada 1. Under this process, certain types of
(c) Finland assets are pooled so that they can be
(d) Mexico repackaged into interest-bearing
securities.
70. ‘NewSpace’, sometimes seen in the news, 2. It helps spread out credit exposures,
refers to thereby diffusing risk concentrations.
(a) The word used to denote the private Select the correct answer using the code
space-flight industry. given below:
(b) The name of TeamIndus’ co-
contestant’s rover from Japan, which (a) 1 only
the former will be carrying in its (b) 2 Only
spacecraft. (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) The name of TeamIndus’ moon rover. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) The series of quantum satellites
launched by China.

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73. If “green bonds” finance environmentally 1. The salary and allowances of the Chief
friendly businesses and assets, “blue bonds” Minister are determined by the fourth
finance specifically schedule of constitution
2. Chief Minister is the head of the
(a) Development of sustainable council of ministers, his resignat-ion or
fisheries. death automatically dissolves the
(b) Water infrastructure. council of ministers and mandates
(c) Energy-efficient systems for fresh elections.
conventional electricity generation (a) Only 1
systems. (b) Only 2
(d) Adaptation projects in Small Island (c) Both 1 & 2
Nations. (d) None

74. The landmark judgement of NALSA v. 77. Which of the following statement is
Union of India, is related to correct
(a) Rights of transgender persons. 1. After the 42nd Constitutional
(b) Section 66A of the Information Amendment (1976), ministerial advice
Technology Act. has been made binding on the
(c) The conception of compromise in a Governor
case of rape or attempt to rape. 2. if any question arises whether a matter
(d) An unwed mother as sole guardian of a falls within the governor’s discretion or
child. not, the decision of the governor is
final
75. Which of the following statement is 3. The executive power of the state shall
correct- be vested in the Chief Minister
1. The Prime Minister is the leader of the (a) Only 1 and 3
Lower House (b) Only 2
2. In India the Prime Minister is “primus (c) 1 and 2
inter pares” (d) 1,2 and 3
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None

76. Which of the following is Incorrect

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78. Which of the following statements is (a) 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
correct regarding Council of Ministers- (b) 84th Amendment Act of 2001
1. The advice tendered by Ministers to (c) Both a and b
the President is justiciable in Supreme (d) There is no such ban
Court
2. The ministers shall hold office during 82. Which of the following statements is
the pleasure of the Prime Minister Incorrect
(a) Only 1 1. Even after the dissolution of the
(b) Only 2 LokSabha, the council of ministers
(c) Both 1 & 2 does not cease to hold office.
(d) None 2. A minister who is a member of one
House of Parliament has the right to
79. Which of the following state shall have a speak and to take part and vote in the
Minister in charge of tribal welfare as per proceedings of the other House also.
Article 164 of the constitution (a) Only 1
(a) Orissa (b) Only 2
(b) Bihar (c) Both 1 & 2
(c) West Bengal (d) None
(d) All
83. Which of the following states does NOT
80. Which of the following statement is have a bicameral system
Incorrect (a) Uttar Pradesh
(a) Article 74 says only that the Prime (b) Tamil Nadu
Minister shall be appointed by the (c) Telangana
president (d) All have a bicameral system
(b) The term of the Prime Minister is five
years 84. Which of the following is correct-
(c) The Prime Minister should definitely be (a) The Chief minister of the state has to
a member of the Lower House undertake additional oath of secrecy
(d) All are incorrect which is not taken by other ministers
(b) The Chief Minister may be a member of
81. The ban on readjustment of total number any of the two Houses of a state
of seats in the assembly of each state and legislature.
the division of such state into territorial (c) The term of the Chief Minister is five
constituencies at the 1971 level has been years
effected by (d) All are correct

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(b) 2 and 3
85. Even though the council has been given (c) 1 and 3
less powers as compared with the assembly, (d) 1, 2 and 3
its utility is supported on which of the
following grounds: 87. Consider the following statements :
1. It checks the hasty, defective, careless 1- The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and
and ill-considered legislation made by Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
the assembly by making provision for 2- The second joint sitting of the two Houses
revision and thought. of Indian Parliament was held to pass the
2. It maintains the federal equilibrium by Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
protecting the interests of the states Which of these statements are correct?
against the undue interference of the (a) Only 1
Centre (b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 (c) Both 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 (d) None
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) None 88. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the
86. Consider the following statements : power to adjourn the House sine die
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are but, on prorogation, it is only the
associated with Committees on Public President who can summon the House.
Accounts and Public Undertakings, 2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an
members of Committee on Estimates extension of the term, there is an
are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha. automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs by efflux of time, at the end of the
works under the overall direction of period of five years, even if no formal
Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary order of dissolution is issued by the
Affairs. President.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs 3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in
nominates Members of Parliament on office even after the dissolution of the
Committees, Councils, Boards and House and until ‘immediately before
Commissions etc., set up by the the first meeting of the House’.
Government of India in the various Which of the statements given above are
ministries. correct?
Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

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(c) 1 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(a) 1 only
89. The resolution for removing the Vice- (b) 2 only
President of India can be moved in the (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Lok Sabha alone (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament 92. Which of the following Cabinet
(d) Rajya Sabha alone Committees is not chaired by the Prime
Minister?
90. With reference to Indian Parliament, (a) Political Affairs Committee
which one of the following is not correct ? (b) Appointments Committee
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed (c) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
by both the Houses of Parliament (d) Economic Affairs Committee
before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the 93. With reference to Union Government,
Consolidated Fund of India except consider the following statements :
under the appropriation made by the 1. The Ministries/Departments of the
Appropriation Act Government of India are created by the
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing Prime Minister on the advice of the
new taxes but no another Bill/Act is Cabinet Secretary.
required for making changes in the 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a
rates of taxes which are already under Minister by the President of India on
operation the advice of the Prime Minister.
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced Which of the statements given above is/are
except on the recommendation of the correct ?
President (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
91. With reference to Union Government, (c) Both 1 and 2
consider the following statements : (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Constitution of India provides that
all Cabinet Ministers shall be 94. A buffer solution is the one which
compulsorily the sitting members of (a) changes pH with the addition of a
Lok Sabha only. strong base.
2. CABINET COMMITTEES are extra (b) changes pH with the addition of an
constitutional acid.

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(c) resists changes in pH. 98. With reference to oceans, consider the
(d) does not change pH at all. following statements:
1. The average depth of Atlantic ocean is
95. Which of the following best describes the less than that of Pacific Ocean.
term 'effective radiation'? 2. Pacific Ocean is deeper as it has
(a) The difference between total incoming extensive continental shelves and
solar radiation and outgoing terrestrial marginal enclosed seas.
radiation. Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) The radiant energy received by the correct?
earth and its atmosphere. (a) 1 only
(c) The long wave radiation from the (b) 2 only
earth's surface. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. People drinking water from a shallow 99. Equity market instruments help in
hand pump are likely to suffer from which of financing a firm. Which of these is/are equity
the following diseases? market instruments ?
1. Cholera 1. Bonds
2. Typhoid 2. Shares
3. Jaundice 3. Debentures
4. Fluorosis Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
given below. (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
100. With reference to bio-stimulation,
97. An employment situation where the consider the following statements:
marginal productivity of agricultural labour is 1. Bio-stimulation involves the
zero is known as modification of environment to
(a) Structural unemployment. increase biodiversity.
(b) Frictional unemployment. 2. Bio-stimulation allows one to control
(c) Seasonal unemployment the nature of biomass.
(d) None of the above. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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