You are on page 1of 415

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

:

Test yourself- Exam 1-10
Noise Chapter 4
Antennas Chapter 6
Satellite Communications Chapter 10
Optical Fiber Communications
Broadcasting
Microwave Communications
Acoustics
Radiation and wave propagation
Transmission Fundamentals
Wire and Wireless Communications – Chapter 7
Modulation – Chapter 3

Test Yourself –Exam 01
1. ECE Board Exam March 1996
That dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core
A. Cladding
B. Armor
C. Shield
D. Cover
2. ECE Board Exam March 1996
An antenna that is circularly polarized is the ____________.
A. parabolic reflector
B. helical
C. Yagi-uda
D. small circular loop
3. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A word in telegraphy consist of __________ characters plus a word space.
A. 11
B. 7 and ½
C. 8
D. 5
4. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The number of voice band channels in master group per CCITT standard is __________.
A. 300
B. 480
C. 600
D. 120
5. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The power of standard test tone is normally ____________.
A. 1 dB
B. 0 mW
C. 1 mW
D. 1 W
6. ECE Board Exam March 1996
LORAN is a navigational system used primarily for _____________.
A. blind landing
B. obtaining your fixes location over large distances
C. automatic collision warning
D. approach control
7. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The expander in a companding device provides ___________.
A. greater amplification for low signal levels

B. less amplification for low signal levels
C. greater amplification for high signal levels
D. lesser pressure for transmission cables
8. ECE Board Exam March 1996
LORAN is a navigation system used primarily for
A. approach control
B. obtaining fixes over large distances
C. blind landing
D. automatic collision warning
9. ECE Board Exam March 1996
At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted) ?
A. -90 dB
B. -90 dBm
C. 90 dBm
D. 90 dB
10. ECE Board Exam March 1996
One character or a sequence of characters forming a part, or the whole of a message with
a specific meaning
A. Signs
B. Call sign
C. Code
D. Identifier
11. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The K-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile
calculation is equal to ___________.
A. 2/3
B. 0
C. 4/3
D. Infinity
12. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the IBM’s asynchronous data link protocol designation?
A. 83 B
B. 8A1 / 8B1
C. 93 B
D. 9A1/ 9B1
13. ECE Board Exam March 1996
EIRP stands for _______________.
A. effective isotropic refracted power
B. effective and ideal radiated power
C. effective isotropic reflected power

D. effective isotropic radiated power
14. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The modulation system used for telegraphy is
A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
C. pulse-code modulation
D. single-tone modulation
15. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The standard that specifies a balanced interface cable that will operate bit rates up to 10
Mbps with in a span distances up to 1200 m.
A. RS-423A
B. RS-422A
C. RS-550A
D. RS-449A
16. ECE Board Exam March 1996
An antenna which is not resonant at a particular frequencies and so can be used over a
wide band of frequencies and so can be used over a wide band of frequencies is called
A. aperiodic
B. boresight
C. cassegrain
D. top-loaded
17. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent noise
resistance of 30 ohms. What is the receiver’s noise temperature?
A. 754 K
B. 464 K
C. 174 K
D. 293 K
18. ECE Board Exam March 1996
___________ occurs when the microwave beam is at point of grazing over an obstacle.
A. Diffraction
B. Refraction
C. Absorption
D. Reflection
19. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Atmospheric condition is controlled by
A. humidity
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. all of these

20. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The characteristics impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its ________.
A. conductor spacing
B. conductor diameter
C. length
D. conductor radius
21. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator (BFO)?
A. Aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
B. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the intermediate frequency
C. Generates a 1kHz note for Morse code reception
D. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the intermediate frequency
by 1 kHz
22. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The point on the satellite orbit, closest to the earth is
A. prograde
B. perigee
C. zenith
D. apogee
23. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The potential difference between any exposed structured to ground in any electrical
installation should not exceed _________ volts RMS.
A. 10
B. 45
C. 0
D. 30
24. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The capture area of an antenna is directly proportional to the
A. frequency of the received signal
B. distance between transmitter and receiver
C. gain of the antenna
D. power density of the signal
25. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Modems are required to connect computer to telephone lines because ___________.
A. telephone company rules required them
B. the telephone network bandwidth is too high
C. none of the above
D. the telephone network will pass direct current
26. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is ___________.

A. elementary doublet
B. isotropic antenna
C. half-wave dipole
D. infinitesimal dipole
27. ECE Board Exam March 1996
One hundred twenty µbars of pressure variation is equal to
A. 120 dBSPL
B. 115.56 dBSPL
C. 41.58 dBSPL
D. 57.78 dBSPL
28. ECE Board Exam March 1996
It is a spacecraft placed in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiver
and transmitting equipments.
A. Fiber optic equipment
B. Communications satellite
C. Wireless radio system
D. Coaxial cable syste
29. ECE Board Exam March 1996
One type of pulse communications system uses pulse that appear as a group, and which
vary in number according to the loudness of the voice. This type of pulse modulation is
called
A. pulse duration modulation
B. pulse amplitude modulation
C. pulse code modulation
D. pulse position modulation
30. ECE Board Exam March 1996
A device to be connected across the headset in telephone receivers to reduce the effects
of acoustic shock.
A. Ground
B. Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite polarities
C. Protector
D. Fuse
31. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after
A. 10 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 15 days
32. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure?

A. 1.86
B. 0.1086
C. 1.086
D. 10.86
33. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The letter-number designation B8E is a form of modulation also known as ___________.
A. pilot carrier system
B. independent sideband emission
C. lincomplex
D. vestigial sideband transmission
34. ECE Board Exam March 1996
When the transmitting and receiving antennas are in line-of-sight of each other, the mode
of propagation is ________ wave.
A. space or direct
B. ground
C. surface
D. sky
35. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Crosstalk coupling is ___________.
A. dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm (disturbed pair)
B. the difference between readings on a cable pair with a tone and a cable pair without
tone read at the far end of a cable
C. signals from one circuit that get into another circuit
D. All of these are true
36. ECE Board Exam March 1996
According to the Nyquist theorem, the sampling rate that can be used in a PCM system is
________ the highest audio frequency.
A. once
B. eight times
C. twice
D. thrice
37. ECE Board Exam March 1996
Passive crossover components cause some frequencies to be delayed with respect to the
other frequencies at the crossover point.
A. Phase shift
B. Phase correction
C. Phase-error correction
D. Time alignment
38. ECE Board Exam March 1996

A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At this
distance, what is the sound power in watt?
A. 12 W
B. 0.12 W
C. 0.012 W
D. 1.2 W
39. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the one principal difference between synchronous and asynchronous
transmission?
A. the pulse height are different
B. the clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission
C. the clocking is mixed with the data in asynchronous
D. the bandwidth required is different
40. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The lowest layer in the ionosphere
A. D
B. F2
C. E
D. F1
41. ECE Board Exam March 1996
What is the number of pins in the RS-232C interface?
A. 25
B. 15
C. 20
D. 20
42. ECE Board Exam March 1996
SSB transmission requires only ______ of the bandwidth for a DSBFC transmission.
A. ¼
B. 2/3
C. ½
D. ¾
43. ECE Board Exam March 1996
The method of generating FM used by broadcasting station is
A. direct
B. all of these
C. indirect
D. insertion
44. ECE Board Exam March 1996

ECE Board Exam March 1996 A type of an underground antenna is a/an __________ antenna. 320 bps D. -82 dBm B. A. A. PWM D. Marconi 48. To reduce the receiver’s sensitivity to all incoming signals D. Delta B. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver C. A. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the reference tone level for dBm? A. -85 dBm C. parabolic D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog? A. 800 bps B. either seven or eight bits per character 46. isotropic C. PCM 49. Differential PCM C. . ECE Board Exam March 1996 Communications code is ____________. To overcome fluctuations in the level the RF signal arriving at the receiver antenna B. the same in all modern computers D. 400 bps C. Hertz B. eight bits per character B. -90 dBm 47. ECE Board Exam March 1996 TACAN is a navigational aid providing ___________. What is the transmission rate of a system for transmitting the output of a microcomputer to a line printer operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute? Assume that the line printer has 8 bits of data per character and prints out 80 characters/line. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the purpose of the receiver’s squelch circuit? A. -67 dBm D. To prevent fluctuations in the AGC bias level C. To prevent amplified noise from reaching the loudspeaker during the absence of an incoming signal 50. 640 bps 45.

None of these 53. infinite D. interstate calls are less costly . speed and height indication C. ECE Board Exam March 1996 If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line the return loss is ___________. A. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including any phasing lines present) B. asynchronous B. and more reliable C. the components are simpler. a unique SYNC character is transmitted at the beginning of each message. one C. The ratio of the signal in the backward direction D. digital D. analogue 52. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Binary communications systems are better because A. A. A. To provide an acceptable replica of the information at the destination 54. For modulation D. zero B. less costly. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is meant by antenna gain? A. None of these B. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output power of the transmitter C. instrument-landing glide paths 51. they can interface directly with the analog telephone network B. bearing and weather information D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 In __________ transmission. To have a frequency assignment C. The numeric ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna 55. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the main purpose of a communications system? A. bearing and distance indication B. people think better in binary D. synchronous C.

ensured by use of digital technique 59.88 volt C.56. simultaneously modulate a 450 volts carrier. communications system C. A. verified by the modem B. determined by the sender and receiver D. What is the total percent of modulation of the AM wave? A. 23/9 C. 14 dB 60. The signal to noise ratio therefore is __________.5 % C. 1 C.200 and 300 volts amplitude respectively. 0. ECE Board Exam March 1996 In the phase shift method. 1.14 volts B. 9/23 B. 120 kHz C. A. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The correctness and accuracy of the transmitted message content is A. 83% 61.12 volt . 32 dB D. 0. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Three audio waves with 100. 60 kHz D. 4 D. A. ECE Board Exam March 1996 If the percentage modulation of an AM amplifier is 88% and the modulating signal is 1 volt. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation in the FM broadcasting band is __________.88 volts D. 50% D. the carrier has an amplitude of _______________. None of these B. 115. 69 % B. 2 57. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise in the same channel is measured to be 9 dB. How many circuits must be balanced? A. 75 kHz 58. 150 kHz B. 1.

Hertzian dipole B. Broadside collinear D. balun D. quarter-wave transformer C. Yagi antenna C. slotted line 68. A. directional coupler B. Yagi-uda C. improve the efficiency of data transfer B. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The midrange frequency range of sound is from A. one reflector and one director A. relative 66. 16 to 64 Hz 67. 512 to 2048 Hz D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Data switching systems. definite C. the carrier carries ____________ intelligence. ECE Board Exam March 1996 In AM. are not used in data system 64. large B. Broadside array 63. . equally spaced along a straight line with all dipoles fed in the same phase from the same source. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Power is a _____________ amount of energy used in specific period of time A. End-fire array D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 To connect coaxial line to a parallel-wire _________ is the best to use. required additional lines D. A. 256 to 2048 Hz B. are limited to small data networks C. A.62. 2048 to 4096 Hz C. ECE Board Exam March 1996 It consists of a number of dipoles of equal size. electrical D. Log-periodic antenna B. Log periodic dipole array 65. ECE Board Exam March 1996 A type of array antenna which consists of one half-wave driven dipole.

midsection 70. same 69. input B. a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer D. 260 Hz B.29 Ω B. a single piece of wire connecting the subscriber’s telephone set to another telephone set in an adjacent room B.950 cm3.5 Ω 73. difference C. 137. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What quarterwave transformer will match a 100Ω line to an antenna whose value is 175Ω? A. 245 Hz C. 132.230 cm2 and baffle thickness of 19 mm. A. no B. 265 Hz D. distorted D. a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modem . ECE Board Exam March 1996 Characteristics impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the ___________ when its length is infinite. RF stage B. What is the Helmholtz resonance hertz of this speaker enclosure? A. 150 Ω C. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The local loop of the telephone system is understood to be A. mixer stage C. 16. a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customer’s premise and central office C. detector stage 71. IF stage D. 250 Hz 72. ECE Board Exam March 1996 A speaker cabinet has an internal volume 84.58 Ω D. shorted end of the line C. output D. It has a port area on the baffle of 3. A. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Cross modulation on a receiver is eliminated at the A.

Sidelobes 77. The arctic regions D. Polarization C. Quantizing D. APD B. Voltage/ current limiting and interrupting B. The equatorial regions B. Overloading B. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What does the noise weighting curve shows? A. The interfering effect of other frequencies in a voice channel compared with a reference frequency of one kilohertz D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is a measure of the microwave power radiated from an antenna as a function of angular direction from the antenna axis. Positive-intrinsic-negative 78. Interfering effects of signals compared with a 3-kHz tone . ECE Board Exam March 1996 The process of assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitudes A. Undergrounding C. Antenna pattern B.74. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Which one is not the basic electrical protection measures in the Philippine Electronics Code? A. ECE Board Exam March 1996 In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent? A. Shielding 79. Power levels of noise found in carrier systems C. The polar regions 75. Injection laser diode C. Beamwidth D. A. Light emitting diode D. A. Grounding and bonding D. Noise signals measured with a 144 handset B. Multiplexing 76. ECE Board Exam March 1996 It is the made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-galium-arsenide or gallium-arsenide-phosphide. The northern hemisphere C. All of these C.

4 dB over the gain of one antenna D. None of these C. balanced C. 10. low pass B.000 lines C. Lies in poorer audio response of phase modulation C. Is too great to make two systems compatible 81. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The ratio of the level of the modulated output of a transmitter under conditions of standard test modulation to the level of the demodulated output with no modulation applied both measured with the same bandwidth. Audio frequency response D. 10 dB over the gain of one antenna C. band stop D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The ___________ filter attenuates signals but passes frequencies below and above that band. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the difference between phase and frequency modulation? A. Is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice B. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the gain of four identically polarized antennas stacked one above the other and fed in phase? A. A. unbalanced D. Reference audio output B. ECE Board Exam March 1996 In a telephone system. A. 1000 lines B. Residual noise level 84.80.000 lines . high pass 85. the customer’s telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999. grounded 82. ECE Board Exam March 1996 When a transmission line uses ground return. band pass C. 100. Lies in the different definitions of the modulation index D. it is called a/an __________ line. A. ungrounded B. 3 dB over the gain of one antenna B. what is the capacity of the system? A. 6 dB over the gain of one antenna 83.

character oriented 92. load connected to the output end of a transmission line 91. looking back impedance of a line with no load D. Modal dispersion B. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Asynchronous protocol is A. full duplex. Limiter 88. ECE Board Exam March 1996 A one-hop. result of disconnecting a line from a transmitter B. ECE Board Exam March 1996 An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the silica material from which fibers are manufactured. 100 lines 86. ECE Board Exam March 1996 In an FM receiver. result of cutting both ends of a conductor C. bit oriented D. 8 B. ECE Board Exam March 1996 .5 to 74. Determine “how many receivers in all are used?” A. 4 D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.5 kHz C. 2 C. clock oriented C. Discriminator D. Ultraviolet absorption 87. A. which circuit removes amplitude variations? A. 19 to 38 kHz D. message oriented B. 30 to 53 kHz 90. microwave system in a space diversity arrangement. Infrared absorption C. Ion resonance absorption D. Exciter B. 59. Mixer C. 67 kHz B. 6 89. D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Termination means A. A.

A. 2. negative terminal B. A. 0 dB D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such as RG 8. A. Multi-path fading D. 83 96. positive terminal 93.10 C. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Power is always __________. A. 0. 2 dB 95. ECE Board Exam March 1996 After the IF stages have been aligned. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Gain of an isotropic antenna A. the rate at which energy is used D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 In measuring noise in a voice channel at a 4 dB test point level. expressed in watts 97. 53 B. A. ECE Board Exam March 1996 Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses. local oscillator . Rayleigh fading 98. 58 and 59? A. 93 C. 1 dB C. the meter reads -70 dBm (F1A weighted). -1 dB B. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to _________. convert the reading to pWp. 0. None of these C. input C. Log normal fading B.70 B.66 D.30 94. 0. 11. a definite amount of energy B. the next stage to align in FM receiver is. all of these C. 63 D. ground D.

Connector C. All of these C. No transmitter power is wasted in the carrier . Modem D. ECE Board Exam March 1996 What is the primary advantage of DSBSC in AM? A. RJ-11 plug 100. RF amplifier D. RS 232 B. It is simpler to transmit and receive than the standard AM D. limiter stage C. A. Reduce bandwidth over standard AM B. mixer stage 99. B. ECE Board Exam March 1996 ___________ is a device in data transmission to interface data terminal equipment to an analogue transmission line.

binary coding techniques B. convert electrical energy to mechanical energy D. serial transmission errors C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data digital form. A. DTE C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A system that performs parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversion of data link. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is . Modem D. MF D. A. the approximation of the quantized signal 5. the same in size C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has an _______ image. A. DCE B. none of these C. UART C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast? A. virtual B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Speaker is a device that __________. the synchronization between encoder and decoder D. smaller size 7. A. Modem D. Data terminal equipment (DTE) 4. UHF C. HF B. convert sound waves into current and voltage 6. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Quantization noise is caused by A. VHF 2. Data communications equipment (DCE) B. inverted D.Test Yourself – Exam 02 1. PC 3. convert current variations into sound waves B.

ECE Board Exam November 1996 How would one squeeze more channels of communication into TDM frames of standard length? A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 When one stations is designated as master and rest of the stations are considered slaves message handling is ________. All of these 11. there is more time than frequency D. Carrier frequency D. WAN C. Remove the synchronizing pulses 12. Captured waves B. Standing waves D. 2 B. Add modulators D. A. OSI 13. scattering 8. A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Energy that has neither been radiated into space nor completely transmitted. Modulation frequency B. Incident waves C. Shorten the time delay for each channel B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which determines the number of sideband components of FM? A. 6 . Most available frequencies has been used 10. LAN D. Modulated waves 9. it is difficult to place channels side by side C. attenuation B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU? A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is A. Modulation index C. A. propagation C. noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used B. polling B. Raise the amplitude C. absorption D.

ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which tester is used to measure SWR? A. LSB and USB B. RS-530. USB D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 RS-232. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? A. 144 kbps 19. LSB C. Spectrum analyzer B. A. Tie trunk D. 32 kbps C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system? . 64 kbps D. Private line C. Reflectometer D. 24 and X. A. 312 to 552 kHz B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX). Oscilloscope 20. Tandem trunk 17. 192 kbps B. 300 to 600 kHz C. standards for end to end performance of data communications system 16. A. Carrier 15. standards for interfaces between modems and transmission facilities B. 60 to 108 kHz 18.21 are examples of ____________. C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The output of a balanced modulator is ____________. 5 D. V. 3 14. standards for various types of transmission channels C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel? A. 60 to 2540 kHz D. Phantom line B. RS-449. Multimeter C.

4. What is the gain in dB obtain by the use of the reflector ? ( Gain referred to this particular dipole) A. 14 B.6 22. DM D. 3. 2. PAM B. 7 26.656 watts C. 64 kbps B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 . 270 kbps 21.75 D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Collects very weak signal from a broadcast satellite A. 240 kbps C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A seven-bit character can represent one of _________ possibilities. LNB C. Satellite dish B. 4. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the applied power if a thermal RF wattmeter is connected to a transmitter through a variable attenuator? The wattmeter reads 84 mW when 15 dB of attenuation is used. PCM 23. 64 C.24 B.856 watts 24. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field strength available with an input power of 11 kW. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A dipole antenna requires to be feed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal strength to a particular distant point. 2.656 watts D.656 watts B. 128 D. A. ADM C. 128 kbps D. 4. 1. A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Pulse carrier at the ratio of 8000 pulse/sec is amplitude modulated by an analog signal this type of modulation is A. Satellite receiver 25. Yagi-Uda antenna D.81 C. 2. A.

5 kW 27. Phase B. All of these B. It has a port area on the baffle of 50 in2 (322. Digital .70 in (18 mm). of this loudspeaker enclosure? A. Gateway 31. digital signals are easier to sample than analog signals C. 10 kW B. 245 Hz C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zone at the point of reflection the RSL A. router D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A _________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link layers. is decreased D. 250 Hz B. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila is A. analog signals are continuous and not easily distorted. What is the Helmholtz resonance. digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot easily be distorted D. 30. is above threshold C. AM and FM C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A loudspeaker cabinet has an internal volume of 5. A.58cm2) and a thickness of 0. is increased 29. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog transmission because A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Both frequency and phase modulation utilize ________ modulation A. 240 Hz D. 20 kW C.950 cm3). bridge C. repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distorstion B.184 in3 (84. 255 Hz 28. 15 kW D. remains the same B. in hertz.

NRZ C. the effective result is ______ of the equivalent curvatures. Angle 32. refraction B. flattening C. bulging D. D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 An electromagnetic wave consists of A. Bipolar 36. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitter is known as ________. non-magnetic field only 38. ECE Board Exam November 1996 An invitation from the primary to a secondary to transmit a message. Reuse D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 An agency of the United Nations that formulates standards and recommend practices for all civil aviation A. sensor C. ATO 35. ECE Board Exam November 1996 . IATA D. both electric and magnetic fields C. Polling 34. Binary B. downward curvatures B. ICAO B. CAA C. A. mode D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The transformer signal coding method for T1 carrier is A. Manchester D. Retransmission B. an electric field only D. Selection C. emitter 33. A. sharp curvature 37. A. a magnetic field only B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 When the value of k increases.

2:1 39. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the maximum color TV bandwidth? A. 1:4 D. if the maximum current to minimum current ratio is 2:1 what is the ratio of the maximum voltage to minimum voltage? A. 0. 1. dBm C. ASK B.98 B.5 MHz C. RHCP 40. A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 If Ns=250. 1. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station. 1:2 C. TDM D. PSK . 1. 1. dBa 42. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Multiplexing scheme use by baseband transmission. A. 1.3 MHz 43. In a transmission line.29 44. 4:1 B. Downlink D. 1. dBr D. 1.6 MHz B. Uplink C.33 D. Statistical multiplexing 41. A. A. Vertically polarized B. determine the earth radius k-factor. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which stands for dB relative level? A. dBrn B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Digital modulation technique used in modems.23 C.0 MHz D. FDM B. Space multiplexing C.

Audio signal D. 30 Mbps D. 2 47. C. the positioning of data within a frame C. the priority assigned to a connected device D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which of the following is not a baseband signal modulation? A. 50 C. 1952 49. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Ethernet is baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at A. 1852 B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 When was the UHF channel (14-83) of television were added? A. RF carrier B. A. 1947 D. 1904 C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs based upon A. All of these 48. 1 B. 10 D. Thermal noise B. 20 Mbps B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle over a specified total frequency band. FSK D. 40 Mbps . Video System C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The standing wave ratio is equal to ________ if the load is properly matched with the transmission line. Gaussian noise D. the position of a frame within the group of frames B. White noise C. A. All of these 45. 10 Mbps C. the activity of a connected device 50. Binary coded pulses 46.

L-band 57. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide. Telstar D. 94. X-band B. Rhombic antenna D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A quadrature signaling have ________ possible states. Sputnik C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which is the non-resonant antenna? A. Folded Dipole C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first commercial satellite A. 16 B. Kao and Keck B. 92. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different frequencies over the same path? A. 8 C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What band does VSAT first operate? A.51. 32 D. Ku-band D.4 + 20 log f +20 log d D. 4 55. Karpon and Bockham D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is A. Quadruple . Explorer B. End fire array 53. A. C-band C. 94.2 + 20 log f +20 log d 52. Broadside Antenna B. Early bird 54. A. Bockham and Kao 56. Karpon and Keck C.2 + 10 log f +20 log d C.4 + 10 log f +20 log d B. 92.

between two microwave parabolic antennas 38. Resolving power D. B.6 dB B.5 dB D. high-wattage light bulb D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Luminous efficiency is least for a A. has 132 characters including 32 control characters D. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line 63. capacitive load B. Band-pass filter 60.0 kilometer apart operating at 7. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The wavelength of light has no role in A. is used only in US and Canada C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the free space loss. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The standard ASCII A. 138.89 dB . resistive load at the resonant frequency D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Transmission lines when connected to antenna have A. Low-pass filter D. 135.5 dB C. Diffraction B. fluorescent tube 62. 140. resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristics impedance C. low-wattage light bulb C. High-pass filter B. 145. Interference C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)? A. is subset of 8-bit EBCDIC code 61. Band reject filter C. is version II of ASC B. Space 58.0 GHz? A. in dB. Frequency C. mercury vapor lamp B. Polarization 59. Polarization D.

30 dBm C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Electromagnetic wave travel at __________ in free space. reduce the load current D. RIMPATT B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the equivalent output of a circuit in dBm.000 km/sec B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Codes must be A. 40 dBm 65. ECE Board Exam November 1996 When electromagnetic wave are propagated through a waveguide. they A. 300. liquid fuel B. travel along all four walls of the waveguide C. jet propulsion C. solar jet 66.000 km/ sec C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Low-power radar uses A. 400. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Satellite engine use A. are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them B. TRAPATT C. 200km/sec 69. transfer maximum power to the load 68.64. IMPATT 67. A. Magnetron D. ion propulsion system D. if it is has an output of 10 watts? A. 10 dBm B. travel through the dielectric without touching the walls 70. eight bit per character .000 km/sec D. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver B. transfer maximum voltage to the load B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Transmission line must be matched to the load to A. travel along the broader walls of the guide D. transfer maximum current to the load C. 20 dBm D. 100.

The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous D. A. A3 D. A0 B. dBa D. Molten 73. The pulse height are difficult C. The clocking is mixed with the data in synchronous transmission B. 22 D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the principal difference between asynchronous and synchronous transmission? A. Discrete channel C. Gas C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the stage of the sand becoming silicon? A. F3 C. 12 76. A5C 77. channel and detector. dolby C. dBx B. either seven or eighth bits per character 71. C. Liquid D. 18 C. Transceiver B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 . A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 You are measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level. the same in all modern computer D. Transponder 72. 75. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the type of emission use by standard AM radio broadcast? A. T/R channel D. Hot B. dBm 74. 16 B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Combination of modulator. the meter reads -73 dBm (pure test tone) convert the reading in dBmCO. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie A. The bandwidth required is difficult.

Sound pressure B. Sputnik 81. A. interface analog terminal equipment to analog communications channel B. 2. interface digital terminal equipment to analog communications channel C. 3700 Hz 83. ____________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross sectional area of 1 sq. Sound intensity C. Moon D.835 Hz D.m.000 Hz B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Which symbol indicates that only one sideband is transmitted? . Resistor D. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What component in the telephone set has the primary function of interfacing the handset to the local loop? A. Loudness 78. Capacitor 80. interface analog terminal equipment to digital communications channel D. 3. at right angle to the direction. A. Pressure variation D. beamwidth C. Induction coil C. Varistor B. Score C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The primary purpose of the data modem is to A. bandwidth D. input capacitance B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 ____________ is the out-of-band signaling between toll central offices (Bell System Standard) A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The first passive satellite transponder. A. Early bird B. effective height 79. interface digital terminal equipment to digital communications channel 82. 800 Hz C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ___________.

Surface loam soil D. Decibel B. A. B8E C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What kind of receiver is used in converntional telephone handset? A. A3E B. Capacitor B. Carbon C. Phon C. 0 to 4 MHz 85. Ceramic . UHF C. Limestone 87. 0 to 4 kHz C. A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 1 micron is equal to ___________ meter(s). 0 to 4 Hz B. VLF B. 106 m D. UF 88. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The lowest resistance grounding on earth A. Sone 89. VHF D. Electromagnetic D. A. 10-6m B. H3E 84. Clay C. 0 to 4 GHz D. Sand B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 The unit of pitch A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Troposheric scatter uses the frequencies in the ________ band. C3F D. 109 m 86. Mel D. 10-3 m C.

2.082 cm C. perpendicularly polarized 92. 83.5 ns and the detector rise time is 2 ns. 1. ECE Board Exam November 1996 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns. 14 ns B. 144 kbps B. 2 dB C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A horizontal antenna is A. vertically polarized C.108 cm B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid? A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Basic speed rate of digital system. 6 dB B. the source rise time is 1. what is the cable rise time? A. 52 µsec C. 1.017 cm D. 6 ns C. 0.544 kbps C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop resistance of 100 ohms/km? A.90. 12. ECE Board Exam November 1996 What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees? A. ECE Board Exam November 1996 . 1 dB 96. 0.33 µsec D. 3 dB D.25 µsec B. A.0465 cm 93. 64 kbps D. 9 ns D. horizontally polarized D. centrally polarized B.5 ns 94.048 kbps 91. 0. 1. 26 µsec 95.

MIN D. Isochronous C. None of these C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Rules governing the transmission of digital information. two or more identical frequencies C. ESN C. two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 ____________ is measuring the propagated field strength over the projected service area A. two or more different frequencies D. Radio monitoring D. Data communications D. SAT B. ECE Board Exam November 1996 A digital identification associated with a cellular system A. two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies 98. 25 97. The meter reads -56 dBm (FIA weighted). A. You are measuring noise in a voice channel at 7 dB test point level. 32 C. ECE Board Exam November 1996 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on A. Line protocol B. 20 B. Radio survey . Digital communications 99. What is the reading in dBrnc? A. 35 D. SIM 100. Radio sounding B.

6dB C. 10 dB D. it is better to use a ______. 50 Ω 2. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the impedance in ohms of a transformer marked for 25V. 165 Ω 3. 100Ω B.25 cm and spaced 2. 9 dB B. Single line wire C. MIcrostrip 4. RG-8/U B.Test Yourself – Exam 03 1.5 cm apart using an insulator with a dielectric constant of 2. 65Ω C. 150 Ω B. what is its corresponding change in dB? A. 3dB 5. ECE Board Exam April 1997 To couple a coaxial line to parallel line. Twin-lead D. . 156 Ω C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 If voltage change equal to twice its original value.56? A. 160 Ω D. when the secondary is correctly loaded? A. 75 Ω D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of 0. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna. 4W.

Shannon theorem 9. The wire is held by a material with a velocity factor of 0. 3 B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each. A. Slotted line B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 ________ sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a give noise level. A. 75 Ω 7. Shannon-Hartley theorem C. Hartley theorem B. 2 8. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously. Full duplex B. Simplex . Duplex C. 85 Ω B. 50 Ω D. Nyquist theorem D. Half duplex D. 5 D. Quarter-wave transformer C. 4 C. Balun 6.75. 63 Ω C. A. Directional Coupler D. how many such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB? A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the characteristic impedance of a single wire with a diameter d= 0.25 mm placed at the center between grounded parallel planes separated by 1 mm apart.

Temperature D. A. 1500 Hz C. 3400 Hz D. 800 Hz B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Industrial noise frequency is between _________. Quantizing level 14. 15 to 160 Mhz C. 25 deg C 12. 200 to 3000 Mhz B. 70 deg F B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement? A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Reference noise temperature. None of these B. Bandwidth C. A. 30 deg C C. 0 to 10 Khz D. 290 Kelvin D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The random and unpredictable electric signal from natural causes. Distortion . 1000 Hz 13. A. both internal and external to the system is know as ________. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which does not effect noise in a channel? A. 20 Ghz 11.10.

dBa B. 100% D. 75% C. dBmO 17. A3 . ECE Board Exam April 1997 The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise testing. ECE Board Exam April 1997 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by: A. 25% B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 If the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled. the antenna current is also doubled. B. NPR 16. dBm D. 50% 18. dBk C. A5C B. Attenuation D. dBm D. A3J C. Noise C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Unit of noise power of psophometer A. the AM system being used is A. A3H D. Interference 15. dBw B. pWp C. A.

ECE Board Exam April 1997 At 100% modulation. 25 22. A varying amplitude 23. Phase shifter C. Low sampling rate is required C. The information C.19. Simpler to generate 21. 3AJ . Frequency range 20-20000 Hz D. the sum fo the effective voltages in both sidebands is equal to ______% of the unmodulated carrier voltage. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What particular circuit that rids FM of noise? A. Constant peak amplitude B. 71 C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which transmit only one sideband? A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A carrier signal has ______. A. 50 B. Much better noise immunity D. All of these B. Limiter D. LPF 20. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the advantage of PTM over PAM? A. A3E B. 100 D. HPF B.

10 dB 28. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the advantage of sidetone? A. Class C C. C. Results to a strengthened signal C. Assures that the telephone is working 27. Class D 25. ECE Board Exam April 1997 . 0dB B. Class B B. H3E 24. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter operates as A. Transmit pulses in DC form on a copper wire 26. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Modulation means A. Varying of some parameters of a carrier such as its amplitude to transmit information D. Class A D. 10 dBm C. Varying of information B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The standard test tone A. No energy dissipation D. 0 dBm D. Utilization of a single transmission channel to carry multiple signals C. 11BE D. High transmission efficiency B.

Encoding D. 1 TU 32. A. Rarefaction D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 1-CCS is equal to? A. 360 CCS B. 600 D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 1 Erlang is ______. Facsimile C. 60 B. 1 31. A. Diffraction . ECE Board Exam April 1997 When waves bend away from straight lines of travel. 100 CCS C.6 CCS 29. Xerox copy 30. A. 1000 TU B. 10 TU C. Refraction B. 36 CCS D. Reflection C. One (1) Erlang is equal to ________. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission of printed material over telephone lines. it is called _________. 3. Video text B. 100 C. A. 100TU D.

Gyro frequency B. Microwave D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Type of transmission path that permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60 MHz and over distances form about 1000 to 2000 km.33. Troposcatter 36. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Highest frequency that can be used for skywave HF communications between two given points on earth. James Clerk Maxwell D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Electromagnetic radiation theory was profounded by ______. Virtual frequency 34. Sir Isaac Newton C. A. E B. Ducting B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere? A. Sir Edward Appleton B. . D 37. Ionospheric scatter C. Critical frequency D. Michael Faraday 35. Maximum usable frequency C. A. F1 C. F2 D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long distance night time communication? A. Vertical C. Bandwidth D. Wavelength D. D layer C. Crest 38. 8500 km B. Horizontal B. A. 6370 km C. Angle of elevation C. Azimuth . Frequency C. A layer B. Directional 41. F layer 39. Right angle B. 7950 km 40. E layer D. Hop B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the effective earth’s radius when N=300? A. Omni D. 7270 km D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The polarization of a discone antenna is _____. A.

Dipole 43. Standing waves D. Modulated waves 46.89 times D.3 times? A.3 times C. Marconi D. Orthomode transducer C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What do you call the energy that was not radiated into space or completely transmitted? A. Optoisolator 44. ECE Board Exam April 1997 ______ is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signals simultaneously. Rhombic B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design? A. Hertz C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which is properly terminated antenna? A.42. A. Captured waves C. 3.6 times B.9 times 45. 10. 9. Incident waves B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 How much does the radiated power of an antenna increases if its current increased by 3. 200 kph . 6. Crystal B. Light transducer D.

A. Dummy antenna B. Transmitter C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 When testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations. Antenna B. 300 kph D. 4 B. B.5 MHz . 53. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have.3 MHz C. 61.5 MHz D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3. 6 48. Void antenna 49. which type of antenna must be used? A. 100 kph 47. 42.9 MHz B. 5 C.4 m. 3 D. 250 kph C. Transceiver 50. 38. Transmission line D. None of these D. A. A. Hertzian antenna C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A device that radiates electromagnetic energy and or intercepts electromagnetic radation.

They are larger C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because _______. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Full duplex transmission means A. Data communication equipment C. They have clock recovery circuits 54. Universal synchronous Rx/Tx . ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission system for a multidrop network A. One way transmission B. CSMA/CD 53. 24-hour transmission C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Modem is referred to as ______. B+D C. A. 2B+D 55. They have larger bandwidth B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line? A. Two-way simultaneous transmission 52. B+2D B. Polling C.51. Universal asynchronous Rx/Tx B. A. Switching D. Broadcast transmission D. The production volume is larger D. 2B+2D D. Taken passing B.

Bandwidth analysis B. Is concerned with the boundaries between characters D. Is concerned of synchronous system B. To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion 58. To allow amplitude limiting in the receivers C. A. Spectral analysis D. D. ETX C. Frequency analysis 60. SOH D. . ECE Board Exam April 1997 The method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system is ______. ECE Board Exam April 1997 It is a protocol used to connect the other packet witching network. Refers to parallel transmission C. BCC 57. To solve quantizing noise problem D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______ character signifies the start of the test for Bisync. Data terminal equipment 56. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM systems? A. Is concerned with individual bits 59. STX B. To overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers B. Frequency spectrum C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is framing? A.

Resonant frequency C. Folding frequency B.10 D. Synchronous B. Asynchronous B. Asynchronous C. Broadband 64. X. A. Prefix code B. Natural frequency D.25 B. Ethernet D. A.75 61. X. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a discrete memoryless source. Synchronous C. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Slowest communications hardware product. A. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate without aliasing. X. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Data is directly on the transmission cable. Baseband D. Critical frequency 63. Huffman code C. X. Source code . Internet 62.50 C. Entropy code D.

ECE Board Exam April 1997 ______ sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level. The same B. None of these 67. A. A. Full duplex B. A. Nyquist theorem D. Sampling. Totally different D. and coding B. quantizing and coding 68. ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current. Shannon-hartley theorem C. Different or the same C. Hartley theorem B. Quantizing. A. Simplex 69. and coding C. coding and quantizing D. Sampling. sampling. quantizing. A. Shannon theorem 66. Feedhorn B. amplifies and lower its frequency. Half duplex D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously. Satellite dish . Coding. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Steps to follow to produce PCM signal. Duplex C.65. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Gateway can interconnect LANs that have ____ protocols and formats.

0. Satellite navigation C. Gallium Phosphate solar panel 71. 0. . 44 D. C. 0. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe A. 40 C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A non-coherent light source for optical communications system. Satellite coverage 72. 0. Satellite radiation polarization B. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites? A. LNB 70.2 dB B. 42 73. 38 B.09 dB D. Gallium Arsenide solar panel B.3 dB C. Silicon based panels D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia? A.38 dB 74. Satellite receiver D. Germanium based panels C. Satellite radiation pattern D.

000 h C.000 h B. 2 GHz 77. PIN Diode B. 200 MHz D. 100.000 h D. Graded index multimode 76. LED 75. 800 THz B. A. APD D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion A. Sound stress .000 h 78. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Lifetime of ILD’s A. Sound intensity B. Graded index mode D. A. Loudness C. 50. Step-index single mode C. Step-index multimode B. ILD C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time. 20 MHz C. Coherence D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Fiber optic cable operates near _______ frequencies. 200. 150.

ECE Board Exam April 1997 The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160 dB.1 dB B. Reflection 80. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Tendency of sound energy to spread. Midrange C. 20 log I/I(ref) 83. 79. What is the maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions? A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Sound intensity level is ________. 89. A. A. A. . ECE Board Exam April 1997 _______ is the transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room thru common walls. 69. Refraction C. Fundamental B.1 dB 81. Flanking transmission D. floors or ceilings. Reverberation B. 30 log I/I(ref) D. 10 log I(ref)/I C.1 dB C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument.79. 59.1 dB D. 10 log I/I(ref) B. Harmonic 82. Period D.

Filter D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 TV channels 2. Low band VHF 87. Volume unit meter D. A. A. Audio frequency meter C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the local oscillator frequency range commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455 KHz. ECE Board Exam April 1997 ______ used to measure speech volume A. 995 to 2055 KHz D. Rarefaction D. Speech meter 85. Low band UHF C. Reflection B. 0 to 455 KHz 86. 4 and 5 are known as ________. Mid band UHF B. Volume meter B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 ______ is the first component of any MATV system to received broadcast signals. A. Antenna C. Transmitter . A. Refraction 84. 0 to 1600 KHz C. 540 to 1600 KHz B. High band VHF D. Diffraction C. Receiver B.

75 90. 50 µs 91. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast. A. Due to water vapor and oxygen 92. Scanner C. A. Panning device 89. A. Distances involved are greater C. Pan/tilt device D. Intervening terrain is favorable B. A. 62 µs D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which is atmospheric attenuation? A. 5 D. The required reliability is met . ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave system that requires the use of repeater. Attenuation due to mist and fog D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 ______ is the time duration for one horizontal trace. Tilting B. 48µs B. 15 C. Attenuation due to other gasses C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in internal and tilting motion. 52 µs C. Attenuation due to rain B. 25 B.88.

ECE Board Exam April 1997 RADAR means A. STL B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal. 183 GHz C. Radio detection and ranging C. 310 GHz D. Radio detection and rating B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave A. 60 GHz 94. Downlink D. All of these 97. 119 GHz B. Uplink C. Shorten waveguide link C. All of these 93. Radio delay and ranging 95. Minimize interference to and from other neighboring stations B. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Professional Regulations Commission was created under ______. . D. Terrestrial link 96. Reduce tower height D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What frequency does oxygen causes excessive attenuation A. Radio distance and ranging D.

No. RA 223 98. P. E. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The basic law providing for the regulation of radio station. programs .O.O.O. 266 B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Listing of the date and time events. Reporting D. E. PD 323 B. equipment. test. D. Act. A. malfunctions and corrections in communication system. communications in the Philippines and other purposes.`3846 B. D. 626 C. File B. PD 223 C. A. 662 D.O. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The institutionalization of the continuing Professional Education (CPE) Program of the various regulated profession under the supervision of the Professional Regulation Commission. 381 99. No. Documentation C. Log .O. E. No. No. 11 C. A. No. 5 100. A. PD 232 D.O.D. No. No. 88 D. D.

0 to 20 KHz B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Band of light waves. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from A. Ultraviolet D. 5 to 8 GHz 2. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The first symbol in the designation of radio emission under the ITU rules to A. Type of information to be transmitted C. Dipole C. A. Bandwidth D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Two wires that are bent 90 degrees apart. Hertz B. Visible B. Above 2 GHz C. Amber 3. 8 to 1. Log-periodic D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Operating method in which the transmission is made alternately in each direction of a telecommunication channel . Type of modulation of the main carrier 5. that are too short to be seen by human eye.43 GHz D. Nature of signals modulating the main carrier B.Test Yourself – Exam 04 1. Infrared C. Rhomic 4. A.

A. Type of information to be transmitted 8. Nature of the signals modulating the main carrier D. Radiation D. Simplex operation 6. E-mail B. A. Omnidirectional D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Radiation pattern of a discone. Transmission 7. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A form of telecommunication for the transmission of transient images of fixed or moving objects. A. Bandwidth C. Half-duplex operation D. Type of the modulation of the main carrier B. Radio D. Semi-duplex operation B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Production of radiation by a radio transmitting station A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The third symbol in the designation of radio emission under the ITU rules refers to A. Unidirectional B. Internet 9. Figure of eight . Bidirectional C. Television C. Duplex operation C. Emission C. Monitoring B.

Wiper C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the distance from the measuring instrument. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Noise caused by the thermal agitation of electrons in resistance. 5 dB D. All of these B.5dB 14. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The standard deviation of the variation in the transmission loss of a circuit should not exceed A. 30 dB C. 50 dB B. 20 dB 12. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory telephone services? A. Special effect generation 11. Thermal noise . ECE Board Exam April 1997 Another SEG function that allows a person to be superimposed on another scene. Visual effect B. 0. A.10. Tracking C. Telemetry D. A. Monitoring B. 3 dB B. 40dB D. Telecommand 13. A. 1 dB C. Chroma keying D.

PDM D. Microwave 18. ECE Board Exam April 1997 This type of transmission permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60 MHz and over distances from about 1000 to 2000 km. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A region in front of a paraboloid antenna. A. Johnson’s noise D. PWM C. C. Half-wave dipole D. A. Troposcatter B. Fraunhofer D. All of these C. Isotropic B. A. PAM 17. Ducting D. Transmission zone B. Ionospheric scatter C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The series of periodically recurrent pulses is modulated in amplitude by the corresponding instantaneous samples. Fresnel . Rhombic C. PFM B. Dummy 16. White noise 15. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Unity gain antenna A.

Time division C.19. Stereo multiplexing D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of ______. Intensity C. Noise C. Pitch D. Radiation B. Interference 22. Impulse noise B. White noise . ECE Board Exam April 1997 Background noise is the same as the following except A. Out of the band D. A. SPL 20. Circular polarization 23. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A good example of a pilot tone system used in commercial frequency modulation stations. Broad bandwidth B. A. A. Maneuverability D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the base and treble. Frequency B. Frequency modulation 21. FDM B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Emission on a frequency or frequencies immediately outside the necessary bandwidth which result from the modulation process except spurious emission. Good front-to-back C.

Multimeter 25. Land station 27. Horizontal polarization D. A. Thermal noise D. Vertical polarization 28. Reflectometer B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The electric field lines in a plane perpendicular to the earth’s surface. Wavemeter C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A single sideband emission in which the degree of carrier suppression enables the carrier to be reconstituted and to be used for demodulation. Full carrier single sideband emission D. Elliptical polarization B. Base station D. Half carrier single sideband emission C. Coast station B. C. Fixed station C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion. ECE Board Exam April 1997 . A. Altimeter D. Circular polarization C. Gaussian noise 24. A. Standard single sideband emission 26. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Electronic equipment used to measure standing wave ration. Reduce carrier single sideband emission B. A.

PIN diode 32. T4 D. 750 kbps c. a. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A digital carrier facility used to transmit a DSI-formatted signal at 1. the thermal noise voltage for the two resistors connected in parallel. Telstar 1 D. A. APDs D. Calculate for a bandwidth equal to 100kHz. 20kΩ. T2 B. 640 kbps 31. Darlington phototransistor C. and 50kΩ are at ambient temperature. 4.4782µV B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Two resistors. LED B. A. T3 30. 0. Score B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communications system. A. Determine the rate of the data stream. ECE Board Exam April 1997 12 voice channels are sampled at 8000 sampling rate and encoded into 8 bit PCM word. Mbps. T1 C. Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously. 4278 µV C.544. Syncom I C.78 µV . A. Echo1 29. 768 kbps d. 354 kbps b.

1. 1. Space diversity C. A. the source rise time is 12 ns and the detector rise time is 12 ns. 20 to 20 KHz B. Frequency diversity 37. ECE Board Exam April 1997 If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.25 ns 35. Polarized diversity D. 1. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Nominal voice channel A. what is the cable rise time? A. 3 to 3 KHz D. 1.55µm A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used. 52.8 µV 33.6 x10-19 J C. 4 KHz 36.9 x10-14 J 34.61 ns B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light energy at 1. Hybrid diversity B.28x10-19 J B. 47.22 x10-16 J D. D.55 ns D.55 ns. 34. 14.55 ns C. 26. 16 to 16 KHz C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Nif stands for .

Noise improvement factor D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Atmospheric noise is less at severe frequencies above A. Narrow intermediate frequency B. Non-intrinsic fugure 38. A. D layer C. Noise interference figure C. Audio level B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Modulation in which the modulated wave is always present. Carrier modulation B. Fresnel’s Law of optics 39. Faraday’s Law C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Any small element of space in the path of a wave may be considered as a source of secondary wavelet. ECE Board Exam April 1997 At height about 180 km above the earth exist only during daylight. Log-periodic modulation 40. A. Huygen’s Principle D. De Morgan’s Principle B. Continuous modulation D. 1 GHz 41. E layer D. Front-end C. A. 30 MHz C. F1 layer . F2 layer B. A. 10 GHz D.

Bidirectional D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 An electromagnetic wave is ________ polarized when the electric field lies wholly in one plane containing the direction of propagation.17 dB 44.5 dB D. Linearly C. Unidirectional 43. Circularly D. Omnidirectional C. A. A. Vertically 45. 11. A. Quality factor C. Compressor 46. parabolic dish operating at 1800 MHz. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Radiation characteristics of a dipole A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Propagation mode of microwave in a waveguide is known as _______. Figure of eight B. TM B. TE . A. 15.2 dB C. 30 dB B. Optical attenuator D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems. Horizontally B. 28. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Determine the gain of a 6 ft.42. Reducer B.

Stub matching B. 2. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The electric field lies in a plane parallel to the earth’s surface.535 MHz 50. 8. Frequency tolerance bandwidth 48. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which of the following fall under the high frequency band of the radio spectrum? A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A convenient method of determining antenna impedance. Occupied bandwidth B. Reference frequency C.50 MHz C. TEM 47. A. 35.4555 MHz D. 150. Necessary bandwidth D.2345 MHz B. Elliptical polarization B. Smith chart D. Horizontal polarization C. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The width of the frequency band which is just sufficient to ensure the transmission of information at the rate and with the quality required under a specified condition and class of emission. Trial and error 49. A. SW D. Reactance circle C. Vertical polarization D. C. Circular polarization .

ECE Board Exam April 1997 The product of the power supplied to the antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave dipole in a given direction. Carrier power’ 53. Tracking B. A. 30/17 GHz C. Telecommand D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The Ku-band in the satellite service A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Width measured in degrees of a major lobes between end of the love at which the relative power is one half (-3dB) its value from the peak of the lobe. A. 14/11 GHz B. ERP C. Telemetry C. . Peak envelope power B. PSK D. modify or terminate functions of equipment at a distance. Space telemetry 52. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that one of the binary states is represented by a carrier while the other is represented by its absence.51. 6/4 GHz 54. FSK B. ASK C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate. Rated power D. 8/7 GHz D. QAM 55.

dBrn 57. Bandwidth B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise voltage testing. A. Tweeter D. Administration B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Coaxial lines are used on those systems operating _______. NPR B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A large speaker having a large diameter (15 cm and above) A. Trixial speaker 59. A. Radiation D. Below 2 GHz B. The union C. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Any governmental office responsible in discharging the obligations undertaken in the convention of the ITU and the regulation. At 300 MHz C. Country D. A. Telecommunications office 58. Above 10GHz . Coaxial speaker B. Woofer C. Wavelength C. Above 10KHz D. dBW D. dBm C. Beamwidth 56.

60.4 dB C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line by a transmitter during one radio frequency cycle taken under the condition of no modulation. 511 D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the effect in over modulated amplitude modulated radio broadcasting transmission? A.8dB. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Receives and collects satellite signals form a broadcast satellite. Satellite receiver D. 62. 81. LNB B. 425 C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign magnitude code. 8. Peak envelop power . Higher fidelity C. Interference to adjacent channel B. 756 61. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps with a carrier to noise ratio C/N of 8. 73 dB B. Increase noise D. 1023 B. Higher audio signal 64.8 dB D. A. Yagi-Uda array C. Find E b/No. A.8 dB 62. Satellite disk 63. A. A.

Carrier power D.O. Less D. E. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The smaller the f rating. Pitch 66. Volume D. Act 3846 C. Rated power C. A. Same .O. Land mobile satellite service B. A.O. Mean power 65. Mobile service D. the _____ light that lens can take in. A. 546 67. Frequency B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile stations. E. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A government regulation in telecommunication which provide policy to improve the provision of local exchange carrier service. Intense C. Wavelength C. More B. E. A. 59 D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A method of expressing the amplitude of complex non-periodic signals such as speech. Land mobile 68. Maritime mobile service C. 109 B. B.

Space operation service B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A figure of merit used to measure the performance of a radiation detector. Steerable C. A. Refraction D. Low pass filter C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna. Active 73. A. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal to the period of rotation of the earth about its axis. A. Passive D. Rarefaction B. Aeronautical fixed service 70. Aeronautical mobile service D. M-derived filter 71. . High pass filter B. Space service C. Tank circuit D.69. Diffraction 72. Geosynchronous B. Reflection C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The tendency of the sound energy to spread. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A radio communications service use in radio regulation between specified fixed points provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and economical air transport.

Transmitted signal 75. Back lobe radiation B. 2225 MHz D. 5925 MHz 77. Ripple factor C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analogue telephone system? A. 1475 MHz C. Point of high SWR . 8150 MHz B. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is always grounded at the A. Quality factor 74. Safe factor D. Output only D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Radio wave concentration in the direction of the signal emitted by a directional antenna. Major lobe radiation D. Input only B. 1200 kHz C. 300-3400 Hz 76. 100-300 Hz D. A. Noise equivalent power B. Input and output C. 300-500 Hz B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A satellite receives an uplink frequency of _______ MHz from a ground station of 3700 MHz. Side lobe radiation C.

Adding C in series C. dA/dP D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The lowest frequency produced by an instrument. Harmonic B. Transcendental elements C. Fundamental C. A higher index of refraction than the cladding 82.78. A lower index of refraction than the cladding C. Parasitic elements B. Midrange D. Top loading B. A. Adding L in series . ECE Board Exam April 1997 The core of the optical fiber has ______. df/dP B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Sound intensity is given as A. Driven elements 81. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What makes an antenna physically long but electrically short? A. 0 Hz 80. dP/dA 79. A lower index of refraction than air D. A medium index of refraction B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The reflector and director of an antenna array are considered as A. A. dE/dp C. Feed-points D.

33 W B. Frequency modulation B. 83. All of these 83. Hemispheric beam B.33 W D.66 W C. How much power required for the carrier? A. Amplitude modulation 85. Troposcatter D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antenna’s radiation pattern? A. Space wave B. 33. A. A. Zone beam D. Spot beam C. Global beam 87. ECE Board Exam April 1997 A means of beyond the line-of-sight propagation of microwave signal. 66. Pulsed modulation C. Microwave link C. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Theoretical gain of a hertzian dipole . ECE Board Exam April 1997 Used for time division multiplexing. 100 W 84. ECE Board Exam April 1997 An AM transmitter is rated 100W at 100% modulation. Point-to-point 86. D. SSB D.

on “Last in First out” basis. Satellite network C.15 dB 88. ECE Board Exam April 1997 The difference between the original and reconstructed signal gives rise to A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Satellite system or part of a satellite system. Coast earth station D. A. Satellite system B. Register C. Fade margin 90. Flag D. Space system D. consisting of only one satellite and the operating earth station. S/N D. Ship earth station C. Core B. Maritime station . S factor B. Quantizing noise C. Multi-satellite link 89. A. 0 dB B.76 dB C. Stack 91. 1. Coast station B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service A. 2. ECE Board Exam April 1997 An area in the memory used for temporary storage of information. A. 3 dB D.

92. Ampere/meter D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed during the manufacturing process of the fiber optics. Attenuation C. PSK D. C D. A B. H 94. what letter in the first symbol represents a double-sideband type of modulation? A. B C. Watt/meter B. A. ECE Board Exam April 1997 In the designation of bandwidth and emission. Pulse modulation B. ECE Board Exam April 1997 . Bending loss D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Modulation in which no signal is present between pulses A. FSK 93. Watt/meter2 E. Ohms/meter C. QAM C. Rayleigh scattering loss 95. Absorption loss B. No answer 96. ECE Board Exam April 1997 What is the unit of electric field strength? A.

Equivalent boresight area 98. Glitch D. Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology. TACS 97. Analogue cellular D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 For a sample rate of 40 kHz. Yagi antenna 100. ECE Board Exam April 1997 An antenna that can only receive a television signal. Effective boresight area B. A. DECT C. 10 kHz 99. ECE Board Exam April 1997 Halo is also called A. Coordination boresight are D. ECE Board Exam April 1997 An area on the surface of the earth within which the bore sight of the steerable satellite beam intended to be pointed A. Dark current C. 20 kHz D. determine the maximum analog input frequency A. Reference antenna D. 40 kHz C. Flare B. Countour boresight are C. Isotropic antenna B. A. TVRO C. Ghost . 30 kHz B. GSM B.

Land station C. A. Efficiency C. High power B. Antenna back lobe ration C. Antenna gain B. Two or more antennas operating on the same frequency D. Mobile station B. Cheaper 5. ECE Board Exam April 1998 An increase in the effective power radiated by an antenna in a certain desired direction at the expense of power radiated in other directions. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A band where most military satellite often operate . A. Two or more identical frequencies C. Lesser noise D. Ship earth station 4. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A radio land station in the land mobile service A. Antenna total ration D. A. Two or more different frequency 2. Two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies B.Test Yourself – Exam 05 1. Antenna efficiency 3. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on _______. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A major and basic advantage for the use of a klystron. Base station D.

By installing a good ground radial system C. Ends of the antenna 9. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 In television broadcasting vivid strong colors are often referred as _______. L 6. Luminance 8. A 7. Hue C. C C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually operates class ______. AB B. Near the center of the antenna D. Ku B. A. Near the end of the antenna C. Saturation B. By isolating the coax shield from ground . ECE Board Exam April 1998 How can the antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to that of a half-wave antenna? A. By shortening the vertical D. X D. B D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Where do the maximum current and minimum voltage values on a resonant Hertz dipole exist? A. A. C C. Center of the antenna B. By lengthening the vertical B. Chrominance D.

Shortwave station D. Aural broadcast STL C. Huygen 14. A. Efficiency = effective radiated power/transmitter output x 100% B. Efficiency = total resistance/radiation resistance x 100% D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 . Around 1000 miles 11. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What law does a light traveling in air optical fiber follow? A. Aural BC intercity relay B. Around 500 miles B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 At what distance is VHF propagation normally limited? A. Maxwell D. Around 2000 miles D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 This is referred to as a fixed radio station that broadcasts program material from studio to transmitter by radio link. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is meant by the term antenna efficiency? A. Around 1500 miles C. Remote-pickup 13. Efficiency = radiation resistance/ transmission resistance C. Snell’s C.10. Efficiency = radiation resistance/total resistance x 100% 12. Millman B.

A counter D. space command C. An SWR meter C. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Best described a dip-meter. A3J and A4E . Coupler C.5 MHz 15. Which of the following is designated as the international distress. 158. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current B. Converter 16. Telecommand D. Transformer D.6 MHz D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate. A field strength meter 18. modify or terminate functions of equipment at a distance. safety and calling frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 and 174 MHz? A. J3E and F4E B. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A device that connects two dissimilar networks and performs the protocol conversion. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to an emission designation for facsimile? A. Gateway B. A. Trunking 17.8 MHz B. Tracking B. 165. 156.8 MHz C. 168.

C. A. R3E and A3E 19. A3E and F3C D. Antenna length divided by the number of elements. 45 degrees latitude B. Average power B. 90 degrees latitude C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 How does a SSB transmitter output power normally expressed? A. Reflector D. 0 degrees latitude D. In terms of peak envelop power C. Dipole B. In terms of peak-to-peak power D. the Geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect to the equator at _______. The angle formed between two imaginary line drawn through the ends of the elements . The frequency range over which and antenna can be expected to perform well D. Peak power 20. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the technique for adding a series inductor at or near the center of an antenna element in order to cancel the capacitive reactance of an antenna. The angle between the half-power radiation points C. loading coil 22. A. Center loading C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 In satellite communication. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth A. B. 5 degrees latitude 21.

C. At feed point B. At center D. FDMA C. 25. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to an effect of selective fading. as experienced at the receiving station. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere. CDMA 24. A fading effect caused by the time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations. A. TACS B. TDMA D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system A. Hertz C. Whip D. . ECE Board Exam April 1998 This is a flexible vertical rod antenna commonly used on mobiles.23. as experienced at the receiving station. A. Ground plane 27. D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to as an average power from the radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line taken during one radio frequency cycle under no modulation. Near the center C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Where the voltage node of a half-wave antenna does exists? A. Near the feed point 26. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission. Marconi B. B.

Wind shear 29. ECE Board Exam April 1998 How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier? A. Peak envelop power D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 _______ is a major cause of the sporadic-E condition A. 200 kHz C. Temperature inversions B. Meteors D. Sunspots C. Radio station license 31. R3A 30. F3 D. 16 kHz . A3E B. Business permit D. A3J C. 50 kHz D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a certificate of public convenience or a provisional authority is issued? A. Rated power C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following refers to a double side band full carrier? A. Carrier power B. A. 100 kHz B. SEC document C. Mean power 28. Franchise B.

AM 33. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A satellite beam that covers almost 42. Frequency shift keying C. Perfect circle C. Phase shift keying B. A. Spot beam B. A. SSB D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is a dummy antenna? A. Gaussian minimum shift keying . ECE Board Exam April 1998 With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced? A. Omnidirectional 35. A non-radiating load for a transmitter used for testing 34. Unidirectional D. Zone beam D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Best description of a collinear and broadside antenna radiation pattern.32. Bidirectional B. One which is used as a reference for gain measurements B.4% of earths surface. An non-directional transmitting antenna D. Global beam C. FM C. Hemispheric beam 36. And antenna used for hand-held radio C. CW B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system A.

Coupler D. A. A. Circulator C. Diode. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line material. Characteristic impedance D. Inductance and capacitance B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 The most common application of satellites A. Glass fiber B. QAM 37. Defense systems D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna. Velocity factor C. Laser 38. 41. Light waves D. Isolator B. Reconnaissance C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 . ECE Board Exam April 1998 ________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency. Surveillance B. Infrared C. D. Communication 39. Propagation velocity 40. A.

ECE Board Exam April 1998 Technical study which deals with production. Terrestrial station B. Peak limiting B. _______ is more prevalent in analog signals that have steep slopes or whose amplitudes vary rapidly. ECE Board Exam April 1998 It is used to connect computers in the same building or in same area A. Mobile satellite station 43.50 MHz B. 450. Granular noise D. Telephony engineering D. Slope overload 42. 235. 150. Space station C.50 MHz C. LAN . Telegraphic engineering 45. Communication system engineering C. A. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A radio frequency in the ultra high frequency band of the radio spectrum band. MAN B.31250 GHz 44. transport and delivery of a quality signal from source to destination. Transmission system engineering B. Satellite station D. Quantization noise C. 0. A.50 GHz D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion of the earth’s atmosphere.

Frequency modulation C. Frequency shift B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the mixing process? A. Pulse radar D. Base station C. C. A. Thermal agitation C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Considered as the main source of an internal noise. A. Device imperfection B. Land station D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging? A. The elimination of noise in wideband receiver by phase differentiation D. WAN 46. ECE Board Exam April 1998 . The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies. Distortion caused by auroral propagation B. Fixed station B. Flicker 50. SWITCH D. Amplitude modulation 49. Temperature change D. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison 48. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred by radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion. Coast station 47. C.

North to East D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Is the total useful information processed or communicated over a specific amount of time A.3% B. Baud rate B. Information theory D. Vertical aiming of the antenna C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the period of a wave? A. 42. Bit rate C. The number of degrees in tone cycle B. The number of zero crossing in one cycle C. Throughput 53.2% C. Horizontal aiming of the antenna 51. In shipboard satellite dish antennas system. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 This refers to an area in the memory used for temporary storage of information on the basis of “Last in First out”. 0 to 90 degrees B. A. The time required to complete one cycle 52. The amplitude of the wave D. Flag .5% 54. 30. 33.5% D. 45. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the approximate percentage of earth coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero degree elevation? A. Core B. Register C. azimuth is referred as the _______.

Quantization noise C. Frequency deviation D. Always the rearmost element B. Always the forwardmost element C. Emission C. Radiation B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is a driven element of an antenna? A. The element connected to the rotator 56. Drift B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 . Peak limiting B. D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you mean by the outward flow of and energy from any source in the form of radio waves? A. Slope distortion 57. Stack 55. A. The element fed by the transmission line D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refer to the deviation of the operating frequency of a crystal oscillator from its nominal value due to temperature variations. Granular noise D. Deviation ratio 59. Tracking 58. Encoding D. Flash over C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following term best described the overload distortion? A.

V. 11000 B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Quantity that do not change when a beam of light enters on e medium to another.5 63.2 C. Half carrier single sideband emission B. 10100 C. A. 11100 60. A. 2:8 B. 1:2 C.1 D. Speed 62. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following described the very early standard that defines binary digits as space/mark line condition and voltage levels? A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following is and impedance matching ration of coax balun? A. 2:1 61. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A form of single sideband emission where the degree of carrier suppression enable the carrier to be reconstituted and be used for demodulation. Wavelength C. 4:1 D. 10010 D. V. V. Find the product of the following binary number 100 to 101.4 B. V. A. Frequency B. Direction D. Reduced carrier single sideband emission . Full carrier single sideband emission C.

Gallium system 68. 5 kW B. Audioscope 65. Oscilloscope B. Indium system D. Phonoscope C. D. 100011 67. 110011 C. Radioscope D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output? . ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the first satellite system catering personal based communications services scheduled for operation. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the equivalent of decimal 51 in binary? A. 50 kW 66. Iridium system B. A. 10 kW D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 An instrument for recording waveforms of audio frequency. 30 kW C. A. 111001 D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 How much is the required minimum power output of an international AM BC stations? A. Plutonium system C. Double sideband emission 64. 111011 B.

Non-resonant C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Antenna which is not properly terminated A. Yellow B. A. A. RHCP D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the satellite transmitted signal form a satellite transponder to earth’s station. “to send out in all direction”. Red D. Vertically polarized 70. Isotropic B. A. Transmit D. Resonant 72. Announce B. Impeller C. Uplink B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Term in communication which is referred. Modulator D. Blue 71. Media . Broadcast C. Violet C. Whip D. Inverter B. Down link C. Converter 69. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength? A.

Tropospheric ducting D. Minimum voltage and minimum current B. By using a class C final amplifier with high driving power D. Synchronous optical network D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the following stands for SONET acronym in telecommunication A. Maximum voltage and minimum current. Minimum voltage and maximum current D. System optical network B. Through installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line B. what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Through installing terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line of the transmitter and duplexer C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 In radio High frequency communications the higher the radio frequency the ______. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line 76. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station over 5000 miles away? A. 74.73. Moonbounce B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity reduced or eliminated? A. System operating network 75. Faraday rotation 77. ECE Board Exam April 1998 At the ends of a half-wave antenna. . Simple operation network C. D-layer absorption C. Equal voltage and current C.

The magnetic fields is parallel to the earth 80. Increase the transmitter audio gain D. 40 dB C. Effect is null D. Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal D. . A. Increase the receiver bandwidth B. Modulated CW C. Shorter it can reach C. 20 dB 79. Decrease the receiver squelch. 10 dB D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 How can receiver desensitizing be reduced? A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized? A. Higher it can reach B. Longer it can reach 78. Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical C. A. Television 81. Facsimile B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is emission F3F? A. The electric field is parallel to the earth B. 30 dB B. RTTY D. gain. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 The signal to noise ratio that is required for a satisfactory television reception.

Television 85. ACSSB C. Optical amplifier D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call the single booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver? A. Rectifier 84. Crossfire D. Crosstalk B. Optical repeater C. Attenuator B. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 An interfering current in a telegraph or signaling channel due to telegraph or signaling current by another channel. Single amplifier C. Intermodulation 86. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine-band receiver? A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio? A. In the ionosphere . Generator 83.82. Low noise amplifier B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links. Facsimile B. Xerography D. Noise amplifier D. A. Noise current C.

In the receiver front end D. 20 kW C. Magnifier B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter. In the receiver rear end C. Class C D. Class A . ECE Board Exam April 1998 A transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna when it is unmodulated. Synchronous data transfer scheme B. Pulse modulation B.36 kW 90. B. A. A. SSBFC 89. Class B C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the data transfer scheme that used handmaking principle. 5 kW B. 8. DSBFC C. determine the total radiated power when modulated at 90%. In the atmosphere 87. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Best describe as an amplifier used in radio telephony. DMA data transfer scheme C. Vestigial sideband D. A. A. Uninterrupted data transfer scheme 88. Asynchronous data transfer scheme D. 15 kW D.

ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the frequency range of C-band? A.91. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other B. 2000 Hz C. E.95 to 14. ECE Board Exam April 1998 The latest government regulation in the telecommunication which provides policy for the provision of local exchange carrier service. 200 Hz B.O. 2 Hz 94. 59 92. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other.O. Supply stage C. 546 B. 10. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to as the stage in the radio receiver that contributes most of the noise. C.5 GHz . ECE Board Exam April 1998 The frequency tolerance of an AM radio broadcast station A. Act 3948 D. E. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What are electromagnetic waves? A. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other 95. A. 20 Hz D. E. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet D. 109 C.O. Speaker D. IF amplifier B. Mixer 93.

A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals B. Yagi antenna C.424 GHz D. Local repeaters D. Asynchronous mode C.7 GHz 96. 1. An automatic bandswitching circuit. Packet mode 97. Terminal repeaters .5 to 31 GHz C. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 These are used to connect non-ISDN equipment ot ISDN line. Terminal adapters C.53 to 2. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is a frequency discriminator? A. Digipeaters B.4 to 6. Voice mode B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses two or more straight elements arranged in line with each other. 99. A circuit for detecting FM signals C. 3. A. Whip antenna D. 27. Rhombic antenna 98. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Determine from the following the basic mode of transmission system in the public data network in which data are transferred from the source to the network and from the network to the destination in the frame format. An FM generator D. B. Dipole antenna B. A. Synchronous mode D.

100. Bureau of telecommunications . ECE Board Exam April 1998 The executive branch of government in charge of policy making in the telecommunications. A. Department of transportation and communications D. Telecommunications control bureau C. National telecommunications commission B.

300 watts C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following is one of the possible causes for a slow drift of frequency in a self exited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability? A. 75 watts B. High VHF band C. 150 watts 2. or antenna circuits D. High UHF band 4. 50 watts D. During experimental period 3. Low UHF band D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 . DC and RF heating of resistors. Loose connections in the oscillator. Poor soldered connections B. During day time B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 When adjusting an RF filter on a transmitter using a dummy load.Test Yourself – Exam 06 1. amplifier. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Channel 7 of the regular television channel belongs to which band? A. Low VHF band B. During night time C. causing then to change values. 5. how much watts dissipation should it stand to test a 150 watts transmitter? A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 When does broadcast station conduct and equipment test? A. Power supply voltage changes C. At any time D.

W B. Yagi D. 50 times bigger B. Radar B. Mobile radio 7. A third symbol radio emission which represent telephone transmission including sound broadcasting. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Type of antenna which is normally used for satellite tracking service. Helical C. 100 times bigger C. C D. Carrier C. Data D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Ho w many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over a cable? A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following is referred to as a radio emission without sidebands A. Space communications D. E 6. Voice 8. F C. Omni B. A. Data transmission C. Analog B. 10 times bigger D. A. Dipole . 5 times bigger 9. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following is not a common microwave application? A.

Pulse generator laser D. The resistance in the trap coils to received signal B. http C. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna C. Stray signal C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 . ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is meant by the term radiation resistance for an antenna? A. Yahoo B. Loss wave 14. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Referred to an oscillator signal “leak through” from a properly neutralized amplifier such as a master oscillator power amplifier. www 12.10. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the commonly used domain in the internet service. A. A. Vertical and horizontal plate 11. Pulse generator and vertical plate B. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line 13. The specific impedance of the antenna D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the following is referred to as a major component of an optical time domain reflectometer A. Carrier B. Back wave D. Laser and horizontal plate C. com D.

Suppressed white noise C. Shielding 15. Simple . ECE Board Exam April 1998 The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range of _______. An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signals from magnetic field or solar storms flux. 30 to 300 GHz C. Syncom I B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 ______ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously. 30 to 300 kHz B. Resistive effect D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the following is not among the advantages of series modulation A. 3 to 30 GHz 18. A. Current effect B. A. Voltage effect C. 3 to 30 MHz D. Score D. Immunity to noise D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a detector? A. Cross talk C. A. Electric hazard B. Photovoltaic effect 16. No transformer B. Aguila 17. Telstar I C.

401. Experimental B.0125MHz .5 kHz between channel.000MHz to 401. Modulates any frequency 19.00625MHz C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 If frequency range of 401. Video D.025MHz D. Computer data 22. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A third symbol emission which represent television. Tertiary D. 401. A 21. 401.050MHz has to be channelized at 12.125MHz B. A. Voice and video B. Primary 20. D C. what is the center of its first channel from the lower limit? A. Voice C. 401. ECE Board Exam April 1998 In telecommunications when we call data communications it means the transmission of________. Secondary C. C B. D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call the service area of a standard AM broadcast where fading is allowed but not objectionable co-channel interference? A. F D.

23. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Determine the effective radiated power of 20 kW TV broadcast transmitter whose antenna
has a field gain of 2.
A. 40 kW
B. 80,000 watts
C. 40,000 watts
D. 8,000 watts

24. ECE Board Exam April 1998
In indication signal for a handshake form the DCE to the DTE in response to an active
condition for the request to send a signal.
A. Data transmission
B. Clear to send
C. Receive data
D. Data set ready

25. ECE Board Exam April 1998
In amplitude modulation technique the unmodulated carrier is referred to as having ______.

A. 100% modulation
B. 0% modulation
C. 50% modulated
D. Over modulated

26. ECE Board Exam April 1998

One of the following is not among the major components required on board ship under the
global maritime distress and safety system.
A. On board radio facilities
B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
C. Shore base facilities
D. Radio personnel on board

27. ECE Board Exam April 1998
In what form does the information of data communications is transmitted between two
points?

A. Alphanumeric form
B. Alphabetic form
C. Numeric form
D. Binary form

28. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Width of frequency band just enough to ensure the transmission of information at a required
rate and quality required, and under a specified condition and class of emission.

A. Occupied bandwidth
B. Transmission bandwidth
C. Necessary bandwidth
D. Frequency bandwidth

29. ECE Board Exam April 1998

Refers to one of the front end circuit of a VHF TV superheterodyne receiver which is usually
a separate circuit coupled to the mixer.
A. Antenna feed
B. AGC
C. RF amplifier
D. Local oscillator

30. ECE Board Exam April 1998
All bits in character are sent and received ______ in serial port.
A. In groups of 3 bits
B. One at a time
C. In groups of 2 bits
D. Simultaneously

31. ECE Board Exam April 1998
One of the following is a possible cause of an abrupt frequency variation in a self exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant
frequency oscillation.

A. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
B. DC and RF ac heating of resistors which cause change in values
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator

D. Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier, or antenna circuits.

32. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Which of the following parts of the radio receiver represent the component that extracts the
desire RF signal from the electromagnetic wave?
A. AF amplifier
B. Antenna
C. Detector
D. Crystal

33. ECE Board Exam April 1998
It is an average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line taken
during a long sufficient interval of time and compared with the lowest frequency encountered
in the modulation, taken under the normal operating conditions.
A. Carrier power
B. Rated power
C. Mean power
D. Peak envelop power

34. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Determine from the following radio frequency that falls under the very high frequency band
of the radio spectrum.
A. 345.00 MHz
B. 144.50 MHz
C. 235.50 MHz
D. 450.00 MHz

35. ECE Board Exam April 1998
What is the typical number of bits in a static memory location?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 16
D. 8

36. ECE Board Exam April 1998
What controls the contrast of a television cathode ray picture?
A. AFC
B. video stage gain
C. Audio gain control
D. CRT bias

37. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Determine the dB gain of a receiving antenna which delivers a microvolt signal to a
transmission line over that of an antenna that delivers a 20 microvolt signal under identical
circumstances.
A. 10 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 8 dB

38. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Refers to one of a commonly used internet service domain.

A. www
B. http
C. gov
D. infoseek

39. ECE Board Exam April 1998

A law that specifically requires the service of a duly registered electronics and
communications engineer in the designing installation and construction, operation and
maintenance of radio stations.
A. Act 3846
B. LOl 1000
C. R.A. 5734
D. Dept. order 88

40. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Which band does channel 14 of the television channel belong?

A. High VHF band
B. EHF band
C. UHF band
D. Low VHF band

41. ECE Board Exam April 1998
How many ship’s area is designated in the implementation of the global maritime distress
and safety system.

A. Four
B. Six
C. Three
D. Two

42. ECE Board Exam April 1998

What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?
A. Capacitor
B. Electromagnetic
C. Carbon
D. Ceramic

43. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Determine the lower half-power frequency of a class-C amplifier having upper half-power
frequency of 10.025 MHz, a resonant frequency 5 MHz and a circuit Q of 10.

A. 1.0025 MHz
B. 10.525 MHz
C. 0.5 MHz
D. 10 MHz

44. ECE Board Exam April 1998
This is referred to a product of simultaneous frequency and amplitude modulation or a carrier
frequency variation which produces unwanted distortion.
A. Absorption modulation
B. Simultaneous modulation
C. Dynamic instability
D. Series modulation

45. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Main basic components of a data communication are composed of the following.
A. Computer, modern and router
B. Computer, bridge and gateway
C. Transmitter, channel and receiver
D. Transmitter, computer and modem

46. ECE Board Exam April 1998
The international radio consultative committee is referred to in international radio
communication as ______.
A. IRCC
B. ITU
C. IRR
D. CCIR

47. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Refers to a continuous tone generated in a local exchange terminal through a combination of
two frequencies 350 Hz, and 440 Hz.
A. Busy tone
B. Call waiting tone
C. Dial tone
D. Standard tone

48. ECE Board Exam April 1998
One of the advantages of fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it
can carry.
A. Security
B. Weight
C. Bandwidth
D. Physical size

49. ECE Board Exam April 1998

Assume a frequency range of 401.000 MHz to 401.050 MHz, if you apply 25 kHz channeling
plan, determine the center frequency of the first channel from the lower limit.

A. 401.010 MHz
B. 401.0125 MHz
C. 401.025 MHz
D. 401.00625 MHz

50. 50 ECE Board Exam April 1998

The stability of transmitted signal from a simple Hartley oscillator single transmitter which is
coupled to and antenna wire affected by ______.
A. Chirping of oscillator
B. Closer coupling between the oscillator and the antenna.
C. Location of antenna
D. Material of antenna

51. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Refers to the first symbol in an emission designation with an amplitude modulated main
carrier represented by letter H.
A. Single sideband suppressed carrier
B. Double sideband full carrier
C. Independent sideband
D. Double sideband

52. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Assume a frequency range of 405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz and 25 kHz channeling plan,
determine the center frequency of the second channel from the lower limit.

A. 405.030 MHz
B. 405.025 MHz
C. 405.050 MHz
D. 405.075 MHz

53. ECE Board Exam April 1998

An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services
beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers.

A. International carrier
B. Value-added service provided
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. Local exchange carrier

54. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Which of the following refers to full duplex transmission?
A. One at a time transmission
B. Two transmission medium
C. Intermittent transmission
D. Two way simultaneous transmission

55. ECE Board Exam April 1998
What is the first symbol of a radio signal transmission having an amplitude modulated signal
carrier, double side band?
A. C
B. B
C. H
D. A

56. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Best choice of transmission line component to couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line
A. Shorting
B. Balun
C. Slotted line
D. Directional coupler

57. ECE Board Exam April 1998
Which of the following refers to the video signal amplitude that determines the quality of the
picture?

A. Chrominance
B. Luminance
C. Brightness
D. Contrast

the first symbol in the designation of radio emission is ______. Nature of signal(s) modulation the main carrier C. Beamwidth C. DOTC C. Congress D. Bandwidth B.58. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the term for the ration of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance of the system? A. Shannon’s law B. Mu-law 59. A. A-law C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 In radio regulation. ECE Board Exam April 1998 ________ is the method of encoding audio signals used in US standard 1544 kbit/s 24 channel PCM systems. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Who is the principal administrator of republic act 7925? A. BOC B. Radiation conversion loss D. Type of information to be transmitted 60. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Where does the AM broadcast band located in the spectrum band? . Antenna efficiency 62. A. Type of modulation of the main carrier D. Effective radiated power B. Newton’s law D. NTC 61.

Active satellite . HF band B. A. Synchronous satellite C. Passive satellite B. LF band D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to an address that identifies a server on the network and a particular document on the server A. normally used in radio telegraph and having sidebands on its carrier. Uniform resource locator 65. Spark emission 66. Digital emission B. The termination impedance D. Cycle emission D. The center conductor resistivity B. Key emission C. VHF band C. Wide area network D. Dielectrics in the line C. Hypertext B. HTML C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Type of emission produced by one of the early radio transmitter in trains of damped RF ac waves where its oscillator is coupled to a long wire antenna. MF band 63. The line length 64. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period of rotation of the earth about its axis. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What determines the velocity factor in transmission line? A.

The channel B. Space waves B. The modem D. The bridge 70. Terrestrial waves C.000 GHz. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency B. Hertzian waves 68. 2 C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Electromagnetic waves of frequencies arbitrarily lower than 3. 20 B. are referred to as the radio frequencies. A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency . ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is meant by the term deviation ratio? A. propagated in space without artificial guide. The transmitter and receiver C. 10 D. Geosynchronous satellite 67. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulation frequency D. D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Frequencies above ______ kHz. Mobile D. 200 69. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Who is responsible in the correctness and accuracy of transmitted information content over a data communication? A.

Retarder C. Technical.A. R. Citizenship. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Known as the maritime communications law which was enacted December 5. R. Filters 72. 1927 A. capacity and financial D. the oscillator stage which determines the frequency opereation and RF amplifier stage or . No. Technical. Legal. the following consideration shall be given emphasis to _______. Frequency division 74. R. 3396 C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 How do you transmit through multiplexing. technical and citizenship B. R. Polar division B.A. No. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A quarter wavelength devices made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the optic fiber communication. 3846 73. a thousand of voice channel information over a single fiber optic using on e wavelength? A.A. legal and financial 75. citizenship and kind of service C. A. 7925 D. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or more stages. Fiber division D.A. Polarizer D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 In regulation of public telecommunications carrier such as in the evaluation of new entrant.71. No. No. Isolator B. 109 B. Time division C.

Capacitance C. Semi-graded multimode D. A. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in vacuum C. The index of shielding for coaxial cable B. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance D. A. Physical dimension D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line? A. Hartley 76. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum 77. Spot beam . Goldsmith B. Length 78. Single mode 79. Step-index multimode B. The purpose of which is to develop a good frequency stability. Global beam B. Alexanderson D. Graded-index multimode C. MOPA C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antenna’s radiation pattern A. stages that develop the high power output. Inductance B.

Phase control C. A. Coaxial line . C. Sweep output control 81. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the FM signal generator control which varies the phase of the modulating voltage applied to the oscillator of the sweep generator A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the following prevents a transmitter from emitting a signal that interferes with other stations on frequency during the test. mixer and RF amplifier D. AGC and antenna 82. Use of grounded antenna C. Use of dummy antenna D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What consists the front-end circuit of a VHF TV superheterodyne receiver? A. Local oscillator. Open-wire line C. Band pass filter and mixer C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A transmission line consisting of two conductors that have equal resistance per unit length. A. Zone beam D. Local oscillator. Use of shielded antenna radiator 83. Unbalanced line B. Balanced line D. RF amplifier. Hemispheric beam 80. Marker amplitude control D. RF amplifier and AFC? B. Mixer. Use of low height antenna B. Band control B.

ECE Board Exam April 1998 How do you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused by its supply voltage? A. Use new power supply B. To reduce the possibility of internal arcing D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the device used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter use to clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in the opposite direction? . Use of regulated power supply D. 75 ohms D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber optic? A. By inclining the surface C. 50 ohms B. By cooling D. 120 ohms C. Lossen power supply shielding C. By painting the surface B. To maintain propagation B.84. Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit 85. 650 ohms 86. By application of antireflection coating 87. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following is not common transmission line impedance? A. To increase the speed of propagation 88. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Best reason for pressurizing waveguides with dry air A. To maintain temperature of the waveguide C.

Optic retarders C. Transmission time B. Optic isolator D. Airplanes C. Harmonic D. Width B. Telstar I B. Amplitude 91. Sputnik I 90. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What is the major cause of atmospheric or static noise? A. Intelsat I D. Frequency C. Propagation delay D. Echo I C. Thunderstorm . Optic regenerators 89. A. Travel delay 92. Meteor showers D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 In modulation technique. ECE Board Exam April 1998 What do you call the phenomenon in digital circuits that describe the duration of time a digital signal passes a circuit? A. which of the following is referred to audible pitch? A. Elapsed time C. Optic compressors B. Sunspots B. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following refers to the first active satellite? A.

Telephone set B. Printers C. Fade margin B. Modem D. A. A. ECE Board Exam April 1998 _______ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget? A. Nominal gain D. Traffic time C. Modem 96. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Refers to the duration occupancy period of call during its use. ECE Board Exam April 1998 In data communication the transmission of binary signals will require _______. ISDN B. Holding time 97. Use time D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 The conversion of digital signal into analog for purposes of transmitting into the telephone line is done through ______. RS232C D. Occupancy period B. Power margin C. A. Power dissipation 95. Same bandwidth as analog B. Computer 94. Radio C.93. More bandwidth than analog . ECE Board Exam April 1998 Which of the following is not referred to as data terminal equipment? A.

Faulty capacitor. how many channels can you produce? A. 4 ch. 3 ch.0875 MHz at 25 kHz channeling plan.0125 MHz to 405. 2. 2 ch. tubes or resistors 100. Bigger cable diameter 98. ECE Board Exam April 1998 Assuming a UHF frequency range of 405. B. resistor. Less bandwidth than analog D. Loose shielding B. Poor soldered connections D. 0% modulated B. C. ECE Board Exam April 1998 A modulation which does not follow the sine wave pattern. D.5 ch. 99. Over-modulated C. Unmodulated D. ECE Board Exam April 1998 One of the following is a possible cause for a slow drift of frequency in a self-exited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability. it produces undesirable harmonics such as spurious emission A. A. 100% modulated . C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator C.

70.65 GHz D. 6.84 Ghz)? A. 119 dB B. 4 MHz D. 174dB 4.065 GHz B. 144 Mbps 6. 40km C.5ft of the ground? A. 2 MHz .14 mi B. 72 Mbps C. 40 mi 2.14 km D.2 Ghz and a distance of 11. 6.18 Mbps D. 179dB D. What is the uplink receiver frequency if the downlink transmitter is on channel 4 (3.25mi C. 36 Mbps B.Test Yourself – Exam 07 1. 6. 36 MHz C. 6. What is the path attenuation between transmitter and receiver at a frequency of 1. 6 MHz B.84 GHz C. What is the maximum line-of-sight distance between a paging antenna 250 ft high and a pager receiver 3. 70. What is the quardband between transponder channels in the commercial C-band for satellite communications? A.05 GHz 5. 14. How far away is the radio horizon of an antenna 100ft high? A.000 mi? A.73 mi 3. What is the maximum theoretical data rate of the above problem if one transponder is used for binary transmission? A.73 km D. 115dB C. 14. 25 km B.

Which band of frequencies used by military for its satellites and radar? A. 24 MHz B. S D. K C. X band C. What is the bandwidth available in the commercial C-band? A.425 GHz D.925 GHz B. 500 MHz 9. J D. 36 D. 250 MHz D. 5. 48 11. Ku B. For navigation as well as marine and aeronautical communications and radar. ____ band is used. What is the current frequency band given most attenuation for satellite communications? A. 12 C. 36 MHz D. 7. 1000 MHz B.2 GHz C.7. 500 MHz C. L B. Which of the following is the uplink frequency in C-band? A. 3. A. 48 MHz 8. 36 MHz C. P . C band B. What is the typical satellite transponder bandwidth? A. J 13. L band D.7 GHz 10. C band C. How many transponder channels are realized in the commercial C-band without frequency re-use? A. P band 12. 4. 24 B.

4 MHz 17. What is considered as the most advanced satellite system developed for cellular telephones? A. 14 to 14. What is the orbit of Motorola’s Iridium satellite system? A.5 GHz B. Communications subsystem B.5 GHz D. Globalstar C.5 GHz 18. TTC D. Inclined elliptical D. AKM D. 11. Ku band .2 GHz C. Transponder 15. L band B. 14 to 15. Transponder 16. 40 MHz C. AKM C. Ka band C. TTC C. C band D. 500 MHz D. Molniya 19. What satellite subsystem monitors onboard conditions such as temperature and battery voltage and transmits this data back to a ground station for analysis? A. Attitude control subsystem B. What band of frequencies do these satellites operate? A. Inclined equatorial 20. Iridium B. 36 MHz B. Equatorial C. Which of the following satellite subsystem provides stabilization in orbit and senses changes in orientation? A. Polar B.7 to 12. What is the typical center frequency spacing between adjacent channels (transponders) in satellites? A. 11 to 11.14. Which of the following are uplinks in the Ku band? A. ANIK D.

55˚ B. Teflon C. Ephemeris 26. What satellite system is also known as Navstar? A. 3840 22. 1200 B. 12 h C. GPS B. Constellation B. What is the orbital period of each satellite in the GPS constellation? A. 2400 D. 4800 C. Galaxy C. PVC B. 45˚ 27. Iridium C. What is the angle of inclination of GPS system? A. 10.898 nmi B. 10. A. 6 h B. What is the orbit height of a GPS satellite? A. 105˚ D. Globalstar D. PE D. What term is normally associated with specifying the location of a celestial body in space? A. Iridium satellites can provide data communications of up ____ bps data rate.898 mi C. What material is most often used for the outer covering of coaxial cables? A. 10.898 km D. Polystyrene . Intelsat 23. 65˚ C. Satellite D. 10.21. 5 h D. 898 m 24. 15 h 25.

2 in.82 cm . 0.82 ft C. 250Ω C.5 in.19 ft B. A. 75Ω C. ceramic D. 0.82 in D. center conductor diameter = 0. 2.219 m 34. 0. If the operating frequency is 450 MHz what length of a pair of conductors is considered to be a transmission line? A.3 C. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is also widely used insulator and is known as. 0. 301Ω 31.. 2. 2. 0. A.219 ft D.5 B.1 29. 305Ω D. polystyrene B.? A. 0. A pair of current-carrying conductors is not considered a transmission line unless it is at least ___ λ long at the signal frequency. 200Ω B.4 33.. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line with the following data: inner diameter = 0. insulation = Teflon.82 m B.19 m C.1 B.023in. 0. insulation = PE. bakelite 30. 150Ω 32. A. 50Ω D.3 C. 2. teflon C.0.28.06 in.2 D. What is the physical length of the above transmission line at 3/8λ long? A. spacing =0. 0. 3. What is the dielectric constant of polyethylene (PE) insulator? A. 0. 300Ω B.. What is the characteristic impedance of a two-wire line with the following data: diameter = 0.. 2.27 D.

SMA 37. BNC C.4 to 0. BNC D. 0. UHF connector B. What is the typical velocity factor of coaxial cables? A. PL-259 C. What connector is popular in attaching test instruments like oscilloscopes. etc? A. 0. A.3 to 0.8 to 0.8 B. 0. 0. PL-259 B.6 to 0. 0.6 41. 0.9 40.8 C. N-type connector B. Which coaxial cable connector is least expensive and is widely used for TV sets. 0. spectrum analyzers.9 B. PL-259 39.9 D. BNC D.35.5 D.6 to 0. N-type connector B. What is the typical velocity factor of open-wire line? A. Which coaxial connector is a more complex and expensive but do a better job in maintaining the electrical characteristics of the cable through the interconnections? A.9 D.7 . 0.0.5 to 0. PL-259 38. Which of the following coaxial cable connectors is called the UHF connector? A. The velocity factor in transmission lines vary from ___ to ___.5 to 0.5 C. N-type connector D.VCRs and cable TV? A. 0.3 to 0.8 B.5 C. frequency counters. F connector 36. F-type connector C. 0. F-type connector C. 0.BNC D.

98 D. 108.5˚ 48.8? A. 106. What is transit time (time delay) of a 50-ft length transmission line of the above problem? A. Flat line C. 115. Flexible coaxial C.54 ns B.6 ns D.81 44. 0. 75Ω C.0. 11. 75 ns D.5˚ B. Delay line B. 50 ns B.42.68 C. 300Ω .58 B. What line has a typical velocity factor of about 0. Open-wire line 43. Resonant line D.5˚ D. Shielded pair B. 100 ns C. 115. 93Ω B. What do you call a transmission line used specifically for the purpose of achieving delay? A. determine the phase shift offered by the line in the above problem. Non-resonant line 46. 0. Find the load impedance that must be used to terminate RG-62A/U to avoid reflections? A. 0. Assume a frequency of 4 MHz. A. 166. Twin-lead D. 1156 ns 47.5 ns C. 1. What is the time delay introduced by a 75-ft coaxial cable with a dielectric constant of 2.5˚ C. 50Ω D. 65 ns 45.3? A. What is the velocity factor of coaxial cable with a characteristic impedance of 50Ω and capacitance of 30pF/ft and inductance of 75 nH/ft? A.

Attack C. Sound provides all sorts of information. Affective C. 40 dB . At what loudness level do pitch (in mels) and frequency (in Hz) are numerically equal? A. Timbre 53. Sound B. 13.75Ω D. Either A or C C. Noise 54. 60 dB D. What information is related to mental processes of knowledge. A.5 pF/ft C. memory. Speech C.8 pF/ft 50. What sound characteristic relates to a sonic time pattern? A. Tempo B. reasoning. 116. 228. Neither A nor C 51.5 nF/ft B. Simple 55. Crisp D. Hard B. Soft C. Music D. Rhythm D. An RG-11/U foam coaxial cable has a maximum voltage standing wave of 52 V and a minimum voltage of 17 V. judgement and perception? A. Find the equivalent inductance per foot of the above cable? A. 116. What is considered the most obvious conveyor of information? A. 0 dB B. 13.49.59Ω B. 20 dB C.8 nH/ft D. Cognitive B. Which of the following is NOT an attack of sound? A. Find the value of the resistive load. Attack is a sound characteristic that refers to the way a sound begins. 24. Analog 52. Digital D.

10 to 20dB . 1 to 3 dB C. what is this in sone unit? A. 10 B.56. 100 times D. How much louder is 80 phons over 60 phons? A. 1 to 2 B. 96 60. 100 B. harmonics D. 1st and 2nd B. interval B. 1 to 3 C. 106 D. What is the tonal ratio of an octave? A. What increase in sound level is commonly perceived by most people? A.4 times louder C. octave C. The basic voice band has how many octaves? A. 8th and 9th 61. 5th. 1000 times B. If the loudness level is 100 phons. 2 to 1 D. factor 58. 3 to 6 dB D. The ratio of frequencies is termed. 3 to 1 59. A. 6 to 10 dB B. 3rd and 4th D. 4 C. What octave bands are there in the midrange? A. 90 C. 5 D. 6th and 7th C. Twice as loud 62. 3 57.

1 x 10-6W/m2 B. What is the difference in the sound intensity level in the two cases? A. Sound absorption D.2 x 10-3 W/m2 69. For the safety and comfort of factory workers. 3.63. 3. What sound intensity corresponds to a sound-intensity level of 50dB? A. 36 dB D.1 x 10-5 W/m2 . 1 x 10-8W/m2 D. 1 x 10-7W/m2 C. 100dB C. or ceiling called? A. What do you call the perceptible sound repetition? A. Reverberation B. Reflection D. 15. 76 Hz C. 6 dB C.2 x 10-6 W/m2 C. What is typical loudness level of an acoustic guitar 1 foot away? A. 76 MHz D. 76 mHz 67. the sound-intensity level in a certain factory must remain below 85 dB. Sound Attenuation B. A soloist sings a certain passage and then is joined by the remainder of the choir members for a repeat of the passage. 40dB 64. 60dB B. 3. Masking 65. floor. 76 kHz B. Echo C.2 x 10-4 W/m2 B. What is the frequency of a 2-cm sound wave in sea water at 25˚C? A. What is the maximum sound intensity allowed in this factory? A. What is the amount of sound reduction provided by a barrier – wall.2 x 10-10 W/m2 D. 3. 80dB D. Barrier loss 66. 3 dB B.6dB 68. Transmission loss C. A choir consisting of 36 individuals all of whom can sing with the same intensity.

20. 120 dB B.6 µW/m2 and that from another jet plane some distance away is 0. 1. 114 dB B.5 D. 34. What loudness level in which permanent damage to hearing is possible? A. The sound intensity received from the nearby jet plane is 12.5dB C. 94 dB D. A. 14. What is sound pressure level if the RMS sound pressure is 100 μbars? A.5 dB B. 5800 76. Find the relative loudness of the two. 3300 D.5 71. What will be the intensity when the plane flies overhead at an altitude of 1 mi? A.5 dB C. The noise from an airplane engine 100 ft from an observer is found to have an intensity of 45dB.5 dB 72. 12. 35 dB D.45 µW/m2.1 s B. 57 dB 75. 3600 C. 14.4 dB C. 330 B. Loud D. 0. Moderate B. 10.5 to 1. Very loud C.0 dB B. 1.70.8 s . 130 dB D.9 to 1. What is the optimum reverberation time at 500 to 1000 Hz of an auditorium? A.4 to 1. 150 dB 74.6 to 1.6 s D. 140 dB C. What is the velocity of sound in wood (m/s)? A. 11. 14. Deafening 73.6 s C. 1. What is the apparent loudness of 80 dB? A.

01 dB . Porous material B.695 at 45 MHz? A.2 78. -1.) would fit into a 5 MHz spectrum? A.01 dB D.1 B.25 dB B. mountainous area. 4. -2. 30 C. Determine the terrain sensitivity loss for a 4-GHz carrier that is propagating over a very dry. 16. 7.77. 2.05 dB C. How many voice signals (4 kHz max. 1000 D. -5. 500 C. 17. -3.8 C. 25 82.1 D. How many FM stations would be accommodated I an ordinary TV channel? A. 1250 B. Reverberation B. Sound concentration 79. Which of the following is NOT an acoustical defect to be avoided in acoustical designs? A.97 83. Panel Absorber D. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0. 1500 81. Membrane absorber 80. Flutter echo C. 19. 16. For a cinema. 33 B. A.26 C. Distortion D. the optimum volume per person required is A. Helmholtz resonator C. What absorber in which efficient absorption is only possible over a very narrow band approaching 1.82 B.28 D. 3.0 (total absorption)? A. 40 D.

the MUF for transmission at an angle of incidence of 75° is 17 MHz. 6.5 MHz 87. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.04° D. 27 m away? A. find (ignoring feedline losses and mismatch) the EIRP in dBW. 4.5 dB/100m.04° C. 7. Interference C. 3. 69 C. Maxwell 89. At a certain time. A. how many watts reach the load. What is caused by the transverse nature of electromagnetic waves? A.8. if 10 W is supplied to one end of the line. Beamwidth D. A satellite transmitter operates at 4GHz with an antenna gain of 4dBi. The angle of incidence is 20°. 5.5 MHz D.1 W 88. 9. Calculate the angle of refraction. 1. Guglielmo Marconi C. Ground wave D. 49 D.9 W D.2 W C. 7. Polarization B.4 MHz B.84. 10 W B.04° 86. Gain 90. Which propagation method is known as special case of skywave? A. James C. 50 B. A. What is the critical frequency? A. Troposcatter C. If the transmitter has a power of 8 W. The electromagnetic radiation theory was profounded by A. Space wave B. 7. Heinrich Hertz D. Sir Edward Appleton B. 9. 6. The receiver 40000 km away has an antenna gain of 50 dBi. Direct wave . The relative permittivity of the glass is 7. 30 85.8° B.5 MHz C. A radio signal moves from air to glass.

46.2 kHz 95.5.91. 300 Hz D. 10° C.07 D. What is the impedance of the line? A. 44. 100 Ω B. The range of speech power is ____.28 B. A. What is the orbit inclination of geostationary satellites? A. it measures 2. 30 kHz C. Supersonic 94. A. 123. 212 Ω C. 43. 20° D. the SWR measures 1. 1 – 10 watts B.27 97.72 kHz B. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0. Transonic C. 307. 10 – 1000 microwatts . 300 Ω D. 328 C. Subsonic D. A transmission line of unknown impedance is terminated with two different resistances.46 C. 10 – 100 milliwatts D.63 at 28 MHz? A. A radio signal travels ____ yards per microseconds. With a 300 Ω termination. What frequency is 10 octaves above 30 Hz? A. 30° 92. 112 Ω 93.6 96. and an SWR is measured each time. 0° B.67. Ultrasonic B. 100 – 1000 milliwatts C. With a 75 Ω termination. 273 B. 30. 11. What is the high frequency sound that cannot be heard by the human ear? A. 618 D.

98.59 at 26 MHz? A. The agreed standard for measuring loudness is the loudness sensation produced by a 1000 Hz sine wave _____ dB above the listener’s threshold of hearing.16 B.97 99. 19.68 to 30 MHz? A. What is actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0. 40 . 30 D. 5. 50 C. 11.82 D.26 B. 17.29 C. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0. 46.28 100. 42.46 D. 80 B. 16.6 C. 40. A.

Tropospheric ducting D. Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations. D-layer skip. D-layer absorption B. Appleton’s theory D.78 D.85 2. as experienced at the receiving station. B. What is the refractive index of an ionospheric layer with 100x10 5 free electrons per m3 ? Assume frequency to be at 20 MHz. D’Alembert’s principle C. C. Huygen’s principle 3. Auroral skip. C. 0. 5. The processor index. Faraday rotation C. as experience at the receiving station. A. B. C. Snell’s law B. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency. What is meant by the term deviation ratio? A. E-layer skip. What is the major cause of selective fading? A. 0. D. What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station over 500 miles away? A. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency.15 C. This is known as the A. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency. 0. 6. Small changes in the beam heading at the receiving station.99 B. 0. D. B. 4. D.Test Yourself – Exam 08 1. Moonbounce 7. . “Each point on a spherical wavefront may be considered a source of secondary spherical wavefronts”. What is meant by the term modulation index? A. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance to exceed the geometric horizon? A. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. Radio waves may be bent.

For a space wave transmission. 300 – 3000 kHz C. 90 degrees D. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other D. 60 cm D. the radio horizon distance of a transmitting antenna with a height of 100 meters is approximately: . The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance 11. C. 180 degrees 14. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other 12.062 cm B. knife-edge diffraction C. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency. 3 – 30 MHz D. B. The bending of radio waves passing over the top of a mountain range that disperses a weak portion of the signal behind the mountain is A. 60 meters 10. 30 – 300 kHz B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance C. 0 degree B. The band of frequencies least susceptible to atmospheric noise and interference is: A. 8. 45 degrees C. Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance D. What is the relationship in degrees of the electrostatic and electromagnetic fields of an antenna? A. mirror refraction effect 9. What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system? A. 6 meters C. What are electromagnetic waves? A. What is the wavelength of a signal at 500 MHz? A. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other C. 300 – 3000 MHz 13. Radiation resistance plus space impedance B. eddy-current phase effect B. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet B. 0. The FM signal-to-noise ratio. shadowing D. D.

300 ohms . The electric field is bent into a circular shape. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having circular polarization? A. Sky wave D. B. If a transmitting antenna is 100 meters high and a separate receiving antenna is 64 meters high. 182. A receiver is located 64 km from a space wave transmitting antenna that is 100 meters high. Micro wave C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal D. Which of the following is not one of the natural ways a radio wave may travel from transmitter to receiver? A. what is the maximum space wave communication distance possible between them? A. 36 meters high B. Find the required height of the receiving antenna. A. 100 meters high D. Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical 16. C. 64 meters high C. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized? A.25 meters high 19. The electric field rotates C. 18 km B. The magnetic field is parallel to the earth. 40 km C. Space wave 20. The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna 17. 100 km D. Salt water B. Ground wave B. 656 km 18. Which of the following terrain types permits a ground wave to travel the farthest? A. 164 km D. Sandy D. Rocky 21. 400 km 15. 72 km C. What is the input terminal impedance at the center if a folded dipole antenna? A. The electric field is parallel to the earth. The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth D. Fresh water C. 10 km B. B. A.

2. 0. 25 watts D.70 B. The termination impedance B. Frequency compandored spread spectrum 23. B. Frequency hopping B. 6 watts 25. What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such as RG 8. 30 to 300 kHz B. 50 ohms D. Frequency hopping B.30 D. Binary phase-shift keying D. The line length C. Direct sequence C. What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the center frequency if a conventional carrier is altered many time per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? A. 72 ohms C. The center conductor resistivity 26.10 24. 0. 0. Dielectrics in the line D. Phase compandored spread spectrum 27. 11. what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter? A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz . 58 and 59? A.66 C. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet. What term is used to describe a spread spectrum communications system in which a very fast binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier? A. 70 watts B. Time-domain frequency modulation D. Which of the following frequency bands is best suited for ground wave propagation? A. 50 watts C. Direct sequence C. What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A. 450 ohms 22.

28 MHz B. highest. highest. lowest. Surge impedance D. 149 MHz D. The index of shielding for coaxial cable. Velocity factor B. Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical length? . Which if the following layers of the ionosphere has no effect on sky wave propagation during the hours of darkness? A. highest C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz 28. A. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum. 3 GHz to 30 GHz 29. F2 31. 107 MHz C. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance B. What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum? A. What is the meaning of the term “velocity factor” of a transmission line? A. Standing wave ratio 34. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum. lowest B. E C. D B. lowest. Characteristic impedance C. C. Which of the following frequency bands is best suited for sky wave propagation? A. 700 MHz 30. 3 MHz to 30 MHz D. Skip distance can be maximized by using the ____ radiation angle possible and the ____ frequency that will be refracted at that angle. 3 MHz to 30 MHz C. What is the seventh harmonic of a 100 MHz quarter wavelength antenna? A. D. 14. 30 MHz to 300 MHz D. 30 to 300 kHz B. F1 D. lowest D. C. 33. highest 32.

C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz D. A pulse position modulated UHF signal C.66 38. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable B. A differential phase shift keyed UHF signal D. 60 B. 0. An amplitude modulated continuous wave B. 1. 108. 3 MHz to 30 MHz C.00 MHz C. What would be the physical length of a tpical coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14. Critical frequency 37. 30 MHz to 300 MHz D.6 D. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz B.1 MHz? A. Maximum useable frequency (MUF). The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line 35. Tropospheric scatter is a method of sky wave propagation for which of the following frequency bands? A.51 meters C. 300 kHz to 3 MHz B. 20 meters B. What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3kHz? A. 0.95 MHz 40. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s radio altimeter? A. What type of transmission is radiated from an aircraft’s radio altimeter antenna? A.15 MHz to 335. D.16 C. Optimum useable frequency (OUF). 2. 3. A.33 meters D. A. 329.25 meter 36.00 MHz to 117. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable C. 0. A frequency modulated continuous wave . The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line D. B. Lowest useable frequency (LUF). To obtain the most reliable sky wave propagation the ____ should be used. 300 MHz to 3 GHz 39.

00 MHz D. A coaxial cable has 7dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. 2. Is perpendicular to both the electrostatic and magnetic fields of the antenna. Is the same direction as the electrostatic field of the antenna. vertical. 329.000 MHz to 136. 118. vertical. What is the output of the transmission line? A. horizontal. What is a selective fading effect? A. C.5 watts C. What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Very High Frequency (VHF) communications? A. as experienced at the receiving station . When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter 44. Most AM broadcasts employ ___ polarization while most FM broadcasts employ ___ polarization of the radio wave. vertical D. Is perpendicular to the electrostatic field of the antenna B. When (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission in a southerly direction D. 1. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station. Gain increases 3 dB 46. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere. vertical B. 42.41.25 watts D. 108. 1 watt 43.999 MHz 47. Is the same direction as the magnetic field of the antenna.0000 MHz to 29. 5 watts B. When testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio C. Gain is multiplied by 0.15 MHz to 335. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission. A. When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator? A.707 C. B. as experienced at the receiving station. horizontal. D. The polarization of a radio wave: A. 2. When comparing the gains of directional antennas B. Gain increases 6 dB D. C. horizontal C.975 MHz (worldwide up to 151.000 MHz to 117. Gain does not change B.975 MHz) B. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? A. horizontal 45.95 MHz C.

Effective height . 4 kHz D. Ground wave B. A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations.3 B. what is its refractive index? A.27 D. What is the resultant field strength at the receiving antenna in space wave propagation under case 2? A. LF D. 3ξd 50. 1. 48.5 C. 100 Hz B.67 49. Tropospheric wave 51. Which frequency bands can be refracted during the day by the D layer? A. 0 B. Both VLF and LF 53. What height of an ionized layer is determined from the time interval between the transmitted signal and the ionospheric echo at vertical incidence? A. Apparent height C. Space wave C. D. Virtual height B. 2ξd D. 1. 500 Hz C. The decimetric wave is using what method of propagation? A. ξd C. If the velocity of propagation in a certain medium is 200x10 6 m/s. 1. Actual height D. Sky wave D. What is the typical frequency used for communicating to submerged submarines? A. 0. VLF B. MF C. 200 Hz 52.

250 km B.76x10-12 S/m D. What is the input impedance of a transmission line if its characteristic impedance is 300 Ω and the load is 600 Ω? Assume a quarter wavelength section only. 2. Flexible coaxial line 56. 10x103 m/s D. Two-wire open line B. 300 km D. 0. 150 mΩ C. 100 m/s C. Rigid coaxial line D. Which of the following is considered the most frequently used transmission line? A. 100x106 m/s 58. Twin lead C. 400 km 55.54. ¼ to ¾ 57. Determine the conductance of a two-wire open line with the following parameters: D = 4 in.35 D. During the night when the F2 layer combines with F1 layer it falls to what approximate height? A. 3. ¼ to 2/3 D. 2. and ρ = 2. 2. 350 km C. 2. ½ to ¾ C. What is the phase coefficient in radians per unit length of a transmission line at the frequency of 10 MHz if the velocity of propagation is 2. d = 0. What is the propagation velocity of a signal in a transmission line whose inductance and capacitance are 5μH/m and 20μF/m respectively? A.5 59. A.. 100x103 m/s B. 150 Ω . The antenna effective height is ____ to ____ of the actual height.6x108 Ω-m.76x10-9 S/m B.25 B.5 C.76x10-6 S/m C. ½ to 2/3 B. A. A.1 in. 2.5x108 m/s? A. 0. 150 kΩ B.76x10-3 S/m 60.

A superhet receiver has an IF of 455 kHz and is experiencing image-channel interference on a frequency of 1570 kHz.3 sec. 0. 150 m3 D. B. 2500 Ω 66.35 62. The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna. 250 Ω D. 5. 910 kHz 65. The beamwidth increases geometrically as the gain is increased.53 D.55 sec. The beamwidth increases arithmetically as the gain is increased. What is the optimum volume per person of rooms for speech? A. 2. D. 3. 4. What volume of the chamber is required to measure absorption coefficient at 100 Hz? A. The beamwidth decreases as the gain is increased. .67 C.1 63.8 sec.2 sec. 1. What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? A. 0. C. 660 kHz C. C. 50 m3 C. 72 Ω C.8 B. 1115 kHz B. 2 Ω 61. 2025 kHz D. D. 64. 352 m3 67.55 B. D. What is the optimum reverberation time at 500 Hz for a cinema? A. 0. 5. The receiver is tuned to A. B. 0. 125 m3 B.9 – 1. 3. Determine the standing wave ratio of a 300-Ω line whose load is 400+j150 Ω.2 D.6 – 0.45 – 0.8 – 1. A. 3. What is the end impedance of a half-wave dipole? A.1 C. 73 Ω B.

2 kHz D. and 1000. What illumination factor is normally considered in computing parabolic antenna gain in microwave communications? A. 500 Hz 73. 1 MHz and 200 Hz B. What noise type is observable between 8 MHz to somewhat above 1. A 1 Mhz carrier is amplitude modulated by a pure 200-Hz audio test tone.75 . Between 10 to 25 74.100 Hz B.7 MHz.8 kHz and 1000. 142. Flicker noise is a poorly understood form of noise which may be completely ignored about above ____. If the local oscillator is tracking above.5 GHz? A. Galactic noise D. 999.4 MHz C. 99. What is the typical gain of a rhombic antenna? A. What establishes the receiver bandwidth? A.5 MHz D. Space noise C.65 C. 400 Hz D.68. IF amplifier 71. 110. RF amplifier B. the receiver is tuned to A. Mixer C. Between 20 to 90 C. A. 131. 0.1 MHz.2 kHz C. An FM receiver whose intermediate frequency is 10.54 B. 200 Hz C. Cosmic noise 72. 0. 1 MHz and 1000.8 MHz B. Which of the following combinations of frequencies represent the total content of the AM signal? A.8 kHz.7 MHz 69. Solar noise B. Between 15 to 60 B. Between 50 to 75 D.2 kHz 70. 0. 1000 kHz. Local oscillator D. 999. is experiencing image channel interference from a station transmitting on 121.43 GHz or up to 1.

How many voice band channels are there in a superjumbo group? A. The Institute Of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE). C.85 75. B. the frequency to be measured is taken from the A. 80.800 D. D. B. internal receiver noise. parasitic oscillations in some of the receiver stages. 2. 0. 3. The input impedance is twice the load impedance. The power radiated from the top of an antenna system. 78. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC). 900 C. C. D. the loudspeaker is not entirely silent as a result of the presence of A. The line loss is minimum. intermediate amplifier C. 10. In acoustics. What is the meaning of forward power? A. 2. B. 79.600 76.089 D. C. D. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). The standing wave ratio is one. D. The power produced during the positive half of an RF cycle. The power used to drive a linear amplifier.980 77. 600 B. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna. Which of the following characterizes a properly terminated transmission line? A. negative feedback in each stage. When no signal is being received. What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near the human body? A. The standing wave ratio is minimum. C. 0. what is the reference pressure in lb/ft 2 unit? A. When measuring a transmitter’s frequency against a suitable standard. B. D.0002 C. buffer stage . spurious frequencies as a result of improper neutralization. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI). 2x10-5 B. oscillator stage B. 81.

Dipole B. Absorption wavemeter C. Midnight C. Parabolic C. D. Spectrum meter D. Ergometer 85. Goniometer D. final RF stage 82. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system using satellites and advanced terrestrial communications systems. 84. reducing the input power to below its critical level. GMDSS 86. Iridium system C. B. a high level of attenuation on the line. What device measures rf power by measuring the heat the rf power generates? A. Calorimeter B. Cellular radios use FM with a maximum deviation of A. C. When the is the ionosphere most ionized? A. Goniometer C. D. an impedance mismatch between the load and the line. The presence of standing waves on a transmission line is the result of A. Helical D. What device measures the angle between two radio frequencies and also the direction of propagation of a wave? A. GPS B. Dusk B. A. Oscilloscope . Rhombic 87. D. Densimeter B. 88. INMARSAT D. Dawn D. Midday 83. What antenna can be used to minimize the effect of Faraday rotation of polarization? A. terminating the line by a resistive load equal in value to the surge impedance C. B.

Dominant mode B.35 cm and 1. flanking B. 3840 km C. 2350km 94. 1. 5 mm and 2. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths? A. 4130 km D. A.5 mm and 5mm C. Normal mode C.35 cm and 1. Conventional mode D. 5 cm and 2. echo 91. _____ is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source moves either toward or away from a listener. In cellular system.7cm D.5 cm and 5 mm 92. A. reuse factor . reverberation C.7 μm B. The approximate single-hop nighttime range of F2 layer is ____. E layer D. 3000 km B. distance-to-reuse ratio (D/R) C.7 mm C.89.5 mm 93. 1. D layer 95. _____ defines the geographic distance that is required between cells using identical frequencies in order to avoid interference between the radio transmissions at these cells. 1. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz? A. A.7 mm B. frequency-reuse ratio B. 1. 1.35 dm and 1. F2 layer B. Doppler effect D. What is considered the most efficient mode in terms of energy transfer in waveguides? A.35 mm and 1. In acoustics. 1. Vertical mode 90.5 cm D. F1 layer C. Which of the following wavelengths where absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes peak due to vibrational resonances in the water vapor molecule? A. reuse format plan ratio D.

Hexagon B. Pentagon D. 10-16 W/m2 C. Frequency handoff C. 6 D. 10-12 W/m2 B. 4 B. the average lead time to install a new base station is approximately ____ months to a year. Frequency agility B. At one atmospheric pressure. In cellular system. What do you call the ability of a mobile phone to change from one channel (frequency) to another? A. 10-12 W/cm2 D. 4990 ft/s . 4990 m/s D. Frequency switch 97. 10 99. Octagon C. A. 5150 ft/s C. what is the approximate speed of sound in steel? A. Nonagon 98.96. What mathematical plane figure is ideal in cellular system design and engineering it graphically and functionally depicts overlapping radio coverage between and among adjacent cell base stations? A. 10-15 W/cm2 100. 5 C. Frequency handover D. What is considered the threshold of audibility at 3000 Hz? A. 5150 m/s B.

600 C. Radiated Power D. 3700 m/s 3. Pitch B. Rhythm D. 2λ to 8λ B. Transmit Power . 20 phons D. 1λ to 3λ D. 10λ to 20λ C. In SPADE system. 2356 kHz C. 5800 m/s B. What is the carrier frequency of supergroup 10? A. 240 7. Effective Radiated Power (ERP) B. What is the typical loudness level of a watch ticking? A. 40 phons C. A. Timbre 2. 5λ to 10λ 5. What significant element of sound refers to its characteristic tonal quality? A. 0 phon B. What is the velocity of sound in wood? A. 60 phons 4. how many PCM-encoded voice band channels are there? A. 3100 kHz 6. The typical length of the rhombic antenna is ____.Test Yourself – Exam 09 1. 800 B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) C. 2108 kHz D. Tempo C. 5000 m/s C. 300 D. A. 3300 m/s D. The product of the radiated RF power of a transmitter and the gain of the antenna system in a given direction relative to an isotropic radiator is called ____. 2724 kHz B.

Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) B.312 Mbps data signal? A. Pyramidal horn D. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) C. What satellite system parameter represents the quality of a satellite or an earth station receiver? A. Which of the following is oldest multiplexing scheme? A. 24 B. T2 carrier system C. What noise is observable at frequencies in the range from about 8 MHz to somewhat 1. The product of antenna input power and the antenna power gain expressed in kW is called __. 48 D. Gain-to-Equivalent Noise Temperature Ratio (G/Te) B. 96 C. T1C carrier system D. T3 carrier system . What carrier system multiplexes 96 voice band channels into a single 6. Industrial noise B. Shot noise 11. Cass-horn C.5 GHz? A. Atmospheric noise C. A. Energy of Bit-to-Noise Density Ratio (Eb/No) C. A special horn antenna consisting of a parabolic cylinder joined to a pyramidal horn.8. Effective Radiated Power (ERP) B. Hoghorn B. Transmit Power 9. Bit energy 10. Space noise D. 672 13. How many telegraph channels are there in the basic voice band channels? A. A. Space Division Multiplexing (SDM) 14. Conical horn 12. Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio (C/No) D. Radiated Power D. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) C. T1 carrier system B. Code Division Multiplexing (CDM) D.

Syncom II D. Acoustic blankets D. A specially configured coaxial transmission line C. Transformer type balun B. Centimetric 16.15. In transmission line. Calculate load admittance C. A specially configured parallel-wire line D. Connect stub to load D. ____ is defined as any radiation of energy by means of electromagnetic wave. Millimetric C. Plasters and spray on materials C. Radio D. A λ/2 transformer balun 21. Broadcasting 22. Transform conductance to resistance 20. What is the metric subdivision of VHF band? A. Japan for the first time? A. Radiation C. Prefabricated tiles B. which of the following is the first step in the procedure of using stub matching? A. What type of balun (balanced-to-unbalanced) is used in high frequency applications? A. Membrane absorber 18. B. Calculate stub susceptance. what means of attitude control is using the angular momentum of the spinning body to provide the roll and yaw stabilization? A. Radial stabilization C. Which of the following is NOT a porous absorber? A. Three-axis stabilization D. Syncom III C. In satellite communications. Spin stabilization B. Syncom I B. Decimetric D. What historical satellite broadcasted live the 1964 Olympic games from Tokyo. Syncom IV 19. A. Station keeping 17. Emission B. In what year did Hertz discover radio waves? . Metric B.

The President C. How many nominees per position of the Electronics Engineering Board are nominated by IECEP to PRC? A. 1844 B. Refraction of radio wave D. 5224 and S. RA 9292 B. What is the reactance property at the input of a shorted quarter wavelength line? A. The Commission on Appointment 28. No. Score D. Which of the following is the consolidation of H. A series LC circuit D. Reflection of radio wave B. 4 D. An early satellite owned by US Department of Defense that lasted only for 17 days A. 3 B. RA 6849 27. Who will appoint the chairman and 2 members of the board of Electronics Engineering? A. 5 C. 1873 C. 1895 23. Westar 1 26. A parallel LC circuit B. Courier B. A. A pure inductive reactance C. 2683? A. Which of the following phenomena is possible is free space medium? A. The Supreme Court D. RA 7925 D. 6 . No. RA 5734 C. 1887 D. Echo C. Diffraction of radio wave C. Attenuation of radio wave 24. A pure capacitive reactance 25. The Senate President B.

Increase the thickness B. For a loudness level between 110 and 120 dB. 1 B. Which of the following determines the acoustic behavior of gases? A. A porous material is far more efficient at high than low frequency absorption. 1 B. Within 15 days C. How to improve sound absorption at lower frequencies using this absorber? A. 20 D. Which of the following describes a TDM frame? A. Gas 33. 3 C. Unlimited 31. Density B. A 250-μs frame B. 2 D. A 60-μs frame . All of the choices 32. Solid C. Pressure C. Vacuum B. how many days after the board exam the results will be released? A. 60 C. Liquid D. A 125-μs frame C.29. Both A and C above 35. Temperature D. 45 34. A 500-μs frame D. Decrease the thickness C. Within 20 days D. A. the maximum daily exposure limit is ____ minute (s). Within 5 days B. In what medium sound travels the faster? A. According to RA 9292. How many removal examination (s) will be given to an examinee who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject (s) below seventy percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent (60%)? A. Mount with and airspace behind D. Within 3 days 30.

The total absorption of the building structure inside the room is 180.5 ms 42.5 ms B. What is the spectrum range of U600 mastergroup? A. X carrier C. 312 – 552 kHz D. 564 – 3084 kHz C. What is the noise factor if the equivalent noise temperature is 25 K? A. 137. 0. Dual polarization B. ____ system transmits frequency-division-multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial cable for distances up to 4000 miles. T carrier B. A. Calculate the reverberation time of a living room 8 ft high. Zonal rotation D. A ground station is operating to a geostationary satellite at a 5° angle of elevation. Calculate the round-trip time between ground station and satellite. 0. 41 dB D. Spin stabilization 39.09 B. Which frequency reuse method is less effective because of Faraday’s effect? A. 0. 1. 60 -2788 kHz 38.5 s . are connected in tandem. What is the overall S/N ratio? A. A. 0. 137.52 dB 40.36 dBm D. F carrier 37. 39.7 sabines with four persons present in the room. 275 ms C.5 s D. 13 ft wide and 20 ft long.36 41. 43. A. 0. Reducing antenna beamwidth C. 44 dB B. 60 – 108 kHz B.2 dB C. L carrier D.09 C. 275 s B.36. Three telephone circuits.05 s C. 0. each having an S/N ratio of 44 dB.

1.871 μW B. What is the approximate single-hop nighttime range of F2 layer? A. 0. D. Calculate the receive power for a transmitted power of 10 W? A. 5 ms 43. 4 MHz B. 512 44. 3840 km B. What is the number of levels required in a PCM system with S/N ratio of 40 dB? A.32 MHz B. 871 nW 46.8 MHz 45. 3000 km C. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz? A. F1 layer C. The distance between stations is 600 km. .1 MHz C. 6 MHz D. What is the approximate critical frequency of the E layer? A. 2. The antenna gain are each 40 dB. Determine the additional absorption (sabines) contributed by 10 persons in a room. 64 B.4 MHz D. A radio communications link is to be established via the ionosphere. D layer 49. the frequency is 10 GHz. F2 layer B. 5. E layer D. 5 MHz C. 256 D.871 mW D. 871 μW C. 0. and the path length is 80 km. determine the optimum working frequency? A. The maximum virtual height of the layer is 100 km at the midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is 2 MHz. Part of a microwave link can be approximated by free space conditions. 6. 4130 km D. 3 MHz 47. 128 C. 2350 km 48.

3. 35. 0. A frequency of 3000 Hz has how many octaves above 1000 Hz? A.58 C. 2.312 C.47 D. 4. 3 octaves 51. 47 B. The loudness level increased from 40 to 56 phons. Normal inversion C. In the North American TDM system. .736 B. 274. 4. 470 50. 1 octave D.6 octaves B.7 C. Ducting D. 3 times B. 4 times 52. What is the data rate in Mbps of a single satellite transponder considering an S/N of 30 dB? A. Refraction B. Superrefraction 56. What do you call the increase of temperature with height? A.8 B. Subrefraction D.5 times C. 3. what is the transmission rate in Mbps of T3 carrier system? A. 44. What condition occur when the refractive index of the air decreases with height much more rapidly the normal? A.1 octaves C.176 53. 3580 54. What is the increase in loudness sensation? A. Temperature inversion B. 358 D. 1. Diffraction 55. 2 times D. Superrefraction C. A. ____ is a term given to the region where superrefraction occurs. 6.152 D.

what is the new velocity of sound assuming dry air medium? A. Field meter D. 11.5 mm and 5 mm C.53 m/s C. If temperature change is 19°C. 405 km 61. What instrument normally measures the virtual height of ionosphere? A. In the above problem. 19. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths? A. The angle of elevation of the antenna beam is 20°.53 ft/s B. A. 5 cm and 2. 19.304 ft/s D. A. 3430 m/s C. Which of the following wavelengths where absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes peak due to vibrational resonances in the water vapor molecule? A.35 dm and 1.5 cm D. 343 m/s D.35 mm and 1.5 cm and 5mm 58. Strata B.304 m/s 62. 1.35 cm and 1. 5 mm and 2. 1.7 cm D. 1. 343 ft/s B. 966 km B. In acoustics. 1100 km D. 1. what amount of change to sound velocity is possible? A. 2100 km C.35 cm and 1. Ionosonde B. Altimeter C. Duct C.7 mm B. Isothermal region D.5 mm C. 1. 342 m/s 63. Tropospheric region 57. if the volume of the room is 200 m3 then at what frequency the coefficient of absorption is measured? .7 μm 59. Radar 60. 11. Calculate the transmission-path distance for an ionospheric transmission that utilizes a layer of virtual height 200 km. 1.7 mm B. Use flat-earth approximation.

120 Hz C. F2 66. Diffraction B. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and highest possible frequency D. For a space wave transmission. 300 kHz B. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and lowest possible frequency 68. Using the smallest possible radiation angle and highest possible frequency B. 320 kHz C. Ducting C. 150 kHz D. 150 Hz 64. 64 km D. Using the smallest possible radiation angle and lowest possible frequency C. How to maximize the skip distance? A. Refraction 67. 32 km C. 100 Hz D. 19244 Hz D. D B. 19224 Hz B. E C. 256 km 69. What bandwidth is needed to support a capacity of 128 kbps when the signal power to noise power ratio in decibels is 100? A. 3853 Hz C. 120 kHz B. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM system with 10 kHz of modulating frequency and a 150 kHz of frequency deviation? A. Reflection D. F1 D. 3583 Hz . 8 km B. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance to exceed the geometric horizon? A. Which of the following layers of the ionosphere has no effect on sky wave propagation during daytime? A. 200 kHz 65. the radio horizon distance of a receiving antenna with a height of 64 meters is approximately A. A.

109. TACS B.96 C. Power density C. The reverberation time of a 184. Find the absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines. NTT C.704 fF B. Frequency response B. Gyro frequency C. 35. NMT D.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0. Reflector C. mist and fog .704 mF 72.70. 0. Skip frequency D. Which of the following systems uses frequency band 870-885 MHz as a transmit band of its base station? A.6 74.704 μF C. Critical frequency 75.84 sec.704 nF D.01 H inductance. AMPS 71. Gain 76. What is the most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones? A. On-board computer B. Field Strength D. What is the capacitance of the tuner shunting the antenna coil at this point? A. Atmospheric attenuation is an attenuation which is due to A. A. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to earth? A. 0. 10. 379. Which of the following is the basic component of a communications satellite receiver? A. 0.8 D. 0.3 B. Transponder 73. MUF B. Telemetry D. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength is received by an antenna coil having a 50-Ω resistance and a 0.

gasses in the atmosphere C. How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference? A. elliptical D. The American concert pitch A is equivalent to which if the following frequencies? A. primary area 80. Use of different types of antennas C. 435 Hz C. 260 D. 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss. footprint D. 260 Hz D. A. circular only 78. SSP B. 435 B. and 6 dB antenna gain? . 4 dB feedline loss. 255 Hz 81. The international pitch A is equivalent to ___ Hz. closer to the sun 83. Satellite orbits around the earth are ____ orbits. Use of different polarity antennas B. higher C. Use of low gain antennas 79. Region C. The speed of the satellite increases as its height in orbit gets A. B. Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas D. rain 77. either elliptical or circular C. closer to the moon D. water vapor and oxygen D. 440 Hz B. 440 C. A. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output \. lower B. 255 82. An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam is called ____. circular B. A.

9 W 84. 4 dB feedline loss. 75 W C.7 W C. 69. the speech coding rate is ____. 18. 300 W B. 150 W 88. and 6 dB antenna gain? A.9 W 86. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output.5 W D.75 W D. 23. PD 677 89. 600 W B. Which of the following regulates the ownership and operation of radio and television stations in the country? A. PD 657 D. PD 756 C. 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss. 158 W B. 150 W D. 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss.7 W 90. 5 dB feedline loss. 10 Base T B. A cellular standard known as the cdmaOne. IS-100 85. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output. 5 dB feedline loss. PD 576-A B. 315 W C.6 W B. A. In GSM cellular system. 10 Base 5 D. 10 Base 1 87. 237 W C. 37. 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss. 69. IS-54 D. A. 39. 20 Base 2 C. and 7 dB antenna gain? A. and 10 dB antenna gain? A. IS-95 B. 251 W D. 31. IS-136 C. Which Ethernet system is restricted only to 100 m? A. .

MC No. What do you call a short bit sequence sent typically 128 bits in digital signatures? A. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN . 240 W C. MC No. 60 W D. A. and 10 dB antenna gain? A. What medium is used by IBM token ring network that operates at either 4 Mbps or 16 Mbps? A. Bluetooth 97. Public key C. According to KBP revised radio code which airtime below is classified class D for AM stations? A. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output. 601 W B. 1260 W 92. Coaxial cable C. and 6 dB antenna gain? A. GPRS C. 13 kbps B. 2-05-88 B. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 120 watts transmitter power output. 20 kbps 91. 2-09-88 93. EDGE D. MC No. 5 dB feedline loss. Private key D. Password 95. MC No. 15 kbps D. What is known as the final stage in the evolution of the GSM standard? A. 126 W C. Twisted pair B. WAP B.5 W D. Parallel-wire line 96. 2-07-88 D. 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss. 5 dB feedline loss. Which NTC memorandum circular governs the rules and regulations about the manufacture. sale and service of radio communication equipment? A. Fiber-optic D. 2-04-88 C. Hash B. 800 W B. 8 kbps C. acquisition. 379 W 94. 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss. 12.

A. 15 kbps D. B. It is most commonly achieved by using a ____. 8 kbps B. 7:8 B. private-key encryption C. 12:00 Midnight to 5:00 AM 98. Which of the following principal musical intervals is considered dissonant? A. Encryption of data is important to ensure its privacy. 5:8 D. 9:00 PM to 12 Midnight D. password-key encryption D. 20 kbps 100. A. 12:00 NN to 6:00 PM C. 13 kbps C. character set encryption 99. public-key encryption B. 3:5 . The speech coding rate in D-AMPS is ____. 1:2 C.

10% B. Shot noise D. Flicker noise B. ________ is a standard whereby mobile phones can gain access to specially tailored Internet websites. WAP D. 120 MHz D. What is the insertion loss of connector type splices for a single mode optical fiber? A. A. 80 MHz C. 0.Test Yourself – Exam 10 1. Transit-time noise C. 40% 5. X modem C. 0. 70 MHz 6. 0. A modem B. 60 MHz B. In the European standard. GPRS C. What noise is a transient short-duration disturbance distributed essentially uniformly over the useful passband of a transmission system? A. Impulse noise 3. 20% D. 0.38 db 4.31 dB D. EDGE 2.51 dB B. 30% C. Bluetooth B. What is the common up-converter and down-converter IF for microwave communications? A. the aurial transmitter maximum radiated power is ______ of peak visual transmitter power.49 dB C. What is the data link protocol that is used in asynchronous transmission for transferring files from one computer to another? A. B modem . A.

COW B. Which of the following is standardized as part of GSM phase 2+ that can offer theoretical data speeds of upto 115 kbit/s? A. Which of the following best describes a dip-meter? A. Bluetooth 10. Two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies? B. Phase distortion B. and 10 dB antenna gain? A. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200 watts transmitter power output. Two antennas from two different transmitters . WAP D. PONY 11. 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss. A ______ is essentially a cell site that is mounted on a flatbed tractor-trailer used for emergency purposes. 2000 W C. 126 W D. CALF D. Two or more antennas operating on the same frequency D. Pulse shape distortion C. EDGE B. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current D. A counter C. C modem 7. BULL C. 317 W B. GPRS C. Amplitude distortion 8. An SWR meter B. What distortion is not caused by transmission line characteristics? A. Two transmitters operating at same frequencies C. D. A field strength meter 12. Spacing bias distortion D. 260 W 9. Which is space diversity system? A. A. 4 dB feline loss.

As class B amplifiers 16. What is the channel number of an FM station with a carrier frequency of 99. As class A amplifiers D. 3. 64 kbps C. what is the basic access B channel data rate? A. In the nonlinear region C. Burst separator 14. In the linear region B. 258 C. 3 kHz 18. 16 kbps 17. What part or section of a TV receiver that separates the sound and video signals? A. 257 D. 40 dB B.5 MHz? A. In a triple conversion superheterodyne receiver. 259 15. In ISDN. 144 kbps D.8 kHz B. 32 kbps B. What is the quantization signal-to-noise ratio if an 8-bit PCM code is used? A. What is the emission designation of a single sideband reduced carrier signal? A. H3E B. Video amplifier C. diode mixer stages are operated A. IF stage B. J3E . 2. What is the channel spacing for MF-HF voice frequencies? A. 500 Hz C. 50 dB C. 65 dB 19. 60 dB D. 256 B. Video detector D.5 kHz D.13.

30 MHz 21. 14 D. Waveguide D. A3H 25. Coaxial line B. A3J C. Cathode B. 12 B. 60 MHz C. The antenna current is doubled when the modulation index is doubled in ______ AM system. Free space . 40 MHz B. Cathode end of the helix D. Which of the following is not a bounded medium? A. Speed of target C. Collector end of the helix 22. What is the most commonly used intermediate frequency of radar receivers? A. C. A5C B. Speed of light B. Two-wire line C. Frequency of signal 23. Anode C. Antenna directivity D. 9 C. A3 D. B8E 20. 10 24. R3E D. A. 70 MHz D. What determines the ability of radar to determine the bearing to a target? A. The input signal of a travelling wave tube is introduced at A.000? A. What is the minimum number of bits required in a PCM code for a range of 10.

Frequency 27. What limits the sensitivity of a receiver? A. Defining 29. Referencing C. 20 C. Locking on to a defined target is known as A. The type of weather just below the ionosphere D. Low gain . The distance between the transmitter and receiver 31. Searching D. DVD is ______ time bigger than CD. The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere C. Pitch C. The temperature of the ionosphere B. Homing B. What causes image interference? A. 100 Hz B. Loudness D. What is the standard test tone used for audio measurements? A. Volume B. 25 28. 10 B. What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary? A.26. 1000 Hz D. 500 Hz C. 2000 Hz 32. 15 D. What is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of the sound because the intensity varies inversely with the square of the distance? A. The power supply of the receiver B. The amount of radiation received from the sun 30. A. The power output of a transmitter C. The noise floor of the receiver D. Comparing the capacities of a DVD and an ordinary CD.

25 MHz C. 1. In the American standard. Vertical D. L bend B. How far is the visual carrier from the lowest frequency in the spectrum of a monochrome TV broadcast channel following the NTSC standard? A.5 MHz B.25 MHz 36. A. A waveguide passive component that brings a smooth change in the direction of axis maintained perpendicular to the plane of polarization? A. Null zone D. Zone of silence 38. 0. Empty zone B. Ground speed C. UHF C. What frequency band is referred to as the metric waves? A. Horizontal 37. What aircraft deviation is measured by an ILS localizer? A. Skip zone is otherwise known as A. Poor front-end selectivity D.5 MHz D. X bend 35. H bend C. SHF 34. VHF B. 10 % B. Shadow zone C. T bend D. the aural transmitter maximum radiated power is _____ of peak visual transmitter power. HF D. Low signal-to-noise ratio 33. High IF C. B. 1. 30 % . 4. Altitude B.

Why are frequency modulation transmitters more efficient? A. Belcore 43. and another consonant. A. Wow C. ______ is a term in the test language for noise testing in telephone circuits that means a one-syllable word consisting of a consonant. 680. When 60% of the capital is owned by Filipino citizens B. When can a corporation or association incorporated under the Philippine laws and with foreign investors be granted radio station license? A. Because their power is increased by class AB amplifiers 44. Because their power is increased by class B amplifiers D. Calculate the total power of the modulated wave? A. BCC D. A low frequency audible periodic variation in pitch of sound output in high fidelity sound reproduction system? A. A 1000W carrier is amplitude modulated to a depth of 85%. C. 1361. Because their power is increased by class C amplifiers B. String vibration D. Flutter B. When 50% of the capital is owned by Filipino citizens C.62 W . 40 % 39. 20 % D. SOH C. ETX 40. Radio sound 41. Ore D. Because their power is increased by class A amplifiers C. When the chairman of the board is a Filipino D. When the president of the corporation/association is a Filipino 42. Logatom B. a vowel.25 W B. Nosfer C. STX B. What character signifies the start of the test for Bisync? A.

160 Mbps B. 1425 W D. 2. Stabilization 47.635 to 15. Which of the following is the basic synthesizer circuit? A. What is the typical separation between the two conductors in a parallel wire line? A. Mixer 48. 44. 0. t3 has a bit rate of A. ITU-W B.736 Mbps D.01 m B. 560. 0. Which one is not an important characteristic of the physical layer? A. Neutralization C. Frequency multiplier C. Mechanical D.5 W 45. In t-carrier system. All of the choices 49. Electrical B. PLL D.24 cm D. 50. C. 560. Logical C. What is the process of cancelling the effect on internal device capacitance in radio transmitters? A. 712.376 Mbps C.5 to 5 in. ITU-R C.106 Mbps . Frequency divider B. Which is not an ITU sector? A. 200 to 500 mm C. Ionization D. ITU-D 46. 44. Degaussing B. ITU-T D.001 to 0.

518 kHz D. What do you call the electrical conduction in a photosensitive material which is not exposed to radiation? A.5 kHz B. In radio signal emission designation.51.5 kHz 55. Nature of multiplexing D. What is the channel spacing for SITOR frequencies? A. What is the difference between available power and power budget? A. A matched termination in which the electromagnetic energy is absorbed by water. 3 kHz 53. Power margin B. 490 kHz C. A. Load C. Extra power C. Dark conductance . Details of signals B. System gain 56. ITU-D 54. 170 Hz C. 300 Hz D. Load water D. 4209. ITU-T B. Nature of signal modulating the main carrier 52. 2174. Type of information transmitted C. Fade margin D. ITU-R C. the fifth symbol means A. ITU-S D. Maximum power transfer B. Which of the following is the new name of CCITT? A. 500 Hz B. Which of the following frequencies is normally used for distress and safety communications? A. Basin 57.

How many sidebands are present in the J3E mode? A. Optical medium board D. B. Two sidebands and a carrier B. T1 B. A test C. Combiner C. Optimum main board 61. Two carriers and one sideband 59. Attenuator 60. T series C.176 Mbps? A. Organization of medical biologist C. T3 C. What digital carrier transmits a digital signal at 274. Isolator B. X series B. A. C test 62. I series 63. AB test D. V series D. One upper sideband C. A. What does OMB stand for? A. A component that samples the microwave signal travelling in one direction down to the transmission line A. Pure conductance C. And ITU-T specification code that deals with the telephone circuits. Super conductance 58. A test method of comparing two audio systems by switching inputs so that the same recording is heard in rapid succession over one given system and then the other. Black out D. Directional coupler D. B test B. T2 . One lower sideband D. Optical media board B.

40 dB D.250 B. 20 dB 65. 30 to 53 kHz C. 90 C. Snell’s reflection B.500 C. What do you call the reflection of a part of incident light at the interface of two media that have different refractive indices? A. How many telephone channels are there in AT 2 line? A. 12. Fresnel reflection C. Voltage source D. 10 dB B. 96 66. D.5 to 74. 125. 83 D. 50 B. Huygen’s reflection . 30 dB C. 59.5 kHz D.000 69. What is the required quality factor for an SSB filter with the following data: center frequency= 1 MHz. Ideal source 67. What is the spectrum of stereophonic FM signal? A. What optical source radiates light uniformly in all directions? A. 88 to 108 MHz 68. Lambertian source C. Lambertian reflection D. Isotropic source B. 19 to 38 kHz B. 25.000 D. 1. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory television reception? A. the desired attenuation level of the unwanted sideband= 80 dB and the separation between sidebands= 200 Hz? A. T4 64.

Atmospheric noise C. The video section C. Radio regulation board D. Grass D. What is the term used in telephony and telegraphy for irregular disturbing radiation due to various causes and in a particular produced by arc transmitters causing a rushing sound in receiving telephones? A. World telecommunication standardization conference B. What region around a broadcasting transmitter in which satisfactory reception of broadcasting signal is not obtained? A. The grid-cathode circuit D. Fringe area B. The front panel 75. Which conference in the ITU-structure does the telecommunication standardization bureau report? A. ITU-development sector C. Yagi antenna D. The audio section B. Fax tone B. Mush C. Johnson noise 73. Which of the following antennas receives signals equally well from all directions in a horizontal plane? A. Vertical Marconi antenna C. Secondary area D. Primary are C. What do you call the random noise seen on radar display screen? A.70. Impulse noise B. The secretary general 71. Where is the brightness control located in a TV? A. Hetz antenna B. Hiss . Helical antenna 74. Tertiary area 72.

What is known as the alignment of the three color guns to a common point? A. Infrared D. Mechanical switch B. What mixer type has the lowest spurious signals? A. Synchronization . Strip line C. What is the maximum power that can be obtained from a microwave tube at 10 GHz? A. 20 W 78. 50 W D. each separately insulated? A. D. 10 W C. Divergence C. Microstrip line B. What are the electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths less than 300 angstroms? A. Convergence D. Ultraviolet rays C. What device in a waveguide system used for stopping or diverting electromagnetic wave as desired? A. Heterodyner 80. Single-balanced C. Electric switch C. What do you call a cable consisting of twisted pairs of conductors. Microwaves 81. Push-button switch D. Super-heterodyner D. Coaxial cable 79. 500 W B. X-rays B. Double-balanced B. Waveguide switch 77. Crosstalk 76. Confetti B. Quad D.

Department Order No. Which circuit detects frequency modulated signal? A. Yagi antenna B. Which of the following antennas require good grounding? A. Modem 86. Active repeater C. A. Bit D. Department Order No. Slave D. What is the minimum propagation delay of a geostationary satellite? A. Demodulator D.82. Modulator B. Station C. 23 C. What is the department order that governs commercial radio operator? A. Marconi antenna D. Master B. Mainframe 84. Active generator B. 5 B. 239 ms . Department Order No. Hertz antenna C. Audio generator 88. Interpolator D. Carrier B. 44 83. 278 ms B. 88 D. Isotropic antenna 85. Department Order No. The computer which initiates information transfer A. Character C. What synchronization is provided so that the start and end of message is identified? A. Discriminator C. Clock 87. A form of regenerative repeater for transmitting signals over a long cable received through a relay in a clearer form.

A. 10. Solar spot D. 6 mW 90. 1 pW D. Prominence 91. ______ is slow moving “cord-like” mass of plasma across the sun’s surface. Solar flare C. 600 ms 89.000 nT C. 1 mW B. Filament B.000 nT B. What is the approximate intensity of the magnetic field at the earth’s surface? A. 32. ______ is a slow moving large mass of plasma on the sun’s surface.7 cm band D. 62. 1 W C. A. 62. Solar flare C. A spot on the sun’s visible surface where the magnetic flux lines converge? A. Filament B. 10. Prominence D.000 µT 95.7 nm band 94. Prominence D. 10.7 mm band B. In measuring crosstalk using dBx unit the reference power is A. 32. 300 ms D.7 m band C. 10. C. Sunspot B.000 µT D. Filament C. At what particular wavelength is solar flux measured? A. Proton flare 92. What is the intensity of the magnetic field at the earth’s north pole? . Solar spot 93.

62. Femtosat D.000 nT B. 2. 2G D.000 µT D.000 nT C. GPRS D.000 µT 96. What do you call a satellite weighing less than 1 kg? A. Sputnik 1 B. Explorer 1 98. A low power. 1G B. The wireless evolution is achieved through the GSM family of wireless technology platforms which include but except one of the following. A. CDMA 99. WAP B. EDGE C. GPRS C. 1957? A. Bluetooth D. 32. Picosat C. Nanosat B. Microsat 97. A. GSM B. short range wireless technology designed to provide a replacement for serial cables is called ______.5G C. Which of the following is an enhancement of GSM including the GPRS? A. 62. 32. The first creature in space was carried by which of the following spacecrafts in November 3. Sputnik 2 D. 3G 100. Which one is NOT a member of the GSM family? A. Sputnik 3 C. EDGE .

.

Thermal noise D. Interference B. Serial transmission errors B. What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level? A. PCM B. Singing 2. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle over a specified total frequency band. A.Noise Chapter 4 (3001 Questions in Communications Engineering-EXCEL REVIEW CENTER) 1. A. both internal and external to the system. All of the above 7. channel C. information source D. Noise always affects the signal in a communications systems at the ________. Quantizing noise occurs in A. PAM 4. The synchronization between encoder and decoder . PDM D. Shannon theorem 3. Noise 6. PLM C. Attenuation C. Hartley law C. Whiter noise C. Nyquist theorem B. A. Distortion D. Hits D. transmitter B. Shannon-Hartley theorem D. destination 5. Gaussian noise B. Wander B. The approximation of the quantized signal C. What is the non-continuous noise of irregular pulses or spikes of duration with high amplitudes? A. Which causes a quantization noise in PCM system? A. _________ is the random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes. Jitter C.

Which standard recommends crosstalk limits? A. G.152 B. RFI C.190 D.151 D. Binary coding techniques 8. Noise margin D. Unwanted radio signal on assigned frequency.190 15. 273 C. _________ is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but does not have any traffic. CCIT Rec. White noise B. CCIT Rec. What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics? A. Galactic noise C. Noise D. EMI 11.161 14. A particular circuit that rids FM of noise A. A. G. CCIT G. 30 10. What is the reference noise temperature in degrees Celsius? A. G. CCIT G. G. Discriminator C. CCIT Rec. 800 Hz . Phase Shifter D. Detector B. D.172 C. CCIT Rec. Noise factor C. Which standard is utilized in intermodulation noise rates on PCM audio channels? A. Signal-to-noise 12.150 C. CCIT G. 17 B. What is the reference frequency of CCIT phosphomeric noise measurement? A. Impulse noise D. Limiter 9. A.151 B. Splatter B. Atmospheric noise 13. 25 D. Thermal agitation noise B. CCIT G.

A. Noise improvement factor C. 0 to 10 KHz B. 290 K D. B. 3400 Hz 16. A. Galactic noise D. Non-intrinsic figure B. 75 K B. Narrow intermediate frequency D. A. Man-made noise is usually from _______. Atmospheric noise 18. Industrial noise D. nif stands for A. Which noise is produced by lighting discharges in thunderstorms? A. 300 K 17. 250 K C. 15 to 160 MHz D. transmission over power lines and by ground wave B. sky-wave C. White noise B. troposphere 19. 1500 Hz D. Extraterrestrial noise C. External noise fields are measured in terms of _______. Reference temperature use in noise analysis A. dc values C. At 17˚ C. 160 MHz to 200 MHz C. 200 to 3000 MHz 21. space-wave D. Shot-noise C. 1000 Hz C. Impulse noise 23. Precipitation static B. A. Noise interference figure 20. the noise voltage generated by 5kΩ resistor. Industrial noise frequency is between _____. rms values B. operating over a bandwidth of 20KHz is . average values D. Form of interference caused by rain or dust storms. peak values 22.

Is the interference coming from other communications channels? A.23 dB B.5 dB while its power gain is 15. 1. What is the reference noise level? A. 11. 10 pW B. External noise B. A. 1mW D. 1. EMI 28. Solar flare B. What is the unit of noise power of psophometer? A. Jitter B. 5.23 dB C.3 µV C.77dB C.59 dB B. what is the over all noise figure if the second circuit has a noise figure of 11 dB? A.3 nV B. Thermal noise D. 0 dBm C. 11. Internal noise C. 1. A. dBrn 30.79 dB D. A. The noise figure of the first circuit in tandem connection is 10. dBm D. what is the overall S/N? A. 14. 30 dB D.5 dB 27.3 pV D. 10. 40 dB 26. 10. 1. -90 dBm 29. ________ is an electric noise produced by thermal agitation of electrons in conductor and semiconductor. A large emission of hydrogen from the sun that affects communications. Three identical circuits having 10 dB signal noise-to-noise ratio each are connected in tandem with each other. pWp B. RFI D. dBa C. Cosmic disturbance .3 mV 24. Flicker 25. Crosstalk C.

Ballistic disturbance D. high 38. lunar 32. A. intermediate D. ˚C +290 34. anitnoise C. Atmospheric noise or static is not a great problem . cosmic C. Standard design reference for environmental noise temperature. ˚C+75 C. A. If bandwidth is doubled. doubled 35. 290 K C. 300 K B. the signal power is _________. ˚C +273 B. A. A. 32 ˚F D. 212˚F 33. solar D. Steam boiler B. Deemphasis in the receiver in effect attenuates modulating signal components and noise in what frequency range? A. The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the noise effect of the preceding question is called A. ˚C+19 D. Internal combustion engine D. Atmospheric noise is known as _______noise. noise masking B. Solar noise 31. C. preemphasis 37. static B. tripled D. Galaxies C. A. noise killing D. not changed B. dc B. Both B and C 36. quadrupled C. Name one or more sources of noise bearing on electronic communications. Absolute temperature in Kelvin. low C.

at a +7 test point is equal to ________ dBa0. The difference between signal strength at a given point and a reference level is________. dBrnc0 C. What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile station? A. Install filter capacitors in series with all dc wiring 40. A. Reading a 58 dBrn. A. at frequencies above 1 MHz 39. C message weighted. F1A handset 44. In the receiver front end D. 65 C. A. power B. -90 dBm B. Man-made noise B. dBa B. In the atmosphere C. A. 51 C. at frequencies below 20 MHz B. F1A weighting refers to ___________. at frequencies above 30 MHz D. Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western Electric 3A test set at a +7 test point is equal to ______ dBrnc0. dBm C. level D. Interfering effect of noise. dBm C. In the ionosphere 41. 58 B. 65 D. dBmc D. A. dB 43. at frequencies below 5 MHz C. dBrnc D. Insulate a all plain sheet metal surfaces from each other C. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary B. Apply anti-static spray liberally to all nonmetallic D. Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF (150MHz) marine-band receiver? A. 26 B. ratio 42. A. is _________. 27 45. 51 .

actual amount of power reference to 1mW B. What is this reading in dBa? A. A. 9 D. 15 . F1A weighting network. Your meter reads -47dBm. would be _________ dBrnc. equals ___________. This is ________dBa0. You are measuring noise in a voice channel with a Lenkurt 601A. The meter reading is -59 dBm. current flow per time period 48. using the Lenkurt 601A. 25 D. and a flat meter. 20 B. 15 C. 35 dBa C. F1A weighting network and a flat meter. and -80 on the disturbed pair equals _____ dB of crosstalk coupling. A. 46 46. -90 dBm B. You are measuring noise at a -6 dB level point. logarithmic ratio of two powers C. 30 C. 12 C. A measurement of -75 dBm. 20 B. definite amount of energy per time period D. 32 dBa 50. A. -82 dBm C. C-message weighted. 25 47. 23 D. 24 B. Power is __________. 38 dBa D. F1A weighting network. -85 dBm D. using the Lenkurt 601A. You are measuring noise at a +3 dB level point. The meter reading is -57dBm. 7 C. D. A. 32 52. 8 B. A. A. This is _________ dBa0. A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing pair. 17 51. 15 dBa F1A weighted. 60 D. 77 dBa B. -70 dBm 49. and a flat meter.

A practical dBrn measurement will almost always in a _______ number. F1A weighted? A. -82 dBm C. -90 dBm 55. -90 dBm D.53. -85 dBm 59. -90 dBm tone B. -82 dBm C. 90 dB B. 90 dBm C. 75 B. a noise that creates the same interfering effect as a 1000Hz. -85 dBm 60. positive B. fractional 57. This is ______ dBrnc0. -67 dBm D. 31 54. 29 C. a 1000 Hz. a noise that creates zero dBrn in a voice channel D. -67 dBm D. A. At what power level does a 1 KHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)? A. What is the reference tone level for dBrn? A. Your Western Electric 3A test set meter reading is -23 dBm at at test point level of -8 dB. -90 dBm B. above 3000 kHz . -90 dBm B. A. imaginary D. A. What is the reference tone level for dBa? A. Reference noise is ___________. -67 dBm D. below 30 MHz C. above 30 MHz B. What is the reference level for noise measurement. B and C above 56. 30 D. -90 dBm B. -90dBm tone C. -85 dBm 58. negative C. Atmospheric noise becomes less severe at frequencies A. -82 dBm C.

Which of the following is not a source of industrial noise? A. A random voltage across the resistor does not exist D. Leakage from high voltage line 64. The noise power generated is therefore. doubled D. 40 µV B. An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a 200 kΩ input resistor. Random noise power is proportional to the bandwidth over which is measured C. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type B. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifiers. D. below 3000kHz 61. halved B. D.0 µV C. Sun C. Indicate the false statement A. Electric Motors D. Static is caused by lightning discharges in thunderstorms and other natural electric disturbances occurring in the atmosphere C. Galactic noise 62. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which is measured. A. 4. A. Flourescent lights are another source of man-made noise 63. 65. The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. 400 µV . Cosmic noise C. Indicate the false statement. B. What is the RMS noise voltage at the input to this amplifier if the ambient temperature is 17˚C ? A. unchanged 66. Automobile ignition B. The noise generated in a resistance or the resistive component of any impedance is random. Solar noise B. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type. Atmospheric noise D. All formula referring to random noise are applicable only to the value of such noise. 67. Distant stars are another source of man-made noise D. Indicate the noise whose sources are in category different from that of the other three? A. B. quadrupled C. Indicate the false statement. Impulse noise voltage is dependent on bandwidth C. A.

A. A. The amplifier has a 300 Ω input resistor and a shot noise equivalent resistance of 500Ω. The first stage of a two-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 10.5 mV B. a 1600Ω equivalent noise resistance and 27kΩ output resistor.518 kΩ B. Input noise voltage B. Calculate the equivalent noise resistance for this television receiver. 81kΩ. having a bandwidth of 7Mhz. and operating at a temperature of 27˚C . The front-end of a television receiver. 19kΩ. A meter connected at the output of the amplifier reads 1mV RMS. and 1MΩ. Equivalent noise resistance C. 251. Indicate the false statement. noise factor expressed in decibels C.0 mV 68. 12. Noise figure is defined as A. 0.8 Ω D. 8. these values are 2. 72. these values are 25. for the mixer.5kΩ respectively. Calculate the equivalent input-noise resistance of this two stage amplifier.76Ω D. its gain remaining constant. 2. Noise temperature D. what does the meter read now? A.2kΩ and 13.0 mV D. an unwanted form of energy tending to interfere with the proper and easy reception and reproduction of wanted signals . If the bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to 5kHz. 0.5 µV C.0 µV 70. 0.876Ω 71.518 Ω C. consists of an amplifier having a gain of 15 followed by a mixer whose gain is 20. the ratio of the S/N power supplied at the input terminal of a receiver or amplifier to the S/N power supplied to the output or load resistor B. a 600 Ω input resistor. A. 5. 8760 Ω B. 5. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance receivers. The noise output of a resistor is amplified by a noiseless amplifier having a gain of 60 and a bandwidth of 20 kHz. respectively.518 Ω 69. 4. For the second stage. and the load resistance of the mixer is 470 kΩ. D. 875Ω C. 2. Noise figure.

both working at the same temperature over the same bandwidth and fed from the same source 73. a gain of 25 and load resistance of 125 kΩ. D.3 B. Calculated the noise figure of the amplifier whose Req equals 2518Ω (RT=600Ω) if its driven by a generator whose output impedance is 50Ω. . Given that the bandwidth is 1.94 C. A. narrowing the bandwidth C.394 74. widening the bandwidth B.0MHz and the temperature is 20˚C. A. 39. increasing temperature D. 30. 3. The sun D. Transit-time noise C. Which of the following is not a source of external noise? A.4 B. 17K 76. 3.303 75. Shot noise B. 1. S/N of an ideal system divided by S/N at the output of the receiver or amplifier under test. 394 D.74K D. 0. and that the receiver is connected to an antenna with an impedance of 75Ω. increasing transistor current levels 79. 303 D. 17. Calculate the noise figure of the receiver whose RF amplifier has an input resistance of 1000Ω and an equivalent shot-noise resistance of 2000Ω. Noise can be reduced by A. Auto ignition C. Most internal noise comes from A. A.4 K B. A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 Ω has an equivalent noise resistance of 30Ω. Calculate its equivalent noise temperature if the noise figure is equal to 1. Noise at the input to the receiver can be as high as several .6. Fluorescent lights 78.03 C. Skin effect 77. Thermal agitation B. 174K C. Thermal agitation D.

7 dB D. The solar cycle repeats the period of great electrical disturbance approximately every A.1 dB C. The transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region is a A. 10 years C. 2. MESFET 83. 9 years D. MOSFET B. volts D.4 dB 82. milivolts C. kilo volts 80. 5. 2. 5.5µV D. IF amplifier B. Shot noise B. What is the noise voltage across a 300Ω input resistance to a TV set with a 6MHz bandwidth and temperature of 30˚C? A. 3. its resistance B. All of the above .8µV C. Demodulator C. 3. 11 years B. 2. Transit-time noise 85. AF amplifier D.6 dB B. 8 years 86. Dual-gate MOSFET C. Impulse noise D. Random noise C. Mixer 81.4µV 84. A.3 µV B. the bandwidth over which it is measured D. microvolts B. Which circuit contributes most of the noise in a receiver? A. Which noise figure represents the lowest noise in receiver? A. its temperature C. The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to A. 1. JFET D. Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at frequencies? A.

A noise whose source is within the solar system.87. Crosstalk from dc signaling systems D. Tone interference C. Lunar noise 94. A. Quantizing noise D. Noise that occurs via capacitive or inductive coupling in a cable. Cosmic noise B. Barometer C. Solar noise C. Crosstalk B. Noise consisting of irregular pulses of short duration and relatively high amplitude. Noise occurring in the presence of signal resulting from a mismatch between the exact value of an analog signal and the closet available quantizing step in a digital coder. Impulse noise B. Reflectometer D. Thermal noise C. Reference noise D. Impulse noise D. A. Cross talk 89. Impulse noise D. Thermal noise C. . A. ___________ is device that measures the internal open circuit voltage of an equivalent noise generator having an impedance of 600Ω and delivering noise power to a 600 Ω load. External noise originating outside the solar system A. Erroneous digital coding bit caused by an error on a transmission facility B. Crosstalk due to incomplete suppression of sidebands or to intermodulation of two or more frequency-multiplexed channels which is unintelligible is classified as A. Quantizing noise B. Tone interference 90. Miscellaneous noise 92. Voltmeter 93. All of these 91. Sources of impulse noise induced in communication channels. Thermal noise D. A. Crosstalk 88. Quantizing noise B. Psophometer B. Quantizing noise C. A. Transients due to relay operation C.

Lightning C. Weather condition 98. Thunderstorms B. Galactic noise D. All of these 100. What do you call the noise coming from the sun and stars? A. Noise density B. Use redundancy B. Increase transmitted power C. Cosmic noise D. Which of the following low noise transistors is commonly used at microwave frequencies? A. MOSFET B. Airplanes C. Noise figure C. Space noise C. What is the primary cause of atmospheric noise? A. Thunderstorm B. GASFET C. Solar noise B. Noise limit D. Thermal noise C. Which of the following is not a way of minimizing if not eliminating noise? A. Reduce signaling rate D. Meteor showers D. A. Johnson Noise 95. A. JFET . MESFET D. Thunderstorm and lightning D. Black-body noise B. All of these 99. Noise intensity 96. The total noise power present in a 1-Hz bandwidth . The major cause of atmospheric or static noise are A. Increase channel bandwidth 97.

A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of A. TWT 7. Coverage B. The first satellite to receive and transmit simultaneously A. Telstar I C. Access D. Cost C. Geosynchronous satellite . gain 6. Early Bird D. Trancievers B. ___________ is a satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or circular pattern. Sun B. Intelsat I B. Considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system A. Telstar C. Early Bird B. Privacy 8. A. beamwidth D. Which of the following is the first active satellite? A. Early Bird C. Courier 3.Satellite Communications Chapter 10(3001 Questions in Communications Engineering- EXCEL REVIEW CENTER 1. Which of the following is the first commercial satellite? A. Syncorn I D. Explorer D. Score D. Telstar I 5. Echo I B. Agila I C. circular polarization B. Transducers D. maneuverability C. Moon 4. Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as A. What is the first passive satellite transponder? A. Sputnik I 2. Transponders C.

Global beam 12. Nonsynchronous satellite C. LNA D. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth’s station. Footprint B. 3. Retrograde satellite 9. Region 10.5 to 31 GHz 13. 12. Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite A. Prograde satellite D.4 to 6.4% of the earths surface.5 to 12. Earth D. What is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signals simultaneously? A. Spot C. Downlink C.95 GHz D. Optoisolator D. Orthomode transducer B. Zone beam B. Crystal detector C. Is the geographical representation of a satellite antenna radiation pattern A. Isomode detector . Global beam 11. Satellite dish C. A. What is the frequency range of C-band? A. Hemispheric beam C. 8. Uplink B. Spot beam D. Zone beam B. Hemispheric beam C.95 to 14. Terrestrial D. Spot beam D.425 GHz C.5 GHz B. Helical antenna B. TWT 15. Earthbound 14. A. B. 27. The smallest beam of a satellite antenna radiation pattern A. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.

426. amplifies and lower its frequency. Perigee C. Point on the satellite obits closest to the earth.16. Beamwidth B.426.426. RFI 18. Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth’s atmosphere. Horn antenna B.4 miles 19. A. 2555 MHz 22. 4500 MHz C. What height must a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order for its rotation to be equal to earth’s rotation? A. 2225 MHz D. Silicon based panel C. Atmospheric loss B.426.4 miles C. jet propulsion . Bandwidth C. 26. 23. Apogee B. 22. Galium Phosphate solar panel array D. A.4 miles D. A. The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam. Prograde D. 3500 MHz B. Footprint D. A. _________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric current. Germanium based panels B. Satellite receiver D. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites A. Satellite dish 17. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency in GHz band? A. 27. Satellite engine uses A. Radiation loss D. Galium Arsenide solar panel array 23. Zenith 20.4 miles B. Path loss C. Zone 21. LNA C.

The location of AsiaSat I. 30 B. 24 D. The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite has how many channels? A. Ku-band 28. X-band C. 1983 D. 2 B. Leclanche C. The first Philippine Agila I will have how many transpoders. 1977 27. Leclanche C. L-band B. A satellite batter has more power but lighter. A. A. B. Hydrogen D. ion propulsion system C. A. Lithium B. 1981 C. 8 31. 36 B. Magnesium 26. How may satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine Government from ITU? A. Lithium B. VSAT was made available in A. 105. What kind of battery used by older satellites? A. Magnesium 25. 12 30. 1979 B. liquid fuel D. solar jet 24. 48 C.5˚East . Hydrogen D. What band does VSAT first operate? A. 6 D. C-band D. 48 D. 50 29. 4 C. 24 C.

The owner of AsiaSat 2 is A. The frequency of Ku band for satellite communications. Earth station uses what type of antenna A. 170. 200 dB 35. International Satellite 36. 38 B. None of these 38. 15 33. Cassegrain antenna 39. Helical antenna C. 28 D. International Telecommunications Satellite D. Earth-to-satellite link B. 0. AsiaSat I covers how many countries in Asia? A. INTELSAT stands for A.5˚East D. What is the approximate path loss from satellite-to-earth station? A. What is the delay time for satellite transmission from earth transmitter to earth receiver? A. 151. Singapore Satellite Commision 34.5 s . China Great Wall Industry Corporation D. Japan Satellite System (JSAT) C. A.5˚East C. Despun antenna B. Toroidal antenna D. 6/4 GHz B. Intel Satellite B. 12/14 GHz D. 14/11 GHz C. 150 dB C. B. 10 C. Satellite-to-earth link C. A satellite cross-link means A.5˚East 32. 115. 4/8 GHz 37. 100 dB B. Asia Satellite Telecommunications Company (ASTC) B. International Telephone Satellite C. 175 dB D. Satellite-to-satellite link D.

5 ms D. 14 44. A. Radial divider B. Divider/combiner C. zener diode B. Most mobile satellite array uses ___________ in transforming 50 to 150 Ω impedance. Radial combiner D. Shockley diode 42. 17˚ D. 1. 6 B. B. 88 C. 5˚ C. 12 D. What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements in a mobile satellite array? A. In a typical mobile satellite array antenna if three elements are activated. 1000 MHz D. 3 B. A mobile satellite array has usually how many elements? A. tunnel diode C. balun C. 11 C.0 s C.S. .25 ms 40. 5 D. how many elements are deactivated? A. 35˚ 43. 9 45. The most common device used as an LNA is A. A. IMPATT D. 500 GHz B. Radial multiplexer 46. 1000 GHz C. microstrip tapers. The radiation patterns of earth coverage antennas have a beamwidth of approxiamately A. The bandwidth of C-band satellite frequency band in U. stub B. 21˚ B. 500 MHz 41. quarter-wavelength transformer D. 0.

the speed of the satellite _________. repeater B. None of the above 51. What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth receiver? A. beacon D. Matrix D. TDMA D. CDMA B. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower. 1s C. Series B. 0. transfer orbit 54. FDMA 49. polar orbit D. A. ANIK-D C.47. Shunt 48. transponder 53. on-board computer C. 0. observation platform 52. Radial C. command and control system D. The main function of a communications satellite is a/ an A.25 s 50. A. remains the same D. decreases C. The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the A. geostationary orbit C. telemetry equipment B. elliptical orbit B. A. 5 ms D. Centripetal force and speed . increases B. Satellite weight and speed B.5 s B. The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite array. A method of multiple accessing where a given RF channel bandwidth is divided inot smaller frequency band. A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is called a/an A. Gravitational force and centrifugal force C. A satellite stay in orbit because the following two factors are balanced A. reflector C.

thermoelectric generators 58. Thruster control D. communications subsystem D. The jet thrusters are usually fired to A. Gravity-forward motion balance B.300 mi D. The main power sources for a satellite are A. The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the A. to give the solar arrays a rest 60. tracking. Above 300 GHz 57. inject the satellite in the geosynchronous orbit . during eclipse periods D. Solar panel orientation 62. Apogee 59. propulsion subsystem B. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems A. 42000 mi B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz C. 35. maintain altitude B. batteries B. 22. only during emergencies C. What is the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite? A. and command subsystem 61. Satellite weight and the pull of the moon and sun 55. The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the A. put the satellite into the transfer orbit C. Most satellites operate in which frequency band? A. 6800 mi C. Apex C. fuel cells D. solar cells C. at all times B. 30 to 300 MHz B. What is the height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit? A. D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz D. power subsystem C.860 mi 56. telemetry. Spin C. Zenith D. Perigee B.

Up conversion C. X D. 70 MHz D. C and Ku C. Modulator D. HPA 67. L B. 40 MHz C. mixer D. position relative to the sun 70. 63. Klystrons C. distance from the earth B. reference to the stars D. LNA B. The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function(s)? A. Vacuum tubes D. The HPAs in most satellite are A. Modulation and multiplexing B. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)? A. The physical location of a satellite is determined by its A. What is the typical bandwidth of a satellite band? A. Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder are defined by the A. Multiplexing C. Mixing D. Frequency reuse B. 500 MHz 66. The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the A. bandpass filter C. Mixer C. Frequency hopping 65. LNA B. TWTs B. input signals 68. S and P 64. 36 MHz B. bring the satellite back to earth. D. Demodulation and demultiplexing . Magnetrons 69. latitude and longitude C. How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies? A.

SSB D. Longitude 76. QPSK 75. 278 ms B. Speed C. The total space loss of transmission and reception for two ground stations with uplink frequency 8GHz and a downlink of 6 GHz with angle of elevations of 3˚ and 7˚ A respectively is A. The maximum propagation delay of a geostationary satellite is A. 500 MHz 73. Transistor C. Latitude B. Which of the following is not a typical output from a GPS receiver? A. D. 250 ms 78. 403 dB B. QPSK 74. FM C. AM B. 40 MHz C. What type of modulation is used on voice and video signals? A. 70 MHz D. 36 MHz B. 100 dB C. What modulation is normally used with digital data? A. Down conversion 71. 300 ms D. 215 dB 77. FM C. Klystron D. Altitude D. AM B. What is the common up-converter and down-converter IF? A. TWT B. Magnetron 72. Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations? A. The total propagation delay time from transmission to reception of signals from a ground transmitter to ground receiver with angle of elevation at 10 degrees respectively is . 20 dB D. SSB D. 239 ms C.

Satellite the orbits in a circular pattern with an angular velocity equal to that of the earth A. Syncorn I D. Geostationary B. The signal path from earth station satellite A. Incident signal D. 275 ms D. Reflected signal C. Early Bird I C. Regional D. Uplink signal B. Active satellite C. duplexer D. transponder B. 500 to 600 ms B. 300 to 400 ms C. Relay station . Domsat B. The round-trip propagation delay between two earth stations through a geosynchronous satellite is A. Global 83. Repeater C. billboard 81. 273 ms B. 260 ms 79. 239 ms C. Passive satellite B. Satellite that provide services within a single country A. Geostationary satellite D. comparator C. Stationary satellite 82. 600 to 700 ms D. Communication satellite B. 400 to 500 ms 84. Designed to receive a signal from a transmitting station on the ground and retransmit it to a receiving station located elsewhere A. Downlink signal 85. A satellite which simply reflects the signal without further amplification A. Domestic satellite 80. Comsat C. Essentially a satellite ___________ is a radio repeater in the sky A. A.

azimuth B. D. When the satellite are spaced 4˚ of the 360˚ complete circle. The ________ angle measures the satellite position clockwise from the direction of true north. The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is referred to as A. station monitoring D. Transponder 86. depression C. A. Early Bird I . A. A. Satellite location D. Carl Friedrich Gauss C. Uplink signal C. elevation B. 95 D. Reflected signal 87. elevation C. depression D. The first intelsat satellite that was launched in 1965 was named A. Samuel Morse D. incidentally propose the geostationary scheme or orbit of the satellite in 1940s A. Satellite altitude B. Satellite orbit 93. critical 89. 80 91. station maintaining 92. how many parking spaces or orbit slots are available? A. The signal path from satellite to earth-based receiver. critical 88. Downlink signal B. Stephen Gray 90. Satellite position C. Refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth A. 85 C. station keeping B. 90 B. A satellite position is measured by its __________ angle with respect to the horizon. azimuth D. station tracking C. Arthur Clarke B. Incident signal D.

Telstar I D. Which of the following is the most common application of satellite? A. 200 dB C. Geostationary stationary satellites are located ___________ with respect to the equator. What is the free space attenuation of a satellite communications system operating at 36. When the elevation angle of a geostationary satellite is 23˚ and the transmitting frequency is 3840 MHz.0 GHz? A. Echo C. Newscasting 99. 256 msec B. Military application C. what is the free space loss in dB? A. 150 dB D. 100 dB 96. 142 dB D. Courier 94. East to West D. 198 dB B. West to East 100. South to North C. 128 msec C. Surveillance B. What is the propagation delay when a signal is transmitter by an earth station to a geosynchronous satellite about 38. 400 msec 97. Sputnik I D. Communications D. The first satellite launched for a geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately lost during orbit injection A. B. Syncom I B. A.500 km above earth’s equator and then received by the same earth station? A. Telstar I C. 196 dB B. North to South B.000 km above the earth at 5. 202 dB C. Descending pass for a satellite means a pass from A. 300 msec D. 138 dB 98. Early Bird I 95. 0˚longitude .

90˚latitude D.B. 45 latitude˚ . 0˚ latitude C.

Spiral 2. ______ is a section which would be a complete antenna by itself. HF 5. end fire array B. Circular D.Antennas 1. 3.3 times how much does the radiated power increase? A. EHF D. VLF. Yagi-Uda antenna . bay D. If the antenna increases 3. Which is a non-resonant antenna? A. VHF. wideband array 6. 6. Antenna B. Loudspeaker C. Rhombic antenna B. Folded dipole C. A. End-fire array D. UHF B.6 times 3. What is the polarization of a discone antenna? A. LF C. 9. When speaking of antennas. image B. MF. In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas used? A. Horizontal C. top loading C. Microphone D. SH. Vertical B. If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to 3° the antenna is called a A.3001 Questions in Communications Engineering – EXCEL REVIEW CENTER Chapter 6 . critical phased array C. Transducer 7. broadband array D.9 times D. quarterwave 4.3 times B.89 times C. A. A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave. 10.

What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna? A. ______ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directivity A.76 dB D. Hertzian antenna D. The best solution to fading is _____. 2.76 dB C. A. 1. Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over isotropic.8. frequency diversity C. which type of antenna must be used? A. Quantum . 1. Major lobes 10. 0dB 9. 1. Bandwidth B.15 dB C. A. Null C. In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations. A. Minor lobes B. wavelength diversity 14. Very low signal strength in antenna.64 dB B. Isotropic antenna 13. Beamwidth D.15 dB B. polarization diversity D. Enthalpy C. Phase angle B. _____ is the amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols A. Bandwidth 12. 2. space diversity B.55 dB 11. Void antenna B. 1 dB D. Entropy D. Antenna gain C. 1. Antenna patterns D. Dummy antenna C.

it increases the output of the transmitter by A. broadside array D. practical height B. A horizontal antenna is _____. _____ is an antenna with a number of half-wave antenna on it. vertically polarized B. FM Broadcasting C. 10. horizontally polarized C. input capacitance 17. AM Broadcasting B. yagi C. 1000 times C. 100 times D. Lightning rods must be mounted a top structure not less than ___ above the highest point. collinear B. Omni-directional D. circularly polarized 18. 30 cm D.15. Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ______. beamwidth C. Tower C. A. A. Satellite Communications 20. A. 20 cm C. Antenna array B. A. Mobile Communications D. log-periodic 19. Rhombic . centrally polarized D. 40 cm 21. 1 million times 16. If an antenna has a gain of 3 dB.000 times B. 10 cm B. Which does not use vertical polarization antenna? A. All elements in a beam _____ antennas are in line A. effective height D.

Horn antenna D. The direction of the magnetic field vector D. Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical polarization? A. (Gain referred to this particular dipole). A.24 27. 300 kph B. 4. Horn antenna D. _____ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna A. 2. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field strength available with an input power of 11kW. A. 1.81 D. 4. Right angle D. Discone antenna C. 250 kph 28. What determines antenna polarization? A. 200 kph D.22. Discone antenna C. What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design? A. 100 kph C. Discone radiation pattern is ______. Marconi antenna B. A. The frequency of the radiated wave B. obtained by the use if the reflector. The direction of the radiated wave C. Parabolic dish antenna 24. Helical antenna 23. figure of eight . Angle of elevation C. Beamwidth 26. What is the gain in dB.75 B. bidirectional D. unidirectional C. An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth.6 C. A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal strength to a particular distant point. Helical antenna B. omnidirectional/vertical polarized B. The direction of the electric field vector 25. Azimuth B.

Half-wave dipole C. Dipole D. Helical antenna B. 3 dB D. By adding several antennas in parallel B. Marconi B.15 dB C. Elementary doublet . An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long A. Rhombic antenna C. Whip 34. Hertzian dipole B. 1. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction C. Bidirectional C. Hemispherical 32. What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna? A. Unidirectional D. 2. How will you increase the gain of an antenna? A. An antenna with unity gain A. Rhombic C. 0 dB 33. Yagi-Uda 31. Rhombic B. What is the theoretical gain of a Hertzian dipole? A. Which antenna is a properly terminated? A. Marconi antenna D. Isotropic D. Omnidirectional B.76 dB B. Notch antenna D. Loop antenna C.29. By making antenna rods thicker D. Cassegrain antenna 30. By making the antenna size larger 35. _____ is an open-ended slot antenna A.

200 μV/m B. Reflector element C. 4 D. 10 D. If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 μV/m in a receiving antenna. 6 37. What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have? A. A. a 15 kW will produce _____. 1 C. 20 μV/m . 100 dB D. Driven element B. circularly 40.36. 10 μV/m C. 20 dB 42. What is the gain of isotropic antenna? A. Parasitic element 39. A. Director element D. The antenna radiates _____ polarized waves when the transmitter antenna is horizontally installed. 10 B. 100 38. Which of the following improves antenna directivity? A. 100 μV/m D. 999 ft 41. horizontally D. negatively C. The length of a Marconi antenna to operate with 985 kHz is ______. Vertically B. 250 ft D. 200 ft B. 25000 dB B. 500 ft C. 3 B. A. 5 C. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a northernly direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction? A. 10 dB C.

88 MHz B. What is the capture area of a dipole operated at 75 MHz? A. 4. 6. 3. 4 mm B.4 m. A. A.43. Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna.088 m2 47.89 times. A.088 m2 D. A. A.6 times C. Beamwidth D. Gain D. Flywheel effect C.3 times B.89 times 44. M-derived filter D. 22 MHz D. If the radiated power increase 10. Polarization 48.82 times D. Efficiency B. End effect B. Front-to-back ratio 46. 44 MHz C. Low-pass filter B. 2 m2 C. _____ of an antenna is a measure of how the antenna concentrates its radiated power in a given direction. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to a length of 3. High-pass filter C. Constant-K . Sensitivity C. 10. the antenna current increases by ______. Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it appear as if it were 5% longer. 11 MHz 45. Capture effect 49. 2. Power C. 1. Skin effect D. Comparing the signal strength arriving at the driven element from the desired direction to the signal strength reaching the driver from the opposite direction. Directivity B. A.

31. By reducing the frequency at the transmitter B. By connecting a capacitor in series with the antenna C. inductance in series C. used at 100 MHz? A. By connecting an inductor in series with the antenna . A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal A. Real C. resistance in parallel D.1 C.50. the center of the antenna C.25 56. the top of the antenna 52. the base of the antenna B. 317 watts B. capacitance in series B. Elementary B. amplifier operation and frequency accuracy? A. Isotropic D. what is the effective radiated power? A. 1. The current maximum in a Marconi antenna is found at A. How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of Hertz dipole antenna? A. 200 watts D. 400 watts 55. If the antenna has a 2 dB power gain. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used. What is the gain. 158 watts C. 10 turns at pitch of λ/4. at right angles to its axis D. at 45 degrees to its axis B. the effective length can be increased by adding: A. Which of the following antennas is used for testing and adjusting a transmitter for proper modulation. 41. some point between the base and the center of the antenna D. parallel to its axis C. resistance in series 53. in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of λ/3. 16 B. Dummy 54. By the connecting a resistor in series with the antenna D. The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna is 100 watts.4 D. at 60 degrees to its axis 51.

If the length of an antenna is changed from 2. Vertical loop antenna C.2 A C. Horizontal Hertz antenna B. what is the antenna current at the feed-point? A. depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can either be increased or decreased C. 2. its resonant frequency will A. If the length of a Hertz dipole is decreased A. 4. Which of the following antennas receive signals in the horizontal plane equality well from all directions? A.0 A 60.8 meters. A vertical antenna which is a quarter-wavelength long 58. its resonant frequency will be lowered its distributed inductance will be increased B. 1. will be unchanged D. must use a receiving antenna for the best reception D. 2. has maximum radiation in a vertical direction B. A one-quarter wavelength shunt-fed vertical Marconi antenna A.0 A B. If the plate circuit efficiency is 80% and the transmitter is connected to an antenna having a feed impedance of 70 ohms. increase B.5 meters to 2.57. increase its directivity C. its resonant frequency will be increased D. both B and C 63. has maximum RF impedance to ground at its feedpoint B. Vertical Yagi antenna D. must have a vertical receiving antenna for the best reception 61. 59. The parasitic element of an antenna system will A. has a current null at its feedpoint C. decrease its directivity B. decrease . its distributed inductance will be decreased C. A final amplifier of a radio transmitter draws 250 mA of plate current when the plate supply voltage is 1400 volts.25 A D. A shunt-fed quarter-wavelength Marconi antenna A. must have a horizontal receiving antenna for the best reception C. has a zero DC resistance to ground D. its distributed capacitance between the antenna and ground will be increased. has zero RF resistance to ground 62. give the antenna unidirectional properties D.

A vertical loop antenna has a A. The field strength varies inversely as the distance from the antenna 66. 60 centimeters B. divided by a factor of four . array which includes parasitic elements D. vertical quarter-wavelength rod C. What is the effect of adding a capacitor in series with an antenna? A. 6 meters C. multiplied by a factor of four D.64. halved C. The antenna’s resonant frequency will decrease C. increases the field strength at the receiving antenna B. The field strength is directly proportional to the distance from the antenna C. The antenna will be physically 5% longer than its electrical length D. omnidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane D. Stacking elements in a transmitting antenna system A. a bidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane 68. 0. The field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance from the antenna B. If the antenna current is doubled. increases the directivity of the transmitter antenna C. unidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane B. The field strength remains constant regardless of the distance from the antenna D. In order to get maximum radiation to all surrounding points in the horizontal plane. A capacitor is never added in series with an antenna 65. 60 meters 70. The antenna’s resonant frequency will increase B. the antenna used is a A. decrease the size of the lobe in the radiation pattern D. What is the electrical wavelength of a 500 MHz signal? A. vertical loop B. unidirectional radiation pattern in the vertical plane C. both A and B 67. a horizontal Hertz dipole 69. doubled B.06 meter D. How does the electric field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance from the antenna? A. the field strength at a particular position is A.

quarter wavelength D. Actual height of antenna should be at least A. an antenna high enough in the air C. The rhombic antenna is primarily used for A. Broadside array B. a unidirectional cardioid D. The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiator is A. half wavelength C. End-fire array C. Non-resonant C. a figure-8 B. Horizontal antenna D. An isotropic radiator is A. ionosphere scatter propagation D. a hypothetical. a sphere C. Resonant B. an antenna whose directive pattern is substantially incredible D. in the northern hemisphere B. ground wave propagation B. Dipole antenna 73. sky wave propagation 72. three-fourth wavelength 74. isotropic antenna C.71. one wavelength B. Turnstile array D. ______ is an antenna array which is highly directional at right angles to the plane of the array? A. a parabola 77. Which antenna is not properly terminated? A. What antenna radiates equally in all directions? A. Vertical antenna B. Log-periodic array 76. Isotropic D. Whip 75. space wave propagation C. omnidirectional antenna .

higher losses D. The advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna is A. 6546 kHz C. Sharper directional pattern B. All of these 79. A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of 2182 kHz and consists of a horizontal wire that is hanged between two towers. A theoretical reference antenna that provides a comparison for antenna measurements. At the feed point 81. add an inductor in parallel B. in the horizontal direction C. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end D. A. Isotropic radiator C. Whip antenna 82. measured at the center of the antenna 84. A. the polarization is A. add an inductor series D. Marconi antenna B. 727 kHz B. increased gain C. The purpose of stacking elements on an antenna. in the vertical direction B. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end C. At the ends B. Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave antenna? A. 436 kHz D.78. add a capacitor in series C. 6.546 kHz 83. greater structural strength C. circular D. Increasing the electrical length of an antenna means A. improved radiation efficiency 80. What is the frequency of its third harmonic? A. lower quality factor B. Improved bandpass D. In horizontal-dipole antenna. Yagi-Uda array D. add a resistor is series .

¼ wavelength B. 6. What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It becomes flat . a more unidirectional reception C. ¾ wavelength C. a more omnidirectional reception D. 1 wavelength 91. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through D. Always the forward most element C.85. What is antenna bandwidth? A. condult D.9 dB D. What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam antenna? A. Always the rearmost element B. The angle between the half-power radiation points C. add a A. coil 89. Antenna length divided by the number of elements B. ½ wavelength D. The element connected to the rotator 87. an overall reception signal increase 86. a more omnidirectional reception B. No change occurs D. What is the gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? A.1 dB C. 10.0 dB 90. Stacking antennas at various angles results in A. resistor B. It is increased B. 3. To lengthen an antenna electrically. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to operate satisfactorily 88. It is decreased C. battery C.0 dB B. What is driven element? A. 8. The element fed by the transmission line D.

A disadvantage of using a trap antenna. It is useful to refer to an isotropic radiator. add an inductor in parallel C. At the ends B. It must be neutralized 96. Antenna resonant frequency increases 98. 73 Ω 97. Where are the current nodes in a half-wave antenna? A. noise limiters B. negative feedback D. A. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end . It can only be used for single-bad operation C. add a resistor in series D. An inductor of equal value must be added C. when testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio C. When a capacitor is connected in series with a Marconi antenna? A. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end D. 72 Ω B. Antenna open circuit stops transmission B. add an inductor in series B. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies D. add a capacitor in series 93. wave traps in the antenna circuitry 94. squelch circuits C. A.92. when using a dummy load to tune a transmitter 95. when comparing the gains of directional antennas B. The input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna is A. It will radiate harmonics B. Strong interference from one particular station can be eliminated by the use of A. At the center C. 50 Ω D. No change occurs to antenna D. when (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission D. A. 300 Ω C. To electrically decrease the length of an antenna.

Increasing the resonant frequency of an end-fed Marconi antenna can be done by A. Near the center of the vertical radiator C. All of these . By isolating the coax shield from ground C. the actual length if the radiating element is A. make the antenna more omnidirectional B. Efficiency = (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100% C. Efficiency = (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100% D. one-quarter wavelength C. increase the antenna’s power gain D. will suppress odd harmonics C. adding an inductor in series D. decrease signal to noise ratio D. increases sensitivity to weak signals B. where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance? A. An antenna “efficiency” is computed by using one of the following equations. By lengthening the vertical 104. A. By shortening the vertical D. adding a capacitor in series and reducing the physical length B. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100% 105. At a voltage node 100. one-eight wavelength 103. adding an inductor in series C. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) B. In the case if Marconi antenna. As low as possible on the vertical radiator B. one-half wavelength B. For a shortened vertical antenna. one wavelength D. As close to the transmitter as possible D. All of these 101. increases selectivity 102.99. Stacking antenna elements A. The antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna can be made comparable to that of a half-wave antenna A. The effect of adding parasitic elements of a Hertz dipole is to A. By installing a good ground radial system B. reduce its resonant frequency C.

Horn C. Discone . Good grounding is important for A. acts as antenna array D. Yagi-Uda antennas 110. Beamwidth C. A. broadside array antennas C. must be horizontally polarized 111. Factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna A. vertical antennas D. Azimuth 108. Transmission gain D. Square loop 112. One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna. Parabolic antenna B. Angle of elevation D. horizontal antennas B. Directivity gain C. Log-periodic D. Critical angle B. What is the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity to the average radiation intensity? A. Transmission line length and height of antenna B. Helical D. Elementary doublet C. Aperture gain B.106. An ungrounded antenna near the ground A. Power gain 109. It is a constant for all antennas since it is physical D. Sunspot activity and the time of day 107. is unlikely to need an earth mat C. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects C. Biconical B. acts as a single antenna of twice the height B. Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide? A. _____ is the angle between the half-power radiation points A.

Protection of personnel working underneath C. horizontally polarized B. improvement of the radiation pattern of the antenna 117. protection of personnel working underneath D. A. Indicate which of the following reasons for using metal counterpoise with antennas is false. circularly polarized D.113. impossibility of a good ground connection B. Impossibly of a good ground connection B. To prevent re-radiation of the local oscillator 115. Provision of an earth for the antenna D. _______ polarization is ideal A. _____ is an antenna made up of a number of full wavelengths A. To discriminate against harmonics D. Helical D. One of the following makes an antenna physically long but electrically short A. Discone B. When antennas are closed to the ground. A. Both A and C 118. Log-periodic C. Adding L in series B. provision of an earth for the antenna C. Which antenna is not a wideband? A. Long wire D. Folded dipole C. Top loading D. Whip . One of the following is not a reason for the use of an earth mat A. Adding C in series C. Rockiness of the ground itself 114. To make the antenna look resistive B. both A and B 119. Elementary doublet B. vertically polarized C. Not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler. To provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance C. Marconi 116.

light waves. Yagi C. Horizontal B. x-rays. ______ polarization is employed in FM broadcasting A. Vertical C. Marconi B.120. Horizontal B. Vertical C. Diplexer C. _____ polarization is employed in AM broadcasting A. Omnidirectional 123. Heat D. A. Any energy which radiates in the form of radio waves. Coupler B. Lecher wire D. Which one is an antenna coupling unit? A. Circular D. Rhombic . Ultraviolet 121. Which antenna does not use the ground? A. Dipole D. Electromagnetic C. Circular D. infrared waves. Whip 125. etc. Hertz B. Radiant energy B. Which antenna is not grounded at one end? A. Hertz D. Bidirectional 124. Duplexer 122. Marconi C.

Founded the wave theory of light a.OPTICAL FIBER COMMUNICATIONS 1. Ultraviolet 6. Christian Huygens 2. The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye a. Karpon and Keck b. Charles Townes b. Ultraviolet 5. Francesco Grimaldi b. Gordon McKenzie d. The band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the human eye a. Amber b. James Clerk Maxwell d. Yellow c. Edward Appleton c. Albert Einstein 4. Bockham and Kao d. Amber b. Theodore Maiman c. Visible c. Which color has the shortest wavelength of light? a. Infrared d. Kao and Keck 3. Developed the first laser a. Infrared d. Proposed the use of clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide a. Red b. Karpon and Bockham c. Blue . Visible c.

Photoresist b. Scattering c. Light Sensitive d. Modes c. Photosensitive c. Lower refracted index than air b. Attenuation 12. Which of the following materials is sensitive to light? a. Infrared d. The core of an optical fiber has a a. Lower refractive index than the cladding c. d. Maser 9. Dispersion b. Is the different angle of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted. Acceptance angle b. What generates a light beam of a specific visible frequency? a. Sensors d. Maser c. Higher refractive index than the cladding d. Aperture 11. a. The bandwidth of optical fiber . Laser b. Absorption d. Green 7. The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is called a. Flashlight 8. Similar refractive index with the cladding 10.

800THz . Chromatic Dispersion c. If a mirror is used to reflect light. Beamwidth 16. 900MHz b. Larger c. 20MHz b. 900THz d. 900PHz c. Huygen’s theory b. the reflected light angle is ____ as the incident angle a. 2GHz d. Which theory states that the light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny particles? a. Independent 14. Wave theory of light c. 200MHz c. Nyquist theory d. a. Mode b. Grade c. Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source a. 900EHz 13. Smaller b. What is a specific path the light takes in an optical fiber corresponding to a certain angle and number of reflection a. Quantum theory 17. Spectral width d. Bandwidth b. Dispersion 15. The same d. Numerical Aperture d. Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near a.

Wavelength 19. Inverted b. which quantity will not change? a. High wattage light bulb c.18. Virtual d. Inverted . An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an ______ image. Direction b. Virtual d. The real image formed by a spherical mirror is ____ relative to its object a. When a beam of light enters one medium from another. Mercury vapor lamp d. Smaller size 23. Propagation of light in straight lines c. Dispersion is used to describe the a. Erect b. Smaller size 22. Bending of a beam light when it strikes a mirror 20. Bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another d. Fluorescent tube b. Splitting of white light into its component colors b. An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____ image. a. Luminance efficiency is minimum for a a. Speed c. Frequency d. Low wattage light bulb 21. a. Inverted b. The same in size c. The same in size c.

0. Modal dispersion d.9dB c. What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics? a. Diffraction 26. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit a. c.38dB 29.51dB b.009dB 28. Polarization b. The wavelength of light has no role in a. Reflection 25. 0. Delay dispersion 27. Refraction c.19dB d. 0.09dB b. Polarization d. ________ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take different paths down a fiber. Smaller d. Larger 24. What is the lifetime of LEDs? . 0. Material dispersion b. 0. 0.49dB d. 0. Interference c.31dB c. 0. Wavelength dispersion c. Reflection d. Diffraction b. a. What is the insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single mode fiber optics? a.

Is a non-coherent light source foe optical communications system.000 hours b. LED c.000 hours 30. Coherent b.000 minutes d. 50. ILD b. Laser light is ______ emission. a. What type of fiber has the highest modal dispersion? a. 200. Graded index mode 33. APD . Reversed bias d. 200. Step-index multimode b. Unbiased to generate a voltage same as a solar cell b. Forward bias c.000 hours 31. 100. Photodiodes used as fiber optic directors are a. Stripline b. a. What is the lifetime of ILDs? a. 125. Coherent and stimulated 34. Laser beam d.000 hours d. Graded index multimode c. A dielectric waveguide for the propagation of electromagnetic energy at light frequencies a. Microstrip c. Thermoelectrically cooled 32. Spontaneous d.000 minutes b. 75.000 hours c. 150. Step-index single mode d. Fiber optics 35. Stimulated c.000 hours c. 150. a.

Ruby c. Which of the following factor does not harm laser efficiency? a.63 x 10-34 joules c. Carbon-dioxide d. Neodymium-YAG 37. 10. PIN Diode 36. Peak power x pulse length 39.6 x 1022 joules 40. Helium-neon d. Inefficiency in populating the upper laser level . 15 cm d. 10. d. 5 cm b. Neodymium-YAG 38. What is the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10 12 Hz? a. A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an object 20 am away from the lens. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation? a. Pulse energy / repetition rate d. 6. Nitrogen c. 6. Problems in depopulating the lower laser level d. Semiconductor b. Excitation energy not absorbed c. Energy x time b. 20 cm 41. Which laser emits light in the visible range 400 to 700 nm? a. Atmospheric absorption b.6 x 1034 joules b. 10 cm c.63 x 10-22 joules d. Pulse energy x repetition rate c. Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed laser? a. How far is the real image from the lens? a. Argon-ion b.

50 d. Pulses of 694 nm red light b. Coating . Coherence of the laser light d. Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission bandwidth? a. A continuous red beam c. Tunnel diode c. LED 47. APD b. Spontaneous emission 44. What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon? a. 0. LED 46. Liquid b. Gas c.26 c. Molten d. Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics communications a. Hot 45. 0.42. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules b. Cladding b. Amplification within the laser medium c. Optical pumping of the laser transition 43. Laser diode d. LSA diode c. The numerical aperture of a fiber if the angle of acceptance is 15 degrees. Pulses of white light from a helical flashlamp d.75 48. 0. is a. Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter on the Fiber Optical Communications? a. The first laser emitted a. 017 b. PIN diode d. APD b. The inner portion of the fiber cable is called a.

Zero 53. Equal to d. Single-mode step-index b. Core 49. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with what relationship to the critical angle? a. Closed circuit TV d. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable? a. Computer networks b. Grater than c. c. Refraction b. Multimode step-index . 475 x 10^15 Hz c. Dispersion d. Ruby c. Neodymium-YAG 50. 375 x 10^9 Hz d. The laser frequency when the light has the wavelength 800 nm is a. Consumer TV 52. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation? a. Long-distance telephone systems c. 375 x 10^18 Hz 51. Helium-neon d. Semiconductor b. Absorption 54. Multimode graded-index c. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable? a. Less than b. The operation of the fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of a. Reflection c. Single-mode graded-index d. 375 x 10^12 Hz b. Inner conductor d.

Light leakage d. The upper pulse rate and information carrying capacity of a cable is limited by a. Wire braid shield b. intensity per mile d. voltage drop per inch 56. Cladding d. Loss per foot b. dB/km c.55. The same d. Pulse shortening b. Which of the cable length has the highest attenuation? a. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of a. Slower b. Air b. 95 ft d. Plastic insulation 60. Glass c. Excellent data security . 2 km c. The core of a fiber optic is surrounded by a. Quartz 59. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is a. Attenuation c. The core of a fiber optic cable is made of a. 5500 ft 57. Modal dispersion 58. Kevlar c. Diamond d. 1 km b. Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable? a. Immunity from interference b. No electrical safety problems c. Faster c. Either lower or faster 61.

400 to 750 nm c. Lower cost 62. 300. Distortion of light waves d. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance is called the a. Bending of light waves b.8 to 1. 300 mi/h c. Infrafed b. Which of the following is not part of the optical spectrum? a. 186.000.0 nm b. Better security c. 300. Reflection of light waves c. Visible color d. X-rays 64.000 mi/h b. Lower cost b.000 m/s 66. Refraction is the a. Index of refraction d. Index of reflection c. 200 to 660 nm d. The speed of light is a. Diffusion of light waves 67. Wider bandwidth d.000 m/s d. The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwaves or any other communications media is a. 0. d. Ultraviolet c. 700 to 1200 nm 65. Speed factor b. Dielectric constant . Freedom from interference 63. The wavelength of visible light extends from a.

Dispersion 73. Absorption c. 24 dB . Single-mode graded-index d. 2.68. Single-mode step-index b. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss? a.5 mi b. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 dB/km. Scattering d. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion? a. Single-mode step-index b.57 dB b.5 um d. 9.7 um b. 4. 1. A distance of 8 km is the same as a. Multimode step-index c. 1.3 um c. Single mode step-index b. 8 mi d. 12. 5 mi c. The attenuation in a cable. 100 ft long is a. 0. Multimode step-index c.8 um 69. Multimode graded-index 71. Multimode graded-index 70. Multimode step-index c. Single-mode graded-index d. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the best for very high speed data? a. 1. Which type of fiber optic cable is most widely used? a.9 mi 74. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is a. Reflection b. Multimode graded-index 72.3 dB c. Single-mode graded-index d.

19. White c. 650 dB 76. Forward bias b. Either A or B 79. Pure b. Visible b. Laser light is very bright because it is a. LED c. Laser 77. Most fiber-optic light sources emit light in which spectrum? a. Coherent d.9.8. Infrared c. Neither A or B d. Coherent d. and 18 dB are linked together. 49. Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with a.4. X-ray 78. 3. Pure b. 29. Incandescent b. Intense c. Monochromatic 80. Ultraviolet d.1 dB d. d. Which light emitter is preferred for high speed data in a fiber-optic system a. Single-frequency light is called a. Neon d. The total loss is a.8 dB c. 7.5 dB b. 5. Reverse bias c. Monochromatic .2 dB 75.

Forward bias b. Avalanche photodiode 82. PIN photodiode b. Powerful. Either A or B 84. PIN photodiode b. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km/s. Reverse bias c. Photovoltaic diode c. 3 repeaters b. Avalanche photodiode 83. 400 Mbits/s d. Which of the following is NOT a common light detector a. Which fiber-optic system is better? a. 1000 Gbits/s 85. 8 repeaters c. Photodiode d. Photodiodes operate property with a. Reliable. 100 Mbits/s b.81. Neutral density b. Phototransistor d. What is used to block light from a laser and let other light through a. Color . high cost transmission medium d. Powerful regenerators 87. What is the maximum rate at 5 km? a. An important requirement for successful transmission system using light a. 20 repeaters 86. 200 Mbits/s c. 11 repeaters d. Strong glass c. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor a. reliable light source b. Photovoltaic diode c. Neither A or B d.

99. Ion resonance absorption b. ________ is a light that can be coherent a.999% d. Personal communication 92. 5 c. c. 99. Absorption loss . Spontaneous emission b. No fixed limit. Coherence of laser light is important for _________ a. Narrow beam divergence d. Polyethylene-clad-silica c. Personal carrier system d. Infrared absorption d. 9 d. Interference d.99 % c. dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing 93.9999% 91. Drilling holes d. Getting laser light to pass through air c. The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is approximately ___pure a. Plastic-clad-silica b. Spatial 88. 2 b. 99. How many longitudinal modes can fall within a laser’s gain bandwidth? a.9 % b. Holography 90. 99. Monochromatic 89. _________ is the result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the glass core molecules a. Ultraviolet absorption c. Light propagation b. Monochromatic and in-phase c. PCS stands for a. In fiber optics.

Javen at Bell laboratory in a. Dark current in light detectors is caused by a. In fiber optics. Volts/ampere 99. Ampere/watt c. Spectral response c. Dispersion 100. Dark current d. Watt/ampere d. Transit time b. Human laser was developed by A. The absence of light input c. 1963 d. a. 1964 96. Suppressed-clad-silicon b. Ampere/volt b. One of the following is not a characteristic of light detectors. Responsitivity 97. What is the unit of responsitivity? a. Transmit time d. Silica-clad-silica d. Responsitivity b. Its imperfection 98. SCS stands for a. Serial-clad-silicon 95. Small leakage current d. Thermally generated carriers in the diode b. Silicon base-class-silica c. Spectral response c. 1960 b.94. What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially grown LEDs? a. What parameter of light detector determines the range or system length that can be achieved for a given wavelength? a. 840 nm . 1962 c.

All of these . 700 – 1200 nm c. Infrared range for fiber optics a. 400 – 7000 nm 104. Overtime Direct Reference 106. System Optical Network b. 940 nm 101. 490 nm c. Optical Transmit Direction Return c. b. 400 – 700 nm b. System Optical Fiber Net 102. A reduction in strength of the signal caused by folded dipole bends c. All of these 103. 480 nm d. Synchronous Optical Network c. Higher losses d. Band loss is a. Optical Time Domain Reflectometer b. An attenuation increase caused by bends radiating from the side of the fiber d. Silica Optic Network d. Length of fiber c. 300 – 2000 nm d. Electric hazards c. Refractive index d. Distance to trouble b. Which of the following is determined by an OTDR? a. Which of the following is a disadvantage for plastic fiber optics? a. OTDR stands for a. Noise immunity b. A reduction in transmitter power caused by earth’s surface curvature b. Optical Time Domain Time Regeneration d. SONET stands for a. All of these 105.

5 111. a single fiber should not be used for a two-way communication mainly because of a. Glass attenuation c. 0. Noise d. 0. a. S/N ratio b.2 d. Splicing fibers means . A single mode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm. a. 0. A step-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm. Under normal condition. 0.5 b. Loss b. Attenuation 108. Fading c.2 c.01 c. 0. a. The graded-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm. 0.1 b. 0. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in the material used. Stepped index operation d. Intermodal dispersion d. Microbending 112.05 c. 0.107. Monomode ratio 113. 2 d.02 b. Which is not a possible cause of optical fiber loss? a. Impurities b. Refractive index c. a. 0.002 110. 0.05 109.0005 d.

Cladding boundary at high angle b. It has short wave . 1% 116. Refraction d. Fusion b. Butt c. When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber. 10 % d. All of these 118. It has high losses b. higher-order mode refers to a. When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber. Backscattering b. Insulation jacket d. Microbends 119. Optical IC 115. An IC that represents a short distance one-way optical communications a. a. In fiber optics. Antireflection coating c. Insulator c. 14 % b. Splicing b. it produces a loss of a. Why are visible-light LEDs not used for fiber optics? a. Glue d. 4% c. All of these 117. Diffracting signals d. Multivibrator d. Backscattering electromagnetic signals c. Absorption c. Optoisolator b. the fiber loss produced can be reduced by a. Both fusion and butt 114. The following are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except a.

Dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number d. Snell. 6 c. Non-calibrated light into a fiber d. Light theory d. Filters unnecessary signals d. Wavelength independence of the index of refraction c. It has weak signal 120. All of these 122. Reflection theory c. A function of an optic isolator a. Amplification of optical signal c. It has low attenuation d. Checking maximum distance covered 121. Material dispersion is caused by the a. High gain d. Light power out of a fiber c. and a protective coating a.s law 124. Photoconductivity 123. Optical cable testers are used for a. 7 d. 5 b. Cancels reflective waves b. Light traveling in optical fiber follows which of the following principles. Huygen’s principle b. Increase in index of glass b. Optical fibers for telecommunications are typically about _____ mils thick and consists of a glass core. Independence of the propagation constant on the mode number . 8 125. a. a glass cladding of lower index of refraction. Amplifies signal transmitted c. Wavelength dependence of the index of refraction b. c. Checking refractive index b. An increase in light intensity produces fast optic switching due to a.

Coupling and radiation losses d. Wavelength c. In solid-state optical detectors. Mode b. Difference of the bandwidth and distance d. Dispersion d. Sum of the bandwidth and distance c. Absorption and Rayleigh scattering c. Radiation and modal dispersion 128. One of the following is not a solid-state optical detector . The bandwidth of a fiber is limited by a. The _____ of a detector is the fraction of incident photons that produce a photoelectron or electron-hole pair a. Quotient of bandwidth and distance 130. Photon efficiency c. Modal dispersion is caused by the a. the excited charge is transported in the solid by a. Aperture d. Fiber bandwidth is generally specified as the a. Dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number 127. Quantum efficiency 131. Responsitivity b. Dependence of wavelength on index of refraction b.126. Frequency 129. Product of the bandwidth and distance b. Anion and cation d. Absorption and radiation losses b. Protons and photons 132. Dependence of the propagation constant on the wavelength d. Holes and electrons c. Dependence of propagation constant on index of refraction c. Holes and protons b. The dominant loss mechanisms in silica fiber are a.

PMT b.15 dB c. Optical detectors are square-law devices because they respond to _____ rather than amplitude a. Density d. White c. a. Intensity b. Intensity b.20 dB d. 30 GHz . Which optical detector is used when high sensitivity and bandwidth are required? a. Phototransistor 136. Yellow 138. Red b. The _____ is equal to the number of electrons emitted per second times the electron charge a. Which of the following colors is not found in the visible light wave spectrum? a. PMT d. What is the average loss in fiber splice? a.25 dB 137. What is the frequency limit of an optical fiber? a. 0. 0. Photocurrent d. Optical power c. APD b. Photon 134. PIN d. APD c. Orange d. Phototransistors 133. 0. 20 GHz b. Responsitivity 135. 0.10 dB b. PIN c. Light c.

The mechanical splice attenuation loss is _____ dB or less a. 1. 40 GHz d. 1 140. c. 1. 0. Directly proportional to its bandwidth b.1 b. Directly proportional to Boltzmann’s constant d. Angstroms c. Directly proportional to the Planck’s constant c. Micrometer b.4 d.2 c. 0.8 d. Fathom .0 b. Inversely proportional to the Planck’s constant 142. 1.001 d. Mils d. Silica d. What is the unit of light wavelength? a.5 143. 1. Polymer jacket 141.0 b. Fiber insulation c.0 144. 0. _____ is applied to protect core and cladding of the fiber a. 2. Refractive index of diamond a. Refractive index of glass a.01 c. 1.4 c. 1. Insulation b. 50 GHz 139. The energy of the photon is a. 1.

1 dB or less b. 10 dB or less 146. Field strength meter 147. Spectrum analyzer b. Reflective star coupler c. A coupler which consists of a series of lenses and a partly reflective surface a. How much is the power loss of the fusion splice? a. Oscilloscope c. Sodium Chlorate d. 1 dB or less d.145. Intensity modulation and phase modulation d. Beam-splitting coupler b. Intensity modulation and polarization modulation . Tourmaline c. 0. Commonly used electro-optic crystal for polarization modulation a. Reflections in many directions a. None of these 148. Sphalerite 150. Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optical systems? a. Optical power meter d. Dispersion 149. Fused coupler d. 0. Used to test a fiber optics splice a. Polarization modulation and phase modulation c. Diffuse reflection b. Lithium Niobate b.01 dB or less c. Scattering d. Diffraction c. Phase and frequency modulations b.

Charge couple device d. a. Wide angle c. and multi-unit buildings distribute TV and FM signals to a number of receivers. VIDICON b. hotels. CCTV b. Antenna 2. A mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in lateral and tilting motion a. Which of the following is a solid state imaging device? a. using a single head-end. Mid band UHF d. CCTV 6. LNA c. TV channel 2. Telephoto . 4 and 5 belong to a. Tilting d. MATV d. Scanner c. CATV c. schools. Antenna 3. ICONOSCOPE c. Low band UHF b. Low band VHF 4. What class of TV camera lens used to cover short distances? a. condominiums. Panning device b. Filter b. Is the most common technique where apartment house. High band VHF c. RF amplifier d. Normal b. Which of the following is the first component of any MATV system to receive broadcast signals? a.BROADCASTING 1. Pan/tilt device 5.

Wide angle c. 0 to 1500 kHz b.8 MHz b. What is the local oscillator frequency in commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455 kHz? a. 60 12. 0 to 455 kHz c. What is the allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast? a.8 MHz c. 20 b. 20 kW 11. 25 10. 50 d. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila is a.8 MHz d. 540 to 1600 kHz d. d. 3. 30 b. Normal b. 75 c. What is the chroma subcarrier signal frequency for color television? a. Telephoto d. 10 kW c. Zoom 8.8 MHz . What class of TV camera lens used to cover long distances? a. 5 kW b. 15 kW d. 6. KBP radio code mandates that station must provide a minimum of ___ minutes a. 955 to 2055 kHz 9. 45 c. 7. 5 d. Zoom 7. 8.

20 c. 72 kHz 15. 3 d. A newscast is a distinct unit of a program with a minimum news content of _____ minute(s) excluding intro. 25 . 4:3 b. 18:5 c. 2 c. 4 17. 1 b. In accordance with existing provision of law and the KBP rules and the regulations. 16:9 16. 9 kHz b. 3 d. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed ____ minutes for a one-hour program outside Metro Manila a.13. all stations shall actively promote the growth ands the development of Filipino music by playing _____ OPM every clock hour. 2 c. The minimum frequency separation between frequency of AM broadcasting station a. ± 20000 Hz b. extro. 14:8 d. 18 kHz c. headline and commercial load a. ± 20 Hz c. 1 b. ± 2000 Hz 14. What is the frequency tolerance of an FM Radio Broadcast station? a. 15 b. ± 200 Hz d. The aspect ratio HDTV is a. a. 4 18. 36 kHz d.

6 c. 8 21. 8 22. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN c. 5 b. 7 d. For Metro manila. d. 30 19. DOTC d. 15 b. CCITT . 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN 24. 5 b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN c. the classification of prime time blocks for FM shall be a. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed _____ breaks in every program hour a. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM d. the classification of prime time blocks for FM radio shall be a. 17 d. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for a one-hour program outside Metro Manila. NTC b. 6 c. All airtime classifications shall be submitted to and subject for approval by the a. Program interruption for airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed _____ breaks in every program hour a. a. 7 d. For provincial station. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM b. 20 20. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN 23. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM b. KBP-SA c. 16 c.

FM stereo b. Documentation c. Velocity c. malfunctions and corrections in communications system. a. Dynamic b. tests. Which of the following is not a low impedance microphone? a. programs. Listing of the date and time of events. Map b. Stereo d. 52 us b. Top to bottom b. 48 us d. Pictures c. For NTSC TV system. Crystal 28. 62 us c. File 27. _____ is the time circulation for one horizontal trace a. 50 us 26. The major component of the TV signal waveform is the a. Radar c. Magazine 30. Left to right . the image is scanned from a.25. Log d. Facsimile permits remote duplications of which of the following items? a. Television has a lot of features in common with a. Telephone service c. Printed page d. Antenna 31. equipment. Condenser d. Reporting b. All of these 29. Video b. Motion picture d.

Equalizing (sync) pulses b. 625 d. 15. The field rate in the NTSC television system a. 120 Hz 35. 15. 60 Hz d.75Hz d. One completes NTSC scanning cycle called field consists of how many lines a. Plumbicon d. 500 b. What is the vertical blanking pulse rate? a. Image orthicon c. Choices A and B above 32. Right to left d. 525 c. Serrated vertical sync pulses c. 60 Hz c. Television camera pickup tube is called a. 60 Hz c. 30 Hz b. 60 33. What is the horizontal synchronous blanking pulse rate? a. The pulses riding on the vertical blanking pulse a. c. 30 Hz b. All of the above . 30 Hz b.75 Hz 34. 120 Hz c.75 Hz d. Black level pulses d. Choices A and B above 37. 120 Hz 36. Vidicon b. 15.

Beam modulation 40. 5. What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in TV transmission? a. Amplitude modulation b. 50 kHz d. the spectrum will include components clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics of _____ kHz a.75 b. Beam deflection c. What is the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube? a. Beam deflection c. Both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband 42.5 d. Amplitude modulation b. 30 . 75 kHz 43. Both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband 41. 6. a. Beam production d. Vestigial sideband d. Frequency modulation c. In a practical image scanned at the NTSC rate. Beam production d. 30 kHz c. 15. Beam focusing b. Beam modulation 39.38. Vestigial sideband d. 4.5 c. 25 kHz b. The television picture tube magnetic fields can be used for a. Audio modulation for television is a. 7. Frequency modulation c.5 b. Video modulation for television is a. Beam focusing b. The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by ____ MHz.5 44.

5 45. Brightness of an image is known as a. 470 – 770 MHz c. Range of a UHF television transmitter a. 45. Green c. A color signal which originate in the camera itself with color television pickup? a. Desaturated d. R. Chrominance c. What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a color TV transmitter? a. Red b. Blue d. Reflectance d. 54 – 98 MHz b. All of the above 47. 470 – 670 MHz b.25 d. Luminance 46. c. 54 – 166 MHz 50. I and Q b. 54 – 128 MHz d. Range of a VHF television transmitter a. Radiance b. M. 470 – 890 MHz d. N and O d.980 MHz . The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as a. 12. Y. 54 – 216 MHz c. D and Q c. S and T 49. White c. 470 . All of these 48. P. Primary b.

45° c. Monochrome 53. NOT gate d. for blanking? . 1. Dark c. What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for color TV? a. Comb 56.51.8 MHz c. The colors found around the perimeter of the color triangle are said to be a. Saturated b. At the center 54. 60° d. Between red and blue b. Notch d. All of the above 57. Light d. Low pass b. 1.1 MHz d. The chrominance processing circuits can be deactivated when monochrome broadcasts are received by the a. _____ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and chrominance frequency components. 90° 55. in percent PEV. Between red and green c. Between blue and green d. 0° b. What is the phase difference between the I and Q color signal carriers? a. SAW filter c. What is the standard video level.6 MHz 52. 0. At what position on the color triangle will saturated yellow be located? a. Color killer b. Band pass c. 8.8 MHz b. a.

All of these 63.5 % c. 70 % 60. for white? a. 12. High voltage . Gray tracking b. 25 % d. Operating class AB d. Tuning of circuits c. Alignment d. 0% c. The vertical and horizontal pulses are separated at the a. 0 % b. Coupling b. 75 % 58.5 % d. for black? a. Shielding d. 0 % b. AFC c. 12. 25 % c. If there are too many harmonics.5 % d. a. In transmitter amplifier design. in percent PEV. a. Degaussing 61. Sync separator b. 70 % 59. What is the standard video level. One should first perform _____ before a convergence setup is performed. Screen setting c. Operating class C c. What is the percent video level. an even-order harmonics can be prevented or reduced by a. Any of these 62. one should check the a. 12. Using a push-pull amplifier b. 25 % b. in percent PEV.

At the location of the transmitter 66. Field b. Frame c. The reason why buffer stage is included in a transmitter is to a. The alignment of the three color guns to a common point is known as a. At the control point c. Frame c. 15750 d. Field b. A _____ represents one set of 262 ½ scanning lines a. The number of scanning lines is _____ per second a. All of these 65. Confetti c. Where is the operating position of a radio station? a. AGC 64. Interface set 68. Interface set 69. Demodulation d. At the location of the receiver d. d. Cycle d. 14750 b. Convergence 67. Cycle d. Present a low impedance to the oscillator stage c. 15570 c. A _____ is equivalent to 525 scanning lines a. On the bridge b. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of _____ per second . Stop the oscillator from generating parasitic oscillations d. 16550 70. Present a constant load to the oscillator stage b. Blooming b.

Chroma amplifier 74. What is emission F3F? a. Video detector d. a. Type of emission produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a TV signal a. Television . The sound and video signals are separated at the _____ of the TV receiver a. Burst separator d. A3F b. Reactor c. F3C 75. SSB c. Television signal 72. 25 b. Video signal d. Modulated CW c. What is emission A3F? a. IF stage b. Video amplifier c. RTTY b. 30 c. A3C d. Facsimile b. High voltage c. 40 d. Modulated CW 76. TV d. AGC b. Lack of raster is an indication of no a. The presence of color bars is an indication that there is a problem in the _____ circuit a. F3F c. Burst separator 73. 50 71. Horizontal b.

Part of broadcast day from midnight to local sunrise a. Daytime b. Chrominance b. Dawntime 81. Luminance 80. Color killer c. Daytime d. Color detector d. Experimental c. Bad picture tube d. d. Pad filter b. Vestigial sideband is known as _____ type of emission . Nighttime c. Nighttime d. Color oscillator 79. High Q in the tuned circuit b. High voltage transformer 78. Cause of slow rising white “hum bars” is the television a. Color chroma amplifier b. Brightness c. Video signal amplitude determine the picture quality called a. What causes snow in television? a. Part of broadcast day from local sunset to local sunrise a. Insufficient wave traps 83. Excessive gain c. RTTY 77. Dawntime b. Adjusting the _____ may eliminate color confetti a. Bad rectifier c. Random noise in the signal d. Contrast d. Experimental 82.

F3 88. A0 c. MF b. The FM broadcast band is from a. The standard AM radio broadcast belongs to which frequency band? a. TV broadcasting b. VHF d. A3 d. 1902 b. A3E 84. 30 to 300 kHz c. 1945 c. CF3 b. 88 to 108 MHz d. Low-pass filter c. 1947 d. 300 to 2000 MHz 87. HF point-to-point communications 85. Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)? a. Stereo broadcasting d. High-pass filter b. HF c. Band-reject filter 86. a. 535 to 1600 kHz b. The type of emission used by standard AM radio broadcast a. Monaural broadcasting c. C3F c. Band pass filter d. 1952 . LF 89. B8E d. When were UHF channels (14 – 83) of television added? a. A5C b. Vestigial sideband modulation is commonly used in a.

15 kHz b. Selectivity b. Class A b. Horizontal polarized wave antenna c. Input impedance of the receiver c. Both vertical and horizontal polarized wave antenna d. What is the allowable frequency deviation of a commercial FM broadcast band? a. Receiver sensitivity means a. HSC c. Vertical polarized wave antenna 96. Sensitivity c. Fidelity d. HFC b. 1960 91. 100 kHz 94. The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter is operated as a. When was colored TV standards established in the United States? a. 1945 c. What synchronizes the horizontal line of the TV picture tube? a. A measure of how well the receiver can respond to every weak signals/ a. The frequency allocation of the system b. Class C d. All of these 92. 75 kHz c. Standard AM broadcasting use _____ for greater and efficient coverage a.90. Class D 95. HAFC d. 1904 b. Quality factor 93. The ability of picking up weak signal . 5 kHz d. 1953 d. Circular polarized wave antenna b. Class B c.

Improve the rejection of the image frequency d. 5. H d. Low pass filter 100. Permit better adjacent-channel rejection c.75 MHz a. To help the image frequency rejection b.75 – 47. 3 102. Color filter d.55 MHz d. To allow easy tracking c. The main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to a. Bandpass filter c. 23. All of these 99. 60 – 66 MHz c.75 – 29. Type of filter used in TV receivers that separates the chroma signal from the colorplexed video signal but leaves intact the Y-component a. Comb filter b.75 – 11. All of these 98. 2 d. The power to deliver the information 97.75 MHz .75 to 11. T-1 b.75 MHz b. d. F 101. What is the first letter-symbol for emission of unmodulated carrier? a. The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13 a. Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always tunes to a frequency higher than the incoming frequency in order a. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching d. The channel for cable TV frequency range of 5. T-8 c. N c. Provide improved tracking b. A b. 41.

Rec 601. Camera usage of 16 mm motion picture film 108. Camera usage of 35 mm motion picture film d.4 d. International broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between _____ accordance with international agreements a. Resolution c. 10950 and 26100 kHz .2 b. 5950 and 26100 kHz d. 180 – 186 MHz d. Rec 500.1 107. Rec 408-5 d. The _____ of a television system is a measure of its ability to delineate picture detail a.103. 6409 and 26100 kHz c. Contrast b. Rec 501. 7012 and 26100 kHz b. CCIR standards for the internal exchange of programmes on film for television used a. Rec 450-1 106. Recorded characteristics for magnetic sound records on full cost 16 mm motion picture film b.2 c. 66 – 72 MHz c. Projector usage of 16 mm motion picture films for direct front projector c. Pixels 105. Hue d. ISO Rec 23 in 1976 is the standard for a. Rec 450. CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadcasting at VHF a. 54 – 60 MHz b. Rec 407-4 c. Channel 8 frequency range allocation in cable TV a. Rec 265-6 b. 204 – 210 MHz 104.

The television frequency which are now allocated to the land mobile services a. Composite triple beat b. The permissible power in kW of station II-A during nighttime is a. 0. Cable TV systems originate from a. 806 and 192 MHz b. Numerical frequency band designation of channel 9 a. 186 – 192 MHz 113. Which of the following station below is a regional channel? a. A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and service area but is permitted to originate originate programming from virtually any source a. Noise 115. 776 and 782 MHz 112. 800 and 806 MHz c. 668 and 674 MHz d. None of these 111. DME . 488 – 494 MHz b. Japan 114. A term applied to third and higher order products. Class IV 110. Class III-B d.109. which can greatly degrade the performance of a system a. 632 – 638 MHz d. 530 – 536 MHz c. Dallas. Germany b. 10 – 50 c. 1–5 d. Texas c. Pennsylvania d. Field strength d. Single dual mode c. Class II-D c. Class I-A b.25 – 50 b.

12. What is the carrier frequency of an FM station with channel number of 300? a. 107. 101.1 MHz carrier? a.3 – 17. 12.2 – 12.5 MHz b. International Television Frequency Standard b.7 – 4.2 – 12. MDS means a.3 – 17. HDTV d. LPTV c.7 GHz downlink b. 107.9 MHz d. 204 121.5 MHz . 201 b. 99. HDTV d. b. 202 c. ITFS 116. International telecommunications Frequency Standard 118. Multipoint Digital Service c.8 GHz for uplink 120.1 MHz c.8 GHz for uplink c. 203 d. ITFS means a. Translator b. Maritime Data Standards d. 3. Instructional Television Fixed Service d. ITFS 117. Multipoint Drop Standards 119. LPTV c. What is the channel number of an FM station with 88. Three stations are licensed to eligible educational entities for the distribution of program material to students enrolled in instructional curricula a.7 GHz for downlink and 17. 17. Direct broadcast satellite based allocation a.2 GHz for downlink d. Instructional Telephone Frequency Service c. Multipoint Distribution Service b.

Dolby NR b. If an FM station has an effective radiated power of 100 kW then it is under what class? a. Class D 123. Class B c. _____ is defined as to “send out in all direction” a. dBx d.122. Hue b. All of these 125. Broadcast b. Luminance c. Class A b. Chrominance d. The ultimate Dolby surround system is the a. Dolby Prologic c. The video signal amplitude determines the quality of the picture otherwise known as a. Announce c. hall matrix . Class C d. Media d. Contrast 124.

C. Rainfall is an important factor for fading of radio waves at frequencies above . Attenuation C. towards the earth D. S = 3λR/L C. the antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation of a space diversity system can be calculated from: A. If k-factor is greater than 1. towards the ionosphere. A. Modulation D. A. Propagation 2. __________ is the progressive decrease of signal strength with increasing distance. Calculate the effective earth’s radius if the surface refractivity is 301. S = 2λR/L B. 8493 km B. Away from the earth B. S = λR/RL D. 6370 mi 3. towards the outer space 4. 8493 mmi C. the array beam is bent A. Radiation B. 6370 km D.Microwave Communications 1. S = λR/L where R = effective earth radius (m) and L = path length (m) 5.

Which of the reception problems below that is not due to multipath? A. Slow fading 9. Wavelength fading D. 100 GHz C. 10 GHz B. Random Doppler shift D. 100 MHz 6. What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavelengths of the carrier? A. Nearer reflector C. Fifth D. Slow fading 8. A. Rician fading C. Rayleigh fading B. Fourth C. Delayed spreading B. Third B. but when atmospheric attenuation effects and the absorption of the terrain are taken into account the attenuation can be as high as the inverse _______ power of the distance. Sixth 7. 1 GHz D. Small reflector B. Theoretically electromagnetic radiation field strength varies in inverse proportion to the square of the distance. Further reflector D.A. Large reflector . Which causes multipath or frequency-selective fading? A. Rayleigh fading C.

At the cathode end of the helix B. In microwave transmission using digital radio. At what position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube? A. LORAN D. Delayed spreading B. D. At the control grid of the electron gun 14. At the collector C. Produces a frequency which is independent of the cavity size. Fathometer B. A shipboard equipment which measures the distance between the ship’s bottom and the ocean floor. Echosounder C. Slow fading 11.10. In a reflect klystron has its output taken from the reflector plate C. Direct coax-helix match D. All of the above 15. The cavity resonator A. Coupling into and out of a traveling-wave tube can be accompanied by a A. At the collector end of the helix D. what causes most intersymbol interference? A. Random Doppler shift D. Waveguide match B. 13. Is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit B. A. Has a low Q factor for narrow operation. Rayleigh fading C. Cavity match C. a high-power microwave pulse of the order of megawatts can be generated by a . SONAR 12.

What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a traveling-wave tube? A. Thyratron tube B. Klystron tube D. 1 to 100 GHz D. 1000 to 10. Tunnel diode C. To keep the electrons from spreading out D. traveling-wave tube B. To slow down the signal on the helix 18. Microwave frequencies are normally regarded as those in the range of A. 10 to 1000 GHz 20. The energy liberated form the collector 17. 1 to 500 MHz B. The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate is not limited by the . Both B and C 19. To accelerate the electron B.A. A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of A. reflex klystron D. magnetron C. Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band? A. The energy contained the cavity resonators D. The absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream B. To velocity modulate the electron beam C. The effect of an external magnetic field C. Gunn diode 16.000 GHz C.

Phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity. If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are of opposite polarity. The flux density of the external magnet B. 22.A. Frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity B. Inter-electrode capacitance D. π/4 mode 24. π/2 mode C. Depends on the formation of charge domain 25. Operates over a positive resistance characteristic D. The dimension of each cavity resonator 23. Is capable of generating continuous microwave power of the order of kilowatt B. What ferrite device can be used instead of duplexer of isolate microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna? . Electron transit time B. The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron. Velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the output cavity C. the operation is in the A. π mode B. Density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity D. The ratio of the dc cathode voltage to the magnetic flux density C. 2π mode D. Distributed lead inductance C. is mainly determined by A. Generates frequencies which are below 100 MHz C. Degree of emission from the cathode 21. As the electron beam moves through a klystron’s intercavity drift space A. The Gunn diode oscillator A. The number of the cavity resonators D.

A. A silicon crystal D. A low repetition rate D. A tunnel diode C. And FET B. Simplex D. To achieve good bearing resolution when using a pulsed-radar set. 3000 to 30000 MHz C. 300 to 3000 MHz B. the usual mixer stage is A. In a radar-set receiver. Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency range of A. antenna-beam width in the vertical plane B. an important requirement is A. A narrow. Oscillators of a klystron tube are maintained . 30 to 30000 MHz D. A narrow. A. Magnetron C. antenna-beam width in the horizontal plane C. Tune the magnetron to the correct frequency 28. Circulator 26. 10 to 10000 MHz 30. Which may be used to tune the radar synchronizer B. A Rochelle salts crystal 29. Isolator B. the purpose of an echo box is to provide an artificial target. Which may be used to tune the radar receiver C. To the tone of the pulse repetition D. When used in conjunction with a radar set. A high duty cycle 27.

A Class-S Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (E. Local oscillator C. Is used for receiver alignment 35. All of these 34.A. In an SHF pulsed radar set. By feedback between the accelerating grid and the repeller D. Transmitter oscillator D. Indicates both the range and azimuth of a target C. Its electrical dimensions C. Is used to check the percentage of modulation B.P.I. Single mixer stage B. Indicates only the range of a target D. Varactor-triac D. By bunches of electrons passing the cavity grids B. The resonant frequency of a cavity resonator depends upon A. Must have its battery replaced after emergency use C. Its physical dimensions . May be tested during the first five minutes of any hour D. Duplexer stage 33. What allow microwave to pass in only one direction? A. By plate-to-cathode feedback C.R. By circulating bunches of electrons within the cavities. RF emitter B. The mode of operation B. Ferrite emitter 32. A PPI cathode-ray tube as used on a radar set A.B) A. Capacitor C. Must be capable of floating or being secured to a survival B. 31. a reflex klystron can be used as a A.

The frequency will decrease D. Aid in calibrating the display unit B. Reduce interference from the effects of sea return 40. Increases receiver sensitivity for echoes from targets C. In a pulsed radar set. Bunching would occur earlier in time 38. The bandwidth of the receiver IF stages D. A reflex klystron is oscillating at the frequency of its resonant cavity. The duty cycle 37. If the reflector voltage is made slightly less negative. the A. Adjusting the flexible wall of the resonant cavity C. An adjustment in the synchronizer D. Vary the pulse frequency in order to control the maximum target D. The maximum usable range of the usual radar set (on any particular range setting) is determined by A. The coarse frequency adjustment of a reflex klystron is accomplished by A. Varying the repeller voltage 39. Oscillation will cease B.D. Output power would increase C. The AFC system B. The interval between transmitted pulses C. Allow the transmitter and the receiver to operate from a common antenna D. The capacitor which tunes it 36. In a pulsed radar set. Prevent frequency drift in the klystron C. the function of the duplexer is to A. The width of the transmitted pulses B. the STC circuit is used to A. Improve the target bearing resolution B. All of these .

A thin layer of dirt and grime coverts the reflecting surface of the parabolic dish of a radar set. the required bandwidth of the receiver’s IF amplifiers A. All of these 43. As a second anode and to prevent the build-up of secondary field D. 100 watts C. A reduction in horizontal resolution C. May be decreased D. Its resonant cavity D.000. Must be increased C. The main frequency determining element of a klystron is A.000 watts 42. is increased. The accelerating voltage C. The repeller voltage B. Its mode of operation 45. 1. A decrease in range B. No noticeable effect D. 10. A decrease in gain . It has a peak power output of 100 kilowatts. A magnetron is operated at a duty cycle of 0. To shield the electron beam from unidirectional magnetic C. If the duration of the radar transmitted pulse.000 watts B. 1. The particular effect on the performance of the radar will be A. Its average power is A. Must be doubled 44. Must remain as before B.41. To focus the beam of primary electrons B.000 watts D. The aquadag coating on the inside of PPI tube is used A.001. on a particular range of operation.

Which of the following is used as a high power microwave oscillator? A. The shortest possible time D. Wave trap C. Reflex-klystron 50. Low-pass filters C. All of these 48.2 kHz C. Loran A: 1950 kHz . When it is desired that short-range targets be clearly seen on a pulsed-radar set. Circulator 47. Narrowing the beam width and increasing the pulse duration D. it is important that the receiver and display system have A. It is possible to increase the maximum range of a radar equipment by A.46. Isolator B. Klystron D. Which of the following operating frequencies is used for the modern loran navigational system? A. Loran D: 10. Tunnel diode D. Raising the peak power of the transmitter C. Lowering the pulse frequency B. A long time constant B. Which of the following permits a microwave signal to travel in one direction with virtually no loss. The restricted high-frequency response 49. Thyratron B. Magnetron C. but severely attenuates any signal attempting to travel in the reverse direction? A. Loran C: 100 kHz B.

Radio frequency B.D. The intensity of the echoes (target definition) on a PPI display is determined by the A. circulator C. The reciprocal of the pulse repetition rate C. As a single local oscillator converter stage 54. Simplex D. Average power 55. Produce a trigger pulse for the transmitter D. In a radar set. A duplexer circuit allows a transmitter and a receiver to operate from the same antenna with virtually no interaction. The pulse frequency is equal to A. All of these 53. Duty cycle/pulse width B. Magnetron C. gyrator . Pulse frequency and antenna rotation rate C. Act as the local oscillator converter stage B. loss waveguide B. Circulator 52. Pulse width x peak power/average power D. Which ferrite device can be used instead of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna? A. Provide the sweep voltage for the PPI tube C. a blocking oscillator can be used to A. Duty cycle D. isolator D. Isolator B. Loran B: 900 kHz 51. This circuit may be replaced by a (an) A.

Pulsed radar sets are primarily used to find the A.65 MHz B. Discriminates between targets that are very close together. Diplexer 60. Speed and course of a target D. Size and speed of a target C. Number of target echoes received on one second D. 156. Circulator B.I. 121. and thereby prevents the formation of standing waves? A. All of these 57. The radar set. Can reduce sea-return response D.P. Target’s range of speed . Frequency of the range-marker oscillator B.56. Duplexer C. Reciprocal of the duty cycle C.B)? A. Which of the following is the ferrite device that buffers a microwave source from the effects of a varying load.8 MHz D.5 MHz C.R. The repetition rate of a pulsed radar system indicates the A. Target’s range and bearing B. Which of the following frequencies are used by a class-C Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (E. 59. Frequencies of the duty cycle 58. sensitivity-time control circuit A. Isolator D. Is used to increase sea return C.76 MHz and 156. Controls the width of the magnetron pulse B. 156.

Higher antenna rotation speeds B. Collector end of the helix 64. The display on the PPI scope of a radar set will have greater intensity under the following conditions A.61. VLF band C. Which of the following factors is mainly concerned in the design of an antenna system for pulsed radar set? A. In a radar set receivers. MF band D. Pulse frequency D. LF band B. Cathode B. The input signal is introduced into the traveling-wave tube at the A. Keep the IF stages on frequency C. an ac AFC system may be used to A. Anode C. The operating frequency of loran C lies within the A. Maintain the desired klystron frequency D. HF band . Radio frequency C. Both lower antenna rotation speeds and higher pulse repetition 65. Lower antenna rotation speeds D. Lower pulse repetition rate C. Provide automatic control of receiver gain 63. Cathode end of the helix D. Duty cycle B. Pulse length 62. Automatically maintain the correct magnetron frequency B.

NTC D. Radio communication are regulated in the Philippines by the A. 30 MHz B. The purpose of this coating is A. Line-of-sight transmission C. Conventional components are not usable D. Greater transmission distances D. The main benefit of using microwaves is A. DOTC B. Higher-cost equipment B. To shield the tube magnetically C. The PPI tubes have an aquadag coating on the inside of the tube. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of microwaves? A. Circuits are more difficult to analyze 71. 8000 MHz D. Department of Defense 70. To decelerate the electron beam D.66. 300 MHz C. To deflect the electron beam 67. Lower-cost equipment B. A traveling-wave tube Is used at frequencies in the order of A. 100 MHz 68. Which of the following is a microwave frequency? . KBP C. To act as the second anode B. Simpler equipment C. More spectrum space for signals 69.

22 GHz 72. PCBs 75. A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height of 0. 750 MHz C. Coax B. Rectangle 76.7 MHz B. Excessive radiation 74. The most common cross section of a waveguide is a A. Mobile radio C.54 GHz B. 1. High cost C. Triangle D. Which of the following is not a common microwave application? A.6 in.A. Twisted pair D. High loss B. 0. Large size D. Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with A.0 GHz . Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission lines because of its A. Satellite communications 73. Telephone D. 2. Square B. Radar B.98 GHz D. Circle C. Its cutoff frequency is A. Parallel wires C. 3.

2 C. TM 1. 22 GHz D.9 GHz D. Which of the following signals will not be passed by the waveguide? A. TM 0.1 D. Probe B. the mode is said to be A. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. 11.1 81. Transverse electric D. TE 1. A magnetic field is introduced into waveguide by a A. Dipole C. Horizontal polarization C.C. 255 GHz 78. Vertical polarization B. TE 1. 18 GHz C.8 GHz 77. Capacitor .0 B. Transverse magnetic 80. 5. 15 GHz B. The dominant mode in most rectangular waveguide is A. When the electric field in a waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Stripline D. Electric and magnetic fields D. Holes C. Signal propagation in a waveguide is by A. Air pressure 79. Electrons B.

IMPATT 85. Varactor D. close section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant circuit is known as a(n) A. Decreasing the volume of a cavity causes its resonant frequency to A. A half-wavelength. __________ is a popular microwave mixer diode. Increase B. Varactor C. Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator? A. Remain the same D. IMPATT B. Oscillator C. Half-wave section B. Gunn C. Decrease C. A. Schottky 87. Drop to zero 84. Which type of diodes does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias? . Gunn B. Amplifier B.82. Frequency multiplier D. LCR circuit D. Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit? A. Mixer 86. Cavity resonator C. Hot carrier D. Directional coupler 83.

Traveling-wave tube B. A reflex klystron is used as a(n) A. Reflex klystrons B. In a klystron amplifier. Varactor B. Catcher cavity C. TWTs C. Cathode D. Frequency multiplier 92. Cathode-ray tube C. Mixer D. Oscillator C. Strong electric field C. Tunnel 88. velocity modulation of the electron beam is produced by the A. IMPATT C. Magnetrons D. Magnetron 90. Snap-off D. Klystron D. Collector B. Permanent magnet .A. Amplifier B. Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing A. For proper operation. Varactor diodes 89. Cavity resonator B. Which of the following is not a microwave tube? A. Buncher cavity 91. a magnetron must be accompanied by a A.

Number of cavities 94. Permanent magnet B. Input signal frequency D. A common application for magnetron is in A. Lower cost B. High dc voltage 93. The main advantage of a TWT over a klystron for microwave amplification is A. TV sets 96. DC supply voltage C.D. The operating frequency of klystrons and magnetrons is set by the A. Amplifier B. Cavity resonator 97. Smaller size C. In a TWT. Radar B. Satellites C. Modulation transformer C. Wider bandwidth . Oscillator C. Cavity resonators B. Helix D. Frequency multiplier 95. Higher power D. A magnetron is used only as a/an A. Mixer D. Two-way radio D. the electron beam is density-modulated by a A.

Downtime D.5 dB D. Klystrons D.7 dB B.7 dB 102. Horn 100. Broadband repeater B. Outage time 101. A. An active microwave radio repeater that can provide drops and inserts. 82. Hyperbolic D.98. MTTR C. MTBF B. Parabolic C. 86. MESFETs B. RF repeater . The free space attenuation between two microwave antennas 40 km apart operating at 8 GHz is A. High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers? A. Half-wave dipole B. Magnetrons C. ______________ is a measure of reliability expressed as the average number of hours between successive failures. The most widely used microwave antenna A. IMPATT diodes 99.55 dB C. Baseband repeater C. 142. A. 146. IF repeater D.

0 B.9 D. If the correction factor k equals 4/3 of the earth’s curvature. The ability of a radar to determine the bearing to a target depends upon the A. 0. Equal D. 2/3 D. 11.5 105.4 nmi 107.7 nmi C. Speed of light C. Less C. The distance to the target is how many nautical miles? A. A. Speed of the target D. 4/3 C.12 ms. 0.6 B. 18. Frequency of the signal . The time from the transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0. the microwave beam would have a curvature that is ___________ than that of the earth.5 C.2 nmi D. Not related 104. A. Infinity 106.85 nmi B.103. More B. The microwave beam curves the same than that of the earth when the value of the correction factor k equals A. Antenna directivity B. 1. 0. 9. 4. The optimum clearance from an obstacle in an microwave system is accepted as __________ of the first fresnel zone radius.

0.216 % B. Power transistor 112. The duty cycle is A.130 % C. 0. Azimuth C. Klystron B. Distance B. TWT D.013 % D. 0. Amplitude B. The Doppler effect is a change in what signal characteristics produced by relative motion between the radar set and a target? A. GaAs FET B. Speed 110.407 % 109. The Doppler effect allows which characteristics of a target to be measured? A. The PRF is 185 pulses per second. Magnetron C.108. Altitude D. Low-power radar transmitters and receivers use which component? A. Duty cycle 111. Frequency D. The pulse duration of a radar signal is 699ns. Magnetron C. Klystron . The most widely used radar transmitter component is a A. 0. Phase C. Gunn diode D.

A scan B. Horn and parabolic reflector D. 450 MHz C. Most radar antennas use a A. Broadside D. Bandpass filter C. A scan B. 10 GHz 118. LCD D. PPI 116. Which of the following is a typical radar operating frequency? A. Collinear array 115. Waveguide B. The most common radar display is the A. A microwave system requires the use of repeaters when . 900 MHz D. A radar antenna using multiple diploes or slot antennas in a matrix with variable phase shifters is called a/an A. Dipole B. What component in a duplexer protects the receiver from the higher transmitter output? A. Spark gap 114. Phased array C. Circulator polarized array 117. Color CRT C.113. 60 MHz B. Broadside array C. Notch filter D.

9 to 36. A method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on two difference frequencies over the same path . A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula. Low pass filter B. Coaxial cables 120. High pass filter C. Waveguides C. Q-band D.2 + 10 log f + 20 log d D. Power lines D. X-band C. Twister pair of telephone wires B. Are transmission lines which convey electromagnetic waves in highest frequencies A. The distances involve are grater C. A waveguide is also a A. 92. The radio fading is unacceptable 119. Band stop filter 123. The intervening terrain is favorable B.2 + 20 log f + 20 log d B. Band pass filter D. A microwave band of 10. GHz is considered as A.3 + 10 log f + 20 log d 122. K-band 121. A. The required reliability is meet D.4 + 20 log f + 20 log d C. 94.A. 94. 92. C-band B.

AWG # 15 C. Frequency diversity C. Electron gun. A. the effective result is _______ of the equivalent curvature A. Polarization diversity D.A. helix and repeller . Copper wire D. Litz wire 125. Frequency diversity C. Sharp curvature D. A traveling wave tube consists of A. Flattening B. Antennas operating on the same frequencies D. A wire used to reduce the skin effect A. AWG # 14 B. Wavelength diversity 124. Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more. When the value of k increases. Identical frequencies 126. Polarization diversity D. All of these 128. Space diversity B. Bulging C. The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading of microwave system over the water A. Antennas operating on two different frequencies C. Wavelength diversity 127. Space diversity B. Different frequencies B.

Decreased C. Depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength C. Constant D. The only frequency the waveguide operates. 131.B. Electron gun. 10 . Buncher cavity and catcher cavity 129. What is the cut-off frequency of a waveguide? A. Electron gun. Reduce tower height B. The highest frequency the waveguide operates B. Increased B. Inversely proportional to the group velocity 133. The lowest frequency the waveguide operates C. When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even fresnel zones at the point of reflection. Minimize interference to and from other neighboring stations C. Easy to install 130. The CCIR hypothetical reference circuit covering a distance of 25000 km consists of a total of how many hops? A. Advantage of periscope antenna in microwave A. The same as the operating frequency D. The RSL is A. 5 B. Inversely proportional to the phase velocity D. repeller and collector D. Shorten waveguide length D. Greater than in free space B. What is the wavelength of a wave in a waveguide? A. Above threshold 132. helix and collector C.

Attenuation due to other gases D. 183 GHz D. 20 GHz B. 63 GHz C. Downlink . 60 GHz B. Attenuation due to rain. A. What is the noise loading power in dBmO? A. Attenuation due to mist and fog C. 54 134.C.78 B. 30 GHz 136.78 C. 24 D.78 D. 202 GHz 135. 27. 26. At what frequency does oxygen cause excessive attenuation? A. A microwave system operating at the 6 GHz band is carrying 600 voice channels. STL B. Which of the following is an atmospheric attenuation? A. 12. 10. Uplink C. 50 GHz C.25 138. _________ is a microwave link between the down-town terminal and another out of town terminal. Water causes more attenuation particularly on what frequency? A. Attenuation due to water vapor and oxygen B. 137. 40 GHz D.

Polarization diversity D. All of these 140. IF bandwidth of a radar system is inversely proportional to A. Prevent oscillation B. Peak transmit power D. K x 5280 miles 142. K x 4000 miles C. Electronic Altitude and Distance Indicator C. All of these 143. Space diversity C. Increase gain C. Attenuator is used in the traveling wave tube to A. EADI stands for A. Wavelength diversity 141. Is a method of diversity reception applied to reflective path to reduce fading. Electronic Air and Distance Indicator . Electronic Altitude and Director Indicator D. 4000 miles B.D. Pulse width B. 5000 miles D. Electronic Air Data Indicator B. Prevent saturation D. Pulse interval C. What is the effective earth’s radius used in communications design? A. A. Terrestrial 139. Frequency diversity B.

43000 kHz C. etc. Automatic Distance Finder 148. Terrestrial Flight Telephone System C. Timer D. 1600 . Satellite Phone 147. 1400 C. Alternate Direction Finder D. 1300 B. Which aircraft navigational system determines the time to station (TTS) or time to go (TTG)? A. Audio Direction Findings B. 33500 MHz D. and computer data shop and play computer games. ATC 145. 1500 D. World Airline Entertainment System D. 33500 kHz B. ADF B. 43500 MHz 146. DME C. Inflight Satellite System B.144. A.? A. Automatic Direction Finder C. What inflight system allows passengers to make telephone calls. ADF stands for A. What frequency does a radio altimeter operate? A. send faxes. RF carrier of the middle marker is modulated at ____ Hz.

Wide bandwidth 150. Less noise C. Radio Distance and Ranging B.149. RADAR stands for A. High power D. Radio Distance and Range . Radio Detection and Ranging C. Radio Direction and Ranging D. Which of the following is considered as the major advantage of using a helix traveling wave tube? A. Cheaper B.

a. Natural frequency c. Reflection d. Refraction c. Sound pressure level 7. Sone c. via common walls. A measure of threshold hearing. Noy b.50 mm. a. The frequency of free vibration a. An instrument designed to measure a frequency-weighted value of the sound pressure level. Sensation level c. Reverberation 6. Calculate the resonant frequency of mount. A certain machine with a slightly out-of-balance motor rotating at 1800/min is fixed on a perfectly elastic mount with a static compression of 2. Flanking transmission b. Resonant frequency b. Sound pressure meter d. phone 3. F1A weighting curves 4. floors or ceilings. Noise rating curves d. 20 Hz . The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level a. Sound-level meter b. dB d.Acoustics 1. a. Hearing level d. expressed in decibels relative to a specifoed standard of normal hearing. Hearing loss b. Psophometric weighting curves c. Normal frequency 5. An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band osund pressure level to the center frequency of the octave bands a. Center frequency d. Sound analyzer 2. a. 10 Hz b. C-message weighting curves b. Transducer c.

40 Hz . 30 Hz d.c.

214. What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a longitudinal wave velocity in brick of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s.) a. The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB (re10 - 12 W). 414. 300 m/s b. Converts current variations into sound waves c. Crystal c. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120 mm thick. Find the maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the flight path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions.1 dB c. 79. 330 m/s c. Dynamic b. Bass response is a.1 dB b.5 Hz b. a. (Assume that it is supported at its edges. 4m by 2min area with longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 m/s. 344 m/s 10.5 Hz 11.8. Ribbon-type 14. 20 Hz c. 59. 30 Hz d. Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistance of carbon granules varies as the pressure on the granules vary? a. 69.5 Hz c.1 dB 12. 114. Converts sound waves into current and voltage b.5 Hz d. a. Converts elctrical energy to electromagnetic energy 13. 40 Hz 9. Speaker is a device that a. 314. Maximum highfrequency response . Carbon d. Velocity of sound in air. 89.1 dB d. 1130 m/s d. 10 Hz b. a. Converts elctrical energy to mechanical energy d.

Bypassing high audio frequencies d. ____________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross-section area of 1 sqm at right angles to the direction. 1 Hz b. ________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound. Echo b. Phon c. Sound intensity d. 10 Hz c. Reverberation c. What is the unit of pitch? a. Sone b. Sone b. Decibel c. a. dBk 18. Sound pressure d. a. b. Phon 20. Loudness c. Emphasizing the high audio frequency c. Dolby b. 100 Hz d. ___________ is early reflection of sound. What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time? a. a. Pressure variation 21. Coherence c. dBx d. Bypassing low audio frequencies 15. a. Pure sound d. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie. dBa c. Mel d. Loudness b. 1000 Hz 16. Sound intensity 19. Sound pressure b. Decibel d. Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing a. Mel . Intelligible sound 17.

Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates an output signal voltage? a. 50 watts 26. A church has an internalvolume of 90. When it contains customary sabine sof absorption (186 metric sabines).5 d. what will be its reverberation time in seconds.5 inches? a. 2. Carbon b. 20 watts c. 2. The wire must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely carry what rms current? a. Crystal d. 40 watts d. A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity. a. The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. a. 1. Dynamic c. How much power in watts is this light consuming? a.0 . 5 A d. 3. What frequency has a wavelength of 1 foot. 500 Hz b. Decibel c.2 c. 2 A b. Pitch and loudness d. Pascal d. 2. Highness and loudness b.22.0 b. 10 watts b. Assume the speed of sound is 1. 2000 Hz 27.130 ft/s. Rarefraction and compression 24. Phon b. Tone and loudness c. 6 A 28. Watts 23. Condenser 25. 1500 Hz d. Sound wave has two main characteristics which are a.05 ft 3 (2550 m3). 4 A c. 1000 Hz c.

a. 30 log P/ Pref c. a.5 m is 87 dB assuming that it radiates sound unifomly? a. 10 dB 30. Compression b. a. a. Sound waves travel faster in water at a ______ speed. a.6 dB b.18 W 33.24 W d. The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones.15 W b. 10 log P/Pref c. Sound pressure level is _________. 10 log P/ Pref d. 88 dB d. Frequency response b. 5000 ft/sec c. 20 log P/ Pref b. 0. Sound wave 34.29. If the RMs sound pressure is 5lb/ft 2. 108 dB c. Sound intensity level is _________. 186. what is the sound presure level? a. Period d. Ultrasonic b. 7. Crest-to-crest distance along the direction to wave travel. 0.21 W c. Subsonic d. Field strength c.000 ft/sec d. Transonic 31.4 miles/sec b. Speed that is faster than speed of sound. Power density . Wavelength c. 0. a. 10 log I/Iref b. 0. 12. Supersonic c. 20 log I/Iref d. What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7. 20 log I/Iref 36. 3141 ft/sec 32. 30 log P/Pref 35.

Midrange b. Diaphragm . Transonic c. Subsonic b. Frequency b. Rarefraction d. Reverberation time d. Stereo 43. Gain 37. Rarefraction c. A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal that permits the voice coil in a dynamic loudspeaker to move back and forth salong the core of its magnet. it is called _________. Tone 42. Lowest fequency produced by a musical instrument. The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________. Refraction 38. Noise c. Reflection d. Crystal c. a. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB. Diffraction b. Which microphone will be damaged if exposed to high temperature above 52°C? a. Reflection d. Sound that vibrates too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz). Ribbon d. a. Harmonic c. Ultrasonic d. Transient time 41. a. a. Vibrator b. Echo time b. Reflection b. a. Delay time c. d. Refraction 40. Dynamic b. Tendency of a sound energy to spread. Whenwaves bend away from straight lines of travel. a. Capacitor 44. Refraction 39. Amplitude d. a. Diffraction c.

80-85 52. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.6 47. 109. 300 Hz to 400 Hz d. 35.8 d. P. What is the bass frequency range? a. High frequency range of audio signals.58 dB SPL 46. 379. 10 kHz to 20 kHz d. a. a. 90 b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz c. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz c. 57.78 dB SPL c. 20 Hz to 20 kHz 49. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz c. 41. 115. Proximity effect d. What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office? a. effect c. 55-60 d. c. 65 c. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz b. Field effect b.3 b. What is the microphone characteristic that results in a boost in bassfrequencies for close microphone spacing? a. Spider 45.84 sec. 120 dB SPL b.96 c. What is the audio frequency range? a.A.56 dB SPL d. 40 kHz to 160 kHz d. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz b. What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary music? . 20 kHz to 20 MHz b. Reverberation 48. One hundred twenty µbars of pressure variation is equal to a. Hypex d. Find the absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines. 10. 20000 Hz to 30 kHz 51. 10 Hz to 20 kHz 50.

Transmitting b. 80-85 c. What is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only? a. At a sensation level of 40 dB. Treble d. 100-105 53. Sharpness d. 1/3 c. Moving d. Vibrating 56. 1000 mels . a. Strength 55. 2 times as great b. 3 times as great c. 5 times as great 59. 85-90 c. ½ b. Running c. Loudness 57. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled. Loudness c. 1000 Hz tone is a. Bass c. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased to ½ tye original amount. a. a. the intensity is reduced to a. 95-100 d. 85-90 d. Volume b. Tje loudness of a sound depends upon the energy of motion imparted to ________ molecules of the medium transmitting the sound. Volume b. 90-95 54. 2/3 d. _________ is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of the sound and its intensityvaries inversely with the square of its distance. 1/4 58. 90 b. 80-95 b. Intensity can also be called as a. the intensity of the sound would be a. 4 times as great d.

A class of signal processors. 30 – 3000 Hz 61. Equalizer b. 4 – 40 Hz d. 110 Hz 63. a. Noise b. a. Octaves 64. it would be _______ that frequency. Exciter d. One – half b. Triple 62. a. what is the frequency of the electric current? a. Double d. 27. Vibration c. _________ is an undesired change in wave form as the signal passes through a device. 440 Hz d. Distortion enhances intelligibly when an ________ is added. a. Igniter c. Harmonics 65. 500 mels c. For a music lover concert “A” is 440 Hz. Distortion d. Emulsifier 66. Microprocessors d. Harmonics b. Exciters . Fidelity d. it would be ______. a. 22 Hz b. 2000 mels d. If the sound waves are converted to electrical waves by a microphone. 3 . Much of music is generally reffered to in a. Equalizers c.5 Hz c.30 MHz b. Amplifiers b. if a note was played one octave lower. 100 mels 60. If a musical note one octave higher were played. Good hearing c. b. 25 – 8000 Hz c. In a 220 Hz. One-fourth c.

mildly c. Complexity and ruggedness c. Bad 70. a. When the average absorption is greater than 0. 348. poorly b. At room temperature. Fade and gone d. All microphone have two basic components namely. Good d. Longevity d. Coil and magnet 72. __________ formula is used to compute the actual reverberation time. The kinds of generating elements are __________. badly 68. Microphone d. what is the velocity of sound in meters/seconds? a. Expense and fidelity b. Electric Microphone 71. a. Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall can dramatically alter its frequency response in two distinct ways namely. Stephen and Bate c. Bad and worst 69.03 cm/s . Hump and notch c. Half construction and internal finishes affect the final sound quality ________. Electro-acoustic b. Different b. a. Gump and dump b. Microphone transducer c. a.2. ___________. Similar c. All of these 73. Sabine b. The acoustics of most auditoria are very ________ when the room is full compared to the empty condition. Ceramic and crystal c. a. Notch 74. Diaphragm and generating element d. a. A _________ converts acoustical energy. Wired and body b. a. significantly d.67. Norris-Eyring d.

a. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB. 16.5 um 77. For computation of ideal reverberation time. if the pressure is doubled? a. Calculate the velocity of sound in ft. Pitch 80. Octave b. a. 6 dB d. Piezoelectric effect b. 16. if the temperature is 149 0C? a. Masking 81. Frequency d. 1530. 1320 ft/sec c. The radio of frequencies is termed a.03 ft/sec b. A term which is subjected but dependent mainly on frequency and also affected by intensity./sec.5 mm d. Stephen and Bate c. Sabine b. 1357. Notch . 16. 1920. 980 cm/s c. The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz frequency is a. Timbre b. An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can reduce or even stop the nerve voltage generated by a weaker sound. Quality c. 980 m/s d. which formula is applicable? a. b.5 cm c. Interval c. Norris-Eyring d. Harmonics d.5 m b. 341.03 ft/sec d. Lasing d. 4 dB 79. 16. Skin effect c. 2 dB b.8 m/s 75.345 ft/sec 76. 3 dB c. Masking 78.

Timbre d.82. Refraction c. 601 Hz b. Sound stress d. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. a. Consist of a rapid succession of noticeable echoes. Mel d. Loudness b. a. what is the sound power in watt? a. dB c. The __________ of the sound is a subjective effect which is a function of the ear and brain. Sone b.315 d. The unit of loudness level a. 0. Rarefaction b. 0. 0. At this distance. Define as the time taken from the intensity of sound energy in the room to drop to one millionth of its initial value. Phon 88. Laid the foundations of acoustic theory of buildings. Sound intensity 85. 1200 Hz 86.26 c. Coherence c. Decaying time d. . a. a.63 b. Transit time c. per unit time. Frequency c. __________ is the sound energy per unit area at right angles of the propagation direction. One octave above 600 Hz is a. Reverberation time b. 800 Hz c. 1. Loudness 83. Flutter echo 89. Response time 84. Pitch b. Reflection d.56 x 10-6 87. 1400 Hz d.

Speech 91.7 units c. An aural sensation by pressure variations in the air which are always produced by some source of vibrations. Quality d. Threshold of sensation .7 units b.C Sabine c. Disturbance d. Considered to be the threshold of hearing. Stephen and Bate 90. 10-16 W/m2 c. The average absorption for a person is a.7 units d. W. a. 140 dB c. Sound pressure b. 10-12 W/cm2 b. Defined as the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through a cross-sectional area of 1 m2 at right angles to the direction. Frequency b. 6. 4. Pressure variation 95. Loudness c. The number of vibration or pressure fluctuations per seconds. Sound intensity d. 5. A. Music b. a. Javin d. a. 10-12 W/m2 92. a. 3. Threshold of feeling b. Townes b. Charles H. 150 dB b. Pitch 94. 10-13 W/m2 d. The minimum sound intensity that can be heard is termed a. 170 dB d. 160 dB 96. Sound c. a. What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having a RMS pressure of 200 N/m2 ? a.7 units 93. Timbre c. Threshold of pain c.

300 m/s b. 94. 95. if the intensity is doubled? a.9 W/m2 98. The unit of pitch. pitch c. 97. 330 cm/s . The velocity of sound is considered to be constant at ________ for the purpose of acoustics. 330 µm/s d. 4 dB d. Mel 99. d. a.9 W/m2 c. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB. 6 dB 100. dB d. 330 mm/s c. Threshold of hearing 97. a.9 W/m2 d. What is the intensity of the sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/m2 ? a. sone b. 2 dB b.9 W/m2 b. 3 dB c. 96.

field strength d. both electric and magnetic fields. Christian Huygens d. a. A changing electric field gives rise to ________. F1 b. band b. Davinson. What is the relation in degrees of the electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave? a. Different grouping of the electromagnetic spectrum. b. What is the lowest layer of the ionosphere? a. a magnetic field only d. a. a. Sir Isaac Newton 5. E and F layers are known as ____________. E d. bandwidth c. a. an electric field only c. group 7. a magnetic field b. F2 c. receive voltage b. ________ is the amount of voltage induced in wave by an electro magnetic wave. channel d. An electro magnetic wave consists of ___________. 180 degrees b. 90 degrees c. Kennely – Heaviside Layers d. 270 degrees d. Appleton Layers 6.Radiation and wave propagation 1. Who profounded electro magnetic radiation theory? a. 45 degrees 8. non-magnetic field only 3. power density 2. The D. sound field . a. magnetic induction c. James Clerk Maxwell c.Miller Layers c. D 4. Sir Edward Appleton b. Mark – space Layers b.

K factor c. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation c. What is the highest layer of the atmosphere? a. path profile 15. D Layer b. a. is caused by reflection b. a. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane 12. The layer that reflects very low frequency waves and absorbs medium frequency waves. near and far fields 9. ozone layer 13. Electromagnetic Waves are refracted when they ___________. troposphere d. c. D d. ground waves b. space waves 10. Fresnel zone c. atmospheric-mutipath b. ionosphere b. electromagnetic waves d. In electromagnetic waves. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of a. Effective Earth radius to true earth radius ratio. a. E 14. surface waves d. Fresnel zone d. Rayleigh fading 16. What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere? a. a. reflection-multi path d. Fading due to interference between direct and reflected rays. is always vertical in an isotropic medium 11. pass into a medium of different dielectric constants b. encounter a perfectly conducting surface d. is due to the transverse nature of the waves c. a. stratosphere c. E Layer . index of refraction b. F1 c. sky waves c. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves d. polarization __________. F2 b.

F2 Layer 18. scatter angle b. have no effect on the ground wave range 23. a. F2 Layer 17. critical frequency d. the troposphere 22. High frequency range is from? a. milivolt per watt 24. 30 to 300MHz d. reduce the length of the skip distance d. MUF b. 3to 30MHz 20. skip frequency c. Velocity of a radio wave in free space.01 to 0. volts per meter d. gyro frequency 19. F1 Layer d. c.03 MHz b. E Layer c. 0. the attenuation is dependent on a. What layer is used for high-frequency day time propagation? a. If the transmitter power remains constant. 0. increase the range of the ground wave c. 0.3 to 3MHz b. an increase in the frequency of the sky wave will a.000 miles per sec . lengthen the skip distance b. F1 Layer d. D Layer b. Medium frequency range is from a. volt per square cm c. volts per square meter b. 3 to 30 MHz 21.3 to 3MHz d. antenna size d. 3 to 30MHz c. take-off angle c. 186. 0. What is the unit of electric field strength? a. In tropospheric scatter propagation.3MHz c. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to earth? a.03 to 0.

4dB feed line loss. 162. a. The speed of light in B a. vertical wave d. Refers to the direction of the electric field vector in space. 300x106km/s c. the speed of an electromagnetic wave a. directivity c. vertically polarized b. radiation d. horizontal wave 30. 260W 29. depending on the specific medium d. horizontally polarized d. and 10dB feed line antenna gain? a. 4dB duplxer and circulator loss. is a universal constant .000 nautical mile per sec d. In a vacuum. depends on its constant b. a. 2000W b. Radio wave that is far from its sources is called a. depends on its wavelength c. An TEM wave whose polarization rotates. The angle of refraction is 30 degrees. 300x106 meters per sec c. b.000m/s 28. 186. polarization b. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200W transmitter power output. is less than that in A 31. Light goes from medium A to medium B at angle of incidence of 40 degrees. 300x106m/s b. is greater than that in A c. Plane wave b. maybe any of these. is the same as that in A b. 186. all of the above 25. isotrpic wave c.000km/s d. depends on its electric and magnetic fields d. circularly polarized 27. ERP 26. 126W c. omnidirectional c. velocity of light in free space a. 317W d.

speed c. always seems less than its actual depth d. The depth of an object submerged in a transparent liquid a. sporadic E d. What is a wave front? a. electric field 36. A mobile receiver experiences “dead” areas of reception as a result of a. a fixed point in an electromagnetic wave d. what is the polarization of the TEM wave? a. horizontal c. depending on the transparent liquid 33. circular 38. vertical c. When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth. frequency d. tropospheric scatter c. a voltage pulse in a conductor b. may seem less or more than its actual depth. 50W 35. 10W c. horizontal d. what is the polarization of the TEM wave? . Most of the effects an electro magnetic wave produces when it interacts with matter are due to its a. circular b. vertical d. depending on the object c. 25W d. always seems more that its actual depth b may seem less or more than its actual depth. what is the polarization of the TEM wave? a. elliptical b. atmospheric absorption b. 1W b. shading of the RF signal by hills and trees 37. When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth. a current in a conductor c.32. When the electric field is perpendicular in the surface of the earth. a voltage pulse across a resistor 34. elliptical 39. VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to a. magnetic field b.

knife-edge diffraction d. A wide-bandwidth communications systems in which the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence. approximately 468 million meters per second b. an electric field and a current field b. This phenomenon is called a. approximately 186300 ft/s c. horizontal c. space-wave refraction 45. When a space-wave signal passes over a mountain ridge. How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect selective fading? a. is equal to 1 d. a small part of the signal is diffracted down the far side of the mountain. is greater than 1 b. it is more pronounced at wide bandwidths d. At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space? a. What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic wave a. nothing in particular 44. is less than 1 c. amplitude compandored single sideband b. spread spectrum communication d. A changing magnetic field gives rise to a. electric field d. The index of refraction of a material medium a. sound field b. SITOR c. an electric field and voltage field c. discontinuity scattering b. time-domain frequency modulation 43. approximately 300 million m/s . an electric field and a magnetic field d. maybe any of the bove 46. troposheric ducting c. a. the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading 42. a voltage and current fields 41. a. elliptical b. it is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths b. it is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths c. vertical d. magnetic field c. circular 40.

Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyond-the- horizon terrestrial communications without repeaters a. what is the earth radius K-factor? a. absorbed by the F2 layer b. reflected by the D leayer .7950km d. circular polarization d.23 b. SIDs b. circular polarization d. 1. 12GHz 54. they are very reliable d. faraday rotation 52. What is the effective earth radius when surface refractivity. 6370km b. d. 1. fading c. Indicate which one of the following terms applies to trposcatter propagation a. they penetrate the ionosphere easily 53. Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the earths surface a.7270km c. horizontal polarization c. 15MHz c.33 d. 1.32 49. High-frequency waves are a.29 c. vertical polarization b. vertical polarization b. of the low power required b the transmitting antennas are of convenient size c. 20KHz b. 900MHz d. elliptical polarization 51. Electric field that lies in a plane parallel to the earth’s surface a. atmospheric storms d. 1. horizontal polarization c. 8500km 48. and N equals 300? a. approximately 300 million miles/s 47. If N = 250. VLF waves are used for some types of services because a. elliptical polarization 50.

to avaoid tilting b. maximum single-hop distance limitation d. the physical orientation of electric field in space c. polarization means a. A ship-to-ship communications system is plague by fading. Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky-wave propagation a. window b. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than are the others is called a a. frequency diversity d. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range a. sky waves c. ground waves. gyro frequency range d. frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of a. UHF d. the presence of positive and negative ions . critical frequency c. resonance in the atmosphere 58. The ground wave eventually disappears as one moves away from the transmitter because of a. to avoid the faraday effect d. c. ionization d. VLF 60. b. The best solution seems to be the use of a. interference from the sky wave b. space waves 59. the physical orientation of magnetic field in space b. so as not to exceed the critical frequency 56. loss of line – of – sight conditions c. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon d. space diversity 57. a more directional antenna b. a broadband antenna c. affected nby the solar cycle 55. VHF c. tilting 61. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference c. HF b. in electromagnetic waves. surface waves d.

attenuation c. The ability of satellites to orbit the earth 69. Perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the wave direction c. Parallel to both magnetic field and the wave direction b. The ionosphere is responsible for a. Perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the wave direction 66. The ionosphere is a region of ionized gas in the upper atmosphere. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot d. Ultraviolet rays d. the polarization of the waves d. Electromagnetic waves transport a. reflection 63. Light of which the following colors has the shortest wavelength . only one of the following can happen to them. Wavelength b. The blue color of the sky b. Parallel to the magnetic field and perpendicular to the wave direction d. X-rays b. The highest frequencies are found in a. refraction d. Energy 68. the absorption of a radio waves by the atmosphere depends on a. their distance from the transmitter c. may occur around the edge of a sharp object 65. their frequency b. arises only with spherical wavefronts c. Long distance radio communication d. Radar waves 67. Radio waves c. diffraction of electromagnetic waves a.62. In an electromagnetic wave the electric field is a. is caused by reflections from the ground b. a. Rainbows c. Frequency d. an electromagnetic waves travel in free space. Charge c. the polarization of the atmosphere 64. absorption b.

The propagation of light in straight lines c. Green 70. Blue d. F1 layer d. The quality in sound that corresponds to color in light is a. Frequency c. Dependent on the indexes of refraction of the two media 75. a quality that never changes is its a. E layer b. What layer aids MF surface-wave propagation a little and reflects some HF waves in daytime? a. 0 b. the angle of refraction a. a. Wavelength 73. D layer c. F2 layer 76. The bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another d. Is the same d. Speed d. Resonance c. Direction b. The angle of refraction is a. Yellow c. Relative to the angle of incidence. Either A or B above 74. The splitting of white light into its component colors in regraction b. Can appear on screen c. Amplitude b. Is larger c. All real images a. A light ray enters one medium from another along the normal. Pitch 71. Waveform d. Cannot appear on a screen 72. When a beam of light enters one medium from another. 90 degrees c. Are erect b. The bending of a beam of light when it strikes a mirror . Are inverted d. Dispersion is the term used to describe a. Equal to the critical angle d. Is smaller b. Red b.

That has the same index of refraction d. depending on the index of refraction of the liquid d. Light enters a glass plate whose index of refraction is 1. whose unit is a. 53 degrees 84. 48 degrees c. 45 degrees d. Footcandle 81. Always seems less than its actual depth b. Total internal reflection can occur when light passes from one medium to another a. Lux c. Low-wattage light bulb b.6 at an angle of incidence of 30 degrees .77. The minimum illumination recommended for reading is a. That has a lower index of refraction b. 8000 cd b. At less than the critical angle 79. the angle of refraction is a. That has a larger index of refraction c. Fluorescent tube 82. Lumen d. When the light ray approaches a glass-air interface from the glass side at the critical angle. 8000 lm d. 8000 lx c. 0 b. The brightness of light source is called its luminous intensity . 90 degrees c. 19 degrees d. Equal to the angle of incidence 80. Light leaves a slab of transparent material whose index of refraction is 2 at an angle of refraction of 0 degrees. 800W 83. Candela b. The angle of incidence is . Mercury vapour lamp c. Luminous efficiency is least for a a. the angle of refraction is a. High-wattage light bulb d. Always seems more than its actual depth c. The depth of an objects submerged in a transparent liquid a. 18 degrees b. May seems more than its actual depth. May seem less or more than its actual depth depending on the angle of view 78.

Absorbed . 0. 377 lx c. 42 degrees d. 0. Light enters a glass plate at an angle of incidence of 40 degrees and is refracted at an angle refraction of 25 degrees. 0.3 c. Standing wave 91. Direct wave b. 1. 1. 1.67 b. The index refraction of the glass is a.3) is a. π sr d. The index of refraction of water is a. 30 degrees d. 1508 lx 90.6 86. 0 degrees b.625 b.52 c.66 d. a. The critical angle of incidence for light going from crown glass (n=1. The ionosphere causes radio signals to be a. Diffused b.5 87. 45 degrees c. An underwater swimmer shines a flash light beam upward at an angle of incidence of 40 degrees. 50 degrees c. Sky wave c. 120 lx d. 2 π sr c.6 lx b. the illumination of the area is a. the luminous flux emitted by a 60-cd isotropic light source is concentrated on an area of 0. 12 degrees b. 0. 60 degrees 88.74 d. depends on the radius of the hemisphere 89. π/2 sr b.5) to ice (n=1. The angle of refraction is 60 degrees. Surface wave d. 90 degrees 85. Microwave signals propagate by way of the a.5m2. 9. 1. The solid angle subtended by a hemisphere about its ceter is a.

2 mi c. The type of radio wave responsible for long distance communications by multiple skips is the a. Sky wave 95. which of the following should be done? a. 30 to 300MHz d. 300KHz to 3MHz b. a. Increase antenna height c. States that power density is inversely proportional to the distance from its source. c. Above 300MHz 94. 38. Huygen’s Princple d. Inverse square law c. Increase transmitter power d. 30 to 300MHz d. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range? a. The receiving antenna is 200ft high. UHF c. 3 to 30 MHz c. 33. Direct wave c. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550ft high. To increase the transmission distance of UHF signal. 20 mi b. HF d. The minimum transmission distance is a. Microwave 96. Increase antenna gain b. Principle of reciprocity b. 300KHz to 3MHz b. Above 300MHz 93.7 mi d. Faraday’s law . Surface wave d. Refracted d. Reflected 92.2 mi 97. Groud wave b. Line of sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range? a. Ground wave communications is most effective in what frequency range? a. VHF b. 53. 3 to 30 MHz c. Increase receiver sensitivity 98.

F1 b. Cut –off frequency . ELF b. a. Which layer does not disappear at night? a. Galactic disturbance d. E 101. Next lowest layer in the ionosphere. Cosmic rays c. Ultraviolet radiation 103. What is the primary cause of ionization in the atmosphere? a. gets in contact with the ionosphere and reflected by it. a. D c. E c. Critical frequency b. All of these 106. Which of the following uses surface wave propagation? a. D b. VLF c. Space wave b. Highest layer in the ionosphere a. Angle of incidence d. D b. Surface wave d. Sky wave c. F2 104. Highest frequency that can be used for skywave propagation between two given points on earth. F1 d. E c. F2 d. a. F1 d. All of these 105. MUF c. F2 102. Satellite wave 100. Ion density c. MF d. The ability of the ionosphere to reflect a radio wave back to the earth is determined by a. Operating frequency b. Sun spot b.99.

SIDs c. Skip distance d. Solar flares b. a. Tracking d. Kennely-Heaviside d. Interference between upper and lower rays of a sky wave. Interference due to ground reflected wave and skywave d. Skywaves arriving at different number of hops c. a. UHF 107. Skip zone 108. Sun spots d. MUF b. d. The shortest distance measured along the earth’s surface that a skywave is returned to earth. Variable frequency 109. Two or more receivers are used using a single antenna. Sudden ionospheric disturbance a. Frequency diversity c. Solar flares b. b. Interference b. SIDs c. Space diversity b. Fading c. Frequency diversity c. One of the following is not a cause of fading. A means beyond the line of sight propagation of UHF signals. Quarter-wavelength c. Fluctuation in the signal strength at the receiver. Hybrid diversity d. Polarization diversity 111. Polarization diversity 110. Hybrid diversity d. Sun spots 113. Space diversity b. a. a. Microwave propagation b. a. Space wave propagation . Diversity 112. Two or more antennas are used separated by several wavelengths a. What do you call the gigantic emissions of hydrogen from the sun? a. Intertropical convergence 114.

Troposcatter propagation d. Magnetic field c. At midday b. Stratosphere b. Maximum usable c. When is the E region most ionized? a. Skywave d. Troposcatter 116. a. Microwave d. Twilight zone 120. Duct d. a. Senll’s law b. Absence of reception a. Shadow zone d. Surface wave c. A layer of warm air trapped above cooler air a. 121. Skywave b. Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere? a. Ozone layer 122. Ducting b. Surface wave propagation 115. Ionosphere d. Huygen’s principle c. Each point in a spherical waveform maybe a source of a secondary spherical wavefront. Corresponds to voltage a. Skip distance b. At midnight . Two directional antennas are pointed so that their beams intersect in the troposphere. Troposphere c. De Morgan’s theore. c. SID c. Gyro d. Huygen’s principle 118. Rayleigh’s principle d. Direction of propagation 119. Super refraction. Space wave 117. a. Electric field b. Trposcatter c. Troposphere b.

c. At duck
d. At dawn
123. Transequatorial propagation is best during
a. Night time
b. Afternoon or early evening
c. Noontime
d. Morning
124. Which of the following is most affected by knife-edge refraction?
a. Very high and ultra high frequencies
b. High frequencies
c. Medium frequency
d. Low frequency
125. Which ionosphere layer has an average height of 225km at night?
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer

Transmission Fundamentals

1. What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the dominant
characteristic of a cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structure?
a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Reactance
d. Impedance
2. When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, it means that the load _____ all the power.
a. reflects
b. absorbs
c. attenuates
d. radiates
3. impedance matching ratio of a coax balun.
a. 1:4
b. 4:1
c. 2:1
d. 3:2
4. Which stands for dB relative level?
a. dBrn
b. dBa
c. dBr
d. dBx
5. Standard test tone used for audio measurement.
a. 800 Hz
b. 300 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this means
a. that no power is applied
b. that the load is purely resistive
c. that the load is a pure reactance
d. that the load is opened
7. _______ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward travelling voltage.
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. Reflection coefficient
d. ISWR
8. Transmission line must be matched to the load to ______.
a. transfer maximum voltage to the load
b. transfer maximum power to the load

c. reduce the load current
d. transfer maximum current to the load
9. Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor?
a. Quality factor
b. Reactive factor
c. Dissipation factor
d. Power factor
10. What is the standard test tone?
a. 0 dB
b. 0 dBW
c. 0 dBm
d. 0 dBrn
11. The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
a. Reflected waves
b. Captured waves
c. Incident waves
d. Standing waves
12. Micron is equal to _______ meter.
a. 10-10
b. 10-9
c. 10-6
d. 10-3
13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to _______.
a. 10-3 micron
b. 10-10 m
c. 10-6 micron
d. 10-6 m
14. Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies?
a. Because of the size of the waveguide
b. Due to severe attenuation
c. Due to too much radiation
d. All of these
15. ________ is the transmission and reception of information.
a. Modulation
b. Communications
c. Radiation
d. Emission
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ration of output to input is 0.01?
a. 20
b. -20

c. 40
d. -40
17. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to
a. Negative terminal
b. Reference
c. Ground
d. Positive terminal
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to _______ if the load is properly matched with the
transmission line.
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. -1
d. 1
19. ________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to unbalanced
line.
a. Low attenuation
b. Easy installation
c. Low radiation loss
d. Tensile strength
20. _______ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system.
a. Fourier series
b. Spectral analysis
c. Frequency analysis
d. Bandwidth analysis
21. What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide?
a. The air dielectric filling the guide
b. The coating of silver inside
c. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide
d. Radiation loss
22. A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line.
a. Hybrid
b. Stub
c. Directional coupler
d. Balun
23. What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart with the
length of 50 cm?
a. 10 ohms
b. 15 ohms
c. 18 ohms
d. 23 ohms

24. What is the average power rating of RG-58 C/u?
a. 25 W
b. 50 W
c. 75 W
d. 200 W
25. A coaxial cable used for high temperatures.
a. RG-58C
b. RG-11A
c. RG-213
d. RG-211
26. If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many
such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60dB?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
27. You are measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73
dBm, convert the reading into dBrnCO.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 18
d. 21
28. The velocity factor for a transmission line
a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
b. increases the velocity along the transmission line
c. is governed by the skin effect
d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
29. Impedance inversion can be obtained by
a. a short-circuited stub
b. an open-circuited stub
c. a quarter-wave line
d. a half-wave line
30. Transmission lines when connected to antennas have
a. capacitive load
b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line
c. resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic impedance of the line
d. resistive load at the resonant frequency
31. One of the following is not a bounded media.
a. Coaxial line
b. Two-wire line

c. Waveguide
d. Ocean
32. The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is infinite.
a. Input impedance
b. Open circuit impedance
c. Characteristic impedance
d. Short circuit impedance
33. The following are considered primary line constants except
a. conductance
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. complex propagation constant
34. The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines range from
about
a. 1.2 to 2.8
b. 2.8 to 3.5
c. 3.5 to 5.2
d. 1.0 to 1.2
35. Typically, the velocity factor (VF) of the materials used in transmission lines range from
a. 0.6 to 0.9
b. 0.1 to 0.5
c. 1.0 to 0.9
d. 0.6 to 0.8
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is
a. 85 ohms
b. 85 ohms
c. 90 ohms
d. 88 ohms
37. When a quarter-wave section transmission line is terminated by a short circuit and is
connected to an RF source at the other end, its input impedance is
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u
cable to an antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection
coefficient.
a. 0.71
b. 0.77
c. 0.97

d. 0.76
39. A quarter wave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to match the line
to a load of 1000 ohms. The transformer has a characteristic impedance of 316.23 ohms.
The distance between centers is 4 inches. What is the percentage reduction in the
diameter of the line?
a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 86%
d. 90%
40. The concept used to make one Smith chart universal is called
a. ionization
b. normalization
c. rationalization
d. termination
41. What are the basic elements of communications system?
a. Source, transmission channel, transmitter
b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel
c. Information, transmission channel, receiver
d. Sender and receiver
42. ________ is the transmission of printed material over telephone lines.
a. Internet
b. Data communication
c. Telegraphy
d. Facsimile
43. ________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequencies of 350
Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone sets.
a. DC tone
b. Ringing tone
c. Dial tone
d. Call waiting tone
44. ________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed about
75 km apart used to compensate for losses along the telephone line.
a. VF repeaters
b. Loading coils
c. Loop extenders
d. Echo suppressors
45. ________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of interfacing
the handset to the local loop.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor

c. Varistor
d. Induction coil
46. Pulse dialing has ________ rate.
a. 20 pulses/min
b. 10 pulses/min
c. 10 pulses/sec
d. 80 pulses/sec
47. ________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices.
a. 2-wire circuit
b. Trunk line
c. Leased line
d. Private line
48. The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has cellular
processor and a cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices,
control call processing and handle billing activities.
a. MTSO
b. Cell site
c. PTSN
d. Trunk line
49. ________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular site.
a. Switching system
b. Base station
c. Operation and support system
d. Mobile station
50. A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone system.
a. Frequency re-use
b. Cell splitting
c. TDM
d. FDM
51. If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what does it mean?
a. Completed calls of 5%
b. Lost calls of 5%
c. Lost calls of 95%
d. Lost calls of 105%
52. ________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between Toll Central Offices (Bell System
Standard).
a. 3, 825 Hz
b. 3, 700 Hz
c. 2, 600 Hz
d. 800 Hz

300-3400 Hz b. Crossbar switching b. Not more than _______ digits make up an international telephone number as recommended by CCITT REC. Purely resistive c. a. 12 56. 1200 Hz c.53. Step-by-step switching 60. OTLP c. 000 lines d. 11 d. the customer’s telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999. If the SWR is infinite. On-hook . Manual switching c. 100 CCS 57. what is the capacity of a telephone system numbering from 000 to 999? a. TIP d. E. 10. 100 lines b. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate in that area. a. 100. 8 b. a. Purely capacitive d. 300-3000 Hz 59. what type of load transmission line has? a. 000 lines 54. DTWX 58.6 CCS d. the handset is in the _______ state. WATS b. 10 c. 360 CCS b. Purely reactive b. In a telephone system. Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set terminates in a jack and the switch is supervised by an operator. 200-3200 Hz d. One (1) Erlang is equal to _______. The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth. a. 161. Electronic switching d. Purely inductive 55. a. 36 CCS c. a. 3. Every time when the telephone is idle. 1000 lines c.

b. Off-hook
c. Busy
d. Spare
61. _______ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of
compensating for the local loop length.
a. Resistor
b. Varistor
c. Capacitor
d. Induction coil
62. What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?
a. Carbon
b. Electromagnetic
c. Ceramic
d. Capacitor
63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN ha an ideal passband of
a. 0 to 4 Hz
b. 0 to 4 MHz
c. 0 to 4 kHz
d. 0 to 4 GHz
64. ________ is the minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN.
a. Basic voice grade (VG)
b. Basic voice channel (VC)
c. Basic voice band (VB)
d. Basic telephone channel
65. Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is called
a. Private-line network
b. PT network
c. Dial-up network
d. Trunk network
66. What is the advantage of sidetone?
a. Transmission efficiency is increased
b. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a strengthened signal
c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network
d. Assure the customer that the telephone is working
67. ________ is a special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX).
a. Phantom line
b. Tie trunk
c. Tandem trunk
d. Private line

68. The published rates, regulation, and descriptions governing the provision of
communications service for public use.
a. Toll rate
b. Tariff
c. Bulk billing
d. Detailed billing
69. What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
a. 1 dB
b. 2 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 6 dB
70. Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the frequency range of
_______.
a. 300-400 Hz
b. 300-3400 Hz
c. 300-3000 Hz
d. 300-2700 Hz
71. The first Strowger step-by-step switch was used in _______.
a. 1875
b. 1890
c. 1897
d. 1913
72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees?
a. 52usec
b. 1.25usec
c. 83.33usec
d. 26usec
73. What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan, a variable loss plans
and a fixed loss plan?
a. G. 133
b. G. 141
c. G. 132
d. G. 122
74. What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
a. 0.838 mm
b. 0.465 mm
c. 1.626 mm
d. 2.159 mm

75. What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast moving mobiles and low-
usage areas?
a. Pico cells
b. Micro cells
c. Nano cells
d. Umbrella cells
76. In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are placed by _______.
a. adaptive array
b. flat plate antenna
c. dipole array
d. focused antenna
77. What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop?
a. Digital cellular technology
b. Analogue cellular technology
c. PSTN
d. AMPS technology
78. When the calling party hears a “busy” tone on his telephone, the call is considered
a. lost
b. disconnected
c. completed
d. incomplete
79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited stubs because the latter are
a. more difficult to make and connect
b. made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
c. liable to radiate
d. incapable of giving a full range of reactances
80. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage?
a. VSWR
b. ISWR
c. SWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
81. One method of determining antenna impedance.
a. Sub matching
b. Trial and error
c. Smith chart
d. Quarter-wave matching
82. ________ is a single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.
a. Single-wire line
b. Microstrip
c. Twin-lead

d. Coaxial line
83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically _______.
a. 150 to 300 ohms
b. 50 to 75 ohms
c. 30 to 45 ohms
d. 300 to 600 ohms
84. Waveguide becomes compulsory above what frequencies?
a. Above 3 GHz
b. Above 10 kHz
c. At 300 MHz
d. Above 10 GHz
85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is _______.
a. 20 to 30 kHz
b. 0 to 3 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. 55 kHz above
86. Echo suppressors are used on all communications system when the round trip
propagation time exceeds _______.
a. 50 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 1 ms
87. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an antenna having
an input impedance of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wave matching
line?
a. 212 ohms
b. 250 ohms
c. 200 ohms
d. 150 ohms
88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as _______.
a. impedance transformer
b. lecher line
c. transmission line
d. harmonic suppressor
89. The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher modes is
usually called
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. power lines
d. twisted wire of telephone line

90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in waveguide?
a. To increase the distributed capacitance
b. To keep the waveguide dry
c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide
d. To raise the guide’s wave impedance
91. The apparent speed of propagation along a waveguide based on the distance between
wavefronts along the walls of the guide is called
a. group velocity
b. phae velocity
c. normal velocity
d. abnormal velocity
92. How do you couple in and out of a waveguide?
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end of the waveguide
b. Insertion of an E-probe into the waveguide
c. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide
d. Both B and C
93. A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE10 mode. The associated flux
lines are established
a. transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide
b. transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide
c. in the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation
d. in the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation
94. For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between two instantaneous
consecutive positions of maximum field intensity (in a direction parallel to the walls of
the waveguide) is referred to as half of the
a. free-space wavelength
b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension
c. guide wavelength
d. group wavelength
95. The guide wavelength, in a rectangular waveguide is
a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency
b. equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency
c. less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency
d. greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal frequency
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectangular guide
provided
a. the wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space
b. the narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free space
c. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength
d. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space

97. If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dominant mode
is employed
a. the free space wavelength is increased
b. the phase velocity increased
c. the guide wavelength is increased
d. the group velocity, Vg, is increased
98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular waveguide and the reflection angle is 20 o,
what is the value of the guide wavelength?
a. 6.10 cm
b. 5.32 cm
c. 4.78 cm
d. 5.00 cm
99. The inner dimensions of a rectangular wavelength are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The cutoff
wavelength for the dominant mode is
a. 1.75 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 7.0 cm
d. 0.4375 cm
100. A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose
inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength?
a. 3.12 cm
b. 3.89 cm
c. 3.57 cm
d. 6.30 cm
101. The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the
dominant mode is limited to
a. the difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle is 90o and the
frequency for which angle is zero
b. the difference between the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to
the cutoff value and the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to the
guide wavelength
c. the difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the
narrow dimension
d. none of these
102. If a rectangular waveguide is to be excited in the dominant mode, the E-probe
should be inserted
a. at the sealed end
b. at a distance of one quarter –wavelength from the sealed end
c. at a distance of one-half wavelength from the sealed end
d. at a distance of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed end

103. A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is shorted out at the far
end. What is the input impedance to the line generator?
a. A low value of resistance
b. A high value of resistance
c. A capacitive resistance which is equal in the value to the line’s surge impedance
d. An inductive resistance which is equal to the value to the line’s surge impedance
104. If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be
a. an impedance mismatch between the line and the load
b. that the line is non-resonant
c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the load
d. that the load is matched to the line
105. If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end
a. there is minimum current at the shorted end
b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
c. the line behaves as a series-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
d. there is a minimum voltage at the shorted end
106. A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which represents a 50 ohm
resistive load. To shorten the line, the length must be
a. any convenient value
b. an odd multiple of three quarters of a wavelength
c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength
d. an even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength
107. The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded
a. at the beginning and at the end of the cable
b. only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the cable
c. only at the end of the cable
d. at the middle of the cable
108. A feature of an infinite transmission line is that
a. its input impedance at the generator is equal to the line’s surge impedance
b. its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
c. no RF current will be drawn from the generator
d. the impedance varies at different positions on the line
109. When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will
a. transfer maximum current to the load
b. transfer maximum voltage to the load
c. transfer maximum power to the load
d. have a VSWR equal to zero
110. A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the surge
impedance. If the value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
a. 2

b. 3
c. 4
d. 15
111. Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the transmitter power.
a. Standing wave pattern
b. Reflection coefficient
c. SWR
d. Index of refraction
112. Emission designation for a facsimile.
a. H3E and A4E
b. R3E and A4E
c. F4E and J3E
d. F3C and A3E
113. Commonly used telephone wire.
a. AWG #19
b. AWG #18
c. AWG #30
d. AWG #33
114. What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle?
a. Frequency
b. Hop
c. Wavelength
d. Crest
115. The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the _______.
a. square of the dielectric constant
b. square root of the dielectric constant
c. dielectric current
d. square root of refractive index
116. ________ is a hollow structure that has no center conductor but allows waves to
propagate down its length.
a. Waveguide
b. Hybrid
c. Pipe
d. Directional coupler
117. To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, _______ is used.
a. hybrid circuit
b. balun
c. directional coupler
d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit

eliminate loading d. 2. fiber-optic cable d. occur at a 30-degree angle c. 3 GHz c. set-up b. What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line with an attenuation of 6 dB/km? a. all of the above 125. waveguide c. 0. coaxial cable b. mode 120. ________ are transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher order modes? a. bandwidth b. A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. The twists in twisted wire pairs a. Coaxial cables b. 63 km d. Loading means the addition of . entropy d.5 km b. Power cables d.5 GHz d. reduced electromagnetic interference b. coupler c. 1. An example of a bounded medium is a.5 GHZ 121.118. Waveguides 122. quantum 123. 2 GHz b. Ina waveguide.5 km c. _______ is a specific configuration of electric and magnetic fields that allows a wave to propagate. What is the dominant mode cut-off frequency? a. channel d. a. 3. were removed due to cost 124. Twisted pairs of telephone wire c. The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols is also called a. loss c. 2 km 119.

a. resistor b. conductor spacing d. 75 ohms c. Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line? a. One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance. Zo = ZL b. dielectric material 128. a. a. adjusting antenna length c. Zo > ZL c. capacitor c. What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency application? a. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna. the relationship between the characteristic impedance of the line Zoand the load impedance ZL should be a. An electric field b. Zo < ZL d. 300 ohms 129. length b. 50 ohms b. bullet d. conductor diameter c. A magnetic field 132. Standing waves d. ________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line not terminated in its characteristic impedance. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be corrected for by a. Zo = 0 130. 120 ohms d. Coaxial 127. using a balun d. inductance 126. Two-wire balance line b. Radio waves c. using LC matcging network b. Three-wire line d. Single wire c. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its a. 0 . adjusting the length of transmission line 131.

300 MHz d. At very high frequencies.5 137. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an a. b. 150 MHz b. Inductor c. 2 d. A 50ohm coax is connected to a 73-ohm antenna. Antennas c. 1.2 d. 1 d.0 c. 0. Parallel resonant circuit . 1 c. 1. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V. What is the most desirable reflection coefficient? a. Reflection coefficient d.685 b. 328 MHz 138. What is the SWR? a. while the maximum is 390 V. 0 b. Infinity 133. Series resonant circuit d. Capacitor b.92 134.67 b. the SWR is a. transmission lines act as a. 1. Velocity factor b. 0. One meter is one wavelength at a frequency of a. 1 c.5 c. Standing-wave ratio c. 164 MHz c. Insulators d. What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a transmission line? a. 0. Tuned circuits b. Infinity 135. 2. 1.46 d. Line efficiency 136. Resistors 139.

Capacitor b. Parallel-wire line b. Co-channel interference d. preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier d. passing DC while blocking AC b. preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band splitter 146. _______ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4. Reducing the effect of noise on the TVRO video signal . Dielectric material d. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an a. Ghost c. a. Inductor c. Dithering (in TVRO communication) is a process of a. Twisted pair c. passing AC voltage but prevent DC c.140. Separation between conductors 145. Adjacent channel interference b. A medium least susceptible to noise? a. Parallel-wire line b. Length of the wire c. The most commonly used transmission line in television system. Series resonant circuit d. plus a satellite dish operating on channel 3. The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Fiber-optic cable d. Open-wire ceramic supports 144. Crosstalk 147. Diameter b. a. Coaxial 142. DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of a. Waveguide d. Shielded pair b. A medium most widely used in LANs? a. Twisted pair c. Fiber-optic d. Parallel resonant circuit 141. Coaxial cable c. Which is not one of those factors? a. Coaxial 143.

Oscilloscope d.868 152. 20dB b. -4dBm 149. 15dB d. Multimeter 154. Time and frequency b. A network that has an input of 75dB and an output of 35dB. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle d. 300 ohms . One Neper (Np) is how many decibels? a. Voltage and current c. Reflectometer c. A signal is amplified 100 times in power. 40db c. 8. 25dB 153. 3-dB loss c. 214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characteristic impedance of a. b. Frequency and voltage d. The loss of the network is a. 600 ohms d. 52 ohms b. 8. 8. 40dBm d.686 c. 8. Important useful quantities describing waveforms. 119dB c.866 b. Power and frequency 150. 6-dB gain b. 6-dB loss 151. Moving the actuator exactly onto the desired satellite beam 148. Which of the following is used to measure SWR? a. Halving the power means a. 3-dB gain d. Spectrum analyzer b. 75 ohms c. Centering the video fine tuning on TVRO channels c.688 d. a. The dB gain is a. -40db b.

3A c. 0.05 in(assume K=1). 0.7in d. 80 dBW 157. what should be the characteristic impedance of the matching ransformer? Assume that the matching transformer is to be connected directly to the load. 955 dBW c. 1. In the preceding problem .04 ohms c. 300. 100% modulated is operating on a frequency of 169MHz.7A b. 1. a.5in 160. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial cable 150ft long. 324. 90 dBW d. 0. 232 ohms c.04 ohms 156. Bounded medium 158. 480 ohms 159. 300 ohms d. 85dBW b.0A . a. determine the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the outer conductor has a thickness of 0. a. What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which is to act a s a quarterwave matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600 ohms load? a. 1. 310.04 ohms d. A coaxial cable is a good example of a/an a. 1. Non-metallic medium d.04 ohms b. What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50dB antenna connected to a transmitter with an output of 10kW through a transmission line with loss of 5dB? a.155. Transmission channel c. calculate the line current. 320. 1. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0. A transmitter of 100W RF power output.0 in b. Unbounded medium b.5A d.162in. 180 ohms b. If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180 ohm load to a transmission line with and impedance of 300 ohms.9in c.

a.0 dB 162. a. Assume the telephone set resistance is equal to 200 ohms.161. 13. the output is a.7dB loss per mile. a. in ft. the input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its resinant frequency is a.000 feet 163. dB b. 1. 2. dNp 166. 1.1W and the network gain is 13dB.0dB b.7 feet b. 1. Infinite or an open circuit c. what is the maximum allowable subscriber loop length.733ft 164. a. The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in the line is called a. 20. 70 ohms 167.5W c.5 ohms per 100ft.5W d.900 ft c. 20. ISWR . 0 ohms b. of a telephone system if the signalling resistance is 1800ohms using a telephone cable pair of gauge #26 with loop resistance of 83. The input is 0. 15. 1.0W b. If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of 6dB. 2. Ohm d.161. dBp d. Known as one-tenth of a neper.300 feet d. in feet. What is the maximum subscriber loop length. 2.280ft d. 19. 2. 11. using the same gauge #26 telephone wire? Assume a 2. 15.5 dB c.161 feet c.8W 165.5 dB d. dBm c. Determine also the total attenuation of the line in the preceding problem. 15.000 ft b. SWR b.

5 meters c. Coefficient of reflection 168. Length d.98 d. VSWR d. 7. 13.97 ohms 171.98 c. 7. 1.98 b.7+j1. Conductor radius 173. 20 meters d. what is the resulting input to the TV set. capacitive b) RS = 10 ohms and XL = 90 ohms. measurements are made with (a) the far end open circuited and (b) far end short circuited. two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna through a quarter-wave matching stub. 15 meters d. 70.98 172.5 – j5 ohms d. a.0 ohms b.7-j2. 25 meters 170. 75. c. 70.19 ohms c. No significant change . Conductor diameter c. inductive. This amplified signal then passes through a coaxial cable with 3dB loss.7 – j1. 87. What is the characteristic impedance Zo of the line? a. 20 meters b. A loss of one third of the power b. 25 meters 169. in dBmV? a. A loss of one half of the power c. Conductor spacing b. compute the length of the dipole a. To find the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable. An open-wire. From the preceding problem. a. compute also the length of the quarterwave stub. -1. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its___________.5 meters c. -13. 15 meters b. A loss of three watts of power d. At a frequency of 10 MHz. What does a power difference of -3dB mean? a. A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200mV and is immediately amplified by a preamplifier with a 15dB gain. the corresponding readings being a) Ro=3ohms and Xc=55 ohms.

1:4 d. +36 dBm b. In the preceding problem. SWR b. They depend on straight line propagation d. 2mW d. ISWR d. They are bulky at lower frequencies b. A combiner has two inputs +30dBm and +30dBm. Find the attenuation of the line at 0. VSWR c. Which of the following is an advantage of the balance transmission line? a. determine the spacing between wires from center to center. 3mW c. Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission because a.05 dB b. +30 dBm c. a. 0. Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a number 12 wire (81 mils). 0.174. 1:2 c. 4 in . Easy installation b.55 dB c.6GHz per 100feet length a. +33 dBm 178. The input is 1W and the network loss is 27dB. Coefficient of reflection 179.35 dB 181. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses c. The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is called a. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies c. None of these 175. 0. 0. 4mW 177. If the ratio of the maximum current to minimum current in a transmission line is 2:1 then the ratio of the maximum voltage to minimum voltage is a. 4:1 b. what is the resultant output? a. 1mW b.44 dB d. the output is a. No generators are powerful enough to excite them 176. 2:1 180. 6 in b. +60 dBm d. Low attenuation d.

c. 5 in
d. 3 in
182. A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100nF/m and a series
inductance of 4mH/m. What is the characteristic impedance?
a. 500 ohms
b. 400ohms
c. 300ohms
d. 200hms
183. A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to
a. 10dBm
b. 1dB
c. 20dB
d. 100dB
184. A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are required.
a. Balun
b. Parallel-wire line
c. Coaxial line
d. Quarterwave line
185. What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacitance
of 40nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5mH/ft
a. 111.8 ohms
b. 110.8 ohms
c. 112.8 ohms
d. 109.8 ohms
186. The input power to a loss-free cable is 5W. If the reflected power is 7dB down on the
incident power, the output power to the load is
a. 4W
b. 5W
c. 6W
d. 7W
187. To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line
should be equal to
a. 1
b. 10
c. 50
d. 2
188. A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6mm has a 50 ohms characteristic
impedance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60., calculate the inner
diameter.
a. 2.09cm

b. 2.09in
c. 2.09mm
d. 2.09mm
189. If an amplifier has equal input and out impedance, what voltage ratio does the gain of
50dB represent?
a. 316.2
b. 325.2
c. 320.1
d. 315.0
190. What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF/ft and a
characteristic impedance of 60 ohms?
a. 0.167uH/ft
b. 0.178 uH/ft
c. 0.19 uH/ft
d. 0.18 uH/ft
191. The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy received by
the surface.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Absorption coefficient
c. Linear coefficient
d. Thermal coefficient
192. When the diameter of the conductors of a wire transmission line is held constant, the
effect of decreasing the distance between the conductors is
a. Increase the surge impedance
b. Increase the radiation resistance
c. Decrease the SWR
d. Decrease the impedance
193. The higher the gauge number if a conductor
a. The bigger the diameter
b. The higher the resistance or the smaller the diameter
c. The higher the resistance
d. None of the above
194. A short length transmission line used to reduce/eliminate standing waves in the main
transmission line.
a. Stub
b. Balun
c. λ/4 transformer
d. slot
195. ratio of reflected power to incident power?
a. Incidence

b. Reflectance
c. Reflection index
d. None of these
196. A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms lad antenna to a ling of 52
ohms impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer is
a. 200 ohms
b. 150 ohms
c. 176 ohms
d. 300 ohms
197. What is the capacitance of 55 miles #44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From wire
tables, #44 wire has a radius to 0.10215 in.
a. 0.476uF
b. 0.476nF
c. 0.476pF
d. 0.476fF
198. A two-transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81mils). The distance
between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the characteristic impedance of the line?
a. 650 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 660 ohms
199. In the preceding problem, what is the attenuation in dB per 100ft of the line for a
frequency of 4 MHz?
a. 0.05
b. 0.03
c. 0.04
d. 0.06
200. What is the SWR when a transmission line is terminated in a short circuit?
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinite
d. indeterminate

1. Typical speech power
A. 10 to 1000 µW
B. 100 to 1000 mW
C. 10 to 1000 nW
D. 100 to 1000 pW
2. The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is located between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
3. The maximum voice energy is located between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
4. A device used to measure speech volume.
A. speech meter
B. volume meter
C. volume unit meter
D. speedometer
5. By definition, for a sine wave
A. 0 dBm = 0 V.U.
B. 0 dBW = 0 V.U.
C. 0 dBa = 0 V.U.
D. 0 dBf = 0 V.U.
6. Presently, this is the “standard” frequency bandwidth for voice transmission.
A. 0 to 4000 Hz
B. 100 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 300 to 3000 Hz
7. Which of the following is commonly used wire for subscriber loop design?
A. AWG # 19
B. AWG # 18
C. AWG # 30
D. AWG # 33
8. The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is
A. 1300 Ω
B. 2000 Ω
C. 1250 Ω

D. 1200 Ω
9. AWG # 26 has a typical loss of
A. 0.21 dB/1000 ft.
B. 0.32 dB/1000 ft.
C. 0.41 dB/1000 ft.
D. 0.51 dB/1000 ft.
10. What is the standard voice channel spacing?
A. 44 MHz
B. 40 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 40 MHz
11. Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Multimeter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Spectrum analyzer
D. Reflectometer
12. What is singing?
A. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce
a tone having a frequency equal to the sum of the frequencies of the signals
intermodulated.
B. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce
a tone having a frequency higher than that of the signal having the highest frequency.
C. An undesired self-sustained oscillation in a system, generally caused by excessive
positive feedback.
D. An art or form of entertainment that can make one rich.
13. Which stage increases the selectivity of the circuit in an AM receiver?
A. Detector
B. IF stage
C. Modulator
D. Mixer
14. The ________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable
intelligence at the output speaker.
A. sensitivity
B. selectivity
C. reliability
D. fidelity
15. Full-duplex transmission means
A. One-way transmission
B. 24-hour transmission
C. Broadcast transmission

D. Two-way simultaneous transmission
16. What is a multidrop line?
A. A piece of wire with a thick insulating material that serves to protect the conductive
materials from damage in the event the wire is dropped.
B. A line designed to withstand high pressure.
C. A line or circuit interconnecting several situations.
D. A bus line
17. A passive _________ is an electronic device which reduces signal strength by a
specified amount in dB.
A. Splitter
B. Filter
C. Trimmer
D. Attenuator
18. The signal quality of the calls is constantly monitored by the base station, when the
quality of the calls drops below a certain specified level. The base request the MTSO to
try and find a better cell site.
A. Hand-off
B. Cell splitting
C. Roaming
D. Frequency reuse
19. A digital identification associated with a cellular system.
A. SAT
B. SID
C. ESN
D. MIN
20. How many seconds does facsimile transmit a stranded page?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
21. A kind of recording used in facsimile.
A. Electrolytic recording
B. Electrothermal recording
C. Electropercussive recording
D. Electrostatic recording
22. A type of distortion a facsimile produce when it becomes out of synchronization?
A. Pincushion
B. Barrel
C. Skewing
D. Fattening

23. What is an acoustic coupler?
A. A device that radiates audible signals via a transmitting antenna
B. A device that converts electric signals into audio signals, enabling data to be
transmitted over the public telephone network via a conventional telephone
handset
C. A device that receives audible signals and retransmits them at VHF frequencies
D. A transducer
24. Cause a herringbone pattern in facsimile
A. Single-frequency interference
B. Crosstalk
C. Phase jitter
D. Noise
25. The _______ in an FM receiver causes a stronger signal to dominate over a weaker
signal on the same frequency.
A. Capture effect
B. Flywheel effect
C. Hall effect
D. Skin effect
26. A device that converts a 2-wire circuit to a 4-wire circuit.
A. RS-232 interface
B. Hybrid circuit
C. Balun
D. Stub
27. ______ theory is deciding between a set of hypothesis when given a collection of
imperfect measurements.
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist
28. ______ of a data reduction says that when reducing a set of data into the form of an
underlying mode, one should be maximally non-committal with respect to missing data.
A. Jaynes maximum entropy principle
B. Kullback principle of minimum discrimination
C. Minimum discrimination\
D. Maximum entropy
29. _______ is selecting the best value of a parameter from a continuum of possible values
when gives a collection if imperfect measurements
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision

D. Nyquist
30. Combination of madulator, channel, and detector.
A. Transceiver
B. Transponder
C. T/R channel
D. Discrete channel
31. What is the frequency band of DECT?
A. 1.88 – 1.90 GHz
B. 1.68 – 1.70 GHz
C. 1.48 – 1.50 GHz
D. 1.28 – 1.30 GHz
32. How many simultaneous calls does each DECT system can support?
A. 96
B. 12
C. 24
D. 49
33. How many simultaneous calls does a DECT radio transceiver can assess at any given
time?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
34. The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is always _______.
A. Present before adjustments can be made
B. DC, but may have either polarity positive DC
C. Positive DC
D. Negative
35. What is a concentrator?
A. A system that improves the signal-to-noise ratio by compressing the volume range of
a signal.
B. A device that varies the characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with the
waveform of a modulating signal which contains useful information
C. A switching system that lets a large number of telephone or data processing
subscribers use a lesser number of transmission lines or a narrow bandwidth
D. Equipment in the central office.
36. If you find that an SAW filter output is 6 dB down from the input of a receiver during
test, ______
A. This is normal.
B. The device if faulty
C. The receiver is improperly terminated

A. 5960 Hz B. 200 42. The filter is not resonating 37. Cellular mobile system was first operated in A. A piece of wire connecting a telephone set to a PABX C. If two FM signals of different strengths are received on the same frequency A. Operated as Class-A amplifiers D. 1000 D. Both will appear in the AF output C. What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an allocated spectrum of 25 MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth? A. Neither signal will be intelligence unless the weaker signal is at least 10 times 40. 6040 Hz D. 240 C. A triple conversion superheterodyne receiver. diode mixer stages are A. A temporary connection of one computer to a mainframe via a modern and a telephone line D. Only the stronger will appear in the AF output D. 6000 Hz C. Operated as Class-B amplifiers 38. GSSM uses what digital modulation technique? A. A piece of wire used in a local area network in one building B. Operated in the linear region B. 666 44. 1000 C. 832 D. D. A permanent circuit for a private use within a communication network 39. 1979 B. TACS is a cellular system with ______ channels. QAM . One steady heterodyne will appear in the AM output B. Operated in the nonlinear region C. 833 B. 1983 D. Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) has _______ frequency. A. What is a leased line? A. 666 B. 1981 C. 1004 z 43. 1985 41.

300 Ω 49. A. 547 Ω B. A. Reference signals 48. GMSK 45. 10 W 46. GFSK C. 382 Ω B. 10 mW B. When a line and a load are match the reflection coefficient is A. 1 C. If the spacing of a two-wire open air transmission line is 12 inches and the conductor diameter is 0. the reflection coefficient is A. The impedance of the quarterwave transformer used to match a 600 Ω line to a 300 Ω load is A. Zero C. Unity B. length. 2 B. Zero C. Carrier frequencies B. When line is terminated in an open circuit load. 273 Ω D. What is the power output of Personal Communication System (PCS)? A. the characteristic impedance is A. Pilot carrier signals C. Negative infinity 51. Positive infinity D. Negative infinity . 565 Ω D. 357 Ω C. RG-B8 cable has a loss of about ______ dB at cellular frequencies up to 15 ft. 3 47.25 inch. 712 Ω 50. Unity B. 150 mW D. 4 D. Synchronizing signals D. 424 Ω C. The signals designed to keep the receivers and transmitters aligned. B. 75 mW C. BPSK D. Positive infinity D.

852 & 1209 Hz C.65 B. Zero 54. Unity C. 400 to 3400 Hz C. To least the fault of the given line. 0. 300 to 3400 Hz D. Link . 42 to 52 Vdc B. 24 to 64 Vdc D. The telephone set is powered by the central office on the ring side at A. – 42 to -52 Vdc C. the standing wave ratio is A. 300 to 4 kHz B. Unity D. Trunk line B. 852 & 1336 Hz D. 300 m C. Red D.33 B. 3 D. 30 µs later the signal returned. Black B. Which of the following wire is used to transmit the signal? A. 770 & 1336 Hz 59. 0. Zero 53. 770 & 1477 Hz B. Yellow C. 9000 m B. 1. 100 m D. 400 to 4 kHz 57. A 300 ohms line is terminated in a resistance load of 200 ohms. a signal is fed to the line. 4500 m 55.5. The telephone voice band frequency is from A. Green 58.5 C. the VSWR is A. The physical connection between the telephone set and the switching equipment is called the A. What is the distance of the fault? A. The corresponding frequency for digit 7 in the touch tone telephone is A.52. If the reflection coefficient is 0. – 24 to – 64 Vdc 56.

both terminals having the same instantaneous voltage. First selector C. between the telephone set and the local central office. Toll points 66. C. and a common ground. All of the above 62. What is the local loop of a telephone system? A. A cell in the cellular telephone system means A. Voice repeater C. B. Subscriber loop D. A power source B. Large area . Which of the following responds to the request of a subscriber by sending a dial tone? A. Dial long lines B. Which of the ff. equipment is used in long loop design? A. A circuit having only two terminals. Line finder B. A circuit with one input terminal. C. It is a single piece of wire connecting the subscriber’s telephone set to another set in an adjacent room. 63. Primary center B. one output terminal. 120 dBm 64. Connector D. Regional center D. Loop range extender D. 0 dBm C. D. 90 dBm B. The other name of Class 2 office in the North American Switching Plan. 61. A circuit consisting of two transmission lines. It is a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer D. What is a two-wire circuit? A. It is a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customer’s premise and the central office B. Small area C. Leased line 60. A. It is a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modern C. Line equipment 65. 1 mW is equal to A. A circuit usually in the subscriber loop. Section C. -30 dBm D.

Triangle 71. Service area 67. 60 degrees 73. Cell splitting B. Base station B. 825 to 855 MHz . Square B. In order to provide 100% coverage without overlap. Cell sharing 70. Triangle C. Full duplex C. All of the above 72. 3 W 69. Echoplex D. Reuse D. Cellular phones transmit in the band from A. Hexagon cell shape B. 1 W D. 30 degrees C.O. 835 to 855 MHz C. What is the typical power output of a cellular phone? A. Rectangular D. cellular telephone system can use A. What is the beamwidth of the reflector of the receiving antenna in the base station A. 825 to 845 MHz B. D. The first cell shape is a square A. Half duplex B. D. Circle C. What is the linking point between cell phone and regular telephone? A. 20 degrees B. MTSO 68. Lincomplex 74. Control office C. 5 W B. C. 50 degrees D. 10 W C. Cell division C. A cellular phone operates on A. Rectangle D. When a single cell is divided into smaller cells that process is called A.

65 km C. 160 km D. 870 to 880 MHz D. Hand off C. 45 MHz C. 860 to 890 MHz 76. When the message is transferred from one cell site transmitter to another cell site transmitter as the caller crosses a boundary __________ process takes place. Mobility 81. A.15/870. The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally about A. Cell phone receives in the band from A.015/870. What is the sensitivity of a cellular receiver? A. 80 km B. 645 C. 825 to 865 MHz 75.015 MHz D. 20 dB B. 835.03/880. What is the frequency separation between the transmit and the receive channels? A. 870 to 890 MHz C. 666 79.03 MHz C. 40 dB . 655 D. Give off D. 625 B. 30 MHz B. 825. 16 km 80. 55 MHz D.030 MHz B. 40 MHz 77. 825.15 MHz 78. For channel 1. Large service area C. D. Turn over 82.030/870. Shifting B. Privacy B. 825. One of the following is not an advantage of a cellular telephone system A. transmit/receive frequency is A. No interference D. 860 to 880 MHz B. The number of transmit/receive channels in the cellular system is A.

IMTS C. Full duplex channels D. ±12 kHz D. MSTO D. Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units. Conversation channel B. 86. A. It is the number of erroneous bits received per unit of time C. A method of expressing the amplitudes of complex non-periodic signals such as speech. ±15 kHz B. Signaling channel D. 60 dB 83. Simplex channels B. What is the frequency deviation of the cellular telephone system? A. MTS B. 50 dB D. It is equal to the number of simultaneous calls originated during a specific hourly period. MTSO 87. Calling channel C. What is an Erlang? A. A. Remote channel 85. D. A phone call over the cellular network actually requires A. All of the cell base stations are linked together by _______ which serves as the central office and management node for the group. Wavelength . Hailing channel is otherwise known as A. Radio transmitter 88. ±75 kHz 84. It is a unit of magnetic field intensity measured around a conductor B. Pitch C. ±30 kHz C. A. C. Cell site C. Terrestrial link D. Volume B. Full/full duplex 89. It a unit of electrical energy radiated in space. Frequency D. Half duplex channels C. Database B.

Simplex B. Assures the customer that the telephone is working 96. _____ is picking up of the same station at two nearby points on the receiver dial. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network D. . Jitter D. It is an advantage of sidetone. A. Image frequency D. Hybrid B. What type of connector arrangement wherein a customer may move to another location and still retain the same telephone number. A. Full/full duplex 97. Double spotting B. Echo C. TPS D. Bail shot 93. VNL 92. 2-wire circuit C. A. Echo B. Crosslink 94. Radio communications between points using a single share frequency. Half-duplex D. Bridge C. Crosstalk 91. The transmission of information from multiple sources occurring on the same facility but not as the same time. Party line 95. TPL B.90. When one channel picks up the signal carried by another channel. Crosstalk C. Echo suppressor D. Singing B. Party line D. A. Transmission efficiency is increased B. A. Hot shot C. A. Full duplex C. A. ______ is a voice operated device that inserts a high loss in the opposite direction of transmission of the talking party. _______ is signal returned to the talker after one or more round trips between the talker and the listener. Speaker increase his voice resulting in a strengthened signal C.

Copying B. The most widely used fax standard is A. Which resolution produces the best quality fax? A. 400 lines per inch 103. Modulation D. Raditechnology B. 96 lines per inch B. Group 2 C. FDM B. PSK 104. the frequencies for black and white are ______ repectively. Light variation 100. A. 1500 and 2300 Hz B. Group 2 fax uses which modulation? A. Group 1 B. WDM D. Phototransistor C. 2300 and 1500 Hz C. CDM 98. Phototube B. Group 3 . SSB B. Vestigial sideband AM D. 1300 and 2400 Hz D. Liquid-crystal display D. Wired audio D. A. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into baseband electric signal by the process of A. FSK C. What is the most commonly used light sensor in a modern fax machine? A. Radiotelephony 99. 150 lines per inch C. Charge couple device 101. Audio frequency C. In FM fax. TDM C. When human voice and music are transmitted. 200 lines per inch D. Scanning C. 1070 and 1270 Hz 102. the type of communication employed is known as A.

Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a time period equal to an average holding time. A. What is the system used by Personal Communication Network (PCN)? A. Erlang D D. 132. The multiple access used by Digital European Cordless Telephone (DECT) A. CDMA B. Blocked calls delay condition specified delay probability A. D. D. A reflected signal. Erlang C . Erlang B B. QAM B. CDMA/FDMA 135. Erlang C C. What is an Echo? A. Cutting both ends of a conductor B. Load connected to the output end of a transmission line 134. AMPS D. TDMA D. TACS B. The signal having a higher frequency than the original and transmitted back to earth by a passive satellite. GFSK 130. Modified GSM C. C. Group 4 105. A signal of the same amplitude but 180 degrees out of phase from the original signal and mixed with the original signal at the transmitter to produce a more intelligible output signal B. Termination refers to A. FDMA C. Poisson 131. Disconnecting a line from a transmitter C. ASK C. A wave which has been reflected or otherwise returned with the sufficient magnitude and delay for it to be perceptible in some manner as a wave distinct from that directly transmitted. PSK D. Looking back impedance of a line with no load D. CDMA 133. Erlang B B. Group 3 fax uses which modulation? A.

832 B. Private All-purpose Broadcasting Exchange B. None of the above 137. Is used between serving central offices for long-distance connections. Cellular CDMA system uses what modulation method? A. Private Automatic Branch Exchange C. A. dial tone and ringing B. GSM C. CDMA D. All of the above D. 888 143. C. PABX means A. 416 C. A circuit consisting of four transmission lines. GFSK B. Is an oscillator that produces four different frequencies simultaneously D. ASK C. Busy tone. Erlang D D. What is a four-wire circuit? A. PSK 138. GFSK B. What is the voted cellular digital standard at TIA? A. QAM D. ASK C. with one pair being used for each direction of transmission. 666 D. Public Automatic Branch Exchange 141. 890-915 MHz . Poisson 136. The modulation technique used by DECT. TACS 142. Congestion and call charge data C. Digital AMPS B. 139. A. Is a circuit with three output terminals and one input terminal C. B. The mobile-to-base frequency assignment for GSM system is A. BPSK 140. QAM D. Public Access Bi-directional Exchange D. Status information provided by telephone signaling. What is the number of channels for Band A and for Band B in Digital AMPS A.

Singing D. Which of the following echo is completely out of control? A. 870-890 MHz D. Reverberation C. What is the system capacity of AMPS? A. VF repeater C.000 D. 825-845 MHz 144. 12 149. Loop extender B. 120. VF amplifier D. All of these 148. B. 9 B. 935-960 MHz C. 45 D. Numeric Assignment Module D. Radio capacity 146. NAM means A. Radio efficiency B. 30 C. Frequency reuse D. 11 D. Non Alternable Memory B. Feedback 147. Numeric Access Module . the CCITT recommends that the number of circuits in tandem must not exceed A. 60. The range (in miles) of a cellular CDMA system.000 C. Under ordinary circumstances. Worst echo B. In a cellular system. 100. ________ is used to measure the spectrum efficiency. A. Numeric Allocation Module C. 10 C. 30. Which of the following devices increase the battery voltage on a loop and extends its signaling range? A.000 B.000 150. Diversity C. 13 B. 20 145. A.

Modulation – Chapter 3 1. detection . R3E C. carrier frequency B. An FM receives signal ______. J3E C. converter D. A3J D. A. B8E 4. The process of impressing intelligence on the carrier is called A. suppressor C. deviation ratio 3. 40 dB D. A3H 8. modulator B. signal amplitude B. vary in frequency with modulation C. 50 dB B. vary in amplitude with modulation B. amplitude analyzer 6. baseband frequency D. modulation B. A. modulation frequency C. _______ determines the number of sideband components in FM. What produces the sidebands on FM? A. Which one of the following emission transmits the lower sideband and half of the upper sideband? A. broadband frequency 5. A3E D. is not immune to noise 9. beater 7. One of the following transmits only one sideband. carrier harmonics C. A. A. spectrum analyzer C. oscilloscope B. H3E B. Which test instrument displays the carrier and the sidebands amplitude with frequency to frequency? A. vary in frequency and amplitude with wideband modulation D. 60 dB C. 30 dB 2. A5C B. frequency analyzer D. A. Mixer is also known as a ________. ______ is the maximum sideband suppression value using filter system. modulation index D.

both a and c 12. Separator D. The difference between the RF carrier and the modulating signal frequencies is called the A.47 B. 1. modulation factor D.32 D. A. amplitude D. the information content 17.68 C.47 18. mixing D. 0. USB B. Oscillator B. The ratio of maximum deviation to the maximum modulating frequency is called A. frequency C.5 kHz audio signal having an amplitude of 45 V. What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the oscillator from the load? A. Buffer C. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is modulated by a 4. phase B. carrier frequency D. What part of the carrier is varied by the intelligence during modulation in an AM system? A. center frequency C. impression 10. digital counter D. carrier swing B. The modulation factor is . modulating frequency B. C. ______ is an electronic instrument used to show both the carrier and the sidebands of a modulated signal in the frequency domain. spectrum analyzer B. A carrier signal has A. oscilloscope C. Sideband D. constant amplitude B. Mixer 14. modulation index 16. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85 V. What is the modulation index? A. Carrier frequency 13. The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in FM system is A. 0. deviation frequency 15. 0. deviation ratio C. frequency counter 11. a varying amplitude D. LSB C. a frequency of 20 kHz and above C.

rest frequency D. Reactance modulator B. What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz when the modulating signal has frequency of 3 kHz? A.25 19. center frequency C. Decreases by ½ D. 1. Increases by ¼ 21. Heterodyne receiver 24.56 B.04 D. Balanced modulator C. 12. balanced modulator D. Single sideband reduced carrier emission type A. 0. R3A D. ring modulator C. 1. what will be the effect on the maximum deviation? A. Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of generating FM? A. A. H3E B. J3E D. H3E C. A3E 26. Maximum deviation doubles C.5 C. TRF receiver B. 0.08 20.78 D. Varactor diode modulator D. if modulation index is doubled by having the modulating frequency. Superheterodyne receiver C. Double sideband full carrier emission type A. Crystal radio receiver D. 0. filter modulator B. B8E . 0. No effect B. A3J B. reactance modulator 23. 25 B. An interfering signal with a frequency equal to the received signal plus twice the IF is called A. To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must use a circuit known as A. Which is the first radio receiver? A.65 C. interference frequency 25. In a FM system. image frequency B. R3E C. Armstrong system 22.

Better fidelity C. Phase modulation emission type. R3E C. Increase in noise B. A. Power saving B. F3C C. B8E 28. B8E 30. Deviation in the operating frequency C. Single sideband full carrier emission type. Wider area of reception D. Independent sideband emission type A. The advantage of a high level modulated AM transmitter is A. Which characteristic of a radio receiver refers to its ability to reject an unwanted signal? . A single sideband suppressed carrier emission type. J3E D. H3E B. R3E C. Vestigial sideband emission type A. J3E D. C3F B. A.27. Requires half the bandwidth C. Less audio power required B. Less distortion 35. R3E D. G3E 32. F3F D. Higher value of operating power D. F3E B. Less distortion 34. _____ is the bad effect caused by overmodulation in AM transmission. B8E 31. Which one is not an advantage of SSB over AM? A. The advantage of a low-level modulated AM transmitter is A. Higher value of operating power D. J3E C. H3E C. Interface to other radio services D. Better fidelity C. A. Better fidelity 33. A. H3e B. J3E D. Decrease in the output power 36. R3E B. B8E 29. Less audio power required B.

80% 41. 112. Band gap D. Fidelity D. Modulating signal C. 50% B. Amplitude shift keying 44. 53. Subcarriers that are arranged so that the channels occupying adjacent frequency bands with some frequency space between them is known as A. Sensitivity B. Selectivity C. 56. Guard bands B. Frequency B. Void band . Pulse-position modulation D. A. Homing 40. Capture effect C. the Carson’s Rule states that the bandwidth is equal to twice the sum of the modulating frequency and ______. 100% D. Frequency deviation D. A3E D. Modulation 39. In FM. F3E B. AM bands C. A. A. G3E C. 75% C. What is the highest percentage of modulation for AM? A. Carrier signal B. Hall effect B. A. AM transmission power increases with ________.25 kHz D. Source C.5 kHz 43. Image frequency D. What type of emission is frequency modulation? A. B3E 38. 48 kHz C. Quality 37. Single sideband suppressed carrier B. Frequency modulation C. Image frequency 42. The modulation system inherently more resistant to noise A. What is the carrier swing of an FM transmitter when modified by 75%? A.2 kHz B. Load D. _______ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal.

Phase C. Double 53. Directional propagation D. Amplitude modulation causes the amount of transmitter power to A. 50% C. A process which occurs in the receiver A. Contain harmonic frequencies D. Contain fundamental frequencies C. Modulation C. Power amplifier D. Smaller antennas C. Mixing B.45. Frequency B. What will be the result of the gain level being too high for signals entering the modulator? A. Depends on the type of modulation 50. Decrease C. Receiver noise B. What aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation? A. Antenna coupler 49. Increase B. A. 25% B. Beating B. Demodulation 47. A process which occurs in the transmitter A. Mixing D. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program will A. Amplitude D. Multiple channels B. Demodulation 48. All of the above 46. One part of the transmitter that protects the crystal oscillator from “pulling”. Buffer amplifier B. Excessive volume of receiver output C. Oscillator disturbances D. 75% D. When a carrier is modulated 100%. Heterodyning D. 100% . the total power increases by what percentage over that of the carrier alone? A. Remain the same D. Modulator C. Modulation C. All of the above 51. Be complex B. Distortion and splatter 52. Modulation of an RF amplifier carrier results in A.

B. 2 D. The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is 10MHz and the modulating frequency is 1 kHz. Both A and B 61. 1002. Base modulation B.3 kHz C. 1199. The modulation index will be increased by a factor of A. Both A and C 60. Decrease exponentially 55. 10 MHz C. 767 mA D. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500Hz tone. 750 mA C. Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppressed by one or more of the following methods.54. 840 mA 56. 1200 Hz B. Collector modulation D. Identify a modulation method. 800 mA B.7 kHz D. Both A and B . 9. C. A second modulating tone having the same amplitude but a different frequency is added to the first at the input to the modulator. Filter method C. or methods in use for a common-emitter configuration A. An increase in transmitter power from 25W to 30W will cause the antenna current to increase from 700mA to A.5 kHz D. Remain constant D. 10. the antenna current will A. Which one is a frequency component of the modulated wave? A. Increase B.999 MHz B. Phasing method B. A. 5000 Hz C. Emitter modulation C. A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. 1199. 1205 kHz 59. Decoder method D.0001 MHz D. 1195 kHz B. One frequency component of the modulated signal is A. Decrease C. 3 57. Which frequency. will not appear in the output? A. 2500 Hz 58. When the amplitude of the modulating voltage is increased for AM. or frequencies.

Phase angle D. when generating the modulating waveform for FM. If a positive change in modulation signal level of 200 mW will cause a positive frequency deviation of 10 kHz. Amplitude damage 64. Frequency C. Phase reversal C. Product detection requires the process of A. Frequency modulation and phase modulation are collectively referred to as A. Frequency C. Decoding D. Rectification 63. Angle modulation C. Frequency deviation 69. FCC modulation 67. Modulation D. Amplitude D. Heterodyning C. Angle amplitude C. Stereo B. High fidelity modulation D. the change in carrier frequency is proportional to what attribute of the modulating signal? A. A sine wave which is coherent with carrier has identical A. Heterodyning C. Rectification B. What is the modulation index? A. Amplitude B. Angle B. Mixing B. +5 kHz D. In FM. what will be the frequency deviation for a negative change of 10 mV in the level of the modulating signals? A. Both B and C 66. +0 kHz 70. Envelope detection is concerned with the process of A. 5 . Reduced sensitivity D. Phase shifting 65.62. Tone 68. will cause a greater A. A louder sound. Distortion B. Distortion at the receiver D. 0 B. A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results in a peak frequency deviation of 75 kHz. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in A. -5 kHz C. Carrier amplitude B.

Indirect FM B. whereby the phase deviation and frequency deviation are multiplied by some fixed constant. 75 D. A device. UJT C. AFC B. A quartz crystal filter D. A 15 kHz sine wave frequency modulates an 88 MHz carrier. Varactor diode B. Translation B. 3 71. is useful for direct FM and as one element in the phse- locked loop. AFC B. A triggered multivibrator . 15 C. A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be a function of the applied voltage A. SAW D. A reactance modulator is one method of obtaining A. now available in IC form. Demodulation D. The ratio detector is superior to the slope detector because A. A crystal-controlled oscillator C. A sideband frequency will be found at A. It is less sensitive to noise spikes C. It is less sensitive to interference causing AM D. Variable capacitor 73. AGC C. Direct FM C. Both B and C 78.015 MHz D. LPF 75. Foster-Seeley discriminator 77. VCO D. Decoder D. 87.970 MHz B. Addition 76. 88. _____ is a frequency change process. A free-running multivibrator B. Multiplication C. A. B. Envelope detector C. One implementation of a pulse averaging discriminator is A. Low frequency filtering 74. A circuit that has the function of demodulating the frequency-modulated signal. All of these 72.985 MHz C. Division D. 87. A. A. It is less sensitive to phase modulation B.

or advantages of a properly designed FM system. LSB and USB B. Audio signal B. Increased by 50% 86. Voltage-controlled oscillator D. A. the perfect modulation is ________. The inputs are identical 82. -10% B. A. 20 B. LSB C. A 10% increase in the frequency of a constant-width pulse train should cause what change in its average value? A. -1% C. The output of a balanced modulator A. Identify an advantage.79. Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation? A. Carrier 85. Reduced bandwidth required C. the transmitted power is A. The inputs are coherent C. 50 C. Have the same amplitude B. +1% D. No noise of any kind D. RF carrier D. USB D. If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is doubled in an AM signal. Have the same frequency 81. Are both sine waves of different frequencies C. Unchanged B. If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. Video signal C. Doubled D. Halved C. A quadrature detector requires that A. Binary coded pulses 87. the VCO is the abbreviation for A. Two different signals can be coherent if they A. The inputs are incoherent D. Variable coherent output B. 100 . Four gates bee provided B. Vien-count oscillator (neutralized) 83. The noise figure is inversely proportional to the modulation index 84. +10% 80. VHF communication oscillator C. Originate in the same physical equipment simultaneously D. In a phase-locked loop. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise (lightning) B.

A3E 91. A carrier signal has ________. 75% D. Twice the original index C. How much power required for the carrier? A. 200 88. What is the modulation index of an FM signal if its modulating frequency is doubled? A. Constant peak amplitude B. the AM system being used is A. An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100% modulation. C3F D. A. H3E B. 50% C. Frequency range of 20 – 20. The modulating system is _________ if the modulating frequency is doubled. If the modulation index if an AM wave is doubled. 1000 W . the antenna current is also doubled. 4 components D. No effect B. 83% D. 3 components C. Pulse modulation 95. Amplitude modulation B. A. and the modulating voltage remains constant. Lower sideband D. A. A varying amplitude D. Carrier B.66% 90. 50% C. A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _______. A. Phase modulation C. 2n + 1 components 93. Frequency modulation D. Upper sideband C. D. Four times the original index D. The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed. the modulation index is halved. 25% 92. Baseband signal 89. The information 94. the percentage power saving is __. 100% B.000 Hz C. 66. One-half the original index 96. 100% B. A. J3E C. Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in the equivalent suppresses the ___________ A. 2 components B. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by _______.

C3F C. Both frequency and phase modulation utilize ______ modulation. Modem D. ______ is kind of modulation in which the modulated wave is always present. A. Phase C. Percent modulation . 866. Q-band C. AHE D. Angle 101. Pulse modulation B. Which transmit only one sideband? A. Discriminator B. Baseband D. C-band B. Standard way of designating AM A. Broadband 100. Band B. C3F 98.3 W D. 666. It is the width of frequencies within the spectrum occupied by a signal and used by the signal for conveying information. A. _____ is an information signal that is sent directly without modulating any carrier. QAM D. Modulator C. H3E B. Continuous modulation C.6 W C. A type of modulation in which no signal is present between pulses. Detector 99. Square-wave modulation 104. B8E 103. FSK C. A. _____ is the circuit used to detect frequency modulated signal. 333. Log-periodic modulation D. PAM 105. Amplitude D. What describes the amount of amplitude change present in an AM waveform? A. A. Carrier modulation B. A3E D.6 W 97. B3E C. A3E B. A. Digital B. B. Electronic spectrum D. A. Frequency band 102. Bandwidth C.

The deviation is smaller C. 0. If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is increased by the same fixed amount. A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency doubler. Carrier shift D. Frequency translation C. After passing through a frequency tripler. 15. 7. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes. Active B. Both B and C 111. If the input signal frequency is 15. Sideband movement C. Coefficient of modulation 106. this known as A.3 radian C. the maximum phase deviation will be A. 0. _______ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when the positive and negative alternations in the AM modulated signals are not equal. Balanced modulator C.4 radian D.4 MHz C. Multipliers can be used B. Johnson noise 107. Simplicity and practicality D. Baseband reorientation D. B. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be A. this is known as A. High-Q tank circuit B. Modulation constant C. A sine wave of 293 MHz is phase-modulated to achieve a maximum phase deviation of 0.4 MHz. Envelope of modulation D. 61. The oscillator is crystal-controlled 108.6 MHz 112. Passive C. A. Linear . 0.8 MHz D. a circuit in the output will be tuned to A. Low-Q tank circuit D.2 radian B. Frequency translation 109.7 MHz B.6 radian 113. Spurious emission C. A device which is capable of causing frequency translation A. 0. What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct FM frequency modulation? A. Modulation B. IF strip 110.2 radian. 30. Frequency multiplication B. Up conversion D. Envelope distortion B.

Push-pull C. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single crystal. AGC circuit D. Indirect synthesis 122. Frequency generation D. All of these 120. Butterworth filter 118. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency doubling. One half-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier C. AFC . Indirect D. Deficient 119. Colpitts oscillator C. FM demodulator 116. Power amplification C. Identify an electronic device. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna connection D. Inexact C. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a A. Nonlinear 114. What words describe this synthesizer? A. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is A. 12 117. Angular modulation B. D. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the transmitter is keyed. Frequency division by 12 will require how many flip-flops in the counter? A. The term “pulling” refers to A. Indirect FM D. AM demodulator B. Balanced modulator D. When frequency modulation is achieved by initial phase modulation. A disadvantage of direct FM is the need for A. this is called A. 4 C. AGC B. Pull-push D. 6 D. Direct FM C. A. A. Wien bridge B. Frequency synthesizer C. Keyed transmitter B. not specifically designed for the purpose. 3 B. Crystal modulated B. Push-push B. which can be used as a phase detector. Pull-pull 115. 121. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading B.

Why is it often necessary to precede the demodulator by amplifier stages in a receiver? A. A reactance tube modulator B. A serious disadvantage of the TRF receiver. And AGC circuit D. Local oscillator B. Frequency allocation C. To eliminate image response D. Identify which is not a part of a superheterodyne receiver. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range B. Frequency substitution D. Frequency multiplication B. IF amplifier D. Autodyne C. A. To improve fidelity B. IF amplifier 129. Which major element of a superheterodyne receiver must be nonlinear? A. Direct FM can be achieved by A. The weight and cost C. IF amplifier 130. Local oscillator D. The key to achieving receiver sensitivity is the reduction of A. A varactor diode C. Phase modulation 123. Both A and B 124. TRF D. Mixer C. Superheterodyne B. Frequency translation 131. Mixer C. Demodulator 128. The change of the modulated carrier frequency from the original RF to the IF of the superheterodyne receiver is known as A. AFC 125. R-F amplifier B. A receiver in which all RF amplifier stages require manual tuning to the desired RF is called A. To reduce receiver noise C. R–F amplifier B. The requirements for a closely regulated power supply D. C. Weak antenna signals 126. A. Image response . A frequency synthesizer D. Local oscillator D. Modulator C. Which major element will not be found in every superheterodyne receiver? A. The requirements for a half-wave antenna 127.

the latter is A. Spurious frequency response D. The image frequency D. Reduction of receiver internal noise 133. Internal noise 132. For which frequency in the FM broadcast band will this be the image frequency? A. In comparing the S/N ratio for the input to the receiver with the S/N ratio for the output. Noise figure D.7 MHz. The image rejection ratio 138. Elimination of galactic noise B. An FM receiver with an I-F of 10. Mixer harmonic products C. B. What is the numerical value of the image frequency? A.3 MHz B. Smaller B. The core of an IF transformer usually contains A. 110.0 MHz C. Noise immunity B. 88. The ratio of the superheterodyne receiver response at the desired carrier frequency to that at the image frequency is called A. Teflon B. Elimination of atmospheric noise C. 99. 88. The selectivity C.7 MHz 137.1 MHz 136.4 MHz B.4 MHz D. Computer nylon . The same C. 109. The characteristic of a receiver that specifies the self-generated noise. Noise factor C.2 MHz D.9 MHz. A.5 MHz C. 77. The sensitivity B.7 MHz is tuned to 98. Which of the following receiver design objectives is not impossible? A. Infinite 134. Greater D. Noise margin 135. A source of RF interference exists at 109. Elimination of man-made noise D. 21. 120.

AFC 142. FM voice B. Squelch B. An increase of the oscillator frequency B. What device is incorporated in a communications receiver to reduce impulse noise? A. Squelch B. Squelch circuit C. The function which tends to silence the receiver in the absence of transmitted carrier. AFC 141. A lower frequency carrier B. A Morse-code signal D. AGC D. A. FSK data D. Bandwidth B. Double-sideband AM voice C. Laminated steel 139. _______ is the function which tends to maintain the sound volume level of a voice receiver nearly constant for a large signal strength range. The upper or lower set of sidebands 145. An decrease of oscillator frequency C. a more negative voltage on the grid of the reactance tube will cause A. C. Muting C. Critical coupling 140. SBB voice 144. A. reactance-tube modulator connected across an oscillator tuned circuit. Powdered iron D. The audio voice information C. An increase of the reactance-tube capacitance . AGC D. Coupling coefficient D. Front-end processor B. If the input to a detector stage is an amplitude-modulated (A3E) IF signal then the output from the stage is A. Noise blanker 143. Muting C. In a capacitive type. Shape factor is a measure of A. Skirt steepness C. AGC D. What type of signal in which a receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the I-F circuitry is optimum? A.

Behaves as a high-pass filter D. There is less dielectric loss D. Intermodulation C. Cross-modulation interference B. When a communications receiver is tuned to a strong signal. Image-channel interference 152. Stray coupling is minimized . Defective RF stage D. the modulation of an unwanted signal is transferred to the desired carrier. Limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level C. The noise floor of the receiver B. Receiver quieting D. Modulation mixing D. The term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received A. By passing the screen grid resistor with a 0. Defective local oscillator C. Crossmodulation B. The two-tone intermodulation distortion D. D. The limiter stage of an FM receiver A. Capture effect 149. A. Behaves as a bandstop filter 150. There is less hysteresis effect C. Grounding the screen grid B. Power supply output ripple C. Intermodulation interference C. Grounding the plate 151. The fault cannot be caused by a/an A. An effect in which. Open circuit in the AGC’s filter capacitor 148. Skin effect is reduced B. Leads should be kept as short as possible in radio circuit so that A. Defective IF stage B. Motorboating (low-frequency oscillations) in an amplifier can be stopped by A.1 µF capacitor D. An increase of the reactance tube ac plate current 146. Connecting a capacitor between the B+ and lead ground C. the AGC bias is measured and found to be zero. The limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver is A. Behaves as a low-pass filter B. The input impedance to the detector 147.

2 B. Mixer stage C. IF amplifier. A. detector D. 18 C. Tuner. Signal-to-noise ratio D. Filter ringing B. IF amplifier. detector. 16 D. RF amplifier. Blocking dynamic range B. local oscillator. Noise figure C. A. RF amplifier 159. What stage mainly determines a communication receiver’s sensitivity? A. Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage can be necessary in order to A. AF amplifier C. Cross-modulation distortion 158.153. The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the presence of strong signals outside the band of interest is indicated by what parameter? A. AF amp 157. Narrower bandwidth C. An amplitude modulation created in an amplifier before the final RF stage. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage C. Low-level modulation . mixer. Occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver A. The number of voice transmissions that can be packed into a given frequency band for amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems over conventional FM-phone systems. IF amplifier B. 4 154. Stages that are common to both AM and FM receivers A. Prevent the generation of spurious oscillations C. Reduce the level of the output harmonics 155. detector. Better signal-to-noise-ratio B. Tuner. Output-offset overshoot D. Increase the amplifier’s gain B. Total freedom from adjacent-channel interference 160. AF amplifier B. What is the main advantage of FM over AM? A. Greater propagation range D. Reduce the amplifier’s gain D. Local oscillator. frequency discriminator. RF amplifier. Audio output 156. Detector stage D.

What is the cause of receiver desensitizing? A. A3C D. Audio gain adjusted too low C. 3. In a narrow-band FM system. Indirect modulation 161. J3E D.000 Hz C. A type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal A. Adjusting the pass-band tuning 166. In the receiver front end 165. Direct modulation D. F3C 164. In the ionosphere D. Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal to noise ratio in a VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver? A. the deviation ratio is commonly one and the highest audio frequency is generally limited to A. 300 Hz B.000 Hz D. B. F3F C. A3F B. H3E 167. In the detector B. G3E C. Using a filter at the receiver C. High-level modulation C. Receiver desensitizing can be reduced by A. 7. Ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter 162. In the atmosphere C. Installing a filter at the receiver B. Increasing the receiver bandwidth D. Cross-modulation in a receiver can be reduced by A. 10. Squelch gain adjusted too high . Increasing the receiver’s RF gain while decreasing the AF D. What is the emission designation for FM telephony? A.500 Hz 163. F3E B. Increasing the transmitter audio gain B. Decreasing the receiver squelch gain C. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency B.

FM receiver 173. Two factors that determine the sensitivity of a receiver. One advantage of including this RF stage is A. Tight B. Better selectivity B. Adjusted for maximum power transfer . Greater sensitivity D. High selectivity occurs when the degree of coupling between a receiver’s RF stages is A. Cost and availability C. Critical D. Dynamic range and third-order intercept B. Improved signal-to-noise-ratio 170. Prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal B. Amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the carrier C. In a phase-modulated signal (indirect FM). Direct FM transmitter B. A system containing a limiter stage. D. a discriminator. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range 171. Indirect FM transmitter C. Filter ringing 172. Limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages D. Carrier amplitude only B. and a de-emphasis circuit? A. Better rejection ratio C. Limits the amount of frequency deviation in the IF signal C. Squelch gain adjusted too low 168. the frequency deviation is directly proportional to the A. Carrier frequency only D. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage B. What is an undesirable effect of using too-wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Modulating signal amplitude only 169. A. Loose C. Single sideband AM receiver D. An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in a superhet receiver. The limiter stage of an FM receiver A. Corrects any deviation in carrier frequency 174. Bandwidth and noise figure D. Thermal-noise distortion D. Output-offset overshoot C.

8 kHz 177. 4. Phase-modulator circuit D. The base in an RF amplifier is grounded in order to A. Avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage B. Lower the output impedance D. What is the emission C3F? A.4 kHz C. The AM detector performs two basic functions in the receiver. Amplifiers and filters C. The degree of selectivity desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband receiver.175. Direct FM modulator circuit B. Doubled B. Crystal B. All of these 181. the amount of the deviation is A. Multiplied by four 176. Television . Transformer D. Diode 178. The component most apt to break down in the radio circuit is the A. RF stage 182. Unchanged C. A. Buffer and amplifier D. Resistor C. Insulating enclosures around the receiver C. Rectifies and filters B. Wave trap D. SSB C. 2. Halved D. Obtain maximum power output 179. Buffer and detector 180. 1 kHz B. Receiver interference is not reduced by including a/an A. A carrier is phase modulated by a test tone. RTTY B. A varactor diode can be used in a/an A. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter C. A. Crystal filter B. Raise the input impedance C. If the amplitude and the frequency of the tone are both doubled. 4.2 kHz D.

A. single channel C. Mixer stage C. Approximately 25 to 1 C. 10 kHz above 188. De-emphasis circuit B.5 to 1 187. Squelch circuit D. In most mixers. Approximately 1000 W B. The same D. Features of a transmitter’s buffer stage include A. Modulated CW 183. what is the ratio of PEP-to-average power during a modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? A. single carrier D. Improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator D. Low input impedance 189. Approximately 600 W 184. What is the approximate dc input power to a class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output is 500 W? A. F3C . Approximately 100 to 1 D. A3C C. Higher B. Harmonic generation C. Lower C. Single sideband. suppressed carrier 186. D. Approximately 800 W C. Type of emission produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a television signal A. Approximately 2. For many types of voices. Single sideband. The letters “SSSC” stands for A.0 to 1 B. Approximately 250 W D. High stage B. Suppressed sideband. single carrier B. Approximately 1. Which of the following stages in an FM receiver is responsible for drastically reducing the effect of static noise during the reception of a signal A. the oscillator frequency is ______ than the carrier frequency of the input signal. Limiter stage 185. F3F B. Suppressed sideband.

What is capture effect? A. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal C. Output signal from the crystal oscillator D. What stage feeds the discriminator of an FM receiver? A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors B. A way of eliminating auto interference to radio reception A. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier C. Modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier C. How is G3E FM-phone signals produced? A. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors 191. Buffer 195. which also acts as a limiter stage D. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver B. Discriminator 196. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver D. IF amplifier D. Audio amplifier C. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator D. the stage that has the IF signal is input and the audio signal output. Limiter B. Mixer stage C. Using a balanced modulator followed by a filter . Local oscillator B. Installing two copper-braid ground strips 193. A double-sideband phone signal can be generated by A. Feeding a phase-modulated signal into a low-pass filter B. A network is A. Installing capacitive spark plugs C. Transmitter’s output signal when the modulation is present B. Installing resistors in series with the spark plugs D. An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground D. The carrier in an AM transmitter is the A. Transmitter’s output signal when the modulation is zero C. RMS value of the AM signal 194. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal 197. A. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator 192. A3F 190. D. A power incidence network C. Final IF amplifier. A network consisting modulator on the audio amplifier B. In an FM receiver. Installing resistive spark plugs B.

Facsimile C. What is the resultant effect on other station? A. VHF receiver 201. Of inverting sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier 200. The term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signal of a nearby station transmitter in the same frequency band? A. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal B. VHF transmitter D. Spurious interference D. Television D. Desensitizing . Cross-modulation interference C. Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improve the signal-to-noise ratio of A. A3F 203. The result of cross-modulation is that A. Two AM transmitting antennas are close together. F3C B. Squelch gain rollback D. FM receiver C. F3F D. As a result the two modulated signals are mixed in the final RF stage of both transmitters. What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal? A. Low modulating frequencies C. Intermodulation interference C. A3C C. Frequencies carrier 199. Crossmodulation interference 204. Harmonic interference B. AM B. Detuning a Hartley oscillator 198. FM transmitter B. High modulating frequencies B. Which of the following contains de-emphasis circuit? A. Quieting B. D. RTTY 202. All modulating frequencies D. Of receiver quieting D. What is emission F3F? A. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals C.

Insufficient audio modulation 207. The purpose why an RF amplifier is operated under linear class-B conditions (as opposed to class-C) is to A. Operating bandwidth D. Normally. Projected cut-off 211.205. A normal condition B. Cross-modulation interference . Amplitude of the carrier B. Modulating frequency C. Highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency 209. whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz D. Operating frequency of the assigned frequency C. This means A. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the A. Amplify of an AM signal 212. The main purpose of the beat frequency oscillator (BFO) is to generate A. A signal. Carrier frequency D. Aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals C. Bandwidth of emission and occupied bandwidth C. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating frequency B. A class-C RF amplifier is collector amplitude modulated and its average dc level collector current does not change. Increase the efficiency D. Generate only odd harmonics C. a linear class BRF power amplifier operates with a bias approximately equal to A. Excessive drive to the base C. Generate only even harmonics B. Twice cut-off B. Frequency swing to the modulating frequency D. both sidebands and harmonics? A. An output. 50% of cut-off value D. A. Insufficient drive to the base D. What determines the percentage modulation of an FM transmitter? A. All of these 206. The term used to refer to the condition where the signal from a very strong station are superimposed on other signal being received. Ten times cut-off value C. Authorized bandwidth B. What is the bandwidth occupied by the carrier. A 1 kHz not for Morse reception B. Amplitude of the modulating signal 208. whose frequency is the same as intermediate frequency 210.

Peak-to-peak voltage B. FM compressibility B. B. A. Cross-modulation interference D. 20 kHz B. Over-modulation 219. Capture effect B. Facsimile C. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a modulation factor of 12. Double-sideband AM 218. Percentage of modulation D. SSTV and CW 215. In an FM-phone signal. Desensitization C. The type of emission that suffer most from selective fading. RMS voltage D. SSB and TV C. _________ is the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope. Under-modulation C. Capture effect 213. A. 270 kHz . Zero beat B. Receiver quieting D. ________ is the ratio between the actual frequency deviation to the maximum frequency deviation. CW and SSB B. Intermodulation distoriotion C. Quieting index 216. If the envelope of modulation is constant in amplitude this means A. SSB voice B. A. Inverse peak positive voltage C. _______ is used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal. A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of singals? A. Frequency discrimination 217. Modulating index C. A. FM D. Zero-modulation D. Peak negative voltage 214.5 and a modulating frequency of 10 kHz? A. FM and double sideband AM D.

Rectification B. Cavity resonator D. What is the most commonly used amplitude demodulator? . 250 kHz D. Inductor 222. Linear mixing B. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. Variable resistance D. A. Multiplexing 221. PIN diode 225. Amplitude modulation is the same as A. Demodulator C. 96 V D. 48 V C. Which component is used to produce AM at very high frequencies? A. Varying the gain of an amplifier 223. Crystal set 227. Having the carrier vary a resistance B. Amplification C. Thermistor C. What is the peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for 100 percent modulation? A. Varying the carrier frequency D. Transformer C. 120 V 226. Mixer D. One of the following can produce AM. Varactor diode B. C. Absorption 224. Analog multiplication C. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance C. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by passing it through an attenuator network is the principle of A. The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an _______ on a diode modulator. What circuit recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal? A. The tuned circuit B. Capacitor D. 24 V B. 45 kHz 220. Signal summation D. A. Modulator B.

Rectifier C. Mixer D. Phase inversion 235. In the phasing method of SSB generation. Constant current source 233. Mechanical resonators C. The output of a balanced modulator is A. Switches C. A. DSB 232. SSB D. _________ is a widely used balanced modulator. Class C amplifier D. What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands and suppresses the carrier? A. Diode bridge circuit B. Lattice modulator D. Balanced modulator C. Phase shifting B. Amplitude modulator B. LC networks B. Diode detector C. Envelope detector B. Crystal set 228. Balanced modulator 229. Bridge D. A. In a diode ring modulator. Balanced bridge modulator 230. The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a A. Crystals D. Variable resistors B. A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is call a/an . the diodes act like A. Sharp selectivity C. one sideband is canceled out due to A. Full-wave bridge rectifier C. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses A. FM C. AM B. Rectifiers D. Variable capacitors 231. Carrier suppression D. Differential amplifier B. RC networks and op amps 234.

Class B C. Lowe-frequency variations C. The AM signals generated at a low level may only be amplified by what type of amplifier? A. Lower efficiency 240. Capture effect D. Lower complexity and cost 239. Class A B. Divider D. Product detector C. Low-pass filter 242. Modulator B. Multiplier C. Linear summing D. Random level shifts D. Converter D. Rectification B. High-frequency spikes B. Summer B. Noise is primarily A. Greater efficiency B. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a A. All of the above . Excessive use of spectrum space C. Noise susceptibility D. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as A. Mixer 237. Noise immunity C. AM C. Random frequency variations 241. Limiter D. Higher cost and complexity B. The primary disadvantage of FM is its A. A. Class C D. Demodulator C. Transponder B. Remodulator 236. Filtering 238. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the A. Which of the following is not a major advantage of FM over AM? A.

Single sideband with carrier C. Lattice modulator D. All of these 250. Transformer B. What is the output of a balanced modulator? A. The acronym SSSC refer to A. Resonant circuit C. PLL circuit C. Diode detector B. None of these . DSB C. VCO D. single carrier B. Phase-shift circuit 245. Suppressed sideband. BFO C. Suppressed sideband. Full-wave bridge circuit B. All of these 249. suppressed carrier D. AM B. Recreation 248. A circuit used to select the desired output from a mixer A. Which process occurs in the receiver? A. Filter D. SSB D. Balanced bridge modulator C. Which of the following is the most widely used amplitude modulator A. Ratio detector D.243. SSB means A. Single sideband with suppressed carrier B. Double sideband with no carrier D. Which of the following is the most widely used balanced modulator A. Single sideband. Single sideband with reduced carrier 244. ISB 246. What is usually used to demodulate SSB or CW signal? A. single carrier 247. Demodulation B. suppressed carrier C. Single sideband. PLL B. Modulation D. Reception C.