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Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 Hours

Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 200

for

NTSE (Stage-I) 2017-18

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Use blue/black ball point pen only. There is no negative marking.

2. This test booklet contains 200 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory.

3. Part-I : MAT : 1 - 50 questions

Part-II : Language : 51 - 100 questions

Part-III : SAT : 101 - 200 questions

4. Answer each question by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR Sheet

with blue/black ball point pen.

Example :

Q. No. Alternatives

Correct way : 1 1 2 4

Q. No. Alternatives

Wrong way : 1 1 2 3 4

Student must darkening the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR Sheet.

5. Disparity in mentioning (SC, ST & PH) in application form and OMR Sheet can make your candidature

invalid.

6. Students are not allowed to scratch/ alter/ change out an answer once marked on OMR Sheet, by using

white fluid/ eraser/ blade/ tearing/ wearing or in any other form.

7. Separate Sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

8. Please handover the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.

*Take all your question booklets with you.

9. Darken completely the ovals of your answers on OMR Sheet in the time limit allotted for that particular

paper.

10. Your OMR Sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and incorrect entries

may render your OMR Sheet invalid.

11. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc., is strictly prohibited.

1

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Directions (Q.1 to Q.5) : In the Number series given 5. 2, 35, 104, 209, .....

below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by

(1) 350 (2) 248

five alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). One of them is

the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the (3) 256 (4) 311

“Instructions”. (5) 413

1. 13, 74, 290, 650, ..... Answer (1)

(1) 1248 (2) 1470

Sol. 2, 35, 104, 209, 350

(3) 1346 (4) 1452

(5) 1625 33 69 105 14

Answer (No Key) 36 36 36

2. 1, 11, 35, 79, ..... Directions (Q.6 to Q.10) : In each of the following

(1) 81 (2) 93 questions, a letter series is given, III which some letters

are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper

(3) 149 (4) 124

sequence as one of the alternative. Find the correct

(5) 136 alternative.

Answer (3) 6. A.....BBC.....AAB.....CCA.....BBCC

Sol. 1, 11, 35, 79, 149, (1) BACB (2) ABBA

(3) CABA (4) AABC

10 24 44 70 (5) ACBA

Answer (5)

14 20 26

3. 1, 5, 15, 34, ..... Sol. AAB BCC AAB BCC

(1) 50 (2) 48 7. BC....B....C....B....CCB

(3) 37 (4) 65 (1) BBCB (2) CBBC

(5) 72 (3) CBCB (4) BCBC

Answer (4) (5) CCBB

Sol. 1, 5, 15, 34, 65, Answer (3)

6 9 12 8. C.....BBB.....ABBBB.....ABBB.....

4. 3, 13, 31, 57, ..... (1) BACBB (2) AABCB

(1) 65 (3) ABACB (4) ABCCB

(2) 72 (5) ABBCC

(3) 88 Answer (4)

(4) 94 9. C.....BCCD.....CCDB.....CDBCC.....BC

(5) 91

(1) DBCD (2) DBDD

Answer (5)

(3) BDAA (4) BDCD

Sol. 3, 13, 31, 57, 91 (5) DCBD

10 18 26 34 Answer (1)

2

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

are placed in the figures on the basis of some rules. One

(1) AABB (2) BABB

place is vacant which is indicated as ‘?’. Find out the

(3) BAAB (4) ABBA correct alternatives to replace the question mark ‘?’

(5) ABAA

Answer (4)

16.

Sol. BAAB BAAB ..........

wrong due to wrong order of signs. Choose the correct

order of signs from the five alternatives given under each (3) 16 (4) 17

question, so that the equations , becomes right. Write it (5) 18

in your answer sheet against the corresponding question

Answer (4)

number.

Sol. 32 28 31 30 121 112

11. 6 3 4 22

2

(1) (2) 72 70 73 74 289 17

(3) (4)

(5) 17.

Answer (1)

12. 12 3 4 11 (1) 14 (2) 15

(3) 16 (4) 17

(1) (2)

(5) 18

(3) (4)

Answer (No Key)

(5)

Answer (3)

13. 16 4 3 7 18.

(1) (2)

(1) 12

(3) (4)

(2) 15

(5) (3) 18

Answer (5) (4) 21

14. 7 3 8 13 (5) 24

(3) (4)

(5) 19.

Answer (2)

(1) 7 (2) 9

15. 15 3 4 9

(3) 4 (4) 5

(1) (2)

(5) 10

(3) (4) Answer (5)

(5) Sol. 11 7 9 9

Answer (4) 14 7 11 10

3

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

(1) 3 (2) 2

20.

(3) 5 (4) 0

25. The code for P is .....

(5) 6

(1) 3 (2) 8

Answer (5)

(3) 0 (4) 1

Sol. 5 13 12 30

(5) 6

Digits difference is 3 Answer (4)

7 5 16 28 Directions (Q.26 to Q.30) : There are six persons in a

Digits difference is 6 family A, B, C, D, E and F.

Directions (Q.21 to Q.25) : Some letters are given in (i) C is the sister of F.

column I and some digits are given in column II. Each (ii) A is the brother of the husband of E.

digit of column II represents any letter of column 1. Study (iii) D is the father of A and D is the grand father of F.

the columns and write the alternative letter after choosing (iv) There are two fathers , three brothers and a ‘mother

the correct alternative against the corresponding in the family.

question.

On the basis of above details, choose the correct

Column I Column II alternative.

ABLMS 24538 26. What is the relationship between E and F?

QRLBA 93526 (1) Daughter (2) Son

PTQAB 52601 (3) Husband (4) Grandson

LRNPQ 93716 (5) Father-in-Law

ATRNP 29071 Answer (2)

MSPTQ 84106 27. Who is the mother?

QPNAR 16729 (1) E (2) D

RABLS 29583 (3) C (4) B

TSLBA 80325 (5) A

28. How many male members are there in this family?

21. The code for M is.....

(1) One (2) Two

(1) 0 (2) 8

(3) Three (4) Four

(3) 1 (4) 6

(5) Five

(5) 4

Answer (4)

Answer (5)

29. Who is the husband of E?

22. The code for N is .....

(1) F (2) D

(1) 9 (2) 6

(3) B (4) C

(3) 1 (4) 7

(5) A

(5) 2

Answer (3)

Answer (4) 30. How many persons are there in the category of

23. The code for A is ..... brothers?

(1) 9 (2) 5 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 2 (4) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2

(5) 3 (5) 3

Answer (3) Answer (5)

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Directions (Q.31 to Q.35) : There are four terms in each Directionls (Q.36 to Q.40) : In each of the following

.question. The term right to symbol .. have some questions, in four out of the five figures of element I is

relationship as the term of the left to symbol :: and out related to element II in some particular way. Find out the

of the four, one term is missing, which is among one of figure in which the element is not related ·to element II.

the given five alternatives. Find the correct alternatives.

31. KMF : LLH :: RMS : ...?...

36.

(1) TVT (2) SUS

(3) SLR (4) SSU Answer (1)

(5) SLU

Answer (5) 37.

+1

+1 -1

-1

+2 +2

38.

32. GFH : EGG :: ...?... : FSS

Answer (3)

(1) GHF (2) HRT

(3) HGF (4) HFG

39.

(5) GEF

Answer (2) Answer (5)

G F H E G G H R T F S S

Sol.

-2 -2 40.

+1 +1

-1 -1

Answer (2)

33. UVST : WTUR :: ...?... : RILO

Directionls (Q.41 to Q.45) : Out of the five figures (1),

(1) PKJQ (2) TSUV (2), (3), (4), (5) given in each problem, four are similar in

(3) UVTS (4) TSVU a certain way. Choose the figure which is different from

(5) SRUT the other figures.

Answer (1)

Sol. U V S T : W T U R P K J Q : R I L O

41.

+2 +2

-2 -2

+2 +2 Answer (5)

-2 -2

(1) Actor (2) Producer 42.

(3) Director (4) Musician

(5) Audience Answer (5)

Answer (3)

35. Smoke : Pollution :: War : ...?... 43.

(1) Victory

(2) Death Answer (4)

(3) Army

(4) Enemy 44.

(5) Treaty

Answer (2) Answer (4 (or) 5)

5

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

48.

45.

Answer (4 (or) 5)

Directionls (Q.46 to Q.50) : Each of the following

questions consists of the five figures marked A, B, C, D

and E called the problem figures followed by five

alternatives marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the answer Answer (3)

figures. Select a figure which will continue the same 49.

series established by the five problem figures.

46.

Answer (3)

Answer (1) 50.

47.

Direction (Q.51 to Q.55) : Read the following passage Otherwise something good can turn into evil. Culture,

and answer the questions given after it. which is essentially good, become not only static but

Nationalism, of course, is a curious phenomenon which aggressive and something that breeds conflict and

at a certain stage in a country’s history gives life, hatred, when looked at from a wrong point of view. How

growth and unity but at the same time, it has a will you find a balance, I don’t know. Apart from the

tendency to limit one because one thinks of one’s political and economic problems of the age, perhaps,

country as something different from the rest of the that is the greatest problem today because behind it,

world. One’s perceptive changes and one is there is tremendous search for something, which cannot

continuously thinking of one’s own struggles and virtues be found. We turn to economic theories because they

and failing to the exclusion of their thoughts. The resu.lt have an undoubted importance. It is folly to talk of culture

is that the same nationalism, which is the symbol of or even of god, when human beings starve and die. Before

growth for people, becomes a symbol of cessation of one can talk about anything else, one must provide the

that growth in mind. Nationalism, when it becomes normal essentials of life to human beings. That is.where

successful, sometimes goes on spreading in an economics comes in. Human beings today are not in

aggressive way and becomes a danger internationally. mood to tolerate this suffering and starvation and

Whatever line of thought you follow, you arrive at the inequality, when they. see that the burden is not equally

conclusion that some kind of balance must be found. shared. Others profit, while they only bear the burden.

6

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

51. Negative national feeling can make a nation .. . 56. Nehru thought that children .....

(1) selfish (2) self centred (1) were trailing clouds of glory

(3) indifferent (4) dangerous (2) held promise for a better future

Answer (4) (3) were like flowers to be loved and admired

52. The greatest problem in the middle of the passage (4) held no hope for mankind

refers to the question ..... Answer (2)

(1) how to mitigate hardship to human beings 57. Nehru enjoyed .....

(2) how to share the economic burden equally (1) reading and writing books.

(3) how to contain the dangers of aggressive (2) fighting with benevolent power.

nationalism

(3) respecting tyranny

(4) how to curb international hatred.

(4) resisting believers as he is a self proclimed non

Answer (3) believer.

53. Aggressive nationalism ..... Answer (1)

(1) endagers national unity 58. Which of the statements reflects Nehru's point of

(2) leads to stunted growth view?

(3) breeds threat to international relations (1) Humanism is more important than science

(4) isolates a country (2) Science is supreme and humanism is

Answer (3) subordinate to it

54. 'Others' in the last sentence refers to ..... (3) Science and humanism are equally important

(1) other neighbours (2) other nations (4) There is no ground between humanism and

science

(3) other people (4) other communities

Answer (3)

Answer (3)

59. In this passage, "a benevolent power interested in

55. Suitable title for this passage is ..... men's affairs" means.....

(1) Nationalism and national problems (1) beauty of nature

(2) Nationalism is not enough (2) a supernatural power of god

(3) Nationalism breeds unity (3) the spirit of science

(4) Nationalism, a road to world unity (4) the total man

Answer (1) Answer (2)

Direction (Q.56 to Q.60) : Read the following passage 60. A many sided personality means ......

and answer the questions given after it.

(1) a complex personality

Nehru was a many sided personality. He enjoyed reading

and writing books, as much as he enjoyed fighting (2) a secretive person

political and social evils or residing tyranny. In him, the (3) a person having varied interests

scientist and the humanist were held in perfect balance. (4) a capable person

While he kept looking at special problems from a

scientific standpoint, he never forgot that we should Answer (3)

nourish the total man. As a scientist, he refused to Direction (Q.61 to Q.65) : Read the following passage

believe in a benevolent power interested in men’s affairs. and answer the questions given after it.

But as a self proclaimed nonbeliever, he loved affirming The casual horrors and real disasters are thrown on a

his faith in life and the beauty of nature. Children he newspaper reader without discrimination. In the

adored. Unlike, Wordsworth he did not see them as contemporary arrangements for circulating the news, an

trailing clouds of glory from the recent sojourn in heaven. important element, evaluation is always weak and often

He saw them as a blossoms of promise and renewal, the wanting entirely. There is no point anywhere along the

only hope for mankind. line somewhere someone puts his foot down for certain

7

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

and says, “This is important and that does not amount Direction (Q.66 to Q.71 ) : In the following passage,

to row of beans; deserves no ones attention and should there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by

travel the wires no farther”. The junk is dressed up to look selecting the most appropriate word for each blank.

as meaningful as the real news. Recent discoveries show that Indians of early days 66 to

61. Evaluation of news would imply ..... have been highly civilised in many ways. They had massive

public buildings and comfortable dwelling houses 67 mostly

(1) less dependence on modern systems of

by brick. They had 68 arrangements 69 good sanitation

communication.

and an elaborate drainage system. They knew how to write

(2) More careful analysis of each news story and its 70 their language which has not yet been 71 was not

value. alphabetic but syllabic like the Sumerian language.

(3) separating beans from junk 66. (1) intend (2) appear

(4) discriminating horrors from disasters. (3) behave (4) decided

Answer (2)

Answer (3)

67. (1) designed (2) formulated

62. The writer of the above passage ...

(3) built (4) construct

(1) seems to be happy with the contemporary Answer (3)

arrangements for circulating news. 68. (1) ignored (2) made

(2) is shocked by the casual stories about horrors (3) started (4) less

and disasters reported in the newspaper. Answer (2)

(3) wants better evaluation of news before 69. (1) inspite (2) by

publication (3) from (4) for

(4) wants to put his foot down on news stories Answer (4)

70. (1) but (2) because

Answer (2)

(3) while (4) since

63. In the above passage, the phrase "amounts to a row Answer (1)

of beans" means that the news ..... 71. (1) talked (2) written

(1) is weak and often wanting entirely (3) deciphered (4) formed

(2) deserves no one attention Answer (3)

(3) should travel the wires Direction (Q.72 & Q.73) : The following sentences are

from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences /

(4) is junk, dressed up as real news. parts are given. Choose the order in which the four

Answer (2) sentences / parts (PQRS) should appear to complete the

64. Newspapers lack a sense of discrimination paragraph.

because.... 72. S1 : The dictionary is the best friend of your task

S2 : .................................................................

(1) they do not separate the real news from mere

sensationalism S3 : .................................................................

S4 : .................................................................

(2) they have to accept whatever is received on the

S5 : .................................................................

wires

S6 : Soon you will realize that this is an exciting

(3) limited man power makes serious evolution

task

impossible

P : That may not be possible always

(4) people don't see the difference between 'junk' Q : It is wise to look it up immediately

and 'real' news.

R : Then it must be firmly written on the memory

Answer (1) and traced at the first opportunity.

65. The passage implies that ..... S : Never allow a strange word to pass

(1) there has to be censorship on newspapers. unchallenged.

Choose the correct sequence from the options given

(2) there is no point in having censorship

below.

(3) newspapers always dress up junk to look real (1) PQRS (2) QRPS

(4) one has to be strict in selecting news items (3) SQPR (4) SPRQ

Answer (3) Answer (3)

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

73. S1 : Calcutta, unlike other cities, kept its trams. 80. Radha : Your failure in the exam comes down to

S2 : ................................................................. your lack of studying.

S3 : ................................................................. Uzma : I Know. I needed to have ...

S4 : ................................................................. (1) prepared thoroughly more

S5 : ................................................................. (2) thoroughly more prepared

S6 : The foundation stone was laid in 1972. (3) thorough preparation more

P : As a result, there was horrendous congestion (4) prepared more thoroughly

R : They run down the centre of the road 81. Anyone wishing to work as a secret agent must first

undergo a ..... background investigation.

S : To ease in, the city decided to build an

(1) tiny (2) handy

underground railway line.

(3) stingy (4) stringent

Choose the correct sequence from the options given

below. Answer (4)

(1) PRSQ (2) RPSQ 82. A: Did Priya apologize after the argument?

Direction (Q.74 to Q.77) : For each of the following (3) better had to (4) should rather

groups of four words, find the incorrectly spelt word. Answer (4)

74. (1) Imperative (2) ilicit 83. If you refuse to work hard, your endeavors will

amount ... nothing.

(3) imminent (4) immature

(1) for (2) to

Answer (2)

(3) with (4) by

75. (1) logical (2) ludicrucous

Answer (2)

(3) lonesome (4) laughter

84. There is no reason ... over spilled milk.

Answer (2)

(1) to cry (2) to save

76. (1) Periphery (2) advurtise

(3) to serve (4) to boil

(3) Courteous (4) indefinite

Answer (1)

Answer (2) 85. Grain is commonly used as ..... for animals.

77. (1) dismiss (2) dispel (1) commodity (2) fodder

(3) disservice (4) discribe (3) implements (4) fumigation

Answer (4) Answer (2)

Direction (Q.78 to Q.85) : Select the most appropriate Direction (Q.86 to Q.90) : Choose the one which best

option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives. expresses the meaning of the given phrase.

78. .....you shout at your children, ..... they will ignore 86. At. close quarters

it. (1) close examinations

(1) more / more (2) the more / the more (2) live near to each other

(3) the more / the most (4) the most / the most (3) live far to each other

Answer (2) (4) in love

79. My laddus weren't ... a disaster .... I'd thought they Answer (2)

would be, but they didn't taste very good. 87. an apple of discord

(1) such / as (2) so / that (1) cause of wealth (2) cause of quarrel

(3) as / as (4) more / than (3) cause of happiness (4) cause of illness

Answer (1) Answer (2)

9

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

(1) very famous (2) not famous (1) block (2) vague

(3) abscond (4) very far (3) obstruct (4) vague

(1) proper (2) uncommon

(1) face a difficulty or danger confidently

(3) noteworthy (4) precise

(2) run away from a difficulty or danger

Answer (4)

(3) face a difficulty or danger boldly

Direction (Q.96 to Q.100) : Select the word which

(4) pull the bull's horns means the opposite of the given word.

Answer (3) 96. open minded

90. buckle down (1) zealous (2) prejudiced

(1) work seriously (2) take it easy (3) shrewd (4) unpretentious

(3) drop a subject (4) go for a vacation Answer (2)

Answer (1) 97. dependable

Direction (Q.91 to Q95) : Select the word which means (1) judgemental (2) patient

the same as the given words. (3) fickle (4) cautious

91. abandon Answer (3)

(1) try (2) join 98. impertinent

Answer (2)

92. detest

99. extravagance

(1) love (2) to hate intensely

(1) luxury (2) poverty

(3) neglect (4) to support

(3) economical (4) cheapness

Answer (2)

Answer (4)

93. tentative

100. obscure

(1) prevalent (2) portable

(1) implicit (2) obnoxious

(3) wry (4) provisional (3) explicit (4) pedantic

Answer (4) Answer (3)

101. A car starts moving along a line, first with an Sol. : Sol. a = 5 m/s2; u = 0

acceleration a = 5ms -2 starting from rest, then v

uniformly and finally decelerating at the same rate,

comes to rest in the total time of 25 seconds (t1),

then average velocity during the time is equal to v vm

= 72 kmph. How long does the particle move

uniformly? 5 5

(1) 25 Seconds (2) 2.5 hours t

(3) 1.5 Hours (4) 15 Seconds t (25 - 2t) t

Answer (4) vm = 5t

10

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

1

stot 2 v m v m (25 2t )

v avg ⇒ 20 2

ttot t 25 10 cm

⇒ 20×25 = 5t2 + 125t - 10t2 Sol. 10 cm

3/2

⇒ 5t2 - 125t + 500 = 0

⇒ t2 - 25t + 100 = 0 For refraction at spherical surface

25 625 400 25 15 n2 n1 n2 n1

t

2 2 v u R

40

t = 5s (or) t 20s 3/2 1 1/ 2

2 ⇒

v ( 10) 10

Time for uniform motion is = 25 - 2(5) = 15s

102. A uniform rod of length ‘L ‘ and density ‘p’ is being 3 1 1

⇒

pulled along a smooth floor with horizontal 2V 20 10

acceleration a as shown in the figure. The 3 1

magnitude of the stress at the transverse ⇒

2v 20

crosssection through the mid-point of the rod is .....

l ⇒ v 30cm

seen from glass

From flat face it is at 40 cm in glass when it is

observed from air

d 40

l dapp

(1) (2) 4 l (3 / 2)

4

2

l 40 26.67cm

(3) 2 l (4) 3

2

Answer (4) 104. A dynamometer D (a force meter) is attached to two

masses M=10 kg and m = 1 kg. Forces F = 2kgf

M=LA/2 M=LA/2

and f = 1 kgf are applied to .the masses. Find out

A

in which of the case gives maximum reading.

Sol.

l

(B) F is applied to m and F to M.

problem).

LA T L

T ⇒ stress

2 A 2 (D) IfM is doubled to m. (Ignore m, M values in the

103. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from the problem).

curved surface of a glass hemisphere of radius 10 (1) A

cm. Find the position of the image from the flat

surface. (2) B

(3) 2 cm (4) 19.67 cm (4) D

Answer (1) Answer (2)

11

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Sol. When F is applied to M & f to m 105. A 20g bullet pierces through a plate of mass Ml =

1 kg and then comes to rest inside a second plate

10 1kg R of mass M2 = 2.98 kg as shown in the figure. It is

found that the two plates initially at rest and now

a

move with equal velocities. Find the percentage loss

in the initial velocity of the bullet when it is between

10 10kg 20

M1 and M 2. (Neglect any loss of material of the

a plates due to the action of bullet).

20 10 10

a

11 11

R 10 1(a )

10 120

⇒ R 10 N

11 11 (1) 15% (2) 25%

When F is applied to m & f is to M. (3) 50% (4) 72.5%

Answer (2)

F 1kg R

Sol. Let u initial velocity of bullet

a v velocity of bullet between plates

v1 velocity of M1 & (bullet + M2)

R 10kg F

1 1 2

mb (u 2 v 2 ) M1v 1

a 2 2

10 mbv 20 10 3 v 20V 10 3

a v1

11 mb M 2 0.02 2.98 3

20 - R = 1(a)

mbu mbv M1v 1

10

⇒ R 20 ⇒ M1v 1 mb (u v )

11

210 mb (u v )

⇒R N ⇒ v1

11 M1

When M = m = 5 kg mbv m (u v )

b

20 10 mb M 2 M1

a 1m / s 2

10 v u v

⇒

3 1

F 5kg R 4v 3u

⇒ u⇒v

3 4

1

u v

20 - R = 5(1) u% 100

u

⇒ R 15N

u 3u / 4

100 25%

When M = 2m 4

20 10 10 106. A U-tube of uniform cross-section (see fig) is partially

a filled with a liquid L. Another liquid L1which does not

3m 3m

mix with liquid L is poured into one side. It is found

F m R that the’ liquid levels of two sides of the tube are the

same. While level of liquid L has risen by 2 cm. If

a the specific gravity of liquid L is 1.1, the specific

⎛ 10 ⎞ gravity of liquid L1must be ......

20 R m ⎜ ⎟

⎝ 3m ⎠ (1) 1.1 (2) 1.3

(3) 1.001 (4) 1.0

10 50

⇒ R 20 N Answer (1)

3 3

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Sol. mv q B

Sol. ⇒ If v

qB mv

If enters region 3

mv q B

⇒v

qB m

L1 g (4cm) L g (4cm) ⇒ L1 L 1.1

⎛ qB ⎞

T independent of v ⎜T

107. The roadway bridge over a canal is in the form of an ⎝ 2 m ⎟⎠

arc of a circle of radius 20m. What is the maximum

speed with which a car can cross the bridge without If v q B / m path length is maximum.

leaving the ground at the highest point. 109. 6 and 12 r esistors are connected in parallel.

(1) 10 ms-1 (2) 12 ms-1 This combination is connected to series with a 10

V battery and 6 res istor. What is the potential

(3) 14 ms-1 (4) 16 ms-1

difference between the terminals of the 12

Answer (3) resistor ?

Sol. R = 20m; (1) 14V (2) 16V

g ⇒ v Rg

R Answer (4)

12

⇒ v 20 10 200

⇒ v max 14m / s A B

Sol. 6

108. A particle of mass M and charge q moving with

velocity u enters Region-2 normal to the boundry as

shown in the figure. Region-2 has uniform magnetic

6 10V

field B perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The

length of the Region-2 is I. Choose the correct VAB = ?

choice. 12 6

Reff 6 10

12 6

I 1A

VAB 10 6 1 4V

conductivity 3K, 2K, and K. They are arranged as

show in the figure below. Then the temperature of

the junction in steady state is

(A) The particle enters Region-3 only, if its velocity 100 0 200 0

(1) C (2) C

u > q I B / m. 3 3

(3) 750C (4) C

u < q 1B / m. 3

Answer (2)

(C) Path length of the particle in Region-2 is

maximum when velocity u = q I B / m.

(D) Time spend in Region-2 is same for any velocity

u as long as the particle return to Region-I. Sol.

(1) A only true (2) A, C True

(3) A,C,D true (4) All are true ⎛ d ⎞ ⎛ d ⎞ ⎛ d ⎞

⎜ dt ⎟ ⎜ dt ⎟ ⎜ dt ⎟

⎝ ⎠1 ⎝ ⎠2 ⎝ ⎠3

Answer (3)

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

⇒

v mix 2

⇒ 300 3T 2T 100 T 0

1248

v mix 510m / s

⇒ 6T 400 6

200 113. Calculate the equivalent resistance between a and

⇒T ºC b of the following network of conductors.

3

111. A ray of light passes through 4 transparent media

with refractive index n1 n2, n3, n4 as shown in the

figure. The surface of all the medias are parallel. If

the emergent ray CD is parallel to the incident ray

AB, we must have ....

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 3 (4) 2

Answer (3)

B

I 1 - I2

2

C

(3) n3=n4 (4) n4=n1 I1 3

I

a A I1 - I 2 b

Answer (4)

2

Sol. If ray in 1st & last medium is parallel then 4

n1 n4 D

(I - I1 - I2)

s. What will be velocity of sound in mixture of two V

parts by volume of Hydrogen to one part of Oxygen 5I1 + 2(I1 + I2) = v ⇒ 7I1 2I 2 v (1)

? (Oxygen 16 is times heavier than Hydrogen

nearly). 2(I I1 ) 4(I I1 I2 ) v ⇒ 6I 6I1 4I2 v (2)

(1) 725 m/s (2) 653 m/s

5I1 3I2 2(I I1 ) 0 ⇒ 6I1 3I2 2I 0 (3)

(3) 510 m/s (4) 430 m/s

Answer (3) 2I1 2I2 4I 4I1 4I2 3I2 0

RT ⇒ 6I1 9I2 4I 0 (4)

Sol. v

M

1 (2) & (3) 4I - 7I2 = V (5)

v

M (2) & (4) 2I + 5I2 = V (6)

MH2 2g, MO2 32g

(5) & (6) ⇒ 4I - 7I2 =v

n1M1 n2 M 2 4I + 10I2 = 2v

M mixture

n1 n2 17I2 = v

2(2) 1(32)

128 ⎛v ⎞ 12v 6v

2 1 2I 5 ⎜ ⎟ v ⇒ 2I ⇒I

17

⎝ ⎠ 17 17

VH2 M mix

v 17

Vmix M H2 3

I 6

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

114. Some rocket engines use a mixture of Hydrazine, Sol.: Ambiquity in the question all are coming redox

N 2 H 4 and Hydrogen peroxide, H 2 O 2 as the reaction if we consider all options in order of

propellant. The’ reaction is given by the following sentence the Option getting (3)

equation. 117. The gaseous hydrocarbon Acetylene, C2H2 used in

N2H4(l) +.2H202(l) N2g +4H2O(g) welder’s torches; releases 1300 KJ, when 1 mole of

C2 H2 undergoes combustion, then which of the

How much of the excess reactant, remains

following is not true?

unchanged ? When 0.750 mol of N2H4 is mixed with

17 g of H2O2? (1) Combustion of Acetylene is an exothermic

reaction.

(1) 16g N2H4 (2) 0.25 mol H2O2

(2) The balanced chemical reaction of combustion

(3) 0.25 mol N2H4 (4) 8.5gm H2O2

of Acetylene is : C2H2 + 5O2 2CO2 + H2O

Answer (1)

(3) 2 moles of water produced when 2 moles of

Sol. : N2H4(l) +.2H202(l) N2g +4H2O(g) Acetylene reacts.

by balance equation (4) 44 g of CO2 produced, when 13 g of Acetylene

1 mol of N2H4 68gm of H2O2 reacts

?

Sol. : The balanced chemical reaction is

17X1 2C2H2 + 5O2 4CO2 + 2H2O

0.25mol

68

118. Following are the representative wave-lengths in the

0.25 mol of N2H4 reacted Infra-red, Ultra-violet and X-ray regions of the

Amount of N2H4 taken = 0.75mol electromagnetic spectrum 1.0 x 10-6 m, 1.0 x 10-8

m and 1.0 x 10 -10 m. Which of the following

Amount of N2H4 left = 0.75-0.25

statements is false ?

= 0.5 mol (1) The corresponding frequencies of X-ray, UV and

= 16gm IR are in the ratio of 104 : 102 : 1.

(2) The corresponding energies of X-ray, UV and IR

115. Which one of the fo llowing combinations is false? are in the ratio of 1 : 10-2 : 10-4

Solution type Particle .size (3) The corresponding velocities of X-ray, UV and IR

are in the ratio of 1 : 102 : 104 .

(1) Colloidal solution 10-5 to 10-7 cm

(4) X-rays, UV and IR waves are electromagnetic

(2) True solution 10-7 to 10-8 cm

waves. These are transverse waves.

(3) Suspension 10-9 to 10-12 cm

Answer (3)

(4) All are correct combinations

Sol. : All EMR's travels with same velocity, which is

Answer (3) equals to velocity of light

Sol. : Suspension particle size should be greater than 119. An atom has 2K, 8L and 5M electrons. Choose the

1 micron or 10-6 meters correct statement(s) regarding it.

116. Which of the following is not an Oxidation reaction? (1) Tri valent anion of this atom will have 12 protons

(1) Bleaching of coloured objects using moist in its nucleus.

Chlorine. (2) Tri valent cation of this atom will have six p-

electrons in it.

(2) Rancidity of fats.

(3) This atom form an amphoteric oxide of formula

(3) Thermite process involving the rea ction of Iron

X2O3·

(III ) oxide (or) Chromium (Ill) oxide, etc. , with

Aluminium. (4) One of its allotrope is tetra atomic (X4)’

(4) The poling process involving the r emoval of (1) A and B (2) B only

impurities from a molten metal. (3) B and C (4) B and D

Answer (3) Answer (4)

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Sol. : K(2) L(8) M(5) What mass of NH4CI04 should be used in the fuel

Configuration in nlx method mixture for every kilogram of AI ?

(1) 3 kg (2) 3.388 kg

1s22s22p63s23p3

(3) 4.351 kg (4) 4 kg

3 e Answer (3)

X X 3

Sol. : 3Al+3NH4ClO4 Al2O3+AlCl3+3NO+6H2O

trivalent metal cation From the balance equation

X+3 = 1s22s22p63s23p3 3X27kg of Al 3(117.5)kg of NH4ClO4

p electron = 6 1 kg of Al ?

As per the configuration the element is phosphorous 1X3X117.5

it exit as X4 4.351 kg

3X27

120. Chlorine (Cl) and Oxygen form four different binary 122. All of the following processes involve a separation of

compounds... , Analysis gives the following results: either a mixture into its components, or a

Compound Mass of 0 combined compound into elements. For each, decide whether

a physical process or a chemical reaction is

with 1.0g Cl

required.

A 0.226g a. Sodium metal is obtained from the

B 0.903g substance Sodium chloride.

C 1.354g b. Iron filings are separated from sand by

usmg a magnet.

D 1.579g

c. Sugar crystals are separated from sugar

Compound A has a formula that is some multiple of syrup by evaporation of water

Cl2O, then which of the following is incorrectly said? d. Fine crystals of Silver chloride are

(1) Compound B is Cl2O5 (or CI4O10, or CI6O15, and separated from a suspen§ion of the

so forth). crystals in water.

(2) Compound C is Cl2O6 (or CIO3, Or CI3O9 and so e. Copper is produced when Zinc metal is

forth). placed 111 a solution of Copper (II)

sulphate, a compound.

(3) Compound D is CI2O7 (or a multiple there OF.

Physical processes Chemical processes

(4) The above’ data show that the law of multiple (1) a, b, c d, e

proportions holds for these compounds. (2) a, d b, c, e

Answer (1) (3) b, c, d a, e

Sol. Mass of oxygen: (4) e a, b, c, e

Wt% = 0.226 : 0.903 : 1.354 : 1.579 Answer (3)

Sol: a) Electrolysis of NaCl give Na- Chemical process

0.226 0.903 1.354 1.579 b) Iron filings are attracted towards magnet -

n : : :

16 16 16 16 physical process

c) Evoparation of water from sugar syrup gives sugar

0.014125 0.0564325 0084625 0.0986875 crystals - physical process

: : :

0.014125 0.014125 0.014125 0.014125

d) Zn + Cu+2 Zn+2 + Cu Electrochemical

1 : 4 : 6 : 7 process

For fixed quantity of 'Cl' 123. What mass of Oxygen is combined with 9.02 g of

Sulphur in

i.e. For 71g of Cl2O : Cl2O4 : Cl2O6 : Cl2O7

(a) Sulphur dioxide, SO2 and

A B C D (b) Sulphur trioxide, SO3 ?

121. The reusable booster rockets of the U.S. space (1) 23.5g O in SO2 and 19.02g O in SO3'

shuttle uses a mixture of Aluminium and (2) 19.02g O in SO2 and 23.5g O in SO3'

Ammonium perchlorate for fuel. A possible equation (3) 9.02g O in SO2 and 13.5g O in SO3'

for this reaction is .... (4) 9.02g O in SO3 and 13.5g O in SO2'

3Al+3NH4ClO4 Al2O3+AlCl3+3NO+6H2O Answer (3)

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Sol. : SO2 32gm 32gm of O Sol. : Usually ionic compounds have high boiling point.

9.02 9.02 gm of O 127. Minamata disease is due to .....

SO3 32gm 48gm of O (1) MIC gas (2) Methyl mercury

9.02 ? (3) Lead nitrate (4) Cobalt chloride

Answer (2)

9.02X48

13.5 gm 128. The region in brain portion that controls hunger is ...

32

(1) Medulla (2) Diencephalon

124. On an hypothetical planet the major solvent is “liquid

Ammonia, not water. Ammonia auto ionises much (3) Cerebrum (4) Mid brain

like water Answer (2)

(2NH3 NH4+ + NH2-) If instead of water, ammonia 129. What will happen, if the sperm containing 'X'

is used as a solvent, the acid base neutralisation chromosomes fertilises the Ovum?

reaction for the formation of NaCl is ..... (1) Female child born (2) Male child born

(1) NaNH4+NH2CI NaCl+2NH3 (3) Can not guess (4) None

(2) NaNH2+NH4CI NaCl+2NH3 Answer (1)

(3) NaNH3+NH3CI NaCl+2NH3 130. Which is not correct?

(4) NaNH4+NH4CI NaCl+2NH4+ (1) Embryology - Aristotle

(4) Cytology - Robert Brown

following, except: 131. Permanent surgical method for birth control in male

human beings is .....

(1) Hysterectomy (2) Dialysis

(1) Its melting point. (2) Its boiling point.

(3) Tubectomy (4) Vesectomy

(3) Chromatography. (4) Physical appearance

Answer (4)

Answer (4)

132. Pernicious anemia is caused due to the deficiency

Sol. : Purity can determine by melting point, boiling point of .....

, Chromotography

(1) Biotin (2) Calciferon

126. You are presented with three bottles A, B, C each

(3) Cyanocobalamine (4) Ascorbic acid

containing a different liquid. Bottles are labelled as

follows : Answer (3)

Bottle A : ionic compound -Boiling point 30°C 133. Match the item in Column I with Column II.

Bottle B : molecular compound -Boiling point 29.2°C Part I Part II

Bottle C : molecular compound -Boiling point 67.1°C (a) Ribosomes (i) Suicidal bags

cell

(1) The compound most likely to be incorrectly

(c) Nucleus (iii) Protein synthesis

identified is bottle A.

(d) Lysosomes (iv) Power house of the

(2) The substance in bottle B has strongest

cell

intermolecular attractions.

(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

(3) The substance in bottle C is highly volatile.

(2) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii

(4) A pure aqueous solu tion of compound in bottle

B is a good conductor of electricity among the (3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

three. (4) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv

Answer (1) Answer (1)

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

134. The salinity of sea water is ..... Sol. : let the three digit number be'x', when 34369, 31513

(1) 2.5% (2) 3.5% divided by x leaves reminder 'r' & Quotient p,q

respectively then by division algorithm

(3) 4.5% (4) 5.5%

34369=xp+r -----_- (1)

Answer (2)

31513=xq+r ------- (2)

135. Who discovered blood capillaries?

from (1) - (2) x(p-q)=2856 by prime factorization

(1) William Harvey (2) Girolamo Fabrici

x(p-q) = 119 X 24

(3) Marcello Malpighi (4) Robert Brown

Since x is three digit number let x=119 which leaves

Answer (3)

reminder 97 when divides 34369,31513

136. According to Charles Eltion, which is not correct.

142. The greatest number of four digits which when

(1) Carnivores at the top of the Pyramid divided by 3, 5, 7, 9 leaves the remainders 1, 3, 5,

(2) Energy trapping is high at the top of the Pyramid 7 respectively, is

(3) Producers at the top of the Pyramid (1) 9763 (2) 9673

(4) 2 and 3 (3) 9367 (4) 9969

Answer (4) Answer (1)

137. World conservation strategy was proposed by IUCN Sol. : Let the greatest four digit number be 9999

in ..... LCM of (3,5,7,9) = 315

(1) 1948 (2) 1980 when 9999 divided by 315 it leaves reminder 234

(3) 1990 (4) 1993 hence 9999-234=9765 is exactly divisible by 315

Answer (2) Which means it is also divisible by 3,5,7,9

exactly but given the number leaves reminders

138. Choose the incorrect pair.

1,3,5,7 when divided by 3,5,7,9 difference

(1) Ovary - Estrogen (2) Adrenal - Adrenalin between reminders = 2,

(3) Pituitary - Thyroxine (4) Testis - Testosterone so required no. = 9765-2 =9763

Answer (3) 143. e f g h is a four digit number. One hundredth of

139. If a rat is given a mild electric shock when it goes efg h is the mean of e f and g h, then the four digit

to a certain part of its cage, it eventually avoid going number is

there. This is because of .....

(1) 3648 (2) 4950

(1) Imitation (2) Conditioning

(3) 4590 (4) 3468

(3) Instinct (4) Imprinting

Answer (2)

Answer (2)

efgh ef gh

140. The tongue of a person is exposed to a high salty Sol. : from given options efgh=4950

taste, then ..... 100 2

(1) The person learns to taste salty things better then condition satisfied.

+ xy + x = 12 and y2 + xy + y = 18, then the

value of x+y is ..

(3) Hates tasting salty things

(1) 5 or -6 (2) 3 or 4

(4) Fails to taste a less salty thing just after the

exposure. (3) 5 or 3 (4) 6 or -3

141. When 31513 and 34369 are divided by a certain Sol. : x2 + xy + x = 12 ---- (1)

three digit number, the remainders are equal, then y2 + xy + y = 18 --- (2)

the remainder is from (1) + (2) (x+y) (x+y+1) = 30 let x+y=t then

(1) 86 (2) 97 t(t+1) = 30 ⇒ t2 + t - 30 = 0

(3) 374 (4) 113 ⇒ (t-5)(t+6) = 0 Hence x+y =5 or

Answer (2) x+y = -6

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

145. If 217x + 131y = 913 and 131x + 217y = 827, then Sol. : 2,5,8 ..... is in AP where a1 = 2, d1=5 &

the value of x + y is 7,11,15..... is also in AP where b1=7, d2=4

(1) 8 (2) 5 since sum of n-terms in AP is

n

Sn= 2a (n 1)d

(3) 7 (4) 6

Answer (2) 2

2 5 8 ......n.terms 23

Sol. : 217x + 131y = 913 ------ (i)

7 11 15 .......n.terms 35

31x + 217y = 827 ---------(ii)

n

from (i) + (ii) x+y = 5

2

2(2) (n 1)5 23

n

146. If x

1

, (x 2), then the value of x is 2

2(7) (n 1)4 35

1

2

1 3n 1 23

2

2x ⇒ n=15

4n 10 35

(1) 1 (2) 3 149. If the co-ordinates of the midpoints of the sides of

(3) 2 (4) 5 a triangle are (1, 1), (2, -3) and (3, 4), then the

Answer (1) centroid of the triangle is ....

1 ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 2⎞

Sol. : x (1) ⎜ 3, ⎟ (2) ⎜ 1, ⎟

1 ⎝ 3⎠ ⎝ 3⎠

2

1 ⎛ 2⎞

2

2x (3) (3, 1) (4) ⎜ 2, ⎟

⎝ 3⎠

1

x 3 2x Answer (4)

2x ⇒ x

2 4 3x

3 2x

⇒ x2-2x+1=0

⇒ (x-1)2 = 0 Sol.

⇒ x=1

147. x1,x2, x3, ... . are in A.P. If x1 + x7 +x10= - 6 and x3

in ABC , D,E,F are midpoints of sides

+ x8 + x12= - 11, then x3 + x8+ x22 = ?

(1) -21 (2) -15 BC,CA, AB

Answer (1) ⎛ 1 2 3 1 3 4 ⎞

= ⎜ , ⎟

Sol. : x1 + x7 +x10= - 6 ⇒ a+a+6d+a+9d=-6 ⎝ 3 3 ⎠

⇒ a+5d=-2------ (i) ⎛ 2⎞

= ⎜ 2, ⎟

x3 + x8 + x12= - 11 ⇒ a+2d+a+7d+a+11d=-11 ⎝ 3⎠

150. If two vertices of an equilateral triangle be (0, 0) and

⇒ 3a+20d=-11 --- (ii)

(3, 3 ), then the third vertex is ...

Solving (i) & (ii) we get a=3, d=-1

x3 + x8+ x22 = a+2d+a+7d+a+21d=3a+30d (1) (1, 3 3 ) (2) (0,2 3 )

x3 + x8+ x22 = -21 (since a=3, d=-1) (3) (3, 3) (4) (1, 3)

2 5 8 ......n.terms 23 Answer (2)

148. If then n value is

7 11 15 .......n.terms 35 Sol. : (x1, y1), (x2, y2) are two vertices of an equilateral

(1) 17 (2) 15 triangle then its third vertex is

⎜⎜ , ⎟⎟

Answer (2) ⎝ 2 2 ⎠

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NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

six smaller triangles by lines drawn from the vertices

through a common interior point. The areas of four

In a right triangle ABC , BM=AM=MC= 117

of 6 triangles are as indicated, then the

Let AB =x then BC=30-x since AB+BC=30

area of ABC is

x2+(30-x)2=(2 117 )2

by solving x=12 or 18

1

Hence area of ABC = X12X18 108cm2

2

153. Letp be an interior point of ABC and extend lines

from the vertices throughp to the opposite sides. Let

(1) 238 (2) 464

a, b, c and d divides the lengths of the segments

(3) 315 (4) 412 indicated in the figure. Find the product of abc, if a

Answer (3) + b + c = 43 and d = 3.

A

d

p

d

Sol.

b

a d

B C

Let area of ( BPF )=x, Area of ( CPE) =y (1) 168 (2) 256

(3) 346 (4) 441

BD ar PAB ar PBD

then DC ar PAC ar PDC Answer (4)

Sol. :

84 x 40 A

⇒ ⇒ 3x 4y 112 -----(i)

y 35 30

c

AE ar APB ar APE F 3 E

p 3

EC ar BPC ar EPC b

a 3

84 x y B C

⇒ ⇒ 2y x 84 -----(ii) D

70 35

AP

ar. APC ar. APB ar. APC

ar. APB

by solving (i) & (ii) we get x=56, y=70

PE

Hence ar ( ABC) =84+56+40+30+35+70=315

a ar. APB ar. APC

⇒

ar. BPC

152. ABC is a right angled triangle with B 90 , M is0

3

the midpoint of AC and BM = 117 cm,

a3 3

⇒ ⇒

AB + BC=30, then the area of the triangle is 3 ar. BPC ar. ABC a3

(1) 108 cm2 (2) 248 cm2

ar. APB 3

(3) 316 cm2 (4) 156 cm2

ar. ABC c 3

Similarly

Answer (1)

20

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

a. APC 3

Sol.

ar. ABC b 3

a. ABC 3 3 3

ar. ABC a 3 b 3 c 3

a 3 b 3 c 3 3∑ a 3 b 3 c 3

⇒ abc 441 a a ⎛a a⎞ a

BD ,EC ,DE a ⎜ ⎟

3 2 ⎝3 2⎠ 6

154. As shown in the figure in ABC , p is an interior

point. Through the point p, three lines are drawn 3

AE= a

parallel to three sides as shown in the figure. If the 2

areas of smaller triangles are 16, 25 and 36 square Now AE2 + DE2 =AD2

units respectively, then the area of ABC in square 3 2 a2

a AD2

units is .... 4 36

Hence 9AD2=7AB2

156. In the given figure, AB is the diameter of a circle

with O and AT is a tangent. If AOQ = 58°, then

the value of ATQ is

(3) 225 (4) 784

Answer (3)

Sol. :

ABC ∼ HIP ∼ PDE ∼ GPF

ar( HIP) ⎛ IP ⎞

2 (1) 520 (2) 610

16 IP

⇒

ar( PDE) ⎜⎝ DE ⎟⎠ 36 DE (3) 460 (4) 750

Answer (2)

IP=4x, DE=6x

Sol.

2

ar( PDE) ⎛ DE ⎞ 36 DE

⎜ ⎟ =

ar( GPF) ⎝ PF ⎠ 25 PF

DE=6x, PF=5x

IP=BD, PF=EC

BC =BD+DE+EC=15x

2

ar( ABC) ⎛ BC ⎞

ABC ∼ HIP ⇒

ar( HIP) ⎜⎝ IP ⎟⎠ Join AQ then AOQ=2 OBQ then OBQ=290

2

⎛ 15x ⎞ Since OA AT ⇒ OAT=900

Area of ABC = ⎜ ⎟ X16 225

⎝ 4x ⎠ Hence ATQ = 900 - 290 = 610

155. In an equilateral triangle ABC, the side BC is 157. The radii of two cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and

trisected at D, then 9AD2 is their heights are in the ratio 5: 3, then the ratio of

(1) 7AB2 (2) 8BC2 their volumes is

3 (1) 15:16 (2) 14:17

(3) 4AC2 (4) AB2

2 (3) 20:27 (4) 4:9

Answer (1) Answer (3)

21

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

Sol. Let r1, r2, radii and h1,h2 heights of given cylinders by solving we get x=12

given r1:r2 = 2:3, h1:h2 = 5:3 Let r1=2x, r2=3x, h1=5x, Number of red balls =15-12=3 hence

h2=3x

3 1

P(red ball) =

Hence ratio of volumes = r12h1 : r22h2 15 5

161. "For this earth is not allotted to anyone nor is it

= (2x)2.5x:(3x)2.3x=20:27 presented to anyone as a gift. It is awarded by

158. If the area of three adjacent faces of a cuboid are providence to people who in their hearts have the

x, y and z respectively, then the volume of a cuboid courage to conquer it, the strength to preserve it and

is the industry to put it to the plough." Whose ideology

is this?

(1) xyz (2) x+y+z

(1) Benito Mussolini (2) Adolf Hitler

(3) x2yz (4) xy+z (3) Ho Chi Minh (4) Stali

Answer (1) Answer (2)

Sol. Let l, b, h are length, breadth, height of Cubiod given Sol. This is the famous speech given by hitlor

lb=x, bh=y, lh=z then (lbh)2 =xyz ⇒ lbh= xyz 162. According to the census of 1921, 12 to 13 million

people perished as result of ......

Hence volume = xyz (1) First World War (2) Epidemics

159. If tan + cot =2, then the value of tan2 +cot2 is (3) Famines (4) All the above

Answer (4)

(1) 4 (2) 2

Sol. 1911 the population was 252 million and in 1921 it

3

(3) (4) 5 was 251 million because of war, epidemics and

2 famines.

Answer (2)

163. Find out the wrong statement about Giuseppe

Sol. : tan + cot =2, Mazzini?

tan2 +cot2 =(tan + cot )2 -2 = 22-2=2 (1) He was a member of the secret society of the

Carbonari

160. A bag contains 15 balls of which x are black and

remaining are red. If the number of red balls are (2) He believed "The Gold had intended nations to

increased by 5, the probability of drawing the red be the natural units of mankind."

balls doubles, then the probability of drawing red ball (3) He was the founder of young Europe.

is (4) None of the above

1 4 Answer (2)

(1) (2)

5 5 Sol. because mazzini was a member of carbonary

3 2 2. He created young Italy in 1832 and young Europe

(3) (4)

5 5 in 1834.

Answer (1) 164. Who wrote the book "The history of the loss of

Sol. : Let number of black balls =x then Vietnam"?

Number of red balls = 15-x (1) Phan Boi Chau (2) Ho Chi Minh

(3) Huynh Phu So (4) Phan Chu Trinh

15 x

Hence P(red ball) = Answer (1)

15

given five more red balls added. Hence number of red Sol. Phan - Bai Chau

balls =20-x 165. Compulsory Elementary Education Act was made in

20 x England in the year ....

P(red Ball) =

20 (1) 1829 (2) 1849

by given condition 2⎜ ⎟

20 ⎝ 15 ⎠ Answer (4)

22

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

166. Who developed the concept of "The principle of the 171. The Ryotwari settlement was introduced by the

Garden City"? British in the .....

(1) Andrew Means (2) Henry Mayhew (1) Madras Presidency (2) Bengal Presidency

(3) Central Presidency (4) Assam Presidency

(3) Ebenezer Howard (4) Haussman

Answer (1)

Answer (3) Sol. Thomas munroe and captain reed introduced ryotwari

167. Who wrote "Ninety Five Theses" criticising many of settlement in Madras first in 1820.

the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic 172. The famous Quit India Resolution was pass on ....

Church? (1) August 18, 1942 (2) April 4, 1942

(1) Martin Luther (2) Thomas Pain (3) April 14, 1942 (4) August8, 1942

Answer (4)

(3) J.V.Schley (4) Richard M.Hoe

Sol. The famous Quit India Resolution was passed in

Answer (1) August 8, 1942 after failure of Cripps Mission.

Sol. Against the Roman Catholic 173. Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam and Arunachal

Pradesh have common frontiers with .....

168. Kashi baba, a kanpur mill worker wrote and

published "Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal" in 1938 to (1) China (2) Bhutan

show the links between .... (3) Bangladesh (4) Mayanmar

Answer (2)

(1) Caste and Class exploitation

Sol. Bhutan

(2) Caste and Religion relation 174. Which of these is not a Himachal Range?

(3) Income and Untouchability (1) Dhaula Dhar (2) Pirpanjal Range

(4) Industrialists and Politicians (3) Kailash Range (4) Mahabharat Range

Answer (3)

Answer (1)

Sol. Himachal is not located in Kailash Range

Sol. Caste and Class Exploitaiation during that period 175. The Himalayas is divided into four major Geological

169. Only a decade ago, they were as illiterate, helpess sections, Choose among the following which is not

and hungry as our own masses, who could be more one of them

astonished than an unfortunate Indian like myself to (1) Nepal Himalayas - Between Kali and Teesta

see how they had removed the mountains of (2) Mahabharat Himalayas - Between Indus and

ignorance and helplessness in these few years." Gilgit

Name the Indian, who quoted this Russian (3) Kumaon Himalayas - Between Sutlej and Teesta

revolution? (4) Assam Himalayas - Between Teesta and Dihang

(1) M N Roy (2) Rabindranath Tagore Answer (2)

Sol. Mahavarath Range in India

(3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Jawaharlal Nehru

176. Match list A with B and select the correct answer

Answer (2) using the codes given below the list.

Sol. Comparision of Russia List - A List - B

170. Find out the wrong statement related to Franklin (a) Hyderabad is (i) Altitude

Roosevelt. warmer than Mumbai

(b) Snowfall in (ii) Mango showers

(1) Announced New Deal Policy to eradicate

Himalayas

economic depression

(c) North western (iii) Distance from sea

(2) Introduced the much needed social security plain gets rainfall

system in winter

(3) President of America during Second World War (d) Rainfall in summer (iv) Western Depression

(4) None of the Above a b c d a b c d

(1) iii ii iv i (2) ii i iii iv

Answer (2)

(3) iii i iv ii (4) iv ii i iii

Sol. He introduce economic reforms not social security Answer (3)

system Sol. According to the Occurance.

23

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

177. Which one of the following bioreserves of India is not 182. Find the wrongly matched

included in the world network of bio-reserve? (1) Ferrous mineral - Iron ore

(1) Sunderbhan (2) Gulf of manner (2) Non-ferrous mineral - Mica.

(3) Nanda Devi (4) Silent Valley (3) Non-Metallic mineral - Limestone

(4) Fuel minerals - Coal

Answer (4)

Answer (2)

Sol. Silent valley is not under world network of bio-reserve Sol. Mica is non metallic mineral

it is local. 183. Identify the non-fibre crop?

178. Highest Annual Growth Rate in India was recorded in (1) Hemp (2) Cotton

these decades (3) Natural Silk (4) Rubber

(1) 1981, 1971, 1991 (2) 1991, 2001, 1971 Answer (2)

(3) 1971, 2001, 1991 (4) 1961, 1971, 1981 Sol. Cotton is non-fibre crop.

184. The South-East Trade Winds are attracted towards

Answer (1)

the Indian sub-continent in the month of June due to

Sol. The hight of growth rate ......

179. Which of these is not related to conservation of (1) the effect of the westerlies

Resources? (2) the effect of Somaliya current

(1) The club of Rome advocated resources (3) the presence of low atmospheric pressure over

conservation for the first time in a more North-West India

systematic way in 1968. (4) None of the above

(2) Brundtland commission report, 1987 introduced Answer (4)

the concept of "Sustainable Drvelopment". Sol. South-West trade winds not south east.

185. Consider the following two statements on power

(3) E.F Schumacher is the author of the book

sharing and select the answer using the codes given

"Small is Beautiful".

below

(4) Earth summit was held in New York in 1997. (a) Power sharing is good for democracy

Answer (4) (b) It helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts

between social groups.

Sol. It was the summit for the Reo-De-Genero-Extendel.

Which of these statements are true and false?

180. With reference to Indian agriculture, which of the

(1) Both a and b are true

following statements is not correct?

(2) Both a and b are false

(1) India is the largest producer as well as the (3) a is true but b is false

consumer of pulses in the world. (4) a is false but b is true

(2) India is the second largest producer of rice in Answer (1)

the world after China. Sol. Both a and b are true

(3) Tea is an important beverage crop introduced in 186. Match the following countries and the path

India initially by the Persians. democracy has taken in that country.

(4) Groundnut is a khaarif crop and accounts for Country Path to Democracy

about half of the major oil seeds produced in the (a) Nepal (i) End of One party Rule

country. (b) Chile (ii) King agreed to give up

his powers

Answer (3)

(c) Ghana (iii) End of Military

Sol. Tea is introduced by the British. Dictatorship

181. In which of these following industries, limestone is (d) Poland (iv) Freedom from British

not used? Colonial Rule

(1) Cement industry (2) Iron and Steel industry a b c d a b c d

(1) i ii iv iii (2) ii iii iv i

(3) Oil Refinery industry (4) None of the above

(3) iii ii i iv (4) iv i iii ii

Answer (3) Answer (2)

Sol. Lime stone is not used for oil refinery industry. Sol. Recent development and Democracy

24

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

187. Consider the following statements about pressure 190. Find out the wrong statement about National Human

groups and parties Rights Commission.

(a) Pressure groups are the organised expression of (1) This is an independent commission established

the interests and views of specific social by law in 1993.

sections.

(b) Pressure groups take positions on political (2) Present Chairman for National Human Rights

issues Commission is Justice Jeevan Reddy

(c) All pressure groups are political parties. (3) Like National Human Rights COmmission, there

Which of the statements given above are correct are State Human Rights Commissions in 14

(1) a, b, and c (2) a and b states on the country

(3) b and c (4) a and c (4) There is no fee or any formal procedure to

Answer (2) approach the National Human Rights

Sol. Only one and two are correct because all pressure Commission.

group are not political parties. Answer (2)

188. Match the ministry with the news that the ministry

Sol. Present Chairman is H.L.Dattu for 29 Feb, 2016.

may have released.

A B 191. Find out the subject which is under concurrent list?

(a) A new policy is being (i) Ministry of Defence (1) Police

made to increase the (2) Communication

jute exports from the

country (3) Marriages and Divorce

(b) Telephone services (ii) Ministry of (4) None of the above

will be made more Health Answer (2)

accessible to rural

areas Sol. Communication comes under concurrent list.

(c) The price of rice and (iii) Ministry of 192. A struggle known as "Bolivia's water war" took place

wheat sold under the Agriculture, Food in ..... city.

Public Distribution and Public Distribution (1) Cochabamba

system will go down.

(2) Lapaz

(d) A pulse polio (iv) Ministry of

Campaign will be Commerce (3) Trinidad

launched and Industry (4) Montero

(e) The allowances of the (v) Ministry of

Answer (1)

soldiers posted on high communications

altitudes will be and Information Sol. The revolution started in Cochabamba

increased Technology. 193. Consider the following statements

a b c d e

(i) Equitable allocation of resouces

(1) i iii ii iv v

(ii) Generation of employment

(2) iv v iii ii i

(3) iii v ii i iv (iii) Tax concession to big corporates

(4) ii v iii iv i (iv) Universalisation of public distribution.

Answer (2) Which of the factors given above can bring inclusive

Sol. According to the distribution of work by the Ministry growth in out country?

189. Find out the right which is not under the Indian

(1) (i), (ii), (iii)

Constitution?

(1) Freedom of Speech and Expression (2) (i), (ii), (iv)

(2) Move freely through the Country (3) (i), (iii), (iv)

(3) Practise any profession (4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(4) None of the above

Answer (2)

Answer (4)

Sol. Remain all three are rights of Indians Sol. This three are only correct

25

NTSE (S-I) 2017-18

194. Which of the following is wrong related to Antyodaya 198. Consider the following statements about

Anna Yojana? Globalisation.

(1) Antyodaya Anna Yojana was launched in (a) The most common route for investment by

December 2000. MNC's in countries aroung the world is to buy

(2) 2 crore families have been covered under the existing local companies.

Antyodaya Anna Yojana. (b) Investment made by multinational companies is

(3) Wheat is supplied at the rate of Rs.6 and rice called foreign investment.

at the rate of Rs.7 under this scheme (c) Cargill Foods, an American company purchased

(4) None of the above an Indian company called Parakh Foods.

Answer (3) (d) Ford Motors is one of the biggest German

Sol. Price is less Automobile manufacturer.

195. Find out the correct one related to under Which of the given statements are True?

employment. (1) a, c, d

(1) They do not want to work (2) a, b, c

(2) They work in a lazy manner (3) b, c, d

(3) They work less than what they are capable of (4) a, b, c, d

ding

Answer (2)

(4) They are not paid for their work

Sol. Ford motors belongs to USA and Collaborate with

Answer (3)

Mahendra and Mahendra.

Sol. They work less than full capacity and the marginal

199. In which year, did the Bengal Famine occur, which

productivity is Zero.

was responsible for the death of 30 lakh people in

196. Find out the wrong one about Secondary sector Bengal Province?

(1) Secondary sector is also called as industrial (1) 1933 (2) 1943

sector

(3) 1953 (4) 1963

(2) Manufacturing of bricks and sugar come under

secondary sector Answer (2)

(3) The share of secondary sector is more in Sol. The Famine held in 1943 in West Bengal.

current GDP of India 200. Find out the wrong one related to Annapurna Scheme

(4) None of the above (APS)

Answer (3) (1) Introduced in the year 2000.

Sol. Now we are getting more GDP from Service Sector. (2) A schemen meant for indigent senior citizens.

197. Which among the following is money function? (3) 10 kg of food grains are supplied freely under the

(1) Medium of exchange (2) Unit of account scheme.

(3) Store of value (4) All the above (4) None of the above

Answer (4) Answer (4)

Sol. All are the function of the Money. Sol. All three statements are correct.

26

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