1.
Which
of
the
following
least
likely
indicates
an
objective
of
an
assurance
engagement?
A. It
is
intended
to
enhance
the
credibility
of
information
about
a
subject
matter.
B. It
is
intended
to
prevent
the
issuance
of
materially
misleading
information.
C. It
is
intended
for
a
professional
accountant
to
express
a
conclusion
that
provides
the
intended
users
with
a
level
of
assurance
about
the
subject
matter.
D. It
is
intended
to
provide
a
level
of
assurance
to
be
issued
by
a
professional
accountant
about
the
information
of
being
in
conformity,
in
all
material
respects,
with
suitable
criteria.
2.
An
assurance
engagement
has
a
subject
matter
that
is
the
responsibility
of
A. An
intended
user
B. A
professional
accountant
C. An
auditor
D. A
responsible
party
like
management
3.
Which
of
the
following
statements
are
correct?
I.
One
of
the
reasons
for
setting
the
criteria
of
the
engagement
is
to
make
the
user
know
the
basis
used
to
evaluate
the
subject
matter.
II.
A
suitable
set
of
criteria
should
be
used
in
forming
conclusion
about
the
subject
matter
of
the
assurance
engagement.
A. I
only
B. II
only
C. Both
I
and
II
D. Neither
I
nor
II
4.
It
is
the
measure
of
the
quantity
of
evidence
obtained
A. Sufficiency
B. Appropriateness
C. Reliability
D. Relevance
5.
The
following
should
be
included
in
the
practitioner’s
report
(choose
the
exception)
A. Identification
of
the
parties
to
whom
the
report
is
restricted.
B. A
statement
to
identify
the
responsible
party
and
described
the
practitioner’s
responsibilities.
C. Report
date
D. Name
of
the
firm
or
the
practitioner
6.
Which
of
the
following
provides
a
positive
form
of
assurance?
A. Audit
engagement
B. Review
engagement
C. Agreed-‐upon
procedures
engagement
D. Compilation
engagement
7.
Which
of
the
following
is
false?
A. When
considering
materiality,
the
practitioner
needs
to
understand
and
assess
what
factors
might
influence
the
decisions
of
the
intended
users
B. Materiality
can
be
considered
in
the
context
of
quantitative
but
not
qualitative
factors
C. The
assessment
of
materiality
and
the
relative
importance
and
qualitative
factors
in
a
particular
engagement
are
matters
for
the
practitioner’s
judgment
D. The
practitioner
should
consider
materiality
and
engagement
risk
when
planning
and
conducting
an
assurance
engagement
in
order
to
reduce
the
risk
of
expressing
an
inappropriate
conclusion
that
the
subject
matter
conforms
in
all
material
respects
with
suitable
criteria
8.
External
users
rely
on
the
independent
auditor’s
report
because
A. It
lends
credibility
to
the
financial
statements
B. It
reports
on
the
effectiveness
and
efficiency
of
management
C. It
assures
the
future
viability
of
the
entity
D. It
measures
and
communicates
the
financial
information
contained
in
the
financial
statements
9.
Balance
sheet
and
income
statement
are
two
of
the
financial
statements
usually
being
audited.
The
primary
difference
between
the
audit
of
balance
sheet
and
the
audit
of
income
statement
is
the
fact
that
the
former
deals
with
verification
of
A. Balances
B. Transactions
C. Authorizations
D. Costs
10.
Test
of
controls
are
directed
towards
the
control’s
A. Efficiency
Page 1 of 5 B. Effectiveness
C. Efficiency
and
effectiveness
D. Cost
benefit
ratio
11.
For
an
independent
auditor
to
be
competent,
he
must
do
the
following,
except
A. Possess
the
technical
qualifications
necessary
B. Warrant
that
the
audit
performed
is
infallible
C. Exercise
seasoned
judgment
in
the
supervision
and
review
of
the
assistant’s
work
D. Research
and
consult
with
others
12.
In
audit
engagements
wherein
the
auditor
lacks
the
expertise
of
the
industry
being
audited,
he
should
A. Acquire
the
services
of
a
financial
expert
who
is
familiar
with
the
nature
of
the
business
B. Decline
the
engagement
C. Obtain
sufficient
knowledge
about
the
industry
D. Have
another
auditor
who
would
serve
as
the
principal
auditor
13.
Which
of
the
following
situations
would
impair
the
CPA’s
independence?
A. An
auditor
maintaining
a
time
deposit
in
a
bank
which
is
an
attest
client
B. An
auditor
accepting
a
token
gift
from
the
client
C. A
CPA
is
an
honorary
member
of
the
Board
of
Directors
of
an
organization
that
is
an
attest
client
D. An
auditor
having
a
sister
who
is
a
minority
stockholder
of
an
attest
client
14.
Auditing
standards
differ
from
auditing
procedures
in
that
procedures
relate
to
a)
Measure
of
performance.
b)
Audit
principles.
c)
Acts
to
be
performed.
d)
Audit
judgments.
15.
The
first
general
standard
of
generally
accepted
auditing
standards
which
states,
in
part,
that
the
examination
is
to
be
performed
by
a
person
or
persons
having
adequate
technical
training,
requires
that
an
auditor
have
a)
Education
and
experience
in
the
field
of
auditing.
b)
Ability
in
the
planning
and
supervision
of
the
audit
work.
c)
Proficiency
in
business
and
financial
matters.
d)
Knowledge
in
the
areas
of
financial
accounting.
16.
The
first
standard
of
field
work,
which
states
that
the
work
is
to
be
adequately
planned,
and
assistants,
if
any,
are
to
be
properly
supervised,
recognizes
that
a)
Early
appointment
of
the
auditor
is
advantageous
to
the
auditor
and
the
client.
b)
Acceptance
of
an
audit
engagement
after
the
close
of
the
client's
fiscal
year
is
generally
not
permissible.
c)
Appointment
of
the
auditor
subsequent
to
the
physical
count
of
inventories
requires
a
disclaimer
of
opinion.
d)
Performance
of
substantial
parts
of
the
examination
is
necessary
at
interim
dates.
17.
An
independent
audit
aids
in
the
communication
of
economic
data
because
the
audit
a)
Assures
the
reader
of
financial
statements
that
any
fraudulent
activity
has
been
corrected.
b)
Confirms
the
accuracy
of
management's
financial
representations.
c)
Lends
credibility
to
the
financial
statements.
d)
Guarantees
that
financial
data
are
fairly
presented.
18.
The
first
standard
of
field
work
recognizes
that
early
appointment
of
the
independent
auditor
has
many
advantages
to
the
auditor
and
the
client.
Which
of
the
following
advantages
is
least
likely
to
occur
as
a
result
of
early
appointment
of
the
auditor?
a)
The
auditor
will
be
able
to
complete
the
audit
work
in
less
time.
b)
The
auditor
will
be
able
to
perform
the
examination
more
efficiently.
c)
The
auditor
will
be
able
to
better
plan
for
the
observation
of
the
physical
inventories.
d)
The
auditor
will
be
able
to
plan
the
audit
work
so
that
it
may
be
done
expeditiously.
19.
What
is
the
general
character
of
the
three
generally
accepted
auditing
standard
classified
as
general
standards?
a)
Criteria
for
content
of
the
F/S
and
the
auditor's
report.
b)
Criteria
of
audit
planning
and
supervision
and
evidence
gathering.
c)
The
need
to
maintain
an
independence
in
mental
attitude
in
all
matters
relating
to
the
assignments.
d)
Criteria
for
competence,
independence
and
professional
care
of
individuals
performing
the
audit.
20.
A
CPA,
while
performing
an
audit,
strives
to
achieve
independence
in
appearance
in
order
to
a)
Reduce
risk
and
liability.
b)
Comply
with
the
generally
accepted
standards
of
field
work.
c)
Become
independent
in
fact.
d)
Maintain
public
confidence
in
the
profession.
21.
The
primary
responsibility
for
the
adequacy
of
disclosure
in
the
financial
statements
of
a
publicly
held
company
rests
with
the
a)
Partner
assigned
to
the
engagement.
b)
Auditor
in
charge
of
field
work.
c)
Management
of
the
company.
d)
Securities
&
Exchange
Commission.
Page 2 of 5 22.
Due
professional
care
requires
a)
A
critical
review
of
the
work
done
at
every
level
of
supervision.
b)
The
examination
of
all
corroborating
evidence
available.
c)
The
exercise
of
error
free
judgment.
d)
A
study
and
review
of
the
I/C's
that
include
tests
of
controls
23.
Which
of
the
following
best
describes
the
reason
why
an
independent
auditor
reports
on
financial
statements?
a)
A
management
fraud
may
exist
and
is
more
likely
to
be
detected
by
independent
auditors.
b)
Different
interests
may
exist
between
the
company
preparing
the
statements
and
the
persons
using
the
statements.
c)
A
misstatement
of
account
balances
may
exist
and
is
generally
corrected
as
the
result
of
the
independent
auditor's
work.
d)
Poorly
designed
internal
control
may
exist.
24.
Independent
auditing
can
best
be
described
as
a)
A
branch
of
accounting.
b)
A
discipline
that
attests
to
the
results
of
accounting
and
other
functional
operations
and
data.
c)
A
professional
activity
that
measures
and
communicates
financial
and
business
data.
d)
A
regulatory
function
that
prevents
the
issuance
of
improper
financial
information.
25.
Operational
auditing
is
primarily
oriented
toward
a)
Future
improvements
to
accomplish
the
goals
of
management.
b)
The
accuracy
of
data
reflected
in
management's
financial
records.
c)
The
verification
that
a
company's
financial
statements
are
fairly
presented.
d)
Past
protection
provided
by
existing
internal
control.
26.
CPA
firms
should
establish
quality
control
policies
and
procedures
for
personnel
management
in
order
to
provide
reasonable
assurance
that
a)
Employees
promoted
possess
the
appropriate
characteristics
to
perform
competently.
b)
Personnel
will
have
the
knowledge
required
to
fulfill
responsibilities
assigned.
c)
The
extent
of
supervision
and
review
in
a
given
instance
will
be
appropriate.
d)
All
of
the
above
are
reasons.
27.
In
pursuing
a
CPA
firms'
quality
control
objectives,
a
CPA
firm
may
maintain
records
indicating
which
partners
or
employees
of
the
CPA
firm
were
previously
employed
by
the
CPA
firm's
clients.
Which
quality
control
objective
would
this
be
most
likely
to
satisfy?
a)
Acceptance
of
client.
b)
Supervision.
c)
Independence.
d)
Monitoring.
28.
PSA
120,
Framework
of
Philippine
Standards
on
Auditing
describes
on
the
framework
within
which
Philippine
Standards
(PSAs)
are
issued
in
relation
to
the
services
which
may
be
performed
by
auditors.
It
requires
that
financial
statements
need
to
be
prepared
in
accordance
with
one,
or
a
combination
of
the
following,
except:
A. International
Accounting
Standards
B. Accounting
standards
generally
accepted
in
the
Philippines
C. Other
authoritative
and
comprehensive
financial
reporting
framework
designed
for
use
in
financial
reporting
framework
designed
for
use
in
financial
reporting
and
identified
in
the
financial
statements.
D. Procedures
recommended
by
industry
association
of
accountants.
29.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
among
the
ethical
principles
governing
the
auditor’s
professional
responsibilities?
A.
independence
B.
integrity
C.
objectivity
D.
size
and
profile
of
clientele
30.
An
auditor
is
engaged
to
audit
the
financial
statements
of
an
entity
for
the
year
ended
February
2015.
If
he
was
able
to
observe
the
inventory
count
at
February
2015
but
discovered
that
there
was
no
physical
count
made
at
February
2015
and
was
not
satisfied
as
to
the
value
of
the
beginning
inventory,
he
should
A.
disclaim
an
opinion
on
the
income
statement,
retained
earnings
statement
and
statement
of
cash
flows,
but
issue
an
unqualified
opinion
on
the
balance
sheet
B.
issue
on
unqualified
opinion
on
the
financial
statements
but
disclose
the
absence
of
such
procedure
as
a
scope
limitation
C.
disclaim
an
opinion
on
the
statements
of
income
and
retained
earnings
but
issue
an
unqualified
opinion
on
the
balance
sheet
and
statement
of
cash
flows.
D.
issue
an
unqualified
opinion
on
the
financial
statements
without
mentioning
the
scope
limitation
31.
The
term
that
describes
the
role
of
persons
entrusted
with
the
supervision,
control
and
direction
of
an
entity
is
A.
management
B.
administration
C.
governance
D.
government
32.
In
which
situation
can
the
auditor
sill
issue
a
standard
report
on
the
financial
statements?
Page 3 of 5 A.
client’s
legal
counsel
refuses
to
confirm
a
list
of
pending
litigations
concerning
the
firm
under
audit
B.
client
refuses
to
write
down
the
salvage
value
of
an
obsolete
equipment
C.
client
refuses
the
auditor
access
to
tax
returns
of
prior
years
D.
client
refuses
to
change
its
basis
of
accounting
for
inventories
from
FIFO
to
weighted
average
33.
A
special
purpose
auditor’s
report
is
issued
in
connection
with
the
independent
audit
of
the
following
financial
information
except
A.
financial
statements
prepared
in
accordance
with
a
comprehensive
basis
of
accounting
B.
specified
accounts,
elements
of
accounts
or
items
in
a
financial
statements.
C.
compliance
with
contractual
agreements
D.
financial
statements
prepared
in
accordance
with
IFRS.
34.
The
reason
auditors
accumulate
evidence
is
to
A.
defend
themselves
in
the
event
of
a
lawsuit
B.
justify
the
conclusions
they
have
otherwise
reached.
C.
satisfy
the
requirements
of
the
Securities
Act.
D.
enable
them
to
reach
conclusions
about
the
fairness
of
the
financial
statements
and
issue
an
appropriate
audit
report.
35.
Which
of
the
following
is
not
one
of
the
seven
broad
categories
of
financial
statement
assertions,
as
classified
in
Glossary
of
terms?
A.
general
or
specific
transaction
objectives
B.
existence
C.
valuation
D.
presentation
and
disclosure
36.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
purpose
why
an
auditor’s
opinion
is
expressed?
A.
the
preparation
of
the
financial
statements
is
the
specialty
of
the
auditor.
B.
the
auditor
will
assure
the
accuracy
of
the
financial
statements
C.
an
opinion
of
an
independent
party
is
needed
to
lend
credibility
to
the
financial
statements
D.
all
stockholders
must
receive
a
copy
of
the
auditor’s
report
37.
If
a
bank
engaged
an
auditor
to
audit
one
of
its
client
firms
who
applied
for
a
loan,
the
audit
report
for
a
loan,
the
audit
report
should
be
addressed
A.
to
the
board
of
directors
of
the
entity
audited
B.
to
the
shareholders
of
the
entity
audited
C.
to
whom
it
may
concern
D.
to
the
bank
38.
The
audit
report
should
contain
either
an
expression
of
opinion
or
an
assertion
to
the
effect
that
such
cannot
be
expressed
to
A.
prevent
the
auditor
from
expressing
an
opinion
on
one
basic
financial
statement
only
B.
prevent
misinterpretations
as
to
the
degree
of
responsibility
the
auditor
is
taking
C.
prevent
the
auditor
from
expressing
different
opinions
on
each
basic
financial
statements
D.
prevent
client
or
circumstance
imposed
restrictions
39.
Which
statement
is
false
regarding
the
signature
in
the
audit
report?
A.
The
report
may
be
signed
in
the
name
of
the
auditing
firm
B.
The
report
may
be
signed
in
the
personal
name
of
the
auditor
C.
The
report
should
be
signed
manually
D.
All
copies
of
the
printed
annual
report
should
be
signed
manually.
40.
A
CPA
is
engaged
to
audit
a
corporation
for
the
year
ended
December
2014.
He
completed
his
fieldwork,
February
2015
but
dated
his
report
March
2015.
In
May
of
the
same
year,
he
reissued
his
report
upon
client’s
request.
The
auditor’s
responsibility
extends
up
to
A.
February
2015,
date
of
completion
of
fieldwork
B.
December
2014,
balance
sheet
date
C.
March
2015,
date
of
report
D.
May
2015,
date
of
reissuance
41.
An
auditor
issued
his
audit
report
on
March
31,
2015
covering
the
year
ended
2014.
What
must
be
appropriately
done
if
the
client
asked
him
to
reissue
it
in
October
2015
and
he
discovered
that
the
client
suffered
substantial
losses
resulting
from
conditions
after
he
issued
his
original
report?
A.
ask
the
client
to
properly
disclose
the
event
in
the
notes
to
financial
statements
and
reissue
the
report
bearing
the
original
date.
B.
reissue
the
report
bearing
the
original
date
without
asking
for
disclosure
C.
request
the
client
to
restate
the
financial
statements
and
dual
date
the
original
report
D.
issue
another
report
with
a
“subject
to”
qualified
opinion
disclosing
the
event.
42.
An
adverse
opinion
is
issued
when
the
auditor
believes
that
A.
some
parts
of
the
financial
statements
are
materially
misstated
or
misleading
B.
the
financial
statements
will
be
found
to
be
misleading
or
misstated,
if
an
adequate
investigation
is
performed.
C.
the
overall
financial
statements
are
so
material
misstated
or
misleading
as
a
whole
that
they
do
not
present
fairly
the
financial
position
or
results
of
operations
and
cash
flows
in
conformity
with
PFRS
Page 4 of 5 D.
the
financial
statements
43.
A
departure
from
GAAP
with
material
effect
in
the
financial
statements
requires
the
auditor
to
A.
disclaim
an
opinion
and
discuss
the
departure
in
the
opinion
paragraph
B.
qualify
an
opinion
and
discuss
its
effect
in
the
explanatory
paragraph
C.
disclaim
an
opinion
and
discuss
the
effect
in
the
explanatory
paragraph
D.
qualify
an
opinion
and
discuss
the
departure
in
the
opinion
paragraph
44.
The
issuance
of
adverse
opinion
means
that
the
financial
statements
A.
are
based
on
prospective
financial
information
B.
contain
a
material
uncertainty
C.
are
misleading
D.
are
inconsistent
45.
In
the
case
of
comparative
financial
statements,
“taken
as
whole”
covers
the
A.
financial
statements
of
the
current
period
only
B.
financial
statements
of
the
current
period
and
those
of
the
immediately
preceding
period
C.
financial
statements
of
all
periods
presented
plus
those
of
one
preceding
period
D.
financial
statements
of
the
current
period
and
those
of
other
periods
presented
46.
Which
of
the
following
would
result
to
scope
limitation?
A.
the
subsidiary’s
financial
statements
are
audited
by
another
auditor
B.
the
auditor
is
engaged
only
after
year
end
C.
the
unavailability
of
sufficient
appropriate
audit
evidence
D.
the
auditor
is
engaged
to
audit
only
one
basic
financial
statements
47.
Three
of
the
following
situations
suggest
a
scope
limitation.
Which
one
is
not
and
would
not
preclude
an
unqualified
opinion?
A.
management
refuses
to
furnish
a
management
representation
letter
B.
management
does
not
make
the
minutes
of
the
meeting
C.
management
refuses
to
permit
its
lawyers
to
respond
to
the
letter
of
inquiry
D.
management
refuses
to
sign
an
engagement
letter
48.
If
an
auditor
issues
a
qualified
opinion
due
to
lack
of
sufficient
appropriate
audit
evidence,
he
should
describe
the
limitation
in
an
explanatory
paragraph
and
refer
to
it
in
the
A.
management’s
responsibility
paragraph
and
notes
to
financial
statements
B.
notes
to
financial
statements
C.
auditor’s
responsibility
and
opinion
paragraphs
D.
auditor’s
responsibility
paragraphs
49.
A
scope
limitation
caused
the
auditor
to
disclaim
an
opinion
on
the
financial
statements
taken
as
a
whole.
However,
the
report
includes
a
statement
that
the
current
assets
are
fairly
stated.
This
is
considered
A.
inappropriate
because
it
may
overshadow
the
disclaimer
of
opinion
B.
appropriate
as
long
as
the
statement
is
in
a
separate
paragraph
after
the
scope
paragraph
C.
inappropriate
because
the
auditor
is
not
allowed
to
report
on
one
basic
financial
statement
only
D.
appropriate
as
long
as
the
scope
limitation
is
properly
disclosed
50.
Which
footnote
regarding
related
party
transactions
would
require
the
auditor
to
modify
an
unqualified
opinion
on
the
financial
statements?
A.
that
loans
to
related
parties
are
at
interest
rates
below
prevailing
market
rates
B.
that
there
had
been
nonmonetary
exchange
of
real
estate
for
similar
properties
between
related
parties
C.
disclosure
of
the
peso
amount
of
related
party
transactions
and
the
effects
of
the
changes
in
the
method
of
establishing
the
terms
D.
that
a
particular
related
party
transaction
occurred
on
terms
equivalent
to
that
of
an
arm’s
length
transaction