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IAS PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2018

FOR IAS ASPIRANTS


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Table of content

TEST 1 4
TEST 2 22
TEST 3 38
TEST 4 53
TEST 5 70
TEST 6 85
TEST 7 101
TEST 8 117

EXPLANATION 1 133
EXPLANATION 2 143
EXPLANATION 3 153
EXPLANATION 4 161
EXPLANATION 5 169
EXPLANATION 6 179
EXPLANATION 7 188
EXPLANATION 8 194

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO


DO SO
Serial No. TEST BOOKLET SERIES

P.T. - 2018 TEST 1


GENERAL STUDIES APAPER - 1
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE


EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
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2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES. A, B, C OR D AS


THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER
SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll No on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alonside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both
in Hindi and English .Each item comprises four responses (answer). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
eachitem.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
Provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various
items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet
and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator
only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answer:
THERE WILLBE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BYA
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
thrid (0.33) of the marks assigned to that questions will be deducted
aspenalty
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a Wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e.,
no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
1. Which one among the followings are correct 4. regarding‘Ease of Doing
Business Report’? Choose the correct one regarding BSES Bharat

stage standards.
1. It’s an annualy published by WTO.
2. India has ranked 134 in 2016. 1. India will skip BS-V and directly move
towards BS-VI.

3. SWIFT (Single Window Interface for Facilitating Trade) has strengthened


trade and case of doing business in India.

2. The standards for this are set by Central Pollution Control Board .
Codes:

(a) Only 1 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) Only 1
(c) Only 3 (b) Only 2
(d) All the above (c) Both 1 and 2 2. Regarding Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
which of the following is/are incorrect?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It’s a universal social security program for5. all Indians irrespective of their
status.
World Economic Freedom Index released by–
(a) World Economic Forum 2. APY is a new scheme which will replace
Swabhiman Scheme.
(b) United Nation Development Programme
3. The Government will contribute 50% throughout the phase of this scheme.
(c) World Bank
Code:
(d) None of the above
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 36.
(c) All the above (d) 2 and 3 only
3. According to the Treaty related to Indus water India is having control over:

1. Indus 2. Chenab The famous Urdu poet, Ghalib, mournfully wrote: “Here
there is a vast ocean of blood before me, God only knows what more I have
still tobehold.” The context of Ghalib was–

(a) Killing of innocent male citizens in Delhi during 1857 revolt.


3. Jhelum 4. Ravi
5. Beas 6. Sutlej (b) Plunder of Delhi during Ahamad Shah Abdali’s invasion.
Code: (c) Plunder of Bengal during Marathas invasion. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 (b) 4,
5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) Killing of innocent Muslims during
Marathas invasion of North.
7. What is the correct chronological order of the following events of Modern
India?
10. Consider the following statements regarding the Stupa.
1. Battle of Jajau
2. The Regulating Act
3. Treaty of Allahabad
4. Third Battle of Panipat
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(a) 4, 3, 1, 2 (b) 1, 4, 3, 2
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

8. Which of the following were probably line drawings or sketches, patterns


and designs in colour rendered with style or brush, and presumably of a
decorative nature like alimpanas or alpanas of a later tradition–

(a) Dhuli-citras
(b) Lekhya-citras
(c) Bhitti-citras
(d) Lepya-citras
9. Consider the following statements regarding Gupta Sculptures.

1. The Gupta sculptures especially those of the Sarnath School, are clearly
indicative of a new aesthetic quality, serving as the ‘the conscious vehicle of
the intellectual and spiritual conceptions of thepeople’.

2. The youthful human form became the pivot of the Gupta sculpture.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The stupa was a conventional
representation of a funeral tumulus, evolved out of earthen funerary mounds.

2. Jaina tradition mentions the erection of a number of stupa immediately


after the death of the Mahavira.

Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

11. Consider the following statements in thecontext of advent of the


Europeans in India.

1. Though the earliest “intruder into the East”, the Portuguese lost their
influence in the sphere of Indian trade by the eighteenth century.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured the rich port of Goa, then belonging to
the Bijapur Sultanate.

Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 12. Consider the following statements in
thecontext of Carnatic Wars.
1. Under the treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, Madras was restored to the Dupleix.

2. The utter rout of Anwar-uddin’s huge forces by the small French army on
land proved that in warfare better discipline and up-to-date equipment
counted for more than mere numbers.

Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 13. Consider the following statements
regarding Battle of Plassey.

1. Only a small force under Mohanlal and Mir Madan, backed by a French
officer took part in the battle.

2. Plassey is located on the bank of the river Bhagirathi.


Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the following statements regarding Hyder Ali.

1. He entered the service of Nanjraj, the Dalwai or prime minister of Mysore,


who had made himself the practical dictator over the titular Hindu ruler of the
state.

2. He was an illiterate.

3. When the Marathas invaded Hyder’s territories in 1771, the English didn’t
help him.
16. The Bhangi, the Kanheya, the Nakai, the
Ramgarhia are the examples of –
(a) Tribes of Punjab Areas
(b) Places of Anglo-Sikh Wars
(c) Sikh Misls
(d) Tribes of Western Frontier

17. Victor Jacquemont, a French traveller described a ruler ofIndia as “an


extraordinary man– a Bonaparte in miniature”. He was –

(a) Tipu Sultan


(b) Ranjit Singh
(c) Raja Jai Singh
(d) Raja Ravi Verma

18. Consider the following statements.


1. Warren Hastings encouraged the revival of Indian learning.
2. The Calcutta Madrasa was established in 1781.
3. A Sanskrit College was established at Benares by Jonathan Duncan in
1792.
Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 19. Which among the following is/are the effect of
lowering the CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) by the RBI?

15. Which one of the following treaties was considered as a “Treaty with
acipher” (the Peshwa)?
1. Expansion of credit

2. Dear money policy

(a) Treaty of Salbai


3. Cheap money policy

4. Contraction of credit (b) Treaty of Bassein


Chose the correct statement(s): (c) Treaty of Surji-Arjangaon

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) Treaty of Purander (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4
only

20. Which among the following is/are differencebetween Foreign Direct


Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII)?

1. FII only brings capital but FDI also brings technology and management
skills. 2. FII is more stable than FDI.
3. FDI only target’s specific sectors while FII increase capital in general.
4. FDI only comes in primary market while FII target’s both primary and
secondarymarket. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the above are correct

21. Which among the following steps can be taken to reduce the fiscal
deficit?
1. Increase in official transfers from a foreign government.
2. Encouraging disinvestment of more public sector enterprises.
3. Providing more employment opportunity under MGNREGS.
4. Shifting indirect subsidy on fertilizers into cash transfers.

Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and
4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only

22. After demonetization there is a fear of‘Bank Run’ which among the
following best describe the situation of‘Bank Run’.

(a)A bank’s non-performing assets exceedsit’s ability to recover.


(b) A large number of banks leave the country after a economic showdown.
(c) When a large number of depositors ask for their deposits at the same time
from banks. (d) Abankstart’s losingit’s big depositors in the time of
demonetization.
23. Which ministry/department releases Consumer Price Index in India?
(a) Ministry of Industry
(b) Labour bureau
(c) Ministry of Finance

(d) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

24. If an economy is expecting lower inflation in coming months which


among the following situations are present in the economy.

1. Increase in government revenue.


2. Reduction in Repo rate.
3. High food grain production.

4. Central bank increases the repo and reverse repo rate.

Select the correct code:


(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

25. Which of the sector comes under priority sector lending in India?

1. Housing loans
2. Agriculture
3. MSME’s
4. Education Loans Select the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) (c) 2, 3 and 4
only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 26. Consider the following
statements.

1. IMF gives loans to member countries during a balance of payment crisis.


2. The World Bank gives loans to the member countries for infrastructure
development. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 27. Consider the following statement
about UDAY Scheme.
1. It is related to both electricity generation and electricity distribution units.
2. Empowers the state governments to issue bonds to restructure the
electricity distribution companies.

Which among the following statement/s correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. The Sykes Picot Pact is related to which of the following.

(a) Illegal settlement


(b) Political boundaries
(c) Illegal migration
(d) Hunger eradication.

29. Consider thefollowing statements with reference to AADHAAR.


1. AADHAAR is given only to the citizen of India.
2. AADHAAR has no legal basis so far. 3. AADHAAR project is
implemented by Registrar General, ministry of Home Affairs. Which of the
statement’s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only


(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

30. Consider the statement about ‘Stand UpIndia’ Scheme.

1. Stand Up India is to encourage Greenfield enterprises by SC/ST and


women entrepreneurs.

2. The Stand Up India provides for refinance window through small


industries development Bank of India (SIDBI).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 31. Consider the following statement
about HDI (Human Development Index).

1. HDI uses gross national income per capita at PPP for the measurement of
standard of living index.

2. HDI also accounts for gender bias in calculation of Indices.


Which of the statement’s given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Which among the following statement is/are correct about the desert
region of India? 1. The desert region can be divided into 3 parts
– ‘great desert’ ‘middle desert’ ‘little desert’. 2. The great desert extend
fromthe edge of Rann of Kutch beyond the Luni river northward.

Chose the correct code:


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Consider the following statement about the ‘National Anthem’ of India.
1. It is originally composed in Bengali. 2. It was first sung at Surat Session of
Indian National Congress 1907.
Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Consider the following statement about the Cabinet Secretariat.


1. The cabinet secretariat functions directly under the home minister.
2. The administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat is Cabinet Secretary.

3. Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the government


of India (transaction of business) Rules, 1961.

Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

35. Which among the following fellowships is/are awarded by Sahitya


Akademi?

1. Sahitya Akademi honorary fellowship.


2. Anand fellowship.
3. Premchand fellowship.
Chose the correct code:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only

36. Which among the following departments comes under ministry of


finance?

1. Department of Expenditure
2. Department of Disinvestment
3. Department of Commerce
4. Department of Financial Services Chose the answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

37. Which one among the following is correct regarding the Citizenship
(Amendment) Bill 2016?

1. The bill was introduced in Lok Sabha by ministry of External Affairs.


2. The bill seeks to amend the citizenship Act 1955.

3. The bill provided that after the enactment of the act minorities from
Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan will not be treated as illegal migrants.

Which one of the following is/are correct? (a) Only 1 is correct.


(b) Only 2 is correct.
(c) Both 2 and 3 is correct.
(d) All of the above.
38. Which one among the following are incorrect regarding the Lokpal and
Lokayukta(Amendment) Bill 2016.

1. It defines‘Public Servants’ as those who are part of bureaucracy only.

2. This act made mandatory compulsion for public servants to declare their
assets and liability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Both of the above 39. What do you mean by SAUNI
Project that was in news recently?
(a) Its project launched by Jharkhand govt. to raise the bar of education for
girls. (b)It’s project based on solar energy potential of India.

(c) Its project launched by PM to diverts excess over flowing flood water of
Narmada to Saurashtra Region.

(d)It’sa project which is part and parcel of clean Ganga Initiative.


40. ‘Akashrani Maitree’ which was recently innews is a–

(a) Initiative by Ministry of Communication and Information Technology to


strengthen the All India Radio channels.

(b)It’s an initiative between India-Nepal to strengthen their ties.


(c)It’s to strengthen ties between IndiaBangladesh.

(d) It’s a move made by PM to reach maximum households via All India
Radio services and spread government policies and schemes.

41. Theterm‘Levant’ is an news. Its associated with– 1. Lebanon 2. Syria


3. Palestine 4. Jordan
5. Egypt 6. North Sudan Code:
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 6 (d) 1, 5, 6

42. DIPP (Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion) is responsible to


protect Intellectual property right/s covers:
1. Copyrights
2. Patents and Design
3. Private work done by individuals
4. Geographical indication of goods
Code:
(a) Only 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 1 and4 43. Senkaku Island was
in news, its located in– (a) Sea of Japan
(b) Yellow Sea
(c) Beria Sea
(d) East China Sea
44. Consider the following regarding GSAT-18.

1. It’s a communication satellite built byISRO.


2. It will be operated by INSAT.
3. It’s heaviest satellite launched by India.
4. It was launched from Sriharikota launch pad.
Which among the following the correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 2 and 4

45. India is testing High Speed Passenger Train these days. Recently a lighter
and faster Talgo train has been tested. It belongs to–

(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Spain

46. Dugong an marine mammal which is herbivorous is official animal of


which Indian state

(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Andaman & Nicobar Island
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala

47. With reference to soil erosion, consider the following statements:


1. Gully erosion takes place on level lands after heavy shower.
2. Sheet erosion is commonly observed on steep slopes.
Which of the following given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


48. With reference to antecedent rivers, considerthe following statements.
Select correct answer: (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2 and 4

1. An antecedent stream is a stream that maintains its original course and


pattern despite the changes in underlying rocks topography.

2. The Himalayan rivers are good example of antecedent rivers in India.


Which of the following is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. Which of the following climate type does not enjoy rain fall all-round the
year?
(a) Steppe type
(b) China type
(c) Laurentian type
(d) British type
50. The existence of S-wave shadow zone is an evidence of which of the
following?
(a) The outer case is liquid.
(b) The outer case is composed of Iron and Nickel oxides.
(c) The inner core is solid.
(d) P wave travels faster than S waves.
51. Which of the following have volcanic origins?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Island
2. Lakshadweep (c) 1 and 3 (d) All the above

52. Which one of the following explain phenomenon of Aurora– a natural


light display is observed in higher latitudes?
(a) The magneto sphere is ionized and excited by the disturbance of solar
winds.
(b) The particles in the ionosphere are excited by Ultra Violet light.
(c) The phenomenon of scattering takes place over clouds due to solar winds.
(d) The stratospheric clouds of high altitude refract the white light.

53. Which of the following atmospheric layers is/are associated with the
phenomena of inversion of temperature?

1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Mesosphere
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All the above
54. With regard to salinity of oceans consider the following statements.
1. Salinity depends on the wind speed.
2. Among all the salts sodium chloride is found maximum proportion.
3. Enclosed seas or inland seas have lower salinity than open ocean.
Which of the following is/are correct?
3. Deccan Trap (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
4. Aravali range (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only 55. Which of the following
crops are source of Boiethanol?
Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Sugarcane (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Jatropa (b) 3 only
3. Wheat (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. Shorgum (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer code:

(a) 2 only 59. In which of the following is the highly productive and nutrient
rich soil ‘chernozem’ likely to be found:

(b) 2 and 4 only (a) Desert

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b)Mediterranean’s shrubland


(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
56. Cordillera refers to chain of mountain ranges: (c) Tropical grassland
(a) Formed due to faulting. (d) Temperative grassland
(b) Acting as watersheds. 60. Consider the following statements regarding
Coral Triangle bio-region.
(c) That are roughly parallel or run in general direction.
(d) Formed due to volcanic activity. 1. It is the marine area located in western
pacific ocean.

57. Consider the following plateaues: 2. It contains the highest diversity of


iridescent corals and marine plant species on earth.

1. Great Basin Which of the following is/are correct?


2. The Tibetan plateau

3. The Bolivian plateau (a) 1 only (b) 2 only


Which ofthe above are ‘inter-montane’plateau? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 61. Which of
the following is a primary cause of soil degradation in irrigated cultivated
land in India.
58. The mainland Turkey is divided by which of the following water bodies.

1. Bosophorous strait
2. Dardanelles strait
3. Marmara sea
4. Aegean sea
(a) Silting of land

(b) Gully Erosion


(c) Alkalization and Salinity of soil

(d) Wind erosion 62. Recently the RBI announced to withdraw from
circulation all the currency notes printed in denomination of Rs. 500 & Rs
1000. Which of the following is/are the likely impacts of this move, other
than curbing the black money?
64. Consider the following regarding Mathura

School–
1. The sculpture of the Mathura School are influenced by the stories of
Buddhism only.
1. A possible increase in Gold and real estate prices
2. Symbolism is images were the most striking feature of Mathura School.

2. Stimulus to economy Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3. Increase in tax returns for the government (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Select the
correct answer using the codes given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 65. Which among the following are correctly matched?
(b) 3 only 1. Gandhara School– Satvahanas (c) 1, 2 and 3 2. Mathura School–
Kushana (d) None of the above 3. Amravati School– Satvahana 63. Which of
the following is correct in context to the Census of India?
Code:
1. Census 2011 was the 15thCensus of India since 1871.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these 2. In Census 2011, sex ratio was recorded highest
since census 1991.
66. Consider the following regarding Nagara School of Architecture.

3. In Census 2011, Bihar was on the top regarding population density while
recorded last in literacy.

1. It generally followed Panchayatan style of temple making.


Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only 2. Absence of assembly halls.

3. Outside the garbhagriha images of the river goddesses (like Ganga and
Yamuna) were placed.

(b) 2 and 3 only Which among the following are correct? (c) 3 only (a) 2 and
3 (b) Only3 (d) All of the above (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above 67. Consider
the following about Harappan Seals. 70. Tirupati dolls which are quite
famous in India use–
1. The script used in seals are undeciphered Bronze age writing.
(a) Red Sandal Wood
2. The characters are largely pictorial. (b) Teakwood
3. The seals were used as amulets for spiritual purposes.
(c) Sandal wood
(d) Sheasham wood
Which of the above statement is/are correct? 71. Consider the following
regarding UNESCO–
(a) Only 1 1. UNESCO can provide funds for restoration prevention and
training if required. (b) Only 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 2. UNESCO select a site as heritage if it’s a masterpiece of human


creative genius.

(d) All of the above Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

68. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Only 1 (b) Only2 (a)
Warli Paintings – Maharashtra (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b)
Thangka Painting– Sikkim 72. Uparkot is the main feature of– (c) Manjusha
Painting– Bihar (a) Bagh Cave
(d) Kalamkari Painting– Kerala (b) Ellora Cave
69. Consider the following pairs: (c) Junagarh Cave
1. Pichwai– Rajasthan (d) Nashik Cave
2. Shamilami– Jammu and Kashmir 73. Consider the following regarding
Juang tribe–
3. Rabari Art– Kutch 1. Juangs are a tribal group of people from the Munda
ethnic group.
4. Phool Patti Ka Kaam– Aligarh
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 2 and 3 2. Juang language is accepted as a Austroasiatic languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 4 (b) Only 2

(c) 2 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 74. The recently
launched‘Sugamya Pustakalaya’is– Select the correct code:
1. An initiative launched by Ministry of Human Resources.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
2. It’s targeted to make education and access to online library easy for girls.
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
78. Consider the following regarding Home Rule

Movement.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 1. Idea of Home Rule was suggested by the Anne Besant in
Bombay session in 1915.
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. During this movement, ‘Swaraj is my Birthright’


statement was propounded by Tilak.

75. Earth’s oldest living animal with a backbone is–


(a) Bowhead Whale 3. Sindhi community participated for the first time
during this movement.

(b) Greenland Shark Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(c) Galapagas Giant Tortoise (a) 1 and 3 (d) Koi-Fish (b) 2 and 3 76.
Consider the following– (c) Only 1 1. Keibul Lamjao is the only floating
national Park.
2. Keibul Lamjao National Park is the refuge of the endangered Sangai deer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) All of these
79. Which of the following are incorrect regarding Non-Cooperation
Movement?
1. Gandhi’s poor health was responsible for the withdrawal of the movement.
2. It attracted the masses. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Rowlatt Act, Jallianwala Bagh
massacre and other form of oppressions were main reasons behind the
movement.

77. Consider the following in context of Saur Sujala Yojana–


Select the correct Code:
1. It’s basically meant to provide electricity to villages.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 2. Uttar Pardesh became the first state to implement it.
(c) Only 2
(d) 2 and 3 80. Consider the following landmarks in Indian education.
83. Which among the following statement is/are correct about African
Union?
(i) Hindu College, Calcutta 1. Morocco and Eritrea are the only allAfrican
State not in AU.
(ii) University of Calcutta
(iii)Adam’s Report 2. It has it’s headquarter in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.
(iv) Woods Despatch Chose the correct code:
The correct chronological order of these landmark is –
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) 84. IMF has it’s
headquarter in which city?
(b) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (a) Paris
(c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (b) Geneva
(d) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (c) Washington, D.C.

81. During the struggle for freedom an historic novel was written which one
of the following is correct one–
(d) New York

85. Scouting is a worldwide organized movement for young people chose the
correct statement about.
(a) Rast Goftar
(b) Durgesh Nandini 1. It is a movement started during Second World War.
(c) Maharatha 2. The movement’s goal was to assist allied forces during the
war.
(d) Nibandhamala Choose the correct code:
82. Which among the following statement(s) correct about Global Slavery
Index?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is a ranking based on the prevalence
of Slavery in developing countries only.
2. It includes victims of trafficking and child marriages also.
Select the correct answer using the code below. 86. Consider the statement/s
about Battle of Waterloo.
1. This battle endedNapoleon’s ‘HundredDays’ war.
(a) 1 only 2. Napoleon won the battle after defeating English forces under
Arthur Wellesley. (b) 2 only Chose the correct statement: (c) 1 and 2 both (a)
1 only (b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 87.
Consider the following statement.
1. The storming of Bastille prison is a significant event in French Revolution.

4. Abolish Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) gradually and replace it with


Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR).

2. Boston tea party ended the American

Revolution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 3 Which of the above statement is/are correct? (b) 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4 88.
Who among the following famous Dancers is not associated with Manipuri
Dance?
91. Withreference to Congress Socialist Party(CSP), which of the following
statements is/are correct. (a) Guru Bipin Sinha

(b) Nayana Jhaveri 1. At the beginning the CSP wanted to work outside the
Congress party because of ideological difference.

(c) Savita Mehta

(d) Bharati Gupta 2. CSP always worked towards replacing the leadership of
the Congress because it felt it was incapable.

89. Consider the following statement about Indian Cinema.


Chose the correct code:
1. Alam Ara was the first Indian talkie film. (a) 1 only
2. Nation award for best director was bagged most number of times by
Mrinal Sen. (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both Which among the following statement/s is/are

correct.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 92. Which among
the following are contributions of Moderate nationalists?

90. Recently the Nachiket Mor committee on financial inclusion has


submitted its report. Which of the following statements are correct regarding
the recommendations of the committee?
1. Economic critique of British imperialism.

2. Campaign for general administrativereforms.


3. Defence of civil rights.

1. Every Indian resident above the age of 18 years should be given universal
electronic bank account by Jan 1, 2016.
Chose the correct code:

(a) 1 and 2 only

2. Increase the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) targets from 40% to 50% with
regionally differentiated targets.

3. Stress for universal banking wherein a single bank caters to all customers.
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 93. Quit India Movement saw the emergence of parallel
governments in several parts of India, which of the following places saw the
emergence of parallel government.
96. Which of the following journals Gandhiji was

not associated?
(a) The Harijan
1. Satara (Maharashtra) (b) Young India
2. Balia (UP) (c) Exploitation of the masses
3. Tamluk (Bengal) (d) Indian Opinion
4. Talcher (Orissa) Select the correct code.
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only 97. With reference to the growing tourism
sector in India, consider the following statements:

1. It promotes inclusive growth of the lessadvantages section of the society


and poverty reduction.

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Who among the following belonged to the group
called ‘responsivists’?

1. Hakim Ajmal Khan.


2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Madan Mohan Malviya

4. M.R. Jayakar 2. Tourist visa on– Arrival facility (TVOA) is available at


the international airports of Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata only.

ITDC plays a pivotal social role in the3. development of tourism infrastructure.


oc rrect?Which of the statements given above is/are
) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only(a
) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c
Select the correct code: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
hich of the following is/are the new initiatives
98. W ently launched by Indian Council of Agricul
reral Research?
tu
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
95. Which of the statement/s are correct about Morley Minto Reforms 1909?

1. Farmer FIRST
2. READY

1. The number of elected members in imperial legislative council were


increased but in the provincial legislative councils there number was
decreased.
2. The elected members were to be directly elected.
Chose the correct code:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. ARYA
4. Mera Gaon, Mera Gaurav
S
lect the correct answer using the code given
elow:
be
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
99. With parts of it claimed by Brunei, Indonesia, Malaysia, this island has
the distinction of belonging to the most countries which island here we are
talking about

(a) Borneo
(b) Spartlys Island
(c) Redang
(d) Lombak
100.“Building a future in which people and nature thrive” is the motto of
which organization-
(a) WWF
(b) United Nations Environment Programme
(c) Global Environment facility
(d) World Nature Organisation
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU TEST BOOKLET
SERIES

Serial No. P.T. - 2018 TEST 2


GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 Time Allowed : Two Hours
B
Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE


EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
FOR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES. A, B, C OR D AS


THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER
SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll No on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alonside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both
in Hindi and English .Each item comprises four responses (answer). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
eachitem.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
Provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various
items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet
and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator
only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answer:
THERE WILLBE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BYA
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
thrid (0.33) of the marks assigned to that questions will be deducted
aspenalty
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a Wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question.
1. Consider the following statements. 5. With reference to India's Culture and
tradition,
what is 'Silambam'?1. The Harappans grew cotton.

2. The evidence of a furrowed field in (a) Folk Theatre Kalibangan indicates use
of some sort of (b) Bamboo fight wooden plough.

(c) Theatre Group Which of the statement(s) given above is/are


correct? (d) Folk Dance

6. Consider the following statements.(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. In the Mediterranean region, rainfall occurs
during winter.
2. Consider the following statements.
2. The western disturbance associated with 1. It is not clear as to what sort of
politicalCyclones bring rain fall during winter. organisation the Harappans had.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 2. No temples have been found
at any of thecorrect?

Harappan sites.
(a) Only 1 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? (b) Only 2

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The subject of the Ancient India play Malati 7. Consider the following
statements in thecontext Madhava is of Tropical Cyclone.
1. Tropical Cyclones occur only in oceanic
(a) Conflict between Gods and Demons
areas where the sea temperature exceeds 35ºC.
(b) Court politics
2. In the order to achieve the rotational
(c) Love and Horror component the tropical cyclone must have
crossed at least South-North to 5-5° lattitude(d) Power struggle of the equator.

4. The India Innovation Index will be developed


by which International Organisation– Which of the statement(s) given above is/are

correct?
(a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(a) Only 1 (b) World Intellectual Property Organisation
(WIPO) (b) Only 2

(c) Asian Development Bank (ADB) (c) Both 1 and 2


(d) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1.
Consider the following statements.

1. Canal irrigation is an effective source of irrigation in the area of rocky


topography. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 2. Tank irrigation is popular in thepeninsular plateau.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


2. Consider the following statements.
1. Venus is the second planet from the Sun.

2. When two full moons occur in a single month, the second full moon is
called Blue moon. 3. Jupiter is the fourth brightest object in the Sky.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Lagoons that are formed between the Fringing reef and the land is
called

(a) Boat Channel


(b) Coral Banks
(c) Atoll
(d) Isthmus

4. Consider the following statements.


1. El-Nino is a warm current which appears in the western coast of South
America. 2. Peru cold current is responsible for formation of Atacama Desert.
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. Levanter - Spain
2. Pampero - Pampas region
3. Papagayo - Coastal region of Mexico Choose the correct code:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 6. Ox-bow lake is formed by
(a) River erosion is it's youthful stage.
(b) Transport action of river.
(c) River erosion is it's mature stage.
(d) Deposition in the old age of river. 7. Which among the following
statements are correct about 'Anaconda 2016' ?
1. It is a NATO war game.
2. It took place in Belgrade. 3. It was a war game in collaboration with
Russian forces.
Choose the correct answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 2 13. Consider the following: 17. Consider the following statements.
1. Jallikattu
2. Kambala
3. Fox Darshan
Which one among the above is/are part of traditional animal fighting sport in
India?
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All the above
14. Which among the following city hosted the 2016 summer Paralympics
games?
(a) Pyongyang
(b) Rio de Janeiro
(c) Sochi
(d) Vancouver

15. Recently, a group of 75 countries have ratified the so called "Doha


Amendment". It is related to–

(a) Trade and investment.


(b) Intellectual Property Rights protection.
(c) Climate change.
(d) Biodiversity protection.
16. Consider the following statements.
1. Togalu Gombeyatta is a shadow puppet of Andhra Pradesh.
2. Ravanchhya is a shadow puppet tradition of Odisha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Dashavatar is performed while
wearing masks.
2. Sumang leela is a courtyard theatre of Manipur.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 18. Consider the following statements in
thecontext of Global Wind Pattern.

1. The wind blowing almost in the same direction throughout the year are
called planetary wind.

2. The winds which change their direction of blowing with the changing
seasons are called periodic winds.
3. Horse latitude is a region of low pressure humid air and associated with
heavy rain on the land.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 19. Which of the following country does not share
its boundary with Caspian Sea?

(a) Iran
(b) Turkmenistan
(c) Georgia
(d) Azerbaijan

20. The hot dust laden wind blowing from Sahara desert to Mediterranean
region is called

(a) Simoom
(b) Sirocco
(c) Samoon
(d) None of these
21. Consider the following statements.

1. Strong winds 24. Which among the following aspects are included in the
concept of Inclusive growth?
2. Long winter nights 1. Higher national Income.
3. Cloudy Sky 2. Better Financial Inclusion.
4. Cold dry air 3. Lower Inflation.
Which of the above are the ideal condition for formation of temperature
inversion?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 4. Debt restructuring for big corporations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
22. Which of the following is an instrument of Fiscal Policy?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(a) Higher External Commercial Borrowing (ECB’s) allowed for the public
sector enterprise.
(b) Purchase of government securities by banks from RBI.

(c) Increase in salaries of the government employees after a new pay


commission report.
(d) All the above

25. Which among the following best describe trickledown effect?


(a) Lower inflation increases unemployment in the economy.
(b) Lower poverty can result from higher employment generation.
(d) Allowing more FDI in Railways and Defence Sector.
(c) Higher employment would be an automatic result of higher national
income growth. 23. Depreciation ofIndia’s currency will likely to result in
which among the following? (d) Higher agriculture production will increase
the purchasing power.
1. Increase in inflation rate. 26. Consider the following statements. 2.
Increase Export.
3. Make external debt-servicing more expensive.
Select the correct answer using the code below. 1. Net factor income from
abroad is added to GDP to arrive at GNP.
2. GNP of an economy is always higher then it’s GDP.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statement(s) given above is/are

correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All the above 27. Which of the
following is not a tool of monetary policy?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) Quantitative easing. (a) Only 1 (b) Only2


(b) Cash transfer of subsidy to a farmer. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Increase in Reverse repo rate.
(d) Banks purchasing the government securities from RBI.
28. Consider thefollowingstatement about regarding National Human Right
Commission (NHRC).
1. The recommendations of NHRC are just advisory and not binding.
2. NHRC is a statutory body established in 1993.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. “Mission Indradhanush’ an initiative by Indian Government focuses on
which of the following?
(a) To ensure increase in production of seven essential food crops.
(b) To ensure proper development of seven most backward regions of the
country.
(c) To ensure full immunization of all children against seven vaccine
preventable diseases.
(d) To ensure the development of seven core manufacturing sectors.
30. Consider the following statement on AYUSH.

1. The department of AYUSH under Ministry of Health and Family Welfare


was upgraded to a full fledged ministry.

2. Outside of India the 1st International day of Yoga was celebrated in all
countries of the world except in Yemen.
31. Consider the following statements regarding

Armed Forces Special Powers Act.

1. The choice of declaring any area as disturbed vests both with state as well
as the Central Government.

2. The Central Government has declared entire Nagaland as disturbed area.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Consider the following statement about Allauddin Khilji.


1. Allauddin’s southern expedition was ledby Malik Kafur.
2. Allauddin’s established direct control over the defeated states of the
Deccan.
Which among the following statement’s are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Which among the following is not included among the six schools of
Indian Philosophy?

(a) Sankhya
(b) Nyaya
(c) Charvaka

(d) Yoga
29. Which among the following had given the title of Khan-i-Khanan during
the region of Humayun? 33. Guru Nank was contemporary of which among
the following Mugal ruler?
(a) Bairam Khan (a) Babur (b) Jahangir
(b) Akbar (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb
(c) Humayun 34. Which among the following great Hindi poets lived during
the time of Akbar?
(d) Abdul Rahim 1. Surdas 30. Which among the following is not depicted in
the rock painting of prehistoric India? 2. Rahim 3. Malik Mohammed Jayasi
(a) Burials 4. Behari (b) Bull fights Choose the correct answer using the code
below: (c) Fishing (a) 1 and 2 only (d) Honey Collection (b) 2 and 4 only 31.
Which among the following statements are correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Nadir Shah invaded India during the
rule of Muhammad Shah, a later Mughal Emperor. 35. Which among the
following statements are correct?
2. Nadir Shah’s army routed the Mughal army at the battle of Karnal.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. National Statistics Office (NSO) consists of Central Statistical Office


(CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).

2. Headline inflation measured in terms of Consumer Price Index (CPI).


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. The Twenty Point Programme (TPP)
initiated in 1986.
32. Consider the following statements regarding Alvars saints–
Choose the answer from the code below. (a) 1 and 3 only 1. The were the
worshippers of Shiva. (b) 1 only
2. They preached their ideas in Tamil and Telugu.
(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

36. Which among the following countries is the top exporter of Commercial
Services in the world? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) China (b) India (c) Both 1
and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) USA (d) Japan 43. Consider the following
statements.
1. India has the second largest postal network in the world after China.
46. What is ‘Sendai Framework’, often mentioned in the news?
(a) It is a framework adopted by UN world conference on disaster risk
reduction. 2. Department of posts comes under ministry of Information and
broad casting.

(b) It is a framework adopted by UN world conference on Nuclear Pollution.


Which among the following statement is/are correct?

(c) It is a framework adopted by UNEP to protect costal Eco system.


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 (d) It is a framework adopted by WTO to counter protectionism.
(c) Both 1 and 2 47. India is a member of which among the following?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
44. Consider the following statements. (b) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)
1. Akash missile is a air to air missile. (c) Association of South East Asian
Nation (ASEAN)
2. The rank of brigadier in the army is equivalent to the rank of commodore
in the Navy. (d) East Asia Summit (EAS)
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

48. Which among the following statement’s is/are correct about ‘Kaladan
Multi-Modal Transit transport Project'?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 1. It is a project that will connect the seaport of Kolkata with the
seaport of Thailand.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. It is a project directed towards makingIndia’s maritime
security stronger.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Codes: 45. Consider the following statements. (a) Only 1
(b) Only2 1. Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDMS) has improved the learning
ability of children. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. ‘Saransh’ is a on-line facility launched by CBSE board.
Choose the answer using the code below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 49. Which among the following statement’s is/are correct
about ‘Sir Creek dispute’?
1. The creek divides the Gujarat state of India from Balochistan province of
Pakistan.
2. The Creek opens up into Arabian Sea.
Code:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 50. Which among the following Nations
areinvolved in 'South China Sea' dispute?
53. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. China Folk Music Region
2. Taiwan (a) Baul : Awadh
3. Philippines (b) Wanawan : Kashmir
4. Vietnam (c) Ovi : Madhya Pradesh
Choose the correct answer from the code below. (d) Maand : Odisha
(a) Only 1, 3 and 4
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3 54. Consider the following regarding ‘Thang Ta’ dance
form–
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 1. It is exclusive dance form of Mizoram.
(d) All the above 2. In this dance form performers enact a mock fight
sequence–leapingto attack and defend.

51. The phrase‘Nairobi package’ is related to which of the following?


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) World Trade (a) Only 1 (b) Only2 (b) IMF (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2 (c) Rio + 20 Conference 55. Which of the following is not correctly
matched?
(d) Solar Power (a) Uttaramacharitra – Bhavabhuti
52. With reference to‘Thumri’consider the following statements.
(b) Ratnavali
– Harshavardhan (c) Vikramvashi
– Ashvaghosha 1. It is based on mixed–ragas and is commonly considered to
be semi-classical Indian music.
2. It was inspired by Bhakti Movement. (d) Malavikagnimitra – Kalidasa
56. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of
shadow puppets?
3. The composition is usually sung in a female voice.
1. Shadow puppets are round figures cut out of the wood.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 2. The figures are painted identically on both side of the wood.

3. The puppets are placed on white screen with light falling from behind,
creating a shadow on the screen.

(b) 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes below– (c) Only 3 (a)
Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (c) Only 3 (d) All of these 56. Lok Sabha
can express lack of confidence in the government by–
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 1. Not passing a motion
of thanks on the presidents inaugural address.
(b) 1 and 3
2. Rejecting a money bill. (c) 2 and 3
3. Passing an adjournment motion. (d) All of these
4. Passing a cut motion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 59. Which of the following criticism are leveled against the
amendment procedure in the Indian Constitution?

1. There is no provision for special conventions for amendment of the


constitution as in USA.
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
57. UPSC is consulted in which of the following matters?
1. While making reservation of appointment in favour of backward classes.
2. Disciplinary matters of Civil Servants.
3. Method of recruitment of Civil Servants.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) All of these
58. Consider the following statements.

1. Proclamation of Emergency must be approved by the Parliament within 6


months of its proclamation.

2. If approved by theParliament, the emergency continues for 6 months.

3. Emergency shall be revoked by the President when Lok Sabha passes a


resolution disapproving the continuance of emergency.

2. Too much power has been given to the states in the matters of proposing
amendments to the constitution.

3. The states have not been given sufficient powers with the regard to
amendment of the constitution.

4. Too much power has been given to the Union Parliament with regard to the
amendment of the constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of these

60. Consider the following statements about unstarred question.


1. It is distinguished by an asterisk mark. 2. Answer to such a question is not
following by supplementary questions.
3. Answer to such question is given orally. 4. It’s always introduced by
members of opposition party.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 58. In the event of
declaration of constitutional emergency in the state, the president can– 1.
Assume to himself all the functions of the state government except the High
Court.

2. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under
authority of the Parliament.

3. Assume to himself all the function of the state government including the
High Court.

4. Declare that the powers of state legislature shall be exercisable under the
authority of the Governor.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

59. Which of the following is not concerned with the regularity and economy
of the expenditure of the Government?

1. Public Account Committee.


2. Estimate Committee.
3. Committee on office of profit.
4. Business advisory committee.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below?

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

60. With reference to Government of India Act of 1858, consider the


following statements.

1. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of


Control and Court of Directors.

2. It established a 12 member council of India to assist the secretary of state


for India.

3. It constituted the secretary of state in council as a body corporate, capable


of suing and being sued in India in England.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

61. With reference to the Fundamental Duties consider the following


statements.
1. It was recommended by a parliamentary committee.

2. The centre accepted these recommendation and enacted the 42nd


ConstitutionAmendment Act in 1976.

3. The Parliament is free to force them by suitable legislation.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

62. With reference to Centre-State Relations, consider the following


statements.

1. Like central, a state government can also borrow either within India or
outside upon the security of the consolidated fund of the state or can give
guarantees, but both within the limits fixed by the legislature of the state.
2. A state can’t raise any loan, if there is still outstanding any part of a loan
made to the state by the centre without the consent of the centre.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Consider the following statements about the minorities in India.


1. The Government

Muslims, Sikhs, of India has notified Christians, Buddhist,

Zoroastrians and Jainas as minorities. 2. The smallest religious minority in


India are Zoroastrians.
3. The National Commission for minorities was given statutory status in
1993.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

68. The office and functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
include which of the following?

1. He submits reports to the President and the Governor.


2. He should keep a vigilant eye on the finance of the Union as well as the
states.

3. He ensures that money voted by the legislature are spent under


appropriateheads and that they are not exceeded or used for other purpose.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2


(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
69. Assertion (A) : Collective responsibility of the cabinet signifies unity and
coordination among members of the Council of Minister.

Reasons (R1) : It is prerogative of the Prime Minister to select or drop a


member of the cabinet. Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of R.
(c) A is true R is false.
(d) A is false R is true.
70. Which of the following is chaired of the Union Home Minister?
(a) Appointment Committee.
(b) Parliamentary Affairs Committee.
(c) Political Affairs Committee.
(d) Committee on Internal Affairs.
71. Which of the following Cabinet Committee is described as a super
cabinet?
(a) Economic Affairs Committee.
(b) Parliamentary Affairs Committee.
(c) Political Affairs Committee.
(d) Appointment Committee.
72. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritiva Abhiyan,
consider the following.
1. It has been launched by Ministry of Women and Child Development.

2. It aims to provide, comprehensive and quality antenatal care free of cost to


all pregnant women on 9th of every month.

3. This programme also follow an approach to include private partners.


Which of the following above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 74. “Ease ofliving” Index will be released by–
(a) World Bank 77. Which of the following is correct regarding Pava-shells?
(a) Pava, is a chilli based non lethal munition. (b) UNDP (c) European
foundation for improvement of living
(d) IMF
75. With reference to “special committee for Inter- linking ofrivers”, consider
the following state- ments.

1. It is chaired by Union Minister for water resource, river development and


Ganga rejuvenation.

2. Its status cum progress will be submitted annually to the parliament.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. With reference to the latest approval by Union Cabinet regarding


Commercial Surrogacy Bill, consider the following statements.

1. Non-residents Indians or people of Indian origin card holders will not be


allowed to take recourse to a surrogate mother in India.

2. Legally wedded Indian couples can have a surrogate child only after five
years of legal marriage.

3. A women can bear any number of surrogate child.


4. The bill makes mandatory for surrogate mother to be married.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these (b) It is a shell recently discovered by Indian
remote sensing institute.
(c) Pava shells are recently found seashells in Pacific Ocean.
(d)It’s a Unix-shell used in command line interpreter.
78. With reference tothe ‘Mysuru Dasarafestival, consider the following:
1. It is a state festival of Kerala. 2. Theme of this year was ‘water
conservation for2016’.
3. It is held annually during Navratri. Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

79. Global Hunger Index is published by– (a) World Health Organisation (b)
Medicines sans frontiers (c) International Food Policy Research Institute (d)
None of the above

80. Consider the following regarding INS Arihant. 1. It belongs to ship


submersible Ballistic Nuclear class.
2. It will be armed with K-15 Sagarika and K-4 missiles.
3. It is constructed as a part of the IndianNavy’s secretive advanced
technology vessel. Which of the following statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these

74. With reference to ‘Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act,


2016' consider the following.

1. This Act does not define benami transaction.

2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by Government


withoutpayment of compensation.

3. Real owner can recover his or her property from benamidar.


Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
75. What does ‘Project insight’ means?
(a) It is project initiated by Ministry of Tourism forNRI’s.
(b) It is project initiated by Ministry of HomeAffairs for Internal Security
purpose.
(c) It is project initiated by Finance Ministry to widen tax base.

(d) It is project initiated by Ministry of Human resource to widen education


level for small villages.

76. Consider the following statements regarding Global Competitiveness


Index.
1. It is released by World Economic Forum.
2. India’s rank has improved to 39th position.
3. India is second most competitive country among BRICS.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
77. The recently launched scheme‘UDAN’is related to which of the
following.
(a)It’s an initiative for development of regional Aviation Market.
(b)It’s an initiative for Handicapped Childrens.
(c)It’san initiative for school going Tribal girls.
(d)It’s an initiative for Disabled sports persons.
78. With reference to‘Mormugao’ consider the following statements.
1. It is an indigenously built worship equipped with a range of high tech
missiles.
2. It is also fitted with Barak-8 range missiles.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. With regard to Gangetic Dolphins consider the following statements.
1. They are sub-species of river dolphins and found in Ganga and Brahmputra
River.
2. They move on their own sight.

3. They are classified as “endangered byIUCN (International Union for


Conservation of Nature) in 1966.

Which of the following statements given above are correct?


(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these 81. Consider the following statement. 85. Consider the
following statements–
1. The continents are considered as floating on the denser layer of rocks.

1. Equatorial counter current is more strongly developed in Pacific Ocean


than in Atlantic Ocean.

2. The continents are made up of lighter rocks.


Which of the statements given above is correct? 2. Equatorial counter current
flows in west-ward direction.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

82. Westerlies is the flow wind from West to East it is known as westerlies
wind. Some time it is known as roaring forties etc. The speed of the
westerlies wind drift is due to–

86. Tonga Kermadec is an ocean trench which is located in–


(a) Atlantic Ocean (a) Coriolis Force (b) Indian Ocean
(b) Vastness of South Atlantic Ocean (c) Pacific Ocean
(c) Less Landmass (d) Arctic Ocean
(d) None of the above 87. Temperature generally decreases towards the poles
because

83. A relatively small rotating funnel that extends downwards from the base
of a towering level withthunder, lighting and strong gusty wind is known as–
(a) Air movement is generally towards the

equator.
(b) Cold polar air masses prevent surface heating. (a) Hurricane
(b) Tornado (c) Cold surfaces do not absorb solar energy as readily as warm
surface.
(c) Tropical Cyclone

(d) None of the above (d) Progressively lesser solar energy per unit area falls
on the earth’s surface as we move to polar regions.

84. Which one of the following Climates is found in coastal areas of


California in North America Central Chile in South America and South-West
tip of West Australia?

88. Identify the correct sequence of the given process regarding rainfall.
(a) Unsaturated air, condensation, dew point, precipitation.
(a) Tropical Savanna
(b) Mediterranean (b) Dew point, condensation, unsaturated air, precipitation.
(c) Humid Continental (c) Unsaturated air, dew point, condensation,
precipitation.
(d) Low-latitude Steppe (d) Dew point, unsaturated air, condensation,
precipitation.
94. Consider the following statements–
1. India is the largest contributor to UN peacekeeping forces.
2. UN's first peacekeeping mission was in 1948 to keep a truce after the
creation of Israel.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. The Headquarters of World Health Organisation is situated in which
among the following places?
(a) Berne
(b) Montreal
(c) Lyon
(d) Geneva
96. Which among the following statements is/are correct about Flash
Memory?
1. It is an electronic non-volatile computer storage medium.
2. It can not be erased and reprogrammed.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 97. Which among the following are the major

Pollutants in Air Pollution in India cities?


1. Carbon Mono Oxide (CO)
2. Sulfur Di Oxide
3. Oxides of Nitrogen (NOX)
4. Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM)

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:


(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All the above
98. Consider the following statements–
1. India has recently achieved 30.2% of forest cover as percentage of
geographical area.
2. Mizoram has the highest forest cover percentage among all the state's.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. Consider the following statements–
1. Project Tiger was launched in 1992.

2. According to a refined methodology for estimating tiger population the


population of tigers in India is constantly declining in last 5 years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
nnnnnnnn
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO
DO SO
TEST BOOKLET SERIES Serial No.

P.T. - 2018 TEST 3


GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 Time Allowed : Two Hours
C
Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE


EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
FOR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES. A, B, C OR D AS


THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER
SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll No on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alonside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both
in Hindi and English .Each item comprises four responses (answer). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
eachitem.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
Provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various
items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet
and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator
only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answer:
THERE WILLBE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BYA
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
thrid (0.33) of the marks assigned to that questions will be deducted
aspenalty
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a Wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e.,
no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
1. Consider the following statements. 6. Where do the prime Meridian and
Equator line
intersect each other?1.
Existence of human life on Venus is highly
improbable. (a) Atlantic Ocean
2. Venus has extremely high level of CO in its (b) Ghana
2
atmosphere. (c) Morocco Which of the statement(s) given above is/are(d) Pacific
Oceancorrect?
7. Consider the following countries.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 21. Australia 2. Namibia

2. Among the following which planet takes3. Brazil 4. Chile maximumtime for
onerevolution around the sun? Through which of the above country does the
Tropic of Capricorn Pass?(a) Earth (b) Jupiter

(c) Mars (d) Venus (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3

3. 'A black hole' is a body in space which does not(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
allow any radiation to come out. This property is 8. Which of the following
pair is not correctly due to its matched?

(a) Very small size (b) Very large size (a) Karakum
– Turkmenistan (c) Very high density (d) Very low density (b) Taklamakan
– China
4. Consider the following statements. (c) Petagonian
– Paraguay
1. Area lying within 5 to 8 degrees latitude on (d) Gibson
– Australia
either side of equator receives rainfall 9. Consider the following statements.
throughout the
year.
2.
High temperatures and high humidity cause
1. The most abundant gases released from
volcanic eruption is Sulphur dioxide.convectional rainfall mostly in the afternoons
near the equator. 2. Melted solid inside the earth is called Lava.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 3. Thering of fire is the
earthquake and volcanic correct? affected area in Pacific Ocean.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are

correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only 1 and 2 5. Which one of the following city is nearest to the
equator? (b) Only 3

(a) Nairobi (b) Brasilia (c) Only 1 and 3


(c) Dhaka (d) Port Louis(d) 1, 2 and 3 10. Consider the following statements.
1. Assam shares its boundary with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
2. West Bengal shares its boundary with Nepal and Bhutan.
3. Sikkim shares its boundary with Bhutan and Myanmar.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2


(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Which one of the following statements is not correct?


(a) The boundary separating one drainage basin from the other is called water
shade. (b) Ghaggar is the most important example of Inland drainage system.
(c) The northern part of the western coastal plain is also known as Malabar.
(d) Kori Creek is located in Rann of Kutch. 12. Which of the following hills
are found where the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats meets?
(a) Anaimalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevoroy Hills

13. Consider the following statements.


1. Aravallis is the oldest mountain in India.

2. Shivalik is the youngest among Himalayan range.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 14. Which of the following pair is not
correctly matched?
(a) Chicago
– Lake Michigan
(b) Cleveland
– Lake Erie
(c) Detroit
– Lake Superior
(d) Toranto
– Lake Ontario
15. Consider the following statements.
1. The jet stream are located near the altitude of the tropopause.

2. The polar front jet stream is evident throughout the year but subtropical jet
stream is strong only during the half-year centered on winter.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. With the reference to Seismic waves, consider the following statements–
1. P-waves travel througha solid rock faster than sound waves travelling
through air.
2. S-waves travel at about half the speed of Pwaves.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 17. Consider the following statements.
1. The midAtlantic ridge surfaces above the sea level in Iceland.
2. The San-Andreas faut is a transform fault. 20. Consider the following
statements about‘forward marketcommission’.

1. The forward market commission is the chief regulator of commodity


futures market in India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


2. This agency is overseen by RBI.

(a) Only 1 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both
1 and 2 18. In which one among the following districts is the highest points
of Eastern Ghats?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Ganjam 21. Consider the following statements.
(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Kurnool established on the of Narasimham

1. NABARD was recommendations Committee.

(d) North Arcot 2. NABARD was established in 1982. 19. Match the
following list–
List-I List-II
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. Semang 1. Temperate grassland (a) Only 1
B. Maasai 2. Savannah grassland (b) Only 2
C. Bushman 3. Equatorial Forest (c) Both 1 and 2
D. Kirghiz 4. Hot desert (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code:
ABCD

22. Which of the following plans introduced the new agriculture strategy
leading to green revolution in India?
(a) 1 4 2 3 (a) Third Five Year Plan (b) 3 2 4 1 (b) Fifth Five Year Plan (c) 1
2 4 3 (c) Fourth Five Year Plan (d) 3 4 2 1 (d) Annual Plans during 1966-69
23. Consider the following statements. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Plan holiday represents a gap between two Five Year Plan in India.
2. India had it's first plan holiday after declaration of emergency in 1977.
(c) 2 only (d) All the above
27. The first time demonetisation happen in India was–

(a) 1978 (b) 1946 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(c) 1952 (d) 1938

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 28. Consider the following statements.


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Repo rate is a monetary policy
instrument.
24. Which of the following can be regarded as a fixed factor of production for
a firm?
2. Reduction in SLR will infuse liquidity inthe economy.

(a) Lease on building Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(b) Unskilled workers (a) Only 1 (c) Raw materials (b) Only 2 (d) Electricity
(c) Both 1 and 2
25. Consider the following statements about Indian Economy.
1. It has not experienced current account surplus in last 10 years.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Which among the following countries is the largest tea producer ?
(a) China 2. Average saving ratenever went up to 30% of the GDP.
(b) India
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(c) Srilanka
(d) Kenya (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 30. Consider the following statements.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Consider the following: 1. BSE SENSEX is composed of 300 largest
stocks on Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
1. Atal Pension Yojana.
2. RBI is the regulator for the stock market in India.
2. Self Employment and TalentUtilization. 3. Unified National
AgriculturalMarket.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which of the above schemes have been launched by the NITI Aayog ?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 31. Which among the following is the
CEO of Google?
35. Consider the following statements.
1. SEBI was established in 1988.

(a) Satya Nadella 2. SEBI has not given statutory powers yet.
(b) Shantanu Narayen

(c) Sunder Pichai Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(d) Nikesh Arora (a) Only 1 (b) Only2 32. Consider the following statements.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. There are 9PSU’scategorised as‘Navratna’. 36. Consider the following


statements.
2. There are 3 PSU’s categorised as ‘Maharatna’.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


1. Short term loans are for less then 12 months of period.
2. Long term loans are for 15 months to 5 years.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Consider the following statements. 1. India’s tax to GDP ratio is lowest
among ‘BRICS’countries.
37. The more accurate process of measuring economic growth is–
(a) Industrialisation. 2. India’s Currency - GDP ratio highest among
‘BRICS’countries.
(b) Boom in service sector.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. The headquarter of Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority


(IRDA)–

(a) Mumbai
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Delhi
(d) Kolkata
(c) Greater commercialisation.

(d) High literacy rate.


38. The percentage contribution to the greenhouse effect the four major gases
are–
(a) Carbon dioxide, Nitrogen dioxide, Sulphur dioxide and Ozone.
(b) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Ozone, Watervapour.
(c) Carbon monoxide, Carbon dioxide, Nitrogen Oxide, Water vapour.
(d) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Water vapour, Nitrogen dioxide.
39. Consider the following statements. 43. The largest consumer of Water in
India is–
1. Coral reefs turn Carbon dioxide in the water into a limestone shell.
(a) Domestic use

(b) Irrigation 2. An estuary is an example of an ecotone.


(c) Industries Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(d) Energy

(a) Only 1 44. Consider the following statements.


(b) Only 2 1. Agreement on Agriculture.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Agreement on Sanitary & Phytosanitary measures.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Which is not an example of phytoplankton ? 3. Trade Related Intellectual
Property Rights (TRIPs).
(a) Algae Which one among the above deals with Agricul
ture in the Global economy?
(b) Diatoms
Code: (c) Dinoflagellates
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only (d) Crab larva
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above 41. Which is the nodal agency in India to
control the

prices of drugs?
45. What is 'de-minimis' subsidies?
(a) Ministry of Health (a) Subsidies granted by state to BPL only.
(b) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).
(b) Subsidies provided by state for animal rearing, horticulture, etc. to the
farmers.
(c) Department of Pharmaceuticals. (c) Subsidies exempted from any
reduction commitments.
(d) Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilisers.
42. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is published by–
(d) Subsidies offered for export promotion strategy.
46. 'Doha Round of Talks' is related to– (a) UNDP (a) UNDP (b) WHO (b)
World Bank Reform (c) Oxfam Group (c) UNFCCC (d) IFPRI (d) WTO 47.
Which one among the following is first commercially grown GMOs in India?
52. Various subsidies in Agriculture have resulted into serious challenges.
They are–
(a) Cotton 1. Unbalanced use of fertilisers. (b) Mustard 2. Big farmers to
install large capacity pumps. (c) Brinjal 3. Lack of adequate credit. (d)
Tomato Code: 48. Which country has the highest productivity of Rice in the
world?
(a) Only 1
(a) Egypt (b) India (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) USA (d) China (c) 2 and 3 only
49. 'Operation Barga' was launched in–
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) Kerela 53. Consider the following statements.
(b) Karnataka
(c) Orissa 1. Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act : 1969
(d) West Bengal 2. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act : 1999
50. In which country Prof. Norman Borlaug developed new varieties of wheat
in the mid 1960s and introduced the same in India?
3. Industries (Development & Regulation) Act

: 1948
Which among the above is/are correct?
(a) USA (a) Only 1 (b) Canada (b) 1 and 2 only (c) Mexico (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Soviet Russia (d) All the above 51. During the Green Revolution in India
which all varieties of HYV seeds were introduced?

1. Jowar 2. Bajra 54. In 1980s Asia witnessed a rapid economic growth


which was termed as "Rise of Asian Tigers". Which one among the following
are part of "Asian Tigers" of 1980s?

3. Sugarcane 4. Ragi
Select the correct code: 1. South Korea 2. Taiwan
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Thailand 4. Singapore
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only Select the correct code:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the above (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) All the above 55. A 'miniratna'
category PSUs has autonomy of maximum limit of investment–
58. Which one of the following is not correct about recent changes in FDI
Policy?
(a) Rs. 1000 crore (a) FDI in Telecom recently approved upto 100%.
(b) Rs. 300 crore (b) FDI in Defence recently approved upto 49%. (c) Rs. 150
crore
(d) Rs. 500 crore (c) FDI in Railways infrastructure recently approved upto
49%.
56. Consider the following statements. (d) FDI from Pakistan has been
permitted.
1. Selling of shares in select PSUs.

2. Strategic sale of a PSU. 59. It is said to have a successful 'Make in India'


campaign, labour reforms in India is a prerequisite. What all consist under the
concept of labour reforms?

3. Equal-Access Voucher Programmes.


Which among the above is/are methods of Privatisation?
1. To increase production, productivity and employment opportunities.
2. Skill development. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only 3. Updating knowledge base of workersteachers.
(c) 2 and 3 only 4. Promotion of leadership qualities.
(d) All the above 5. Labour law reforms.

57. The Kisan Credit Card Scheme was introduced in 1998-99, as an


innovative credit delivery system for the farmers. The scheme is being
implemented by–
Select the correct code:

(a) 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only


(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) All the above
1. All the District Central Cooperative Banks. 60. Recently, the RBI has
issued guidelines for the payment banks'. What is a payment bank? 2.
Regional Rural Banks.

3. Public Sector Commercial Banks. 1. It is used by payments and


remittances to migrant labour small businesses and other unorganised sector
entities.

4. Private Sector Scheduled Banks.


Select the correct code: 2. It is authorised to undertake lending activity upto
Rs. 5 lakh.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. It is expected to leverage technology to offer low cost
banking solution.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only Select the correct code: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only 1 (b) 1
and 2 only (d) All the above (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above 61. Which one
of the following objectives is not a part of the Mega Food Park Scheme?
(a) It will attract foreign investment in the concerned states.
(b) It will address the issues of lack of storage and proper transport system.
(c) It will produce nutrition rich and environment friendly food products in
the country.

(d) It will combine both agriculture and horticulture together and bring all
stakeholders to a common platform.

62. Consider the following statements about Disinvestment in India?


1. The policy of the Govt. is to keep 51 percent equity in their hand and retain
management control.

2. All cases of disinvestment are to be decided on a case by case basis as each


CPSE has different equity structure and financial strength.

3. CPSEs have not been permitted to buy the shares of other CPSEs from the
Government.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above 63. Consider the following statements.

1. “SwachhSwasthSarvatra”initiative has been launched by the Union Health


Ministry in collaboration with Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.

2. The 77th session of Indian History Congress (IHC) took place in Kerala.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 64. “Nock-Ten” typhoon has recently hit
which country?

(a) Malaysia
(b) Philippines
(c) Indonesia
(d) Maldive

65. Consider the following statements.


1. Irulas has become the first Scheduled Tribe of Puducherry.

2. According to 2011 Census. Mizoram and Lakshadweep had the highest %


of its population as ST (~95%).

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. The BliSS scheme is related to which amongthe following
(a) Travel & Tourism Promotion
(b) Mother and Child Health
(c) Biotechnology Education
(d) Business & Economy Transactions 67. Consider the following statements.

1. India’srank in the 2016 Enabling Trade Index (ETI) of World Economic


Forum (WEF) is 174.

2. The theme of the 2016 International Day of Persons with Disabilities is‘E-
accessibility'.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 68. Which international organisation has
inscribed Yoga in the representative list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of
Humanity?
72. The Pradhan Mantri YUVA Yojana has been

launched by Union Government for what purpose?


(a) UNIDO (a) Entrepreneurship (b) UNICEF (b) Women Education (c)
UNISDR (c) Sports (d) UNESCO (d) SC/ST Education 69. Which of the
following states has attained 100% Aadhaar saturation in India?
73. Consider the following statements.
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh

1. FSSAI is a nodal statutory agencyresponsible for protecting and promoting


public health in India.

(c) Kerala 2. FSSAI was established under theFood Safety and Standards Act,
2006.
(d) Tamil Nadu 70. Consider the following statements. Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. The India Innovation Index (III) will be developed by asian developement


bank to measure innovation performance of Indian states.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


2. Food fortification is the process of adding micronutrients i.e. essential
trace elements and vitamins into the food.
74. Which judicial committee on One Rank One Pension (OROP) has
submitted its report to Ministry of Defence ?

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) H Devraj committee
(b) Ramanujam committee
(a) Only 1 (c) Prof. NR Madhava committee
(b) Only 2 (d) L Narasimha Reddy committee
(c) Both 1 and 2 75. Consider the following statements.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Dead sea has been declared asworld’slargest marine
protected area

71. Which committee has recently submitted report on Socio Economic and
Caste Census (SECC) to the Union Government?
2. Dead sea has the most saline water among

all the seas.


(a) Anand Shukla Committee (b) Nitin Kumar Committee Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(c) Sumit Bose Committee (a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(d) Rajat Sharma Committee (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 76. Which
among the following is correct about “Vanjeevan"?
79. What is the theme of 2016 International Day of the Girl Child (IDGC)?
1. Its a program about reforestation of manmade deserts.
(a) Ending Child Marriage.
2. It is a program launched by ministry of environment and forest.
(b)Girls’ Progress = Goals’ Progress: What Counts for Girls.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(c) The Power of the Adolescent Girl: Vision for 2030.
(d) Innovating forGirl’s Education. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 80. TheWorld’s firstever “Bionic
Olympics” has started in which country?
77. Consider the following statements. (a) Malaysia
1. London has topped the 2016 Global Power City Index (GPCI).
(b) Indonesia
(c) China 2. ‘Climate is changing: Food and agriculture must too ‘ is the
theme of 2016 United Nations’ (UN) International Day of Rural Women.
(d) Switzerland

81. Who was the chief guest for the 2016 Republic Day of India?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Khalifa bin Zayed Al Nahyan
(a) Only 1 (b) Maktoum bin Rashid Al Maktoum

(c) Sheikh Mohammed bin Zayed Al Nahyan (b) Only 2


(d) Zayed bin Sultan Al Nahyan (c) Both 1 and 2 82. Consider the following
statements. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. Which among the following is correct about‘Tro- jansasteroids’

1. Emissions gap is the difference between the emissions levels in 2020


necessary to meet climate targets.

1. Trojans are asteroids that are constant companions to planets in our solar
systemas they orbit the Sun, remaining near a stable point 60 degrees in front
of or behind the planet.

2. There are five planets in our solar system with known Trojan asteroids.

2. A recent UN Environment Programme Report reveals that global


emissions have have improved and emissions is going down.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 83. Consider the
following statements regarding peninsular river system.
86. Consider the following statements.
1. The peninsular drainage system is older than Himalayan Rivers.
2. Krishna is the second largest east flowing peninsular River.

1. Trellis drainage pattern is formed when the primary tributaries of main


rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributes ries join them at right
angles.

3. Luni finally debouches in to the Arabian Sea nearby Rann of Kachchh.


2. The rivers of northern plains are good example of Dendritic drainage
pattern.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


(d) 1, 2 and 3

84. Consider the following statements. 87. Which one of the following pair is
correctly matched?
1. The western coast is narrow in middle and gets broader in north and south.
1. Indus – Langchan Khambab

2. The eastern coastal plains is emergent coastal plains and it is broader than
the western counterpart.
2. Satluj– Singi Khamban

3. Brahmputra–Tsangpo
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
4. Godavari– Dakshin Ganga

Choose the correct codes given below: (a) Only 1


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4


(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 and 4

85. The important fishing areas called Grand bank and Georges Bank are
located in the waters of which one of the following?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

88. Latvia does share its borders with which one of the following countries?
(a) North Pacific (a) Russia
(b) South Pacific (b) Estonia
(c) South West Atlantic

(d) North-West Atlantic (c) Likhuania


(d) Poland 89. Consider the following statements. 1. West Flowing rivers of
peninsular India have no deltas.
2. These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. Consider the following statements regarding Laterite Soil.

1. They are the result of intense leaching.


2. They are poor in organic matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. Which one of the following is not matched? (a) Taklamakan Desert–
China
(b) Negev Desert– Mexico
(c) Mojave Desert– USA
(d) Karakum Desert– Turkmenistan

92. Match list-I with list-II.


Tiger Reserves A. Indravati
B. Bor
C. Kawal
D. Dampa
Codes:

A B C (a) 2 1 3
(b) 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 4
(d) 1 2 3

State
1. Maharashtra
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Mizoram
4. Telangana

93. Which of the following is/are triggered by earthquake?


1. Tsunami
2. Landslide
3. Volcanic activity
4. Avalanche
Choose the correct codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. Consider the following statements.
1. River deltas in Eastern ghats causes discontinuous hills.
2. Gomati is only tributary of Ganga that rises in plains not in hills.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Consider the following statements.
1. Orange River separates South Asia and Namibia.
2. Amur River separates China and Russia.
3. Rio-Grandi River makes political boundary between Mexico and USA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

D
4
3
3
4
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 1 and 2


(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 96. Consider the following statements. 99. Consider the
following statements. 1. A divergent plate boundary results when plates move
apart.
1. The Sun is overheadat the tropic of Capricorn on June 21st.
2. Transform fault is located where plates slide one another.

2. On the winter Solstice, Southern, hemisphere has its longest day.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 3. On the summer Solstice, Southern hemisphere will
have the shortest day.

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?

97. Consider the following statements. (a) Only 1 and 2

1. Inland Waterways Authority of India is the statutory authority in charge of


the waterways in India.
(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3 2. The Headquarter of Inland Waterways

Authority of India is located in Patna. (d) 1, 2 and 3


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
100. The River Mekong crosses through which countries–
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Cambodia (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2.
Vietnam 98. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 3. Laos 1.
Discontinuity between the mantle andcore– the Mohorovic discontinuity.
4. Thailand
2. Discontinuity between the crust and mantle
– Guttenberg’s discontinuity.
5. Myanmar
Select the correct code: 3. Discontinuity between the outer core and inner
core– Lehman discontinuity. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct code. (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and2 (c)
2, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 3 (d) All the above
nnnnnnnn
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO
DO SO
TEST BOOKLET SERIES Serial No.

P.T. - 2018 TEST 4

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1 Time Allowed : Two Hours


D
Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE


EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
FOR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES. A, B, C OR D AS


THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER
SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll No on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alonside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both
in Hindi and English .Each item comprises four responses (answer). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
eachitem.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
Provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various
items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet
and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator
only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answer:
THERE WILLBE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BYA
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
thrid (0.33) of the marks assigned to that questions will be deducted
aspenalty
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a Wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e.,
no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

1. Consider the following statements: 5. Consider the following statements:


1. 1. 1880.
2. Lokmanya Tilak publicly branded the war as an act of sheer aggression.

1. In 1925, Gandhiji described the use of Indian soldiers to shoot the innocent
Chinese students as a ‘humiliating and degrading spectacle.’

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements:


1. At the end of 1885, the Government ofIndia attacked and annexed Burma.
2. The nationalists opposed the annexation of Burma.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. During Indian freedomstruggle, which one of the following happened


earliest?

(a) Simon Commission (b) Gaya Session of Congress (c) Tripuri Session of
Congress

(d) Gandhi-Irwin Pact 4. The Rani Jhansi Regiment, theWomen’sRegiment


of Azad Hind Fauj, was under whose command? (a) Usha Mehta
(b) Anne Mascarene (c) Aruna Asaf Ali (d) Lakshmi Sehgal

2. In January 1927, S. Srinavasa Iyengar moved an adjournment motion in


the Legislative Assembly to protest Central against

Indian troops being used to suppress the Chinese people.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following statements:

1. In 1887, Dufferin, the Viceroy, and A. Colvin the Lieutenant-Governor of


U.P., launched a frontal public attack on the National Congress.

2. Badruddin Tyabji presided over the Congress session in 1887.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements:

1. In his Young India published in 1916, the Extremist leader Lala Lajpat Rai
used the safety-valve theory to attack the Moderates in the Congress.

2. M.S. Golwalkar, the RSS chief, had also found the safety-valve theory
handy in attacking the Congress.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Who among the following freedom fighters was associated with the
foundation of Bharatiya Vidya Bhawan?
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(a) Madan Mohan Malviya (b) Only 2
(b) Acharya Narendra Dev (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) K M Munshi (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) J B Kriplani 12. Consider the
following statements:

9. Who among the following was nominated by Mahatma Gandhi for the
Presidentship of the Congress in 1939 against Subhash Chandra Bose? 1.
Surendranath Banerjee was the first Indian

to go to jail in performance of his duty as a journalist.


(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Pattabhi Sitaramayya

(c) Govind Ballabh Pant 2. Surendranath Banerjea initiated a no-tax


Campaign in Maharashtra during 1896-97 with the help of the young workers
of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.

(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
10. Consider the following statements: (a) Only 1

1. In 1883,a massive all-India effort was made to raise a National Fund,


which would be used to promote political agitation in India as well as
England.
(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The Indian Association had already in December 1883
organized an All-India National Conference and given a call for another one
in December 1885.
13. During whose viceroyalty was the Vernacular

Press Act repealed?


(a) Lord Bentinck Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (b)
Lord Canning (a) Only 1 (c) Lord Ripon (b) Only 2 (d) Lord Dufferin (c)
Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 14. Which one among the following was the first English
newspaper in India in the year 1780?

11. Consider the following statements: (a) The Calcutta Gazette 1. The early
national leaders organized mass movements against the British.
(b) The Bengal Gazette
2. The early national leaders carried out an ideological struggle against the
British. (c) The Bengal Journal
(d) The Bombay Herald 15. Consider the following statements: Which of the
statement given above is/are correct?

1. Pherozeshah Mehta was one of the founders of the Bombay Presidency


Association as also the Indian National Congress.

2. From about the middle of the 1890s till his death in 1915, Pherozeshah
Mehta was a dominant figure in the Indian National Congress and was often
accused of exercising autocratic authority over it.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Consider the following regarding Swadeshi Movement:

1. Even Moderate leaders like Surendranath Banerjea toured the country


urging the boycott of Manchester cloth and Liverpool salt.

2. Among the several forms of struggle thrown up by the movement, it was


the boycott of foreign goods which met with the greatest visible success at
the practical and popular level.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Consider the following statements:
1. The Ganapati and Shivaji festivals, popularized by Tilak, became a
medium for Swadeshi propaganda not only in Western India but also in
Bengal.

2. Taking a cue fromTagore’s Shantiniketan, the Bengal National College


was founded with Tilak as the principal.
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Who among the following immediately succeeded Rammohan Roy as the
head of the Brahmo Samaj?

(a) Devendra Nath Tagore


(b) Akshay Kumar Datta
(c) Keshab Chandra Sen
(d) Sibnath Shastri

19. What was the proposal made by Lokmanya Tilak at the Lucknow Session
of the Congress in 1916 to transform the Congress from a deliberative body
into one capable of leading a sustained movement?

(a) Transfer of leadership of the National Movement to the Home Rule


League. (b) Acceptance of the proposals of the Muslim League.
(c) Formation of the Working Committee. (d) Appointment of Annie Besant
as the President of the Congress.
20. Consider the following statements:

1. Abanindranath Tagore broke the domination of Victorian naturalism over


Indian art and sought inspiration from the rich indigenous traditions of
Mughal, Rajput and Ajanta paintings.

2. Nandalal Bose, who left a major imprint on Indian art, was the first
recipient of a scholarship offered by the Indian Society of Oriental Art
founded in 1907.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
21. Consider the following statements:

1. Lord Curzon attacked the National Congress in a public speech and


ridiculed it as representing only the elite ‘a microscopic minority.”

2. George Hamilton, Secretary of State for India, accused the Congress


leaders of possessing ‘seditious and double sided character.’

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Consider the following statements:


1. In 1904, V.D. Sarvarkar organized Abhinav Bharat as a secret society of
revolutionaries. 2. After 1905, several newspapers secretly began to advocate
revolutionary terrorism. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


23. Consider the following statements:

1. G.D. Kumar set up a Swadesh Sevak Home in Vancouver on the lines of


the India House in London.

2. Ramnath Puri in Vancouver started the Free Hindustan.


Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 24. ‘Some of his followers disliked me and some of mine
disliked him. We, however, had no quarrel with each other.’ This statement
was made in the context of
(a) Home Rule Movement
(b) Non Cooperation movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

25. Who was responsible for the enactment of the Hindu Widow’s
Remarriage Act of 1856?

(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar


(b) Devendranath Tagore
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Keshab Chandra Sen

26. Which one among the following religions was patronized by


Rashtrakutas?

(a) Jainism
(b) Buddhism
(c) Shaivism
(d) Vaishnavism

27. Recently, National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) revised the


prices of HIV, asthma, malaria drugs. Consider the following statements with
respect to NPPA.

1. NPPA is under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public


Distribution

2. It recovers amounts overcharged by manufacturers for the controlled drugs


from the consumers

3. It was established under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2


(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) All of the above
28. ‘Asali Tarakki’ is associated with which of the following?

(a) Swachh Bharat Mission 31. The 28th Association of Southeast Asian
Nations (ASEAN) Summit happened in Laos capital Vientiane today recently
, Consider the following statements in regard to ASEAN:

(b) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao


(c) Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana
(d) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana

29. Recently Sagarmala Development Company was incorporated by GOI.


Consider the following statements.

1. It has been incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013.


2. It is concerned with the development of ports.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. World leaders are at the annual G20 economic summit, which is being
hosted in China for the first time. Consider the following statements in regard
to G20:

1. The Group of Twenty (G20) comprises 19 countries plus the European


Union.
2. The G20 was started in 2008 in the aftermath of the global financial crisis.

3. The G8 seeks cooperation on economic issues facing the major industrial


economies, while the G20 reflects the wider interests of both developed and
emerging economies.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only 1. ASEAN is an alliance promoting economic and political
cooperation by fostering dialogue among all its Southeast Asian members.

2. RCEP consists of all ten ASEAN countries plus six countries (China,
Japan, South Korea, Australia, India, and United States) which have trade
agreements with ASEAN countries.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Consider the following statements with respect to Pelargonic Acid


Vanillyl Amide (PAVA). 1. It is an organic compound found in chilli pepper.
2. It is used as a food additive.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Which among the following best describes Rosetta spacecraft

(a) It is To study a comet and track its changes. (b) It is To identify any traces
of water on moon.

(c) It is To detect any asteroid fast approaching Earth.


(d) It is To probe the space outside the solar system.
34. Which among the following correct about Polachira Wetlands?
37. Consider the following statement about Ngariwave observatory
1. The wetland is the breeding ground for the Migratory Birds from all
around the world. 1. It is in the process of construction by European space
agency
2. It situated near nilgiri hills in Tamilnadu.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Prime Minister advocated scientific social responsibility (SSR) on the


lines of corporate social responsibility(CSR)at the 104 the Indian Science
Congress. which among the following correct about scientific social
responsibility (SSR)

1. SSR shall include encouraging innovation and applying scientific models


for the benefit of society

2. SSR will be overseen by the Department of Science & Technology.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. The city of Aleppo has been in news. The city is located in which of the
following countries?
(a) Turkey
(b) Syria
(c) Belgium

(d) France 2. It will be world’s highest altitude Gravitational WaveTelescope


situated in alps mountains.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

38. Consider the below statements in regard to First Information Report


(FIR), a written document prepared by police organizations in India and
select the incorrect statement:

(a) The police can register FIRs only for cognizable offences.
(b) It is mandatory for the police to upload all types of FIRs on police or
government websites within 48 hours of their registration in police stations.

(c) If the police refuse to register an FIR, a written complaint can be sent to
the Superintendent of Police.

(d) A complaint may also be given directly to the Judicial Magistrate, who
can direct the police to investigate the case

39. Triclosan was in news recently. It is used in 1. Toothpaste


2. Wall paint
3. Talcum powder
4. Handwash
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) All of the above

40. Which among the following is correct about Start Up India?


1. This is a action plan to support SC/ST and women entrepreneur.

2. The Start Up profits to be tax freefor 15 years. Codes:


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Which among the following statement is/are correct about Pradhan
Mantri Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (PMSSY)?

1. It is an ambitious small deposit saving scheme for girl child.

2. Maturity amount can be withdrawn after the girl completes 18 years of age
at interest rate of 9.5% per.

Codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Which one of the following do not belong to Eastern Coast of India?

(a) Point Calimere


(b) False Divi Point
(c) Palmyra Point
(d) Karwar Way

43. Match the following List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer
from the codes given below.
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4
44. Consider the following statements.
1. A piece of sub-continental land that is surrounded by water is called
peninsula.
2. A body of land surrounded by water on three sides is called Island.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Consider the following statements in thecontext of Agriculture.

1. Intensive farming is a system of farming in which cultivator uses large


amount of labour and capital on a relatively small area.

2. In Extensive farming per acre yield is low but overall production is in


surplus due to less population.

3. Green revolution has not only saved our much precious foreign exchange
but has also made us self-reliant.
List – I
A. Sonai Rupai B. Jalda Para
C. Morleen
D. Kaibul Lamjao

List – II
1. West Bengal
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Manipur
4. Mizoram
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 46. Consider the following statements:

1. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and


temperate regions in comparison to equatorial and Polar Regions.

2. Water vapour acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too
cold nor toohot. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Consider the following statement.

1. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas is under the


Ministry of Agriculture.

2. The basic object of the Desert Development Programme is to minimize the


adverse effect of drought and control desertification.

3. Drought prone area programme is launched by Planning Commission.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

48. Consider the following statements in thecontext of soils.


1. Laterite soil is rich in iron and aluminum but deficient in Nitrogen and
Potash.
2. Black Soil is rich in iron and potash but deficient in Nitrogen and Humus.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Under normal conditions which one of the following is the correct
sequential development of features made by fluvial action?

(a) Waterfall® Meander bars® River terraces ® Oxbow lakes


(b) Meander bars®River terraces®Waterfalls ® Oxbow lakes
(c) Waterfalls®River terraces®Meander bars ® Oxbow lakes
(d) River terraces®Meander bars®Waterfalls ® Oxbow lakes
50. Which of the following are causes of eruption of volcano?
1. Due to diverging or converging tectonic plates.
2. High volumemagma’s upper movement.
3. Decrease in pressure of Magma asit rises up towards the crust.
4. Injection of new batch of Magma in to an already filled magma chamber.

Choose the correct code: (a) 1 and 2


(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

51. Consider the following statements. 1. An earthquake’s point of initial


rapture is called its focus or hypocenter.
2. The epicenter is the point at ground level directly above the hypocenter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 52. Consider the following statements. 1.
Sea breeze refers to the wind system which blows fromsea towards the land
during night. 2. Land breeze is the wind system which blows from land
towards the sea during day time.

Which of thestatements given above is/arecorrect? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. Consider the following statement regarding vegetation in India.


1. Maximum land area in India is covered by the tropical Moist Deciduous
forests.

2. In India mangrove forests deciduous and evergreen forests lie in the


Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

3. Tropical Evergreen Forests are found in hot and humid regions in India.

Which of thestatements given above is/arecorrect? (a) Only 1 and 2


(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
54. Consider the following statement regarding rocks.

1. Igneous rocks also known as the primary rocks are considered as parents of
all other rocks.

2. The formation of metamorphic rock due to the stress of pressure is called


as dynamic metamorphism.

Which of thestatements given above is/arecorrect? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

55. The delta formed when the river water is lighter than the sea water is
called–
(a) Fan shaped delta (b) Bird foot delta (c) Arcuate delta

(d) Cuspate delta 56. Match the following:

Dam River A. Bhakra Dam 1. Krishna B. Almatti Dam 2. Godavari


C. Jayakwadi Dam 3. Chambal D. Rana Pratap Sagar 4. Satluj

Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 4 1 2 3

(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2

57. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following?

1. The founding of the Ghadar Party.


2. The Chauri-Chaura incident.
3. The execution of Khudiram Bose.

4. Moplah Rebellion in Malabar. Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:

Codes: (a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2

(d) 3, 1, 4, 2 58. Consider the following statements:

1. HRIDAY aims to bring urban planning, economic growth and heritage


conservation together for heritage cities.
62. Which one of the following Nawabs of Bengal

shifted his capital from Murshidabad to Monghyr?


(a) Siraj-ud-daula

2. The Union Ministry of Urban Development has approved projects worth


Rs.114 crore under HRIDAY scheme for improving infrastructure facilities
around core heritage sites in twelve cities.
(b) Mir Jafar

(c) Mir Qasim


(d) Alivardi Khan
Which of thestatements given above is/arecorrect?

(a) Only 1 63. Who made the first systematic critique of Moderate politics in
1893-94 in a series of articles entitled ‘New Lamps forOld’?

(a) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Only 2


(b) Bipan Chandra Pal (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Rash Behari Bose

59. The Congress President who conducted negotiations with Cripps in 1942
and Wavell at the Simla Conference was

64. Which among the following statements is/are correct about ‘Pradhan
Mantri Gram Sinchai Yojana’ (PMGSY)?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Abul Kalam Azad 1. One of the major goal of the scheme is to attract
investment in irrigation system at field level.

(c) J. B. Kripalani
(d) C. Rajagopalachari 2. This scheme has tobe completed mandatorily by
2022.
60. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
Codes:

(a) Sudharak : Sisikar Kumar Ghosh (a) Only 1

(b) Only 2
(b) Raft Goftar : Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Nibandhamala : Vishnusastri Chippulankar (d) Neither 1
nor 2

(d) Sambad Prabhakar : Bal Gangadhar Tilak


61. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 65. Which among the
following operation launched by India to evacuate it’s citizens for war torn
South Sudan?

(a) Kuka Movement - Bhagwat Singh (a) Operation Raahat


(b) Khasi Rising - Tirat Singh (b) Operation Thunderbird
(c)Munda Revolt - Sidho & Kanhu (c) Operation Sankat Mochan
(d) Kol Rising - Gomadhar Konwar (d) Operation Sukoon 66. Which among
the following statements is/are correct about‘Kounotori’?

1. It is a space station launched by China. 70. Indian Air Force officially


indicted the first indigenously but Airborn early warning and control system,
what is its name?

2. Kounotori will experiment with a tether that uses theearth’s


electromagnetic force to pull debris out of orbit.
(a) EAGLE

(b) NETRA (c) NAKSHTRA Codes: (d) PRASHTI

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2

71. Barron Island is located in which state/Union Territory?


(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Gujarat
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Andaman and Nicobar Island
67. Consider the following statements. (c) Lakshadweep
1. Global terrorism Index (GTI) is released by the Pentagon.
2. India ranks the 1stamong the countries effected by terrorism in 2015.
Which of thestatements given above is/arecorrect? (d) Daman and Diu 72.
Which among the following is correct about ‘PradhanMantri Jan Aushadhi
Yojana (PMJAY)? 1. The scheme aims to provides generic drugs at the door
step at affordable cost.
(a) Only 1 2. OnlytheNGO’sand social groups are eligible to open the Jan
Aushadhi stores.
(b) Only 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only 1

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only 2 68. In which state the 2017 UNESCO Natural
Heritage Festival was held–
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Assam (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Himachal Pradesh 73. Consider the following statements.
(c) Uttrakhand 1. 20 June is observed as world Refuge Day in the memory
ofrefugee’s of World War IInd. (d) Tripura 69. The Khangchendzonga
National Park is located in which state in India?
2. It is observed by United Nations Human Right Council (UNHRC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Sikkim (a) Only 1 (b)
Manipur (b) Only 2 (c) Meghalaya (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 74. Consider the following statements. 77. Consider the
following statements.
1. Alfred Wegener propounded the continental drift theory.
2. It is also known as the displacement hypothesis.

Which of thestatements given above is/arecorrect? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. Consider the following statements regarding Westerlies.

1. The westerlies originates from the high pressure area in the horse latitudes
towards the pole.

2. The westerlies are stronger in northern hemisphere in comparison with


Southern hemisphere.

Which of thestatements given above is/arecorrect? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. Match list-I with list– II and select the correct answer using codes given
below the list.
List – I List– II
A. Foehn 1. Argentina B. Simoom 2. Khurdistan C. Santa Ana 3. California
D. Zonda 4. Alps
Codes:

ABCD
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 2 1 3

1. Doldrum is a high pressure area near the equator where the prevailing
winds are calm.

2. Horse latitudes are located between 30° North and South and it is a high
pressure area where the winds are calm.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 78. Consider the following statements
regardingplate boundaries.
1. In transform faults neither crust is created nor destroyed.
2. Mid-Atlantic ridge is best example of divergent boundaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

79. Which of the following indicate youthful stage of Himalayan rivers?

1. V-shaped valleys
2. Rapids
3. Waterfalls

4. Natural levees
5. Alluvial Cone
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 80. Consider the following statements. 83.
Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and human activities influence soil formation to large extent.

2. Soil is composed air along with humus. 1. It was the more active members
of the Home Rule League in U.P. who initiated the process of the
organization of the peasants of the province on modem lines into
KisanSabhas.

Which of thestatements given above is/arecorrect?


(a) Only 1 2. The U.P. Kisan Sabha was set up in February 1918 through the
efforts of Mahatma Gandhi.
(b) Only 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only 1
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only 2
81. Which of the following comes under thephenomena of mass movement?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Soil Creep 84. Consider the following statements:
2. Weathering

3. Landslide 1. In June 1920, Baba Ramchandra led a few hundred tenants


from the Jaunpur and Pratapgarh districts to Allahabad.

Select the correct answer using the codes. 2. Baba Ramchandra met
Jawaharlal Nehru and asked him to visit the villages.
(a) Only 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Only
2 and 3 (a) Only 1 (c) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
82. Which of the following conditions is/are conducive for the formation of
Tropical Cyclones? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air.
2. Large value of coriolis force. 85. Consider the following statements:

1. Bardoli taluq had been selected in 1922 as the place fromwhere Gandhiji
would launch the civil disobedience campaign.

3. Inflow of air at upper level of atmosphere. 2. In Bardoli Satyagraha,


special emphasiswas
placed on the mobilization of women. Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (a) Only 1


(b) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 86. Vallabhbhai Patel was associated with
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. Kheda Satyagraha (a)
Only 1 2. Nagpur Flag Satyagraha (b) Only 2

3. Borsad Punitive Tax Satyagraha (c) Both 1 and 2


4. Bardoli Satyagraha

Codes:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only 1, 3 and 4 90. Consider the following statements:

(b) Only 2, 3 and 4 (c) Only 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. Fakir-Sannyasi Resistance against the East India Company dominance in


Bengal began from the early 1860s and subsided in the 1890s.

87. In 1878, Who tried unsuccessfully to introduce a Bill in the Bombay


Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour ?

(a) S.S.Bengalee
(b) Sasipada Banerjea
(c) Lokhanday
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

88. Who in the very second session of the Indian National Congress , made it
clear that the Congress ‘must confine itself to questions in which the entire
nation has a direct participation, and it must leave the adjustment of social
reforms and other class questions to classCongresses.”-

(a) G.S. Agarkar


(b) P. Ananda Charlu
(c) Surendranath Tagore
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

89. Consider the following statements:

1. Prior to the arrival of Lord Cornwallis in India, no permanent settlement


was made in Bengal in the sphere of revenue administration.

2. At the time of appointment of Cornwallis as governor General the


condition of the farmers of India was very deplorable and the land revenue
system of the East India Company was ridden with defects.

2. The Fakir-Sannyasi Resistance movement was organised and led byMajnu


shah, a Sufi saint of Madaria sect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. The English introduced the modern education in India to fulfill their
various objectives. Thechief among them are–

1. To reduce the expenditure on administration


2. To expand market for English goods
3. Spread of Christianity
4. Toencourage the study of the English language
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3 92. Coral reefs are generally absent on the western coasts of
continents. This is because–
(a) Western Coast of continents witness subsidence of air.
95. Consider the following statements.

1. ITCZ is a zone of divergence located at equator which moves northwards


during summer.

(b) Western Coast of continents have cold currents.


(c) Western Coast of continents have dry winds blowing over them.
(d) None of the above.
93. Which of the following is/are features of Tropical evergreen forests?
1. Annual precipitation of over 200cm.
2. No definite time for trees to flowering.
3. Absence of stratification.
Select the correct answer from the given codes.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
94. Which of the following factors cause difference in local climate of India?
1. Jet Stream
2. Western Disturbances
3. Tropical depressions
Select the correct answer by using codes given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. ITCZ movement to the Indian subcontinent in summer


causes withdrawal of westerly jet stream.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1

(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. Consider the following statements.


1. Peninsular rivers are charecterised by absence of meanders.
2. Rivers belonging to Ganga river system have Himalayan origin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1

(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Which of the following is/are the reasons for excessive cold in Northern
India?

1. Lack of Maritime influence


2. Snowfall in Himalayas

3. Incoming cold winds from Central Asia and Caspian Sea.


Select the correct answer by given codes. (a) Only 1

(b) Only 1 and 2


(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

98. Consider the following statements regarding Mango Showers.


Select the answer using the codes given below.
1. It is occurs towards the end of spring season. (a) Only 1, 2 and 3
2. It is common in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4 3. This showers are also useful for rice cultivation.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 100. With the reference to
insolation consider the following statements.
(a) Only 1 and 3 1. Equator receives more isolation thantropics.

(b) Only 1 and 2


(c) Only 2 and 3

2. At the same latitude the insolation is more over the oceans than over the
continents.
(d) None of these Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
99. Which of these pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only 1 1. Jaduguda–
Uranium (b) Only 2 2. Khetri– Copper (c) Both 1 and 2 3. Balaghat– Gold (d)
Neither 1 nor 2 4. Kiriburu – Iron
nnnnnnnn
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO
DO SO Serial No.

P.T. - 2018 TEST 5

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1


Time Allowed : Two Hours TEST BOOKLET SERIES
E
Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE


EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
FOR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES. A, B, C OR D AS


THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER
SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll No on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alonside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both
in Hindi and English .Each item comprises four responses (answer). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
eachitem.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
Provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various
items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet
and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator
only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answer:
THERE WILLBE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BYA
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
thrid (0.33) of the marks assigned to that questions will be deducted
aspenalty
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a Wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e.,
no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
1. Parliament can amend the Constitution with

1. By simple majority. 4. Consider the following statements regarding


financial bill.
2. By special majority. 1. Like Money bill, a financial bill can only be
introduced in Lok Sabha.
3. By Special majority but with consent of half of all state legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these

2. Consider the following statements regarding special powers of Rajya


Sabha.
1. It can authorize the parliament to make law on a subject enumerated in
state list.

2. It can authorize the Parliament to create new


– All India Services for Centre and State services for states.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Which of the following provisions of constitution of India have a bearing


on education?

1. Directive Principles of state policy.


2. 7th schedule.
3. Rural and Urban local bodies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

2. With regard to passage of the bill both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have
equal powers.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Consider the following statements regarding Individual Privileges.
1. This privilege is available in civil as well as criminal cases.
2. An individual member is not exempted from jury services.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following regarding Judicial Powers of Governor.
1. He can grant pardon a death sentence.
2. He also appoints district judge in state.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 7. Which of the following statement is correct with regard
to Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Special leave jurisdiction of Supreme Court and the jurisdiction of


election commission are applicable to the state.

(b) Special leave jurisdiction of Supreme Court and jurisdiction of Election


Commission are not applicable to the state.

(c) Special leave jurisdiction of Supreme Court and jurisdiction of Election


Commission are applicable only in certain cases.

(d) Special leave jurisdiction of Supreme Court and jurisdiction of Election


Commission are applicable with consent of state authority.

8. Consider the following statements regarding Provision for Nagaland.


1. Naga customary law and procedure.

2. Administration of Civil and Criminal justice involving decision according


to Naga customary law.

3. Transfer of its land and resources.


Select the correct statement(s).
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
(d) All of these

9. Consider the following regarding Indian Council Act of 1861.

1. For the first time representative institution started by associating Indians


with law making process.

2. It empowered the viceroy to issue ordinances without the concurrence of


the legislative council during emergency.

Which of the statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Consider the following statements regarding Constituent Assembly.

1. Each province and princely state were to be allotted seats in proportion of


their respective population.

2. The representative of princely states were nominated by British authority


with consent of heads of princely states.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 11. Which among the following is correct
about Project Ice worm?
(a) A UN project to protect Greenland ice sheets.

(b) A top-secret United States Army program during the Cold War to build a
network of mobile nuclear missile launch sites under the Greenland ice sheet.

(c) A project in response to the April 1912 sinking of the Titanic.


(d) None of the above
12. FARC rebels are from which of the following countries?
(a) Colombia (b) Venezuela (c) Suriname (d) Cuba
13. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the“earth observation” or“remote-


sensing” satellites in LEO.

2. GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “communication-satellites” in


GEO.

3. An orbit is called sun-synchronous when the angle between the line joining
the centre of the Earth and the satellite and the Sun is constant throughout the
orbit.

4.

4. 900 Km altitude whereas Geo-synchronous Earth orbit (GEO) is about


36000 Km altitude.
Choose the appropriate code:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above 14. Consider the following statements:

1. Rotavirus is one of the primary causes of mortality for children of age 5 -8


in India. 18. Mount Sinjar, which was recently making news, is located in
which among the following? (a) Syria
2. Rotavirus causes moderate to severe diarrhoea in infants.
(b) Iraq

(c) Libya Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(d) Ghana

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 19. Which of the following tribes inhabits the recently
declared district of riverine island of Majuli? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2 (a) Chenchu 15. Which among the following animals is also known as
“aquatic panda”?
(b) Koli
(a) Ganges River Dolphin (c) Mishing
(b) Chinese White Dolphins (d) Bhil

(c) Indus river dolphin 20. The Home Ministry has launched the ‘e-Court’
system. Consider the following statements.

(d) Amazon river dolphin

16. Who among the following was not a part of the famous Young Turks
group of Indian painters which started in 1941?

(a) M.F. Hussain 1. It is aimed at enabling speedy disposal of appeals and


complaints by using digital technology.

2. It will offer an online search facility which allow users to search for dak,
file, hearing notice and decision.

(b) A.A. Majeed Select the correct statements. (c) P.T. Reddy (a) Only 1
(d) M.Bhople (b) Only 2
17. Recently a new species of Pika was discovered in Sikkim. Consider the
following statements about Pika.
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


1. They are members of rat family 21. Which among the following form a
part of the non-debt receipts of the government? 2. They are a keystone
species 1. Recovery of loans. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? 2. Disinvestment ofPSU’s. (a) Only 1 3. Financing from the RBI. (b)
Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(d) Nether 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) Only2 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

22. Which of the following can help in bringing fiscal consolidation?

1. Rationalising taxes
2. Bringing a new health programme
3. Reducing subsidies
4. Introduction of GST
Choose the correct answer using the code: (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

23. Which among the following is correct about Economic Activity Rate
(EAR)?
1. It refers to the foreign investment in an economy in last 5 years.
2. During an economic recession the EAK often decreases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. Which among the following organisation publishes ‘Global


Competitiveness Report’?

(a) World Economic Forum


(b) I.M.F.
(c) World Bank
(d) W.T.O.

25. Highest source of revenue for state government is–

(a) Land revenue


(b) Entertainment tax
(c) Value added tax
(d) Excise duty on intoxicants
26. Consider the following statements.

1. Agriculture and allied sector contributes more than 25% of the GDP.
2. More than 80% of net sown agriculture area of India is depended on
rainfall.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27. Which among the following is correct about latest Budget?


1. Merger of railway budget with general budget.
2. Removal of the categories of plan and nonplan expenditure.
3. Mandatory allocation of 4% of the budget for health sector.

Codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All the above

28. Consider the following statements.


1. Recently the integration of spot market and derivative market in agriculture
sector for commodity trading has been done.

2. This has been done to achieve higher growth rate in agriculture sector.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

29. Which among the following is the recent initiatives bythe government to
provide opportunities for urban rejuvenation?

1. Smart city mission


2. AMRUT
3. HRIDAY
4. Swachh Bharat Mission
Select the correct code:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All the above

30. Consider the following statements.


1. UK is the only European country with which India does not have a free
trade agreement. 2. Germany is the largest European trading partner of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

31. Who has recently written a book‘My Story’? (a) Ricky Ponting
(b) Michael Clarke
(c) Rahul Dravid
(d) Saurav Ganguly

32. Consider the following statements regarding citizenship.


1. If any citizen of India renounces his citizenship then every minor child of
that person loses Indian citizenship.

2. However, when such a child attains the age of 18 he may resume Indian
citizenship.

Which of the statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Consider the following statements regarding Right to Freedom.


1. Statecanimpose‘reasonablerestrictions only on grounds mentioned in
Article 19 itself. 2. These rights are protected against only state action and
not private individuals.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. Consider the following statements regarding DPSP.

1. The Directive Principles help the courts in examining and determining the
constitutional validity of a law.

2. The aim of DPSP is in realizing high ideals of justice, liberty and equality.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

35. Consider the following with regardto Article 368.

1. An amendment of the constitution can be initiated only by the introduction


of a bill in either house of parliament.

2. The bill can only be introduced by a private member.

3. The bill can be passed by simple majority. Which of the statement(s) is/are
correct? (a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these

36. Which of the following are merits of parliamentary form of Government?

1. Prevents Despotism.
2. Harmony between legislature and executive.
3. Ready alternative government.
Select the correct code.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
(d) All of these

37. Which of the following are unitary features of Indian Constitution?

1. Emergency Provisions.
2. Veto on state bills.
3. Parliaments Authority over state list. Select the correct codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

38. Which of the following were created under provisions of the Constitution
of India?

1. National Human Right Commission.


2. National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
3. Special officer for linguistic minorities.
4. National Development Council.
Select the correct answer using following codes. (a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) 1 and 3

39. The National Commission forST’s submits its annual report to the–

(a) Parliament
(b) Union Cabinet
(c) President
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

40. Statement I: The National Commission forST’sis vested with power to


regulate its ownprocedure.

Statement II: The National Commission forST’s while investigating any


matter or inquiring into any complaint has all the powers of a civilcourt.

Codes:

(a) Both statements are individually true and statements II is correct


explanation of statement I.

(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct
explanation of statement I.

(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false but
statement II is true. 41. Consider the following statements:

1. The CAG of India has no control over the issue of money from the
consolidated fund of India.

2. CAG of India is a constitutional body. Which of the following statement(s)


is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Consider the following statements.

1. Like the judge of a high court the AdvocateGeneral of a state is appointed


by the President of India.

2. A person qualified to be appointed as judge of a High Court can be


appointed as Advocate General.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Consider the following statements.

1. The state Human Rights Commission is NonConstitutional Body.

2. Any person who passes legal knowledge can be appointed as chairperson


by Governor of that state.

3. The recommendation of a state Human Right Commission are binding on


the State Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 3

44. The Central Information Commission submits its annual reports to the–

(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Central Government
45. Consider the following statements.

1. The state information commission entertains complaints and appeals


pertaining to officers financial institutions and PSU under the state
government.

2. It’s a high powered independent body. Which of the statements given


above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Consider the following statements about Square Kilometre Array (SKA).

1. It is an international effort to build the largest and the most sensitive radio
telescope in the world.

2. South Africa’s Karoo region and Bardez in Goa are the co-hosting
locations

3. The NCRA-TIFR in Pune is the nodal institute for overseeing SKA related
activities in India

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2


(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

47. Grey hounds have been in news recently, they are

(a) Suicide bombers


(b) Coastal guards
(c) Anti-naxal force
(d) Police dogs used in detecting bombs

48. India is a member of which of the following Multilateral Export Control


Regime (MECR)?
(a) Wassenaar Arrangement
(b) Nuclear Suppliers Group
(c) Missile Technology Control Regime (d) Australia Group

49. “Gadgil Commission” is often mentioned inthe news. What is it in


relation to

(a) Western Ghats Ecology


(b) Eastern Ghats Ecology
(c) Himalayan Ecology
(d) Underground Hydrology

50. “Limenitis rileyi” was recently in the news. What is it?

(a) A Butterfly
(b) a new species of Dolphin
(c) new species of plant
(d) new species of flowering plants
51. Consider the following statements.

1. Neurocalyx calycinus is the medicinalplant found in Western Ghats


55. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(a) A high court cannot over-rule itself.
2. It has been in use to treatAlzheimer’s. (b) The Supreme Court can over-
rule itself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. “Artemisinin”, was recently in the news. What is it?
(a) powerful anti-malarial drug
(b) new species of Butterfly
(c) a newly found planet
(d) a telescope build by NASA
53. The recently launched ‘Bunkar Mitra’initiative of the textile ministry is
(a) Online portal to facilitate purchase of Jute bags
(b) Dashboard for Integrated SkillDevelopment Scheme
(c) A Helpline for handholding of Handloom weavers.
(d) Grievance redressal mechanism for pensioners
54. ‘Internet ofthings’ (IoT) appears in news. It is related to?
(a) Inter-networking of connected/smart systems
(b) Virtual Private Network
(c) Cloud Computing
(d) Artifical Intelligence (c) Judgements of the Supreme Court bind the lower
courts.
(d) Judgements of a High Court bind the lower courts o the state.
56. Consider the following statements.

1. The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir does not declares Kashmiri as the
official language of the state.

2. The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir provides for Governors rule in


the state.

Which one of the following is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2


(d) Neither 1 nor 2

57. Which one of the following government documents first suggested for
having elections of Panchayati Raj institutions on political party basis?

(a) Report of ARC


(b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(c) Ashok Mehta Committee Report

(d) Diwakar Committee Report


58. A member of Union Public Service Commission.
1. Is appointed by the president of India.
2. Is eligible for re-appointment to that office.

3. Holds office for a period of 6 years or till the age of 60 years, which over
is earlier. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1
and2
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All are correct 59. Which one of the following is not
correctly matched?
62. Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along
with the budget? 1. Alternative Expenditure Policy– Finance Commission.
1. Explanatory on Budget.
2. Summary of demands for grants. 2. Appointment of High Court Judges–
President of India.
3. Appropriation bill.
3. Co-ordination in the Central– Cabinet Secretary Secretariat.
4. Economic Survey. Select the correct code: 4. Principles governing grants
in aid to states – Estimates Committee.
(a) 1 and 3
Select the correct code: (b) 1, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) 2, 3 and 4 63. Consider the following statements regarding Finance
Commission.
(d) 2 and 3
60. Consider the following statements. 1. It consist of a chairman and three
other members.

1. Parliament may make provisions for the incorporation and regulation of


co-operative societies.

2. The maximum number of directors of a cooperative societies shall not


exceed twenty five.

2. It is to act as the balancing wheel of Indi fiscal federalism.


3. Qualification of members are determined by president.

4. It is constituted under provisions of Article 280.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (a) 1 and 2


(b) Only 2 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 and 4
61. The conditions of service of members of All India Services are
determined by–

64. Constitution says that state council of ministers holds office during the
pleasure of governor. Here pleasure of the Governor means–

(a) President (a) Pleasure of the President (b) Parliament (b) Pleasure of
Governor (c) Constitution (c) Pleasure of Chief Minister (d) UPSC (d)
Pleasure of Legislative Assembly 65. UPSC derives its functions from which
of the following sources?

1. Constitution
2. Parliamentary laws
3. Executive rules and orders
4. Conventions
Select the correct answer using the codes: (a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

66. Which of the following expenditure are charged upon the consolidation
fund of India?

1. Allowances of Chairman of Lok Sabha.


2. Raising of loans and redemption of debts.
3. Administrative expense of office of the CAG. Select the correct answer
using the codes. (a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

67. The Chairman of which of the following Parliamentary Committee is in


variably from the ruling party.

(a) Committee on Public undertaking. (b) Public Account Committee.


(c) Estimate Committee.
(d) Committee on Assurance.
68. Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the lower house?

(a) Public Account Committee.


(b) Committee on Assurance.
(c) Estimate Committee.
(d) Committee on Public Undertaking. 69. Consider the following.

1. Dispute with cellular companies.


2. Motor accident cases.
3. Pension cases. Which of the above Lok Adalats held? (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and
2 (c) Only 3 (d) All of these

70. Which of the following are correct regarding 97th Constitutional


Amendment Act of 2011 for co-operative societies?

1. It made right form co-operative societies a fundamental right.


2. It included a new DPSP on promotion of co-operative societies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Which one of the following is correct about Central Vigilance


Commission?
1. It was establishedon the recommendation of Administrative Reforms
Commission. 2. It presents its report to president.

3. The salary and other allowances of Central Vigilance Commissioner are


similar to judge of the Supreme Court.

Which one of the following is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2


(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
72. Consider the following statements. 1. Creating a new state is power of
parliament.
2. Equality of opportunity guaranteed only to Indian citizens.
3. Altering the name of a state is power of state legislature.
4. Equality before law guaranteed to only citizens of India.

Which one of the following is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2


(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
73. Consider the following statements.
1. Inclusion of 9th schedule in the commission. 2. Reorganisation of the state
of Punjab. 3. Passing of anti defection bill.
4. First Non Congress government at the centre. Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 3,1, 4, 2
74. A money bill deals with :
1. Custody of consolidated fund of India.

2. Withdrawal of money fromcontingency fund of India.


3. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India.

Select the correct code:


(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above

75. Which one of the following is not a sub-forum of the parliamentary forum
on youth?

(a) Sub-forum on empowerment.


(b) Sub-forum on Health.
(c) Sub-Forum on education.
(d) Sub-forum on employment.

76. Which one of the following is not applicable regarding the purpose of Cut
Motion?
(a) Raising questions of urgent public importance.
(b) Drawing attention to any lapse on the part of the administration.
(c) Drawing attention to specific problems. (d) Concentrating discussion on
some concrete points.
77. Consider the following statements.
1. President’s power to grant pardon is related to Article 72.
2. The President can commute death sentence to life imprisonment.

Which one of the following is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. Test has been developed that could help diagnose bacterial infections,
including meningitis in minutes. Consider the following statements regarding
Meningitis—

1. It an acute inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain


and spinal cord.

2. The inflammation is caused by infection of bacteria on.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 79. Panglong Agreement is concerned
with which of the following countries?

(a) North Korea and South Korea


(b) Burma (now Myanmar)
(c) Vietnam
(d) Cambodia

80. Consider the following statements concerning Polymetallic Nodules


(PMN).
1. They are called as manganese nodules 2. It contains nickel, cobalt and
copper beside manganese

3. India has contract for exploration of PMN in Central Indian Ocean Basin
with the International Seabed Authority (ISA)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

81. Which among the following is a national parkas well as tiger reserve ?

(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Similipal
(c) Campbell bay
(d) blackbulk

82. Consider the following statements about Maritime Power Conference–


2017.
1. It is organized by Ministry of Shipping 2. The theme is The Blue
Economy: Concept, Constituents andDevelopment’
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 83. Consider the following statements.
1. Indra Sawhney case related to Revival of Judicial review.
2. Minerva Mills case related to procedure established by law.

Which of the following is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. Consider the following statements.

1. The Governor of a state is not a part of the state legislature.


2. The de-Jure head of a State Government is Governor.

Which of the following is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

85. Which among the following is correct about SWADHAR Scheme?


1. This is indented to help women deserted by their families.
2. Japan Government is an active partner of the government in this scheme.

Codes:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. Which among the following is correct about SWAYAMSIDDHA?


1. It is a flagship programme of ministry of women and child development.
2. This scheme will run in three phases of which the latest phase starts from
2019.

Codes:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

87. Which among the following is notan ‘Inclusion Criteria’?

(a) Social Vulnerability


(b) Type of housing
(c) Place of residence
(d) Status of income

88. Which among the following is not one of the missions announced as part
of the action plan for sustainable development?

(a) Tree plantation


(b) Water conservation
(c) Solar Energy
(d) Family Planning

89. The ‘Greening ofthe East’ refers to –


(a) Fodder cultivation in Easter India.

(b) Spread of green revolution in horticulture in northern India.


(c) Spread of tree cover and forest in Eastern India.
(d) Spread of Green Revolution to non-traditional areas of eastern India.
90. Which among the following is correct regarding Indian Agriculture?
1. Indian Agriculture registered a growth of less than 3% in last five years.
2. Wheat is the largest exported agriculture commodity of India.

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. Which among the following is the largest agriculture exporter country of
the world?
(a) China (b) USA
(c) India (d) Brazil

92. Which among the following is correct about Agriculture Insurance


Company of India limited (AIC)?

1. AIC was incorporated under the companies act 1956.


2. AIC comes under NABARD. Select the correct code.
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

93. Consider the following statements.


1. The first Industrial policy was announced in 1948.
2. The aim of this policy was to increase the export of capital goods.

Which among the following is correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. With reference to Balance of Payments (BoP) which among the following
is not part of capital account?

1. Personal Income
2. Portfolio Investment
3. Non-Resident Deposits
4. Services

Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3
only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only 95. Consider the following statements.

1. The exchange rate ofa country’s currencyin foreign exchange market


depends on prevailing inflation in that country.

2. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) are defined by WTO.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. Which among the following is correct about ‘Dutch disease’?

1. A condition caused by high foreign investment and high inward


remittances in an economy.

2. In this condition a country’s domestic sector becomes uncompetitive.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 97. Phillips Curve
denotes– (a) Relationship between economic activity and the rate of taxation.
(b) Relationship between unemployment rateand GNP.

(c) Inverse relationship between the rate of change of money wages and the
rate of unemployment.

(d) Inverse relationship between demand and supply.


98. Which one of the following is not an instrument of Money Market?

(a) Treasury Bills


(b) Repo Rate
(c) Bank Rate
(d) Commercial Paper

99. Consider the following statements.

1. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 has brought a new management


regime of foreign exchange with the new frame work of the WTO.

2. Foreign Exchange Management Act fixes both Civil and Criminal


penalties on the violators of the act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 100. National Social Assistance
Programme covers–

1. Old Age Persons


2. Destitute women
3. Disables
4. Children
5. Minorities
Select the correct code:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) All the above

nnnnnnnn DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU


ARE ASKED TO DO SO

P.T. - 2018 Serial No. TEST 6


GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1
Time Allowed : Two Hours TEST BOOKLET SERIES
F
Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE


EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
FOR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
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2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES. A, B, C OR D AS


THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER
SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll No on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alonside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both
in Hindi and English .Each item comprises four responses (answer). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
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each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separateAnswer Sheet
Provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various
items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet
and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator
only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answer:
THERE WILLBE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BYA
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
thrid (0.33) of the marks assigned to that questions will be deducted
aspenalty
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a Wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e.,
no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
1. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

1. Regulating Act of 1773: creation of four member executive.

2. Government of India Act 1935: Council to assist Governor General


Provincial Autonomy.

Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of
A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
3. Cabinet Mission Plan: Abolished the office of Secretary of State for
India.4.
4. Indian Council Act 1892: Parfolio system. (d) A is false but R is true.
Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Constitution.

5. Government of India Act 1935: Separate electorate for Sikhs, Indian


Christian, AngloIndian etc.

1. Preamble can be amended only by the procedure mentioned under Article


368.
2. It is not justiciable in nature. Codes:
(a) 1 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 4 3. The objective resolution ultimately became the
preamble.
(c) 3 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5 4. It cannot override the specific provisions of the
Constitution.
2. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of

India implies that


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Certain feature of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be
abrogated. (a) 1 and 2

(b) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not part of
the constitution and at the same time represent its real spirit. (b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 4

(c) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the


procedure prescribed 5. in Article 368.

(d) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away.

3. Assertion (A): Notwithstanding the introduction of Provincial Autonomy,


the Government of India Act, 1935 retained control of the central government
over the provinces in certainsphere. (d) All of these

Consider the following statements.


1. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955), also provided for the
commonwealth citizenship.

2. The provision of common wealthcitizenship was repealed by Repealing


and Amending Act 1960.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


Reason (R): The Governor was required to act
in his own discretion in certain matters forwhich
he was to act without ministerial advice and under
the control and direction of the Governor General. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. Consider the following statements:

1. Project Insight is an initiative of the finance ministry to widen the tax base
by detecting tax evaders using technology.
2. Project insight will include information from social media platforms like
Facebook, Twitter and Instagram.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements:

1. Oliver Hart from Harvard and MIT professor Bengt Holmstrom won this
year’s Nobel Memorial Prize in Economics for his analysis of consumption,
poverty, and welfare.

2. The first nobel prize in economics was given in 1946.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Bogor Goals is concerned with
(a) SAARC
(b) APEC
(c) WTO
(d) European Union

9. Kempu kabbu or Konanakatte kabbu is a variety of

(a) Sugarcane
(b) Cotton
(c) Wheat
(d) Rice

10. ‘Jakarta Concord’ was in news recently. It is concerned with


(a) Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
(b) BRICS
(c) RCEP
(d) ASEAN
11. Consider the following statements.
1. Quo– warranto is a very powerful instrument for safe guarding against the
usurpation of public offices.

2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial tribunal


to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Consider the following statements regarding Attorney General
1. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member
of Parliament. 2. He can not do private legal practices. 3. He has the right to
speak and take part in proceedings of both house of theparliament.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these

13. Consider the following statements with regard to disqualification under


Xth Schedule
1. It one-third of the members of the party split from the parent party and join
another party. 2. An independent member who joins a political party after
his/her election.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following regarding powers and functions of Speaker


1. He decides whether cut motion, no confidence motion etc. to be admitted
or not. 2. decides the disqualification of members under the 10th Schedule.
3. Speaker chairs the business advisory committee, rules committee.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

15. Which statement is not correct about Parliamentary Privileges?


(a) Members can not be arrested during the session of parliament.
(b) It can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of the privileges.
(c) The courts are prohibited to inquire into the proceedings for a house.

(d) No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or
any note given by him in Parliament.
16. Consider the following statements.

1. Carbon Credit came into the limelight after the Kyoto Protocol.

2. Carbon Credits are a component of International attempts to mitigate the


growth of Green House Gases(GHG’s) and that why can not be traded in
International market.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Bio-Prospecting refers to
1. Exploring an area to measure it’s richnessof diversity.

2. Exploring molecular, genetic and specieslevel diversity for products of


economic importance.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. The National Green Tribunal has jurisdiction over which of the following
laws.
1. The Wild life (Protection) Act, 1972
2. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
3. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1980
4. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All the above 19. Which of the following group of plants exhibits more
species diversity?

(a) Angiosperms
(b) Algae
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Fungi

20. The term ‘Symbiosis’ may refer to which of the following, besides
Mutualism.

(a) Neutralism
(b) Ammensalism
(c) Parasitism
(d) Commensalism

21. Consider the following statements about H-1B visa.

1. It allows U.S. employers to temporarily employ foreign workers in


specialty occupations.

2. It is a non-immigrant visa.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Who of the following has won the 2017 Abel Prize?

(a) Andrew J. Wiles


(b) Louis Nirenberg
(c) Yves Meyer
(d) John F. Nash

23. National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is chaired by

(a) Home Minister


(b) Home Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Secretary

24. Consider the following statements about National Cyclone Risk


Mitigation Project (NCRMP).

1. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) under the aegis of


Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) will implement the Project in coordination
with participating State Governments and the National Institute for Disaster
Management (NIDM).

2. NCRMP Phase – 1 covers states of


Goa,Gujarat,Karnataka,Kerela,Maharashtra and West Bengal.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Consider the following statements about Technology Information,


Forecasting and Assessment Council (TIFAC).

1. It is an autonomous body under the Department of Science & Technology.


2. ‘Technology Vision Document2035’ is produced by TIFAC.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Which below given statements is/are true in regard to International Court
of Justice– ICJ and International Criminal Court– ICC?

1. ICJ is a civil court, where as ICC is a criminal court.


2. Headquarters of ICJ is in Hague and ICJ is in New York

3. ICJ is Official court of U.N, commonly known as “World Court”; whereas


ICC is independent, not governed by U.N
Choose appropriate code:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. Consider the following statements about Indian Pharmacopoeia


Commission (IPC).

1. It is an Autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food


and Public Distribution.

2. Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) is an official document meant for overall


Quality Control and Assurance of Pharmaceutical products marketed in India.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1


(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Which of the following will implement the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code 2016 ?

(a) Reserve Bank of India


(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

29. India’s Nikkei India Manufacturing Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI)


slipped a bit to 52.1 in September, compared with 52.6 in August. Consider
the following statements about Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI).

1. It is an indicator of the economic health of the manufacturing sector.

2. The PMI is based on new orders, inventory levels, production, supplier


deliveries and the employment environment.

3. A PMI of more than 50 represents contraction of the manufacturing sector


when compared to the previous month.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
30. Consider the following statements:

1. “Epsilon-2” a solid-fuel rocket has successfully launched by china.


2. The Arase satellite launched into orbit by Epsilon-2 to study the Van Allen
belts.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Consider the following statements about Lapis Lazuli Corridor.
1. The corridor

Turkmenistan, connects Afghanistan, Azerbaijan, Georgia and

Turkey via road and rail


2. It starts fromAfghanistan and ends in Europe

3. It is derived from the historic export route that Afghanistan’s lapis lazuli
and other semiprecious stones were being exported through this route to
Caucasus, Russian, the Balkans, Europe and North of Africa over 2000 years
back

Select the correct statements.


(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
32. Which among the following countries is known for its iTaukei ceremonial
welcome tradition?
(a) Madagascar
(b) Fiji
(c) South Korea
(d) Japan 33. Assertion (A): By equality before law constitution means that
there should be equality of treatment under equal circumstances.

Reasons (R): All persons are not equal by nature or circumstances.


Codes:
36. Consider the following statements regarding Article 15
1. The guarantee under Article 15 is available to the citizens only.

2. It provides for affirmativeaction’s for socially and educationally backward


classes in educational institutions.

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation of A.


Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(b) Both A and R individually true but R is not correct explanation of A.


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) A is true R is false. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) A is false R is true.
34. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

37. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Directive Principles


of State Policy (DPSP)

(a) Writ of Habeas corpus: Available against private individual as well as


public authority.

(a) DPSP are not restricted to one part of the Constitution and are positive
obligation of state towards the citizen.

(b) Writ of Quo-warranto: Available against subordinate courts only.


(c) Writ of Certiorari: Available against autonomous bodies only.
(d) Writ of Prohibition: Available against Public Servants only.

(b) DPSP are restricted to Part IV of the Constitution and are positive
obligation of state towards the citizen.

(c) DPSP are not restricted to one part of the Constitution are and are
imposed obligation of state towards the citizen.
35. Consider the following statements regarding concept of‘State’.

1. Article 12 provides the definition of state and says that‘state’ include


Government and Parliament of India only.

2. All Public authorities except autonomous institutions, Public Corporation


comes under the definition of‘state’.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) DPSP are neither restricted nor
obligatory.
38. Consider the following statements about ‘INS Tillanchang'.
1. It is a Water Jet Fast Attack Craft (WJFAC).
2. It is built by the Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE)
Kolkata.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 39. Kamaladevi Chattopadhya National Awards is
concerned with which of the following sectors?

(a) Steel
(b) Textile
(c) Automobiles
(d) Fertilizers and seeds

40. Camp Lemonnier is


(a)US’s only permanent military base in Africa. (b)China’s first overseas
military base.

(c)India’s first and only air base outside its territory.

(d) India’s naval base inSeychelles.


41. N K Singh committee is associated with
(a) Amendments to FRBM Act
(b) Promotion of digital payments
(c) Special economic zones
(d) Enhancing solar energy capacity
42. Twin Balance Sheet problem includes
(a) Fiscal deficit of Union government
(b) Non-performing Assets of public sector banks
(c) Indebtedness of corporates
(d) Both (b) and (c)

43. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ineffectiveness of


Parliamentary control

1. The majority support enjoyed by the executive in the Parliament reduces


the possibility of effective criticism.

2. The growth of 'delegated legislation' has reduced the role of Parliament in


making detailed laws and has increased the powers of bureaucracy.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 44. Consider the following statements in
context of equal states of Rajya Sabha with Lok Sabha1. Approval of
ordinance issued by the President.
2. Selection of ministers including the Prime Ministers.

3. Consideration of reforms of the Constitutional bodies like Finance


Commission, UnionPublic Service Commission, CAG etc.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only1
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these 45. Consider the following statements with regard
to Rajya Sabha.

1. With regard to Financial bill, not containing solely matters of Article 110
Rajya Sabha have equal powers with Lok Sabha, with regard to its passage.

2. Rajya Sabha cannot remove the council of Ministers by passing a no-


confidence motion. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 46. Consider the following statements in
context of Co-operative societies.
1. Preparation of electoral rolls and conduct of elections to a co-operative
society shall vest in such body as provided by Parliament.

2. With regard to Audit of Account of cooperative state legislature may make


provisions.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 47. Which of the following are Pressure
groups? 1. Bussiness Groups 51. Which of the following groups of animals in
India has the highest number of threatened species?

(a) Birds 2. Professional Association


(b) Reptiles 3. Caste Group

4. Idealogy based groups


5. Tribal Organisation
Select Codes:

(a) 3 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 5 (c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these 48. Consider the
following statements.
1. Rising Temperatures can cause soil to release CO .
2

2. This phenomenon mostly seen in desert region.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 49. Consider the following statements
about Aerosols.

1. Aerosols are tiny particles made from superfine solid particles and liquid
droplets droplets carried in atmosphere.

2. They often act as ‘Cloud Condensation Nuclie’ around which cloud


droplets are formed.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. Which endangered animal is the source of finest, lightest, warmest and
most expensive wool–the Shahtoosh?

(a) Kashmiri Goat


(b) Chiru
(c) Cheetal
(d) Serow
(c) Mammals (d) Fishes

52. Consider the following statements.

1. Ice cores from polar areas provides an indication of post climates through
Oxygen isotop analysis.

2. Coral reefs are another source of similar information.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. What is the impact of advancing Glaciers on the rings of the trees?

(a) They become concentric. (b) Their shape is distorted. (c) They become
more widely spaced.

(d) There are immune to this change. 54. What are Varves?

(a) Annual change in temperature from summer to winter.

(b) Annual layers of sediments in lakes. (c) Sequence of fossils in a


chronological order.

(d) Layers of sediments contained in deep ice cores of arctic region.

55. What was Montreal Protocol concerned with (a) Checking Global
Warming.
(b) Checking Ozone depletion.
(c) Checking degradation of biodiversity. (d) Both (a) and (b)

56. Which of the following contributes the maximum to the greenhouse


effect?
61. Which of the following is not a biodiversity hotspot?
(a) Water vapour (c) Methane
(b) CO2 (a) Succulent Karoo (d) CFC’s (b) Wallacea 57. What will be the
effect on the albedo of the earth if all water bodies freeze?

(a) It will increase.


(b) It will decrease.
(c) It will remain unchanged.

(d) There is no relationship between albedo and freezing of water bodies.


58. Consider the following statements.
1. Particulates and Soot in atmosphere contribute to global dimming.

2. Deposition of soot in high latitude areas lowers the albedo leading to


atmospheric warming.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 59. Which of the following phenomena is
supposedly associated with global warming?

(a) Southern Oscillation.


(b) El-nino
(c) La Nina
(d) El Nino Modoki

60. Consider the following statements.


1. An important source of methane are the paddy fields in the tropical
regions.
2. Digestive system of animals also produces Methane in large amounts.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Cerrado
(d) Antigua
62. Which among the following is the hottest year ever recorded on earth?
(a) 2016
(b) 2015
(c) 2014
(d) 2010
63. Global Leprosy Strategy 2016–2020 is launched by
(a) WHO
(b) UNDP
(c) UNICEF
(d) UN doctor en la cappina
64. Which among the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest National Park in India.
2. The park was the first to come under project Elephant.
3. It is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Choose the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) None of the above 65. Consider the following statements. 68. Consider
the following statements.

1. Multilateral Competent Authority Agreement for Country-by- Country


Reporting (CbC MCAA) allows signatories to bilaterally and automatically
exchange country-by-country reports with each other, as contemplated by
Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) Action Plan.

1. In India tiger comes under critically endangered species.


2. Globally, the pangolins are the most threatened mammals.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2. India is yet to sign CbC MCAA. (a) Only 1 Which of the statement(s)
given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 66. Consider the following statements
about Electroal Bond.
1. It is a financial instrument for making donations to political parties.
2. These are issued by the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. The Government has amended the RBI Act to hand over the job of
monetary policy-making in India to a newly constituted Monetary Policy
Committee (MPC). Consider the following statements.

1. Urjit Patel Committee mooted an MPC so that the decisions could be made
through majority vote.

2. Having both Government and RBI members on the MPC was suggested
for ensuring accountability.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of relative


contribution of major greenhouse gases to the anthropogenic gases to the
anthropogenic green house effect?

(a) CO , CFC, CH , O (troposphere)


243

(b) CO , CFC, CH , N O
242

(c) CFC, CO , CH , O3 (troposphere)


24

(d) CFC, CO , CH , N O
242

70. Which of the following makes the largest contribution to theearth’s


overall net primary productivity? (a) Open Ocean
(b) Estuaries
(c) Tropical Rainforests (d) Coral Reefs
71. Consider the following statements.
1. A Euprophic lake is a well-nourished lake. 2. Cultural Eutrophication
finally leads to death of a lake.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 72. Which element present in dieseal is
an important cause of air pollution in Urban areas? 77. Which among the
following is correctly matched.
(a) Lead 1. The Environment (Protection) Act – 1986
(b) Sulphur 2. The National Forest Policy – 2006
(c) Carbon 3. The Forest Rights Act – 1988
(d) Nitrogen Codes:

73. Which of the following biomes is unique in having the co-existence of


two major plant forms – grasses and trees?
(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(a) Mediterranean (b) Tundra (c) Savanna

(d) Taiga 74. The term ‘sustainable development’ was first used?
(a) Cocoyoc declaration

(b) Brundtland Report (c) Rio Declaration (d) Stockholm Declaration

75. In which of the following states, the Supreme Court has refused to liftit’s
interim order banning the rat-hole coal mining?

(a) Meghalaya (b) West Bengal (c) Odisha (d) Jharkhand

76. Who among the following have been identified as the most vulnerable
and largest population affected by climate change by UNICEF?

(a) Children (b) Women


(c) Old-aged persons (d) Pregnant women (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None of the above are correctly match 78. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct regarding pro term speaker?

1. President appoints him.


2. President administers oath to him.
3. He administer oath to new members.

4. He presides over the first sitting of newly elected Lok Sabha.


Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) All of these

79. Consider the following statements regarding original jurisdiction of


Supreme Court 1. It can use it in matters referred to Finance Commission
(Art. 280).
2. It can be used it in Adjustment of certain expenses between Union & the
states. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. Consider the following statements regarding Special Leave Petition (SLP)
83. Consider the following statements regarding membership of house

1. It shall also apply to any determination, sentence or order passed by any


tribunal or any court relating to Armed Forces.

2. SLP is not at the discretion of the court as it has to admit petition filed
under SLP.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
81. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good
government of four union territories (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep,
Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman Diu).

(b) Only Parliament has the authority to make such regulations.

1. It a sitting membe r of one house is also elected to the otherhous e, his seat
in the first house becomes vacant.

legislature elected for 2. If a member of st ate


parliament then he/s h e must resign from his seat in state legislature within
60 days.

(s) given above is/areWhich of the statemen t


correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2


(d) Neither 1 nor 2(c) Both 1 and 2

84. Which of the followin g statements is correct regarding ‘Prorogation’?

1. It is done by President of India.


2. All pending notices lapse on prorogation.
3. It terminates only sitting of the house. Select codes:

(c) Both President and Parliament can make regulation related to it.

(a) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(b) (d) Only 3

All of these (d) Regulation made by President needs to introduced in


Parliament.
85. Match List-I with List-II.
82. Consider the following statements regardingstate list.

1. If Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary to make law on state list than
Parliament becomes competent to make law on such matter.

2. The state legislature then can not make laws on the same matter.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

List-I
A. With holding of Assent

B. Overridden by an
ordinary majority
C. Taking no action on the bill
D. Overridden by a
higher majority
Select Codes:

A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 5 2 1 3
(c) 5 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1

List-II
1. Qualitied veto
2. Pocket Veto

3. Absolute Veto
4. Majority Veto 5. Suspensive Veto

86. The 73rdAmendment Act does not apply to the states of


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. Nagaland (a) Only 1


2. Meghalaya (b) Only 2
3. Mizoram (c) Both 1 and 2
Select codes: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 89. Consider the following statements. (a)
Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these
87. Consider the following statements.

1. The chair person of every district Planning Committee shall forward the
development plan as recommended by such committee to the Governor of
state.

2. Not less than two thirds of the total number of members of the District
Planning Committee shall be elected, from amongst, the elected members of
the Panchayat at the district level and the Municipalities in the district.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
88. Consider the following statements.

1. The parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including
thestate lists) for the Union territories.

2. An Administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President of India


and not head of state like a Governor.

1. As per provisions of the Constitution of India, a Regional Commissioner


shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of Governor
of the state where the Regional Commissioner is posted.

2. The number of Election Commissioners in the Election Commission shall


be fixed by the President from time to time.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. Consider the following statements:


A member of the state Public Service Commission can be removed only by
the:
1. Governor on the ground of his misbehavior. 2. President on the ground of
his infirmity of body or mind.
3. Governor when such member becomes insolvent.

4. President on the ground of misbehaviorafter receiving report of the


Supreme Court after due inquiry.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 only

91. Which of the following is/are the issue on which recommendations to be


made by the Finance Commission to the president of India are specified in
the Constitution of India?

1. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the
states out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

2. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of State to supplement


the resources of the Panchayats in the state.

3. Measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to


supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the state.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

92. Which of the following explicitly shows the progress in implementation


of Directive Principles of state policy?

1. Establishment of legal aid.


2. Fair and impartial electoral process. 3. Establishment of Panchayati Raj
institution.
Choose the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
93. TROPEX is a defence exercise between
(a) India and Nepal
(b) Nepal and Bhutan
(c) India and Sri Lanka
(d) None of the above

94. Consider thefollowingstatements regardingjoint sitting of Parliament.


1. The joint sitting is government by rules of procedure of Lok Sabha.
2. At a joint sitting new amendment can't be proposed irrespective of cases.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Provisions of
Budget.
1. Demand of grant does not need recommendation of the president.
2. The charged expenditure is non-votable by the parliament.
3. Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these

96. Logistics Performance Index is released by (a) World Economic Forum


(b) World Bank (c) United Nations Development Programme

(d) World Trade Organisation 97. The India International Kite Festival is
celebrated in which Indian state every year?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Karnataka

98. DRR Dhan 45 also known as IET23832 was in news recently. What is it?

(a) Short duration cotton variety


(b) WikiLeaks file related to CIA
(c) High zinc rice variety
(d) Technology for sex identification of meat

99. Consider the following statements about Global Maritime Energy


Efficiency Partnership (GloMEEP) project.

1. The Global Environment Facility provides the funding for the GloMEEP
project along with co-financing from countries and other international
partners.

2. India is one of the Lead Pilot Countries (LPCs) of the GloMEEP project.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. Consider the following statements.
1. The first Generation Biofuels are produced directly from food crops.
2. We are in the process of creating sixth generation bio fuels.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU
ARE ASKED TO DO SO

P.T. - 2018 Serial No. TEST 7


GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1
Time Allowed : Two Hours TEST BOOKLET SERIES
G
Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE


EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
FOR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES. A, B, C OR D AS


THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER
SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll No on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alonside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both
in Hindi and English .Each item comprises four responses (answer). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE responsefor
each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separateAnswer Sheet
Provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various
items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet
and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator
only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answer:
THERE WILLBE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BYA
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
thrid (0.33) of the marks assigned to that questions will be deducted
aspenalty
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a Wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e.,
no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
1. Massive Ordnance Air Blast bomb (MOAB) is not the largest bomb ever
made.

2. Russia in2007 tested‘Aviation Thermobaric Bomb of IncreasedPower’,


nicknamed as the “Father of AllBombs”.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements. 4.


1. Dr. B R Ambedkar was appointed as the first Law Minister of Independent
India. 2. He formed Republican Party of India in 1934. Which of the
statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements.

1. Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) is a self regulatory,


voluntary, nongovernmental body of the advertising industry. 6.

2. The aim ofASCI is to enhance the public’s confidence in advertising and


ensure that all advertising material is truthful, legal, honest, decent and not
objectify women and fair.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The Teesta River
originates in Sikkim.

2. It flows through West Bengal as well as Bangladesh.


3. India claims a share of 55 percent of the river’s water.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All the above
Consider the following statements.

1. Nepal and India are planning to hold the firstever joint military
exerciseSagarmatha Friendship-2017.

2. Sagarmatha is the Nepali name of Mount Everest.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Consider the following statements.

1. The Cassini team found evidence of hydrothermal vents on Enceladus’s


ocean floor.

2. Hydrothermal vents are fissures in the rocky core of Enceladus.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Operation Meghdoot was launched to capture the Siachen Glacier in the


Jammu and Kashmir.
1. SAUNI Yojana is a project to divert one million acre feet (MAF) of
floodwaters of Narmada to Saurashtra region.

2. Siachen Glacier lies in the KarakoramRange.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. Gosi Khurd Irrigation Project is one of the major
irrigation project in Gujarat.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1
8. Consider the following statements. (b) Only 2

1. Films can bepublicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified
by the Central Board of Film Certification.
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


2. Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Constitutional body.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
12. Consider the following statements.
1. The Paris Agreement of UNFCCC has been ratified by India in 2017.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The Paris Agreement of UNFCCC has
set a target of Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCS) to be achieved
by2020.

9. Which one of the following port has emerged as the cleanest in a first-ever
ranking of all major Indian ports on sanitation parameters?
3. The Paris Agreement has come into force

from November, 2016.


Select the correct code:(a) Haldia port (a) 1 and 2 only (b) Kandla Port (b) 2
and 3 only (c) Marmagao Port (c) 3 only (d) Paradwip Port (d) All the above
10. Consider the following statements.
1. Vembanad is the longest lake in India. 2. Wular Lake is the largest
Freshwater Lake in India.

13. India has set a target of generating 175 GW of renewable energy. Out of
which how much has to be generated from biomass?

(a) 60 GW Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(b) 45 GW
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 30 GW
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 10 GW

14. Consider the following:


1. Food Security
2. Resilience to Agriculture
3. Poverty eradication

Which among the above is/are part of recently concluded Marrakesh Action
Proclamation on Climate Change?

Select the correct code:


(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) All the above

15. Which countries have announced measure of demonetization recently?

1. India
2. Bolivia
3. Venezuela
4. Pakistan
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the above

16. Which one of the following commissions/ committees recommended the


creation of a National Commission for Higher Education and Research
(NCHER)?

1. Kothari Commission
2. National Knowledge Commission
3. Yashpal Committee
4. T.S.R. Subranian Committee
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the above

17. Incheon Strategy Framework for Action deals with


(a) Women empowerment
(b) Global Climate Change
(c) Persons with disabilities
(d) Inclusive education

18. In the Budget 2017-18, the Govt. announced to celebrate 150th Birth
anniversary of Gandhi in 2019 as

(a) Complete electrification of all villages in India.


(b) Total cleanliness in all villages of India.
(c) Every working women to be skilled enough.
(d) To bring one crore household out of poverty.

19. Which one of the following is not a part of the funding pattern under
National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF)?

(a) Namami Gange Programme


(b) National Solar Mission
(c) Smart Cities
(d) Green Energy Corridor
20. Which one of the coral reefs areas identified for intensive conservation
and management?
1. Gulf of Mannar.
2. Gulf of Khambhat
3. Gulf of Kachchh
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All the above Which state/UT of India has the largest forest 21. cover
(area-wise)?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chattisgarh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Andaman & Nicobar
Consider the following statements.
22.1. A project for breeding crocodiles which started in 1974, has been
instrumental in saving the crocodile from extinction in India.

2. The salt water crocodile is found along the eastern coast and in the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following fauna species are 23. found in India?
1. Wild sheep
2. Markhor
3. Ibex
4. Shrew
5. Tapir
6. Snow Leopard
Select the correct code:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) All the above


24. Nilgiri Biosphere Reser
states? ve is located in which 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Kerala
4. Karnataka Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
25. Which one of the foll ow
atmosphere from automoing is/are added to the 1. Lead bile exhaust?
2. Carbon Monoxide
3. Chlorine
4. Nitrogen Oxides
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 Only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
26. Ecological footprint mea

(a) a renewable reso urns


indefinitely. ce which can be used
(b) to check the deple ti
by afforestation. on of natural resources
(c) a measure of hu
ecosystem. man impact on earth’s
(d) the rich biodiversi ty
of flora and fauna. having several species

27. World Wetland Day is celebrated on 31. Quantum-Dot technology can be


used to produce– (a) 5 June 1. LEDs (b) 2 February 2. Solar Cells (c) 22
April 3. Inkjet printing (d) 14 January 4. Televisions 28. Recently, India has
appreciated and showninterest in Japanese‘Shinkansen’ technology. What is
it? 5. Microwave Ovens
(a) Technology of High Speed Railway Select the correct code:
(b) Technology of Disaster ManagementSystem. (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Technology of Nuclear Power Plants. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Technology of deep-sea drilling. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
29. What is a dry port? (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) A port which was already existed and have been put under renovation.
(b) a seaport in dry and tropical zones in the world.

(c) an inland terminal directly connected by road or rail to a seaport and


operating as a centre for the transshipment of sea cargo to inland destinations.

(d) a port which is used for defence and naval expedition purposes.
30. Consider the statements.

1. Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights


(TRIPS) of the World Trade Organization (WTO) has promoted the idea of
product patent.

2. Patent is given for a limited time period, currently for 20 years under
TRIPS.

3. Section 3(d) of the Patent Act checks the process of‘evergreening’ of the
patent which is an unhealthy trend in the competition of pharmaceutical
companies.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 32. GJ 1132 b was in news
recently– (a)It’s an asteroid found near Earth. (b) An earth like planet having
an atmosphere. (c) Newly discovered moon for Jupiter.

(d) A place located in planet Saturn.

33. Scientists and environmentalists expect that more than 90 per cent of
Corals will die by 2050 because of Global Climate Change. What are the
advantages of Coral reefs?

1. It produces Oxygen.
2. It provides habitats for marine species.

3. They form crucial barriers protecting coastlines from storms.

4. They are used in medical research to cure diseases like Cancer, arthritis
and viral infections.

Select the correct code: (a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2, 3 and 4 only correct? (c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) Only 2 (d)
All the above (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All the above 34. Recently a flock of 10
Egyptian Vultures spotted in which area of India?
(a) Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary 38. Consider the following.
1. It must have at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics.
(b) Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary 2. It should have somespecies of flora and
fauna found here and no where else in the world. (c) Keoladeo National Park
(d) Okhla Bird Sanctuary 3. It should have lost at least 70% of its primary
vegetation.
35. Consider the following statements about Animal

Welfare Board of India (AWBI).


Which one of the above meet strict criteria for a region to qualify as a
Biodiversity Hotspot?

1. It is a legal body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate


change.
Code: (a) Only 1 2. It is located in New Delhi. (b) 1 and 2 only 3. It derives
its legal structure from the Environment Protection Act, 1986. (c) 1 and 3
only
4. It’schairman is mandatorily the retired judges or eminent
environmentalists.
(d) All the above 39. Consider the following statements. Select the correct
code:

(a) 1 only 1. Mapping of aquifers can help determine the quantity as well as
qualityof groundwater in a particular area.

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only


(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) All the above 2. Aquifer Mapping can help to determine that if the water
is contaminated by pathogens, iron, arsenic, fluoride and other such elements.

36. A metric system called a ISEER rating (Indian

Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio) is used for – Which of the statement(s)


given above is/are correct?
(a) Television (a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(b) Washing Machine (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Air Conditioner 40. Consider the following statements.
(d) Automobiles
37. Which green house gas is emitted by the Cattle feeding?

(a) Carbon dioxide 1. The H1B Visas are for foreign skilled workers in
occupations that generally require higher education.

2. The H1B visas are given through a lottery system.

(b) Methane Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(c) Carbon Monoxide (a) Only 1 (b) Only2 (d) Nitrous Oxide (c) Both 1 and
2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Which one of the following disease is not covered under National Vector
Borne Diseases Control Programmes (NVBDCP) ?
45. Consider the following statements.

1. Kevlar has been the traditional material for manufacturing bullet-proof


vests. (a) Kala-azar
(b) Dengue

(c) Tuberculosis 2. Spider Silk is a newly invented material produced by


spiders to manufacture a stronger bullet-proof vests.

(d) Filaria Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

42. Consider the following statements. (a) Only 1 (b) Only2 1. Cryogenics is
the science of dealing with super-cooled materials.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Cryogenic fluids demand advanced technology because they are volatile.
46. Hawk-Eye is an existing technology which is used currently in
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(i) Cricket
(ii) Tennis
(a) Only 1 (iii) Snooker
(b) Only 2 (iv) Hockey
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct code:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) (i) and (ii) only
43. Pure Saffron having orange-red colour belongs to which part of the
Saffron Plant?
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(c) (i) and (iv) (a) Stamens


(d) All the above

(b) Stigmas 47. Seabuck thorn has some important features (c) Petals
(d) Sepals 1. It is generally found in the Himalayas range of India along with
Russia, China and Europe.
44. What is the meaning of Carbon Pricing?
(a) Every stakeholders should bear the burden of environmental damage.

2. It is possibly useful in treating diseases like inflammatory disorders,


Cancer or other diseases.

(b) Only polluters should bear the burden for the damage of the environment.
3. It’s bark and leaves are useful for treating diarrhea and dermatological
disorders.

(c) The net outcome of the gross domestic product after deducting the cost of
the resources used.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only


(d) To measure the increase of every unit of carbon emissions in the
environment. (c) 3 only (d) All the above 48. Drishti System– a jointly
developed technology by CSIR and IMD – is useful for
52. Which among the following are possible areas of Shale gas reserves in
India?
(a) Runway visual range. 1. Cambay
(b) Treatment of blindness. 2. Gondawana
(c) Satellite imagery and mapping. 3. Rajasthan Blocks
(d) Town planning. 4. Krishna– Godavari basin
49. What is the significance of Cetane number in auto fuels?
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) a measure of a perfect blend of ethanol
in the diesel fuel.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) All the above
(b) a measure of diesel quality. 53. In a fire extinguisher which Chemicals
is/are stored? (c) fuel can be used in racing cars. 1. Pressurised natural gas (d)
a measure of corrosion and toxicity in fuel. 2. Methane and Iso-butane 50.
What is QR Code? 3. Pressurised nitrogen (a) A data to store the information
of Aadhar Card holders.
4. Carbon dioxide

(b) A code given for secrecy to be maintained on the products regarding its
original manufacturer.
5. Halon

Select the correct code:


(c) A barcode having machine readable optical label that contains information
about the item. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 4 and 5 only
(d) A code used to track the criminals in Cyber Crime.
54. Consider the following statements about Agni-5 missile.

51. Which is not a recommendations of Saumitra Chaudhuri Committee for


Auto Fuel Vision Policy 2025?
1. It is indigenously developed supersonic cruise

missile which can hit the target in another continent.


(a) Bharat Stage III norms to be made mandatory nationwide by 2010.

(b) Bharat Stage IV has a limit of 0.025 Respirable Suspended Particulate


Matter (RSPM) and beyond this vehicles can not be allowed to be sold in
India.
2. It’s a surface to air nuclear capable missile.

3. Agni-5 after successfully tested, has been inducted into the Indian Army
armour. Select the correct code: (a) 1 and 2 only (c) In 2014, twenty-four
more cities arecovered under Bharat Stage– IV norms.
(b) Only 2
(d) Nation wide coverage of Bharat Stage– IV is to be achieved by the end of
2017. (c) All the above (d) None of the above

55. Open field trials of genetically modified (GM) crops have been a
controversial issue in India. Which one of the following states of India have
granted No objection Certificates (NOC)? Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above 1. Punjab 2.
Haryana 3. Delhi 4. Uttar Pradesh 5. Maharashtra 6. Andhra Pradesh

7. Tamil Nadu Select the correct code: (a) 1, 3, 5 and 6 (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
only (c) 1, 2, 3, 6 and 7 only

(d) All the above 56. Consider the following statements about Purple Tea.
1. Purple tea is a rare variety of tea that is grown around Mt. Kenya region in
Kenya only.

2. It is known for its medicinal properties and is high in antioxidants and


provides anticancer benefits, etc.
58. Consider the following statements about Bharat

Stage (BS) norms:

1. They are emission standards decided by the govt. to regulate the amount of
air pollutants from vehicles.

2. Saumitra Chaudhri Committee had recommended to introduce BS-V and


BS-VI. 3. BS-V norms will b e rolled out from1stApril, 2019 and BS-VI
norms from 1st April, 2021.

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) All the above

59. LRSAM missile, recently, India has tested successfully. It has been
developed with– (a) The US (b) Israel
(c) France (d) Japan
60. Match the following:

3. The Barak Valley and other hilly forested areas of Assam have good
potential to produce Purple Tea.

A. Nirbhay (i) Supersonic CruiseMissile B. Akash (ii) Sub-sonic


CruiseMissile
Select the correct code: C. Astra (iii) Surface– to Air Missile
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 only D. BrahMoS (iv) Air to Air Missile
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above
Code:
57. Consider the following statements about Geographical Indication or GI
tag.
A (a) (i)
B (iii)
C D (iv) (ii)

1. It’s an insignia on products having a unique geographical origin and


evolution over centuries.

(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

2. GI tag protects the special local products and pave way for better branding
and marketing both in domestic and international market.

(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 61. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is located
at–

3. It’sa mark of authencity and ensures that only registered authorized users
are allowed to use the popular product name.
(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore

(c) Dehradun (d) Pune 62. Which one of the following is/are objective(s) of
Fly Ash Utilisation?
1. To address the environmental degradation problem.
2. Prevent dumping of fly ash from thermal power stations on land.
3. To the manufacture of building materials and construction activity.

Select the correct code:


(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above

63. Considerthefollowingstatementsabout Mangroves. 1. Mangroves are


plants that are found in coastal areas.
2. They survive high salinity, high temperature and strong wind velocity.
3. Gujarat in India has the maximum mangrove cover in the country.

Select the correct code:


(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above

64. The Nisarga Runa technology developed by BARC is to–


(a) Desalinization sea-water into potable water. (b) Convert biodegradable
solid waste into useful manure.
(c) Generate electricity through fissiletechnology of breakingUranium.
(d) Reducefly ash emission from thermal boilers. 65. Which one of the
following is/are centres of India’s operations in Antarctica region?

1. Maitri
2. Himadri
3. Bharati
Select the correct code:

(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above
66. Mission Indradhanush– a health immunization programme targets–
1. All children below the age of two years.
2. All children below the age of one year.
3. Pregnant women.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
67. Which one of the following are the uses of Lichens?
1. Spice Curry
2. Dye Industry
3. Paper Industry
4. Perfume Industry
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All the above
68. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
(a) Vitamin A : Xerophthalmia
(b) Vitamin B4 : Pellagra (c) Vitamin B12 : Anemia
(d) Vitamin K : Osteomalacia 69. Which one of the following causes
poisoning from contaminated meat and egg products?
(a) Aflatoxin (b) Botulism (c) Salmonella (d) Aspergillus

70. Ishabgul or Ishabgol is a medicinal plant which is widely used for


treatment of dysentery. Which part of the plant is this?

(a) Leaf (b) Root (c) Seed (d) Flower

71. Consider the following statements:

1. RBCs are produced in Red bone marrow and worn out RBCs are destroyed
by liver and spleen.

2. WBCs are smaller than RBCs and its over production results into
leukemia.

Select the correct code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 72. Which one of the following test and disease is
incorrectly matched? (a) ELISA Test : AIDS (b) Gravindex Test : Cancer (c)
Mantoux Test : TB (d) Widal Test : Typhoid 73. To write something by
holding a pen, whichpart of palm is mainly issued?

(a) Carpus
(b) Meta-Carpus
(c) Tarsus
(d) Phalanges
74. Bile stored in gallbladder released into which part of the body to help in
digestion?

(a) Liver
(b) Large intestine
(c) Duodenum
(d) Stomach

75. The very popular reference of human wisdom is ‘Grey matter’. In which
part of the brain is it located?

(a) Spinal Cord


(b) Thalamus
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebral Hemisphere

76. Which among the following is/are used as ripening agents for the fruits?

1. Ethylene
2. Calcium Carbide
3. Acetylene
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) All the above

77. Which among the following is/are examples of Radioactive disasters in


the history of human kind?

1. Three Mile Island


2. Chernobyl
3. Bhopal Incident
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All the above
78. Consider the following statements:

1. IUCN is an international organization working in the field of preservation


of cultural heritage.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 2. India is the first country in South Asia to join IUCN as a
member state.
(c) Both 1 and 2

3. IUCN is the few international organizations in which the governments and


nongovernment bodies work together as parties. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

81. Consider the following statements about wheeler Island in Odisha:


Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. The Island has been renamed to honour late Indian
President as Dr. Abdul Kalam Island.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. The Island is a place ofIndia’sIntegrated Test Range for
missiles.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above 3. It is located close to the Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary.
79. Recently on the World Heritage list of UNESO which India site(s) has
been included? 4. The Island is a popular tourist site on the east coast of
India.
1. Lingaraj temple Select the correct code: 2. Mount Khangchendzonga (a) 1
and 2 only 3. Chandigarh’s Capital Complex (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 4. Hawa
Mahal of Jaipur (c) 1, 2 and 3 only 5. Nalanda University (d) All the above
Select the correct code: 82. Consider the following statements:(a) 1, 2 and 3
only

(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The Kigali Agreement, recently concluded, will address
the challenges of emission of all Green House gases.

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 2, 3 and 5 only 2. The Montreal Protocol set the limit of emissions of
hydro-fluro carbons (HFCs) that contribute to global warming.
80. Consider the following statements. Select the correct code:

1. DRDO scientists have indigenously developedworld’s lightest synthetic


material called Silica Aerogel or Blue Air.
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only 2. Silica Aerogel material has excellent thermal resistance which
can be used for thermal jackets and other materials for Indian Defence and
Space Exploration Activities.
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 83. Consider the following statements on Electoral

Bonds –
3. Hangul species is rare in the world largely confined to the Dachigam
National Park and adjoining protected areas.

1. It is announced in Budget 2017-18. 2. It is to clean up funding process of


political parties.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only

3. These bonds are likely to be bearer bonds issued by banks to customers


throughcheques and electronic payments.
(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only


Choose the correct code: (d) All the above
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above 87. Sendai
Framework For Action adopted on the UN platform, deals with–
84. Recently Amrabad Tiger Reserve was in news– (a) Women
Empowerment
(a) for uranium exploration. (b) Disaster Management
(b) for increasing the number of counting of wildlife.

(c) Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (d) Renewable Energy Sources


(c) the number of tigers decreased to half. (d) for finding to gas reserves.
88. Recently the World Bank has signed US $100 million deal to facilitate
Health Care Facility with–

85. Which among the following is/are Critically Endangered Animals?


(a) Uttarakhand
1. Namdapha Flying Squirrel. (b) Uttar Pradesh
2. Ganges Shark. (c) Delhi
3. Pygmy Hog (d) Karnataka
4. Javan Rhinoceros 89. Consider the following statements.
Select the correct code: 1. Neutrinos are subatomic particles produced by the
decay of radioactive elements. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. They are
elementary particles that have positive charge.
(c) 3 and 4 only 3. Experiments on Neutrino are done to discover the
mechanism behind Nuclear Fusion. (d) All the above Select the correct code:
86. Consider the following statements about Kashmiri Red Stag or Hangul.
(a) 1 Only
1. It has recently got a status of IUCN critically endangered species.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. It is distributed in the mountain of Himalaya from
Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh. (d) All the above 90. Earth Hour is celebrated
for– 93. Consider the following statements.
1. Highlighting Global Warming.

2. Adoption of Renewable sources of energy.


3. Conservation of biodiversity.
4. Against animal cruelty.

Select the correct code: (a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

91. Which among the following rivers haverecently been termed ‘living
persons’?
1. Ganga 2. Brahmaputra

3. Godavari
4. Yamuna Select the correct code: (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only

92. Consider the following statements.

1. El-Nino is associated with a band of warm ocean water that develops in the
Atlantic Ocean.

2. El-Nino condition does not effect intocausing 'above normal temperature'


across India. Select the correct code:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. The Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA), Hyderabad has achieved


carbon neutral status.

2. It is the first in the Asia-Pacific region in the 5-15 million passengers per
annum category to attain this status.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 94. Consider the following statements.
1. The Project SAKSHAM is a New direct Tax Network (Systems
Integration).

2. Project SAKSHAM seeks to bolster the information technology network


for the new Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 95. Consider the following statements.
1. FARC is the name of largest rebel group of Syria.
2. Al-Nusra Front is considered as al-Qaeda in Syria.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 96. Consider the following statements.
1. Reoti Saran Sharma was pioneer in radio plays in All India Radio (AIR).
2. Reoti Saran Sharma penned memorable television serials like Phir Wahi
Talaash. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 97. Consider the following statements.
1. Vistadome Coaches have been built by Integral Coach Factory in Chennai.
2. All the seats in the vistadome coaches are rotatable.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

98. Consider the following statements.

1. BRABO has been developed indigenouslyfor micro, small and medium


enterprises (MSME) in India.

2. BRABO was designed and manufactured at the TAL’sPune factory.

3. BRABO is India’s first bankingrobot. Select the correct code:


(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All the above
99. Consider the following statements.

1. Nirbhay is the country’s first indigenously built long-range sub-sonic


cruise missile. 2. BrahMos, which flies at a speed of Mach 3, has a strike
range of 290 km.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

100. Consider the following statements.


1. Mitochondria are found in every cell of the human body except red blood
cells.
2. Leigh syndrome is a severe neurological disorder that usually becomes
apparent after five years.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

nnnnnnnn
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO
DO SO Serial No.

P.T. - 2018 TEST 8


GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1
Time Allowed : Two Hours TEST BOOKLET SERIES
H
Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE


EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
FOR ITEMS, ETC, IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES. A, B, C OR D AS


THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER
SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll No on the Test Booklet in the Box
Provided alonside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed both
in Hindi and English .Each item comprises four responses (answer). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for
eachitem.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
Provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various
items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer
Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet
and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator
only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.
9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong Answer:
THERE WILLBE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER MARKED BYA
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
thrid (0.33) of the marks assigned to that questions will be deducted
aspenalty
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a Wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will
be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank i.e.,
no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
1. Consider the following statements.

1. Lord Cornwallis expected that his Permanent Settlement would be


extended to other part of India as well.

2. In 1798, Wellesley gave orders for its 5.extension to Madras Presidency.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Consider the following statements.

1. The Ryotwari experiment was started by Thomas Munro in Baramahal and


was continued by Alexander Reed.

2. In Ryotwari experiment, instead of zamindars 6. they began to collect


revenue directly from the village, fixing the amount each village had to pay.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Consider the following statements.
1. The Sanchi Inscriptions mentioned Ivory Carving.
2. Mysore was known for Ivory Carving. Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are7.correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Consider the following statements.
1. Hema Saraswati is considered as the first poet of Assam.
2. The earliest forms of Assamese literatureare found in the Dohakosa.
3. The origin of Assamese literature can be seen in the writings of Ahom
Kings.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All the above Consider
the following statements.
1. Tansen was a great Dhrupad singer.

2. The Dhrupad proper has four parts– the Ashayee, the Antra, The Sanchari
and the Abhoga.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Consider the following statements.

1. The judicial administration of the subah remained initially in the hands of


the Indian officers between 1765 and 1772 and the Mughal system was
followed in both civil and Criminal justice.

2. Under the new system of 1772 introduced by Warren Hastings, each


district was to have two courts, a civil court or Diwani adalat and a criminal
court or Faujdari adalat.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Consider the following statements.

1. Lord Cornwallis in 1793 decided to divest the zamindars of their policing


duties, and instead divided the districts into thanas.

2. By the nineteenth century the darogazamindar nexus emerged as a new


instrument of coercion and oppression in Bengal rural life.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 8. Consider the following statements. 1.
The Silappadikaram is the story of the merchant named Kovalan.
2. Kovalan fell in love with a courtesan named Kannagi.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. A significant finding of Indian archaeology in recent times is the discovery


of a fossil of a Homo Sapien at

(a) Bori
(b) Hathnora
(c) Kurnool
(d) Rakhigarhi

10. Consider the following statement regarding Bimbisara.

1. He was a contemporary of the Buddha.


2. He acquired Anga.

3. His first wife was the daughter of King of Kosala.


4. His second wife, Chellana, was the Lichchhavi princess.

Select the correct code:


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. The Government of India has recently proposed the concept of 'Anchor
Banks'. What is it? (a) Banks that will offer insurance services along with
normal banking services.
(b) Banks that will takethe drive of consolidation process among PSBs.
(c) Banks that will purchase rising NPAs of the PSBs.
(d) Banks to lend for short-term and less-risky sectors of economy.
12. Which state of India is the first to ratify theGST Bill?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Haryana
13. Consider the following statements.
1. The Aadhar Act has been passed from Lok Sabha as a Money Bill under
Article 110 of the Indian Constitution.

2. Section 139 AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961 as amended by the Finance
Act, 2017, provides for mandatory quoting of Aadhar to file income tax
returns.

Select the correct code:


(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Special 301 Report of the US deals with
(a) Terrorist funding infrastructure.
(b) Nuclear capable missile technology.
(c) Intellectual property rights issue.
(d) Cyber security related international agreements.
15. Consider the following.
1. Mexico - Peso
2. Thailand– Kyat 3. South Africa - Rand
Which one of the above is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All the above 16. Which one among the following schemes have been
launched under the NITI Aayog? Select the correct code:

(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan


(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Atal Innovation Mission

3. Self Employment and Talent Utilisation (c) 2 only


Select the correct code: (d) All the above
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

20. Under the newly introducedconcept of Marginal Cost of Lending Rate


(MCLR) which among the following is not mandated?

(c) 1 and 3 only (a) It will replace the present base rate system. (d) All the
above 17. Which one of the following committee was constituted on
Financial Inclusion recently?
1. P. J. Nayak Committee
2. Deepak Mohanty Committee
3. Nachiket Mor Committee
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All the above

18. Which one among the following statements is not correct about
unemployment in India? (a) Maharashtrahas India’s highest graduate
unemployment rate in India.
(b) Female Unemployment has exceeded male unemployment at every level
of education. (c)India’s unemployment rate grew to 9.6% in 2011.
(d) Unemployment rates higher in rural than in urban areas.
19. In respect to the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme, consider the following
statements.
1. The SBI is authorized to issue Gold Bonds on behalf of the Govt.
2. The Bonds will be for a tenor of eight years, with an exit option from the
5th year. 3. There is an upper limit of buying a bond upto 1 kg worth per
person per financial year. (b) Banks are allowed to decide the general lending
rate even below MCLR.

(c) Banks have been mandated to calculate MCLR for different maturities
verifying from 1 day to o1 year.

(d) Banks have to review and publish their MCLR of different maturities
every month or every quarter.

21. Parliament can alter the name of any State provided

1. The Bill is introduced in either House of Parliament on the


recommendation of the President.

2. The Bill has been referred by the President to the State Legislature
concerned for expressing its views thereon within a specified period.

3. It shall not bedeemed to be an amendment to the Constitution for


thepurpose of article 368.
4. President is not bound by the views expressed by the concerned State
legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only3
(d) All of these 22. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes ways of acquiring
citizenship

1. By Birth 25. By 42nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 following


provision/provisions were inserted into the Constitution of India

1. Part IV A 2. By Descent
2. Article 51 A 3. By Registration

4. By Naturalisation Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

5. By Incorporation of territory. (a) 1 only


Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(b) 2, only (c) 1 and 2both (a) 1 and 2 only (d) None of these (b) 1, 3 and 4
only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 26. A person is eligible to be the president of India if
he–
(d) All of these 1. Is a citizen of India.
23. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities based on
1. Religion 2. Has completed the age of thirty years.
3. Is qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.

2. Language Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

3. Script (a) 1 only 4. Culture (b) 1, and 2 only Select the correct answer
using the codes given below:
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) All of these
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 27. While Speaker is presiding the Lok Sabha the Deputy
Speaker of the Lok Sabha has a right (c) 1, 2, 3 only 1. To speak in the house
(d) All of these 2. To take part in its deliberations

24. Under Article 45 the State shall endeavor to provide early childhood care
and education for all children until they complete the age of 3. To vote on
any proposition before the house

as a member

(a) 6 years Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(b) 5 years (a) 1 only (b) 2, only (c) 4 years (c) 1 and 2 both (d) All of these

(d) 3 years 28. The constitutional recognition to political parties and


legislature parties was given for the first time by

(a) 51stAmendment 31. Consider the following statements.

1. At Fort William College in Calcutta thecivil servants from all the


presidencies took ten years of training before getting their civil posting.

(b) 52nd Amendment


(c) 53rd Amendment 2. After the Revolt of 1857, Fort William College was
closed.
(d) 54thAmendment

29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): No discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to


the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or High Courtin the discharge
of his duties except upon a motion for the removal of the judge .

Reason (R): The Constitution of India ensures independence of Judiciary.


(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
30. Consider the following statements.
1. Thesalaries of High Court Judges arecharged on the consolidated fund of
the state.
2. The pension of High Court Judges are charged on the consolidated fund of
India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, only
(c) 1 and 2 both

(d) None of these Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Consider the following statements.


1. The Charter Act of 1833 introduced limited competition.
2. The Charter Act of 1853 introduced the principle of open competition.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Consider the following statements.

1. The Tariqah movement owed its origin to the school of the eighteenth
century Sufi saint Shah Waliullah of Delhi.

2. The Faraizi movement was indigenous in origin.


Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Consider the following statements.

1. There was faction fighting between Aurobindo Ghosh on the one hand and
Bepin Chandra Pal and Brahmabandhab Upadhyay on the other.

2. In Maharashtra there was competition between Gokhale and Tilak for


controlling the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 35. Consider the following statements
regarding the Constitution of Indian National Congress. 1. A new constitution
was drafted and ratified in 1899
2. It was never given a proper trial.

3. This new constitution was the result of repetitive attempts of Gopal


Krishna Gokhale.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All the above

36. Consider the following statements.

1. Lord Curzon was the last champion of that self-confident despotic


imperialism of which Fitzjames Stephen and Lytton Strachey were the
ideologues.

2. The reconstitution of the Calcutta Corporation through the Calcutta


Municipal Amendment Act of 1899 increased the number of elected
representatives in it.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 37. Consider the following statements.

1. Kabir had preference for religion.


2. Bijak is a compilation ofKabir’s couplets.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 38. Consider the
following statements. 1. Sankardev was associated with Eka Saran Dharma.

2. Sankardev rejected ritualism.


3. Sankardev is called ‘Chaitanya ofAssam’.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All the above
39. Consider the following statements.
1. Bhand Pather is the folk theatre of Punjab.
2. Maach is a traditional theatre of Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Which one of the following inscription is known for earliest evidence of
the practice of Sati?
(a) Allahabad inscription (b) Aihole inscription
(c) Eran inscription (d) Girnar inscription

41. The Uttaramerur inscription is related to (a) Cholas (b) Vijay Nagar
Kingdom (c) Chalukyas (d) Kakatiyas

42. Consider the following statements regarding Swadeshi Movement

1. The Extremists wanted to gradually extend the boycott from foreign goods
to every form of association or cooperation with the colonial Government.

2. The Moderates wanted to confine the boycott part of the movement to


Bengal and Maharashtra and were totally opposed to its extension.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. ‘You (the Extremists) do not realize the enormous reserve of power
behind the Government, if the Congress were to do anything such as you
suggest, the Government would have no difficulty in throttling it in
fiveminutes’. Who made this statement in 1907?

(a) Pherozeshah Mehta


(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Dada Bhai Naroji

44. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Council Act of 1909.

1. It increased the number of elected members in the imperial Legislative


Council and the provincial legislative councils.

2. Most of the elected members were still elected indirectly.


3. An Indian was to be appointed a member of the GovernorGeneral’s
ExecutiveCouncil. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above

45. Consider the following statements.

1. Ramnath Puri was one of the first leaders of the Indian community in
North America to start a paper called Free Hindustan.

2. Tarak Nath Das, a political exile on the West Coast, issued a Circular-e-
Azadi in which he also pledged support to the Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. During the summer of 1912, who concentrated mainly on delivering
lectures on the anarchist and syndicalist movements to various American
groups of intellectuals, radicals and workers, and did not show much interest
in the problems that were agitating the immigrant Indian community?

(a) Lala Hardayal


(b) Harnam Singh Tundilat
(c) Bhai Parmanand
(d) Sohan Singh Bhakna

47. The Govt. meets the part of fiscal deficit by borrowing from RBI under –

(a) Primary deficit


(b) Budgetary deficit
(c) Monetised deficit
(d) Fiscal deficit

48. Consider the following: Select the correct code:


1. Market Borrowing. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

2. Loans given to states


3. Disinvestment proceeds

Which among the above is/are part of Capital Receipts?


Code: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only 49. Which
is the first country of the world to introduce the concept of Gender
Budgeting?

(a) Australia (b) Finland (c) India (d) USA

50. Consider the following statements: 1. The GST is a production based tax.

2. Asim Das Gupta committee recommended first to introduce GST in India.

Select the correct code: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 51. In the Budget 2017-18, which one of
the following steps have been taken:
1. Merger of General Budget with Railway Budget.
2. Abolition of Service tax & introduction of GST.

3. Abolition of Plan & non-planned expenditure.


4. Pre-ponement of Budget presentation. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only


(d) All the above
52. Which are Gilt-edged securities in the security market?

(a) Securities issued by the RBI.


(b) Securities issued by the Govt.
(c) Securities issued by the guild of merchants. (d) Securities of short-term
maturity.

53. Consider the following statements.

1. Imperial Bank of India was established in 1921 and converted later on into
Reserve Bank of India.

2. The Central office of the Reserve Bank of India was initially established in
Calcutta.

Select the correct code:


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

54. What is Gresham’s law in Economics? (a) Bad money drives good money
out of circulation.
(b) More income tends to less expenditure on food-consumption.
(c) Unemployment is inversely proportional to the level of inflation.
(d) Lesser the amount of tax more is the gross collection of tax revenue.

55. Where is the headquarters of NABARD located? (a) Mumbai


(b) New Delhi
(c) Lucknow
(d) Chennai
56. Consider the following statements.

1. The concept of Universal Banking refers to offer a wide range of financial


services beyond traditional banking facility.

2. Narsimham Committee II gave recommendation of establishing Universal


Banking in India.

Select the correct code:


(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

57. Which of the following is/are among the functions of the Election
Commission of India?

1. Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker,
Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha.

2. Conduct of election to the Panchayats.


3. Appoints Regional Commissioners.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None

58. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):Article 124A was inserted in the Constitution of India by 99th


Constitution Amendment Act.

Reason (R):The Supreme Court in Advocates-on Record Association v.


Union of India held 99th Amendment Act as void.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
59. Consider the following statements.

1. Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of Legislative Council in


the state if the concerned Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that
effect with two- third majority.

2. Such law shall be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution under


article 368. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both (d) None of these

60. The Public Accounts Committee


1. Is the oldest Financial Committee.

2. Consists of 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.
3. Since 1967, a member of Opposition is being appointed as the Chairman of
the Committee. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All

61. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Article 200 of the Constitution of India gives discretionary


power to the Governor to reserve any bill passed by state Legislature for the
consideration of the president.

Reason (R): Governor may reserve the Bill if he thinks it to be against the
larger interests of the concerned State or India as a whole.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A


(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

62. The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning
powers of President and Governor are:

1. The Governor cannotpardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the


President can.

2. The President cannot pardon death sentence while Governor can.


3. The Governor cannot pardon death sentence while the President can.
4. The President cannot pardonsentences inflicted by court martial while the
Governor can.

5. ThePresident’s power regarding punishment or sentence by a Court Martial


does not affect the power conferred by law on any officer of the Armed
Forces of the Union to suspend, remit or commute a sentence passed by a
court martial.

Select the correct code:


(a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 5

63. JawaharlalNehru’s cryptic remark that it provided ‘a machine with strong


brakes but noengine’ was about which Act

C. Third Schedule 3. Provisions as to the

Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts

D. Fifth Schedule 4. Powers, authority and responsibilities of municipalities.


Forms of oaths and affirmation.
5.
Codes:
A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 2 5 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 5 1
65. Which is incorrectly matched?
(a) Abolition of titles –Article 18
(b) Right to formco-operativesocieties–Article 19
(c) Freedom of conscience– Article 25
(a) 1892 Act (d) Protection of interest of minorities–Article 28
(b) 1909 Act 66. Which of the following provision is not related to
education?
(c) 1919 Act (a) Article 21A (d) 1935 Act
64. Match the following. List-I
(Schedules in the
Constitution)
A. Sixth Schedule
B. Second Schedule (b) Article 43A
List-II
(Provisions)
(c) Article 51A (k)
(d) Seventh Schedule, List III, Entry 25

1. Administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.

2. Administration of tribal areas in states ofAssam, Meghalya, Tripura &


Mizoram.

67. When did Gandhiji first coin the term‘Harijan’ for the socalled
‘untouchables’ in India?
(a) 1916
(b) 1917
(c) 1932
(d) 1942 68. In 1940, Vinoba Bhave started Individual Satyagraha from
(a) Nadiad in Khera district, Gujarat

72. The Ninety second Constitution Amendment Act inserted following


language/languages in the Eighth Schedule

(b) Pavnar, Maharashtra 1. Maithilli


(c) Punnapra– Vayalor, Kerala 2. Odia
(d) Guntur, Andhra Pradesh 3. Santhali
69. Consider the following statements regarding Brahmo Samaj.
1. It condemned the prejudice against going abroad.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
2. It denounced polytheism. (a) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) All the above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 73. Match the following
70. Consider the following statements. List I List II
1. NarayanMalhar Joshi founded Social Service League in Allahabad.
A. 98thAmendment Act 1. Goods andServices Tax.
2. Indian Social Conference was founded by M.G. Ranade.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
B. 99th Amendment Act 2. Special provision

for HyderabadKarnataka region of the State of Karnataka.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2

C. 100th Amendment Act 3. National Judicial Appointments Commission.

D. 101st Amendment Act 4. Transfer of (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 territories between India and


Bangladesh.

71. The 'glory of the Rashtrakuta Architecture' is:


(a) Dasawatara Temple
(b) Elephanta Cave
(c) Kailash Temple
(d) Ravan-ki-khai 4. Bodo
Codes:

A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 2 5 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 5 1

74. What is not correct about the impeachment of the President?

(a) He can be impeached for the violation of the Constitution andthe charge
may bepreferred by either House of Parliament.

(b) Before moving the resolution for impeachment a fourteen days notice in
writing signed by not less than one- fourth of the total members of the House
has to be given.

(c) Such resolution must be passed by two third of total membership of the
House.

(d) The other House has to investigate the matter and then pass the resolution
with simple majority.

75. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): The Government did not seek
vote on account for 2017-18.

Reason (R):The Budget for 2017-18 was presented on 1stFebruary , 2017


instead of traditional 28thFebruary and by 31st of march all Budgetary
proposals were passed by Parliament.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A


(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
76. The tradition of separate rail Budget was started in

(a) 1922
(b) 1923
(c) 1924
(d) 1925

77. If Parliament wants to amend following provisions of the Constitution


then it is also required to be ratified by more than half of the States before
being presented to the President for assent

1. Article 54
2. Article55
3. Article 56
4. Article 57

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only


(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only3

(d) All of these


78. The description of the administration of Pataliputra is available in
(a) Indica

(b) Divyavadan
(c)Ashoka’s inscriptions
(d) Arthashastra

79. Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring that all things
gravitate to the Earth? (a) Aryabhatta
(b) Varahamihira
(c) Buddhagupta
(d) Brahmagupta
80. Which ofthe following propounded that “des- tiny determines everything,
manis powerless” ?
(a) Jains
(b) Ajivikas
(c) Buddhists
(d) Mimansakas
81. The list of sixteen Mahajanpadas is available in
(a) Mahabharata
(b) Anguttar Nikaya
(c) Chhandogya Upanishad
(d) Samyukta Nikaya
82. By which ruler Patliputra was chosen for the first time as a capital?
(a) Ajatshatru 86. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. Money Bill is sent to Rajya Sabha for its recommendation.

(b) Kalasoka
(c) Kanishka
(d) Udayin

83. What may be the reason/reasons for imposing Emergency by the


President under Article 352?

1. War
2. External aggression
3. Internal disturbance
Select the correct code.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All the above

84. The imposition of National Emergency does not affect certain


fundamental rights. They are1. Equality before law
2. Protection in respect of conviction for offences
3. Protection of life and personal liberty 4. Protection against arrest and
detention in certain cases.

Select the correct code.


(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

85. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for disqualification
on conviction for certain offences in

(a) Section 8
(b) Section 7
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 5
2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on a Money Bill.

3. If Lok Sabha accepts such recommendation then the amended Money Bill
is again sent to the Rajya Sabha.

4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14
days.
Codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
87. Chronologically arrange the various nationalist initiatives given below.
1. Individual Satyagraha
2. Forward Bloc
3. Rajaji Formula
4. INA Trials
Select the code:
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 1, 3, 2, 4
88. The last two years of British rule were marked by several movements.
Mark the odd one out.
(a) Punnapra Vayalar in Travancore
(b) Tebhaga in Bengal
(c) Telengana Movement in Hyderabad

(d) Eka movement in Avadh 89. Linlithgow described it as ‘by far the most
serious rebellion since that of 1857; the gravity and extent of which we have
so far concealed from the world for reasons of militarysecurity’. Which is the
movement referred to here?
93. Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt threw a bomb in the

central legislative assembly


(a) to protest against the passage of the Public Safety Bill
(a) Khilafat Movement (b) to overthrow the British government (b) Quit
India Movement (c) to kill the members of the legislativecouncil (c) Civil
Disobedience Movement (d) to avenge the death of Lala Lajpat Rai (d)
Tebhaga Movement

90. Who of the following did not belong to what popularly was known as
“the Bombay Triumvi- rate”?
94. Hunter Commission was appointed by the British to probe into the

(a) Bardoli Satyagraha


(a) B.G. Tilak (b) Khilafat agitation
(b) Ferozshah Mehta (c) Jallianwala Bagh tragedy (c) K. T. Telang (d) Chauri
Chaura incident (d) Badruddin Tyabji
91. The Gandhi led Champaran satyagraha aimed at 95. On September 20,
1932 Mahatma Gandhi began a fast unto death in Yervada Jail against
(a) Securing the rights of Harijans (a) British repression of the satyagrahis
(b) Establishing Hindu-Muslim Unity (b) Communal Award of Ramsay Mac
Donald
(c)Solving indigo cultivators’problem. (c) Violation of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(d) None of the above (d) Communal riots in Calcutta
92. Which is the correct chronological order of the following developments.
96. Consider the following statements.
1. Cripps Mission 1. Titu Mir was an ardent follower of Sayyid Ahmad.
2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
3. Simon Commission 2. Under Dadu Miyan, Titu Mir movement became
revolutionary.
4. Partition of the country
Code:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (a) Only 1
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) Only 2
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 97. Which one
of the following pairs is correctly matched?
99. The 19th century reawakening in India was confined to the
(a) 1802 : Abolition of Slavery (a) Indian Soldiers
(b) 1856 : Ban on Child Marriage (b) Peasantry Class
(c) 1843 : Sharda Act (c) Priestly Class (d) 1795 : Abolition of Infanticide (d)
Middle Class 98. Consider the following statements.
1. William Carey started Samachar Darpan.
2. Din Bandhu Mitra wrote Nil Darpan. 100. In a response to the challenge
given by Lord Birkenhead, an all party conference was called at Delhi on 12th
February, 1928. It was presided over by

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?


(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) M.A. Ansari
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Subhas Chandra Bose (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2 (d) Tej Bahadur Sapru

GS PT TEST 1 - ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION


Ans. 1 (c)

— India has been placed at 130th position among the 190 countries in the
recently released World Bank’s ease of doing business index for the year
2017.

Ans. 2 (c)
air pollutants from internal combustion engine equipments.

(i) Yes, India will skip BS-V and will directly move from BS-IV which is
already put into action from 2010 in 13 major cities.

(ii) The standards and timeline for — The Government announced the
introduction implementation are set by Central of universal social security
schemes in the Pollution Control Board. Which comes insurance and pension
sector for all Indians, under ministry of Environment, Forest specially the
poor and under privileged in and Climate change.

Budget 2015-2016. Therefore governmentAns. 5 (d)launched the Atal Pension Yojana


(APY)

which will provide a defined pension, — To measure the degree of


economicfreedom depending upon the contribution and its in countries five
broad areas are used like period. size of government, expenditure, taxes and 1.
APY will be focused on all citizen in the enterprise, legal structure and security of
property rights, access to sound money, National
unorganized sector, who join the
Pension System administered freedom to trade internationally and by the Pension Fund
Regulatory and regulation of credit, labour and business. Development Authority.
— Economic freedom of the world Index 2. APY will replace Swavalamban not
released by the centre for civil society, a

Swabhiman.
public, policy think tank along withCanada’s Frasers Institute.
3. The central government would coAns. 6 (a)contribute 50% of the total contribution — The
famous Urdu poet Ghalib who was of the total contribution or Rs. 1000 per then at Delhi, at
thetime of revolt of 1857,annum whichever is lower to each

eligible subscriber account for a period mournfully wrote“Here there is a


vast “Here there is a vast ocean of blood before me, God only knows 2020. what
more I have still tobehold.”

Ans. 3 (b)Ans. 7 (b)


— Indus water treaty is a water distribution — Battle of Jajau 1707treaty between India and
Pakistan. According — The Regulating Act, 1773to treaty control of Ravi, Beas and Satluj
(Eastern Rivers) was given to India where as — Treaty of Allahabad, 1765
control of Indus, Chenab and Jhelum — Third Battle of Panipat, 1761(western rivers) was given
to Pakistan.
Ans. 4 (c) Ans. 8 (b)
— These are numerous references to painting — Bharat stage norms are based on European
of various types in both Brahmanical and regulation. In India it is instituted by Buddhist
literature.Government of India to regulate output of
Ans. 9 (c)

— The Gupta Sculptures, though based on early traditions, are clearly


indicative of a new aesthetic quality.

Ans. 10 (a)

— Buddhist tradition mentions the erection of a number of stupa immediately


after the death of the Buddha.
Ans. 11 (c)
— Albuquerque laid the real foundation of Portuguese power.

— In 1510 he captured Goa, then belonging to the Bijapur Sultanate and


during his rule did his best to strengthen the fortifications of the city and
increase its commercial importance.

Ans. 12 (b)
— Under the treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, Madras was restored to the English.
Ans. 13 (c)
— The battle of Plassey broke out on the morning of the 23rd June.

— On the Nawab side Mir Jafar and Rai Durlabh stood still with their
largearmies and only a small force under Mohanlal and Mir Madan, backed
by a French officer, took part in the battle.

Ans. 14 (d)

— The terms of the treaty of 1769 were not fulfilled. When the Marathas
invaded Hyder's territories in 1771, the English didnot help him.

Ans. 15 (b)
— The Treaty of Bassein was, as Arthur Wellesley, aptly remarked, "a treaty
with a cipher" (the Peshwa).

Ans. 16 (c)

— There were twelve misls or confederacies


– the Bhangi, The Kanheya, the Sukerchakia, the Nakai, the Fyzullapuria, the
Ahluwalia, Dalewalia, the Nishanwala, the Sahid and Nihang, and the
Phulkia.
the Ramgarhia, the Karora Singhia, the

Ans. 17 (b)

— Victor Jacquemont, a French traveller to Ranjit's court described him as "an


extraordinary man - a Bonaparte in miniature".
Ans. 18 (d)
— The British Government at first took little interest in the development of
education.

— Warren Hasting encouraged the revival of Indian learning and to him we


owe the foundation of Calcutta Madrasa (1781).

— A Sanaskrit College was established by Banares by the resident Jonathan


Duncan in 1792.

Ans. 19 (c)

— CRR is a ratio of the total deposits of the bank which bank’s have to keep
with the RBI in Cash. When CRR is lowered banks will lend more it will
result in credit expantation, since banks will lend to even lower rate thus it
will result in cheap money policy also.

Ans. 20 (c)

— FDI also brings technology and management skills that why considered
more stable then FII FDI only comes in Secondary market.

Ans. 21 (a)

— Option 1 is related to BoP, disinvestment will result in receipt’s this will


help in reducing fiscal deficit. Cash transfer will result in huge savings for
government in revenue expenditure.

Ans. 22 (c)
— Bank run is a sign of distrust in financial institution specially banks.
Ans. 23 (d)

— Consumer Price Index in India compromises multiple series classified


based on different economic group. These are CPI UNME (Urban Non-
Manual Employee), CPI AL (Agricultural Labourer), CPI RL (Rural
Labourer) and CPI IW (Industrial Worker). While the CPI UNME is
published by the Central Statistical Organisation, the others are published by
the Department of Labour. encouraging
more capital
Ans. 24 (c)

— Option 1 does not directly related to Inflation. Reduction in repo rate may
result in higher inflation.

Ans. 25 (d)

— Housing loans for EWS (Economically Weaker Section) also comes under
priority sector lending. Micro Credit, 50,000 per borrower to the poor in
rural, Semi-Urban and urban area’s also come under priority sector lending.

Ans. 26 (c)
— Both statement are correct.

— The IMF exists primary to stabilize exchange rate, while World Bank’s goal
is to reduce poverty.

Ans. 27 (b)

· UDAY (Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojana) is a scheme to develop finance


by issuing bonds to overcome problem of discome but it is only related to
distribution units. So statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 defines UDAY.

Ans. 28 (c)

— This Sykes-picot agreement also know as Asia minor agreement was a


secret 1916 Agreement between Great Britain and France to which Russian
Empire assented. This agreement defined their mutually agreed spheres of
influence and control in south-west Asia. Since this agreement was redefining
the geographical boundaries it included illegal migration.

Ans. 29 (b)
— AADAAR is for every resident of India.

— Not only citizens but foreigners can also have it.


— AADAAR still has no legal basis.

— This project is implemented by UIDAI (the Unique Identification Authority


of India) it is a Central Government agency.

Ans. 30 (c)

— The‘Stand UpIndia’ was launched on 5 April 2016 as a part of government


effort to support entrepreneurship among womenandSC and ST.

— Greenfield Project– it refers to an activity in a completely new area of


investment, mean it is a completely new project.

Ans. 31 (a)
— HDI does not account for Gender bias. The Gender Inequality Index (GII)
is an Index for measurement of gender disparity.

Ans. 32 (b)
— The desert region can be divided in only 2 parts ‘great desert’ and little
desert. Ans. 33 (a)

— Jana-Gana-Mana composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore.


It was adopted in its Hindi version as the National Anthem. First sung on 27
December, 1911 at Kolkata session of Indian National Congress.

Ans. 34 (c)

— The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister.


Cabinet Secretariat also responsible for administration of the Government of
India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961.

Ans. 35 (c)
— Sahitya Akademi is the National Academy of Letters, to promote India
literature.

Ans. 36 (b)
— Department’s under ministry of Finance. — Department of Economic Affairs
— Department of Expenditure
— Department of Revenue
— Department of Disinvestment
— Department of Financial Services
— Department of Commerce comes under ministry of Commerce and Industry
Ans. 37 (c)

— The Citizen Act 1955 provides various ways in which citizenship may be
acquired. It provides for citizenship by birth, descent, registration,
naturalization and by incorporation of territory into India.

1. The bill was introduced in Lok Sabha by ministry of Home Affairs not by
ministry of External Affairs.

2. The bill seeks to amend the Citizenship Act 1955.

3. The bill amends the Act to provide that the following groups of persons
will not be treated as illegal migrants: Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhist, Jainas, Parsis
and Christians. To note here is that these communities are religious
minorities in Afghanistan, Pakistan and Bangladesh.

Ans. 38: (b)

— Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill 2016 was passed by the


Parliament. The Bill was introduced by Ministry for Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pensions.

1. It defines ‘Public Servants’ as a rangeof persons including the Prime


Minister, Ministers,MP’s official of Government or of any organization, trust
or NGO that gets Rs. 10 lakh as foreign aid or Rs. 1 crore as Government aid.

2. Every Public Servant shall make a declaration of his assets and liabilities in
such form and manner as may be prescribed.

Ans. 39 (c)

— SAUNI stands for Saurashtra Narmada Avtaran Irrigation. SAUN envisages


filling 115 major dams of the arid Saurashtra region by diverting floodwaters
overflowing from the Sardar Sarovar Dam across the Narmada in South
Gujarat. So, it is a project launched by PM to divert excess over flowing
flood water of Narmada to Saurashtra region.

Ans. 40 (c)
— President Pranab Mukherjee Akashvani Maitree channel for listeners and its
website an initiative which will provide a platform for blending context both
from India and Bangladesh and preserving Bengali culture.

— Thus, its for strengthening ties between India and Bangladesh.


Ans. 41 (a)

— The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referringto a


large area in the eastern Mediterranean. In its widest historical sense, the
Levant included all of the eastern Mediterranean with its Island, that launched

Bengali is, it included all of the countries along the eastern Mediterranean
shores. The countries where Levant is referred are Cyprus, Egypt, Iraq, Israel,
Jordan, Lebanon, Palestine, Syria and Turkey.

Ans. 42 (b)

— Department of Industrial Policy and promotion is also responsible for


intellectual property Right relating to patents, designs, trademarks,
geographical indications of goods, copyrights and semiconductor integrated
circuits layout design and oversees the initiative relating to their promotion
and protection. It also promotes awareness regarding protection of the
intellectual property rights inherent in industrial property in conjunction with
the world intellectual property organization.

Ans. 43 (d)

— The Senkaku Islands are group of uninhabited islands controlled by Japan


in East China Sea. They are located roughly due east of mainland China,
North cost of Taiwan, West of Okinawa China and north of south western
end of the Ryukya Islands.It’s also known as Diaoyudao Island.

Ans. 44 (c)
1. Yes,It’s a communication satellite built by ISRO.

2. It will operated by INSAT.


3. It’s heaviest satellite launched by India.
4. It was launched from Guiana Space Centre, Kourou, French.
Ans. 45 (d)

— Talgo trains are lighter and faster with speed up to 115 KMPH. They are
designed to run on curves tracks without decelerating the speed. They
consume 30 percent less energy. The 9 coach Talgo train consists of 2
Executive Class cars, 4 Chair Cars, 1 cafeteria, 1 power car and tail-end
coach for staff and equipment. Talgo: It is a Madridbased Spanish leading
manufacturer of energy-semi-high speed (160-250 kmph) and high-speed
(350 kmph) passenger trains.

Ans. 46 (b)

— Dugong is a medium sized marine animal. The Dugong is the only sirenian
in its rangewhich spans the waters of some 40 countries and territories
throughout the Indo-West Pacific.It’s official animal of Andamanand Nicobar
Island.

Ans. 47 (d)

— Agully is a landform created by running water, eroding sharply into soil,


typically on a hillside. Gullies resemble large ditches or small valleys, but are
metres to tens of metres in depth and width. When the gully formation is in
process, the water flow rate can be substantial, causing a significant deep
cutting action intosoil.

— Sheet erosion, detachment of soil particles by raindrop impact and their


removal downslope by water flowing overland as a sheet instead of in
definite channels or rills. A more or less uniform layer of fine particles is
removed from the entire surface of an area,

Ans. 48 (c)

— An antecedent stream is a stream that maintains its original course and


pattern despite the changes in underlying rock topography. A stream with a
dendritic drainage pattern, for example, can be subject to slow tectonic uplift.
However, as the uplift occurs, the stream erodes through the rising ridge to
form a steep-walled gorge. The stream thus keeps its dendritic pattern even
though it flows over a landscape that will normally produce a trellis drainage
pattern.

— The Himalayan Rivers are great examples of antecedent origin. These rivers
originated well before the Himalayan region was uplifted. The rivers Indus,
Brahmaputra and Sutlej originated on Tibetan side and now traverse the
existing mountain ranges, cutting deep gorges.

Ans. 49 (a)

— A steppe climate is found in the middle of continents and in the lee of high
mountains. The mountains block moist air from oceans or tropical climates
from reaching the steppe. There is not enough precipitation for treesto grow
except by rivers.

— The plants have adapted to these drought conditions by being small and
growing extensive root systems. Animals have adapted by burrowing into the
ground to stay cool or warm, and to find protection on the open plains of the
steppe.

Ans. 50 (a)

— A seismic shadow zone is an area of the Earth's surface where seismographs


can only barely detect an earthquake after its seismic waves have passed
through the Earth.

— When an earthquake occurs, seismic waves radiate out spherically from the
earthquake's focus. The primary seismic waves are refracted by the liquid
outer core of the Earth and are not detected between 104° and 140° from the
epicenter.

— The secondary seismic waves cannot pass through the liquid outer core and
are not detected more than 104° from the epicenter.

Ans. 51 (c)

— Andaman & Nicobar Islands are basically volcanic in nature and recognised
as the extensions of Himalayas which emerged higher from the Bay of
Bengal.

— The Deccan Traps are a large igneous province located on the Deccan
Plateau of westcentral India and one of the largest volcanic features on Earth.
They consist of multiple layers of solidified flood basalt that together are
more than 2,000m thick, cover an area of 500,000 km2.

Ans. 52 (a)

— An aurora, sometimes referred to as a polar light or northern light, is a


natural light display in the sky, predominantly seen in the high latitude
(Arctic and Antarctic) regions.

— Auroras are produced when the magnetosphere is sufficiently disturbed by


the solar wind that the trajectories of charged particles in both solar wind and
magnetospheric plasma, mainly in the form of electrons and protons.

Ans. 53 (a)

— Temperature inversion, a reversal of the normal behaviour of temperature in


the troposphere (the region of the atmosphere nearest the Earth’s surface), in
which alayer of cool air at the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air.
(Under normal conditions air temperature usually decreases with height.)

Ans. 54 (d)
— Evaporation, temperature, direction and the movements of sea water are
responsible in controlling the salinity.

— Two of the most prevalent ions in seawater are chloride and sodium.
Together, they make up over 90 percent of all dissolved ions in the ocean.
Sodium and Chloride are 'salty.'

Ans. 55 (c)
— Bioethanol is a readily available, clean fuel for combustion engines made
from plantbased feedstocks such as Sugarcane, Jatropa, Shorgum, etc.

Ans. 56 (c)
Ans. 57 (d)
— The region is bounded by the Wasatch Mountains to the east, the Sierra
Nevada and Cascade Ranges to the west, and the Snake River Basin to the
north.

— The region lies between the Kunlun Mountains and its associated ranges to
the north and the Himalayas and Karakoram Range to the south and
southwest.

Ans. 58 (c)
— Source: Atlas
Ans. 59 (d)
— Chernozem, one of the 30 soil groups in the classification system of the
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
— Chernozems (from the Russian words for “black earth”) are humus-rich
grassland soils used extensively for growing cereals or for raising livestock.
— They are found in the middle latitudes of both hemispheres, in zones
commonly termed prairie in North America, pampa in Argen

tina, and steppe inAsia or in eastern Europe. Chernozems account for 1.8
percent of the total continental land area on Earth.

Ans. 60 (c)
— The Coral Triangle is a geographical term so named as it refers to a roughly
triangular area of the tropical marine waters of Indonesia, Malaysia, Papua
New Guinea, Philippines, Solomon Islands and Timor-Leste that contain at
least 500 species of reef-building corals in each ecoregion.

— This region encompasses portions of two precipitation, river water,


atmospheric pressure, wind biogeographic regions: the IndonesianPhilippines
Region, and the Far Southwestern Pacific Region.

— The Coral Triangle is recognized as the global centre of marine biodiversity


and a global priority for conservation. It is also called the "Amazon of the
seas" and covers 5.7 million square kilometres of ocean waters.

Ans. 61 (c)
— Big irrigation projects no doubt have brought prosperity to millions of
farmers. But, due to over-enthusiasm, many farmers have resorted to
successive cropping and over-irrigation, thereby leading to water-logging and
consequent salinisation and alkalinisation. This situation mainly arises due to
poor drainage.

Ans. 62 (c)
— There is a possibility of increase in gold and real estate prices since people
might invest the black money in Gold and real estate. It could provide some
stimulus to economy since there could be some rise in spending as cash
stashed away is spent. With the RBI setting terms for exchange of these notes
and income-tax authorities scrutinising big spends, it will nowbecome much
simpler for the authorities to track the transactions. This can increase the tax
returns for the government.

Ans. 63 (b) Ans. 64 (b)

— The Mathura School flourished in the period between 1stand 3rd centuries
B.C. It flourished in the banks of river Yamuna.

— The Sculpture of Mathura School were influenced by the stories and


imageries of all three religions of the time-Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism.

— The Mathura School showed a striking use of symbolism.


Ans. 65 (c)
— Gandhara School patronized by Kushana rulers.
— Mathura School– Kushana
— Amravati School– Satvahana
Ans. 66 (c)
— Nagara School of Architecture followed a Panchayatan style of temple
making. — Assembly Halls were present not absent in

Nagara School of Architecture.


— Outside the temple images of river goddess
were present.
Ans. 67 (d)
— The script used in seals are undeciphered
Bronze age writing.

— The characters on the seals are mostly pictorial.


— Seals were primarily used for commercial purpose but some seals were
found which shows use of seals as amulet of spiritual purposes.

Ans. 68 (d)

— Kalamkari or qalamkari Paintings is a type of hand painted or block printed


cotton textile produced in parts of India and Iran. There are two distinctive
styles of Kalamkari Paintings in India– Srikalahasti and Machilipatnam style.

— Kalamkari Painting in India is generally found in Andhra Pradesh.

Ans. 69 (d)
— Pichwai– Rajasthan

— Shamilami – Manipur and some part of North-East possession of weaving


and embroidery, is considered as a status symbol. — Rabari Art– Kutch

— Phool Patti Ka Kaam– Aligarh


Ans. 70 (a)

— Tirupati dolls toys are generally miniature reproductions of religious figures


in traditional classical poses seen in sculptured works of the region.

— Red Sandal wood, so called due to its rust


– red hue is used in Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh to carve dolls.

Ans. 71 (c)
— UNESCO provides funds for restoration, prevention and training if
required.

— UNESCO select a site as heritage if it represent a masterpiece of human


creative genius.

Ans. 72 (c)
— Uparkot is the main feature of Junagarh Cave.

— These caves are influenced by Satvahana architecture with combination of


Gracco– Synthian style.
Ans. 73 (c)

— Juang are a tribal group of people of Munda ethnic group found mainly in
the Gonsaika hill range of Keonjhar district of Odisha, India.

— Juang language is accepted as Austroasiatic languages.

— The Austroasiatic language are large language family of continental


Southeast Asia also scattered throughout India, Nepal, Bangladesh and
Southern border of China.

Ans. 74 (d)
— Sugamya Pustakalaya was launched by Shri

Ravi Shanker Prasad, Minister of law and Justice and Electronics and
Information Technology at a function organized by Department of
Empowerment of persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment. Thus, its an initiative of Department of Empowerment of
person with Disability under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

— It’s an online library for person with visual disabilities. A step towards an
accessible digital India.

Ans. 75 (b)

— Greenland Shark is now named as Earth’s oldest living animal with a


backbone. Earlier it was Bowhead Whale.

Ans. 76 (c)

— Keibul National Park is a National Park in the Bishnupur district of the state
of Manipur in India. It’s the only floating Park in the world.It’s an integral
part of Loktak Lake.

— Keibul National Park is the refuge of the endangered ManipurEld’s deer or


browantlered or Sangai also called as dancing deer. It’s listed as an
endangered species by International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN).
Ans. 77 (d)

— Saur Sujala Yojana would provide solar powered irrigation pump’s to


farmer at subsidized rate.

— It was launched in Chhattisgarh by the Prime Minister thus Chhattisgarh not


UP became the first state to implement this scheme.

Ans. 78 (d)

— Yes, idea of Home rule was suggested by Anne Besant in Bombay session
in 1915 but it was formally launched in September 1915 modeling demands
for India on Irish models.

— ‘Swaraj is my Birthright’ statement was propounded by Tilak for the first


during movement.

— Yes, for the first time Sindhi Community participated during this
movement. Ans. 79 (b)

— It was Chauri-Chaura incident which was responsible for the withdrawal of


the movement.

— Both statements (2 and 3) are correct regarding Non-Cooperation


Movement.

Ans. 80 (a)
(i) Hindu College, Calcutta– 20 January 1817 (ii) University of Calcutta– 24
January 1857

(iii)Adam’s Report– 1835 however brief report was published on 1868


(iv)Wood’s Despatch– 1854
Ans. 81 (b)

— Durgeshnandani is a historic Bengali romance novel written by Indian


writer Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya in 1865.It’sa story of love triangle
between Jagat Singh, a Mughal General, Tilottama, the daughter of a rebel
Pathan leader against whom Jagat Singh was fighting.
Ans. 82 (b)
— Global Slavery Index includes all both developing and developed countries.

— This Index Includes Slavery in all its form including Forced marriages,
human trafficking, Child marriages prostitution, begging etc.

— Unfortunately India tops the Global Slavery Index with almost 18-35
million modern slaves.

Ans. 83 (b)
— Morocco is the only all African state not in A.U.
— A.U. established in 2001, it has 54 countries as members.
Ans. 84 (c)
— IMF – Headquarters: Washington, D.C. (USA),

— Official language: English,


— Main organ: Board of governors,
— Managing Director: Christine Lagarde.

Ans. 85 (d)

— Socuting is a movement that aims to support young people in their physical,


mental and spiritual development, that they may play constructive roles in
society.

— Founded– 1907
— Founder– Robert Baden Powell
Ans. 86 (a)
— The Battle of Waterloo was fought 18 June, 1815 near waterloo in present
day Belgium. — Napoleon lost that battle.
— Anglo-led allied army under Arthur Wellesley won the battle.
Ans. 87 (a)

— The storming of Bastille occurred in Paris on 14 July 1789, it’s fall was the
flashpoint of the French Revolution.

— France celebrates this day asit’sNational day. — Boston Tea Party was a
political protest. This started the American Revolution.
Ans. 88 (d)
— Bharati Gupta is not associated with Manipuri Dance.
Ans. 89 (a)
— Satyajit Ray holds the record for most number of wins.
Ans. 90 (d)
— The Committee on Comprehensive Financial

Services for Small Businesses and Low Income Households was appointed
by RBI under Nachiket Mor and recently it submitted its recommendations.
All the above statements except are correct.

— It has recommended for setting up niche banks that exclusively cater to


low-income households and small businesses. This proposal is a
departurefrom the current model of universal banking supported by the RBI
wherein a single bank caters to all customers.

Ans. 91 (b)

— Congress socialist party always worked inside the Congress party infact the
Constitution of CSP required that all member of CSP will be member of
Indian National Congress. CSP always had this notion that the leadership of
Indian National Congress is in the hands of Bourgeoisie class so CSP wanted
to replace the leadership of Indian National Congress.

Ans. 92 (d)
— All the above are the contributions of moderate nationalists.
Ans. 93 (d)

— Baliya (UP) – By Chittu Pandeya, First parallel government.


— Tamluk (Bengal)– By Satis Samant.

— Satara (Maharashtra)– By Y.B. Chavhan & Nana Patil.


Ans. 94 (d)

— Hakim Ajmal Khan was the sole person elected to the presidency of the
India Nation Congress, the Muslim League and All India Khilafat
Committee.
Ans. 95 (d)

— The number of members in both Imperial Legislative Council and


provincial legislative council were increased.

— The elected member were to be indirectly elected.


Ans. 96 (c)
— Journal’s by Gandhiji

– Indian opinion
– Navajivan
– Young India
– Harijan
– Harijan bandhu
– Harijan sevak

Ans. 97 (b)
Source: IYB
Ans. 98 (d)
Ans. 99 (a)

— Borneo is the third largest Island in the world and largest island in Asia.
This Island is politically divided among three countries: Brunei and Malaysia
in north and Indonesia to the south. Major part of the Island exist in
Indonesia.

Ans. 100 (a)

— “Buildinga future in which people and nature thrive” is a motto of world


wide fund for nature.

GS PT TEST 2 - ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION


1. Ans: (c) configuration of seas and mountainous — The Harappan
Civilisation was known for its
developed agriculture.

— Harappans grew wheat and barley on a large


scale. The other crops grown by them were
pulses, cereals, cotton, dates, melons, pea,
sesamum and mustard.

2. Ans: (c)

— Unlike the Mesopotamians and Egyptians


they have not left behind any inscription
describing their system of administration.

3. Ans: (c)

— Malati Madhava is a well-known play by


Bhavabhuti. Bhavabhuti was a noted
Sanskrit scholar of the 8th century.

4. Ans: (b)

— The India Innovation Index will be developed


by World Economic Forum, World
Intellectual property organization, NITI
Aayog and Cornell University to measure
innovation performance of Indian states.

5. Ans: (b)

— Silambam is a martial art form that originated


approximately 5000 years ago in Kerala.
Silambam was practiced in the 1700s in the
courts of Kings like Puli Thevar and Maruthu
Pandiyar. It was mainly used as an asset in
combat skills, and soldiers mainly relied on
it to fight the British army.

6. Ans: (c)

— Mediterranean climate Distinctive climatic


type, which occurs around latitude 35° N and
35° S, and which is associated with warm
temperate west coasts. Summers generally
are hot and dry, winters mild to cool and
rainy. The climate is strongly influenced by
westerly airstreams in winter, and subtropical
high pressure in summer. In the type area,
the Mediter-ranean basin, there is a variety
of climatic regimes owing to the complex
peninsulas in the 3000 km incursion into Eurasia. Annual rainfall is broadly
500–900 mm, but less in more continental locations. Other areas of this type
include the coasts of Chile in corresponding latitudes, southern California,
south-western Africa, and south-western Australia. Cool ocean currents
offshore bring lower temperatures to parts of the Chilean and Californian
coasts, but rainfall and temperatures are much affected by the differences of
slope and elevation inland.

7. Ans: (a)

— In the tropics there is a broad zone of low pressure which stretches either
side of the equator. The winds on the north side of this zone blow from the
north-east (the north-east trades) and on the southern side blow from the
south-east (south-east trades).

— Within this area of low pressure the air is heated over the warm tropical
ocean. This air rises in discrete parcels, causing thundery showers to form.
These showers usually come and go, but from time to time, they group
together into large clusters of thunderstorms. This creates a flow of very
warm, moist, rapidly rising air, leading to the development of a centre of low
pressure, or depression, at the surface.

— There are various trigger mechanisms required to transform these cloud


clusters into a tropical cyclone. These trigger mechanisms depend on several
conditions being ‘right’ at the same time. The most influential factorsare:

1. A source of warm, moist air derived from tropical oceans with sea surface
temperatures normally in the region of, or in excess, of 27 °C;

2. Winds near the ocean surface blowing from different directions converging
and causing air to rise and storm clouds to form;

3. Winds which do not vary greatly with height - known as low wind shear.
This allows the storm clouds to risevertically to high levels;

4. sufficient distance from the equator to provide spin or twist.

— The Coriolis force caused by the rotation of the Earth helps the spin of this
column of rising air. The development of the surface depression causes an
increase in the strength of the trade winds. The spiraling winds accelerate
inwards and upwards, releasing heat and moisture as they do so.

8. Ans: (b)

— Canal irrigation is the most important form of irrigation in India. It is


cheaper. It is of greatest advantage in the river valley regions. In canal
irrigation, U.P. stands first in India, followed by Punjab and Haryana. Canal
irrigation is of much use in the deltas of rivers, the Godavari, the Krishna, the
Kaveri and the Mahanadi and the Ganga, and in the coastal plains of Kerala.

— Tank irrigation is popular in the peninsular plateau area whereAndhra


Pradesh and Tamil Nadu are the leading states. Andhra Pradesh is the largest
state of tank irrigation where 727 thousand hectares are irrigated bytanks.
Andhra Pradesh has about 28.8 per cent of tank irrigated area of India. About
16 per cent of the total irrigated area of the state is irrigated by tanks.

9. Ans: (d)

— Venus is the second planet from the Sun. The first planet is Mercury.
— The original astronomical definition is that a Blue Moon is the 3rd Full
Moon in an astronomical season with 4 Full Moons. A normal year has 4
astronomical seasons spring, summer, fall (autumn), and winter with 3
months and normally 3 Full Moons each.
When 1 of the astronomical seasons has 4 Full Moons, instead of the normal
3, the 3rd Full Moon is called a Blue Moon.
— Jupiter is the fourth brightest object in the sky (after the Sun, the Moon and
Venus). It has been known since prehistoric times as a bright “wandering
star”.
10. Ans: (a)
— Fringing reefs grow near the coastline around islands and continents. They
are separated from the shore by narrow, shallow lagoons. The lagoons called
boat channel.

11. Ans: (c)


— Both statements are correct. El-Nino is a warm current which appears in the
western coast of South America. Winds blowing over a cold and dry. They
help to bring down the temperatures in places, which would have been much
hotter. The California (cold) current, which flows along the western coast of
USA, makes the region much cooler than other places in the west coast on
thesame latitude.

— Such winds are bereft of any moisture and bring little or no rainfall over the
coastal regions where they blow. As most cold currents flow along the
western coast of continents, some of the major deserts are found in such
regions. The Atacama desert in South America is influenced by the cold Peru
current.

12. Ans: (d)


— All three are correctly matched.

13. Ans: (c)


— An oxbow is a part of the yoke for a team of oxen that is shaped like a
crescent or the letter U. This piece of the yoke is called a bow. The reference
may be a little dated, and most of us have never seen a team of oxen in real
life, but in geography, the name sticks. An oxbow lake is a crescent-shaped
lake (yes, it looks like the bow of an oxen yoke) that forms to the side of a
meandering river. Oxbow lake is formed by river erosion init’s mature stage.

14. Ans: (a)


—‘Anaconda 2016’ is the ‘largest war game in eastern Europe since the end of
the cold war. It took place in Poland, as Nato and partner countries seek to
mount a display of strength as a response to concerns about Russia’s
assertiveness. It was not with Russian forces. So only option 1 is correct.

15. Ans: (d)


— All three are traditional animal fighting sport in India.
16. Ans: (b)

— The 2016 Summer Paralympics the fifteenth Summer Paralympic Games,


were a major international multi-sport event for athletes with disabilities
governed by the International Paralympic Committee, held in Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil, from 7 September to 18 September.

17. Ans: (c)

— The Doha Amendment is an amendment to the Kyoto Protocol that was


adopted by the Conference of the Parties serving as the meeting of the Parties
to the Protocol (CMP) on 8 December 2012 in Doha, Qatar.

18. Ans: (b)


— Togalu Gombeyaata is a puppet show unique to the state of Karnataka,
India.

— The shadow-puppet theatre of Odisha is known as Ravan Chhaya. It is


titled thus because, the Chhaya or shadow is considered inauspicious and is
therefore related to the character of Ravan who is equated with evil. Among
all the styles of India it is the simplest with no colour, and almost no dance or
fight sequences.

19. Ans: (c)


20. Ans: (a)

— The horse latitudes are located at about 30 degrees north and south of the
equator. It is common in this region of the subtropics for winds to diverge
and either flow toward the poles (known as the prevailing westerlies) or
toward the equator (known as the trade winds). These diverging winds are the
result of an area of high pressure, which is characterized by calm winds,
sunny skies and little or no precipitation.

21. Ans: (c)


Source: Atlas
22. Ans: (b)

— The term Sirocco (sometimes also spelled Scirocco) is an all-inclusive


name given to hot and subsequently humid southeast to southwest desert-air
northward into the southern Mediterranean basin.
winds originating as hot, dry over Northern Africa, flowing

— However, the term Sirocco is not used in North Africa, where it is called
chom (hot) or arifi (thirsty); Simoom in Palestine, Jordan, Syria, and the
desert of Arabia; Ghibli (or Chibli, Gibla, Gibleh) in Libya; Chili (or
Chichili) in Tunisia and S Algeria; Khamsin (or Chamsin, Khamasseen) in
Egypt and around the Red Sea and Sharavin Israel.

23. Ans: (c)

— Temperature inversion, is a reversal of the normal behavior of temperature


in the troposphere, in which a layer of cool air at the surface is overlain by a
layer of warmer air. (Under normal conditions, temperature usually
decreases with height).

— Long nights, so that the outgoing radiation is greater than the incoming
radiation.
— Clear skies, which allow unobstructed escape of radiation.

— Calmand stable air, so that there is no vertical mixing at lower levels.


24. Ans: (c)

— Fiscal Policy is always associated with government expenditure or revenue.


That why only option (c) is correct.

25. Ans: (d)

— All the given situations are possible if currency depreciates. Currency


depreciation will make our import costlier that why it may result in inflation.
It will definitely make our export competitive. Since now ourcurrency’s value
is lower compare to other currency (hard currency) it will make our debt
costlier.

26. Ans: (c)

— Option 4 concerns only big corporations so it cannot be included in


Inclusive Growth without higher national income many of the inclusive
growth policies can’t be financed.

27. Ans: (c)


— Option is an perfect example of trickledown effect.

— Trickledown effect used to describe the belief that a benefit to a small


component will trickle down to everyone else. In economic term it means
economic benefit to a smaller group of people will result in benefit for the
whole economy.

28. Ans: (a)


GNP = GDP + NR (Net Income receipts)
– NP (Net Payment outflow)

— So imagine a case where there is more income outflow then income inflow
then GNP is bound to be lower than GDP.

— India is a good example of that our GNP is lower than our GDP. So option
is wrong. 29. Ans: (b)

— Cash transfer of subsidy to farmers is a part of government policy. It is part


of Fiscal Policy not monetary policy.

30. Ans: (c)

— NHRC was created underthe ‘Protection of Human Right Ordinance’ of 28


September, 1993. It was given statutory basis by the ‘Protection of Human
Right Act, 1993’.

31. Ans: (c)

— Mission Indradhanush is a health mission of Govt. of India. It aims to


immunize all children under the age of 2 years, as well as pregnant women,
against 7 vaccine preventable diseases. The diseases target are diphtheria,
whooping cough, tetanus, Poliomyelitis, tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis-
B.

32. Ans: (c)


— Both the statements are correct.
33. Ans: (c)

— The Central Government has declared the entire Nagaland as disturbed area
under Section 3 of the Armed Forces (special powers) Act, 1958 declaring
any are disturbed is a Power vests in both State and Central Government.

34. Ans: (a)

— Allauddin did not established direct control over Deccan. His policy was
only to reduce them to the vassalage, on the condition of getting kings
acknowledge the sovereignty of Delhi and Paying annual tributes.

35. Ans: (c)


Six Schools of Indian Philosophy
1. Sankhya
2. Yoga
3. Nyaya
4. Vaisheshik
5. Mimansa (Purva Mimansa)
6. Vedanda (Uttara Mimansa)

36. Ans: (d)


— Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Kanan was a poet. One of the ‘Navaratnas’ in Akbar’s
court.

37. Ans: (b)


38. Ans: (c)
— Both the statements are correct.
39. Ans: (b)
— The Alvars were worshippers of Vishnu. They preached in local languages
like Tamil and Telugu.
40. Ans: (a)
— Guru Nank was contemporary to Babur.
41. Ans: (c)
— Behari was contemporary to Shah Jahan. He was invited in Shah Jahan’s
court. He was related to literary movement ‘Riti Kaal’.
42. Ans: (d)
— The twenty point programme was initially launched by Prime Minister
Indira Gandhi in 1975 and was restructured in 1982 and 1986.
43. Ans: (c)
Top Commercial Service Exporting

Rank Countries
Country
1
2

3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10 United States

United
Kingdom

China
Germany
Japan
Netherlands Singapore
Ireland
Spain
Belgium

Commercial Service
Exports ($US) in 2015

$690.1 Billion
$344.4 Billion

$285.5 Billion $259.4 Billion $158.2 Billion $145.5 Billion $139.3 Billion
$127.7 Billion $117.9 Billion $109.4 Billion
44. Ans: (d)

— India has the largest postal network in the world with 1,54,866 post
offices as on March 31, 2011 of which 1,39,040 (89.78 per cent) are in the
rural areas

— The Department of Posts comes under the Ministry of Communications


and Information Technology. The Postal Service Board, the apex
management body of the Department, comprises the Chairman and six
Members.

— So both options are wrong.


45. Ans: (b)

— AKASH is a medium-range mobile surfaceto-air missile defense system. So


statement is wrong.
Indian Army Indian Navy Indian Air Force
Field Marshal Admiral of the Fleet Marshal of the Air Force
General Admiral Air Chief Marshal
Lieutenant General Vice Admiral Air Marshal
Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice Marshal
Brigadier Commodore Air Commodore
Colonel Captain Group Captain
Lieutenant Colonel Commander Wing Commander
Major Lieutenant Commander Squadron Leader
Captain Lieutenant Flight Lieutenant
Lieutenant Sub-Lieutenant Flying Officer

50. Ans: (b)

— The creek, which opens up into the Arabian Sea, divides the Gujarat state
of India from the Sindh province of Pakistan. So only option 2 is correct.

51. Ans: (d)

— The South China Sea disputes involve both island and maritime claims
among several sovereign states within the region, namely the Nation of
Brunei, the People’s Republic of China (PRC), the Republic of China
(Taiwan) (ROC), Malaysia, Indonesia, the Republic of the Philippines,
and the Socialist Republic of Vietnam. So all options are correct.

52. Ans: (a)

— The “Nairobi Package” was adopted at the WTO’s Tenth Ministerial


Conference, held in Nairobi, Kenya, from 15 to 19 December 2015. It
contains a series of six Ministerial Decisions on agriculture, cotton and issues
related to least-developed countries (LDCs). A Ministerial Declaration
outlining the Package and the future work of the WTO was adopted at the
end of the five-dayConference.

53. Ans: (d)


— It is based on mixed ragas and is commonly considered to be semi-classical
Indian music.

— This was inspired by Bhakti movement so much that text usually revolves
around the girls love for Krishna.

— The compositions are usually sung in female.

46. Ans: (b)


47. Ans: (a)
48. Ans: (d)

— Among the following India is only member to East Asian Summit


49. Ans: (d)

— He Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is a project that will


connect the Eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in
Myanmar by sea; so option 1 is wrong.

— It has nothing to do with maritime security so option 2 is wrong as well.


54. Ans: (b)
— Baul– Bengali not only a type of music but also a religious sect.

— Wanawan– Kashmir specially sung during weeding ceremonies.


— Ovi– Maharashtra and Goa.
— Maand– Rajasthan.

55. Ans: (b)


— It is exclusive martial dance form of Manipur. — State 2 is correct regarding
Thang-Ta.

56. Ans: (c)


— Uttaramacharitra – Bhavabhuti — Ratnavali – Harshavardhan — Vikramvashi
– Kalidasa
— Malavikagnimitra – Kalidasa

Kalidasa other famous works include Shakuntalam too.


57. Ans: (c)
— Shadow puppets are flat figures cut out of leather.
— They are painted identically on both side of the leather.
— Statement 3 is correct regarding Shadow puppets.
58. Ans: (c)

— Statement 1 is incorrect. Here attention is to be on the question that is about


lack of confidence.

— By rejecting a money bill. Though on behalf of Lok Sabha its possible but
usually it’s not possible and also remember that Rajya Sabha can’t reject a
money bill.

— Adjournment motion is introduced in Parliament to draw attention of the


house to a definite matter of urgent public importance.

— By passing a cut motion Lok Sabha express lack of confidence in


government.
— Types of cut motion – 1. Policy Cut, 2. Economy Cut, 3. Token Cut.
59. Ans: (b)
— This statement is incorrect regarding UPSC as its kept outside the function
of UPSC. — Both statement 2 and 3 is correct regarding function of UPSC.
60. Ans: (c)

— Proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the houses of


Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.

— It approved by Parliament the emergency continues for six months.

— The President must revoke a proclamationis the Lok Sabha passes a


resolution disapproving its continuation. Also remember proclamation of
emergency may be revoked by the President at any type by a subsequent
proclamation.
61. Ans: (a)
— Statement 1 is correct as there is no special convention.
— Statement 2 is incorrect as power related to amendment given to state is
very limited. — Statement 3 is correct.
— Statement 4 is correct.
62. Ans. (Only 2)
— Starred question not unstarred question is distinguished by asterisk mark.

— Statement 2 is correct.
— These question required written answer.

— Statement 4 is incorrect as members ask questions and the ministers usually


give answer.

63. Ans: (a)


— Statement 1 is correct.
— Statement 2 is correct.

— Statement 3 is incorrect as constitutional position, status, powers and


functions of the concerned state high court remains same even during the
president’s rule.

— Statement 4 is incorrect.
64. Ans: (d)

— Both public account committee and estimate committee economy is related


to regularity and

of the expenditure of the government. Option 3 and 4 are incorrect.

65. Ans: (b)


— Statement 1 is correct.

— Statement is incorrect as it established 15 member council of India to assist


the Secretary of State for India.

— Statement 3 is correct.
66. Ans: (b)
— Statement is incorrect as it was recommended by Sardar Swaran Singh
Committee.

— Both statement 2 and 3 is correct.


67. Ans: (b)

— Statement 1 is incorrect as State Government can also borrow but only from
within India.

— Statement 2 is correct as state can’t raise any loan without the consent of
the centre, if there is still outstanding any part of a loan made to the state by
the centre or in respect of which a guarantee has given by the centre.

68. Ans: (c)


— Statement 1 is correct.

— Statement is incorrect as smallest religious minority in India are Jainas.

— Statement 3 is correct as National Commission for Minorities under the


National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 and was given statutory status
in 1993.

69. Ans: (d)


— All statements are correct regarding CAG.
70. Ans: (b)

— Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not explaining
correctly about the Assertion.

71. Ans: (d)


72. Ans: (c)

— Political Affairs Committee is often described as super cabinet.


73. Ans: (b)

— Statement 1 is incorrect as it has been launched by Ministry of Health and


Family Welfare.

— 2 Statement is correct.
— 3 Statement is correct.

— PMSMA launched on June 9, 2016 with objective of boosting the health


care facilities for the pregnant women, especiallythe poor. Under this
pregnant ladies will be given free health check-up and required treatment for
free on 9th of every month.

74. Ans: (a)


— Statement 1 is correct in this regard.

— Statement 2 is incorrect as it submit its report bi-annually.


75. Ans. (a)

— The committee is required to submit a biannual report to the Union Cabinet


regarding the status and progress of the project.

76. Ans. (c)


— Statement is incorrect as there is limitation in this regard.
77. Ans. (a)

— Pava shells were recently in newsas it’s a chilli based non-lethal munition
chilli filled Pave shells are seen as alternative to pellet guns.

78. Ans. (b)


— Statement 1 is incorrect as its state festival of Karnataka.

— Both 2 and 3 are correct in this regard. 79. Ans. (d)

— The GHI is a multidimensional statistical tool used to describe the state of


countries hunger situation. This index was adopted and further developed by
the International Food Policy Research Institute and was published first time
in 2006 with welt hunger life, a German non-profit organization.

80. Ans. (d)

— INS Arihant is nuclear submarine capable of carrying nuclear tipped


ballistic missiles. Thus it belongs to class referred to as Ship Submersible
Ballistic Nuclear (SSBN).
— It will be armed with the K-15 Sagarika missiles with a range of 750 km.
Later it will be armed with much longer range K-4 missiles (3,500 km range)
being developed by DRDO.

81. Ans: (b)


— It defined Benami transaction.

— Statement 2 is correct with respect to Benami Transaction (Prohibition)


Amendment Act, 2016.

— No, under this new act real owner cannot recover his or her property from
Benamidar.

— Project insight is flagship project of Finance Ministry to widen tax base by


catching tax evaders using technology.

83. Ans: (d)


84. Ans: (a)

— Scheme ‘UDAN’ is an initiative from Ministry of Civil Aviation for


regional connectivity scheme (UDAN- Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik).

85. Ans. (c)


— Both statement 1 and 2 are correct regarding Mormugao.

86. Ans. (c)


— Statement 1 is correct.

— The do not have there own eye lens rendering it effectively blind although it
may be still be able to detect the intensity and direction of light, Navigation
and hunting using Echolocation (use echoes to locate and identity object).

— Statement 3 is correct and it is also protected under Indian Wildlife Act.


87. Ans: (b)

— The continental crust consists of various layers, with a bulk composition


that is intermediate to felsic. The averagedensity of continental crust is about
2.7 g/cm3, less dense than the ultramafic material that makes up the mantle,
which has a density of around 3.3 g/cm3. Continental crust is also less dense
than oceanic crust, whose density is about 2.9 g/cm3.

88. Ans: (c)

— The westerlies are particularly strong, especially in the Southern


Hemisphere, in areas where land is absent, because land amplifies the flow
pattern, making the current more north-south oriented, slowing the westerlies.
The strongest westerly winds in the middle latitudes can come in the roaring
forties, between 40 and 50 degrees latitude.

— A tornado is a violently rotating column of air that spins while in contact


with both the surface of the Earth and a cumulonimbus cloud or, in rare
cases, the base ofa cumulus cloud. They are often referred toas twisters,
whirlwinds or cyclones, although the word cyclone is used in meteorology to
name any closed low pressure circulation. Tornadoes come in many shapes
and sizes, but they are typically in the form of a visible condensation funnel
originating from the base of a huge storm cloud, whose narrow end touches
the earth and is often encircled by a basal cloud of debris and dust.

90. Ans: (b)


— Mention in question 6.
91. Ans: (a)

— The Equatorial Counter Current is an eastward moving, wind-driven


current flowing 10-15m deep found in the Atlantic, Indian, and Pacific
Oceans. More often called the North Equatorial Countercurrent (NECC)

92. Ans: (c)


Source: See Atlas.
93. Ans: (d)

— As the earth is in the form of a sphere, the angle of incidence ofthe sun’s
rays at the earth’s surface increases from the equator towards the poles and
therefore the amount of heat received on a GIVEN AREA diminishes in the
same direction. Temperature is therefore normally highest near the equator
and lowest in the poles.
— There is however, a seasonal variation of temperature owing to the annual
changes in the sun’s declination between 23.5 degree N and 23.5 degrees.
Not only is the inclination of the solar beam is involved, but also the
lengthening of the day in summer at the higher latitudes, to some extent,
compensates for the reduction of intensity of the solar radiation. But as a
whole, the temperature decreases towards the poles.

— Precipitation can be defined as water in liquid or solid form falling on the


earth or, Total amount of water falling on a given area in the form of rain or
snow or hail is known as precipitation.

Process of Precipitation:

— Precipitation is caused by condensation of water vapours of the air mass.


The ascending air mass with sufficient amount of water vapours becomes
saturated due to adiabatic cooling. Condensation of water vapours leads to
the formation of clouds. Every cloud contains updraft and downdraft.

— The development and height of the clouds depend upon the updraft.
Stronger the updraft, greater is the height of the cloud. When the liquid water
increases, the strength of the updraft decreases anddowndraft starts
increasing. As a result, precipitation is produced.

— Even though all clouds contain water, but some produce precipitation while
others do not. In certain cases precipitated moisture falls from the clouds, but
it gets evaporated from the atmosphere before reaching the earth surface.

— Precipitation occurs only when the cloud droplets or ice crystals grow to
such a size that it can overcome the updrafts in the atmosphere. It means that
some special processes are working in a cloud from which precipitation falls.

— The process regarding the rainfall is unsaturated air®dew


point®condensation ® precipitation.

— Rank Country Peacekeepers (1) Ethiopia 8,333, (2) India 7,713, (3)
Pakistan 7,160, (4) Bangladesh 6,772, (5) Rwanda 6,163, (6) Nepal 5,102, (7)
Senegal 3,731, (8) Egypt 3,069, (9) Ghana 2,973, (10) Indonesia 2,864.
— The first UN peacekeeping mission was a team of observers deployed to
the Middle East in 1948, during the Arab-Israeli War.

96. Ans: (d)


— It’s in Geneva , Switzerland
97. Ans: (a)

— Flash memory can be erased and reprogrammed so option 2 is wrong 98.


Ans: (d)
— All of them are major pollutant in air pollution in Indian cities
99. Ans: (b)

— While the total forest cover of the country has increased by 3, 775 sq km,
the treecover has gone up by 1, 306 sq km. According to the India State of
Forest Report (ISFR) 2015 released here today, the total forest and tree cover
is 79.42 million hectare, which is 24.16 percent of the total geographical
area. So option 1 is wrong. Option 2 is correct.

100. Ans: (d)

— Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme launched in 1973 by the


Government of India during Prime Minister Indira Gandhi’s tenure.

— Tiger population is constantly increasing. So both options are wrong.


*********

GS PT TEST 3 - ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION


1. Ans. (c)

— Existence of human life on venus is highly improbable because Venus has


extremely high level of CO2 in it atmosphere. Also temperature on venus is
more than 400°C. The atmosphere of venus is very hot and thick. The
atmosphere of venus is made up of mainly of Carbon Dioxide and thick
clouds of sulphuric acid completely cover the planet.

2. Ans. (b) Planet


1. Mercury 2. Venus 3. Earth 4. Jupiter
3. Ans. (c)

Revolution Time
– 88 days
– 225 days
– 365 days
– 12 years

— Due to very high density, black hole does not allow any radiation to come
out.
4. Ans. (c)

— Area lying within 5° to 8° latitude on either side of equator receives rainfall


throughout the year. High temperature and high humidity cause convectional
rainfall mostly in the afternoon near the equator.

5. Ans. (a)
6. Ans. (a)

— They intersect in the Gulf of Gunea in Atlantic Ocean.

7. Ans. (d)
8. Ans. (c)

— Patagonian desert is a temperate desert located in Argentina.


9. Ans. (b)

— The most abundant gases released from volcanic eruption is water vapour.
Melted solid inside the earth is called Magma. 10. Ans. (a)

— Sikkim shares its boundary with Bhutan and China.


11. Ans. (c)
— The Northern part of the Western Coastal plain is also known as Malabar.
12. Ans. (c)

— The Nilgiri Hills or the Blue mountains form the meeting point of the
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats its highest peak being Daddabetta (2637
Meter).
13. Ans. (c)
14. Ans. (c)
15. Ans. (c)
16. Ans. (c)
17. Ans. (c)
18. Ans. (b)
19. Ans. (b)
20. Ans. (a)

— Forward Markets Co (FMC) is the chief regulator of commodity futures


markets in India. As of July 2014, it regulated Rs. 17 trillion worth of
commodity trades in India. It is headquartered in Mumbai and this financial
regulatory agency is overseen by the Ministry of Finance. The Commission
allows commodity trading in 22 exchanges in India, of which 6 are national.

— On 28 September 2015 the FMC was merged with the Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI).

21. Ans. (b)

— NABARD was established on the recommendations of B. Sivaraman


Committee, (by Act 61, 1981 of Parliament) on 12 July 1982 to implement
the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981.
22. Ans. (d)

— The years 1965-66 ushered India into Green Revolution and advanced
agriculture. 23. Ans. (a)

— Due to miserable failure of the Third Plan the government was forced
todeclare “plan holidays” (from 1966–67, 1967–68, and 1968–69). Three
annual plans were drawn during this intervening period.

24. Ans. (a)


FIXED COST
Indivisible large units
Supplementary: Even in their absence some amount of production can be carried out. Plant, machinery,
manager, land, factory premises etc.

VARIABLE COST
Divisible small units
Without these factors no production can be carried out.
Labor, raw materials, transport,freightetc.

25. Ans. (d)

— Last one decade india posted current account surplus many times The
saving rate beganto increase steadily in the 2000s with the Tenth Plan
average (for 2002-07) registering 31.4 per cent.

26. Ans. (b)


27. Ans. (b)

— The first instance was in 1946 and the second in 1978 when an ordinance
was promulgated to phase out notes with denomination of Rs 1,000, Rs 5,000
and Rs 10,000.

28. Ans. (b)


— Repo is not a defined monetary policy tool but used by RBI as a monetary
policy tool. 29. Ans. (a)

— Based on UN Food and Agriculture Organization statistics for global


production from 1993-2013, here are the 10 top teaproducing nations in the
world.

5 – Turkey (174,932 tonnes) ...

4 – Sri Lanka (295,830 tonnes) ...

3 – Kenya (303,308 tonnes) ...


2 – India (900,094 tonnes) ...

1 – China (1,000,130 tonnes)


30. Ans. (d)

— BSE SENSEX The S&P BSE SENSEX (S&P Bombay Stock Exchange
Sensitive Index), also-called the BSE 30 or simply the SENSEX, is a free-float
market-weighted stock market index of 30 well-established and financially
sound companies listed on Bombay Stock Exchange. SEBI is the regulator of
stock market.

31. Ans. (c)

— Pichai Sundararajan, also known as Sundar Pichai, is an Indian American


business executive. Pichai is the chief executive officer of Google Inc.

32. Ans. (d)


MAHARATNA COMPANY LIST

As on June 2016, there are 7 Maharatna CPSEs whose names are:

1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited


2. Coal India Limited
3. GAIL (India) Limited
4. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
5. NTPC Limited
6. Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
7. Steel Authority of India Limited

As on June 2016, there are 17 Navratna CPSEs whose names are:

1. Bharat Electronics Limited


2. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
3. Container Corporation of India Limited
4. Engineers India Limited
5. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
6. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
7. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited
8. National Aluminium Company Limited

9. NationalBuildings ConstructionCorporation Limited

10. NMDC Limited


11. Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited 12. Oil India Limited
13. Power Finance Corporation Limited 14. Power Grid Corporation of India
Limited 15. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
16. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited 17. Shipping Corporation of
India Limited

33. Ans. (c)


— Both statements are correct.
34. Ans. (b)

— IRDA was constituted by the Insurance Regulatory and Development


Authority Act, 1999, an act of Parliament passed by the government of India.
The agency’s headquarters are in Hyderabad, Telangana, where it moved
from Delhi in 2001.

35. Ans. (a)

— The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulator for
the securities market in India. It was established in the year 1988 and given
statutory powers on 30 January 1992 through the SEBI Act, 1992.

36. Ans. (d)

— Short term loans are generally up to about three years. Long term loans
are for more then 5 years.

37. Ans. (c)

— Historically, rapid economic growth has been accompaniedby greater


industrialisation. But more accurately the process of economic growth can be
described in terms of greater commercialisation of economic activities.
38. Ans. (b)
39. Ans. (c)
40. Ans. (d)

41. Ans. (d)

— Para 31 of the DPCO 2013 gives the centre the power to review decisions
of the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).

— Generally reviewing authority under this para is an under Secretary of the


Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP). The NPPA works under the DoP,
which comes under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers.

— The aberration was a decision take by the NPPA on May 29, 2014, 108
drugs - mainly for heart diseases and diobetes - which were not a part of
DPCO, 2013 and were considered non-essential drugs. The NPPA rolled
back this order on Sep. 2, 2014 as per directions by the DoP.

42. Ans. (a)


— UNDP publishes Human Development Report which includes HDI, GDI,
MPI, etc. 43. Ans. (b)

— According to 2010 data, the largest consumer of water was irrigation which
accounted for 85% of the water demand, followed by domestic use (6%),
industries (6%) and energy (3%).

44. Ans. (d)

— While AoA is directly concerned with agriculture there are some other
WTO agreements that have a close bearing on agriculture and influence free
and fair trade in agriculture. They are SPS, TRIPs and TBT.

45. Ans. (c)

— Less than 5% of the value of production for developed countries and less
than 10% for developing countries are excluded from any reduction
commitments, known as ‘deminimis’ subsidies.

46. Ans. (d)


— In 2002, these talks took place at WTO platform.
47. Ans. (a)

— Bt Cotton is commercially grown in India since 2002. Now almost 90% of


cotton area is covered under Bt cotton.

48. Ans. (a)


— Egypt - 9,422 kgs/h; India - 3264 kgs/h; USA
- 7538 kgs/h; China - 6548 kgs/h.
49. Ans. (d)
— 14 lakh sharecroppers were benefitted in West Bengal in the land reform
initiative. 50. Ans. (c)
— Prof. Borlaug hailed from the USA but experimented in Mexico.
51. Ans. (a)

— HYV was restricted to only 5 crops - wheat, rice, jowar, bajra and maize.
Therefore, nonfoodgrains were excluded from the ambit of this strategy.

52. Ans. (b)

— Subsidies in Agriculture has various illeffects such as deteriorating the


ecological balance and water depletion, etc.

53. Ans. (a)

— FERA was enacted in 1973 and the Industries (Development & Regulation)
Act was enacted in 1951.

54. Ans. (c)


— Asian Tigers: South Korea, Hong Kong, Singapore and Taiwan.
55. Ans. (d)
— Category I Miniratna can invest upto Rs. 500 crore.
56. Ans. (c)

— Selling of shares amount to only disinvestment whereas selling shares


below 50% in a PSUs amount to privatisation.

57. Ans. (c)


58. Ans. (c)

— FDI in Railways infrastructure recently approved upto 100%.

59. Ans. (d)


60. Ans. (c)

— Proposed in Budget 2014-15, finally the RBI has notified the guidelines in
Feb. ‘2015; under this concept, these banks are not authorised to
undertakelendingactivity at all. 61. Ans. (c)

— It is mainly a concept to boost food processing industries across the


country. Recently, the Govt. has approved 17 Mega Food Parks for food
processing out of which 7 parks have been allotted to state agencies whereas
10 to private players in 11 states.

62. Ans. (b)

— CPSEs have been rather allowed to buy the shares of other CPSEs from the
Govt. It’s called cross divestment.

63. Ans. (c)

— The Swachh Swasth Sarvatra is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Health


and Family Welfare and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation to
achieve better health outcomes through improved sanitation and increased
awareness and healthy lifestyles.

— President Pranab Mukherjee has inaugurated the 77th session of Indian


History Congress (IHC) at University of Kerala in Thiruvananthapuram,
Kerala on December 29, 2016.

64. (b)

— The powerful typhoon “Nock-Ten” has recently hit the coast near
Catanduanes Island in Philippines with winds up to 140 km/ hour. The
typhoon, locally known as Nina in the Philippines, damaged homes,
uprooting trees and knocked down communications. The typhoon is expected
to pass across the main island of Luzon, before heading into the South China
Sea.

65. (c)

— According to 2011 Census. Mizoram and Lakshadweep had the highest %


of its population as ST (~95%), while Punjab and Haryana had 0%.

— On 23 December 2016, the president has given his assent to declaration of


Irular community (including Villi and Vettaikaran) in the Scheduled Tribes
list. With this decision, Puducherry has got its first Scheduled Tribes.
66. Ans (c)

— Biotech Labs in Senior Secondary Schools (BliSS) is a scheme to


encourage students to consider careers in biotechnology. This scheme
envisages to establish labs in NorthEastern Pradesh, States viz. Assam,
Arunachal Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura,

Nagaland, Sikkim and Manipur.


67. Ans (d)

— The International Day of Persons with Disabilities is observed every year


on December 3 to promote an understanding of disability issues and mobilize
support for the dignity, rights and well-being of persons with disabilities
since 1992. It also seeks to increase awareness of gains to be derived from the
integration of persons with disabilities in every aspect of political, social,
economic and cultural life. The 2016 theme is “Achieving 17 Goals for the
Future We Want”. so option 2 is wrong.

— India has been ranked 102nd among 136 nations in the 2016 Enabling
Trade Index (ETI), as perrecently published ‘Global Enabling Trade Report
2016 of World Economic Forum (WEF) and the Global Alliance for Trade
Facilitation. The list is topped by Singapore followed by the Netherlands,
Hong Kong SAR, Luxembourg and Sweden. so option is wrong as well.

68. Ans (d)

— India’s one of the ancient practices “Yoga” has been inscribed as an


element in the UNESCO’s list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of humanity
during the 11th session of the Intergovernmental Committee for the
Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage held in Addis Ababa,
Ethiopia. With this, Yoga has become the 13th intangible cultural heritage
that has been listed from India so far with UNESCO. Previous ones includes
Chhau dance, Buddhist chanting of Ladakh, Sankirtana-the ritual singing,
drumming, and dancing of Manipur, the traditional brass and copper craft of
utensil making among the Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab and Ramlila-
the traditional performance of the Ramayana.
69. Ans. (a)

70. Ans. (b)

— The India Innovation Index (III) will be developed by the World Economic
Forum (WEF), NITI Aayog, World Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO) and Cornell University to measure innovation performance of Indian
states.

— It is an integrated approach to prevent micronutrient deficiencies and


complements other approaches to improve health and nutrition. This
enrichment process has proven as an effective strategy to meet the nutritional
needs of a large number of people across various sections of the society,
including the poor and underprivileged, pregnant women and young children.

71. Ans. (c)

— The committee under the Chairmanship of former Finance Secretary Sumit


Bose has recently submitted report on Socio Economic and Caste Census
(SECC) to the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD). The committee was
constituted to study the objective criteria for allocation of resources to States
and identification and prioritization of beneficiaries under various
programmes using SECC data.

72. Ans (a)

— The Pradhan Mantri YUVA Yojana has been launched by Rajiv Pratap
Rudy, who is the Minister of State (I/C) for Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship. It is the Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship (MSDE)’s flagship scheme on entrepreneurship education
and training.

73. Ans. (c)

— Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an


autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare, Government of India. The FSSAI has been established under the
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 which is a consolidating statute related
to food safety and regulation in India. FSSAI is responsible for protecting and
promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food
safety.
74. Ans. (d)

— The one-man judicial committee on One Rank One Pension (OROP) has
submitted its report to Defence Minister Manohar Parrikar. The Centre had
appointed the committee, under the Chairmanship of retired Chief Justice of
Patna High Court L Narasimha Reddy, to look into the anomalies, if any,
arising out of implementation of OROP.

75. Ans. (b)

— Antartica’s Ross Sea has been declared as world’s largest Marine Protected
Area (MPA) after the landmark international agreement among 24 countries
and theEuropean Union in the Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic
Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR) meeting in Hobart, Australia. With
33.7% salinity, the Dead Seais the world’s saltiest sea

76. Ans. (d)

— The Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs in collaboration with United Nations


Development Programme (UNDP) and National Scheduled Tribes Finance
and Development Corporation (NSTFDC) will launch “Vanjeevan” the
National Resource Centre for Tribal Livelihood issues at Bhubaneswar,
Odisha on December 22, 2016. Vanjeevan will be a programme to identify
the problems in livelihood issues in select districts of six states having low
HDI of tribal people in the first phase. The states are Assam, Gujarat,
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Odisha and Telangana. The programme will
focus on the identification of local resources, keeping in view the existing
skill level. So both the options are wrong.

77. Ans. (c)

— London has topped the 2016 Global Power City Index, as per 2016 GPCI
report, which was recently released by the Japan-based Mori Memorial
Foundation’s Institute for Urban Strategies. The report ranks 42 major cities
of the world across six key measures of economy, research and development,
culture, accessibility, environment and livability. Mumbai, the only Indian
city, ranked 39th on the list of theworld’s leading global cities for business,
innovation and culture.

— The United Nations’ (UN) International Day of Rural Women is observed


every year on October 15 to recognize rural women’s importance in
increasing agricultural and rural development worldwide. For 2016, the
International Day of Rural Women and World Food Day are focussing jointly
on the theme “Climate is changing. Food and agriculture must too”.

78. Ans. (a)

— Trojans are asteroids that are constant companions to planets in our solar
systemas they orbit the Sun, remaining near a stable point 60 degrees in front
of or behind the planet.

— Since they constantly lead or follow in the same orbit, they will never
collide with their companion planet.

— There are six planets in our solar system with known Trojan asteroids -
Jupiter, Neptune, Mars, Venus, Uranus and Earth.

79. Ans. (b)

— The International Day of the Girl Child (IDGC) is celebrated annually on


October 11 to recognize girls’ rights and the unique challenges girls face
around the world. The 2016 theme is “Girls’ Progress= Goals’ Progress:
What Counts forGirls”.

80. Ans. (d)


— The World’s first-ever Cybathlon championship for disabled athletes has
started at Zurich in Switzerland. The championship is popularly known as
‘Bionic Olympics’, it differs from the Paralympics as it sees participants
compete against each other using the latest assistive technologies such as
robotic prostheses, brain-computer interfaces and powered exoskeletons. It is
organized by the Swiss Federal Institute of Technology ETH Zurich.

81. Ans. (c)

— Sheikh Mohammed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, the crown prince of Abu Dhabi,
will be the chief guest for the 68th Republic Daycelebrations of India on
January 26, 2017.
82. Ans. (a)

— A recent UN Environment Programme Report reveals that global emissions


havecontinued to rise despite some signs of emissions from fossil fuels and
industries stabilizing.

— The emissions gap for 2030 is 12 to 14 Gt CO2e (Giga tonne CO2


equivalent) compared with 2°C scenarios and for 1.5°C the gap is three Gt
CO2e larger.

— Emissions gap is the difference between the emissions levels in 2020


necessary to meet climate targets, and the levels expected that year if
countries fulfill their promises to cut greenhouse gases.

— So, the emissions gap reveals how much more needs to be done by
countries in order to meet the target of keeping global warming levels below
the 2°C safe limit as agreed in the Paris climate accord last year.

83. Ans. (d)


84. Ans. (c)
85. Ans. (d)
86. Ans. (c)
87. Ans. (c)
88. Ans. (d)
89. Ans. (a)
90. Ans. (c)
— Laterite Soil is primarily found in the tropical areas which receive heavy
rainfall. High rainfall encourages the leaching of soil where lime and silica
are leached and a soil. 91. Ans. (b)

— Neger Desert is in Israel.


92. Ans. (b)

— Westerly Jet Stream blows over the northern Indian region in winter. The
Westerly Jet Stream is replaced by the easterly jet stream during summer.
This helps in the onset of monsoon.

93. Ans. (d)


94. Ans. (c)

— The Gomati originates from Gomat Taal which formally known as Fulhaar
Jheel near Madho Tanda Pilibhit, Uttar Pradesh.

95. Ans. (d)


96. Ans. (c)

— According to the plate tectonic theory a divergent plate boundary results


when plates move apart transform fault is located where plates slide one
another.

97. Ans. (a)


— Headquarter is located in Noida (UP).
98. Ans. (d)
99. Ans. (b)
100. Ans. (d)

— River Mekong has a length of about 4350 km. Rising in South eastern
Qinghai province, China, it flows through the eastern part of the Tibet and
Yunnan province after which if forms part of the international border
between Myanmar and Laos. Through Laos, it goes to Cambodia and
Vietnambefore draining into the South China Sea South of Ho Chi MinhCity.

GS PT TEST 4 - ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION


1. Ans. (a)

— Voicing the Indian opinion, Surendranath Banerjee publicly branded the


war as an act of sheer aggression and ‘as one of the most unrighteous wars
that have blackened the pages of history.”

2. Ans. (c)

— With one voice the Indian nationalists condemned the war upon the
Burmese people as being immoral, unwarranted, unjust, arbitrary and an act
of uncalled for aggression.

3. Ans. (b)
— Gaya Session of Congress– 1922
— Simon Commission– 1927
— Gandhi-Irwin Pact– 1931
— Tripuri Session of Congress– 1938

4. Ans. (d)

— The Indian National Army, also known as Azad Hind Fauj was an armed
force established in 1942 by Subhas Chandra Bose (initially Mohan Singh
established it in Singapore). There were several regiment, among the Rani
Jhansi Regiment, under Lakshmi Sehgal composed of female volunteers form
Malaya and Burma.

5. Ans. (c)

— The Madras Congress advised Indians not to go to China to fight or work


against the Chinese people who were fellow fighters in the struggle against
imperialism.

6. Ans. (c)

— The Muslim communalists continued to follow the politics of loyalty after


Syed Ahmed’s death. They openly sided with the Government. But the
attempt to keep the growing Muslim intelligentsia politically passie or
loyalist was not wholly successful. 7. Ans. (c)
— The liberal C.F. Andrews and Girija Mukherji fully accepted the safety-
valve theory in their work, The Rise and Growth of the Congress in India
published in 1938.

8. Ans. (c)

— KM Munshi founded the Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan in November 7, 1938. It


is an educational trust.

9. And. (b)

— Mahatma Gandhi has nominated P. Sitaramayna for the presidentship of the


congress in 1939 against Subhas Chandra Bose. He lost occurring to Subhas
Chandra Bose’s rising popularity.

10. Ans. (c)

— By 1885, the formation of an all-India political organization had become an


objective necessity, and the necessity was being recognized by nationalists all
over the country. Many recent scholars have furnished detailed information
on the many moves that were made in that direction from 1877.

11. Ans. (b)


— The early national leaders did not organize mass movements against the
British. 12. Ans. (a)

— Tilak initiated a no-tax Campaign in Maharashtra during 1896-97 with the


help of the young workers of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha.

13. Ans. (c)

— The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878 under the Governor General
of Lord Lytton, for the better contract of Indian languages newspaper. The act
was repeated on December 7, 1881. When Lord Ripon was made Governor-
General and Viceroy of India. 14. Ans. (b)

— The Bengal Gazette was founded by James Augustus Hickky, an Irish. The
newspaper was founded in 1780.
15. Ans. (c)

— Born in 1845 in Bombay, Pherozeshah Mehta came under Dadabhai


Naoroji’s influence while studying law in London during the 1860s. He was
one of the founders of the Bombay Presidency Association as also the Indian
National Congress.

16. Ans. (c)


— Boycott and public burning of foreign cloth, picketing of shops selling
foreign goods, all became common in remote corners of Bengal as well as in
many important towns and cities throughout the country.

17. Ans. (a)

— Taking a cue fromTagore’s Shantiniketan, the Bengal National College was


founded with Aurobindo as the principal.

18. Ans. (a)

— Raja Ram Mohan Roy, founded the Brahmo Samaj in influential


movement. 1828, Brahmo Samaj was an

Indian Socio-religious reform Devendra Nath Tagore immediately succeeded


Ram Mohan Roy as the head of the Brahmo Samaj.

19. Ans. (b)


— Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who is popularly known as Lokmanya Tilak, was an
Indian nationalist, teacher’s social reformer and independence fighter. In
1916, in the Lucknow session of Congress he successfully attempted to
rewrite the Congress which separated in 1907 in Surat, hence proposed to
accept all the proposal for the Muslim League.

20. Ans. (c)

— Swadeshi Movement with its multi-faceted programme and activity was


able to draw for the first time large sections of society.

21. Ans. (b)


— In 1888, Dufferin, the Viceroy, attacked the National Congress in a public
speech and ridiculed it as representing only the elite ‘a microscopic
minority.” George Hamilton, Secretary of State for India, accused the
Congress leaders of possessing‘seditious and double sidedcharacter.’
22. Ans. (a)

— After 1905 several newspapers openly (and a few leaders secretly) began to
advocate revolutionary terrorism.

23. Ans. (a)

— Tarak Nath Das in Vancouver started the Free Hindustan and adopted a
very militant nationalist tone.

24. Ans. (a)


— Annie Besant’s words
25. Ans. (a)

— The Hindu widow’s remarriage Act, 1856 enacted on 25 July, 1856,


legalized the remarriage of Hindu widows. The act was enacted in response
to the campaign of Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

26. Ans. (a)

— The Rashtrakutas Empire was a royal dynasty ruling large part of the Indian
subcontinent between the 6th and 10th centuries. Jainism was patronized by
Rashtrakutas.

27. Ans (c)

— The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) is a government


regulatory agency that controls the prices of pharmaceutical drugs in India. It
is under Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and
Fertilizers it was established in 1997. It has been givenpowers to implement
and enforce the Drugs Price Control Order (DPCO), 1995/2013. It can fund
studies regarding pricing of drugs.

28. Ans (a)


— "Asli Tarakki” (Real development) wouldbe the name of the new awareness
campaign for Swachh Bharat mission

29. Ans (c)

— The Union Cabinet has approved the incorporation of Sagarmala


Development Company (SDC) to give a push to port-led economic
development under ambitious Sagarmala project. SDC will beincorporated
under the Companies Act, 2013.

30. Ans (a)

— The G20 (or G-20 or Group of Twenty) is an international forum for the
governments and central bank governors from 20 major economies. It was
founded in 1999 with the aim and abundance of fish and mussels, Polachira
of studying, reviewing, and promoting highis a favorite destination for
migratory birds. A level discussion of policy issues pertaining to 2003 census
conducted at Polachira recorded the promotion of international financial over
26000 birds belonging to 37 species.
stability. The members include 19 individual 35. Ans (a)countries Argentina, Australia,
Brazil, Canada,
China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, — Scientific Social Responsibility·
Italy, Japan, South Korea, Mexico, Russia, — It is analogous to CSR.Saudi Arabia, South
Africa, Turkey, United
Kingdom and United States – along with — SSR shall include encouraging
innovation

the European Union (EU). The EU is and applying scientific models for the
benefit represented by the EuropeanCommission and of society.
by the European CentralBank. — SSR also includes promoting greener options/
31. Ans
(d) climate friendly innovations and research
— ASEAN is an alliance promoting economic models.
and political cooperation by fostering — SSR would promote scientific excellence in
dialogue among its 10 Southeast Asian all stakeholders including educationalmembers. (Timor is the
only South East Asian institutions.country which is not the member of ASEAN).
— RCEP consists of all ten ASEAN countries36. Ans (b)
plus six countries (China, Japan, South ● Aleppo is a city in Syria, serving as
the capital Korea, Australia, India, and New Zealand) of the Aleppo
Governorate, the most which have trade agreements with ASEAN populous
Syrian governorate.
countries. — The Battle of Aleppo was a major military 32. Ans (c) confrontation in
Aleppo, the largest city
— AVA shells contain Pelargonic Acid Vanillylin Syria, between the Syrian opposition
Amide, an organic compound found in chilli (including the Free Syrian Army (FSA) and
pepper. It derives its name from the compound,other Sunni groups, such as the Levant
which is also known as Nonivamide. It is Front and the Al-Qaeda-affiliated Al-Nusra
considered to be biosafe, less lethal than pellet Front), against the government
of Bashar alguns and equally effective.
Assad, supported by Hezbollah, Shia militias and Russia, and against the
KurdishPeople’s— It is also used as a food additive to add
Protection Units.pungency,
flavouring and spicy effect to food.
33. Ans. (a)37. Ans (d)
— China has started the construction of two — Rosetta was a spaceprobebuilt by the
European phase Ngari wave observatory in NgariSpace Agency launched on 2 March 2004. territory of
Tibet close to Indian border, whichAlong with Philae, its lander module, Rosetta will house world’s
highest altitudeperformed a detailed study of comet 67P/ Gravitational WaveTelescope.Churyumov–
Gerasimenko (67P). During its
journey to the comet, the spacecraft flew by — The main aim of this project is
to find more Mars and the asteroids 21 Lutetia and 2867 about the Big Bang
theory.
Šteins. It was launched as the third cornerstone 38. Ans (b)mission of the ESA's Horizon
2000 programme,
after SOHO / Cluster and XMM-Newton. — The police can register FIRs only
for 34.

Ans (a)
cognizable offences – where the police have the power to arrest without a
warrant.

● Polachira is a wetlandspread over 600 hectares Examples of cognizable


offences include located near Paravur Municipality in Kollam murder, rape,
theft, attack, etc. For non District of Kerala.As a result of thebiodiversity
cognizable offences, such as bigamy or defamation, the police cannot arrest
without a warrant and thus cannot register an FIR. The complaint is sent to
theJudicial Magistrate for action. Recently the Supreme Court of India made
it mandatory for the police to upload within 48hours a First Information
Report (FIR) drawn up by it suo motu or on acomplaint.

— According to the order, there will be exemption from the directive when the
alleged offence is sensitive, such as sexual violence or one in which there is
an angle of national security, insurgency or terrorism. We endorse this
exception, because we are living in times when both privacy and terror issues
matter greatly.

39. Ans. (d)

— Riclosan, similar in its uses and mechanism of action to triclocarban, is an


antibacterial and antifungal agent found in consumer products,
includingtoothpaste, soaps, detergents, toys, and surgical cleaning treatments.
Its efficacy as an antimicrobial agent, the risk of antimicrobial resistance, and
its possible role in disrupted hormonal development remain controversial.
Additional research seeks to understand its potential effects on organisms and
environmentalhealth.

40. Ans. (d)

— Startup India campaign is based on an action plan aimed at promoting bank


financing for start-up ventures to boost entrepreneurship and encourage start
ups with jobs creation.

— To facilitate the growth of Start-ups in India through a competitive


platform, the profits of start-ups are given exemption for a 3 year period from
income tax.

41. Ans. (a)

— The Account shall mature on completion of a period of twenty-one years


from the date of its opening.
42. Ans. (d)
43. Ans. (a)
44. Ans. (d)
45. Ans. (d)
46. Ans. (c)
— The higher concentration of dust particles is

found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to


equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei
around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.

— Water vapour also decreases from the equator towards the poles. It also
absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated
heat. It thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold
nor too hot.

47. Ans. (a)

— National Watershed Development Project for Rainfall Areas is under


Ministry of Agriculture. It is aimed at treating degraded lands with the help
of low cost and locally assessed technologies.

— The basic object of the desert development programme is to minimise the


adverse effect of drought and control desertification through rejuvenation of
natural resource base of the identified desert areas.

— Drought prone area programme is launched by Central Government in


1973-74 to tackle the special problems faced by those fragile areas which are
constantly affected by severe drought conditions. This programme is under
Ministry of Rural development.

48. Ans. (c)


— Laterite soil develops by intensive and long lasting weathering of
underlying locks. Laterite soil is rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in
nitrogen, phosphoric acid, potash lime and carbon. This soil is found in those
regions which receive heavy rainfall with hot and wet areas.

— The black soil found in the deccan trap is known as regur soil it is suitable
for growing cotton. This soil is rich in iron calcium, lime, potash, aluminium
and magnesium while it lacks nitrogen, phosphorus and humus content.

49. Ans. (c)


50. Ans. (d)
51. Ans. (c)
52. Ans. (d)
— Sea breeze refers to the wind system which blows Iron sea towards the land
during day time. Land breeze is the wind system which blows from land
towards the sea during the night. The priwar cause for the sea and land breeze
is the fact that with similar exposure to the solar energy the band and water
body gets heated by differently.
53. Ans. (d)
— Maximum land area in India is covered by the Tropical Moist Deciduous
Forest. Teak and Sal the main species found here. Tropical Moist Deciduous
Forests are found in region of rainfall ranging 100-200cm. in the areas of
eastern slopes of the Sahyadri, Shivalik range and the Bhabar and Terai
region. The vegetation found here is economically rich. — In India a mixture
of evergreen, deciduous and mangroove forest is found in Andaman and
Nicobar islands Tropical Evergreen Forests are found in the hot and humid
regions of India. Where rainfall is morethan 200cm and temperature is above
22°C. Humidity in these places is more than 70%. 54. Ans. (c)
55. Ans. (b)
— When the river water is as dense as the sea water, it is called a lobate or fan
shaped delta refers to the deposition which is mostly a triangular shaped.
Sundarban is the largest delta in the world.
56. Ans. (b)
57. Ans. (d)
58. Ans. (a)
— The Union Ministry of Urban Development has approved projects worth
Rs.114 crore under HRIDAY scheme for improving infrastructure facilities
around core heritage sites in five cities.
59. Ans. (b)
60. Ans. (c)
61. Ans. (b)
62. Ans. (c)
63. Ans. (a)
64. Ans. (d)
— The motive of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sinchai Yojana will be to take
irrigation water to each and every agricultural field in the country. statement
2 is wrong too because no such time line is there.
65. Ans. (c)

— Operation Sankat Mochan (Hindi: lit.

Saviour) was an operation of the Indian Air Force to evacuate Indian citizens
and other foreign nationals from South Sudan during the South Sudanese
Civil War. The operation was carried out in view of 2016 Juba clashes

66. Ans. (b)

— Its by japan, KITE (Kounotori Integrated Tether Experiment) was an


experimental electrodynamic tether (EDT). The tether was equipped with a
20 kg end-mass, and would have been 700m long when deployed.

— A maximum current of 10 mA was planned to run through the tether.


Kounotori's ISS rendezvous sensor would have been utilized to measure how
the end-mass moves during the test. The EDT experiment was scheduled
following Kounotori 6's departure from the ISS, with a planned duration of
one week. After the experiment, the tether would have been separated
beforethespacecraft proceeds with the de-orbit maneuvers. The main
objective of this experiment were the orbital demonstration of both extending
an uncoated bare-tether, and driving electric currents through the EDT. These
two technologies will contribute to gaining capabilities to remove space
debris.

67. Ans. (d)

— The Global Terrorism Index (GTI) is an attempt to systematically rank the


nations of the world according to terrorist activity. The index combines a
number of factors associated with terrorist attacks to build an explicit picture
of the impact of terrorism over a 10-year period, illustrating trends, and
providing a data series for analysis by researchers and policymakers. It is the
product of Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP). India ranks 7th.
68. Ans. (b)

— The 2017 UNESCO Natural Heritage Festival was held at Great Himalayan
National Park (GHNP) in Sairopa, Himachal Pradesh.

69. Ans. (a)

— Khangchendzonga National Park also Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a


National Park and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim.
70. Ans. (b)

— The DRDO Netra is an Indian, light-weight, autonomous UAV for


surveillance and reconnaissance operations. It has been jointly developed by
the Defence Research and Development Organisation's Research and
Development Establishment (R&DE), and Idea Forge, a Mumbai-based
private firm.

71. Ans. (b)

— Barren Island is an island located in the Andaman Sea. It is the only


confirmed active volcano in South Asia, and the only active volcano along a
chain of volcanoes from Sumatra to Myanmar. Along with the rest of the
Andaman Islands, it is a part of the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and
Nicobar Islands, and lies about 138 km (86 mi) northeast of the territory's
capital, Port Blair.

72. Ans. (d)

— The Jan Aushadhi Scheme (Public Medicine Scheme) isa direct market
intervention scheme of the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of
Chemicals and Fertilizers {not health ministry}. Its aim is to makeavailable
quality generic medicines to all at affordable prices through Jan Aushadhi
Store (JAS) opened in each district of the state.

— Non-governmental organizations, charitable institutions, professional


private hospitals, reputed

organizations and self help groups can open new Jan Aushadhi stores. 73.
Ans. (d)

— Each year on June 20 the United Nations, United Nations Refugee Agency
(UNHCR) and countless civic groups around the world host World Refugee
Day events in order to draw the public's attention to the millions of refugees
and Internally displaced persons worldwide who have been forced to flee
their homes due to war, conflict and persecution. It is observed by, United
Nations Refugee Agency (UNHCR).

74. Ans. (c)

— Alfred Wegner propounded the continental drift theory in 1912 to explain


the global climate changes. According to the theory the super continent called
PANGEA started breaking and drifting away loading to present continental
set up.
75. Ans. (a)

— The westerlies blow with much greater force in southern hemisphere


hemisphere because in than northern the southern

hemisphere. There is more of ocean and less of land in comparison to


northern hemisphere.

76. Ans. (c)


77. Ans. (b)

— The doldrums refers to those parts of the Atlantic and Pacific Ocean
affected by inter tropical convergence zone a low pressure area around the
equator where the prevailing winds are calm.

78. Ans. (c)

— The best known example of divergent boundaries is the Mid-Atlantic


Ridge. At this the American Plates is/are separated from the Eurasian and
African plates. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally
perpendicular to the mid oceanic ridges. Where the crust is neither produced
nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other.
79. Ans. (c)
80. Ans. (c)

— The major factors affecting the formation of soil relief, paruct material,
climate, vegetation and other life forms and time. Besides these, human
activities also influence it to a large extent. Component of the soil are mineral
particles humus, water and air.Theactualamount of each of these depends
upon the type of soil.

81. Ans. (c)

— In weathering there is no movement and it is an in-situ process. In soil


creep and land slide there is mass movement of soil and debris respectively
so they come under the phenomena of mass movement.

82. Ans. (b)

— Large and Continuous supply of warm and moist air is the most important
condition for formation of tropical cyclone. Where coriolis force is zero (like
equator) tropical cyclone do not develop. An upper level out flow of air (and
not inflow) helps in formation of tropical cyclone.
83. Ans. (a)

— The U.P. Kisan Sabha was set up in February 1918 through the efforts of
Gauri Shankar Misra and lndra Narain Dwivedi, and with the support of
Madan Mohan Malaviya.

84. Ans. (c)

— He met Gauri Shankar Misra and Jawaharlal Nehru and asked them to visit
the villages to see for themselves the living conditions of the tenants.

85. Ans. (c)

— As a result, women often outnumbered men at the meetings and stood firm
in their resolve not to submit to Government threats.

86. Ans. (d)


— A veteran of the Kheda Satyagraha, the Nagpur Flag Satyagraha, and the
Borsad Punitive Tax Satyagraha, he had emerged as a leader of Gujarat who
was second only to Gandhiji.

87. Ans. (a)

— In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji Bengalee tried unsuccessfully to introduce a


Bill in the Bombay Legislative Council to limit the working hours for labour.

88. Ans. (d) Dadabhai Naoroji


89. Ans. (c)

— Cornwallis was the first Governor General who paid his attention to the
revenue reforms and attained a great success and tremendous fame.

90. Ans. (b)

— The East India Company regulations had disturbed the ways of life of the
religious mendicants like the Muslim fakirs and Hindu sannyasis in several
ways.It began from the early 1760s and subsided in the 1790s.

91. Ans. (a)


92. Ans. (b)

— Western Coast of continents have cold currents. Coral reefs do not flourish
where there are cold currents because of the upwelling of the cold water from
depths that cools the warm surface water.

93. Ans. (b)


94. Ans. (d)
— The differences in local climate of India is influenced by following three
factors.

(i) Distribution of air pressure and winds on the surface of the earth (ii)
Upper air circulation caused by factor controlling global weather and the
inflow of different air masses and jet stream (iii) Inflow of Western Cyclones
generally known as western disturbances during the winter season and
tropical depression during the south-west monsoon period in to India.
Creating weather condition favorable to rainfall.

95. Ans. (b)

— The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone(ITCZ) is a low pressure zone located


at the equator where trade wind converge and so, it is a zone where air tends
to ascend. In July the ITCZ is located around 20ºN - 25ºN latitudes (over the
gangetic plain) same times called monsoon trough. Meteorologist have found
an interrelationship between the northward shift of the equatorial trough
(ITCZ) and the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream from over the North
Indian plain. It is generally believed that there is a cause and effect
relationship between the two.

96. Ans. (a)

— The Chambal, Sind, Betwa and the Ken which belongs to Ganga river
system originates from the peninsular plateau.

97. Ans. (d)


98. Ans. (d)

— Mango Showers - towards the end of summer there are pre-monsoon


showers which are a common phenomena in Kerala and Coastal area of
Karnataka. Locally they are known as mango showers since they help in early
ripening of mangoes.

99. Ans. (c)


100. Ans. (d)

— Equator receives less insolation than tropic due to heavycloud cover.


Insolation is theamount of the sun light received at the surface of earth per
unit area. So the clouds obstructs the sunlight and hence equator receives less
insolation. Similarly oceans are significantly cloudier than continents hence
receives less insolation.

GS PT TEST 5 - ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION


1. Ans. (d) 1. Money Bill (Art. 110)
— Parliament can amend the constitution in all 2. the ways given as simple
majority is used in
provisions like admission are establishment3. Financial Bill [Art. 117(1)]

Financial Bill - [Art. 117 (3)] of new states, formation of new states, — Statement is true
is like money bill it can also abolition of new states, ouarum in Parliament, be introduced in
Lok Sabha only.salaries and allowances of me's, citizenship,
UT's etc. 5. Ans. (d)
— By special majority provision like — Statement 1 incorrect as Privilege is
available fundamental duties, DPSP etc are amended. in civil case only.

— By special majority of Parliament and consent — Under Individual


Privileges they are of states provisions like Election of President exempted
from jury services. They can refuse and its manner, Supreme Court and High
to give evidence and appear as a witness in a Court, Distribution of
legislative power case pending in a court when Parliament is between the
Union and the states, power of in session.
parliament to amend the Constitution etc.6. Ans. (b)

— Statement 1 is incorrect as they cannot Pardon — Statement 1 is


2. Ans. (a)
correct. a death sentence as the power to grant pardon

— Statement 2 is incorrect as Rajya Sabha canlies with President only. — Statement 2


is correct.create All India Services for centre only. Also
All India means including all states, this7. Ans. (a)clearly indicates there is no as such All
India

Services for state is possible. — Special leave jurisdiction of Supreme Court 3.


Ans. (d)
and jurisdiction of Election Commission are applicable to the state.
— In DPSP Article 45 have a bearing on 8. Ans. (d)education.

— 7th Schedule mention union list, state list and — Under Article 37 1-A provisions
provided in concurrent
Education
list. To be note here is that the question are true other one are religious including
technical education, or social practices of the Nagas.
Medical Education and Universities comes9. Ans. (c)under concurrent list.
—
Rural and Urban local bodies also
have
— Statement 1 is correct as Act of 1861 made a beginning of representative
institution by bearing on education. associating Indians with law making process.
4. Ans. (c) — Statement 2 is also true as it empowered the — Financial Bill -

Financial Bills are those billviceroy to issue ordinance without the that deal with fiscal matter
that is revenueor concurrence of the Legislative Council during expenditure. They
are of three kinds


emergency. The lite of such emergency was six months.

10. Ans. (a)


— Statement 1 is correct.

— Statement 2 is incorrect as representative of princely states were to be


nominated by heads of princely states only.

11. Ans. (b)

● Project Iceworm was the code name for a top secret United States Army
program during the Cold War to build a network of mobile nuclear missile
launch sites under the Greenland ice sheet. The ultimate objective of placing
medium-range missiles under the ice— close enough to strike targets within
the Soviet Union— was kept secret from the Danish government.

12. Ans. (a)

● The Revolutionary Armed Forces of Colombia — People’s Army (Spanish:


Fuerzas Armadas Revolucionarias de Colombia— Ejército del Pueblo,
FARC–EP and FARC) was a guerrilla movement involved in the continuing
Colombian armed conflict since 1964.

13. Ans. (d)


14. Ans. (b)
— Rotavirus is the primary cause of moderate to severe diarrhea morbidity and
mortality for children less than five years of age in India. India has
introduced the Rotavac, new rotavirus vaccine against the Rotavirus
gastroenteritis.

15. Ans (b)

— Chinese White Dolphins, or“aquatic pandas” are believed to present on


earth since the time of Dinosaurs are said to be facing extinction. Individuals
of this mammal species are said to reach the lowest numbers of just 100from
its population of 1000s. It is said that lack of natural reproduction has
triggered thesame.

16. Ans. (a)

— M.F. Hussain was a leading member of the Progressive Artists’ Group,


Bombay which came into being six years after the Young Turks held their
first exhibition in 1941. The members of Young Turks were: P.T. Reddy,
A.A. Majeed, M.Bhople, M.Y Kulkarni and C. Baptista.

17. Ans. (b)


— Pikas are members of the rabbit family and look like tailless rats.
— They are a keystone species and ecosystem engineers.

— Keystone species is a species whose addition to or loss from an ecosystem


leads to major changes in occurrence of at least one other species.

— Certain species in an ecosystem is considered more important in


determining the presence of many other species in that ecosystem.

— If keystone species is lost, it will result in the degradation of whole


ecosystem.
18. Ans. (b)

— America recently carried out air strikes against Islamic State (ISIS)
militants in Iraq to assist Iraqi forces in their effort to break the siege of
Mount Sinjar, where people from the surrounding area, mostly from religious
minority Yezidis, had fled to take shelter from the jihadists.
19. Ans. (c)

— The dwellers of Majuli are mostly of the Mising or Mishing tribes from
Arunachal Pradesh who immigrated here centuries ago. Apart from them, the
inhabitants are from the Deori and Sonowal Kacharis tribes. Languages
spoken are Missing, Assamese, and Deori.

20. Ans. (c)

— The e-Court system to be launched during the inaugural function is aimed at


enabling speedy disposal of Appeals/Complaints by using digital technology.

— The system will allow online filing of appeals/complaints and case


disposals using latest technology.

— The system will generate a unique number which can be used by the
applicant for tracking the status of a case filed with the Commission.

— As soon as a case is filed online or offline, the system will generate


SMS/email alert to the applicant.

27. Ans. (b)


— There is no mandatory allocation for health sector.

— Alerts will also be generated to inform the applicant at the stage of


Registration, issue of Facilitation Memo, scheduling of thecase hearing and
also at the stage of decision uploading.

— Thesystem will offer an online search facility which allows a user to search
for Dak, File, Hearing Notice and Decision etc.

21. Ans. (c) 28. Ans. (a)

— The proposal to set up an expert committee to study and promote creation


of an operational and legal framework to integrate the spot and derivatives
market in the agricultural sector will help farmers improve their post-harvest
risk by hedging on the commodity exchanges and improving their
realisations.
— FINANCING FROM RBI is a not a non debt receipt.
29. Ans. (d)
22. Ans. (b) — New health program will increase government spending.

23. Ans. (b) ● Smart Cities Mission is an urban renewal and retrofitting
program by the Government of India with a mission to develop 100 cities (the
target has been revised to 109 cities) all over the country making them citizen
friendly and sustainable.

● Economic activity rate, EAR (or labor force participation rate, LFPR),
is the percentage of the population, bothemployed and unemployed, that
constitutes the manpower supply of the labor market, regardless of their
current labor status.

— This figure is a measure of the degree of success of the economy in


engaging the population in some activity.
form of production

— It is an indicator demographic trends. 24. Ans. (a)


that also reflects

— The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by


the World Economic Forum. Since 2004.

25. Ans. (d) — AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
Transformation): The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra
Modi in June 2015 with the focus of the urban renewal projects is to establish
infrastructure that could ensure adequate robust sewerage networks and water
supply for urban transformation.

— The Ministry of Urban Development, Government of India, launched the


National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana
(HRIDAY) scheme on 21st January, 2015, with a focus on holistic
development of heritage cities. The scheme aims to preserve and revitalise
soul of the heritage city to reflect thecity’s unique character by encouraging
aesthetically appealing, accessible, informative & secured environment.

26. Ans. (d)


— Agriculture and Allied Sector contributed approximately 14% of India’s
GDP. Area dependent on rainfall is around 60%.

● Swachh Bharat mission is a campaign by the Government of India to


clean the streets, roads and infrastructure of thecountry’s 4,041 statutory
cities and towns.

30. Ans. (b)


Rank
Country
Exports
Imports
Total Trade Trade Balance 1 China 9,010.35 61,706.83 70,717.18
-52,696.48 2 United States 40,335.82 21,781.39 62,117.21 18,554.43 3United
Arab 30,290.01 19,445.68 49,735.69 10,844.33
Emirates

4 Saudi Arabia 6,394.23 20,321.33 26,715.56 -13,927.1


5 Switzerland 977.17 19,299.49 20,276.66 -18,322.32
6 Germany 7,092.89 12,088.37 20,325.20 -5,250.52
7 Hong Kong 12,092.21 6,051.66 19,171.87 8,027.89
8 Indonesia 2,819.54 13,131.93 19,047.96 -10,961.32
9 South Korea 3,522.64 13,047.12 18,132.06 -8,926.16
10 Malaysia 3,706.86 9,083.83 16,934.29 -5,301.19

31. Ans. (b)


— Michael Clarke– My Story
32. Ans. (c)

— Both the statements are true regarding Citizenship in India.


33. Ans. (c)
— Both the statements are correct in regard of Right to Freedom.
34. Ans. (c)

— Both the statements are correct in regard of DPSP. Though directly DPSP
does not help courts but in many cases it has helped courts in examining and
determing theConstitutional validity of a law.

35. Ans. (a)


— Statement 1 is correct with regard of Article 368.

— Statement 2 is incorrect as the bill can be introduced either by a Minister or


by a private member.

— Statement 3 is incorrect as the bill must be passed by special majority.


36. Ans. (d)
— All the feature provided are merits of Parliamentary form of government.
37. Ans. (d)
— All the features provided are Unitary feature of Indian Constitution.
38. Ans. (b)

— National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Special Officer for


linguistic minorities are constitutional bodies that mean they are created
under the provisions of the Constitution.

— National

National Human Right Commission and Development Council are


NonConstitutional bodies.

39. Ans. (c)

— The National Commission for ST's submits its annual report to the
President, the President places such reports before the parliament.

40. Ans. (b)


— Both statements are individually true but statement is not correctly
explaining statement 1 as both the statements are not synonymous with each
other.

41. Ans. (c)

— Statement 1 is correct as CAG has no control over the issue of money from
the consolidated fund and many departments are authorised to draw money
from by issuing cheques without specific authority from the CAG.

— CAG of India is Constitutional body. Thus statement 2 is correct.


42. Ans. (b)
— Statement 1 is incorrect as Advocate-General of a State is appointed by
Governor not by President.

— Statement 2 is correct.
43. Ans. (a)

— Statement 1 is correct as like National Human Right Commission, State


Human Right Commission is also Non-Constitutional body.

— Statement 2 is incorrect as only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court can


be appointed as Chairperson.

— Statement 3 is incorrect as recommendation of state Human Right


Commission can recommend to the State Government it's not binding on the
state government.

44. Ans. (d)

— The Commission submits its annual report to the Central Government


which places it before each house of the Parliament.

45. Ans. (c)


— Both the statements provided for state Information Commission are correct.
46. Ans. (c)

— It is a large multi radio telescope project aimed to be built in Australia and


South Africa.

— Both South Africa’s Karoo region and Western Australia’s Murchison Shire
were chosen as co-hosting locations.

47. Ans. (c)


48. Ans. (c)

— Established in April 1987, the voluntary Missile Technology Control


Regime (MTCR) aims to limit the spread of ballistic missiles and other
unmanned delivery systems that could be used for chemical, biological, and
nuclear attacks. The regime urges its 35 members,1 which include most of
theworld’s key missile manufacturers, to restrict their exports of missiles and
related technologies capable of carrying a 500 kilogram payload at least 300
kilometres or delivering any type of weapon of mass destruction.

— The Wassenaar Arrangement on Export Controls for Conventional Arms


and DualUse Goods and Technologies.

— The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), for the control of nuclear related
technology.

— The Australia Group (AG) for control of chemical and biological


technology that could be weaponized.

— The Missile Technology Control Regimefor the control of rockets and other
aerial vehicles capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction.

49. Ans. (a)


50. Ans. (a)
51. Ans. (a)

● Neurocalyx calycinus is a shrub endemic to South West India, found in


evergreen forests. Recent researches suggests this plant has wound-healing,
burn-healing, anti-cancer, analgesic, anti-inflammatory, immunoenhancing,
platelet-augmentation and antioxidant effects.

52. Ans. (a)

— Artemisinin, also known as qinghao su, and its semi-synthetic derivatives


are a group of drugs used against Plasmodium falciparum malaria.

53. Ans. (c)

— “Bunkar Mitra”, the Government ofIndia’s Helpline for Handloom


Weavers, went live . The helpline was launched by the Union Textiles
Minister Smt. Smriti Zubin Irani on December 25, 2016 on the occasion
of“Good GovernanceDay”.

54. Ans. (a)


— The Internet of things (IoT) is the internetworking of physical devices,
vehicles (also referred toas “connected devices” and “smart devices”),
buildings, and other items embedded with electronics, software, sensors,
actuators, and network connectivity that enable these objects to collect and
exchange data. In 2013 the Global Standards Initiative on Internet of Things
(IoT-GSI) defined the IoT as “the infrastructure of the information
society.”The IoT allows objects to be sensed or controlled remotely across
existing network infrastructure, creating opportunities for more direct
integration of the physical world into computer-based systems, and resulting
in improved efficiency, accuracy and economic benefit in addition to reduced
human intervention.

55. Ans. (a)


— Yes, High Court can over-rule itself in some manner as Supreme Court.
56. Ans. (c)

— Statement 1 is correct as Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir declare Order


as official language not Kashmiri.

— Statement 2 is correct.
57. Ans. (c)
— Ashok Mehta Committee Report.

— Ashok Mehta Committee for the first time suggested for having elections of
Panchayati Raj institutions on Political Party basis.

58. Ans. (a)

— Statement 1 is true as member as well as chair person of UPSC is appointed


by the President of India.

— Statement 2 is incorrect as the chairman as well as member are not eligible


for reappointment to that office.

— Statement 3 is incorrect as member holds office for six years or until


theyattain age of 65 year whichever is earlier.

59. Ans. (d)


— Alternative Expenditure Policy - Estimate Committee
— Appointment of High Court Judges - President

— Co-ordination in Central - Cabinet Secretary Principles governing grant in


aid to states Finance Commission.

60. Ans. (d)

— Statement 1 is incorrect as State Legislature may make the Provisions for


the incorporation regulation of co-operative societies.

— Statement 2 is incorrect as the number of directors should not exceed 21.


61. Ans. (b)
— In deciding the service for members of All India Services Parliament has
the authority. 62. Ans. (d)

— Document provided in the question are all provided to the legislature along
with the Budget.

— Apart from that salary and allowances of President, Supreme Court judges
as well as High Court Judges, Lokpal etc. also charged upon consolidated
fund of India.

63. Ans. (d)

— Statement 1 is incorrect as Finance Commission consist of a chairman and


four other members to be appointed byPresident.

— Statement 2 is correct.
— Statement 3 is incorrect as Parliament is authorise to determine the
qualification.

— Statement 4 is true.
64. Ans. (d)

— Pleasure of Governor means Pleasure of Legislative Assembly as Council


of Minister shall be collectively responsible to the State Legislative
Assembly.
65. Ans. (d)
— All the sources provided in question are those from where UPSC derives its
functions. 66. Ans. (d)

— Article 266 of the Constitution of India requires revenues received by the


Government of India to be paid to the Consolidated Fund of India.

— All expenditure shown in the question are charged from Consolidation Fund
of India. 67. Ans. (c)

— Estimate Committee is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30


members elected every year by the Lok Sabha from among its members. The
chairman is appointed by the speaker who is in variably from ruling party.

68. Ans. (c)


69. Ans. (d)

— LokAdalat settle disputethrough conciliation and compromise Legal


Service Authorities Act 1987. All above comes under Lok Adalat apart from
that partition suits, damages and matrimonial cases etc. also be settled in Lok
Adalat.

70. Ans. (c)

— The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act 2011 relating to the co-operatives


is aimed to encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help
progress of rural India.

— In this regard both the statements are true. 71. Ans. (d)

— It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central


Government. — Statement 2 is correct.

— Statement 3 is incorrect as salary and allowances of CVC are similar to


those of Chairman of UPSC.

72. Ans. (a)


— Statement 1 and 2 is correct.
— Statement 3 is incorrect as its the power of Parliament alter the name of a
state. — Statement 4 is also incorrect as it's not only confine to Citizen of
India.

73. Ans. (b)


— The codes are the correct sequence of events.
74. Ans. (d)

— Article 110 (1) of Constitution, a bill deemed to be a Money Bill of it


contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following like
imposition, abolition, remission or regulation of any tax, regulation of
borrowing by the government custody contingency or consolidated fund,
appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India etc. Hence all
the provided statements falls under money bill.

75. Ans. (a)

— All the given sub-forum are part of Parliamentary forum of youth except
subforum on empowerment.

76. Ans. (a)


— Cut-Motion: It is use to reduce demand for grant. They are of three types –

(i) Policy cut motion.


(ii) Economy cut motion.
(iii) Token cut motion.

— Except option (a) all the other options are relevant as per the purpose of cut
motion. 77. Ans. (c)

— Statement 1 is correct as Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the


President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of
any offence in all cases where the:

(i) Punishment are sentence is for an offence against a Union Law.


(ii) Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court); and
(iii) Sentence is a sentence of dealth.
— Statement 2 is correct as under Article 72 President is having the power of
'commutation' under which he can substitute one form of punishment for a
lighter form.

78. Ans. (c)

● Meningitis is an acute inflammation of the protective membranes covering


the brain and spinal cord, known collectivelyas the meninges. The most
common symptoms are fever, headache and neck stiffness. The inflammation
may be caused by infection with viruses, bacteria, or other micro organisms,
and less commonly by certain drugs.

79. Ans. (b)

— The Panglong Agreement was reached in Panglong, Southern Shan State,


between the Burmese government under Aung San and the Shan, Kachin, and
Chin peoples on 12 February 1947.

80. Ans. (d)


● Polymetallic nodules, also called manganese nodules, are rock
concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and
manganese hydroxides around a core. The core may be microscopically small
and is sometimes completely transformed into manganese minerals by
crystallization.

81. Ans. (b)


— Simlipal National Park is a national park and a tiger reserve in the
Mayurbhanj district in the Indian state of Odisha.

82. Ans. (b)


— The National Maritime Foundation (NMF) conducted its Annual Maritime
Power Conference-2017 at the Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses
(IDSA) Auditorium, Development Enclave, New Delhi, on 09-10 February
2017, withthe theme ‘The Blue Economy: Concept, Constituents and
Development’.

83. Ans. (d)


— Both the statements is incorrect as Indra Sawhney case related to
Reservation in India. In 1992 Supreme Court upheld implementation of
separate reservation for other backward classes in Central Government jobs.

— Minerva Mill case is related to basic structure of the constitution. In this


case Supreme Court of India applied and evolved the basic structure of the
Constitution of India.

84. Ans. (b)


— Statement 1 is incorrect as Governer of a state is a part of the state
legislature. To remember here is that he should not be a member of
Legislature.

— Statement 2 is correct.
85. Ans. (a)
— The Swadhar scheme was launched by the

Union Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2002 for rehabilitation


of women in difficult circumstances. The scheme provides shelter, food,
clothing and care to the marginalized women/girls who are in need. The
beneficiaries include widows deserted by their families and relatives, women
prisoners released from jail and without family support, women survivors of
natural disasters, women victims ofterrorist/ extremist violence etc. The
implementing agencies are mainly NGOs.

86. Ans. (a)


— Wayamsiddha Scheme launched by Ministry of Women and Child
Development of Government of India.

Benefits of Swayamsiddha Scheme:


·
·
·
·

Women education: Since the scheme specially promotes women education,


women will get educated
Family progress:It’s well said that when a man gets educatedit’s only he
who get education, but when a women gets educated its complete
familywho’s educated. Economic development: After women enters
mainstream, she’ll also be able to contribute in house expenses

Becoming an entrepreneur: Since the scheme ask women’s to from SHG,


they likely creates many opportunities for themselves. With complete team
village women’s can start a business.

Now as women’s are getting aware of their surrounding world the village,
taluka, district will also develop.

87. Ans. (b)


88. Ans. (d)
— 8 Missions are : National Solar Mission, National Mission on Enhanced
Energy

Efficiency, National Mission on Sustainable Habitat, National Water


Mission, National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem, National
Mission for a Green India, National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture and
National Mission on Knowledge for Climate Change.

89. Ans. (d)


90. Ans. (d)
— Indian Agriculture registered growth rate of more then 4% in last 5 years.
Tea, coffee, tobacco are some of the largest exported agriculture commodity.
91. Ans. (b)
92. Ans. (a)
● Agriculture Insurance Company of India Limited (AIC) was
incorporated under the Indian Companies Act 1956 on 20th Strategic

an average December, 2002 with an authorised share capital of INR 15


billion and paid up capital of INR 2 billion.

— AIC is under the administrative control of Ministry of Finance, Government


of India, and under the operational supervision of Ministry of Agriculture,
Government of India. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
(IRDA), Hyderabad, India, is the regulatory body governing AIC.

93. Ans. (a)


— Government of India declared its first Industrial Policy on 6th April, 1948.
The Industrial Policy 1948 was presented in the parliament by then Industry
Minister Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee. The main historical importance of
this policy is that it ushered India in the system of Mixed Economy.

Silent feature of Industrial Policy 1948:


1. Development of mixed economy.
2. State programmes, for the development of industries.
3. Promotion of small scale and cottage industries.
4. Foreign investment was allowed but effective control should be with
Indians.
94. Ans. (c)
— Personal income and services comes under current account.
95. Ans. (a)
96. Ans. (c)
● Dutch disease is the negative impact on an economy of anything that gives
rise to a sharp inflow of foreign currency, such as the discovery of large oil
reserves. Thecurrency inflows lead to currency appreciation, making the
country’s other products less price competitive on the export market.
97. Ans. (c)
● A.W. Phillips gave the concept of Phillips Curve. It denotes wages will rise
when unemployment is low and wages will fall but slowly because of the
downward rigidity of wage rates, when unemployment is high. This inverse
relationship between the rate of change of money wages and the rate of
unemployment has come to be known asPhillips’ Curve. 98. Ans. (c)
— Repo rate act as a money market instrument but it is not officially a money
market instrument. 99. Ans. (a)

— The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) is an Act of the


Parliament of India”to consolidate and amend the law relating to foreign
exchange with the objective of facilitating external trade and paymentsand for
promoting the orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange
market in India. This act makes offences related to foreign exchange civil
offenses. It extends to the whole of India, replacing FERA, which had
become incompatible with the pro-liberalisationpolicies of the Government of
India. It enabled a new foreign exchange management regime consistent with
the emerging framework of the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
100. Ans. (b)
The National Assistance Programconsists of five sub-schemes:
— Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension

Scheme (IGNOAPS).
Eligibility: Individuals aged 60 years and above living below the poverty
line. Amount: o300 (US$4.50) per month (o 500 (US$7.40) for those 80
years and above).

— Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS)


Eligibility: Widows aged 40 years and above living below the poverty line.
Amount: o 300 (US$4.50) per month (o500 (US$7.40) for those80 yearsand
above).

— Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS)


Eligibility: Individuals aged 18 years and above with more than 80%
disability and living below the poverty line.
Amount: o 300 (US$4.50) per month (o500 (US$7.40) for those80 yearsand
above).

— National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) In the event of death of a bread-


winner in a household, the bereaved family will receive lumpsum assistance
ofo20,000 (US$300). The bread-winner should have been between 18–60
years of age. The assistance would be provided in every case of death of a
breadwinner in a household.

— Annapurna Scheme : This scheme aims to provide food security to meet


the requirement of those senior citizens who, thougheligible, have remained
uncovered under the IGNOAPS. Under the Annapurna Scheme, 10 kg of free
rice is provided everymonth to each beneficiary.

GS PT TEST 6 - ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION


1. Ans. (d)
· Office of secretary of state for India was abolished by India Independence
Act of 1947.

· Portfolio system was recognized for the first time by Indian Council Act of
1861.
· Separate electorate for Sikhs, Indian Christian Anglo-Indian was provided
under government of India Act of 1919.
· Option 1 and 2 are correct.
2. Ans. (a)
· By basic structure or doctrine of the constitution means it’s an Indian
judicial principle that the constitution of India has certain basic feature that
cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the Parliament. For
example – Fundamental Rights granted to individual by the constitution.
3. Ans. (a)
· Both assertion and reason are true as government of India Act of 1935
although introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ but still there were certain matters
in which governor was acting under control and direction of Governor–
General thus provinces were under certain control of centre.
4. Ans. (d)
· Option 1 came into much existence when question was raised for the first
time before Supreme Court in Keshavanand Bharti vs. state of Kerala. Rest
option 2, 3 and 4 are also correct.
5. Ans. (d)
· Originally the Citizenship Act, 1955 provided for Common Wealth
Citizenship.
· Option 2 is incorrect as this provision was repealed by the citizenship
(Amendment) Act of 2003.
6. Ans. (c)

· ‘Project Insight’ is an integrated platform that will utilize vast amount of


information easily available on social media to conduct raids online rather
than traditional way of conducting random searches, known as tax raids. It
will use data mining, big data and analytics to scoop out tax evaders from
social media platforms like Facebook, Twitter and Instagram. The Permanent
Account Number (PAN) will be the unique identifier is used by the Income
Tax department to link and analyse various transactions relating to the tax
payers. This will enhance the department’s ability to monitor the flow of
funds and will provide an audit trail of high value transactions and curb
circulation of black money The ‘Project Insight’ will be implemented in
phased manner during the period 2016-2018. For its implementation, the IT
department has signed a contract with L&T Infotech Ltd. It will also be
leveraged for implementation of Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act Inter
Governmental Agreement (FATCA IGA) and Common Reporting Standard
(CRS).

7. Ans. (d)
· The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred
Nobel 2016 was awarded jointly to Oliver Hart and Bengt Holmström "for
their contributions to contract theory" first was given in 1969.

8. Ans. (b)
· The Bogor Declaration, issued during the 1994 APEC Economic leader’s
meeting in Bogor, Indonesia establishing an ultimate direction of the APEC
progress. APEC sets the Bogor goals of free and open trade and investment in
the Asia-Pacific by 2010 for developed economies and 2020 for developing
economies.

9. Ans. (a)
· It is a native variety of sugarcane, popularly known as kempu kabbu or
konanakatte kabbu.

10. Ans. (a)


· The first Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Leaders' Summit held on
7 March 2017 in Jakarta to commemorate the 20th Anniversary of the
Association. The VicePresident of India led the Indian delegation.

11. Ans. (c)


· Quo-warranto is a very powerful instrument as it is issued by court to
enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. One should
remember that it’s issued only against permanent character created by a
statue or by constitution. It was recently issued against UPPSC Chairman.

Option 2 is also correct.


12. Ans. (c)
· Option 1 and 3 are correct regarding Attorney General.
· Option 2 is incorrect as there is no limit an Attorney General to do private
legal practices. 13. Ans. (c)

· Both option provided lead to disqualification of membership some other


are it member of any party votes or abstains from voting in such house
contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which he belongs, if
nominated member of a house joins any politics party.

14. Ans. (d)


· All the given options are correct regarding speaker as speaker is head of
Lok Sabha and its representative. He is guardian of powers and privileges of
the members, the house as whole and its committees.

15. Ans. (a)

· This statement is not completely correct as members can be arrested during


the session of Parliament it it’s criminal case or preventive detention.

16. Ans. (a)


· A carbon credit is a generic term for any tradable certificate or permit
representing the right to emit one tonne of carbon dioxide or the mass of
another greenhouse gas with a carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e) equivalent
to one tonne of carbon dioxide.

· Carbon credits and carbon markets are a component of


attempts to
national and international

mitigate the growth in concentrations of greenhouse gases (GHGs). One


carbon credit is equal to one tonne of carbon dioxide, or in some markets,
carbon dioxide equivalent gases. Carbon trading is an application of an
emissions trading approach. Greenhouse gas emissions are capped and then
markets are used to allocate the emissions among the group of regulated
sources.

17. Ans. (b)


· Bio-prospecting can be defined as the systematic search for and
development of new sources of chemical compounds, genes, microorganisms,
macro-organisms, and other valuable products from nature. It entails the
search for economically valuable genetic and biochemical resources from
nature. So, in brief, bioprospecting means looking for ways to commercialize
biodiversity. Lately, exploration
knowledge
and research on indigenous

related to the utilization and management of biological resources has also


been included into the concept of bioprospecting. Thus, bio-prospecting
touches upon the conservation and sustainable use of biological resources and
the rights of local and indigenous communities.

18. Ans. (b)


· Tribunal is competent to hear cases for several acts such as Forest
(Conservation) Act, Biological Diversity Act, Environment (Protection) Act,
Water & Air (Prevention & control of Pollution) Acts etc. and also have
appellate jurisdiction related to above acts after establishment of Tribunal
within a period of 30 days of award or order received by aggrieved party.

19. Ans. (d)


20. Ans. (c)
21. Ans. (c)

· The H-1B is a non-immigrant visa in the United States under the


Immigration and Nationality Act, section 101(a)(17)(H). It allows U.S.
employers to temporarily employ foreign workers in specialty occupations. If
a foreign worker in H-1B status quits or is dismissed from the sponsoring
employer, the worker must either apply for and be granted a change of status
to another non-immigrant status, find another employer (subject to
application for adjustment of status and/or change of visa), or leave the U.S.
Effective January 17, 2017, USCIS modified the rules to allow a grace period
of up to 60 days.

22. Ans. (c)

· French mathematician Yves Meyer has won the prestigious 2017 Abel
Prize for his pivotal role in the development of the mathematical theory of
wavelets (small waves or ripples).

23. Ans. (d)


1. Cabinet Secretary (Chairman)

Members:
2. Home Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs
3. Secretary, Ministry of Defence
4. Secretary, Ministry of Health
5. Secretary, Ministry of Power
6. Chairman, Railway Board
7. Secretary, Department of Urban Employment & Poverty Alleviation
8. Secretary, Ministry Petroleum & Natural Gas
9. Secretary, Department of Shipping
10. Secretary, Department of Roads Transport and Highways
11. Secretary, Department of Telecom Services.
12. Secretary, Department of Rural Development
13. Secretary, Department of Agriculture & Cooperation

14. Secretary, Department of Drinking Water Supply


15. Secretary, Department of Food & Public Distribution

16. Secretary, Ministry of Water Resources


17. Joint Secretary, Cabinet Secretariat (Convener)
24. Ans. (a)
· NCRMP Phase - II Government of India has approved Phase-II of NCRMP
in July, 2015 for five years up to March, 2020 covering States of Goa,
Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra and West Bengal.

25. Ans. (c)


· It is an autonomous organization set up in 1988 under the Department of
Science & Technology to look ahead in technologies, assess the technology
trajectories, and support technology innovation by network actions in select
technology areas of national importance.

· In 1993, TIFAC embarked upon the major task of formulating a


Technology Vision for the country in various emerging technology areas.
‘Technology Vision Document 2035’ is produced by TIFAC.
26. Ans. (c)
· Both have headquarter in The Hague in The Netherlands.
27. Ans. (b)

· Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) is an Autonomous Institution of


the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India.

28. Ans. (d)


29. Ans. (b)
· The Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI) is an indicator of the economic
health of the manufacturing sector. The PMI is based on five major
indicators: new orders, inventory levels, production, supplier deliveries and
the employment environment. The purpose of the PMI is to provide
information about current business conditions to company decision makers,
analysts and purchasing managers.

· A PMI of more than 50 represents expansion of the manufacturing sector


when compared to the previous month. A PMI reading under 50 represents a
contraction, and a reading at 50 indicates no change.

30. Ans. (b)

· The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) has recently


successfully launched solid fuel rocket “Epsilon-2” from the Uchinoura
Space Center in the southern prefecture of Kagoshima. Through Epsilon-2,
the Arase satellite has successfully launched into orbit to study the Van Allen
belts around the earth. The former name of Arase satellite was Exploration of
energization and Radiation in Geospace (ERG).

31. Ans. (d)


· Lapis Lazuli Corridor is created toward transit and trade cooperation
among Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan, Georgia and Turkey intended
to reduce barriers facing transit trade and develop a Custom Procedure
Integration in the region.

· The corridor connects Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan, Turkey via road and rail
Afghanistan,
Georgia and that is most appropriate transit trade route in Central Asia, the
Caucasus, the Balkans and Central Europe and also connects effectively
South Asia to European countries.

· The “Lapis Lazuli” is derived from the historic export route that
Afghanistan’s lapis lazuli and other semiprecious stones were being exported
through this route to Caucasus, Russian, the Balkans, Europe and North of
Africa over 2000 years back.

32. Ans. (b)


· Narendra Modi was accorded a traditional iTaukei ceremonial welcome in
Fiji when he visited the country. Similar kind of welcome was given to Indira
Gandhi in 1981. Narendra Modi has become the first Indian to address the
Fijian Parliament during which he said that India was prepared to work with
Fiji to build a “Digital Fiji’’.

33. Ans. (a)


· Both assertion and reason are true as by equality before law means that
equal treatment provided under equal circumstances as all are not equal. This
should also be remember under Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code).

34. Ans. (a)


· Writ of Habeas Corpus is available against individual as well as public
authority.

35. Ans. (d)


· Option 1 is incorrect as Article 12 provides the wider definition of state
that include Government and Parliament, Legislature of states, executive and
legislative organs of state government, All local authority municipalities,
Panchayat, district board etc.

· Option 2 incorrect as definition of state includes All Public Authority


including statutory and Non-statutory authorities.

36. Ans. (c)


· Option 1 is correct as Article 15 is available to the citizens only. Apart
from this Article 16, 19, 29, 30 is available to the citizens only.
· Option 2 is correct as it provides for affirmative action’s for socially and
educationally backward classes in educational institutions as well.

37. Ans. (a)


· Option (a) is correct as unlike other DPSP are not restricted one it’s wide
coverage of social, political, economical and legal aspect. On the other hand
it is positive obligation of state towards its citizen.

38. Ans. (c)


· INS Tillanchang, a Water Jet Fast Attack Craft (WJFAC) was
commissioned into the Indian Navy.

· The ship has been indigenously designed and built by the Garden Reach
Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) Kolkata.

· The first two ships of the class, IN ships Tarmugli and Tihayu were
commissioned in 2016 and are based at Visakhapatnam. The ship has been
indigenously designed and built and is an upgrade from the Chetlat class of
Fast Attack Craft that the Indian Navy possesses.

39. Ans. (b)

· Textiles Minister announces Kamaladevi Chattopadhya National Awards,


specially for women weavers and women artisans.

40. Ans. (a)


· Camp Lemonnier is a United States Naval Expeditionary Base, situated
Djibouti–Ambouli International at Djibouti's

Airport and home to the Combined Joint Task Force Horn of Africa of the
U.S. Africa Command.

41. Ans. (a)


· The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Committee
has submitted its 4 volume report on changes in FRBM Act, 2013. The 5
member committee was headed by N.K. Singh, former Revenue and
Expenditure Secretary and former MP. Its member included RBI Governor
Urjit Patel, Chief Economic Advisor Arvind Subramanian, former Finance
Secretary Sumit Bose, and National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
Director Rathin Roy.

42. Ans. (d)


43. Ans. (c)
· Both options are correct apart from that lack of steady and strong
opposition, no-automatic machinery for the effective scrutiny on behalf of
Parliament, legislative leadership lies with the executive etc. are other reasons
for ineffectiveness of Parliamentary control.
44. Ans. (d)
· In approval of ordinances by President both enjoy equal status.
· Ministers even the Prime Minister may be drawn from either house of
Parliament. · In considering reforms of Finance Commission Union Public
Services and CAG etc. both have equal status.
· Apart from this in election of President, Vice President, Removal,
proclamation of emergency etc. both have equal status.
45. Ans. (a)
· Statement 1 is correct as in case of financial Bill which is containing
matters other than as specified by Article 110 Rajya Sabha have equal powers
with Lok Sabha.
· Option 2 is correct as only Lok Sabha can pass no-confidence motion.
46. Ans. (b)
· Option 1 is incorrect as in case of preparation of electoral rolls and conduct
of elections to a co-operative society shall vest in such body as may be
provided by state legislature not Parliament.
47. Ans. (d)
· All of the options are part of pressure group apart from that Trade Union,
Agrarian Group, Student Organisation, Religious Organisation are also part
of pressure groups.
48. Ans. (a)
· Soils around the globe have increased their emissions of carbon dioxide
over the past few decades, according to an analysis of 439 studies.
· Increasing
release of
triggering
temperatures will cause a net carbon dioxide from soils by microbes to speed
up their consumption of plant debris and other organic matter. This is mostly
seen in amazon forest. 49. Ans. (c)
· An aerosol is a colloid of fine solid particles or liquid droplets, in air or
another gas. Aerosols can be natural or artificial. Examples of natural
aerosols are fog, forest exudates and geyser steam. Examples of artificial
aerosols are haze, dust, particulate air pollutants and smoke. Aerosols are
very important in the formation of clouds. Often aerosols act as Cloud
Condensation Nuclei (CCN's), around which cloud droplets are formed.
Without aerosols in the air, there would be far fewer clouds. Aerosols can
also affect the properties of existing clouds.
· Recent studies have found that in the presence of high amounts of aerosols,
clouds will have more droplets than normal, with droplets tending to be
smaller than usual. Because the droplets are smaller and more numerous, the
clouds last longer and are reflect sunlight better than before. This effect could
have significant implications on the climate. As the clouds reflect more
sunlight, less of the sun's energy reaches the surface of the earth, which then
cools. This means that by putting more aerosols in the atmosphere, humans
have the potential to alter the world's climate and cause global cooling.
50. Ans. (b)
51. Ans. (c)
52. Ans. (c)
· Through analysis of ice cores, scientists learn about glacial-interglacial
cycles, changing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels, and climate stability
over the last 10,000 years. · Coral reefs have been a part of the Earth's
oceans for millions of years and are very sensitive to changes in climate.
Scientists can use indicators from corals to study weather conditions from
the past hundreds or even thousands of years to determine trends in climate.
53. Ans. (b)
54. Ans. (b)
· A varve is an annual layer of sediment or sedimentary rock in lakes
Varves form only in fresh or brackish water, because the high levels of salt in
normal sea water coagulate the clay into coarse grains. Since the saline
waters leave coarse particles all year, it is nearly impossible to distinguish the
individual layers in salt waters
55. Ans. (b)
· The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (a
protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is
an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the
production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion
56. Ans. (a)
· As a greenhouse gas, the higher concentration of water vapor is then able
to absorb more thermal IR energy radiated from the Earth, thus further
warming the atmosphere. The warmer atmosphere can then hold more water
vapor and so on and so on. This is referred to as a 'positive feedback loop'.
57. Ans. (a)
58. Ans. (c)
· Tiny particles that are released when fuels are burned cause global
dimming. Like global warming, this process may change rainfall patterns
around the world. The amount of sunlight reaching the Earth's surface has
decreased by about 2 per cent every ten years, because more sunlight is being
reflected back into space.
59. Ans. (d)
60. Ans. (c)
· Paddy fields account for around 20% of human-related emissions of
methane — a potent greenhouse gas. Farmers normally flood rice fields
throughout the growing season, meaning that methane is produced by
microbes underwater as they help to decay any flooded organic matter.
· Enteric fermentation is a digestive process by which carbohydrates are
broken down by microorganisms into simple molecules for absorption into
the bloodstream of an animal. It is one of the factors in increased methane
emissions.
61. Ans. (d)
62. Ans. (a)
· 2016 was the hottest year in 137 years of record keeping, a mark of how
much the world has warmed over the last century because of human
activities.
63. Ans. (a)
· The Global Leprosy Strategy 2016-2020 “Accelerating towards a leprosy-
freeworld” was developed through a series of consultations with various
stakeholders during 2014 and 2015. Inputs were provided by national leprosy
programmes, technical agencies, independent leprosy experts, public health
experts, funding agencies and representatives of affected patients and
communities.
· The strategy is built around three major pillars: (i) strengthen government
ownership and partnerships; (ii) stop leprosy and its complications; and (iii)
stop discrimination and promote inclusion. Its goal is to further reduce the
global and local leprosy burden, thereby aiming for zero children with
leprosyaffected patients disabilities, diagnosed deformities to less a reduction
of new with leprosy-related than one per million population and a repeal of
all laws that allow discrimination of leprosy patients.
· The strategy was endorsed by the WHO Technical Advisory Group on
leprosy. 64. Ans. (c)
· Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India and was
established in 1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the endangered Bengal
tiger. It is located in Nainital district of Uttarakhand and was named after Jim
Corbett who played a key role in its establishment. The park was the first to
come under the Project Tiger initiative.

65. Ans. (a)


· Besides India, five other countries – Canada, China, Iceland, Israel and
New Zealand also signed the pact.

66. Ans. (a)


· Electoral Bond is a financial instrument for making donations to political
parties. These are issued by Scheduled Commercial banks upon authorisation
from the Central Government to intending donors, but only against cheque
and digital payments (it cannot be purchased by paying cash). These bonds
shall be redeemable in the designated account of a registered political party
within the prescribed time limit from issuance of bond.

67. Ans. (c)


· Both statements are correct.
68. Ans. (b)
· Tigers are under engendered species.

· Pangolins are critically endangered species. They are world’s most


trafficked mammals.

69. Ans. (a)


70. Ans. (a)
71. Ans. (c)
· A eutrophic body of water, commonly a lake or pond, has high biological
productivity. Due to excessive nutrients, especially nitrogen and phosphorus,
these water bodies are able to support an abundance of aquatic plants. ·
Cultural Eutrophication is the process that speeds up natural eutrophication
because of human activity. Due to clearing of land and building of towns and
cities, land runoff is accelerated and more nutrients such as phosphates and
nitrate are supplied to lakes and rivers, and then to coastal estuaries and bays.
Extra nutrients are also supplied by treatment plants, golf courses, fertilizers,
farms, as well as untreated sewage in many countries.
72. Ans. (b)
73. Ans. (c)
· The majority of the savanna is covered in different types of grasses
including lemon grass, Rhodes grass, star grass, and Bermuda grass. There
are also lots of trees scattered about the savanna. Some of these trees include
the acacia tree, the baobab tree, and the jackal berry tree.
74. Ans. (c)
· The Brundtland Report, published in 1987 by the United Nations World
Commission on Environment and Development, coined the term
"sustainable development" and defined it as “development” that meets the
needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to
meet their own needs." 75. Ans. (a)
76. Ans. (a)
77. Ans. (b)
· The National Forest Policy– 1988
· The Forest Rights Act - 2006
78. Ans. (d)
79. Ans. (d)
80. Ans. (d)
· Statement 1 is incorrect as Supreme Court can grant special leave against
judgement of any court or tribunal in any territory of India in any type of case
viz. Civil Criminal or revenue expect military court.
· Option 2 is incorrect as SLP is at the discretion of the court.
81. Ans. (a)
· President has the power to make regulation for peace, progress and good
government as all executive actions are formally taken in his name thus four
Union Territories mentioned in the question fall under this category.
82. Ans. (d)
· Option 1 is incorrect as though under Article 249 Rajya Sabha can
authorize Parliament to make laws on state list but Parliament does not
become competent to make laws on such matters.
83. Ans. (a)
· Option 1 is correct.
· Option 2 is incorrect as the time limit is 14 days not 60 days.
84. Ans. (c)
· Both option 1 and 2 is correct regarding ‘Prorogation’ statement ‘3’ is
incorrect as ‘prorogation’ means the termination of a session.
85. Ans. (c)
· With holding of assent– Suspensive veto. · Overridden by an ordinary
majority – Absolute Veto.
· Taking no action on the bill– Qualified Veto. · Overridden by a higher
majority – Pocket Veto.
86. Ans. (d)
· Apart from these states hills areas in the State of Manipur, hill areas of
Darjeeling in state of West Bengal.
87. Ans. (d)
88. Ans. (c)
· Option 1 is correct as Parliament can make laws on any subject matter
whether it is any of three list for Union Territory.
· Option 2 is correct as Union-Territories are administrated by President
acting to such extent as the thinks fit through an administrator appointed by
him.
89. Ans. (c)
90. Ans. (c)
· Option 1 is incorrect as although the Chairman and members of a SPSC are
appointed by governor but they are removed by President. · Option 3 is
incorrect. Read the same explanation provided for option 1.
91. Ans. (a)
· All are correct regarding recommendation made by the Finance
Commission to the President.
92. Ans. (a)
· Option 2 is incorrect as it is not mentioned in the DPSP.

93. Ans. (d)


· Indian Navy’s Theatre Level Readiness and

Operational Exercise (TROPEX) is a month long exercise aimed at validating


the Indian Navy’s Concept of Operations and the area of operations spanned
the Arabian Sea and Northern Indian Ocean. It also encompassed all
dimensions of maritime warfare.

94. Ans. (a)


95. Ans. (a)
· Option 1 is incorrect regarding Demand of grants as President
recommendation is needed. · Option 2 is correct as charge expenditure is
non-votable which means it can only be discussed in Parliament.
· Option 3 is correct constitution of India contains the provision.
96. Ans. (b)
· Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is an interactive benchmarking tool
created to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face
in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their
performance. Logistics Performance Index is reported by World Bank in
every 2 years.
97. Ans. (b)
98. Ans. (c)
· ET 23832 is a biofortified semi - dwarf, medium duration (125 days)
variety with nonlodging plant type and long slender grains for irrigated
conditions. It is the first high zinc rice variety notified at national level with
over all mean zinc content of 22.6ppm.
99. Ans. (c)
100. Ans. (a)
· Fourth Generation bio fuels is the latest technology.

GS PT TEST 7 - ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION


1. Ans. (c)

— Both correct. Russian Bomb is estimated to be 4 times more powerful than


MOAB. Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the
provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952.

2. Ans. (a)9. Ans. (a)


— West Bengal’s Haldia port cleanest in India.— Statement 2 is wrong. After his death, his
Vizag port came second.political party Scheduled Caste Federation
was renamed as Republican Party of India in 10. Ans. (c)1957 by his followers.
3.
Ans. (c)
— Both Correct. Wular Lake - Jammu Kashmir.
— Both correct. The advertising industry 11. Ans. (a)watchdog Advertising Standards
Council of
India (ASCI) has come up with a set of— 2nd statement is wrong. guidelines
for celebrities endorsing products.

4.
Ans. (d)
— SAUNI Yojana is a project to divert floodwaters of Narmada to Saurashtra
region

— All correct. Prime Minister Narendra Modiand fill up 115 reservoirs through giant
conveyed to Bangladesh PM Sheikh Hasinapipelines. Gosi Khurd Irrigation Project is
his hopes for an“early solution” to the Teestaone of the major irrigation project in
waters dispute. But West Bengal chiefMaharashtra.
minister Mamata Banerjee may prove to be a 12. Ans. (c)hard nut to crack. Water is a
state issue, so a

deal cannot be inked without the stateCM’s — India ratified it on 2nd Oct.’
2016. NDCs to approval. be achieved by 2030.
5. Ans. (b) 13. Ans. (d)

— First statement is Wrong. Nepal, China hold — 175 GW– 100 GW- Solar Energy; 60
GWfirst ever military exercise. Wind Energy; 10 GW– Biomass; 5 GW–
6. Ans. (c) Small Hydro P.
— Both correct. NASA Finds Evidence of 14. Ans. (d)
Hydrothermal Vents on Saturn’s Moon — Besides combating climate change, all
theEnceladus. above are the part of Action Plan.
7. Ans. (c) 15. Ans. (c)
— Both correct. Operation Meghdoot the code16. Ans. (b)name for an Indian Armed
Forces operation,
was launched 33 years ago. — NKC and Yashpal Committee (2008) 8.
Ans. (a)
recommended the creation of a single over

arching body – NCHER. — Statement 2 is wrong. Central Board of Film


Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body 17. Ans. (c)
under Ministry of Information and18. Ans. (d)

Mukherjee Nagar: A-20, IstFloor, Indraprastha Tower, Behind Batra


Cinema, Delhi-09 Old Rajendra Nagar: 70, IIIrd Floor, Bada Bazar, Near
Canara Bank, Central Delhi-60 011-27654743, 25741828, 8826957185,
9911156808

19. Ans. (c)


20. Ans. (b)

— Corals are invertebrates, living mostly in tropical waters. They secrete


calcium carbonate to build protective skeletons that grow and take on
impressive colors, thanks to a symbiotic relationship with algae that live in
their tissues and provide them with energy.

— But corals are sensitive to temperature fluctuations, and are suffering from
rising ocean temperatures and acidification, as well as from overfishing,
pollution, coastal development and agricultural runoff.

— Even if the world could halt global warming now, scientists still expect that
more than 90 per cent of corals will die by 2050. Without drastic
intervention, we risk losing them all. To lose coral reefs is to fundamentally
undermine the health of a very large proportion of the humanrace.

— Coral reefs produce some of the oxygen we breathe. Often described as


underwater rainforests, they populate a tiny fraction of the ocean but provide
habitats for one in four marine species. Reefs also form crucial barriers
protecting coastlines from the full force of storms.

— They provide billions of dollars in revenue from tourism, fishing and other
commerce, and are used in medical research for cures to diseases including
cancer, arthritis and bacterial or viral infections.

21. Ans. (a)


22. Ans. (c)
23. Ans. (d)
24. Ans. (d)
25. Ans. (d)
26. Ans. (c)

— The ecological footprint measures human demand on nature, i.e., the


quantity of nature it takes to support people or an economy. It tracks this
demand through an ecological accounting system. The accounts contrast the
biologically productive area people use for their consumption to the
biologically productive area available within a region or the world
(biocapacity). In short, it is a measure of human impact on Earth’s ecosystem
and reveals the dependence of the human economy on natural capital. The per
capita ecological footprint is an estimate of how much ofthe earth’s
renewable resource an individual consume.

— The term has been coined by Canadian Environmentalists WilliamRees and


Mathias Wackernagel.

27. Ans. (b)


28. Ans. (a)
29. Ans. (c)
30. Ans. (d)
31. Ans. (c)

32. Ans. (b)


— GJ 1132 b was in news recently–
(a)It’s an asteroid found near Earth.

(b) An earth like planet having an atmosphere.


(c) Newly discovered moon for Jupiter. (d) A place located in planet Saturn.

— Scientists, including those from Max Planck Institute for Astronomy in


Germany, studied the planet known as GJ 1132b, which is 1.4 times the size
of our planet.

— They imaged the planet’s host star, GJ 1132, and measured the slight
decrease in brightness as the planet and its atmosphere absorbed some of the
starlight while passing directly in front of their host star.

33. Ans. (d)


34. Ans. (d)

— The Egyptian vulture (Neophron percnopterus), one among nine vulture


species available in the Indian sub-continent, is a large-range distributed
species in Europe, Africa andAsia, but its population has rapidly declined in
India due to factors such as disturbance, poisoning, electrocution, scarcity of
food and habitat loss, but largely due to the toxic effect of veterinary drug
Diclofenac through livestock carcasses. Continuous efforts by BNHS for
vulture conservation, Drug Controller General (India), Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, Department of Animal Husbandry and Ministry of
Agriculture, have, however, proved to be a boon. In 2006, the government
banned Diclofenac for veterinary purposes.

— There’s good news for city dwellers. A flock of 10 Egyptian vultures—


which are rarely spotted in the city— has been living on land near the
Yamuna since January.

— According to experts, Egyptian vultures have nearly disappeared from the


city in the last few years. Their nesting areas would include areas near the
Yamuna, Okhla Bird Sanctuary and Ghazipur landfill.
humans do. Ruminants eat food, regurgitate it as cud and eat it again. The
stomachs are filled with bacteria that aid in digestion, but also produce
methane.

38. Ans. (c)


39. Ans. (c)
— Both correct. For the first time, aquifer mapping is to be taken up.
40. Ans. (c)

— Both correct. It allows U.S. employers to temporarily employ foreign


workers in specialty occupations.

41. Ans. (c)


42. Ans. (c)
43. Ans. (b)
35. Ans. (a)

— HQ – Chennai; Prevention of cruelty of Animals Act, 1960 is deriving


power to AWBI and no mandatory provision to appoint Chairman as recently
the govt. has appointed a govt. official to chair the body.

36. Ans. (c)

— For Air conditioners, SEER rating is used. Higher the SEER ratings means
greater efficiency. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has introduced a
new star rating methodology called ISEER, for air conditioners in August,
2016. Higher efficiency leads to lower electricity bills.

44. Ans. (b)


45. Ans. (a)

— It is genetically engineered silk worms to produce spider silk. Spider silk in


nature has truly unique properties as silk naturally elongates and absorbs the
energy of the captured prey.

46. Ans. (b)

— This technology is owned by Sony Corporation and first developed in 1999.


It is based on the principle of triangulation using the visual images and timing
data provided by high speed video cameras at different locations around the
area of play.

37. Ans. (b)

— Cows emit a massive amount of methane through belching. They emit a lot
of methane, an amount comparable to the pollution produced by a car in a
day.

— To understand why cows produce methane, it’s important to know a bit


more about how they work. Cows, goats, sheep and several other animals
being to a class ofan animal’s called ruminants. Ruminants have four
stomachs and digest their food in their stomachs instead of in their intestines,
as
47. Ans. (d)
48. Ans. (a)

— It is used in the field of aviation safety. CSIR National Aerospace


Laboratories and India Meteorological Department (IMD) both jointly
developed it. It is a sophisticated instrument for assessment of Runway visual
range acting as a vital parameter for safe landing and take-off of aircraft in
poor visibility.

49. Ans. (b)

— Cetane number is a measure of diesel quality. Lower the Cetane number,


diesel will produce more smoke and vice versa.

— The decision to grant the no-objection certificates was given on the basis of
the recommendations of a state-level committee headed by Anil Kakodkar –
the former chairman the Atomic Energy Commission.

50. Ans. (c)


— It’s a Quick Response Code acts as a trademark in two-dimensional
barcode.
51. Ans. (a)

— In December 2012, Petroleum Ministry had set up this committee for Auto
Fuel Vision Policy 2025. It gave its recommendations in 2014, May.

— Euro Norms or Bharat Norms define the maximum limit of pollutant that a
vehicle can emit such as CO , NO , i sulphur and RSPM.
22

— Bharat Stage III norms was recommended by Dr. R. A. Mashelkar


Committee.
52. Ans. (b)

— India’s Shale formations are in sedimentary basins and are under study with
US assistance for further possible reserves.

56. Ans. (d)


— Purple tea was in news in January, 15 as experts from Assam claimed that
Chachar distt. In the Barak Valley and the hilly forested areas of Karbi
Anglong distt. of Assamhave potential to produce Purple Tea. Till date,
Kenya is the only known place in the world that produces this healthy rich
purple tea. This tea is 3 to 4 times expensive in comparison to black tea.

57. Ans. (b)

— It’s not only registered authorized users to use the popular product rather
the people residing inside that geographical territory are allowed to use the
popular product name Darjeeling Tea was the first product in India accorded
the GI tag.

58. Ans. (d) 53. Ans. (c)


54. Ans. (d)

— India on 31 January, 2015 successfully testfired indigenously developed


canister-based inter-continental ballistic missile (ICBM) Agni5 from
Wheeler’s Island off Odisha coast.

— Agni-5 is a surface-to-surface nuclear capable missile.


- It has a strike range of over 5000 kms.
- It will be inducted into the services after few more trial.
55. Ans. (a)

— On 31 January, 2015, Maharashtra granted NOC for open field trials of GM


crops such as – rice, Chana, maize, brinfal and Cotton. Maharashtra became
the 4th state after Punjab, Delhi and Andhra Pradesh to approve open field
trials in GM crops.

59. Ans. (b)

— Long Range Surface-to-Air Missile codeveloped by India and Israel; test


fired for the first time from an Israeli Naval platform; It is also called Barak 8
missile in Israel. Barak 8 is an advanced long-range missile defence and air
defence system.

60. Ans. (b)


61. Ans. (a)

— The NBA is a body corporate established in accordance with the provisions


of section 8 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 at Chennai in 2003.

62. Ans. (d)


63. Ans. (b)

— West Bengal has the maximum mangrove cover in the country, followed by
Gujarat and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

64. Ans. (b)


65. Ans. (c)

— Maitri and Bharati are in Antarctica whereas Himadri in Arctic.


66. Ans. (c)

— In December, 2014, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched


Mission Indradhanush as a special nationwide initiative to cover all
unimmunized and partially immunized children that are left out during the
routine, immunization programme. It covers 7 diseases – diphtheria, pertusis,
tetanus, polio, TB, measles and Hepatitis B.

67. Ans. (d)


— Lichens is a combination of a fungus and an alga. It is used for multi-
purpose.
68. Ans. (d)

— Vitamin K causes Hemorrhage whereas Osteomalacia or rickets are caused


because of Vitamin D.

69. Ans. (c)

— Bacteria salmonella causes food poisoning derives from contaminated meat


and egg; Aflatoxin is a toxin produced by fungus; Aspergillus on grains and
vegetables; Botulism causes food poisoning.

70. Ans. (c)


71. Ans. (a)
— WBCs are larger than RBCs.
72. Ans. (b)
— Gravindex Test is used for Pregnancy.
73. Ans. (d)
74. Ans. (c)
— Picture from net of duodenum.
75. Ans. (a)

— Spinal Cord is a tube in shape– adownward extension of brain. Its outer


region is called as white matter while the inner region is Grey Matter. It plays
a role in impulses and reflex actions of a human body.

76. Ans. (d)


77. Ans. (a)

— Bhopal gas tragedy was caused because of leakage of toxic gas – Methyl
Iso Cyanate (MIC).

78. Ans. (b)

— IUCN is a world conservation Union working in the field of natural


resources and its sustainable use. It is havingan observer status at the UN.

— Launch of Project Tiger in India in 1973 was the outcome of the IUCN
General Assembly of IUCN held in Delhi in 1969.

79. Ans. (d)

— There are 35 (27 cultural, 7 natural and 1 mixed) World Heritage Sites in
India that are recognised by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as of July 2016.

— Three new sites – “Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara (Nalanda


University)” at Nalanda, Bihar, “Capitol Building Complex – The
Architectural Work of Le Corbusier” in Chandigarh and “Khangchendzonga
National Park, Sikkim” have been added to the list in July, 2016.

80. Ans. (b)


— On April 20, 2016 ISRO scientists indigenously developed world’s lightest
synthetic material called Silica Aerogel. It is extremely useful for people
working in very cold climate such as Indian Troops in Siachen and the
material is likely to be used onIndia’s moon rover in Chandryaan 2 Mission
because the material has excellent thermal resistance.

81. Ans. (c)

— Only DRDO scientists and authorized persons are allowed to visit the Dr.
Kalam Island.

82. Ans. (b)

— The Kigali Agreement is to amend the Montreal Protocol and deals in the
area of limiting use of HFCs only not all GHGs.

83. Ans. (d)

— A proposal for uranium exploration in the Amrabad Tiger Reserve cleared


by the Telengana State Board for Wildlife on 6 December, 2016.

85. Ans. (d)


86. Ans. (c)

— Hangul is distributed in the mountain of Himalaya, Kashmir, Chenab


Valley and Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. Thus, it is not distributed in
Arunachal Pradesh. It is listed under schedule 1 of the Indian Wild Life
Protection Act, 1972.

87. Ans. (b)

— Sendai Framework was adopted during the 3rd UN World Conference on


Disaster Risk Reduction.

— It consists of four major priority areas and seven targets to be met by 2030
which is to prevent creation of new disaster risks and also to substantially
reduce disaster risks.

— The four priority areas include:


(a) Understanding Risk
(b)Strengthening Risk Governance (c) Investing in disaster resilience
(d)Improving capacities for disaster response

— The Sendai Framework has set targets for substantial reduction in losses
including reduction in number of deaths, number of people affected by
disasters, economic losses and infrastructure losses.

— It calls for increase in capacities through national and local strategies,


international cooperation, and improved access to early warning.

88. Ans. (a)


Source: AAI Current Pedia Magazine (March, 2017).
89. Ans. (a)
Source: Page– 31, Current Pedia Magazine (AAI, March, 2017).
90. Ans. (c)

Source: Page-35, AAI Magazine Current Pedia (March, 2017).


Source: Page- 31, Current Pedia, AAI Magazine (March, 2017).

92. Ans. (d)


Source: Page– 25, Current Pedia, AAI Magazine (March, 2017).

93. Ans. (c)


94. Ans. (b)

— The Project SAKSHAM is a New Indirect Tax Network (Systems


Integration) of the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC).

95. Ans. (b)

— The Revolutionary Armed Forces of Colombia (Farc, after the initials in


Spanish) areColombia’s largest rebel group. The Colombian government and
leftist FARC rebels have signed a revised peace agreement to end more than
50 years of conflict.

96. Ans. (c)

— Renowned Hindi and Urdu writer, playwright and television personality


Reoti Saran Sharma passed away in New Delhi. He was 92.

97. Ans. (c)

— Both correct. A Vistadome coach which has glass panels in the roof to
provide tourists with all-round views on scenic lines was launched on the
Vishakhapatnam– Araku route on April 16.

98. Ans. (a)


— 3rdStatement is wrong.Lakshmi is country’s first banking robot.
99. Ans. (c)

— Both correct. Nirbhay is the country’s first indigenously built long-range


sub-sonic cruise missile which can be compared with America’s Tomahawk
in terms of its capability.

100. Ans. (a)

— 2nd statement is wrong. Leigh syndrome is a severe neurological disorder


that usually becomes apparent in the first year of life.

GS PT TEST 8- ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION

1. Ans. (c)

· When Lord Wellesley came to India, he and Henry Dundas of the Board of
Control equally shared a faith in the Bengal system, and in 1798 Wellesley
gave orders for its extension to Madras Presidency.

Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.


2. Ans. (b)

· The Ryotwari experiment was started by Alexander Reed in Baramahal in


1792 and was continued by Thomas Munro from 1801 when he was asked to
take charge of the revenue administration of the Ceded Districts. Instead of
zamindars they began to collect revenue directly from the village, fixing the
amount each village had to pay.

Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.


3. Ans. (c)

· The importance centres for Ivory carving were Trivandrum, Mysore and
Bangalore in South India.

Source: Alok S. Jha: Indian Culture Art and Heritage (Lexis Nexis)
4. Ans. (a)

· Assamese literature flourished under the patronage of the Ahom Kings. A


highly developed form of prose literature is found in the Buranjis.

· Source: Alok S. Jha : Indian Culture Art and Heritage (Lexis Nexis)
5. Ans. (c)
· Dhrupad has two sections – Anibaddha Section and the Sanchari (dhrupad
proper). Dhrupad Proper has four parts.
Source: Alok S. Jha : Indian Culture Art and Heritage (Lexis Nexis)
6. Ans. (c)

· When Warren Hastings took charge as governor in 1772, he decided to


take full control of the justice system.

Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.


7. Ans. (c)

· The daroga became a new instrument of control for the Company’s


government in the diwani provinces, or as the peasants looked at them, as the
local representatives ofthe “aura and authority of the Company Bahadur.

Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.


8. Ans. (a)
· Kovalan fell in love with a courtesan named Madhavi, neglecting his wife
Kannagi. Source: A. L. Basham: The Wonder That Was India
9. Ans. (b)
· Hathnora in the Narmada Valley.
Source: New NCERT
10. Ans. (d)
· His third wife was the daughter of the chief of the Madra Clan of Punjab.
Source: Old NCERT
11. Ans. (b)
· Assam is the first state and Bihar the second state to ratify the GST Bill.

13. Ans. (c)


14. Ans. (c)

· Special 301 Report of the US published by the US trade department


mentioning trade barriers to US companies and products due to a foreign
govt’s intellectual property regime. Under this report India is onthe ‘priority
watch list’, however, there is an imminent fear India being downgraded to
‘Priority Foreign Country’ which will attract several US sanctions.

15. Ans. (d)


16. Ans. (b)

· Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is not under the NITI Aayog.


17. Ans. (c)
· P.J. Nayak was on Banking reform on management of Banking.
18. Ans. (a)
· Kerala has India’s highest graduate unemployment rate at over 30%.
19. Ans. (c)

· The RBI is authorized to issue; there is a limit of minimum 2gm and


maximum 500 gm worth per person per financial year.

20. Ans. (b)

· Like base rate, banks are not allowed to lend below MCLR except for few
categories like loans against deposits, loansto bank’s own employees.

21. Ans. (d)


22. Ans. (d)
23. Ans. (a)
24. Ans. (a)
25. Ans. (c)
26. Ans. (a)
28. Ans. (b)
29. Ans. (a)
30. Ans. (c)
31. Ans. (d)

· Three years of training before getting their civil posting. In 1802 Fort
William College was closed.

Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.


32. Ans. (c)

· The Charter Act of 1833 introduced competition for recruitment; but it was
limited competition among the candidates nominated by the directors and
therefore could not improve the situation.

Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.


33. Ans. (c)

· Sayyid Ahmad Barelwi was the leader of the Revivalist Movement, called
the Tariqah-iMuhammadiyah.

· It developed under the leadership of Titu Mir. 34. Ans. (c)

· Faction fighting in Bengal was over the editorship of Bande Mataram.


Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.
35. Ans. (a)

· Although after repeated attempts by Tilak a new constitution was drafted


and ratified in 1899, it was never given a proper trial.

Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.


36. Ans. (a)

· The reconstitution of the Calcutta Corporation through the Calcutta


Municipal Amendment Act of 1899 reduced the number of elected
representatives in it.

Source: Shekhar Bandopaddya: Plassey to Partition.


37. Ans. (b)
· Kabir had no preference for any religion. Source: Alok S. Jha : Indian
Culture Art and Heritage (Lexis Nexis)
38. Ans. (d)
· Sankardev was the greatest religious reformer of medieval Assam.
Source: Alok S. Jha : Indian Culture Art and Heritage (Lexis Nexis)
39. Ans. (b)
· Bhand Pather is a folk theatre of Kashmir. Source: Alok S. Jha : Indian
Culture Art and Heritage (Lexis Nexis)

40. Ans. (c)


· Eran in Madhya Pradesh.
Source: Old NCERT

41. Ans. (a)


· Uttaramerur Inscriptions of Parantaka Chola I Source: Old NCERT
42. Ans. (c)

· There was a great deal of public debate and disagreement among


Moderates and Extremists in the years 1905-1907, even when they were
working together against the partitioning of Bengal.

Source: Bipan Chandra: India’s struggle for Independence


43. Ans. (b)
Source: Bipan Chandra: India’s struggle for Independence
44. Ans. (d)

· The Moderates and the country as a whole were disappointed by the


‘constitutional’ reforms of 1909.

Source: Bipan Chandra: India’s struggle for Independence


45. Ans. (d)

· Tarak Nath Das was one of the first leaders of the Indian community in
North America to start a paper called Free Hindustan.
· Ramnath Puri, a political exile on the West Coast, issued a Circular-e-
Azadi (Circular of Liberty) in which he also pledged support to the Swadeshi
Movement.

Source: Bipan Chandra: India’s struggle for Independence


46. Ans. (a)
Source: Bipan Chandra: India’s struggle for Independence

47. Ans. (c)


48. Ans. (d)

· Market borrowing, sales of assets, disinvestment proceeds and loan


recovered are part of capital receipts; whereas loan given to states are part of
capital expenditure.

49. Ans. (a)


· Australia introduced it in 1984, whereas India started in 2004-05.
50. Ans. (d)

· The GST is a consumption based tax. The final consumer will bear only
the tax on GST. It was recommended by Kelkar Committee. VAT was
introduced the recommendations of Asim Das Gupta Committee.

51. Ans. (c)


52. Ans. (b)
53. Ans. (b)
· Imperial Bank converted into SBI.
54. Ans. (a)
55. Ans. (a)

· NABARD was estd. in 1982 by the Act of the Parliament.


56. Ans. (a)

· Khan Working Group recommended for U.B. and ICICI Bank is first
‘Universal Bank’ of India in 2002.

57. Ans. (d)


58. Ans. (b)
59. Ans. (a)
60. Ans. (d)
61. Ans. (a)
62. Ans. (d)
63. Ans. (d)
64. Ans. (d)
65. Ans. (d)
66. Ans. (b)
67. Ans. (c)
68. Ans. (b)
69. Ans. (c)
70. Ans. (b)

· Narayan Malhar Joshi founded Social Service League in Bombay.

71. Ans. (c)


72. Ans. (c)
73. Ans. (c)
74. Ans. (d)
75. Ans. (a)
76. Ans. (c)
77. Ans. (a)
78. Ans. (a)
79. Ans. (d)
80. Ans. (b)
81. Ans. (b)
82. Ans. (d)
83. Ans. (b)
84. Ans. (b)
85. Ans. (a)
86. Ans. (b)
87. Ans. (a)
88. Ans. (d)
89. Ans. (b)
90. Ans. (a)
91. Ans. (d)
92. Ans. (a)
93. Ans. (a)
94. Ans. (c)
95. Ans. (b)
96. Ans. (a)

· Under Dadu Miyan Fardi Movement became revolutionary.

97. Ans. (d)


· Sharda Act in 1929.
· Ban on Child Marriage in 1872 .
· Abolition of Slavery in 1843.

98. Ans. (c)


99. Ans. (d)
100. Ans. (b)