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(Objective Paper-I)

Civil Engineering

solutions

Explanation of Civil Engg. Objective Paper-I (ESE - 2016)

SET - A

1. Consider the following statements : 4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of

wood.

1. There will be no defects in select grade

R

timbers. Which of the above statements are correct ?

2. The codal values for strength of grade-II (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

timer without defects may be reduced by (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

37.5%.

3. For timber used as columns, the permissible

stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with

a multiplying factor of 0.50.

4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a

TE Ans. (a)

Sol. Seasoning of timber causes increases in

strength, durability, workability and resilience.

Timber for treatment must be sound and

dried to an appropriate moisture content. All

AS

modification factor of 1.33 is adopted.

wood working processes like cutting to size,

Which of the above statements are correct ?

boring, etc. shall be done prior to treatment.

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only

Seasoning reduces shrinkage and warping

(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (c) ASCU treatment is a method of preservation

of timber, which results in durability of wood

M

Sol. Some defects are permitted in all grades of and not strength.

timber and all other defects unlikely to affect

any of the mechanical strength properties. 3. Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition

of timber is /are mainly

As IS: 1331 –1971 provides for reduction in

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not by more than 37.5%. (b) Hydrogen Sulphide

Permissible stress in ungraded timbers is (c) Carbonic acid and Hydrogen

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Modification factor of 1.33 is adopted in case Ans. (c)

of wind and earthquake forces

Sol. Rot in timber is decomposition or putrefaction

2. Consider the following statements regarding generally caused by damp atmosphere which

timber : causes emission of gasses mainly carbonic

acid & hydrogen.

1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln

seasoning.

4. Efflorescence of bricks is due to

2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to

treatment. (a) Excessive burning of bricks

3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of (b) High silt content in brick clay

warping.

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(c) High porosity of bricks 7. Which of the following statements is/are correct

(d) Soluble salts present in parent clay regarding the strength of cement ?

Ans. (d) 1. Particle sizes less than 3m increases the

Sol. Effloresence is caused because of alkalies viscous nature of the cement.

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present in clay. Salts such as sulphates of 2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced

soidum and potassium, if present in clay are by fly-ash to improve the strength.

dissolved by the absorbed water. On drying

grey or white powder patches appear on the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

bri ck sur f ace, whi ch i s c al l ed as (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

efforescence.

5. T

Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is

primarily due to

Ans. (c)

Sol. As particle size decreases viscous nature

of cement decreases.

AS

1. Efflorescence Fly ash reacts with available lime and alkali

in concrete, producing additional

2. Magnesium sulphate in bricks

cementitious compounds as calcium silicate

3. Calcined clay admixtures hydrate (C–S–H) binder.

4. Kankar nodules

This additional binder produced by fly ash

Which of the a above statements are correct ?

M

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only concrete to gain strength over time. This

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 will ultimately exceed the strength of fly ash

concrete than of cement concrete mixes.

Ans. (d)

8. The constituent compound in Portland cement

S

6. Consider the following test : which reacts immediately with water, and also

sets earliest, is

1. Transverse strength test

(a) Tricalcium silicate

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3. Impact test (b) Dicalcium silicate

4. Breaking strength test (c) Tricalcium aluminate

Which of the above are relevant to testing of (d) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

tiles ? Ans. (a)

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Sol. Rate of hydration is

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only C3A > C4AF > C3S > C2S

(c) 3 and 4 only

C4AF and C3A are responsible for flash set.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 When water is added to the cement, the

Ans. (d) quickest to react with water is C 3A.

Sol. As per IS 13630 : 2006, all the four tests are 9. Which of the following statements are correct

performed. with regard to cement mortar ?

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1. Workability of cement mortar can be where : = shear stress,

improved by addition of lime.

0 = (initial) yield value,

2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering

= at-point plastic viscosity

jobs.

=at-point rate of shear

3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.

4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely Ans. (a)

R

crushed fire bricks. Sol. Concrete is most often assumed to behave as

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 a bingham fluid.

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only Hence, 0

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

TE 12. W hich method of curing of concrete is

recommendable for rapid gain of strength of

concrete ?

(a) Sprinkling water

AS

because of water absorption. (b) Membrane curing

(c) High-pressure steam curing

10. In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the

(d) Infrared radiation curing

actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have

undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of Ans. (c)

cement, will be Sol. High pressure steam curing is generally

M

concrete.

(c) 4.50 (d) 6.00

Ans.(b) 13. Which of the following is appropriate as simple

Sol. Mix proportion = 1 : 3 : 6 field method for assesing consistency of

S

concrete ?

Let the volume of cement = 1 m3

(a) Compacting factor (b) Slump test

(unit volume of cement)

(c) Vee-Bee test (d) Kelly Ball test

IE

Volume of sand = 3 m3

Ans. (d)

Volume of aggregate = 6 m 3

15 Sol. Kelly ball test is field method for assessing

3

Actual volume of sand = 3 1 3.45m consistency of concrete while compaction

100

factor test, slump test and vee-Bee test is used

11. The Rheological behavior of concrete, when to measure workability of concrete.

represented by shear stress vs rate of shear,

is characterized as 14. W hich of the following are relatable to

Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?

(a) 0 . (b) 0 .

1. Light weight

(c) . (d) . 2. Strong

0

, 8010009955

3 Inorganic Sol. (c)

4. Nontoxic

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only Ans.

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |longitudinal strain| = 3 × |lateral strain|

R

Ans. (d) lateral strain

Possions ratio =

longitudinal strain

Sol. Properties of autoclaved aerated concrete are

TE

as follows : 1

=

(i) Thermal efficiency 3

E

(ii) Superior fire resistance Bulk modulus K =

3(1 2)

(iii) Light weight

E

AS

(iv) Great ventilation

K = 3 1 2 1

(v) Non toxic 3

K = E = 1 × 105 N/mm2)

(vi) Strong

(vii) Inorganic 17. For an elastic material, Poisson’s ratio is ,

Modulus of Elasticity is E, Modulus of Rigidity

M

is C and Bulk Modulus is K. is expressible

reliable depending on

in terms of K and C as

1. Aggregate-cement ratio

2. Time of transit 6K 2C 6K 2C

(a) (b)

S

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 6K 2C 3K 2C

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) (d)

IE

6K 2C 6K 2C

Ans. (d)

Ans. (c)

Sol. Workability of concrete depends upon all the

3K 2G

three components. Sol. Poisson ratio, =

6K 2G

16. The longitudinal strain of cylindrical bar of 25 18. A mild steel bar of length 450 mm tapers

mm diameter and 1.5 m length is found to be uniformly. The diameters at the ends are 36

3 times its lateral strain in a tensile test. What mm and 18 mm, respectively. An axial load of

is the value of Bulk Modulus by assuming E = 12kN is applied on the bar. E = 2×105 N/mm2.

1×105 N/mm2 ? The elongation of the bar will be

(a) 2 × 105 N/mm2 (b) 1.1 × 105 N/mm2 1 1

(a) mm (b) mm

(c) 1 × 105 N/mm2 (d) 2.1 × 105 N/mm2 3 6

3 2

(c) mm (d) mm

2 3

, 8010009955

Ans. (b) 3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the

applied stress are known as lateral strain.

36 mm 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume

18 mm

is known as volumetric strain.

12 KN 12 KN

Sol. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

450 mm (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

R

4PL (c) 3 and 4 only

Elongation of bar =

d1d2E (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

4 12 103 450 Ans. (b)

TE

= 5

36 18 2 10 Sol. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in

1 longitudinal and compressive strain in lateral

= mm

6 directions.

19. Which of the following statements are correct Statement I, III and IV are true.

for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular

AS

faces of a plane element ? 21. The state of stress on an element is as shown

in the figure. If E = 2×105 N/mm2 and Poisson’s

1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually

ratio = 0.3, the magnitude of the stress for

perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of

no strain in BC is

the principal stresses.

2. The shearing stresses in two mutually

M

A B

perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude

and direction.

3. Maximum shear stress is half of the 2 2

difference between principal stresses. 80 N/mm 80 N/mm

S

D C

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (d) (a) 84 N/mm2 (b) 64 N/mm2

IE

perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude Ans. (d)

but not same in direction.

Statement-I and III are true.

A B

20. Which of the following statements are correct?

Sol.

1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is

80

known as longitudinal strain.

2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear D C

and lateral directions.

, 8010009955

E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 dimension of the body so that its geometry

and properties of material can be assumed to

= 0.3

be unchanged (i.e. dilation is taken as

for no strain in BC invariant).

R

1 2

= 0 24. W hi ch one of the f ollowi ng represents

E E constitutive relationship ?

1 = 0.3 × 80

TE

(a) Vertical displacements in a structure

1 = 24 N/mm2 (b) Rotational displacements in a structure

(c) System of forces in equilibrium

22. In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer (d) Stress-strain behavior of a material

can occur in

Ans. (d)

AS

(a) Inner Bark and Sap Wood

Sol. Constitutive relation is relation between two

(b) Pith and Heart Wood physical quantities that is specific to the

(c) Sap Wood and Heart Wood material.

(d) Outer Bark and Sap Wood

Hence stress strain behaviour of solid material

Ans. (a) is constitutive relationship.

M

wood. 25. A square element of a structural part is

subjected to biaxial stresses as shown in the

23. Consider the following statements : figure. On a plane along BD, the intensity of

the resultant stress due to these conditions will

1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is be

S

taken as an invariant.

2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic 2

sum of all normal stresses. 100 N/mm

IE

the elastic modulus.

2 2

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 300 N/mm 300 N/mm

(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 C B

Ans. (d) 100 N/mm

2

E E

Sol. G (a) 25 5 N mm2 (b) 50 5 N mm2

3 2

(c) 75 5 N mm2 (d) 100 5 N mm2

In infinitesimal strain theory displacement of

material is much smaller than any relevant

, 8010009955

Ans. (d) Sol. This is a case of pure shear.

2

100 N/mm Principal streses in this case is ,

D A

1 = 80 N/mm2 (Tension)

2 = –80 N/mm2 (Compresion)

45° 2

300 N/mm

R

Given y = 240 N/mm2

B

C Factor of safety as per maximum normal stress

y

theory =

TE

Hence BD is plane of maximum shear stress

240

1 2 = 1 2

= 80

2

= 3

300 100

Shear stress = = 100 N/mm2

2 27. Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and

AS

2 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in

Normal stress = 1 = 200 N/mm2 simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2.

2

The values of factors of safety according to

Resultant stress = (100)2 (200)2

maximum principal stress theory and maximum

= 100 5 N/mm2 shear stress theory, respectively, are

(a) 2.5 and 2.5 (b) 2.5 and 5

M

(c) 5 and 5 (d) 5 and 1.67

of 80 N/mm2, as shown in the figure. The yield

stresses both in tension and in compression Ans. (a)

are 240 N/mm2. According to the maximum

normal stress theory, the factors of safety in Sol. Given 1 80N mm2 , 2 40N mm2

S

y = 200 N/mm2

2

80 N/mm

IE

FOS as per Max. principal stress Theory

80 N/mm 2 80 N/mm2

y

=

P

80 N/mm2 200

= 2.5

(a) 2 and 2 (b) 2.5 and 2.5 80

2 1 2

(c) 3 and 3 (d) 4 and 4 Max. shear stress = Max. of 1 , ,

2 2 2

Ans. (c)

80 40 80 40

= Max. of , ,

2 2 2

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= Max. of (20, 40, 20) when bent, as a circular arc, subtends a central

= 40 N/mm2 angel 60 . Take E = 2×106 kg/cm2. The

max maximum stress induced in the ruler and the

FOS as per Max. shear stress theroy = magnitude is

R

200 2 (a) 2618 kg/cm2 (b) 2512 kg/cm2

=

40 (c) 2406 kg/cm2 (d) 2301 kg/cm2

= 2.5 Ans. (a)

TE

28. The principal stresses at a point are 2 Sol. Given :

(tensile) and (compressive), and the stress Cross-section of ruler = 0.0625 cm × 2.5 cm.

at elastic limit for the material in simple tension

is 210 N/mm2. According to maximum shear

strain theory, the value of at failure is

AS

2.5 cm

(a) 70 N/mm2 (b) 105 N/mm2

(c) 140 N/mm2 (d) 210 N/mm2

0.0625 cm

Ans. (a)

Sol. Given 1 2, 2 Angle subtended = 60°

M

y = 210 N/mm2 l =R

As per Max. shear strain theory. 25 = R 60

180

max fy

2G R = 23.87 cm

G

S

l

2 1 2

max = Max. of 1 , ,

2 2 2

IE

2 2

= Max. of 2

, ,

2 2

R

60°

= Max. of 1.5, ,

2

= 1.5 Max. stress in the ruler will be on the extreme

1.5 210 end.

f E

G 2G

=

210 y R

2 1.5 f 2 106

0.0625 =

70 N/mm2 23.87

2

29. A thin steel ruler having its cross-section of f = 2618 Kg/cm2

0.0625 cm × 2.5 cm is bent by couples applied

at its ends so that its length l equal to 25 cm,

, 8010009955

30. Which of the following statements are correct ? 100

Alumi = 3 × 0.5

1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or

hoisting loads. 100

Alumi = 66.7MPa

2. With the use of dipper and stick, power 1.5

shovels can be used as hoes. 32. In order that the extreme fibre stresses in

3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often

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bending will be in the ratio 4:3 in the beam

used comfortably in the working of a tractor. shown in the following figure, the width b of the

4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines upper flange (b < 10cm) of the beam section

if the material is water-saturated. is to be

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only

b

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only

2.5 cm

Ans. (a)

31.

T

Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are

2.5 cm 10 cm

AS

heated to a same temperature. Forces are 2.5 cm

applied at the ends of the bars to maintain

10 cm

their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s

moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the (a) 6.1 cm (b) 6.6 cm

ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of (c) 5.1 cm (d) 5.6 cm

Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the Ans. (d)

M

Sol. Since b < 10 cm, top fibre will have higher

the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?

stress.

(a) 16.7 MPa (b) 66.7 MPa 4

(c) 136.7 MPa (d) 150.0 MPa 15 – y

S

Ans. (b)

y

Esteel

Sol. Given : 3, steel 0.5

IE

Stress distribution

steel 100MPa Aluni ? distribution

Let the stress in extreme fibres be 4 and

We know,

3 .

= E Let the distance of neutral axis from bottom =

Here, = T f M E

y. We know

1 E1 1 y I R

2 = E 2 2 4 3

=

steel Esteel steel T 15 y y

Alumi = 4y = 45 – 3y

E Alumi Alumi T

7y = 45

, 8010009955

y = 6.428 cm from bottom 34. The bending moment at A for the beam shown

C.G. from bottom below (With BD being a rigid bar) is

10 2.5 1.25 10 2.5 7.5 b 2.5 13.75 3m B

= A

10 2.5 10 2.5 b 2.5 (Vertical)

R

87.5 13.75b

= 3m 1m

20 b C

D

87.5 13.75b 3 kN

Now, 6.428

TE

20 b (a) Zero (b) 12 kN-m

87.5 13.75b 128.56 6.428b (c) 8 kN-m (d) 6 kN-m

7.322b = 41.06 Ans. (b)

A

b = 5.6 cm 3m

33. A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical Sol. RBD

AS

I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam

RBD

is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and C 1m

bottom are 120 N/mm 2 and 80 N/mm 2 ,

respectively. The depth of the natural axis from 3m 3 KN

the top of the beam will be

Since, there is a hinge at C,

(a) 120 mm (b) 100 mm

M

(c) 80 mm (d) 60 mm MC = 0

3 4 RBD 3 0

Ans. (a)

RBD = 4 KN

S

top = 120 N/mm2 MA = RBD × 3

=4× 3

IE

bottom = 80 N/mm2

= 12 KNm

Let the depth of netural axis from top = y Alternatively

f1 f2

y1 = y 2

120 80 3

=

y 200 y

2(200 – y) = 2y 3

600 – 3y = 2y 3m

R

600 R

y =

5 R

= 120 mm from top. 3

3–R

, 8010009955

(3 – R) × 3 + 3 = 0 Ans. (a)

R =4 Sol. Given N = 200 rpm, T = 1500 Nm

= rad s

35. The bending moment diagram for the beam 60 60 3

shown below is

P = T.

R

D E (Rope tied at B

turned at fixed 20

point E, and on = 1500 10000 watt

pulley at D) 3

2m 1m

TE

A B

C = 10 kW

2 kN

shaft as shown in the figure below. If the

corresponding permissible stress in the shaft

(a)

is 60 N/mm2, the diameter of the shaft is nearly.

AS

2m

4 kN-m 900 N-m 2150 N-m

2 kN-m

A B C D

2m 2m

M

2 kN-m (c) 37.3 mm (d) 27.3 mm

Ans. (b)

(c) Sol.

S

A B

800

4 kN-m

B C D

2 kN-m 900N-m 1250

IE

2150 1250 D

900 1250

900

800

(d) 900 450

Ans. (*)

perm = 60N/m2

36. A circular shaft rotates at 200 rpm and is subject

T

to a torque of 1500 Nm. The power transmitted =

r J

would be

60 1250 1000

=

(a) 10 kW (b) 15 kW d2 d4 32

(c) 20 kW (d) 30 kW d = 47.34 mm

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38. A solid circular shaft has a diameter d. It polar As we know,

modulus will be T

=

r J

2 3

(a) d (b) d 420 13569

16 64 =

R

4

d/2 4 d

3 2 d

(c) d (d) d 32 2

16 32

Ans. (c) 840 13569

TE

= 15

Sol. Polar moment of inertia for a d d4

32 16

d4

Circular saft = d = 5.6 cm

32

J d4

40. Two thin-walled tubular members made of the

Plar modulus = y 32 d

AS

same material have the same length, same

2

wall thickness and same total weight and are

d3

= both subjected to the same torque of magnitude

16

T. If the individual cross-sections are circular

Where y = distance of maximum stress fibre and square, respectively, as in the figures, then

from centre.

the ratios of the shear stress reckoned for

39. A hollow steel shaft has outside diameter and

M

inside diameter d/2. The value of d for the shaft, member will be

if it has to transmit 200 hp at 105 rpm with a

Figures not to scale

working shear stress of 420 kg/cm2, is

(a) 5.6 cm (b) 2.6 cm t

S

Ans. (a)

IE

A0́ A´0´

Sol. d/2 d

(a) 0.785 (b) 0.905

(c) 0.616 (d) 0.513

Given, P = 200 hP, Ans. (a)

N = 105 rpm T

Sol. For thin walled section shear stress 2tA

m

max = 420 Kg/cm2

Am = mean area

P = T.

2 105

200 × 746 = T Am

60

T = 13569 N-m

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Weight of the two member is same hence 42. A mild steel bar, 1.5 m long, has a square

section 40 mm × 40 mm. The bar is subjected

to a two-dimensional stress, x =310 N/mm2

t R

(tensile) and y =300 N/mm2 (compressive).

R

a elongation of the bar is the direction of x will

4at = 2R t be

TE

R (a) 1.25 mm (b) 1.75 mm

a =

2 (c) 2.25 mm (d) 3 mm

Ratio of spear stress, Ans. (d)

T 40

c

2A m t c

AS

=

s T Sol. 40

2A m t s

Ams a2, Amc = R2 neglecting thickness l = 1.5 m

c A ms a2 x = 310 N/mm2

M

=

s A mc R 2

y = –300 N/mm2

2

R

c

2 x y

s

= = 0.785 x =

R 2 4

310 0.3 ( 300)

S

2 10 2 105

the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a

= 0.002

IE

1. Point of Contraflexure l

2. Point of Maximum Shear Force = 0.002 × 1500

3. Point of Inflection = 3 mm

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 43. A tractor has a permissible loaded speed of

200 m/minute, which can increase by 25%

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

when the load is removed/deposited. Generally,

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 it is operated at 80% of the permissible speed

Ans. (a) (loaded unloaded). It works at a location where

Sol. haul distance is 120 m. Rest allowance per

round-trip is taken as 50 seconds on an

BMD average. Fixed time per trip, for loading and

deflected shape

, 8010009955

unloading and turnaround, etc., is 30 seconds. 40×75

A

What is its effective cycle time ?

(a) 157 seconds (b) 161 seconds

40

(c) 173 seconds (d) 182 seconds

R

Ans. (b)

40 × 75

Sol. Running speed of loaded tractor

TE

= 200 × 0.8 = 160 m/minute 40

= 200 × 1.25 × 0.8

MA = 40 × 45 – 40 × 180

= 200 m/minute

= – 4200 kNmm

AS

Total time for the trip

45. In the pin-end cantilever truss shown below,

120 60 120 60 member FG had been fabricated 10 mm longer

= 50 30

160 200 than required. How much will point E deflect

= 161 seconds vertically ?

M

A B A B C D E

180 mm 75 mm 4×a = 4a

D C (a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm

S

75 mm

40 kN (c) 30 mm (d) 40 mm

(a) 3200 kN.mm (b) 3600 kN.mm Ans. (c)

IE

Ans. (c)

a

Sol. E

a a a a 1

UFg ×a = 1 × 3a

A 180 mm B

UFg = 3

75 mm E uii 10 3 30 mm

D C

75 mm 46. The purpose of lateral ties in a short RC column

40 kN is to

(a) Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars

(b) Facilitate compaction of concrete

, 8010009955

(c) Increase the load carrying capacity of the Sol.

column

(d) Facilitate construction

Ans. (a)

Sol. Lateral ties are provided to avoid buckling of

longitudinal bars. 1 restraint 1 restraint

R

required required

47. When a two-hinged parabolic arch is subjected 1 restraint 2 restraint

to a rise in ambient temperature, the horizontal required required

thrust at the support will

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Increase

Decrease

Remain same

TE

Increase or decrease depending on the span

No. of cuts required = 2

No. of restraint required = 1 + 2 + 2 = 5

Degree of static

indeterminacy = 3C – r

AS

= 3× 2– 5 = 1

Ans. (a)

Sol. Horizontal t hrust due to increases in 49. In the slope-deflection equations, deformations

are considered to be caused by

temperature by T

(a) Shear forces and bending moments only

·t· l (b) Axial forces, shear forces and bending

M

H = 2 moments

l y ds

0 EI (c) Axial forces and bending moments only

(d) Bending moments only

48. The degree of static indeterminacy for a rigid Ans. (d)

S

Sol. In slope deflection equation, deformation are

considered to be caused by bending moments

only.

IE

Hinge set of concentrated moving loads is

(a) Always at the midpoint of span

(b) Between the midpoint and concentrated load

next to the midpoint of the span

(a) 0 (b) 1

(c) Not definable

(c) 2 (d) 3

(d) Always under a load close to the centroid of

Ans. (b)

the set of loads

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Ans. (d) 53. Muller-Breslau Principal for obtaining influence

lines is applicable to

Sol. The maximum bending moment caused by a

set of concentrated moving loads occurs when 1. Statically determinate beams and frame

the mid point of span lies midway between the 2. Statically indeterminate structures, the

R

C.G. of load and the concerned load. Max B.M. material of which is elastic, and follows

always occurs under a load. Hooke’s law.

3. Any statically indeterminate structure

TE

51. Force method of analysis of a structure is

particularly preferred when (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only

(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

1. The degrees of freedom of the structure

Ans. (a)

become large

2. The structure has less number of static, and 54. The plastic neutral axis

AS

more number of kinematic, indeterminacies

1. Divides the given section into two equal

3. The structure has more numbers of static,

halves

and less numbers of kinematic,

indeterminacies 2. Divides the given section into two unequal

parts

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

3. Lies on the centroidal axis of the section

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

M

Ans. (b)

(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Sol. Force method uses force as basic unknown

Ans. (a)

v ari abl e whi ch is a f uncti on as stat ic

indeterminacies so, force method is preferred 55. The plastic moment capacity MP is

S

numbers of kinematic indelerminacies. (a) Less than the yield moment

(b) Equal to the yield moment

IE

52. Stiffness matrix method is the category of (c) Greater than the yield moment

1. Compatibility method (d) Dependent on section dimensions

2. Displacement method Ans. (c)

3. Force method Sol. Plastic moment capacity is greater than the

4. Equilibrium method yield moment because in plastic stage all

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only the fibres are yielded where as in other only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only outer fibre yieldes.

Ans. (d) 56. Web crippling is caused by

Ans. Stiffness matrix method is modification of (a) Excessive bending moment

sl ope def l ect i on m et hod whi ch uses

(b) Failure of web under point loads

equi li brium equation to det ermi ne t he

ki nem at i c (di spl acem ent ) response of

structure and then force response

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(c) Width of flanges ratio is restricted to 120, the maximum column

(d) Column action of web height will be

Ans. (b) (a) 1.0 m (b) 2.4 m

Sol. Web crippling is actually local buckling that (c) 4.0 m (d) 4.8 m

occur when the web is slender. It occur due Ans. (c)

to high magnitude of point load which result

R

in stress concentration and bearing failure. L

Sol. Sr 1.2

57. The block shear failure of a bolted joint in ry

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tension occurs because of

L

120 1.2

1. Use of higher shear strength bolts 40

2. Use of paltes with higher bearing strength L = 4.0 m

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 60. As per I S 800 – 2007, the permit ted

slenderness ratio for a bracing member in case

AS

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neithter 1 nor 2

of hangers shall be

Ans. (c)

(a) 140 (b) 145

Ans. W hen high shear strength bolt and high

bearing strength plates are used, length of (c) 150 (d) 160

connection gets reduced leading to block Ans. (d)

shear failure

M

58. As per IS code, the maximum longitudinal pitch 61. A rectangular beam of depth d is under bending.

allowed in bolted joints of tension members is Load has been gradually increased when the

nominally top fibre has obtained five times the strain at

(a) 12 times the thickness of the plate the first yield. What detph of the beam will still

S

(b) 12 times the diameter of the bolt

(a) 0.16 d (b) 0.20 d

(c) 16 times the thickness of the plate

IE

(d) 16 times the diameter of the bolt (c) 0.25 d (d) 0.40

Ans.(c) Ans. (b)

times the thickness as the plate

5y y

59. ISMB 100 (rx = 40 mm, ry = 10 mm) has been Sol. d x

used as a column in a industrial shed. Along 2

the minor axis, the the column has restraints in d

the form of purlins at 1.0 m intervals. Effective x 0.1d

10

length factor along major and minor axes are depth of elastic section = 2x = 0.2d

1.2 and 1.0, respectively. If the slenderness

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5 y Which of the above cases are considered for

safe design of R.C members in flexure?

x

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only

R

Ans. (b)

Sol. Under-reinforced section which result in

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tension failure give ample warning before

5 y collapse.

62. The ultimate moment capacity of a mild steel 65. The bond between steel and concrete is mainly

section is usually due to

(a) Equal to the plastic moment capacity 1. Mechanical resistance

AS

(b) More than the yield moment capacity 2. Pure adhesive resistance

3. Frictional resistance

(c) Let than the yield moment capacity

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(d) More than the plastic moment capacity

Ans. (a) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

M

Ans. (d)

(a) Transfer load from top of end posts to Sol. 1. Mechanical resistacne is developed due

bearings to bearing stress against the rib. whereas

(b) Maintain the rectangular shape of the bridge friction and adhesive property develop at the

cross-section contact of steel and concrete.

S

(c) Stiffen the structure laterally 66. The carbonation process is demonstrated more

by

(d) Prevent the buckling of top chord under side

IE

Ans. (c) (b) Choloride corrosion

Sol. Portal bracing stiffens the structure laterally (c) Stress corrosion

and transfer the wind and seismic load from (d) Hydrogen embrittlement

top of end posts to bearing.

Ans. (a)

64. Consider the following cases in the design of

Carbonation occure when carbon dioxide

reinforced concrete members in flexure:

from the air penetrates the concrete and

1. Over-reinforced section reacts with hydroxides such as cacium

2. Tension failure hydroxide to form cabonates

3. Compression failure

Ca(oH)2 + CO 2 CaCo3 + H2O

4. Under-reinforced section

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This reaction reduces the pH of the pore (a) Diagonal tension failure

solution as low as 8.5, at which the passive

(b) Diagonal compression failure

film on the steel is not stable.

(c) Flexural tension failure

67. When a sprially reinforced short column is

(d) Flexural compression failure

loaded axially, the concrete inside the core is

subjected to Ans. (b)

R

(a) Bending and compression Sol. cmax is based on diagonal compression

failure.

(b) Biaxial compression

70. Footings shall be designed to sustain the

(c) Triaxial compression

(d) Uniaxial compression

Ans. (c)

The concrete inside the core is subjected to

tri-axial compression. It is confined by hoop

TE 1. Applied loads

2. Moments and forces under relatable loading

conditions

3. Induced reactions

AS

(a) 1and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

stress in spiral reinforcement and axial load

transfer path. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

distribution is diagrammatically Sol. As per IS 456 : Clause 34.1

(a) Wholly Parabolic 71. Reinforced concrete slabs are designed for

M

(c) Parabolic above NA and Rectangular below 2. Flexure

NA 3. Positive bending moment

(d) Rectangular above NA and Parabolic below 4. Negative bending moment

S

Ans. (c) (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

IE

Ans. (c)

Sol. Sl abs are desi gned f or be ndi ng and

def lect ion and not desi gned f or shear

N.A because

(i) Slabs have much small depth than beams.

Sol.

(ii) Most of slabs subjected to unif ormly

distributed loads.

72. As compared to the working stress method of

design, the limit state method of design

69. As per IS 456 – 2000, the maximum permissible premises that the concrete can admit

shear stress, Cmax ' is based on

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(a) A lower stress level loading a parabolic profile with convexity

downward is provided.

(b) A higher stress level

(c) Occasionally higher, but usually lower, stress 75. In a post-tension pre-stressed concrete beam,

the end block zone is in between the end of

level

R

the beam and the section where

(d) Only the same stress level

Ans. (b) (a) The shear stresses are maximum

TE

73. The bending stress in a T-beam section is (b) Only shear stresses exist

maximum (c) No lateral stresses exist

1. At top fibre (d) Only longitudinal stresses exist

Ans. (d)

2. At centroidal fibre

Sol. The zone between the end of the beam and

AS

3. At bottom fibre

the section where only longitudinal stress

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only ex i st i s g eneral l y ref erred t o as t he

(c) 3 only anchorage zone or end block zone.

(d) At a level which is dependent on the loading 76. In the pre-tensioning method

condition.

1. Tension in concrete is induced directly by

M

Sol. At lower stress value bottom fibre has 2. Tension is induced in the tendons before

maximum stress whereas if we increase concreting

loading, concrete under tension undergoes 3. Concrete continues to be in tension after

cracking in such condition maximum bending pre-stressing

S

74. If the loading on a simply supported pre- (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

IE

distributed, the centriod fo the pre-stressing

tendon should be as Sol. In pretensioning, tension is induced in the

tendons before concreting. Once the concrete

(a) A straight profile along the lower edge of

sets and hardens, tendons are cut and

the kern

prestress is transferred to concrete. Hence after

(b) A parabolic profile with convexity downward application of prestress, concrete is in

(c) A straight profile along the centriodal axis compression.

(d) A circular profile with convexity upward 77. Flexural collapse in over-reinforced beams is

Ans. (b) due to

Sol. The centriod profile as tendon must be (a) Primary compression failure

provided such that section is under uniform (b) Secondary compression failure

compression. For unif ormly destributed

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(c) Primary tension failure (a) 33 2 lps (b) 35 6 lps

(d) Bond failure

(c) 37 0 lps (d) 38 2 lps

Ans. (b)

Ans. (d)

Sol. Over reinforced beam undergo compression

failure which is a sudden failure due to crushing Sol. L = Stroke length = 25 cm

R

of concrete in compression zone. this type of

N = speed = 135 rpm

failure of compression zone is called secondary

compression failure. D = Dia. of piston = 30 cm

TE

Slip = 4%

78. If a beam is likely to fail due to high bonding

stresses, then its bond strength can be Qacutal

increased most economically by % slip = 1 Q 100

Theotical

(a) Providing vertical stirrups

(b) Increasing the depth of the beam

AS

Qacutal

1 100

(c) Using smaller diameter bars in 4 = ALN

correspondingly more numbers 60

(d) Using higher diameter bars by reducing their

numbers Qac

1 100

4 = N

(D)2 L

Ans. (c) 4 60

M

135

Sol. To increase bond strength we should use (1 0.04) (0.3)2 0.25 = Qac (m3 /s)

4 60

smaller diameter bars in correspondingly large = 38.17 l /s

numbers (such that area of steel remains

80. In the design of pre-stressed concrete

same). This would effectively increase surface

S

area of contact between steel and concrete.

will qualilfy as the limit states of serviceability?

Stirrups are used in beams to counter shear 1. Flexural

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bring any change in bond strength. 3. Deflection

79. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke 4. Cracking

of 25 cm, speed of 135 rpm, and a piston of 30 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only

cm diameter. If its slip has been estimated as (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

4% at a particular operating condition, what is

the corresponding realized discharge through Ans. (b)

a height of 14 m?

Sol. In the method of design based on limit state

concept, the structure shall be designed to

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safely all loads liable to act on it. The resistance Type of Cement Type of Line

Nature of work

to bending, shear, torsion and axial loads at Mortar Mortar

every section shall not be less than the Reinforced 1:3 which means 1

appropriate value at that section produced by Brikwork part cemnt.

3 part Scmed

the probable most unfavorable combination of

R

(in term of volume)

loads on the structure using the appropriate Plaster work 1:3 to 1:4 1:2

partial safety factors. This constitutes assessing Stone Masonary 1:2 lime

limit state of collapse. with ordinary 1:6 being hydraulic

TE

stones lime

The structure shall also satisfy limit states of Stone Masonary 1:2 lime being

with best variety hydraulic lime

serviceability requirements, such as limitations of stones

on deflection and cracking. Think joints in 1:3; lime being

brickwork fat lime

81. Consider the following statements:

AS

General RCC

1:3

works

1. Pumps used in series are generally of the

Construction work 1:3 lime being

centrifugal type. in water logged 1:3 hydraulic lime

areas & exposed

2. Centrif ugal pumps, though yielding conditions

comparatively smaller discharges than axial

Damp proof

flow pumps, yield higher heads (at each courses and

1:2

cement - concrete

M

roads

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

83. The efficacy of pumpcrete is based primarily

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

on

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. The capacity of pump

S

exceed 8 cm

82. When steel reinforcing bars are provided in 3. The diameter of pipe being large, with more

IE

than 30 cm being desirable

with adequate cover in cement-sand mortar not

4. The performance of the agitator

leaner than

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 4

(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 6

Ans. (a)

Ans. (a)

Sol. Efficiency of concrete pump depends on

Length of horizontal pipe–300 to 400 m

Length of vertical pipe

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Number of bends 750 4000 / 60

720 780

Diameter of pipe line (150 mm – 200 mm) =

2 Hn3/4

Slump of concrete (> 75 mm)

Hm = 16 m

Capacity of pump

80

Maximum size of Aggregate = 40 mm No. of impellers = 5

16

Performance of Agitation

R

86. A 15 cm centrifugal pump delivers 6 lps at a

84. In a non-tilting type drum mixer,

head of 26 m running at a speed of 1350 rpm.

1. Large size aggregate up to 20 – 25 cm can A similarly designed pump of 20 cm size runs

TE

be handled at the same speed. What are the most likely

2. Mixing time is less than 2 minutes nearest magnitudes of discharge and delivery

3. Discharge is through buckets onto the head provided by the latter pump?

platform

(a) 11 lps and 46 m (b) 14 lps and 52 m

4. For large size mixers, the mixing time should

(c) 11 lps and 52 m (d) 14 lps and 46 m

AS

be slightly increased if handling more than

800 litres of the mix Ans. (d)

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Pump 1 Pump 2

Sol.

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only D 15 cm D1 20 cm

Q 6 lps Q1

Ans. (d)

M

H 26 m H1

Sol. In Non tilting mixtures large size of aggregates N 1350 rpm N1 1350 rpm

upto 80 mm can be used. N1D1

ND

As per IS-456 : 2000 mixing time shall be closer = H

H 1

S

to 2 min 20

15

= H

85. How many impellers are required for a multi- 26 1

IE

of 80 m at a speed of 750 rpm; given that Ns Q Q1

for each impeller should be between 720 to Also 3 = 3

D1 N1

DN

780 units? 3

20

(a) 6 (b) 5 Q1 = 6

15

(c) 4 (d) 3 = 14.22 lps

Ans. (b) 87. Which fo the following statements are correct

as operating characteristics of centrifugal

N Q pump?

Sol. NS = 3/4

Hm

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1. As discharge increases from zero value, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

head slightly increases; then the head Ans. (c)

declines gently; and beyond a certain

discharge, the head falls steeply. P0 T

2. As discharge increases, efficiency increases Sol. H0 = HS S

R

PS T0

from zero, rising fast to a maximum value

and then falls rapidly, more rapidly than the H0 = Observed horse power

head-discharge curve.

TE

HS = Standard horse power

3. BHP increases from a non-zero (positive)

value at zero discharge, the increase being P0 = Observed barometric pressure

only moderate before it starts falling beyond PS = Standard barometric pressure

a certain discharge.

TS = Absolute temperature f or

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

standard conditions

AS

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

T0 = Absolute temperature f or

Ans. (a)

observed condition.

Power increases when pressure increases and

temperature decreases.

Head

89. Manometric head developed hm in m, and

M

Sol.

discharge Q in lps in respect of two pumps, 1

poner and 2, are tabulated. The pumps are connected

Q in series against a static head of 100 m. Total

head losses for a discharge of Q are as

S

(m). What is the delivered discharge?

qualified by the power developed under 100

IE

Qin lps 15 18 20 22 25

change, the power developed will increase with

local ambience, if hm1 in m 60 6 61 2 62 0 55 0 48 0

hm1 in m 50 8 51 0 48 8 45 8 40 0

1. Ambient temperature increases

2. Ambient temperature decreases (a) 20 15 lps (b) 21 25 lps

3. Ambient pressure increases (c) 21 95 lps (d) 22 20 lps

4. Ambient pressure decreases

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only

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Ans. (b) developed = 25 m; Input shaft horse power

= 11.9 W. What is the non-dimensional specific

Sol. 2

Required head 100 Q speed of the pump it it was running at 1500

Available 100 rpm? (May adopt the following (all in S.I. units):

Q

head Vd2

neglecting velocity head 1/4

= 1 77 , g1/2 = 3 132 , g3/4 = 5 544 ,

2g g

15 111.4 102.25

ER

18 112.2 103.24 2 = 1 414 , 5 = 2.236 and 10 = 3 162 )

20 110.8 104.0 (a) 165 (b) 155

21 105.8 104.41 (c) 145 (d) 135

21.5 103.3 104.615 Ans. (b)

22 100.8 104.82

25 88.0

T

106.25

Hence, discharge Q will lie between 21 and

Sol. Given that = 40 lps (centrifugal pump)

manometric head, Hm = 25 m

AS

21.5.

N Q

90. A reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, Non dimensional specific speed Ns =

(gHm )3/4

spped of 100 rpm, and a piston of 22 5 cm

1500 40

diameter. It discharge and 18 9 lps . What is the NS =

(9.81 25)3/4

slip of the pump?

NS =153.07 rpm

M

(c) 4 15% (d) 4 95% (Discharge has been taken in lps instead of

Ans. (d) m3/s which is actually not correct).

92. The total head to be developed by a centrifugal

Qac

S

th ratio of radii of impeller rim and impeller eye of

ACN 100 3 2 is maintained. The design is for a speed of

(0.225)2 0.3

IE

60 4 60

= 0.01987 m3/s 1

impeller? Take g 3 13 and 0 318 .

= 19.87 l/s

Qac = 18.9 l/s (a) 53 cm (b) 57 cm

(c) 60 cm (d) 64 cm

18.9 Ans. (a)

% slip = 1 100 = 4.95%

19.87

For starting of pump min centrifugal head

91. The following data were recorded when a developed > Hm

centrifugal pump worked at its maximum Hence,

efficiency: Q = 40 lps ; Manometric head

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2 2

DBN DAN

A B1 B2

Hm = 60 60 50 m 8,3 3,1 3,1 B3

2g C1 4,2 3,1

C2

DB

R

4,2

Given that D = 2 Sol. D 4,2 C3

A 6,3 1

D2 D3

DBN

2 D 2 6,3 6,3

60 1 A

DB = 2g ×50

TE

2 If activity B is divided into 3 equal parts then

DB 1300 2 9.81 50

each part will have duration 3 units and

60 (1 0.52 )

standard deviation 1

DB 53 cm

12 12 12

AS

where 4.5 =

93. Activities A, B, C and D constitute a small (3 1)

project; their interrelationship, expected duration

2

and standard deviation of this expected duration 1 = 4.5

3

are shown in the figure, respectively.

2

Similarly, S.D. of C1, C2, C3 =2= 3 each

A B C D 3

M

8, 3 9, 4 5 12, 3 18, 1 5 2

S.D. of D1, D2, D3 = 3 = 1.5 each

3

W ith a view to improving the speed of

implementation, each of B, C and D are split Modified project duration

into three equal segments, maintaining = 8+ 3+ 4 + 6 + 6

S

= 33 units

each of these nine segments. What will be the

standard deviation of the modified project Modified project S.D.

IE

1 2 2

duration after segmentation (to the nearest 32 4.52 32

10 3 3

unit)? = 2

1.5 2 3

3

(a) 6 2 (b) 5 6

= 5.7

(c) 5 2 (d) 4 6

Ans. (b) 94. W hich of the f ollowing is/are the main

drawback(s) in adopting bar charts?

1. All the activities are shown as being

independent of each other

2. The sequence of activities is not defined at

all

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3. It is difficult to judge whether an activity is Ans (b)

completed or not

Sol. Length of arrows in network diagram has no

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only significance.

(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

An activity lies between two nodes. Number

Ans. (d)

of nodes increase as the activity progresses.

R

Sol. Bar chart does not show intedependency of

97. Which of the following statements are implicit

activities. Hence they seem to be independent

in developing the critical path network?

of each other and their sequence is not shown.

TE

1. Only one time estimate is required for any

Bar chart does not depeict review of project activity

progress hence it is difficult to judge whether

2. Time only is the controlling factor at this

an activity is complete or not.

stage

95. The purpose of work-break-down structure in 3. Time and cost both are controlling factors

project planning is mainly to at this stage

AS

1. Facilitate and improve the decision-making 4. Critical events may have positive, negative,

on procurement of resources or zero float

2. Relate activities under particular trade (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

specializations to help in organizing for (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only

project staff

Sol. (b)

3. Co-ordinate regarding milestone events

M

across trade specializations to improve the Ans. In CPM only one time estimate is given for

synergy between the trades each activity.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only In CPM time and cost both are controlling

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 factors.

Ans. (d)

S

96. W hich of the following statements is/are statement is wrong.

correct? 98. In the crtical path method of project planning,

IE

which need not be in an increasing order in

(a) Greater than independent float

the activity progress sequence.

2. The length of the arrow in a network has (b) Greater than total float

certain significance. (c) Less than independent float

3. Concurrent acitv ities are mutually (d) Equal to total float

independent and can possibly be taken up

Ans. (a)

simultaneously.

(a) 1 only (b) 3 only Sol. In critical path method.

(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Total float = LFT – EFT = LST – EST

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Free Float = F T – Sj P Q R

Independent Float = F f – Si T C T C T C

float. 9 235 7 320 10 375

R

10 225 8 295 12 350

Free float will be less than total float. 11 215 9 275

99. Slack time in PERT analysis For a total duration of 25 units of time, the

TE

(a) Can never be greater than zero least total direct cost for the complete project

(b) Is always zero for critical actvities will be

(c) Can never be less than zero (a) 965 units (b) 950 units

(d) Is minimum for critical events

(c) 940 units (d) 925 units

Ans. (d)

AS

Ans. (d)

Sol. In PERT analysis slack time can be

P Q R

(a) +ve i.e S > 0

(b) –ve i.e S < 0 Sol. T C T C T C

M

But for critical events slack will be minimum 9 235 7 320 10 375

or zero. 10 225 8 295 12 350

Slack is associated with ev ents hence 11 215 9 275

statements (b) is wrong

S

Note:- Generally for crtical activities slack

will be zero, but it can be minimum also. Normal project cost = 840 units

IE

R to be executed in that sequence. The Project duration = 30 units

relationship between time duration (in ‘Units of

Project cost = 860 units

tme-T) and corresponding total direct cost (C

units) for each of the activities, for alternate Crash R by 4 days.

mutually exclusive possible durations for each

Project duration = 26 units

activity, are tabulated herewith:

Project cost = 910 units

Crash P by 1 day.

Project duration = 25 units

Project cost = 925 units.

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Directions: Each of the next twenty (20) items Ans. (b)

consists of two statements, one labelled as the Sol. Hardwoods are used in special purpose heavy

‘statement (I)’ and the other as ‘statement (II)’. construction because they are strong in tension,

examine these two statements carefully and compression and shear, strong along and

select the answers to thse items using the across the grains.

codes given below:

All hardwoods have vessels (little pipelines) that

ER

Codes: are used in sap production. When the vessels

are cut across the end grain, they are referred

(a) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are

to as pores, thus hardwoods are known as

individually true and statement (II) is the

“porous woods”.

correct explanation of statement (I)

103. Statement (I): In general, bricks cannot be

(b) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are used in industrial foundations.

T

individally true but statement (II) is not the

correct eplanation of statement (I)

(c) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is

Statement (II): Heavy duty bricks can withstand

higher temperatures.

AS

false Ans. (b)

(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is 104. Statement (I): In multistoried constructions,

true. burnt clay perforated bricks are used to reduce

101. Statement (I): Splitting of fibres is a type of the cost of construction.

seasoning defect in wood. Statement (II): Perforated bricks are economical

M

Statement (II):Seasoning of timber is a general and they also provide thermal insulation.

requirement for structural purposes. Ans. (a)

Ans. (b)

105. Statement (I): Positive displacement pumps

Sol. Spliting is separation of fibers along the grain can be used for pumping of ready-mixed

and extends from one end of the blank to the concrete.

S

Statement (II):The coarse aggregate in the mix

Seasoning of timber is a general requirement

is unlikely to be crushed during positive

for structural purpose because it helps in

IE

displacement.

1. Reducing tendency to sphit warp and shrink.

Ans. (a)

2. Immune from attack by insects.

3. Increasing strength durability, workability and 106. Statement (I): Fire resistance of plastering can

resilience. be achieved by mixing surkhi to the cement

mortar.

4. Reduce weight and minimize cost of

transportation. Statement (II): Insulation against sound and

5. Readily burning of timber, if used as fuel. fire be achieved by adding sufficient water in-

situ just before applying the mortar.

102. Statement (I): Hardwoods are used in special

purpose heavy constrctions. Ans. (c)

Statement (II):Hardwoods too are porous in 107. Statement (I): Water containing less than 2000

nature. ppm of dissolved solids can generally be used

, 8010009955

satisfactorily for making concrete. needle vibrators are preferred in foundation

concreting.

Statement (II): The presence of any of zinc,

manganese, tin, copper or lead reduces the Statement (II): Needle vibrators are susceptible

strength of concrete considerably. to get dysfunctional with leaking-in of cement

R

slurry – which is not the case with the shutter

Ans. (b)

vibrator.

108. Statement (I): Though a non-elastic material,

Ans. (b)

yet concrete exhibits a linear relationship

TE

between stress and strain at low values of 113. Statement (I): The forward edge of wheels or

stress. outriggers acts as a fulcrum in determining the

lifting capacity of a mobile crane.

Statement (II):The modulus of elasticity of

concrete is dependent on the elastic properties Statement (II): There is in-build security and

of aggregate and on curing. safety against sudden dropping of load, as well

AS

as against abrupt swinging, in the working of a

Ans. (b)

mobile crane.

109. Statement (I): Finer the cement, greater is the

Ans. (b)

need for water for hydration and workability.

Sol. The stability-limited rated load for a mobile

Statement (II): Bleeding of a mix occurs due to

crane supported on outriggers is 85% of tipping

low water-cement ratio.

M

load.

Ans. (c)

Tipping takes about fulcrum.

110. Statement (I): The failure of a mild steel

114. Statement (I): Hand-operated chain-hoists

specimen of circular cross-section, subjected

include differential screw-geared types within

to a torque occurs along its cross-section.

S

their range.

Statement (II): The failure occurs on a plane of

Statement (II): In case of a hoist-winch, the

the specimen subjected to maximum shear

capacity of the hoist is increased by a number

IE

of gear reductions.

Ans. (a)

Ans. (b)

111. Statement (I): In elastic analysis of structures,

Sol. Hand operated chain hoist are screw geared

the neutral axis is the intersection between the

and differential type i.e., they are self locking

plane of bending and the neutral plane.

and will automatically hold a load in position.

Statement (II): Neutral axis in the context of

Winch is used for pulling and hoisting objects,

plastic analysis of structures is always the Equal

lower is the gear ratio higher is the power.

area axis of the cross-section.

115. Statement (I): When employing weigh-batching

Ans. (d)

for mix preparation, bulking of sand has to be

112. Statement (I): Whereas shutter vibrators are accounted for.

preferred for use with pre-stressed beams,

, 8010009955

ingredients, the water needs too must be

Statement (II): Bulked sand will affect the properly computed and implemented.

proportional composition of the ingredients to Ans. (b)

be used in making wet concrete of the desired

118. Statement (I): Resources optimization is largely

eventual strength.

a pre-im plementati on pursuit whereas

Ans. (d) resources al locat ion i s a through-

116. Statement (I): Critical path(s) through a CPM implementation dynamic process.

R

network can be identified even without working Statement (II): Resources allocation has a

out the backward pass computations by a larger bearing on inventory management than

competent user. resoures optimization.

excluding between splitting and merging nodes)TE

Statement (II): Critical path is the progressive

throughout (including through dummy arrrows,

Ans. (b)

119. Statement (I): Crashing of project duration

always increases the cost of the project on its

completion, no matter what the indirect, or

AS

overhead, costs are.

if appropriate).

Statement (II): The critical path along the project

Ans. (b) activities network diagram is compressed in the

process of investigating the crashing of the

Sol. Critical path is the longest path time wise which project duration, and not the non-critical

canbe determined from forward path method activities, up to a certain stage of crashing.

M

only

Ans. (d)

117. Statement (I): For implementing weigh-

batching, separate compartments are made for 120. Statement (I): In the operation of reciprocating

storing large quantities of the aggregates. pumps, slip can sometimes be negative.

Besided lifting and loading equipments, there Statement (II): Under conditions of high speed,

S

must be regular assessment of grading and long suction pipes (without cavitation) and short

also of moisture content. delivery pipes, inertia pressure can be relatively

rather high, causing the delivery value to open

IE

the mix depends also on the grading of the before the discharge stroke begins.

Ans. (a)

, 8010009955

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