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Air Laws Questions

Laws in the Philippines (R.A. 776, R.A. 9497, P.D. 1570) and its History

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Success & Excuses do not talk together.


If you want Excuses, forget about success.
If you want success, do not give excuses! -
1. The act creating the Civil Aeronautics Board and the Bureau of Air
Transportation, which is known as Air Transportation Office, is the _____. 1996
a. RA 677
b. RA 778
c. RA 776
d. RA 887

2. The first licensure examination for aeronautical engineers was conducted by the
PRC last _____.
a. July 1982
b. July 1983
c. November 1982
d. November 1983

3. Creation of Mactan Cebu International Authority, or “The Charter of Mactan-Cebu


International Airport Authority.”
a. R.A. 6958
b. E.O. 778
c. P.D. 286
d. R.A. 9497

4. Creation of the Manila International Airport Authority.


a. R.A. 6958
b. E.O. 778
c. P.D. 286
d. R.A. 9497

5. Creation of the Philippine Aerospace Development Corporation.


a. R.A. 6958
b. E.O. 778
c. P.D. 286
d. R.A. 9497

Nomenclature
Abbreviation Form of Government Dates
Designation
Philippine government under United States
Act Act 1900–1935
sovereignty
Commonwealth
CA Philippine Commonwealth 1935–1946
Act
1946–72,
Republic Act RA Republic
1987–present
Presidential Republic under Martial Law/Fourth
PD 1972–1986
Decree Republic
Presidential
PP Republic under Martial Law 1972–1986
Proclamation
Batas Pambansa BP Modified parliamentary republic 1978–1985
Executive
EO Republic under Provisional Constitution 1986–1987
Order
Air Laws Questions
R.A. 776

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Everything you are going through is preparing you for what you asked for. -
1. The permit to engage in domestic air commerce is issued to _____. 1996
a. Filipino citizens only
b. any airline as long as it is registered
c. any carrier
d. None of these is correct.

2. R.A. 776 was approved on _____.


a. June 20, 1952
b. June 11, 1978
c. July 15, 2003
d. March 4, 2008

3. The title of R.A. 776 shall be “_____.”


a. The Civil Aviation Act of the Philippines
b. The Civil Aeronautics Act of the Philippines
c. The Civil Aviation Authority Act of the Philippines
d. The Civil Aeronautics Authority Act of the Philippines

4. Those that ensure just and reasonable return on the capital invested, taking into
consideration the cost of construction, operation, and maintenance and non-
aeronautical revenue of the air navigation facility affected, which shall be
uniform.
a. Landing fees
b. Reasonable charges
c. Royalties
d. Terminal fees

5. Any locality either on water or on land, which is adapted for landing and taking-
off of aircraft located along an airway and is intermediate to airports connected
by the airway, whether or not facilities are provided for the shelter, servicing,
or repair of aircraft, or for receiving or discharging passengers or cargo.
a. Aerodrome
b. Airport
c. Landing field
d. Ramp

6. Any person, who does not directly operate an aircraft for the purpose of engaging
in air transportation or air commerce and not bonafide employee of an air
carrier, who as principal or agent, sells or offers for sale any air
transportation of cargo, or negotiates for, or holds himself out of solicitation,
advertisement, or otherwise as one who sells, provides, furnished, contracts or
arranges for such air transportation of cargo.
a. General sales agent
b. Cargo sales agent
c. Airfreight forwarder
d. Air carrier

7. Any indirect air carrier which, in the ordinary and usual course of its
undertaking, assembles and consolidates or provides for assembling and
consolidating such property or performs or provides for the performance of break-
bulk and distributing operations with respect to consolidated shipments, and is
responsible for the transportation of property from the point of receipt to point
of destination and utilizes for the whole or any part of such transportation the
services of a direct air carrier.
a. General sales agent
b. Cargo sales agent
c. Airfreight forwarder
d. Air carrier

8. A person who undertakes, whether directly or indirectly, or by a lease of any


other arrangements, to engage in air transportation or air commerce.
a. General sales agent
b. Cargo sales agent
c. Airfreight forwarder
d. Air carrier
9. A person not a bonafide employee of an air carrier, who pursuant to an authority
from an airline, by itself or through an agent, sells or offers for sale any air
transportation, or negotiates for, or holds himself out by solicitation,
advertisement or otherwise as one who sells, provides, furnishes, contracts, or
arranges for, such air transportation.
a. General sales agent
b. Cargo sales agent
c. Airfreight forwarder
d. Air carrier

10. The Civil Aeronautics Board is composed of how many members?


a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

11. Which is true regarding the composition and assumption of office of the CAB
members?
a. No member of the Board shall have any pecuniary interest in, or own any
stock or bond of, any civil aeronautics enterprise.
b. The Commanding General of the Philippine Air Force is one of the members of
the Board.
c. The Secretary of National Defense or his designated representative will be
the Chairman.
d. The Assistant Secretary for Air Transportation of the Department of
Transportation and Communications will act as the Vice-Chairman.

12. What is the minimum number of present board members to constitute a quorum?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

13. The power to regulate the economic aspect of air transportation and general
supervision and regulation of air carriers, general sales agents, cargo sales
agents, and airfreight forwarders as well as their property, property rights,
equipment, facilities, and franchise rest on the _____.
a. Civil Aeronautics Administration
b. Civil Aeronautics Board
c. Department of National Defense
d. Department of Transportation and Communications

14. Under what section of the R.A. 776 are the powers and duties of the Board
enumerated?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 25
d. 32

15. It is the permit issued by the Board that authorizes a person to engage in air
commerce and/or transportation, foreign and/or domestic.
a. Certificate of Registration
b. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
c. Certificate of Commerce
d. Certificate of Acknowledgement

16. No permit shall be issued for a period of more than _____.


a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. 25 years

17. The Civil Aeronautics Administration was organized under section _____ of R.A.
776.
a. 10
b. 11
c. 25
d. 32

18. The Civil Aeronautics Administration shall be under the Administrative


supervision and control of the _____.
a. Department of Commerce and Industry
b. Department of National Defense
c. Department of Transportation and Communications
d. Department of Tourism

19. The Civil Aeronautics Administration is composed of _____ members.


a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

20. Which among the following statements regarding the Civil Aeronautics
Administrator is true?
a. The Administrator shall be appointed by the President of the Philippines
with the consent of the Commission on Appointments.
b. The Administrator shall receive an annual basic salary of seven thousand,
two hundred pesos (7,200) and, subject to the approval of the President,
additional salary of one thousand, eight hundred pesos (1,800) per annum.
c. The Administrator shall be the Administrative head of the Civil Aeronautics
Administration and shall possess the powers generally conferred upon bureau
heads.
d. The Administrator shall administer all laws relating to civil aviation in
the Philippines.
e. All of the above

21. The powers and duties of the Administrator are enumerated under section _____ of
R.A. 776.
a. 10
b. 11
c. 25
d. 32

22. Decisions, order and/or ruling of the Board shall become final and conclusive
after _____ days from the date thereof unless appealed within said period to the
Supreme Court by certiorari.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. sixty (60)
d. ninety (90)

Republic Act No. 776


AN ACT, TO REORGANIZE THE CIVIL AERONAUTICS BOARD AND THE CIVIL AERONAUTICS
ADMINISTRATION TO PROVIDE FOR THE REGULATION OF CIVIL AERONAUTICS IN THE PHILIPPINES
AND AUTHORIZING THE APROPRIATION OF FUNDS THEREFOR

Chapter I - Title and Purpose


Chapter II - General Provisions
Chapter III - Civil Aeronautics Board
Chapter IV - Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
Chapter V - Civil Aeronautics Administration
Chapter VI - Registration and Record
Chapter VII - Violation and Penalties
Chapter VIII - Orders and Judicial Review
Chapter IX - Receipts of the CAA and CAB
Chapter X - Miscellaneous Provisions
(10 Chapters, 56 Sections)
Air Laws Questions
R.A. 9497

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- The only way to succeed is to not worry about what anyone else is doing. -
1. In R.A. 9497, the Board Members are composed of how many members? Section 5
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7

2. Republic Act No. 9497 is also known as the _____.


a. Civil Aviation Authority Act of 2008
b. Civil Aeronautics Act of 2008
c. Civil Aeronautics Board Act of 2008
d. Civil Aviation Act of 2008

3. It refers to all charges for the use of any landing strip or runway by any
aircraft landing or taking off at an aerodrome.
a. Terminal fees
b. Royalties
c. Landing fees
d. Reasonable charges

4. This section declares the creation of the Authority, an independent regulatory


body with quasi-judicial and quasi-legislative powers.
a. 4
b. 9
c. 24
d. 35

5. To what executive department of the Philippines is CAAP attached to for policy


coordination?
a. Department of National Defense (DND)
b. Department of Science and Technology (DOST)
c. Department of Tourism (DoT)
d. Department of Transportation and Communications (DOTC)
6. Which among the following statements regarding the Director General is not true?
a. The Director General shall head the Authority.
b. The Philippine president appoints the Director General.
c. The Director General shall be responsible for the exercise of all powers
and the discharge of all duties of the Authority and shall have control
over all personnel and activities of the Authority.
d. The Director General shall have tenure of six (6) years and shall only be
removed for cause in accordance with the rules and regulations prescribed
by the Civil Service Commission.

7. Who shall be prohibited from holding any interest whatsoever, either as investor,
stockholder, officer, or director, in any company or entity engaged in air
commerce, whether scheduled or unscheduled, passenger or cargo, domestic or
international, or in any business providing support services to persons engaged
in air commerce and therefore divest, through sale or legal disposition, of any
and all interests in such undertakings?
a. All members of the Board
b. All members of the Board or any of their relatives within the second civil
degree of consanguinity or affinity, legitimate or common law
c. All members of the Board or any of their relatives within the third civil
degree of consanguinity or affinity, legitimate or common law
d. All members of the Board or any of their relatives within the fourth civil
degree of consanguinity or affinity, legitimate or common law

8. No member of the Board or any employee of the Authority shall accept employment
or enter into a contract of service with an entity regulated by the Authority
until the expiry of _____ from the termination of his/her appointment, whether
resignation or revocation or otherwise.
a. 90 days
b. 120 days
c. 1 year
d. 2 year

9. The presence of how many member/s of the Board constitute a quorum?


a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

10. The majority vote of _____ members in a meeting where a quorum is present shall
be necessary for the adoption of any rule, ruling, order, resolution, decision,
or other act of the Board.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

11. Under what section of this R.A. are the qualifications of a Director General
specified?
a. 4
b. 9
c. 24
d. 35

12. What are the qualifications of a Director General? 1: Filipino; 2: at least


thirty-five (35) years of age; 3: of good moral character, unquestionable
integrity, and recognized competence; 4: degree holder with at least five (5)
years supervisory/management experience in the field of aviation
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1, 3, and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

13. In reference to Section 10, which among the following statements regarding Board
Meetings is true?
a. The Board shall meet regularly once a month and may hold special meetings
to consider urgent matters upon call of the Chairman or upon the initiative
of three (3) members.
b. The Board shall meet regularly once a month and may hold special meetings
to consider urgent matters upon call of the Chairman or upon the initiative
of four (4) members.
c. The Board shall meet once a year and may hold special meetings to consider
urgent matters upon call of the Chairman or upon the initiative of three
(3) members.
d. The Board shall meet once a year and may hold special meetings to consider
urgent matters upon call of the Chairman or upon the initiative of four (4)
members.

14. The principal office of the Authority is at _____.


a. Cebu
b. Davao
c. Metro Manila
d. Pampanga

15. The Authority shall have an authorized capital stock of _____.


a. Php 5,000,000.00
b. Php 50,000,000.00
c. Php 5,000,000,000.00
d. Php 50,000,000,000.00

16. The importation of equipment, machineries, spare parts, accessories, and other
materials including supplies and services used solely and exclusively in the
operations of the authority not obtained locally shall ______.
a. not be exempted from all direct and indirect taxes, wharfage fees, and
other charges and restrictions
b. be exempted from all direct and indirect taxes, wharfage fees, and other
charges and restrictions

17. The Authority can revise the schedule of fees and fines _____.
a. once a year
b. thrice a year
c. once in three months
d. once in three years

18. The annual report prepared by the Authority should be submitted to the President
of the Philippines, to the Senate, and to the House of Representatives _____.
a. once a year
b. thrice a year
c. once in three months
d. once in three years

19. Under what section of this R.A. are the powers and functions of the Board
specified?
a. 4
b. 9
c. 24
d. 35

20. Under what section of this R.A. are the powers and functions of the Director
General specified?
a. 4
b. 9
c. 24
d. 35

21. This office composed of in-house counsels of the Authority provides adequate
legal assistance and support to the Director General.
a. Administrative and Finance Services
b. Aerodrome Development and Management Services
c. Air Traffic and Air Navigation Services
d. Aircraft Accident Investigation and Inquiry
e. Enforcement and Legal Service
f. Flight Standards Inspectorate Service

22. Under Section 38: Right of Access to Inspection, which among the following is
exempted from unrestricted inspection?
a. Civil aircraft registered in the Philippines wherever they are operated in
the world
b. Facility or offices of Philippine air operators
c. Privately-owned aerodromes
d. None of the above

23. This office will assist the Director General in carrying out the responsibilities
of certification and ongoing inspections of aircraft, airmen, and air operators.
a. Administrative and Finance Services
b. Aerodrome Development and Management Services
c. Air Traffic and Air Navigation Services
d. Aircraft Accident Investigation and Inquiry
e. Enforcement and Legal Service
f. Flight Standards Inspectorate Service

24. Which certificate is a conclusive evidence of aircraft’s nationality and


ownership?
a. Airworthiness
b. Design
c. Reciprocity
d. Registration

25. Which aircrafts are eligible to be registered in the Philippines? 1:Filipino-


owned; 2: leased to a Filipino; 3: leased to a corporation whose 50% of capital
is owned by a Filipino; 4: leased to an association whose 60% of capital is owned
by a Filipino; 5: foreign-owned or registered aircraft used by aero clubs for
recreation, sports, or flying skills development
a. 1, 2, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1, 2, 4, and 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
26. Determine which among the following statements are included in your power as the
Director General/Board.
a. Exercise police authority within the premises of airports.
b. Regulate height of buildings, towers, antennae, and other edifices situated
within the vicinity or in close proximity to airports.
c. Prohibit or regulate the establishment and operations of electrical,
electronics, sound, magnetic, or laser which will tend to interfere with or
impair air navigation.
d. Monitor and enforce compliance of the rules and regulations concerning the
carriage of goods by air.
e. Planning, development, construction, operation, maintenance, or expansion
of airports.
f. All of the above

27. The Air Transportation Office created under R.A. 776 is abolished under section
_____.
a. 85
b. 90
c. 91
d. 94

28. This Act shall take effect _____ after its complete publication in at least _____
national newspaper of general circulation.
a. fifteen (15); two (2)
b. fifteen (15); one (1)
c. sixty (60); two (2)
d. sixty (60); one (1)

29. The last section of this R.A. is Effectivity. It is under section _____.
a. 85
b. 90
c. 91
d. 94

30. The Congressional Oversight Committee is created under section _____.


a. 85
b. 90
c. 91
d. 94

31. According to Section 90, the Authority shall adopt rules and regulations to
implement the provisions of this Act within _____ from the date of its approval.
a. fifteen (15) days
b. thirty (30) days
c. sixty (60) days
d. ninety (90) days

32. The Philippine president who signed this R.A. was _____.
a. Ferdinand E. Marcos
b. Joseph E. Estrada
c. Fidel V. Ramos
d. Gloria M. Arroyo

33. R.A. 9497 was signed last _____.


a. June 20, 1952
b. June 11, 1978
c. July 15, 2003
d. March 4, 2008

34. It refers to all charges based on gross business or sales, or gross or net
profit.
a. Landing fees
b. Terminal fees
c. Royalties
d. Reasonable charges
35. It refers to charges for parking at or near the ramp, terminal area, or building,
for purposes of loading or unloading passengers and/or cargo.
a. Landing fees
b. Terminal fees
c. Royalties
d. Reasonable charges

36. It refers to any parts, appurtenances, and accessories of aircraft, aircraft


engines, propellers, and appliances, maintained for installation or use in an
aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance, but which at the time are not
installed therein or attached thereto.
a. Aircraft engine
b. Propeller
c. Supplies
d. Spare parts

37. It includes any and all items of whatever nature or description that may be
necessary for, or incidental to the operation of an aircraft.
a. Aircraft engine
b. Propeller
c. Supplies
d. Spare parts

38. It refers to an inclusive term for all parts, appurtenances, and accessories of a
propeller.
a. Aircraft engine
b. Propeller
c. Supplies
d. Spare parts

39. It refers to any engine use, or intended to be used for propulsion of aircraft
and includes all parts, appurtenances, and accessories thereof other than
propeller.
a. Aircraft engine
b. Propeller
c. Supplies
d. Spare parts

40. An air carrier who is a citizen of the Philippines.


a. Philippine air carrier
b. Foreign air carrier
c. International commercial air transport
d. Domestic air transport

41. It refers to the carriage by aircraft of persons or property for remuneration or


hire or the carriage of mail between any two (2) or more countries.
a. Philippine air carrier
b. Foreign air carrier
c. International commercial air transport
d. Domestic air transport

42. Any operator, not being a Philippine air operator, which undertakes, whether
directly or indirectly or by lease or any other arrangement, to engage in
commercial air transport operations within the borders of airspace of the
Philippines, whether on a scheduled or chartered basis.
a. Philippine air carrier
b. Foreign air carrier
c. International commercial air transport
d. Domestic air transport

43. Air transportation within the limits of the Philippine territory.


a. Philippine air carrier
b. Foreign air carrier
c. International commercial air transport
d. Domestic air transport
44. It refers to any facility used in, available for use in, or designed for use in
aid of air navigation, including airports, landing areas, lights, any apparatus
or equipment for disseminating weather information, for signaling, for radio
directional finding, or for radio or other electromagnetic communication, and any
other structure or mechanism having a similar purpose for guiding or controlling
flight in the air or the landing and take-off of aircraft.
a. Aerodrome
b. Airport
c. Aircraft
d. Air navigation facility

45. It refers to any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the
reaction of the air other than the reaction of the air against the earth’s
surface.
a. Aerodrome
b. Airport
c. Aircraft
d. Air navigation facility

46. It refers to an airport, a defined area on land or water (including any building,
installation, and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the
arrival, departure, and surface movement of aircraft.
a. Aerodrome
b. Airport
c. Aircraft
d. Air navigation facility

47. It refers to any area of land or water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly
used for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft and
includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or
elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set apart for affording facilities for
the landing and departure of aircraft capable of descending or climbing
vertically.
a. Aerodrome
b. Airport
c. Aircraft
d. Air navigation facility

48. It refers to the transportation of persons, property, mail, or cargo by aircraft.


a. Aerial work
b. Air transport
c. Commercial air transport operation
d. General aviation

49. It refers to and includes scheduled or non-scheduled air transport services for
pay or hire, the navigation of aircraft in furtherance of a business, the
navigation of aircraft from one place to another for operation in the conduct of
a business, or an aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers,
cargo, or mail for remuneration or hire.
a. Aerial work
b. Air transport
c. Commercial air transport operation
d. General aviation

50. It refers to an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized


services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation
and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.
a. Aerial work
b. Air transport
c. Commercial air transport operation
d. General aviation

51. It refers to an aircraft operation of a civil aircraft for other than a


commercial air transport operation or aerial work operation.
a. Aerial work
b. Air transport
c. Commercial air transport operation
d. General aviation

52. Which is considered a practice of aeronautical engineering?


a. Commercial flying
b. Selling cleaning agents for aircraft
c. Teaching Algebra
d. Research about Fluid Dynamics

53. What document must a foreigner submit to qualify to take the written examination
prior to registration for the practice of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. Knowledge Test Report
b. Proof of Reciprocity
c. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
d. Certificate of Proficiency

54. Define airworthiness. An aircraft, its engines, propellers, and other components
and accessories are of proper design and construction, and are safe for
navigation purposes, such design and construction being consistent with accepted
engineering practice and in accordance with aerodynamic laws and aircraft
science.

55. Differentiate and accident from an incident.

Republic Act No. 9497


AN ACT CREATING THE CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY OF THE PHILIPPINES, AUTHORIZING THE
APPROPRIATION OF FUNDS THEREFOR, AND FOR OTHER PURPOSES

Chapter I - General Provisions


Chapter II - Organization of Authority
Chapter III - General Policies
Chapter IV - Powers of the Authority
Chapter V - Powers and Functions of the Board
Chapter VI - Authority Proper
Chapter VII - The Director General
Chapter VIII - Nationality and Ownership of Aircraft
Chapter IX - Aviation Safety Powers and Functions
Chapter X - Other Powers
Chapter XI - Penalties
Chapter XII - Transitory Provisions
(12 Chapters, 94 Sections)
Air Laws Questions
P.D. 1570 and its Implementing Rules and Regulations

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Many of life’s failures are people who did not realize


how close they were to success when they gave up. -
1. The design of the seal of an Aeronautical Engineer includes a _____. 1996
a. aircraft model
b. rocket
c. propeller
d. wing section

2. Section 22 of P.D. 1570 states that the Board may refuse to issue Certificate of
Registration to any person who is/has the following, except _____. 1996
a. unsound mind
b. guilt of civil offense
c. incurable disease
d. None of the above

3. He shall act in professional matters as a faithful agent or trustee, and treat as


confidential all matters and information concerning business affairs, technical
processes, and others. This code of ethics is included in _____. 1996
a. Relationship with State
b. Relationship with Engineers
c. Relationship with Clients and Employers
d. Relationship with the Public

4. The imprisonment period for violating the law governing the practice of
Aeronautical Engineering is _____. 1996
a. from one year to ten years
b. from one year to five years
c. from six months to one year
d. from six months to six years

5. Section 2 of the P.D. 1570 describes its objectives. Which of the following is
not an objective of the P.D. 1570? 1996
a. Creation of a Society for Aeronautical Engineers in the Philippines.
b. Provide for and govern the examination for registration of Aeronautical
Engineering.
c. Standardization and regulation of Aeronautical Engineering.
d. Supervision, control, and regulation of the practice of Aeronautical
Engineering in the Philippines

6. Which of the following is not considered as an Aeronautical Engineering practice?


a. Selling of aircraft components
b. Directing and controlling an aircraft in flight
c. Construction of aircraft structures
d. All of these

7. The Rules and Regulations including the Code of Ethics of the Board of
Aeronautical Engineering shall be published in the Official Gazette and shall
take effect in how many days after the date of their publication?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

8. In the interest of national economy and well-being, he shall always strive in the
execution of his work for optimum efficiency, economy, and safety. This code of
ethics is under _____. 1996
a. Relation with the Public
b. Relation with Engineers
c. Relation with the State
d. Relation with Clients and Employers

9. What is the maximum diameter of the seal of the Board of Aeronautical


Engineering?
a. 45 mm
b. 48 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 52 mm

10. The keystone of professional conduct is _____.


a. justice
b. integrity
c. honesty
d. courtesy

11. He shall be dignified in explaining and discussing his work and shall refrain
from self- laudatory advertising or propaganda. This code of ethics is included
in _____.
a. Relationship with the Profession
b. Relationship with Clients and Employers
c. Relationship with Engineers
d. Relationship with the Public

12. The Code of Ethics for Aeronautical Engineers encompasses relations with certain
entities. Which of the following is not among the specified entities?
a. State
b. School
c. Profession
d. Public

13. The qualifications for a person to be appointed as member of the Board of


Aeronautical Engineering is provided in P.D. 1570 at what section?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

14. What should be issued to all successful examinees of the technical written
examination for aeronautical engineers upon payment of the required fee?
a. a Certificate of Competence
b. Certificate of Recognition
c. Certificate of Reciprocity
d. Certificate of Registration

15. President Decree No. 1570 was signed last _____.


a. June 11, 1968
b. June 11, 1973
c. June 11, 1976
d. June 11, 1978

16. What document must a foreigner submit to qualify to take the technical written
examination prior to registration for the practice of aeronautical engineering?
a. Proof of Residency
b. Proof of Competency
c. Proof of Registration
d. Proof of Reciprocity

17. Presidential Decree No. 1570 shall be known as the “_____.”


a. Philippine Aerospace Engineering Decree
b. Philippine Aeronautics Empowerment Decree
c. Philippine Aeronautical Engineering Decree
d. Philippine Aeronautical Entitlement Decree

18. The Certificate of Registration given to the successful examinees of the


technical written examination is signed by _____.
a. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering
b. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and SAEP president
c. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and Philippine
president
d. the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering and PRC chairperson

19. The Board of Aeronautical Engineering under the Professional Regulation


Commission is composed of how many members?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
20. Which is not a requirement to be a member of the Board of Engineering?
a. A citizen and resident of the Philippines
b. At least thirty-one (31) years of age, and must be of good moral characters
c. A holder of the degree of Bachelor of Science in Aeronautical Engineering
d. A registered aeronautical engineer under this Decree, with the exception of
the first group of appointees
e. Had been in active practice of aeronautical engineering or teaching of
subjects thereof for at least ten (10) years
f. Not a member of the faculty of any university, college, institute, or
school where a regular course in aeronautical engineering is taught or
review classes conducted
g. Not financially interested, directly or indirectly, in any university,
college, institute, or school where a regular course in aeronautical
engineering is taught or review classes conducted
h. Not an elective officer of any professional association or organization of
aeronautical engineering
i. All of the above
j. None of the above

21. The members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering shall hold office for a term
of _____ year/s.
a. one (1)
b. two (2)
c. three (3)
d. four (4)

22. No member of the Board shall serve for more than _____ successive complete terms.
a. one (1)
b. two (2)
c. three (3)
d. four (4)

23. Which among the following statements regarding the removal of board member is
incorrect?
a. Any member of the Board may, upon recommendation of the Commission be
removed by the President of the Philippines.
b. The reasons for removal include neglect of duty, incompetence, commission
or tolerance of irregularities in the examinations, malpractices, or
unprofessional or unethical, immoral, or dishonorable conduct.
c. The member to be removed must be given the opportunity to defend himself in
a proper administrative investigation.
d. No member of the Board may be removed.

24. Who shall conduct the written examinations?


a. Commission alone
b. Board alone
c. Commission and Board
d. SAEP and Board

25. The Board shall, within _____ days following the end of each fiscal year, submit
to the Commission an annual report on its activities.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. sixty (60)
d. ninety (90)

26. Any person who shall apply for admission to take the written examinations for
aeronautical engineers should possess all the qualifications stated in section
_____.
a. 4
b. 14
c. 25
d. 27

27. Which among the following statements is not necessary to take the written
examination?
a. At least twenty-one (21) years of age
b. Filipino or a qualified foreigner
c. Good moral character and reputation
d. Graduate of Bachelor of Science in Aeronautical Engineering from any
institution of learning recognized by the Government of the Philippines or
of an equivalent course offered in any institution of learning in a foreign
country subject to the provisions of existing laws
e. Not have been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude
f. None of the above
g. All of the above

28. Written examinations of candidates desiring to practice aeronautical engineering


in the Philippines shall be given by the ______ once a year at a date and place
to be fixed by the _____.
a. Board; Board
b. Board; Commission
c. Commission; Commission
d. Commission; Board

29. The relative weight for every subject shall always be divisible exactly by _____.
a. three (3)
b. four (4)
c. five (5)
d. ten (10)

30. In order to pass the written examination, the candidate’s GWA must be equal to or
greater than _____%, with no rating below _____% in any subject.
a. 75; 75
b. 75; 50
c. 50; 75
d. 50; 50

31. Within ______ days after the last day of the examinations or on such date as may
be determined by the Commission, the Board shall submit its report on the ratings
obtained by each candidate to the Commissioner of the Commission for approval or
other appropriate action.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. seventy (70)
d. ninety (90)

32. All ratings shall be released at least _____ days before the next examination
period.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. seventy (70)
d. ninety (90)

33. All successful candidates in the written examinations shall receive a _____ upon
payment of the required fee.
a. Certificate of Excellence
b. Certificate of Public Convenience
c. Certificate of Reciprocity
d. Certificate of Registration

34. Which among the following statements is incorrect.


a. The certificate, which will be signed by the Members of the Board and
approved by the Commissioner, shall bear the full name of the registrant
and the serial number of the certificate, and shall be authenticated with
the official seal of the Board.
b. The issuance of the certificate by the Board under this Decree shall be
evidence that the person named therein is entitled to all the rights and
privileges of a registered aeronautical engineer while it remains unrevoked
or unsuspended.
c. Before commencing the practice of aeronautical engineering, all registrants
under this Decree shall be required to take professional oaths before the
Board or before any person authorized to administer the same.
d. None of the above.

35. Which among the following statements regarding refusal to issue certificate is
correct?
a. The Board may refuse to issue certificate to any person convicted by a
court of competent jurisdiction of any criminal offense involving moral
turpitude.
b. The Board may refuse to issue certificate to any person guilty of
unprofessional, unethical, immoral or dishonorable conduct, or to any
person of unsound mind
c. In the event of refusal to issue a certificate, the Board shall forthwith
furnish the applicant a written statement setting forth its reason/s.
d. All of the above

36. Section _____ of the P.D. 1570 states that “The Board shall have the power
suspend or revoke a certificate by reason of malpractice, incompetence, gross
negligence, use or perpetration of any fraud, deceit, or false statement in
obtaining such certificate, or refusal to join and to remain a member of the
accredited organization.
a. 4
b. 14
c. 23
d. 25

37. Under what section of the P.D. 1570 is the seal discussed?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 36

38. Under what section of the P.D. 1570 is the practice of aeronautical engineering
defined?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 36

39. Which among the following statements regarding the seal is incorrect?
a. All aeronautical engineers shall obtain official seal bearing the
registrant's name, the number of his registration certificate, and the
words; "Aeronautical Engineer."
b. Plans, specifications, reports, and such other professional documents
prepared by or executed under the immediate supervision of, and issued by
an aeronautical engineer shall be stamped on every sheet thereof with the
official seal when filed with government authorities, or when submitted or
used professionally during the life of the registrant's certificate.
c. It is not punishable by law if anyone affixes his official seal on any
documents after his certificate of registration has expired or has been
revoked or suspended.
d. None of the above.

40. Who signed the P.D. 1570?


a. Ferdinand E. Marcos
b. Fidel V. Ramos
c. Joseph E. Estrada
d. Gloria M. Arroyo

41. The IRR of the P.D. 1570 including the Code of Professional Ethics, when approved
by the Commission, shall take shall take effect _____ days following the date of
their publication in the Official Gazette.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. seventy (70)
d. ninety (90)

42. The P.D. 1570 was adopted by the Board of Aeronautical Engineering at the
Metropolitan Manila, Philippines last _____.
a. September 23, 1982
b. October 12, 1982
c. June 11, 1978
d. June 20, 1952

43. The P.D. 1570 was approved and promulgated as the Rules and Regulations of the
Board of Aeronautical Engineering last _____.
a. September 23, 1982
b. October 12, 1982
c. June 11, 1978
d. June 20, 1952

44. Who is not a member of the first Board of Aeronautical Engineering?


a. Recaredo R. Albano
b. Teofilo P. Alberto
c. Timoteo A. Cordova Jr.
d. Numeriano G. Tanopo Jr.

45. What is the relative weight of the subject Aerodynamics in the written
examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

46. What is the relative weight of the subject Aircraft Powerplant in the written
examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

47. What is the relative weight of the subject Aircraft Structures and Design in the
written examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

48. What is the relative weight of the subject Mathematics in the written
examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

49. What is the relative weight of the subject Airframe Construction, Repair, and
Modification in the written examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

50. What is the relative weight of the subject Engineering Economics & Management,
Laws & Ethics in the written examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

51. Which among the following statements regarding an aircraft is incorrect?


a. An aircraft is any contrivance now known or hereafter invented, used, or
designed for navigation of or flight in the air.
b. Such contrivance or device can be powered or non-powered flying machine
that is lighter-than-air (Balloon, dirigible), or heavier- than-air with
fixed wing (airplane, glider), or heavier-than-air with rotary wing
(Helicopter, auto gyro)
c. This contrivance can also be winged or finned weapon system (missile, bomb)
or any other device that is designed to operate fully or partly in air and
whose motion and flight path is influence or determined by the combined
effects of forces and moments created by its mass, its power system, and
the air, or by its mass and the air if non powered.
d. A spacecraft designed for operation in the outer space, can be treated as
an aircraft while operating in transit within the limits of the earth’s
atmosphere.
e. None of the above.
f. All of the above.

52. Which is/are considered as a practice of aeronautical engineering?


a. Basic and applied research in fluid mechanics
b. Formulation of plans, specifications, standards, technique and procedures:
preparation of project feasibility study
c. Design and construction of test equipment and aircraft tooling
d. Research activities leading to or resulting in the development of new or
improved aircraft and/or its components
e. None of the above.
f. All of the above.

53. Which is/are considered as a practice of aeronautical engineering?


a. Planning design, analysis, construction/fabrication, sub-assembly, test and
evaluation of aircraft structures, powerplant, and other aircraft
components
b. Final assembly of aircraft
c. Pre-flight inspection and test
d. Aircraft performance data collection/monitoring and evaluation during
aircraft production airworthiness flight test
e. None of the above.
f. All of the above.

54. Which is not considered as a practice of aeronautical engineering?


a. Maintenance, repair and modification/alteration of aircraft structures,
powerplant and other aircraft components
b. Pre-flight, post-flight checks and functional test of aircraft and its
components
c. Release of aircraft for flight, monitoring of aircraft performance, and
other activities performed on the group and in flight to ensure aircraft
airworthiness and flight safety
d. Directing and controlling aircraft in flight
e. Marketing or selling of aircraft and/or its components, which require
thorough technical knowledge of aircraft /components specifications,
performance, maintenance, repair and other pertinent information

55. Which is not true regarding the seal of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. The seal shall be circular in shape with maximum diameter of 48
centimeters.
b. Seal design must include an airplane wing section with shock waves attached
to its leading and trailing edges (leading edge at the right).
c. The airplane wing section here represents an aircraft.
d. The shock waves symbolize the fact that aeronautical engineering is a
dynamic and progressive profession.
e. Near the leading edge of the wing section is an atom having four (4)
orbiting electrons.
f. The atom as a whole symbolizes engineering activity with its four (4)
orbiting electrons signifying the four (4) major areas in the practice of
aeronautical engineering
g. Between the two (2) concentric circles along the circumference of the seal
shall be inscribed the words “Professional Regulation Commission” and Board
of Aeronautical Engineering” at the upper and the lower portion of the
circumference respectively.
h. Between the two (2) concentric circles along the circumference of the seal
shall be inscribed the words “Aeronautical Engineer” and “Philippines” at
the upper and the lower portion of the circumference respectively.

56. Which is not true regarding the seal of the Aeronautical Engineering?
a. The seal shall be circular in shape with maximum diameter of 48
millimeters.
b. Seal design must include an airplane wing section with shock waves attached
to its leading and trailing edges (leading edge at the right).
c. The airplane wing section here represents an aircraft.
d. The shock waves symbolize the fact that aeronautical engineering is a
dynamic and progressive profession.
e. Near the leading edge of the wing section is an atom having four (4)
orbiting electrons.
f. The atom as a whole symbolizes engineering activity with its four (4)
orbiting electrons signifying the four (4) major areas in the practice of
aeronautical engineering
g. Between the two (2) concentric circles along the circumference of the seal
shall be inscribed the words “Aeronautical Engineer” and “Philippines” at
the upper and the lower portion of the circumference respectively.
h. Either the full name of the engineer or his/her registration number shall
appear slightly below the center of the seal.

57. The _____ in the seal of an Aeronautical Engineer symbolizes that aeronautical
engineering is a dynamic and progressive profession.
a. wing section
b. shockwaves
c. electrons
d. atom

58. Per Section 17, the _____ shall have the power to prescribe, amend, or revise the
subjects and their corresponding relative weights.
a. Commission
b. Board
c. Commission and Board
d. SAEP President

Implementing Rules and Regulations of P.D. 1570

Article I - Definition of Terms


Article II - Registration of Aeronautical Engineers
Article III - Practice of Aeronautical Engineering (R&D, M, O/M, E&T)
Article IV - Code of Professional Ethics
Article V - Miscellaneous Provisions
Air Laws Questions
SAEP, CAB, CAAP, and other offices involved in aviation

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- You may have to a fight a battle more than once to win it. -
1. The Civil Aeronautics Board is composed of _____. 1996
a. five members
b. six members
c. four members
d. three members

2. The Director of Air Transportation is appointed by _____. 1996


a. Commission on Appointments
b. President of the Philippines
c. Director of Civil Aeronautics Board
d. Secretary of Transportation and Communication

3. The power to regulate the economic aspect of air transportation is with the
_____. 1996
a. Department of Transportation and Communication
b. PADC
c. Civil Aeronautics Board
d. Air Transportation Office

4. The chairman of the Civil Aeronautics Board is the _____.


a. Secretary of Tourism
b. Director of ATO
c. President of PADC
d. Secretary of Transportation and Communications

5. Issuance of the Certificate of Public Convenience is the duty of which office?


a. Civil Aeronautics Board
b. Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines
c. PADC
d. Department of Transportation and Communication

6. In what year does the formation of Society of Aerospace Engineers of the


Philippines (SAEP) occurred? Who headed the formation?
a. 1960 Timoteo Cordova
b. 1960 Gregorio Zara
c. 1950 Timoteo Cordova
d. 1950 Gregorio Zara

7. Its mission is to develop and advance Aeronautical Engineering profession towards


its recognition in the international aviation industry.
a. Board of Aeronautical Engineering
b. Civil Aeronautics Board
c. Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines
d. Society of Aeronautical Engineers of the Philippines

PADC: Philippine Aerospace Development Corporation | 1978 | Gilbert S. Rueras


CAAP: Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines | 030408 | Antonio G. Buendia
DOTC: Department of Transportation and Communications | 1899 | Arthur Tugade
SAEP: Society of Aerospace Engineers of the Philippines | 1950 | Robin Rabin
CAB: Civil Aeronautics Board
PRC: Profession Regulatory Commission

What are the permits issued by the CAB?

 Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity (CPCN): a permit issued by the


Board authorizing a domestic person or entity (60/40 equity) to engage in
international and/or domestic, scheduled and/or non-scheduled air transportation
services. A grantee of a CPCN may operate even without a legislative franchise.
 Foreign Air Carrier’s Permit (FACP): a permit issued by the Board, and approved
by the President of the Philippines, authorizing a foreign air carrier to engage
in foreign air transportation services.
 Letter of Authority: an approval issued by the CAB authorizing a person or entity
to engage in airfreight forwarder, general sales agent, cargo sales agent and
off-line carrier. It is signed by the Executive Director subject to the
ratification of the Board on its scheduled meeting.
PCAR Parts
1 General Policies and Procedures and Definitions
2 Personnel Licensing
3 Approved Training Organization
4 Aircraft Registration and Marking
5 Airworthiness
6 Approved Maintenance Organization
7 Instrument and Equipment
8 Operations
9 Air Operator Certification and Administration
10 Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air Carriers within Republic of the Philippines
11 Aerial Work and Operating Limitations for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft
13 Accident and Incident Reporting and Investigation
18 Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 1

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Life is very interesting.


In the end, some of the greatest pains become your greatest strengths. -
1. It indicates a mandatory requirement.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. Acceptable
d. Approved

2. It indicates a recommended requirement.


a. Shall
b. Should
c. Acceptable
d. Approved

3. It means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy in question
and issued a formal written approval.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. Acceptable
d. Approved

4. It means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy and has
neither objected to nor approved its proposed use or implementation.
a. Shall
b. Should
c. Acceptable
d. Prescribed

5. Which among the following statements regarding changing of name is incorrect?


a. A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying
the name change should be included in the request.
b. The current license or certificate must be included in the request.
c. A holder of a license or certificate issued under these regulations may
apply to change the name on a license or certificate.
d. A holder of a license or certificate issued under these regulations may not
apply to change the name on a license or certificate.

6. Within how many days should the holder of an airman license/certificate or


approved training organization certificate notify the authority for a change in
address?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

7. Which among the following statements is true? (subject: suspension or revocation


of a license or certificate for violation of the regulation)Statement 1: Any
license or certificate issued under these regulations ceases to be effective, if
it is surrendered, suspended, or revoked; Statement 2: The holder of any license
or certificate issued under these regulations who violates any provision of the
Civil Aviation Act, as amended, or any regulation or order issued thereunder, is
subject to suspension or revocation of the license or certificate, in accordance
with the provisions of Section 35 (i) and Section 71 (a) and (b) of the Civil
Aviation Act. Statement 3: The holder of any license or certificate issued under
these regulations that has been suspended or revoked shall return that license to
the Authority when requested to do so by the Authority.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

8. A person whose license, certificate, rating, or authorization has been revoked


may not apply for any license, certificate, rating, or authorization _____.
a. for 1 year after the date of revocation
b. for 2 years after the date of revocation
c. during the period of suspension
d. unless otherwise authorized by the Authority
9. A person whose license has been suspended may not apply for any license,
certificate, rating, or authorization _____.
a. for 1 year after the date of revocation
b. for 2 years after the date of revocation
c. during the period of suspension
d. unless otherwise authorized by the Authority

10. Which is not a psychoactive substance?


a. Volatile substance
b. Opiods
c. Cannabinoids
d. Coccaine and other stimulatnts
e. Alcohol
f. Sedatives and hypnotics
g. Hallucinogens
h. Caffein

11. It is the minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical power-
unit inoperative, the remaining power-units operating within approved operating
limits.
a. VCRIT
b. VMIN
c. VTOSS
d. VY

12. Any person subject to these regulations who refuses to submit to a test to
indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood or presence of narcotic
drugs; marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances in the body,
when requested by a law enforcement officer or the Authority, or refuses to
furnish or to authorize the release of the test results requested by the
Authority may _____.
a. not have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked as long
as the person can present an attorney in court
b. have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked or be
denied any license, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization
issued under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date
of that refusal
c. have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked or be
denied any license, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization
issued under these regulations for a period of up to 2 years after the date
of that refusal
d. have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked

13. Any person subject to these regulations who is convicted for the violation of any
local or national statute relating to the growing; processing, manufacture, sale,
disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs,
marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances, may _____.
a. not have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked as long
as the person can present an attorney in court
b. have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked or be
denied any license, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization
issued under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date
of final conviction
c. have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked or be
denied any license, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization
issued under these regulations for a period of up to 2 years after the date
of final conviction
d. have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or
authorization issued under these regulations suspended or revoked
14. It refers to article or substances that are capable of posing significant risks
to health or safety of property when transported by air.
a. Dangerous goods

15. Differentiate an accident from an incident.


Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 2

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Imagine with all your mind.


Believe with all your heart.
Achieve with all your might. -
1. The validity of a medical certificate for an Airline Transport Pilot is _____.
a. six (6) months
b. twelve (12) months
c. twenty-four (24) months
d. thirty-six (36) months

2. No person shall serve as a pilot on a civil aircraft of the RP engaged in


domestic or international commercial air transport in a single pilot operation if
that person has reached his/her _____ birthday.
a. 55th
b. 60th
c. 65th
d. 70th

3. AMT and AMS should pass all of the prescribed tests for the license and rating
sought, within a period of _____ months.
a. six (6) months
b. twelve (12) months
c. twenty-four (24) months
d. thirty-six (36) months

4. The validity of a class 2 medical certificate is _____.


a. six (6) months
b. twelve (12) months
c. twenty-four (24) months
d. thirty-six (36) months

5. The air operator certificate is valid for _____.


a. six (6) months
b. twelve (12) months
c. twenty-four (24) months
d. thirty-six (36) months

6. Which PCAR Part addresses the licensing of personnel?


a. 2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9

7. Which article of the Chicago Convention requires the Republic of the Philippines
to issue certificates of competency and licenses or validate such certificates or
licenses issued by other Contracting States to the pilot of every aircraft and to
other members of the operating crew of every aircraft engaged in international
navigation?
a. 32
b. 42
c. 52
d. 62

8. This part of Philippines’ Civil Aviation Regulations present medical standards


for the granting of licenses and certification, and for the administration of
medical examinations.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9

9. Which annex to the Chicago Convention serves as the basis of licensing and
medical standards?
a. 1
b. 6
c. 8
d. 14

10. The consistent use of good judgment and well-developed knowledge, skills, and
attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.
a. Airmanship
b. Competency
c. Error management
d. Quality system

11. Which PCAR Part prescribes the requirements for issuing, renewal, and re-issue of
aviation personnel licenses, ratings, authorizations and certificates?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9

12. A combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required toperform a task to the
prescribed standard.
a. Airmanship
b. Competency
c. Error management
d. Quality system

13. Which of the following authorizations is not mention in PCAR Part 2?


a. Student pilot authorization
b. Examiner authorization
c. Inspection authorization
d. Category I pilot authorization
e. Category II pilot authorization
f. Category III pilot authorization

14. Per PCAR Part 2, which of the following statements is not true regarding ratings
on a pilot license?
a. There are four category ratings of an aircraft: airplane, helicopter,
glider, free balloon.
b. Class ratings include single-engine-land-airplane, single-engine-sea-
airplane, multi-engine-land-airplane, and multi-engine-sea-airplane.
c. Instruments rating are divided into two: instrument-airplane and
instrument-helicopter.
d. There are only two ratings for an instructor: flight and ground.

15. Which PCAR Part prescribes the privileges and limitations granted to the holders
of licenses, ratings, authorizations and certificates?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9

16. Determine which among the following is not a valid rating found on an ATCO
license.
a. Aerodrome control rating
b. Approach control rating
c. Approach radar control rating;
d. Approach precision radar control rating
e. Area control rating
f. Area radar control rating
g. Area precision radar control rating

17. Which of the following ratings can be placed on an aviation maintenance


technician license? 1: Airframe; 2: Powerplant; 3: Airframe and Powerplant; 4:
Propeller
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

18. The validity period of the ratings, authorizations, and medical certificates and
the renewal/re-issue conditions are indicated in the relevant Subparts of Part
_____.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9

19. The maintenance of competency of flight crewmembers, engaged in commercial air


transport operations, may be satisfactorily established by demonstration of skill
during proficiency flight checks completed in accordance with _____.
a. Part 2
b. Part 5
c. Part 8
d. Part 9

20. Which of the following statements regarding validation and conversion of foreign
licenses and ratings is true?
a. Even though a person holds a current and valid pilot license issued by
another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, he/she may not
apply for a validation of such license for use on aircraft registered in
the Republic of the Philippines.
b. The applicant for the validation certificate shall hold a current medical
certificate issued under Part 8 or a current medical certificate issued by
the Contracting State that issued the applicant's pilot license provided
that the foreign medical certificate meets the requirements of Part 8.
c. The validation certificate will be valid for one month, provided the
foreign license/continuing license, the rating, and the medical certificate
remain valid.
d. The applicant for the validation certificate shall demonstrate knowledge on
air law, aeronautical weather codes, flight performing and planning, human
performance, and English language.

21. Which PCAR Part prescribes the conditions under which licenses, ratings,
authorizations and certificates are necessary?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 8
d. 9

22. Aviation Medical Examiners (AME) shall receive refresher training at regular
intervals, not more than _____ years.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four

23. How long is the authorization for an AME valid?


a. One year
b. Two years
c. Three years
d. Ten years

24. The AME shall have completed at least _____ examinations for a medical
certificate per year.
a. ten
b. twenty
c. twenty-eight
d. forty-five

25. Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall inform the Authority of
confirmed pregnancy or any decrease in medical fitness of a duration of more than
_____ days or which requires continued treatment with prescribed medication or
which has required hospital treatment.
a. ten
b. twenty
c. twenty-eight
d. forty-five

26. Statement 1: The issue and re-issue of Class 1 medical certificate will be done
by the Authority. Statement 2: The issue and re-issue of Class 2 and 3 medical
certificates may be delegated to the authorized Aviation Medical Examiner.
Regarding the above statements, _____.
a. statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect
b. both statements are correct
c. statement 1 is incorrect while statement 2 is correct
d. both statements are incorrect

27. How long is the validity period of the medical certificate for class 1 ATPL?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 30 months

28. How long is a class 2 medical certificate valid?


a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 30 months

29. How long is the class 3 ATCO medical certificate valid?


a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 30 months

30. Renewal of medical certificates under what class may be delegated to the
authorized Aviation Medical Examiner?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

31. The period of validity of a medical certificate may be extended, at the


discretion of the Licensing Authority, up to _____ days.
a. ten
b. twenty
c. twenty-eight
d. forty-five

32. Which of the following statements is not true?


a. For initial issuance of the medical certificate, the period of validity
shall begin on the date the medical examination is performed.
b. For any renewal or re-issuance of a medical certificate, based on a medical
examination that takes place during the period of validity of the current
medical certificate, but no more than 28 days before its expiry date, the
new period of validity shall begin on that date.
c. For any renewal or re-issuance, based on a medical examination that takes
place after the expiry date or earlier than 28 days before the expiry date,
the new period of validity shall begin on the date of the examination.
d. All of the statements are true.

33. When the holder of a medical certificate appropriate for a Flight Navigator have
passed his/her 40th birthday, what is the validity of his/her medical
certificate?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 30 months

34. Considering a 41-year-old Air Traffic Controller holding his/her appropriate


medical certificate, how long is the validity of such medical certificate?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 30 months

35. A private pilot aged 45 has his/her appropriate medical certificate valid for
_____.
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 30 months

36. Per PCAR Part 2, visual acuity tests must be conducted in an environment with a
level of illumination that corresponds to ordinary office illumination of _____.
a. six to twelve candela per square meter
b. twelve to twenty-four candela per square meter
c. twenty-four to thirty candela per square meter
d. thirty to sixty candela per square meter

37. The following are requirements for medical certificates, except _____.
a. physical and mental
b. visual acuity test
c. color perception
d. hearing
e. None of the above

38. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a commercial pilot?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

39. What is the medical certificate appropriate for an airline transport pilot?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

40. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a multi-crew pilot?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

41. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a flight engineer?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

42. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a flight navigator?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

43. Referring to the requirements of class 1 and class 3 medical certificates,


distant visual acuity with or without correction shall be _____ or better in each
eye separately, and binocular visual acuity shall be _____ or better.
a. 6/6; 6/9
b. 6/12; 6/9
c. 6/9; 6/6
d. 6/12; 6/9

44. In order to acquire a class 1 or class 3 medical certificates, an applicant


should be tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of license, not less
than once every _____.
a. three years
b. five years
c. thirty-five years
d. fifty years

45. Applicants for class 1 or class 3 medical certificates that have reached their
41st birthday should be tested on a pure-tone audiometer not less than once every
_____.
a. three years
b. five years
c. thirty-five years
d. fifty years

46. In general, the applicant for a medical certificate shall not have a hearing loss
in either ear separately, of more than _____ dB at any of the frequencies 500,
1,000, or 2,000 Hz.
a. three
b. five
c. thirty-five
d. fifty

47. In general, the applicant for a medical certificate shall not have a hearing loss
in either ear separately, of more than _____ dB at 3,000 Hz.
a. three
b. five
c. thirty-five
d. fifty

48. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a student pilot?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

49. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a private pilot?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

50. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a glider pilot?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

51. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a free balloon pilot?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

52. What is the medical certificate appropriate for an FOO?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

53. Referring to the requirements of class 2 medical certificate, distant visual


acuity with or without correction shall be _____ or better in each eye
separately, and binocular visual acuity shall be _____ or better.
a. 6/6; 6/9
b. 6/12; 6/9
c. 6/9; 6/6
d. 6/12; 6/9

54. Applicants whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than
6/60 should be required to provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial
Medical Certificate and every _____ thereafter. (for class 2 and class 3)
a. three years
b. five years
c. thirty-five years
d. fifty years
55. Applicants for class 2 medical certificates shall be tested on a pure-tone
audiometer at first issue of license, and every _____ after the age of 50 years.
a. three years
b. five years
c. thirty-five years
d. fifty years

56. What is the medical certificate appropriate for an air traffic controller?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

57. What is the minimum age to qualify as an Aeronautical Station Operator?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

58. How long is the Aeronautical Station Operator license valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

59. A license shall become invalid when an aeronautical station operator has ceased
to exercise the privileges of the license for a period of _____.
a. six months
b. one year
c. two years
d. three years

60. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Flight Operations Officer/Flight


Dispatcher?
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

61. How long is the Flight Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher license valid?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

62. A license shall become invalid when a flight operations officer has ceased to
exercise the privileges of the license for a period of _____.
a. six months
b. one year
c. two years
d. three years

63. What is the minimum age to qualify as an Air Traffic Controller?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

64. How long is the Air Traffic Controller license valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

65. The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall hold a current _____
Medical Certificate.
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

66. A rating shall become invalid when an air traffic controller has ceased to
exercise the privileges of the rating for a period of _____.
a. six months
b. one year
c. two years
d. three years

67. What is the minimum age to qualify as an Aviation Maintenance Technician?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

68. Within _____, an AMT applying for a license/rating should finish the prescribed
test.
a. six months
b. one year
c. two years
d. three years

69. All of these are ratings issued for an AMT, except _____.
a. airframe
b. powerplant
c. airframe and powerplant
d. none of the above

70. What is the rating sought by the applicant if he/she should pass a knowledge test
covering the following areas: airframe maintenance practices and materials,
airframe systems and structures-fixed wing, airframe systems and structures-
rotary wing, and systems and structures?
a. Airframe
b. Powerplant
c. Airframe-and-Powerplant

71. What is the rating sought by the applicant if he/she should pass a knowledge test
covering the following areas: piston engines, propellers, gas turbine engines,
and fuel systems?
a. Airframe
b. Powerplant
c. Airframe-and-Powerplant

72. How long is the Aviation Maintenance Technician license valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

73. Within how many days prior to the expiry of his license should an AMT renew
his/her license?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

74. What is the minimum age to qualify as an Aviation Maintenance Specialist?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

75. The following are the ratings of an AMS, except _____.


a. Limited Airframe
b. Limited Powerplant
c. Limited Airframe-and-Powerplant
d. Avionics
e. Specialized Services

76. How long is the Aviation Maintenance Specialist license valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

77. Within how many days prior to the expiry of his license should an AMS renew
his/her license?
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

78. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Flight Navigator?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

79. How long is the Flight Navigator license valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

80. The license shall become invalid when the flight navigator has ceased to exercise
the privileges of the license for a period of_____.
a. six months
b. one year
c. two years
d. three years

81. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a Flight Navigator?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

82. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Flight Engineer?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

83. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a Flight Engineer?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

84. How long is the Flight Engineer license valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

85. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Free Balloon Pilot or a Glider Pilot?
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21
86. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a Free Balloon Pilot and a Glider
Pilot?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

87. How long is the Free Balloon Pilot license and the Glider Pilot valid?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

88. How long is the examiner’s authorization valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

89. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Flight Instructor?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

90. How long is the instructor’s rating and authorization valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

91. How long is the instrument ratings for an airplane and a helicopter valid?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

92. What is the minimum age to qualify as an Airline Transport Pilot (H)?
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

93. What is the medical certificate appropriate for an Airline Transport Pilot (H)?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

94. How long is the ATPL (H) valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

95. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Commercial Pilot (H) or Commercial Pilot
(A)?
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

96. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a Commercial Pilot (H) and
Commercial Pilot (A)?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

97. How long is the CPL (H) and CPL (A) valid?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

98. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Private Pilot (H) and Private Pilot (A)?
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

99. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a Private Pilot (H)?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

100. How long is the PPL (H) and PPL (A) valid?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

101. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Multi-crew Pilot?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

102. An applicant for an MPL should have at least passed ICAO English Proficiency Test
_____
a. level 3
b. level 4
c. level 5
d. level 6

103. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a Multi-crew Pilot?


a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

104. How long is the MPL valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

105. What is the minimum age to qualify as a Student Pilot?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

106. What is the medical certificate appropriate for a Student Pilot to fly solo?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

107. How long are the Category II and III authorizations valid?
a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

108. How long is the Type Rating valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

109. How long is a multi-engine class rating valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

110. How long is a single-engine class rating valid?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Three years

111. The person holding the suspended medical certificate shall surrender the medical
certificate in his/her possession to the Authority within _____ days after the
date of receiving the notification.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 8
d. 30

112. Referring to Language Proficiency, Level 4 means _____.


a. Satisfactory
b. Operational
c. Extended
d. Expert

113. Referring to Language Proficiency, Level 5 means _____.


a. Satisfactory
b. Operational
c. Extended
d. Expert

114. Referring to Language Proficiency, Level 6 means _____.


a. Satisfactory
b. Operational
c. Extended
d. Expert

115. Those demonstrating language proficiency at what level shall be exempted from
further language evaluation?
a. Level 3
b. Level 4
c. Level 5
d. Level 6

116. Those demonstrating language proficiency at the Level 4 should be evaluated at


intervals not greater than _____ years.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 8
d. 30

117. Those demonstrating language proficiency at the Level 5 should be evaluated at


intervals not greater than _____ years.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 8
d. 30
118. No person shall serve as a pilot on a civil aircraft of the RP engaged in
domestic or international commercial air transport operations if that person has
reached his/her _____ birthday.
a. 55th
b. 60th
c. 65th
d. 70th

119. The application form for the issue of a conversion of a license issued by another
Contracting State must be submitted to the Authority at least 14 days in advance
of the date the conversion is desired.
a. A
b. A
c. A
d. A

120. Referring to the requirements of any classes of a medical certificate,


electrocardiography shall form part of the heart examination for the first issue
of a license, and shall be included in re-examination of the applicant between
the ages 30 and 40 no less frequently than every _____.
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

121. An applicant for any classes of the medical certificate who have reached their
41st birthday should have electrocardiography every _____.
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

A: Airplane
AIP: Aeronautical Information Publication
AME: Aviation Medical Examiner
AMS: Aviation Maintenance Specialist
AMT: Aviation Maintenance Technician
AS: Airship
ATCO: Air Traffic Controller
ATS: Air Traffic Control Service
ATPL: Airline Transport Pilot License
B: Balloon
CAT II/III: Category II/III
CPL: Commercial Pilot License
CRM: Crew Resource Management
DFEE: Designated Flight Engineer Examiner
DFNE: Designated Flight Navigator Examiner
FE: Flight Engineer
FI: Flight Instructor
FN: Flight Navigator
FOO: Flight Operations Officer
G: Glider
IA Inspection Authorization
IFR: Instrument Flight Rules
ILS: Instrument Landing System
H: Helicopter
ICAO: International Civil Aviation Organization
MPA: Multi-pilot Airplane
MPH: Multi-pilot Helicopter
MPL: Multi-crew Pilot License
NOTAM: Notice to airmen
PIC: Pilot-in-Command
PL: Powered-lift
PPL: Private Pilot License
RT: Radiotelephony
SIC: Second-in-Command
SPA: Single-pilot Airplane
SPH: Single-pilot Helicopter
VFR: Visual Flight Rules
Air Laws Questions
Oxford – Air Law (Personnel Licensing)

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Great things never came from comfort zones. -


1. A Type Rating is applicable to _____.
a. an aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness
b. an aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State
c. an aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
d. an aircraft that requires additional skills training

2. Which of the following requires a class rating?


a. Multi-engine turbine
b. Single pilot multi-engine turbine
c. Microlight with fixed wings and able to move its surfaces in three
dimensions
d. Touring motor glider

3. Included in the requirements for 1,500 hours, a JAA ATPL (A) holder must have
_____.
a. 500 hours multi-pilot operations in transport category aircraft
b. 500 hours multi-pilot operations and 250 hours as PIC
c. 500 hours multi-pilot operations including up to 150 hours flight
engineering time
d. 500 hours multi-pilot operations including 200 hours night time

4. In order to carry out PPL instruction, you must hold a/an _____.
a. PPL with instructor rating
b. FI rating and have passed CPL theoretical knowledge exams
c. CPL
d. ATPL

5. A CPL (A) applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed
_____.
a. 150 hours flight time of which 5 hours may be instrument ground time
b. 150 hours flight time
c. 200 hours flight time of which 5 hours may be instrument ground time
d. 200 hours flight time

6. What is the night flying hours requirements for an ATPL (A) license?
a. 75 hours PIC
b. 100 hours PIC or co-pilot
c. 100 hours PIC
d. 75 hours PIC or co-pilot

7. The holder of a pilot’s license, when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the
PIC and performing the functions and duties of the PIC, shall be entitled to be
credited _____.
a. with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher
grade of license
b. in full, but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a
higher grade of license
c. the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade
of license
d. the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade
of license, according to the requirements of the licensing authority

8. What age do you need to be to exercise privileges of a CPL license?


a. 18
b. 21
c. 16
d. 23

9. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?


a. After the period of 21 days has elapsed
b. On the 21st day of the illness
c. After a month
d. After you medical has expired

10. A PPL (A) or CPL (A) holder, before taking his/her Instrument Rating, must have
completed _____ hours of cross-country as PIC of which _____ must be in an
aeroplane.
a. 20; 15
b. 50; 10
c. 100; 50
d. 100; 25

11. Between and including what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL on an
unrestricted basis?
a. 21-59
b. 21-60
c. 18-59
d. 18-60

12. The minimum age for a CPL holder is _____.


a. 17 years
b. 18 years
c. 16 years
d. 21 years

13. What is the period of validity of a class 2 medical according to JAR-FCL 3?


a. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 40, then 12 months until 65,
then 6 months thereafter
b. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65
c. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65,
then 6 months thereafter
d. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months thereafter

14. Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago Convention contains the minimum
specifications for a crewmember’s license to be recognized by contracting states?
a. Annex 2
b. Annex 3
c. Annex 1
d. Annex 4

15. If you have an unrestricted FI (A) rating and you wish to instruct CPL (A) or PPL
(A), issue requirements are _____.
a. at least 250 hours as a pilot
b. not less than 15 hours in the last 12 months on the relevant type
c. at least 200 hours of flight experience
d. not less than 150 hours as PIC

16. You can use simulator hours towards the 1,500 hours required for an ATPL. How are
the simulator hours limited?
a. Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer
b. Maximum of 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer
c. Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer
d. Maximum of 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer

17. Whichof the following correctly identifies the cross-country hours requirements
for aCPL (A)?
a.100 hours PIC or SPIC
b.20 hours cross-country including one flight of not less than 540 km (300
NM) in the course of which full stop landings are made at two different
aerodromes
c. 25 hours including at least one flight of 2 hours duration covering at
least 300 NM and to include 2 landings
d. 10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 NM with at least two
landings

18. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL (A)?


a. Class 2
b. As required by particular state
c. Class 1
d. JAR Class A (as from 1 Jan 2001)

19. What is the minimum age for the holder of a PPL?


a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21

20. An applicant for an ATPL (A) has to demonstrate ability to pilot _____.
a. training aircraft
b. multi-crew aircraft with a Flight Engineer
c. multi-crew aircraft under IFR
d. night flights with passengers

21. According to JARs, what classes of medical exist?


a. Class 1 only
b. Classes 1 and 2
c. Classes 1, 2, and 3
d. Classes 1, 2, 3, and 4

22. For an Instrument Rating, a private pilot’s license holder shall demonstrate in
a/an _____ aircraft with _____.
a. amphibian; engines running only
b. seaplane; one engine inoperative
c. multi-engined; one engine inoperative
d. multi-engined; all engines running

23. When a State renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an
alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall _____.
a. not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license
b. not extend beyond the period of validity of the original license
c. be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid
d. be at the discretion of ICAO

24. According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI (A)


rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL (A) _____.
a. provided that the FI (A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the
relevant type in the preceding 12 months
b. provided that the FI (A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as
a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction
c. without restriction
d. provided that the FI (A) has completed 200 hours of flight instriction

25. A pilot with a CPL (A) can act as _____.


a. PIC in any aircraft not engaged in commercial aviation
b. PIC in any single-engine aeroplane engaged in commercial aviation
c. PIC of any single-pilot aeroplane engaged in commercial aviation
d. PIC in any aircraft for which he is type-rated in commercial aviation

26. One of the privileges of the holder of a CPL (A) is to _____.


a. Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations
b. Act as PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport
operations
c. Act as a flying instructor
d. Act as PIC of any aeroplane involved in operation other than commercial air
transportation

27. Of the 1,500 hours required experience for an ATPL (A), _____ hours may be in a
simulator but not more than _____ may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic
procedure trainer.
a. 50; 15
b. 150; 20
c. 100; 25
d. 25; 10

28. For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required, and how many of these
must be as pilot-in-command?
a. 200/100
b. 200/75
c. 150/75
d. 250/75
29. When you are over 60 years of age, the holder of an ATPL (A) and engaged in
multi-pilot commercial air transport, how often are you required to have a
medical examination?
a. The 12 month period reduces to 6 months
b. The 24 month period reduces to 12 months
c. The 6 month period reduces to 3 months
d. The 9 month period reduces to 3 months

30. For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are _____.
a. 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as PIC under supervision
b. 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as PIC under supervision
c. 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as PIC under supervision
d. 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as PIC under supervision

31. The validity of a class rating or multi-engine type rating shall be 1 year from
_____.
a. date of issue
b. date of application received by the authority
c. date of skill test
d. date of medical examination

32. How long would you have to spend in a clinic or hospital before you would have to
inform the authorities?
a. 24 hours or more
b. 20 days or more
c. More than 12 hours
d. 12 days or more

33. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid?
a. The date of the assessment
b. The date the certificate is delivered to the pilot
c. The date of license issue
d. The date of the revalidation of the license

34. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed
and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as pilot
of aeroplanes, having a Certificate of Airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA
Member State, at least _____.
a. 150 hours of flight time
b. 200 hours of flight time
c. 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
d. 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

35. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A), you have to be supervised
by a senior flying instructor. When will supervision cease?
a. Once you have passed a competency check
b. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
c. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo
d. When you have completed 100 hours solo

36. To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross-country flying are required?
a. 15 hours
b. 20 hours
c. 25 hours
d. 35 hours

37. The applicant for an ATPL (A) shall have at least _____.
a. 100 hours night flying purely as Pilot-in-Command
b. 75 hours night flying as Pilot-in-Command or as 2nd pilot
c. 100 hours night flying as Pilot-in-Command or as 2nd pilot
d. 75 hours night flying as Pilot-in-Command

38. How long would a non-JAA license be valid if validated for use in JAA state?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 12 months if still valid in the State of Issue
d. 3 months
39. According to JAA-FCL, a single engine class rating is valid for _____.
a. 2 years
b. 2 years up to the age of 40 then 1 year thereafter
c. 5 years after license issue
d. 1 year
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 3

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Work hard in silence. Let success make the noise. -


1. PCAR Part 3 prescribes the requirements governing the certification of _____.
a. aviation training organization
b. approved maintenance organization
c. air operator
d. personnel

2. Who has corporate authority for ensuring that all training commitments can be
financed and carried out to the standard required by the Authority?
a. Accountable manager
b. General manager
c. HR manager
d. Procedures manager
e. Quality manager

3. Which is not an example of an accountable manager?


a. CEO
b. Director General
c. General Manager
d. Managing Director
e. President
f. Quality Manager

4. What do you call the manual that contains procedures, instructions and guidance
for use by personnel of the ATO in the execution of their duties in meeting the
requirements of the certificate?
a. Procedure manual
b. Quality assurance manual
c. Training manual
d. Training specifications

5. It is the manual that contains the training goals, objectives, standards syllabi,
and curriculum for each phase of the approved training course.
a. Procedure manual
b. Quality assurance manual
c. Training manual
d. Training specifications

6. The Republic of the Philippines issues this document to an ATO specifying


training program requirements and authorizing the conduct of training, checking,
and testing with any limitations thereof.
a. Procedure manual
b. Quality manual
c. Training manual
d. Training specifications

7. He is the manager, acceptable to the Authority, responsible for the management of


the Quality system, monitoring function and requesting corrective actions.
a. Accountable manager
b. HR manager
c. Procedures manager
d. Quality manager

8. An applicant seeking an ATO certificate and training specifications shall apply


at least _____ calendar days before the beginning of any proposed training.
a. thirty (30)
b. sixty (60)
c. ninety (90)
d. one hundred twenty (120)

9. Which information is not shown in an ATO certificate?


a. name and location of the ATO
b. date of issue and period of validity
c. authorized locations of operations
d. training courses
e. none of the above

10. Which information is not shown in a Training Specifications?


a. authorization
b. type of training and approved courses
c. rating, category, class, and type of aircraft
d. authorized deviations or waivers
e. staff required to perform under this Part
f. none of the above

11. How long is the initial ATO certificate valid?


a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

12. The validity of a renewed ATO certificate is _____ years.


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5

13. Which among the following statements regarding inspection is not true?
a. The Authority may inspect an ATO holder’s premises at any time to determine
the ATO’s compliance.
b. Inspections will normally be conducted at least annually, unless the
certificate holder continues to meet the requirements under which it was
originally certificated.
c. At the discretion of the Authority, the inspection may be extended to 24
months.
d. Inspection will not be performed on the applicant/holder of ATO certificate
outside Republic of the Philippines.

14. Within how many days preceding the month of certificate’s expiration should an
ATO apply for renewal?
a. thirty (30)
b. sixty (60)
c. ninety (90)
d. one hundred twenty (120)

15. Within how many days should an ATO notify the Authority regarding the changes in
Accountable manager, Quality manager, instructional staff, and housing, training
facilities and equipment, procedures, training programs and work scope?
a. thirty (30)
b. sixty (60)
c. ninety (90)
d. one hundred twenty (120)

16. Which among the following shall be on the staff of an ATO?


a. Accountable Manager
b. Quality Manager
c. Head of Training
d. Chief Flight Instructor
e. Chief Ground Instructor
f. All of the above
g. None of the above

17. A certificate holder shall maintain and retain the records for a period of _____
year after the completion of training.
a. one (1)
b. two (2)
c. three (3)
d. five (5)

18. It is the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that


bears on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.
a. Audit
b. Management evaluation
c. Quality
d. Quality audit
e. Quality assurance

19. A systematic and independent examination to determine whether quality activities


and related results comply with planned arrangements and whether these
arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to achieve objectives.
a. Audit
b. Management evaluation
c. Quality
d. Quality audit
e. Quality assurance

20. It is defined as a systematic and independent comparison of the way in which


training is being conducted against the way in which the published training
procedures say it should be conducted.
a. Audit
b. Management evaluation
c. Quality
d. Quality audit
e. Quality assurance

21. It is a comprehensive, systematic documented review by the management of the


quality system, training policies, and procedures. It also identifies and
corrects trends, and prevents, where possible, future non-conformities.
a. Audit
b. Management evaluation
c. Quality
d. Quality audit
e. Quality assurance

22. All those planned and systematic actions necessary to provide adequate confidence
that all training activities satisfy given requirements, including the ones
specified by the ATO in relevant manuals.
a. Audit
b. Management evaluation
c. Quality
d. Quality audit
e. Quality assurance

23. It is a document that contains the relevant information pertaining to the ATO’s
quality system and quality assurance program.
a. Procedure manual
b. Quality manual
c. Training manual
d. Training specifications

24. Who will have overall responsibility for the Quality System including the
frequency, format, and structure of the internal management evaluation
activities?
a. Accountable manager
b. HR manager
c. Procedures manager
d. Quality manager

25. His primary role is to verify, by monitoring activities in the field of training,
that the standards required by the Authority, and any additional requirements as
established by the ATO are being carried out properly under the supervision of
the Head of Training, Chief Flight Instructor, and Chief Ground Instructor.
a. Accountable manager
b. HR manager
c. Procedures manager
d. Quality manager

26. Who should be responsible in ensuring that the Quality Assurance Program is
properly implemented, maintained, and continuously reviewed and improved.
a. Accountable manager
b. HR manager
c. Procedures manager
d. Quality manager

27. Which program/system ensures compliance with and adequacy of training activities
conducted?
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality inspection
c. Quality
d. Feedback

28. Which program/system ensures that corrective actions are both identified and
promptly addressed?
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality inspection
c. Quality
d. Feedback

29. Its primary purpose is to observe a particular event/action/document in order to


verify whether established training procedures and requirements are followed
during the accomplishment of that event and whether the required standard is
achieved.
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality inspection
c. Quality
d. Feedback

30. Which program/system should include a defined audit schedule and a periodic
review cycle?
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality inspection
c. Quality
d. Feedback

31. Who have overall responsibility for ensuring satisfactory integration of flying
training, for synthetic flight training and theoretical knowledge instruction,
and for supervising the progress of individual students?
a. Head of Training
b. Chief Flight Instructor
c. Chief Ground Instructor
d. Air Operator

32. Who shall be responsible for the supervision of flight and synthetic flight
instructors and for the standardization of all flight instruction and synthetic
flight instruction?
a. Head of Training
b. Chief Flight Instructor
c. Chief Ground Instructor
d. Air Operator

33. Who shall be responsible for the supervision of all ground instructors and for
the standardization of all theoretical knowledge instruction?
a. Head of Training
b. Chief Flight Instructor
c. Chief Ground Instructor
d. Air Operator

34. It means to examine by sight and touch.


a. Check
b. Inspect
c. Overhaul
d. Repair
e. Service
f. Troubleshoot

35. It means to verify proper operation.


a. Check
b. Inspect
c. Overhaul
d. Repair
e. Service
f. Troubleshoot

36. It means to analyze and identify malfunctions.


a. Check
b. Inspect
c. Overhaul
d. Repair
e. Service
f. Troubleshoot

37. It means to perform functions that assure continued operation.


a. Check
b. Inspect
c. Overhaul
d. Repair
e. Service
f. Troubleshoot

38. It means to correct a defective condition.


a. Check
b. Inspect
c. Overhaul
d. Repair
e. Service
f. Troubleshoot

39. It means to disassemble, inspect, repair as necessary, and check.


a. Check
b. Inspect
c. Overhaul
d. Repair
e. Service
f. Troubleshoot
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 4

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- When something bad happens, you have three choices.


You can either let it define you, let it destroy you, or you can let it strengthen you. -
1. What is the correct height of a marking to be used on a lighter-than-air
aircraft?
a. 50 centimeters
b. 48 centimeters
c. 45 centimeters
d. 30 centimeters

2. The height of letters “M” and “W” should be _____ its width.
a. 2/3 of
b. 1/6 of
c. 3/5 of
d. equal to

3. The number “1” should be ____ wide as it is high.


a. 1/6
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 2/3

4. In general, the width of the characters for marking should be _____ the height.
a. 2/3 of
b. 1/6 of
c. 1/4 of
d. equal to

5. Where are the marks located in an unmanned free balloon?


a. Two places diametrically opposite each other
b. On identification plate
c. On each side
d. Above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the suspension
cables

6. The height of the marking used in lighter-than-air aircraft is _____.


a. 15 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 48 cm
d. 50 cm

7. What does RP-R mean?


a. Commercial aircraft
b. Glider aircraft
c. Rotorcraft
d. Industrial purposes aircraft

8. Considering a heavier-than-air aircraft, the size of markings at the fuselage is


_____.
a. 15 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 48 cm
d. 50 cm

9. Which among the following is not acceptable to be used as an aircraft marking?


a. PAN
b. TTT
c. XXX
d. All of the above

10. The size of marks for a heavier-than-air aircraft located at the wings is _____.
a. 15 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 48 cm
d. 50 cm

11. The nationality mark for a Philippine registered aircraft is _____.


a. Phil
b. PH
c. RP
d. RoP

12. A non-type certificated aircraft has a marking of _____.


a. RP-C
b. RP-E
c. RP-G
d. RP-I
e. RP-R
f. RP-S
g. RP-X

13. Which PCAR Part sets forth the requirements for registration of aircraft in the
Republic of the Philippines and governs the application of nationality and
registration marks?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
14. What is the title of PCAR Part 4?
a. Personnel Licensing
b. Approved Training Organization
c. Aircraft Registration and Marking
d. Airworthiness

15. Who issues the Certificate of Aircraft Registration?


a. Civil Aeronautics Board Executive Director
b. Commanding General of the Philippine Air Force
c. Director of Flight Standards Inspectorate Service
d. Secretary of Transportation

16. Which nationality and registration marks classify aircraft, except gliders, as
complying fully with the airworthiness requirements as the case may be for the
purpose of carrying persons or property, for or without hire?
a. RP-C
b. RP-E
c. RP-G
d. RP-I
e. RP-R
f. RP-S
g. RP-X

17. The Roman capital letters _____ will classify an aircraft as one that has applied
for an experimental certificate.
a. RP-C
b. RP-E
c. RP-G
d. RP-I
e. RP-R
f. RP-S
g. RP-X

18. A glider complying fully with airworthiness requirements shall bear the Roman
capital letters _____ immediately preceding the license number/s.
a. RP-C
b. RP-E
c. RP-G
d. RP-I
e. RP-R
f. RP-S
g. RP-X

19. Which nationality and registration marks should be seen on aircrafts used for
industrial purposes only?
a. RP-C
b. RP-E
c. RP-G
d. RP-I
e. RP-R
f. RP-S
g. RP-X

20. Considering an airplane, what should be the height of the marking on its wing?
a. 15 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 48 cm
d. 50 cm

21. Considering a heavier-than-air aircraft, the size of markings at the vertical


tail structure is _____.
a. 15 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 48 cm
d. 50 cm

22. Characters shall be formed by solid lines _____ thick as the character is high.
a. 2/3 as
b. 1/6 as
c. 1/4 as
d. equal

23. PCAR Part 4 is derived from ICAO Annex _____.


a. 4
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

24. The space between each character may not be less than _____ the character width.
a. 2/3
b. 1/6
c. 1/4
d. 1/2

25. Which is not a lighter-than-air aircraft?


a. Airships
b. Glider
c. Non-spherical balloons
d. Spherical balloons
e. Unmanned free balloons

26. Which is not a non-powered aircraft?


a. Airships
b. Glider
c. Non-spherical balloons
d. Spherical balloons
e. Unmanned free balloons

27. Which lighter-than-air aircraft requires markings to appear in two places


diametrically opposite each other and located near the maximum horizontal
circumference of the balloon?
a. Airships
b. Non-spherical balloons
c. Spherical balloons
d. Unmanned free balloon

28. The operator shall apply marks on this lighter-than-aircraft on each side,
located near the maximum cross-section of the balloon immediately above either
the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket suspension cables.
a. Airships
b. Non-spherical balloons
c. Spherical balloons
d. Unmanned free balloon
29. The operator shall place marks on a/an _____ to appear on the hull, located
lengthwise on each side of the hull and on its upper surface on the line of
symmetry.
a. airships
b. non-spherical balloons
c. spherical balloons
d. unmanned free balloon

30. Which lighter-than-air aircraft requires markings to appear on the identification


plate?
a. Airships
b. Non-spherical balloons
c. Spherical balloons
d. Unmanned free balloon

31. It is also known as “blimp.”


a. Airship
b. Balloon
c. Gyroplane
d. Ornithopter

32. Which among the following is a powered, steerable lighter-than-air aircraft?


a. Airplane
b. Balloon
c. Dirigible
d. Helicopter

33. Which among the following statements regarding locations of marks on fixed-wing
aircraft is not correct?
a. If displayed on the vertical tail surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces
of a single vertical tail or on the outer surfaces of a multi-vertical
tail.
b. If displayed on the fuselage surfaces, horizontally on both sides of the
fuselage between the trailing edge of the wing and the leading edge of the
horizontal stabilizer.
c. The marks shall appear on the left half of the lower surface of the wing
structure.
d. The marks shall be located equidistant from the leading and trailing edges
of the wings.
e. The tops of the letters and numbers shall be toward the trailing edge of
the wing.

34. Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air.


a. Heavier-than-air
b. Lighter-than-air
c. Aerodynes
d. Aerostats

35. Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces.
a. Heavier-than-air
b. Lighter-than-air
c. Aerodynes
d. Aerostats

36. A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.


a. Airplane
b. Airship
c. Balloon
d. Glider
e. Gyroplane
f. Helicopter
g. Ornithopter

37. A power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.


a. Airplane
b. Airship
c. Balloon
d. Glider
e. Gyroplane
f. Helicopter
g. Ornithopter

38. A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly


from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed under given conditions
of flight.
a. Airplane
b. Airship
c. Balloon
d. Glider
e. Gyroplane
f. Helicopter
g. Ornithopter

39. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly


from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces that remain fixed under given conditions
of flight.
a. Airplane
b. Airship
c. Balloon
d. Glider
e. Gyroplane
f. Helicopter
g. Ornithopter

40. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the


air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.
a. Airplane
b. Airship
c. Balloon
d. Glider
e. Gyroplane
f. Helicopter
g. Ornithopter

41. A heaver-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the


air on planes to which a flapping motion is imparted.
a. Airplane
b. Airship
c. Balloon
d. Glider
e. Gyroplane
f. Helicopter
g. Ornithopter

42. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on


one or more rotors that rotate freely on substantially vertical axes.
a. Airplane
b. Airship
c. Balloon
d. Glider
e. Gyroplane
f. Helicopter
g. Ornithopter

43. Which is not another name for a gyroplane?


a. Autogyros
b. Gyrocopter
c. Rotaplane
d. None of the above

44. Which is a is a type of rotorcraft that uses an unpowered rotor in autorotation


to develop lift, and an engine-powered propeller, similar to that of a fixed-wing
aircraft, to provide thrust?
a. Autogyros
b. Flettner airplane
c. Tiltrotor
d. VTOL

45. It is a type of rotor airplane that uses a rotating cylinder in place of a fixed
wing, obtaining lift from the Magnus effect.
a. Autogyros
b. Flettner airplane
c. Tiltrotor
d. VTOL

46. It is an aircraft that can hover, take off, and land vertically.
a. Autogyros
b. Flettner airplane
c. Tiltrotor/proprotor
d. VTOL

ADIZ: Air Defense Identification Zone


DEWIZ: Distant Early Warning Identification Zone
Air Laws Questions
Oxford – Air Law (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks)

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- The struggle you’re in today is developing the strength you need for tomorrow. -
1. Concerning an aircraft registration, no combination of letters can be used which
can be confused with distress codes, for example _____.
a. RCC
b. DDD
c. LLL
d. PAN

2. The assignment of a common mark to be the common mark registering authority will
be made by _____.
a. ICAO
b. the State of Registry and accepted by the ITU
c. the ITU
d. the State of Registry

3. Concerning aircraft registration markings, no combinations can be used if they


can be mistaken for _____.
a. codes which are used for identification for ICAO documents
b. letter combinations beginning with Q
c. 3-letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
d. 5-letter combinations which are used by international code of signal

4. What cannot be included in a registration mark?


a. LLL
b. RCC
c. TTT
d. FFF

5. What registration is disallowed because of possible confusion with


distress/urgency signals?
a. RCC
b. NNN
c. XXX
d. ZZZ

6. Which of the following registration marks would not be permitted?


a. G-PRAT
b. SY-PAN
c. 3T-SSS
d. YT-LLL

7. Which of the following is not allowed in a registration mark?


a. NNN
b. XXX
c. RCC
d. DDD

8. The registration mark shall be letters, numbers, or a combination of letter and


numbers, and shall be that assigned by _____.
a. ICAO
b. the ITU
c. the State of Registry only
d. the State of Registry or the common mark registering authority

9. A common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio
call signs allocated _____.
a. to ICAO by the International Telecommunication Union
b. the State of Registry by ICAO
c. the State of Registry by the International Telecommunication Union
d. the State of Operator

10. What letters are prohibited for registration marks?


a. 4-letter international codes
b. 5-letter international codes
c. 4-letter codes preceded by Q
d. Any number referring to an ICAO document

11. What is the height of the markings on the vertical surfaces of an aircraft?
a. 30 mm
b. 30 cm
c. 30 dm
d. 30 m

12. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers, or a


combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by _____.
a. the State of Registry or the Common Mark Registering Authority
b. the State of Registry only
c. the International Civil Aviation Organization
d. the International Telecommunication Union

13. Which of the following is not permited in the registration mark of an aircraft?
a. Four-letter Q codes
b. Five-letter international identification signals
c. Three-letter international identification signals
d. Any number identifying an ICAO document

ITU: International Telecommunication Union


Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 5

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- You did not wake up today to be a mediocre. -


1. A
2. A
3. A
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 6

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- No matter how many mistakes you make or how slow you progress,
you are still way ahead of everyone who isn’t trying. -
1. What is the title of PCAR Part 6?
a. Personnel Licensing
b. Approved Training Organization
c. Airworthiness
d. Approved Maintenance Organization

2. The person signing maintenance release or an approval for return to service shall
be qualified in accordance with CAR Part _____?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

3. It describes the ratings (Class and/or Limited) in detail and contains reference
material and process specifications used in performing repair work, along with
any limitations applied to the maintenance organization.
a. Approved Data
b. Maintenance Release
c. Return to Service
d. Specific Operating Provisions

4. A certification confirming that the maintenance work to which it relates has been
complied with in accordance with the applicable standards of airworthiness, using
approved data.
a. Approved Data
b. Maintenance Release
c. Return to Service
d. Specific Operating Provisions

5. A document signed by an authorized representative of an AMO in respect of an


inspection, repair, or modification on a complete aircraft, engine, or propeller.
a. Approved Data
b. Maintenance Release
c. Return to Service
d. Specific Operating Provisions

6. Technical information approved by the Authority.


a. Approved Data
b. Maintenance Release
c. Return to Service
d. Specific Operating Provisions

7. What is the minimum rest period of a person who will perform maintenance
function?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 16
e. 20
f. 24

8. What is the maximum number of consecutive hours allowed to a person performing


maintenance function?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 16
e. 20
f. 24

9. A person performing maintenance functions is limited only to _____ consecutive


hours of duty.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 16
e. 20
f. 24

10. In situations involving unscheduled aircraft unserviceability, persons performing


maintenance functions for aircraft may be continued on duty for up to _____
consecutive hours.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 16
e. 20
f. 24

11. Following unscheduled duty periods, the person performing maintenance functions
for aircraft shall have a mandatory rest period of _____ hours.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 16
e. 20
f. 24

12. How long (in hours) should the person performing maintenance functions be
relieved from all duties during any 7 consecutive day period?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 16
e. 20
f. 24

13. Which Part of the Philippine Civil Aviation Regulation prescribes the
requirements for issuing approvals to organizations for the maintenance,
preventive maintenance, and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical products?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

14. Structural material made of wood, metal, ceramic plastic, fiber-reinforced


materials, graphite, boron, or epoxy with built-in strengthening agents that may
be in the form of filaments, foils, powders, or flakes is called a/an _____.
a. article
b. composite
c. facility
d. housing

15. It can be item such as an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller,


appliance, accessory, assembly, subassembly, system, subsystem, component, unit,
product, or part.
a. Article
b. Composite
c. Facility
d. Housing

16. It is defined as a physical plant, including land, buildings, and equipment,


which provide the means for the performance of maintenance, preventive
maintenance, or modifications of any article.
a. Article
b. Composite
c. Facility
d. Housing

17. According to PCAR Part 6, which is not a housing?


a. Building
b. Hangar
c. Working space for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance,
or modifications for which the maintenance organization is certificated and
rated
d. Structures for the proper protection of aircraft, airframes, aircraft
engines, propellers, appliances, components, parts, and subassemblies
thereof during disassembly, cleaning, inspection, repair, modification,
assembly, and testing
e. Structures for proper storage, segregation, and protection of materials,
parts, and supplies

18. The AMO certificate consists of two documents? Which among these documents is
part of the AMO certificate?
a. Approved Data
b. Maintenance Release
c. Return to Service
d. Specific Operating Provisions

19. Who signed the AMO certificate?


a. Accountable manager
b. Authority
c. Accountable manager and Authority
d. CAB Executive Director

20. Who signed the Specific Operating Provisions?


a. Accountable manager
b. Authority
c. Accountable manager and Authority
d. CAB Executive Director

21. A request for deviation authority must be submitted to the Authority at least
_____ days before the date the deviation from specified sections in this part is
necessary for the intended maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification.
a. three (3)
b. ten(10)
c. thirty (30)
d. sixty(60)

22. Which among the following options about the effectivity of certificate/rating
issued to an AMO located in the Philippines is not true?
a. From the date of issue until the Authority suspends it.
b. From the date of issue until he Authority revokes it.
c. From the date of issue until the last day of the 12th month.
d. From the date of issue until the approved maintenance organization
surrenders it.
e. None of the abov

23. Which among the following options about the effectivity of certificate/rating
issued to an AMO located in the Philippines is not true?
a. From the date of issue until the Authority suspends it.
b. From the date of issue until he Authority revokes it.
c. From the date of issue until the last day of the 12th month.
d. From the date of issue until the approved maintenance organization
surrenders it.
e. None of the above.

24. An AMO located outside the Philippines should submit their request for the
renewal of certificate _____ days before its expiration.
a. three (3)
b. ten(10)
c. thirty (30)
d. sixty(60)

25. A change in which of the following will result to a new certificate number?
a. Location of organization
b. Additional location
c. Housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, procedures, work scope,
and certifying staff
d. Ratings
e. Name of organization
f. Ownership
g. Accountable manager
h. List of management personnel

26. How many AMO ratings are there?


a. Two (2)
b. Three (3)
c. Four (4)
d. Seven (7)

27. How many classes are there under airframe rating?


a. Two (2)
b. Three (3)
c. Four (4)
d. Seven (7)

28. How many classes are there under computer systems rating?
a. Two (2)
b. Three (3)
c. Four (4)
d. Seven (7)

29. How many classes are there under propeller rating?


a. Two (2)
b. Three (3)
c. Four (4)
d. Seven (7)

30. How many classes are there under avionics rating?


a. Two (2)
b. Three (3)
c. Four (4)
d. Seven (7)

31. How many classes are there under accessory rating?


a. Two (2)
b. Three (3)
c. Four (4)
d. Seven (7)

32. How many classes are there under powerplant rating?


a. Two (2)
b. Three (3)
c. Four (4)
d. Seven (7)

33. How many classes are there under instrument rating?


a. Two (2)
b. Three (3)
c. Four (4)
d. Seven (7)

34. Maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on reciprocating engines


fall under what class?
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

35. Per PCAR Part 6, the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of


_____ fall under class 2 of the powerplant rating.
a. reciprocating engines
b. rockets
c. turbopropeller and turboshaft engines
d. turbofan and turbojet engines

36. Tubofan and turbojet engines fall under class _____ of the powerplant rating.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

37. Under what class of propeller rating do the maintenance, preventive maintenance,
or modifications of fixed-pitch propellers fall?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

38. Ground-adjustable propellers fall under class _____ of propeller rating.


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

39. The second class of the propeller rating is concern about the maintenance,
preventive maintenance, and modifications of _____.
a. all kinds of propeller
b. fixed-pitch propellers
c. ground-adjustable propellers
d. variable-pitch propellers

40. Which of these statements regarding avionics rating is true?


a. Avionics rating has three (3) classes like the computer system rating.
b. Class 1 deals with any radio transmitting equipment or receiving equipment,
or both, used in aircraft to send or receive communications, regardless of
carrier frequency or type of modulation used
c. Class 2 is for any avionics system used in aircraft for en-route or
approach navigation.
d. Any aircraft electronic system operated on pulsed radio frequency
principles falls under class.

41. The computer systems’ ratings have three classes, namely _____.
a. 1-aircraft; 2-powerplant; 3-avionics
b. 1-aircraft; 2-avionics; 3-powerplant
c. 1-avionics; 2-powerplant; 3-aircraft
d. 1-avionics; 2-aircraft; 3-powerplant
e. 1-powerplant; 2-avionics; 3-aircraft
f. 1-powerplant; 2-aircraft; 3-avionics

42. Which of these statements regarding accessory rating is not true?


a. Accessories that depend on friction, hydraulics, mechanical linkage, or
pneumatic pressure for operation fall under class 1 (mechanical).
b. Auxiliary power units are under class 4 (APU).
c. Accessories that depend on electrical energy fall under class 2
(electronic).
d. The number of classes on the accessory rating is the same as the number of
classes in the instrument rating.
e. Class 3 (electrical) includes accessories that depend on the use of
electron tube transistors, lasers, fiber optics, solid-state, integrated
circuits, vacuum tubes, or similar electronic controls.

43. Instrument rating, class 1 covers the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or


modifications on _____.
a. any diaphragm, bourdon tube, aneroid, optical, or mechanically driven
centrifugal instrument that is used on aircraft or to operate aircraft,
including tachometers, airspeed indicators, pressure gauges, drift sights,
magnetic compasses, altimeters. or similar mechanical instruments
b. any self-synchronous and electrical indicating instruments and systems,
including remote indicating instruments, cylinder head temperature gauges,
or similar electrical instruments
c. any instrument or system using gyroscopic principles and motivated by air
pressure or electrical energy, including automatic pilot control units,
turn and bank indicators, directional gyros, and their parts, and flux gate
and gyrosyn compasses
d. any instruments whose operation depends on electron tubes, transistors, or
similar devices including capacitance type quantity gauges, system
amplifiers, and engine analyzers

44. The AMO shall retain the capability list(s) and self-evaluation(s) for _____
year/s from the date accepted by the Accountable Manager.
a. one
b. two
c. five
d. ten

45. A/an _____ shall be issued by appropriately authorized certifying staff when all
required maintenance of the aircraft or aeronautical product has been properly
carried out by the AMO.
a. AMO Certificate
b. RTS Certificate
c. Maintenance Release
d. Maintenance Procedures Manual

46. It specifies the scope of work required of the AMO in order to satisfy the
relevant requirements needed for an approval of an aircraft or aeronautical
product for return to service.
a. AMO Certificate
b. RTS Certificate
c. Maintenance Release
d. Maintenance Procedures Manual

47. Whichamong the following should be seen in a Certificate of RTS?


a.Basic details of the maintenance carried out
b.Date such maintenance was started
c.Date such maintenance was completed
d.Identity, including the authorization reference, of the AMO and certifying
staff issuing the certificate
e. All of the above

48. The AMO shall retain a copy of all detailed maintenance records and any
associated airworthiness data for _____ year/s from the date the aircraft or
aeronautical product to which the work relates was released from the AMO.
a. one
b. two
c. five
d. ten

49. Each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or modifies
an aircraft/aeronautical product shall make an entry in the maintenance record.
Which is not seen in a maintenance record?
a. Description of work performed
b. Date the work was started
c. Date of completion of the work performed
d. Name of the person performing the work
e. Signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person
approving the work
f. Authorized signature, the AMO certificate number, and kind of certificate
held by the person approving/disapproving RTS

50. Who shall make an entry in the maintenance record after performing an inspection?
a. Owner
b. Operator
c. Person approving/disapproving for RTS
d. Pilot
51. What should not be seen in the maintenance record entry after an inspected
aircraft product was proven to be airworthy?
a. Type of inspection and brief description of the extent of the inspection
b. Date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service
c. Authorized signature, the AMO certificate number, and kind of certificate
held by the person approving or disapproving for return to service
d. “I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert
type) inspection and was determined to be in airworthy condition.”
e. “I certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert
type) inspection and a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated
(date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator.”

52. Who shall be responsible in ensuring that all necessary resources are available
to accomplish maintenance required to support the AMO's approval?
a. Accountable Manager
b. Base Maintenance Manager
c. Line Maintenance Manager
d. Workshop Manager
e. Quality Manager

53. Who shall be responsible in ensuring that all work on aircraft components is
performed to required standards?
a. Accountable Manager
b. Base Maintenance Manager
c. Line Maintenance Manager
d. Workshop Manager
e. Quality Manager

54. Who shall be responsible in ensuring that all maintenance required to be carried
out in the hangar, plus any defect rectification carried out during base
maintenance, is carried out to specified design and quality standards?
a. Accountable Manager
b. Base Maintenance Manager
c. Line Maintenance Manager
d. Workshop Manager
e. Quality Manager

55. Who shall be responsible in monitoring the AMO's compliance with Part 6?
a. Accountable Manager
b. Base Maintenance Manager
c. Line Maintenance Manager
d. Workshop Manager
e. Quality Manager

56. Who shall be responsible in monitoring the amendment of the Procedures Manual?
a. Accountable Manager
b. Base Maintenance Manager
c. Line Maintenance Manager
d. Workshop Manager
e. Quality Manager

57. Who shall be responsible in ensuring that all maintenance required to be carried
out on the line, including line defect rectification, is performed to the
required standard?
a. Accountable Manager
b. Base Maintenance Manager
c. Line Maintenance Manager
d. Workshop Manager
e. Quality Manager

58. Who should carry out maintenance tasks to any standard specified in the
maintenance instructions?
a. Certifying staff
b. Mechanics
c. Planners
d. Supervisors
59. Who should notify supervisors of mistakes requiring rectification to re-establish
required maintenance standards?
a. Certifying staff
b. Mechanics
c. Planners
d. Supervisors

60. Who should determine if the aircraft/aircraft component is ready or not to return
to service?
a. Certifying staff
b. Mechanics
c. Planners
d. Supervisors

61. Who should ensure that all required maintenance tasks are carried out?
a. Certifying staff
b. Mechanics
c. Planners
d. Supervisors

62. Who should interpret maintenance requirements into maintenance tasks?


a. Certifying staff
b. Mechanics
c. Planners
d. Supervisors

63. The AMO shall keep the record of a certifying person for at least _____ year/s
after that person has ceased employment with the AMO or upon withdrawal of his or
her authorization.
a. one
b. two
c. five
d. ten

64. When is the RTS certificate not required?


a. Before flight at the completion of any package of maintenance scheduled by
the approved aircraft maintenance program on the aircraft, whether such
maintenance took place as base or line maintenance
b. Before flight at the completion of any defect rectification, while the
aircraft operates between scheduled maintenance
c. At the completion of any maintenance on an aircraft component when off the
aircraft
d. None of the above

65. Records are maintained in active file for _____ years then transferred to dead
storage for _____ additional years.
a. 2;5
b. 2;2
c. 5;2
d. 5;5

66. All 100-hour and annual inspection paperwork will comply with PCAR Part _____.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

67. Who is/are responsible for preparing and submitting a Malfunction or Defect
Report to the CAA Office?
a. Accountable Manager
b. Chief Certifying Staff Manager
c. Quality Manger
d. Accountable Manager and Chief Certifying Staff Manager

68. Who is responsible for the final disposition of rejected part including
components of parts that have exceeded allowable shelf life limits?
a. Accountable Manager
b. Chief Certifying Staff Manager
c. Quality Manger
d. Accountable Manager and Chief Certifying Staff Manager

69. Which CAR Part provides regulations for the registration and monitoring of
Approved Maintenance Organizations (AMO) in Republic of the Philippines?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6

AMO: Approved Maintenance Organization


PMA: Parts Manufacturing Authorization
TSO: Technical Standard Order
RTS: Return to Service

In “a form and in a manner" mean that a form issued by the Authority should be
completed by the accountable manager, or the manager's nominee
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 7

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Try not to become a man of success, but rather try to become a man of value. -
1. What is the title of PCAR Part 7?
a. Aircraft Registration and Marking
b. Airworthiness
c. Instruments and Equipment
d. Operations

2. Which of the following statements is not true?


a. All aircraft shall be equipped with flight and navigational instruments,
which will enable the flight crew to control the flight path of the
aircraft, carry out any required procedural manoeuvres, and observe the
operating limitations of the aircraft in the expected operating conditions.
b. In the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the
flight, the flight crew must be able operate the aircraft with the
remaining navigation equipment in accordance with its operational flight
plan and the requirements of ATS.
c. When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary
operating system to an alternative system, there is no need for a positive
positioning control and marking to indicate clearly which system is being
used as long as the system is working.
d. Those instruments that are used by any one flight crew member shall be so
arranged as to permit the flight crew member to see the indications readily
from his station, with the minimum practicable deviation from the position
and line of vision which he normally assumes when looking forward along the
flight path.

3. Per PCAR Part 7, which of the following flight and navigational instruments is
not required for aircraft operation?
a. Attitude Indicator/Artificial Horizon
b. Direction Indicator/Directional Gyro/DG/Heading Indicator
c. Turn-and-Slip Indicator/Turn Coordinator
d. Airspeed Indicator
e. Sensitive Pressure Altimeter, adjustable for any barometric pressure likely
to be set during flight
f. Vertical Speed Indicator/Variometer/Rate of Climb Indicator
g. Magnetic Compass
h. Timepiece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds

4. Which of the following requires a single standby attitude indicator for


operation?
a. Airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass exceeding 5,700 kg
b. Aircraft having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more
than 9 seats
c. All helicopters when operating in accordance with IFR
d. All of the above

5. Which among the following statements regarding a standby attitude indicator is


true?
a. A single standby attitude indicator operates dependently on other attitude
indicating system.
b. It is not powered during normal operation.
c. When the standby attitude indicator is being operated by emergency power,
it shall be clearly evident to the flight crew.
d. After a total failure of the normal electrical generating system, it is
automatically powered for the purpose of operating and illuminating for a
minimum of 30 minutes.

6. What is the aeronautic emergency frequency?


a. 400 Hz
b. 2.5000 MHz
c. 290 Mhz
d. 121.5 Mhz

7. When will crew member interphone system necessary for operation? 1: If flight
crew of more than one is required; 2: If the airplane’s maximum certified take-
off mass exceeds 15,000 kg; 3: If the airplane’s maximum approved passenger
seating configuration is more than 19.
a. 1 alone
b. 2 alone
c. 3 alone
d. 2 and 3
e. 1 and 3
f. 1 and 2
g. 1, 2, and 3

8. At what altitude are (pressure) Altitude Reporting Transponders required?


a. As soon as the aircraft is above the ground
b. 25,000 feet
c. FL 290
d. FL 1215

9. Which of the following is not necessary for an aircraft operated at night?


a. Landing light, anti-collision light system, navigation/position lights
b. Lights to conform to the International regulations for preventing
collisions at sea if the aircraft is a seaplane or an amphibian aircraft
c. Illumination for all flight instruments and equipment that are essential
for the safe operation of the aircraft
d. Lights in all passenger compartments
e. A flashlight for each crew member station
f. A heated pitot tube
g. Windshield wipers

10. Which among the following is not an engine instrument?


a. Fuel quantity indicator
b. Tachometer
c. Manifold pressure indicator
d. Oil pressure indicator
e. Oil temperature indicator
f. Carburetor air temperature indicator
g. Cylinder heat temperature indicator
h. Fuel pressure indicator
i. Fuel pressure warning device
j. Fuel mixture indicator
k. Oil quantity
l. Propeller indicator

11. Flights at and above what altitude is loss of pressurization indicator required?
a. As soon as the aircraft is above the ground
b. 25,000 feet
c. FL 290
d. FL 1215

12. Landing gear aural warning device is needed by _____.


a. helicopter with landing skid
b. airplanes with retractable landing gear
c. airplanes with fixed landing gear
d. all aircraft with landing gear

13. Which of the following warning instrument/system is not dependent on the maximum
certificated take-off mass or approved passenger seating configuration?
a. Altitude alerting system
b. Ground proximity warning system
c. Airborne collision avoidance system II
d. Forward looking wind shear warning system
e. Mach number indicator
f. Loss of pressurization indicator
g. Landing gear aural warning device
h. Weather radar

14. Altitude alerting system, ground proximity warning system, airborne collision
avoidance system II, and forward looking wind shear warning system are obligatory
for turbine-powered airplane with a maximum certificated take-off mass _____.
a. exceeding 5,700 kg
b. exceeding 5,700 lb
c. less than 5,700 kg
d. less than 5,700 lb

15. Altitude alerting system and forward looking wind shear warning system are
obligatory for turbine-powered airplane having a maximum approved passenger
seating configuration of _____.
a. more than 9 seats
b. less than 9 seats
c. more than 19 seats
d. less than 19 seats

16. Regarding construction and location of FDR and CVR, which among the following
statements is not true?
a. The cockpit voice recorder shall have an approved underwater locating
device.
b. Flight recorders shall meet the prescribed crashworthiness and fire
protection specifications.
c. The color of the cockpit voice recorder shall either be green or blue.
d. The cockpit voice recorder shall have reflective tape affixed to the
external surface to facilitate its location under water.

17. How many FDR/CVR combination/s is/are required for airplanes having a
certificated takeoff mass of over 5,700kg?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

18. How many FDR/CVR combination/s is/are required for multi-engined turbine powered
airplane of less than 5 700kg?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

19. The FDR system shall be recalibrated at least every _____ year/s to determine any
discrepancies in the engineering conversion routines for the mandatory
parameters, in accordance with the requirements of the aircraft manufacturer to
ensure that the parameters are being recorded within the calibration tolerances.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five

20. When sensors that are dedicated to the FDR system provide the parameters of
altitude and airspeed, there shall be a recalibration performed as recommended by
the sensor manufacturer, or at least every _____ year/s.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five

21. What type of flight recorder is capable of retaining information recorded during
the last 25 hours of operation?
a. I and II
b. IIA
c. III
d. IV and V

22. What type of flight recorder is capable of retaining information recorded during
the last 30 minutes of operation?
a. I and II
b. IIA
c. III
d. IV and V

23. What type of flight recorder is capable of retaining information recorded during
the last 10 hours of operation?
a. I and II
b. IIA
c. III
d. IV and V

24. Flight data recorder media acceptable for use in aircraft registered in the
Republic of the Philippines is/are _____.
a. engraving metal foil
b. photographic film
c. analogue data using frequency modulation
d. engraving metal foil, photographic film, and analogue data using frequency
modulation
e. none of the above

25. For helicopters not equipped with an FDR, at least _____ shall be recorded on one
track of the CVR.
a. main rotor speed
b. N1
c. N2
d. tail rotor speed

26. Which of the following statements regarding cockpit voice recorder is not true?
a. No person may operate the aircraft unless it is equipped with a cockpit
voice recorder capable of recording the aural environment of the flight
deck during flight time.
b. A CVR shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at
least the last 30 minutes of its operation.
c. No person shall turn on a CVR during flight time.
d. A CVR shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at
least the last 2 hours, for airplanes of a maximum certificated take-off
mass of over 5,700 kg or helicopters that receive type certification after
1 January 2003.

27. Each passenger-carrying land plane emergency exit (other than over-the-wing) that
is more than _____ feet from the ground with the airplane on the ground and the
landing gear extended shall have an approved means to assist the occupants in
descending to the ground.
a. 2
b. 6
c. 30
d. 45

28. Each passenger emergency exit shall have a _____ colored band outlining the
opening on the outer edge of the door or on the side of the fuselage.
a. 2-inch
b. 6-inch
c. 30-inch
d. 45-inch

29. Which PCAR Part presents standards and recommended practices as regulatory
requirements for instruments and equipment on aircraft expected to operate in the
Republic of the Philippines?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 7
d. 8

30. If you are in a life raft, how many pyrotechnic signaling device/s will you find?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

31. Which among these aircrafts are can be operated without survival equipment?
a. Balloon
b. Glider
c. Hang glider
d. Gyroplane
e. Ultra-light airplane

32. All aircraft, except a glider, balloon, airship, ultra-light airplane, gyroplane,
restricted or non-type certificated aircraft, on all flights shall be equipped
with a _____ MHz ELT.
a. 25
b. 121.5
c. 290
d. 406

33. An aircraft that is operated within _____ nautical miles of the aerodrome of
departure is not required to have survival equipment and emergency local
transmitter.
a. 25
b. 121.5
c. 290
d. 406

34. Which of the following statements regarding ELT is not true?


a. An aircraft engaged in a test flight is not required to have an ELT.
b. Batteries used in ELTs shall be replaced when the transmitter has been in
use for more than one cumulative hour.
c. If 50 percent of batteries’ useful life has expired, it should be replaced.
d. All statements are true.

35. Which among the following statements regarding portable fire extinguisher is
correct?
a. At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be provided and conveniently
located for use in each Class E cargo compartment.
b. At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located on
the flight deck for use by the flight crew.
c. At least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located in
the passenger compartment of airplanes having a passenger seating capacity
of 30 or less.
d. All of the above

36. Bombardier Q400 NextGen can carry 90 passengers. How many portable fire
extinguishers should be present in the airplane?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
f. 7
g. 8

37. No person may operate a passenger-carrying transport category airplane unless


each lavatory in the airplane is equipped with _____.
a. A built-in fire extinguisher
b. a smoke detector system
c. both the built-in fire extinguisher and smoke detector system
d. nothing

38. Considering a large airplane, which of the following statements regarding crash
axe is not true?
a. A crash axe is not needed.
b. A crash axe is needed only if the number of passengers exceeds 30.
c. A crash axe is needed and should be stored in a place easily seen by
passengers.
d. A crash axe is needed and should be stored in a place not visible to
passengers.

39. Per Part 7, on what factor does the number of first-aid kits to be carried on an
aircraft rely?
a. Aircraft certificated take-off weight
b. Distance to be covered during flight
c. International regulation. Fixed number of first-aid kit per aircraft is 1.
d. Number of passenger seats installed

40. No person may operate an aircraft at altitudes above _____ unless it is equipped
with oxygen masks, located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight crew
members while at their assigned duty station.
a. 10,000 ft
b. 15,000 ft
c. 20,000 ft
d. 25,000 ft

41. No person may operate a pressurized aircraft at altitudes above _____ unless
flight crew member oxygen masks are of a quick donning type.
a. 10,000 ft
b. 15,000 ft
c. 20,000 ft
d. 25,000 ft

42. The total number of dispensing units and outlets shall exceed the number of seats
by at least _____. The extra units are to be evenly distributed throughout the
cabin.
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

43. No person may operate an airplane with a maximum certified takeoff mass exceeding
5,700 kg. or having a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19
seats unless it has protective breathing equipment to protect the eyes, nose, and
mouth of each flight crew member and all required cabin crew members and to
provide oxygen/breathing gas for a period of not less than _____ minutes.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25

44. On airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 60 and less than 100
passengers, _____ megaphone/s shall be located at the place readily accessible to
a normal flight attendant seat.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

45. On airplanes with a seating capacity of more than 99 passengers, _____


megaphone/s shall be located at the place readily accessible to a normal flight
attendant seat.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

46. Which of the following requires life saving rafts in sufficient numbers to carry
all persons on board?
a. All airplanes when operating in extended over-water operations.
b. Class 1 and 2 helicopters when they are operated over water at a distance
from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes at normal cruise speed.
c. Class 3 helicopters when they are operated over water beyond autorotational
or safe forced landing distance from land.
d. All of the above

47. What is the minimum number of independent static pressure system for aircraft
operation?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
48. Which of the following statements regarding seats, safety belts, and should
harnesses is true?
a. The safety harness for each pilot seat shall incorporate a device, which
will automatically restrain the pilot’s torso in the event of rapid
deceleration.
b. A seat with safety belt for each person over the age of two (2) years old
is required.
c. The cabin crewmember’s seats shall be located near floor level and other
emergency exits for emergency evacuation.
d. The safety harness for each pilot seat, which includes shoulder straps and
a seat belt, should incorporate a device to prevent a suddenly
incapacitated pilot from interfering with the flight controls.
e. All of the above.
f. None of the above.

49. Which among the following statements regarding passenger and pilot compartment
doors is not correct?
a. All passenger-carrying aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in
excess of 45,500 kg shall be equipped with an approved flight crew
compartment door.
b. All passenger-carrying aircraft with a passenger seating capacity greater
than 60 shall be equipped with an approved flight crew compartment door.
c. Flight crew compartment doors are designed to resist penetration of small
firearms and grenade shrapnel and forcible intrusions of unauthorized
persons.
d. This door shall be capable of being locked and unlocked from either pilot’s
station.
e. All of the above.
f. None of the above.

50. Per Part 7, which is not a mandatory passenger information sign?


a. Sign when to fasten the seat belt
b. Sign when the lavatory is free
c. Sign that prohibits smoking
d. “Fasten seat belt while seated”
e. “Philippine law provides for a penalty for tampering with the smoke
detector installed in this lavatory”

51. Public address system is required for airplanes carrying _____ passengers.
a. more than 19
b. more than 25
c. more than 30
d. more than 51

52. Spare fuses available for use in flight _____


a. Must be equal to at least 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or three
of each rating, whichever is greater.
b. Must be equal to at least 5% of the number of fuses of each rating or three
of each rating whichever, is lesser.
c. Must be equal to at least 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or
three of each rating, whichever is greater.
d. Must be equal to at least 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or
three of each rating, whichever is lesser.

53. Which should be installed or readily available on all seaplanes for flight?
a. Anchor
b. Drogue
c. Maritime sound signaling device
d. All of the above

54. Which among the following statements is not true?


a. Airplane with a maximum certified take-off mass of more than 5,700 lb
should be equipped with a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain
a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation.
b. An aircraft can be operated even without a chart holder.
c. Airplane in commercial air transport operations intended to be operated
below 15,000 meters must be equipped with cosmic radio detection equipment.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

55. Which PCAR Part prescribes the minimum instrument and equipment requirements for
all aircraft in all operations?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 7
d. 8
56. Which PCAR part discusses survival equipment requirements that may apply to the
Republic of the Philippines?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 7

Reflectance is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the luminous flux
it receives.

DH: Decision Height NDB: Non-Directional Beacon


ADF: Automatic Direction Finder PBE: Protective Breathing Equipment
AOC: Air Operator Certificate RCP: Required Communication Performance
DME: Distance Measuring Equipment SSR: Secondary Surveillance Radar
ELT: Emergency Locator Transmitter VFR: Visual Flight Rules
ILS: Instrument Landing System VMC: Visual Meteorological Conditions
IFR: Instrument Flight Rating VOR: VHF Omnidirectional Range
IMC: Instrument Meteorological
VSM: Vertical Separation Minimum
Conditions
MEL: Minimum Equipment List LRNS: Long Range Navigation Systems
MNPS: Minimal Navigation Performance
MHz: Megahertz
Specifications
MLS: Microwave Landing System RVSM: Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum

Number of passenger seats installed Number of first- aid kits required


0-50 1
51-150 2
151-250 3
>250 4

Passenger Seating Capacity Minimum Number of Hand Fire Extinguishers


<30 1
30-60 2
61-200 3
201-300 4
301-400 5
401-500 6
501-600 7
>601 8
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 8

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Don’t quit. Suffer now and live the rest of your life as a champion. -
1. a
2. a
3. a
4. a
5. a
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 9

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Strong people don’t put other down. They lift them up. -
1. a
2. a
3. a
4. a
5. a
6. a
7. a
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 10

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- I am not what I have done; I am what I have overcome. -


1. Part 10 does apply to aircraft used by _____.
a. air operators
b. customs
c. military
d. police services
e. air operators, customs, military, and police services

2. Which of the following manuals contain procedures, instructions, and guidance for
use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties.
a. Aircraft Flight Manual
b. Aircraft Operating Manual
c. Operations Manual
d. Rotorcraft Flight Manual

3. It is a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing


limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and
instructions and information necessary to the flight crewmembers for the safe
operation of the aircraft.
a. Aircraft Flight Manual
b. Aircraft Operating Manual
c. Operations Manual
d. Rotorcraft Flight Manual

4. The _____ contains limitations within which the rotorcraft is to be considered


airworthy and instructions and information necessary for safe operations.
a. Aircraft Flight Manual
b. Aircraft Operating Manual
c. Operations Manual
d. Rotorcraft Flight Manual

5. It is manual acceptable to the State of the Operator that contains normal,


abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance
information, details of the aircraft systems, and other material relevant to the
operation of the aircraft.
a. Aircraft Flight Manual
b. Aircraft Operating Manual
c. Operations Manual
d. Rotorcraft Flight Manual

6. What is the complete title of CAR Part 10?


a. Aerial Work and Operating Limitation for Non-Type Certificated Aircraft
b. Air Operator Certification and Administration
c. Commercial Air Transport by Foreign Air Carriers within Republic of the
Philippines
d. Operations

7. Which PCAR Part gives deference to, and emphasizes the responsibilities existing
between all contracting States to adhere to international standards under the
Convention respecting safety regulation of its air operators, of the aircraft on
its registry, and the licensing of its crew operating those aircraft.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. 10

8. A foreign air operator who does not hold an Air Operator Certificate issued by
the Authority _____.
a. shall not operate an aircraft in and to the Philippines
b. shall not operate an aircraft in the Philippines unless the state of the
foreign air operator is an ICAO contracting state
c. shall not operate an aircraft in the Philippines unless it holds an
Operations Specifications.
d. shall not operate an aircraft in the Philippines during peak season

9. How many days should the foreign operator preserve the original recorded data of
the flight recorder?
a. Not less than 15 days unless otherwise directed by the Authority
b. Not less than 30 days unless otherwise directed by the Authority
c. Not less than 60 days unless otherwise directed by the Authority
d. Not less than 90 days unless otherwise directed by the Authority

10. For the initial issue of a foreign air operator Operations Specifications, an
applicant shall apply _____ before the date of commencement of intended
operation.
a. at least fifteen days
b. at least thirty days
c. at least sixty days
d. at least ninety days

11. Which among the following conditions are foreign air operators permitted to
operate a single-engine, non-turbine aircraft?
a. At night
b. In Instrumental Meteorological Conditions
c. Under Special Visual Flight Rules
d. None of the above

12. For foreign air operators to be allowed to operate at night or in IMC, which of
the following should be ensured?
a. Engine reliability
b. Operator’s maintenance procedures and operating practices
c. Flight dispatch procedures
d. Crew training programs
e. Engine/Automatic trend monitoring system
f. All of the above

13. Which of the following statements regarding single pilot operation under IFR or
at night is true? A foreign air operator can operate an airplane _____.
a. if the flight manual does require a flight crew of more than one pilot
b. if the airplane possesses a gas turbine engine
c. if the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than nine
d. if the maximum certificated take-off mass exceed 5,700 kg
e. if the PIC has satisfied the requirements of experience, training, checking
and recent experience.

14. Which among the following statements regarding flight crewmember qualifications
is not true?
a. Foreign air operators shall ensure that their flight crew has the
appropriate licenses and ratings for the operations to be conducted in
Republic of the Philippines.
b. Foreign air operators shall ensure that flight crew operating aircraft in
Republic of the Philippines meet the language proficiency requirement of
Level 2.
c. Foreign air operators shall ensure that the required PIC engaged in single
pilot operations on aircraft operating in the Republic of the Philippines
shall be less than 60 years of age.
d. Foreign air operators shall ensure, for aircraft engaged in operations in
Republic of the Philippines requiring more than one pilot as flight
crewmembers, that if one pilot is between the age of 60 and up to age 65,
the other pilot shall be less than age 60.

AOM: Airplane Operating Manual


AFM: Airplane Flight Manual
RFM: Rotorcraft Flight Manual
AOC: Air Operator Certificate
MEL: Minimum Equipment List
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 11

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Be an encourager. The world has enough critics already. -


1. Which is not considered an agricultural aircraft operation?
a. Dispensing any economic poison
b. Dispensing of live insects
c. Dispensing any other substance intended for plant nourishment, soil
treatment, propagation of plant life, or pest control
d. Engaging in dispensing activities directly affecting agriculture,
horticulture, or forest preservation
2. An economic poison is any substance or mixture of substances intended for _____.
a. preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating insects and rodents
b. preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating nematodes, fungi, weeds,
and other forms of plant or animal life
c. preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating viruses on or in living
human beings or other animals
d. use as a plant regulator, defoliant, or desiccant

3. All persons who conduct aerial work in Republic of the Philippines must comply
with certification requirements of which PCAR Part?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 11
d. 13

4. Which PCAR Part sets forth the requirements for aerial work operations, including
agricultural aviation, helicopter external load carrying, glider and banner
towing, TV and movie operations, sight-seeing flights, fish spotting, and traffic
reporting.
a. 6
b. 9
c. 11
d. 13

5. It is the rotorcraft-load combination where the external load cannot move freely,
cannot be jettisoned, and does not extend below the landing gear.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

6. It is the rotorcraft-load combination where the external load is jettisonable and


remains in contact with land or water during the rotorcraft operation.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
e.
7. It is the rotorcraft-load combination where the external load is jettisonable and
is lifted free of land or water during the rotorcraft operation.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

8. It is the rotorcraft-load combination where the external load suspended from the
rotorcraft is for the carriage of persons.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

9. In case the proposed aerial work operation is commercial in nature, the operator
shall apply for the certification in accordance with which PCAR Part?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 11
d. 13
10. Applicant shall make the application for an initial issue of a certificate of
authorization at least _____ before the date of intended operation.
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 70 days
d. 90 days

11. Per PCAR Part 11, which among the following is not required of the applicant in
order to acquire a certificate of authorization?
a. Citizen of the Republic of the Philippines
b. Has principal place of business and registered office located in Republic
of the Philippines
c. Meets the applicable regulations and standards for the holder of a
certificate of authorization
d. Properly and adequately equipped for safe operations in aerial work and
maintenance of the aircraft
e. Previously held a certificate of authorization which was revoked

12. The certificate of authorization consists of how many document/s?


a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

13. How long is the validity of the certificate of authorization?


a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

14. An operator shall make application for renewal of a certificate of authorization


at least _____ days before the end of the existing period of validity.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. sixty (60)
d. ninety (90)

15. Within _____ days after receiving a refusal to amend, the holder may petition the
Authority to reconsider the refusal.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. sixty (60)
d. ninety (90)

16. The applicant shall file the application at least _____ before the date that it
proposes the amendment become effective.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. sixty (60)
d. ninety (90)

17. No pilot may conduct news media or traffic reporting operations, fish spotting
operations, sightseeing operations unless he or she has _____.
a. private pilot license
b. commercial pilot license
c. airline transport pilot license
d. a

18. No pilot may conduct news media or traffic reporting operations, fish spotting
operations, sightseeing operations unless he or she has acquired _____ hours as a
PIC.
a. 300
b. 500
c. 800
d. 1,200
19. Sightseeing flights are conducted within _____ statute mile radius of the
departure airport.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 50

20. Which among the following statements regarding sightseeing flights is not true?
a. Sightseeing operations shall be conducted in VFR weather conditions.
b. Sightseeing operations shall be conducted only between the hours of
official sunrise and official sunset.
c. Sightseeing operations shall be conducted over congested areas or open-air
assemblies of persons lower than 1,000 feet.
d. Each operator shall conduct operations so as not to endanger persons or
property on the surface nor aircraft in flight.

Aerial work: An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized


services such as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and
patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.

Aerobatic flight: An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's


attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal
flight.
Air Laws Questions
Philippine Civil Aviation Regulations Part 18

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Patience, persistence, and perspiration make an unbeatable combination for success. -


1. The storage of radioactive materials labeled yellow II and/or yellow III will not
exceed _____ transport indexes (TI) in a single storage location.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60

2. In cases of an accident/incident involving dangerous goods, within how many hours


should it be reported to the Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines?
a. 24
b. 48
c. 72
d. 120

3. It is the indicator of the radiation level in the vicinity of a package,


overpack, tank, freight container, conveyance, unpackaged LSA-I material or
unpackaged SCO-I and it is used in the provision of radiation protection measures
during transport.
a. Transport index
b. Rad index
c. Gray index
d. Curie index
e. Becquerel index

4. Which among the following is classified as a serious injury?


a. requires hospitalization for > 48 hours, commencing within seven days from
the date the injury was received
b. results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes
or nose)
c. involves lacerations which cause severe hemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon
damage
d. involves injury to any internal organ
e. involves 2nd or 3rd degree burns, or any burns affecting > 5% of the body
surface
f. involves verified exposure to infectious substances or injurious radiation

5. In cases of an accident/incident involving dangerous goods, who is responsible to


report it to the Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines?
a. Quality Manager
b. Pilot-in-command
c. Chief mechanic
d. AOC holder

NOTOC: Notification to Pilot-in-command


Classes of Dangerous Goods
Air Laws Questions
International Offices

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Do it for the people who want to see you fail. -


1. Where is the headquarters of ICAO and IATA?
a. Paris
b. Cologne, Germany
c. Montreal, Canada
d. Hoofdorp, North Holland

2. EASA was created last _____.


a. July 13, 2005
b. June 13, 2005
c. June 15, 2003
d. July 15, 2003

3. Where is the headquarters of EASA?


a. Paris
b. Cologne, Germany
c. Montreal, Canada
d. Hoofdorp, North Holland

4. An agency of the European Union (EU) with regulatory and executive tasks in the
field of civilian aviation safety.
a. ICAO
b. EASA
c. FAA
d. IATA

5. Where is the headquarters of JAA?


a. Paris
b. Cologne, Germany
c. Montreal, Canada
d. Hoofdorp, North Holland

6. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations that codifies the principles and
techniques of international air navigation and fosters the planning and
development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth.
a. ICAO
b. EASA
c. FAA
d. IATA

7. The Secretary General of ICAO holds the office for _____ years.
a. three (3)
b. four (4)
c. five (5)
d. six (6)

8. At what year did EASA reached full functionality?


a. 2005
b. 2006
c. 2007
d. 2008

9. It is the trade association of the world’s airlines.


a. Airports Council International
b. CANSO
c. IATA
d. ICAO

10. It is the organization for Air Navigation Service Providers.


a. Airports Council International
b. CANSO
c. IATA
d. ICAO

11. It is the trade association of airport authorities.


a. Airports Council International
b. CANSO
c. IATA
d. ICAN

12. The forerunner to ICAO was the _____.


a. Airports Council International
b. CANSO
c. IATA
d. ICAN

13. ICAN continued to operate until _____.


a. 1903
b. 1906
c. 1912
d. 1945

14. A

ICAO: International Civil Aviation Organization | Fang Liu | 040447


IATA: International Air Transport Association | 1944
EASA: European Aviation Safety Agency
ICAN: International Commission for Air Navigation
JAA: Joint Aviation Authorities
JAR: Joint Aviation Requirements
FAA: Federal Aviation Administration | Michael Huerta | 082358
FAR: Federal Aviation Regulations
CANSO: Civil Air Navigation Services Organisation
Air Laws Questions
Freedoms of the Air

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- If you don’t build your own dream,


someone else will hire you to help them build theirs. -
1. The privilege to fly into the territory of the grantor state and there is take on
traffic designated for the flag state is called _____. 1996
a. Fourth freedom
b. Fifth freedom
c. Sixth freedom
d. Third freedom

2. The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that
state, to take on passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down
in a third state is the _____.
a. 5th freedom right
b. 6th freedom right
c. 7th freedom right
d. 9th freedom right

3. An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a


neighboring state. Which freedom of the air will be exercised?
a. 2nd
b. 3rd
c. 6th
d. 8th

4. The right of an airline from a particular country to originate a flight from


foreign country and carry passengers from one point to another within that
foreign country. This occurrence is also known as _____.
a. beyond rights
b. cabotage
c. stand-alone cabotage
d. transit agreement

5. Which among the following statements best describe the 6th Freedom of the Air?
a. Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third
nation (B)
b. The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty
nation (B) by the carrier of another nation (A)
c. The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights
between 3 or more treaty partner nations (B to C to D)
d. A combination of freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty
partner nations (C to A) through carrier’s base nation (B)

6. Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another
ICAO contracting state?
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

7. Which freedom gives the right to fly over a foreign country?


a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

8. It grants the privilege to fly over the territory of a treaty country without
landing.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

9. It is also known as the technical freedom.


a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
10. This freedom allows technical stops without the enplaning or deplaning of
passengers or cargo.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

11. It is the right to stop in one country solely for refueling or other maintenance
on the way to another country.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

12. It is the right to carry passengers or cargo from one's own country to another.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

13. It is known as the first commercial freedom.


a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

14. The right to carry passengers or cargo from another country to one's own.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

15. It allows an airline to carry revenue traffic between foreign countries as a part
of services connecting the airline's own country.
a. 5th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 8th

16. It is the right to carry passengers from one's own country to a second country,
and from that country to a third country (and so on).
a. 5th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 8th

17. It is referred to as “beyond rights.”


a. 5th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 8th

18. This freedom combines the third freedom and fourth freedoms and is the right to
carry passengers or cargo from a second country to a third country by stopping in
one's own country.
a. 5th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 8th

19. It is the right to carry passengers or cargo between two foreign countries
without any continuing service to one's own country.
a. 5th
b. 6th
c. 7th
d. 8th
20. It is the right to carry passengers or cargo between two or more points in one
foreign country.
a. 6th
b. 7th
c. 8th
d. 9th

21. What are the first and second freedoms collectively known as?
a. The technical freedoms
b. The commercial freedoms
c. The modern freedoms
d. The ICAO freedoms

22. What freedom permits landing and refueling in another state for non-traffic
reasons?
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

23. What is cabotage?


a. Domestic air service by a national carrier
b. Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country
c. Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC
d. An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country

24. Which freedom of the air allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for
technical reasons?
a. First
b. Fourth
c. Third
d. Second

25. How are the 3rd, 4th, and 5th freedoms generally referred to?
a. The commercial freedoms
b. The general freedoms
c. The technical freedoms
d. The traffic freedoms

26. The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services,


granted by one State to another State or States to fly across its territory
without landing.

27. The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services,


granted by one State to another State or States to land in its territory for non-
traffic purposes.

28. The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services,


granted by one State to another State to put down, in the territory of the first
State, traffic coming from the home State of the carrier.

29. The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services,


granted by one State to another State to take on, in the territory of the first
State, traffic destined for the home State of the carrier.

30. The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services,


granted by one State to another State to put down and to take on, in the
territory of the first State, traffic coming from or destined to a third State.

31. The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, of


transporting, via the home State of the carrier, traffic moving between two other
States.

32. The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services,


granted by one State to another State, of transporting traffic between the
territory of the granting State and any third State with no requirement to
include on such operation any point in the territory of the recipient State.
33. The right or privilege, in respect of scheduled international air services, of
transporting cabotage traffic between two points in the territory of the granting
State on a service that originates or terminates in the home country of the
foreign carrier or outside the territory of the granting State.

34. The right or privilege of transporting cabotage traffic of the granting State on
a service performed entirely within the territory of the granting State.
Air Laws Questions
Conventions

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- You can’t have a million dollar dream with a minimum wage work ethic. -
1. The uniform rules governing air carrier’s liabilities in respect of passengers
and goods carried in most international flights were first established during the
_____. 1996
a. Hague Protocol
b. Warsaw Convention
c. Guadalajara Convention
d. Rome Convention

2. It is the convention that deals with offences against penal law.


a. Rome
b. Madrid
c. Warsaw
d. Tokyo

3. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by
aircraft to third parties on the surface?
a. Rome Convention
b. Guatemala Convention
c. Montreal Convention
d. Tokyo Convention

4. The Paris Convention defined the status of international airspace and gave the
authority to the commander of the aeroplane to act in accordance with what law?
a. The Law of the State of the Aerodrome before Departure
b. The Law of the State of the Operator
c. The Law of the State of Registration
d. International Law

5. Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may
be carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the state
concerned by the operator of the aircraft. This is based on which international
agreement/convention?
a. Warsaw Agreement
b. Cyprus Convention
c. Agreement of Paris
d. Convention of The Hague

6. This is also known as the Convention on Offenses and Certain Other Acts Committed
On-board Aircraft.
a. Chicago
b. Guadalajara
c. Montreal
d. Tokyo

7. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of


international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage, and freight.
a. Chicago convention
b. Geneva convention
c. Montreal convention
d. Warsaw convention

8. This convention discusses terrorism against international civil aviation at


airports and their facilities.
a. Chicago convention
b. Geneva convention
c. Montreal convention
d. Warsaw convention

9. Per Rome Convention, an operator is liable for any damage, but the liability is
limited to a sum that is proportionate to the _____.
a. net profit of the flight
b. number of injured persons
c. number of deceased persons
d. weight of the aircraft

10. Who is responsible for exercising jurisdiction and taking legal steps over
offences and acts committed on board?
a. State of Design
b. State of Manufacture
c. State of Operator
d. State of Registry

11. Which convention lays down uniform rules governing the air carrier’s liabilities
in respect of passengers and goods?
a. Chicago convention
b. Rome convention
c. Tokyo convention
d. Warsaw convention

12. Which convention established the ICAO?


a. Chicago convention
b. Rome convention
c. Tokyo convention
d. Warsaw convention

13. The Convention concerning offences and certain other acts committed on board an
aircraft is _____.
a. Paris
b. Chicago
c. Tokyo
d. Rome

14. Which convention deals with unlawful interference with aircraft?


a. Rome
b. Tokyo
c. Madrid
d. The Hague

15. Which international convention was concerned with terrorism against internal
civil aviation at airports and their facilities?
a. Tokyo
b. Montreal
c. Rome
d. Warsaw

16. From which convention was ICAO formed?


a. Warsaw
b. Montreal
c. Chicago
d. Rome

17. A commander is authorized, in the event that a passenger has committed an offence
or is suspected to be about to commit an offence, to _____.
a. disable them
b. require passengers to assist in restraining
c. request cabin crew to assist
d. deliver the person to the appropriate authority

18. You are on the surface and are injured by an object from a foreign aeroplane.
Which convention allows you to claim damages?
a. The Hague
b. Rome
c. Warsaw
d. Paris

19. To what did Tokyo Convention of 1963 address itself?


a. Licensing of scheduled air services
b. Damage caused by a contracting state’s aircraft to property in the same
state
c. Damage caused by a contracting state’s aircraft to property in the another
state
d. Law applicable to an aircraft in flight

20. What International Convention first attempted to deal with hijacking?


a. Montreal
b. Warsaw
c. Chicago
d. Tokyo

21. Which International Agreement relates to Penal Law?


a. Tokyo
b. Montreal
c. Hague
d. Rome

22. The Warsaw Convention and its later amendments cover _____.
a. the permit of the operator for international flights
b. the limitations of the responsibilities of the operator against transported
passengers and cargo
c. regulations concerning transportation of dangerous goods
d. the aerodrome security system

10-13-
Paris Convention France Regulation of Aerial Navigation
1919
Habana 2-20-
Cuba Convention on Commercial Aviation
Convention 1928
Warsaw Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules 10-12-
Poland
Convention Relating to International Carriage by Air 1929
Chicago 12-7-
U.S.A. Convention on International Civil Aviation
Convention 1944
Convention on Damage Caused by Foreign Aircraft 10-7-
Rome Convention Italy
to Third Parties on the Surface 1952
Guadalajara Convention Supplementary to the Warsaw 9-8-
Mexico
Convention Convention 1961
Convention on Offenses and Certain Other Acts 9-14-
Tokyo Convention Japan
Committed On Board Aircraft 1963
12-16-
Hague Convention Netherlands
1970
Montreal Convention for the Unification of Certain Rules 5-28-
Canada
Convention for International Carriage by Air 1999
Air Laws Questions
FAA and FAR

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Don’t waste your time with explanation. People will hear what they want to hear. -
1. An airplane may be operated under CFR Part 91 while carrying passengers or cargo
when _____.
a. the flight is for training, ferrying, positioning, or maintenance purposes
b. there are less than 20 seats installed in the airplane or the cargo weighs
less than 6,000 pounds
c. the operator has a letter of Deviation Authority issued under CFR Part 125
d. the ATC had given them the authority to proceed with the flight

2. How long does a Part 145 approved organization have to retain aircraft documents?
a. Two (2) years after the aircraft has been released from the organization
b. At least four (4) years after the aircraft has been permanently withdrawn
from service
c. Five (5) years after the aircraft has been permanently withdrawn from
service
d. Three (3) years after the aircraft has been permanently withdrawn from
service

3. Records of a major alteration must be made in what documents?


a. Aircraft maintenance records and EASA 21.
b. Far 43 and FAA form 337
c. Aircraft Maintenance Record and FAA Form 337
d. Aircraft maintenance record only

4. 14 CFR Part _____ prescribes the certification process of products and parts?
a. 11
b. 13
c. 21
d. 23

5. Normal, utility, and acrobatic category reciprocating engine-powered airplane of


more than 6,000 pounds maximum weight and turbine engine-powered airplanes in the
normal, utility, and acrobatic category must have a steady gradient of climb
after takeoff of at least _____.
a. 1.5%
b. 3.0%
c. 4.0%
d. 5.0%

6. Which part of the 14 CFR provides information regarding instrument range markings
for an airplane certificated in the acrobatic category?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 29

7. The FAA Regulations that govern today’s aircraft are found in Title 14 of the
CFR, _____.
a. Aeronautics and Engineering
b. Aeronautics and Space
c. Atmospheric Evaluation
d. Space Administration

8. FAA stands for _____.


a. Federal Aeronautics Administration
b. Federal Aeronautics Authority
c. Federal Aviation Administration
d. Federal Aviation Authority

9. There are 68 regulations organized into three volumes under Title 14 CFR. What
does CFR stand for?
a. Congressional Foundation Regulations
b. Congressional Foundation Requirements
c. Code of Federal Regulations
d. Code of Federal Requirements

10. These 68 regulations can be separated into _____ categories, namely _____.
a. 4; Administrative, Finance, Operation, and Certification
b. 3; Administrative, Airworthiness Certification, and Airworthiness Operation
c. 3; Administrative, Airworthiness, and Finance
d. 2; Administrative and Airworthiness

11. Which among the following statements is incorrect?


a. There are three primary regulations that govern the airworthiness of an
aircraft. The “Big Three” are Parts 21, 43, and 91.
b. 14 CFR Part 21 is about the Certification Procedures for Products and
Parts.
c. 14 CFR Part 43 is about Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding,
and Alterations.
d. 14 CFR Part 91 is about the General Operating and Flight Rules.
e. None of the above.

12. This part identifies the requirements of and the procedures for obtaining type
certificates, supplemental type certificates, production certificates,
airworthiness certificates, and import and export approvals.
a. 1
b. 21
c. 43
d. 91

13. Aircrafts certificated under this part represent the greatest portion of what the
industry refers to as “general aviation.”
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 29

14. 14 CFR Part _____ covers the airworthiness standards for normal, utility,
acrobatic, and commuter category airplanes.
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 29

15. Commuter aircrafts under 14 CFR Part 23 are those aircrafts that have a maximum
certificated take-off weight of _____.
a. 19,000 pounds or less
b. 12,500 pounds or less
c. 12,500 pounds or more
d. 7,000 pounds or less

16. Which part of the 14 CFR applies to large aircraft with a maximum certificated
take-off weight of more than 12,500 pounds?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 29

17. Authorization procedures for obtaining a delegation option authorization,


becoming a designated alteration station (DAS), or obtaining a Part Manufacture
Approval (PMA) or an authorization related to producing a Technical Standard
Order (TSO) are also included in this regulation.
a. 1
b. 21
c. 43
d. 91

18. Which part of the 14 CFR deals with the airworthiness standards for normal
category rotorcraft?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 29
19. Normal category rotorcraft has a seating capacity of _____ and a maximum
certificated weight of _____.
a. nine or less; less than 7,000 pounds
b. more than nine; less than 7,000 pounds
c. nine or less; more than 7,000 pounds
d. more than nine; more than 7,000 pounds

20. Normal, utility, and acrobatic aircrafts under 14 CFR Part 23 are those aircrafts
that have a maximum certificated take-off weight of _____.
a. 19,000 pounds or less
b. 12,500 pounds or less
c. 12,500 pounds or more
d. 7,000 pounds or less

21. Which among the following statements is incorrect?


a. 14 CFR Part 25 is usually referred to as “commercial aviation.”
b. 14 CFR Part 25 includes most of the aircraft seen at a large passenger
airport, except for the commuter aircraft included in part 23.
c. The ability to carry passengers is not a requirement for aircraft certified
to Part 25.
d. Many of these aircrafts are also used to transport cargo.
e. None of the above.

22. This part specifies those standards applicable to rotorcraft with a maximum
certificated weight greater than 7,000 pounds.
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 29

23. Which part of 14 CFR details the airworthiness standards for engines, either
reciprocating or turbine style?
a. 33
b. 35
c. 39
d. 45

24. This part not only species the design and construction requirements, but also the
“block test” requirements that subject the engine to extremely demanding testing
in order to prove its capability of enduring the stresses of powering the
aircraft.
a. 33
b. 35
c. 39
d. 45

25. This part discusses the type certification, design and construction, and test and
inspections of propellers.
a. 33
b. 35
c. 39
d. 45

26. This regulation represents the heart of aviation maintenance.


a. 1
b. 21
c. 43
d. 91

27. It identifies the requirements for the identification of aircraft, engines,


propellers, certain replacement and modification parts, and the nationality and
registration marking required on U.S.-registered aircraft.
a. 45
b. 47
c. 65
d. 91
28. Which among the following statements regarding Identification and Registration
Marking is incorrect?
a. All type-certificated products must have the necessary information on a
fireproof dataplate or similar approved fireproof method.
b. Parts that have a specified replacement time, inspection interval, or other
related procedure specification must not have a part number and a serial
number.
c. The manufacturer of a life-limited part must either provide marking
instructions for that part, or state that the part cannot be marked without
a compromise to its integrity.
d. Exceptions are made for the identification of parts that are too small to
be practical to mark the required data.

29. This regulation provides the requirements for registering aircraft. It includes
procedures for both owner and dealer registration of aircraft.
a. 45
b. 47
c. 65
d. 91

FAR PART 23

30. What is the maximum certificated take-off weight (kg) of airplanes under the
commuter category?
a. 19,000
b. 12,500
c. 8,615
d. 5,670

31. What is the maximum certificated take-off weight (kg) of airplanes under the
normal, utility, and acrobatic categories?
a. 19,000
b. 12,500
c. 8,615
d. 5,670

32. Per 14 CFR 23, which of the following categories may not be type certificated in
more than one category?
a. Acrobatic
b. Commuter
c. Normal
d. Utility

33. Excluding pilot seats, which among these airplane categories have a maximum
seating configuration of nine (9)?
a. Acrobatic
b. Commuter
c. Normal
d. Utility

34. Excluding pilot seats, which among these airplane categories have a maximum
seating configuration of nineteen (19)?
a. Acrobatic
b. Commuter
c. Normal
d. Utility

35. Per 14 CFR 23, airplanes that fall under the _____ category are intended for use
without restrictions.
a. acrobatic
b. commuter
c. normal
d. utility

36. Airplanes under the _____ category/ies are intended for non-acrobatic operation.
a. normal
b. normal and commuter
c. normal and utility
d. utility

37. Non-acrobatic operations does not include _____.


a. any maneuver incident to normal flying
b. stalls (except whip stalls)
c. lazy eights, chandelles, and steep turns, in which the angle of bank is not
more than 60 degrees
d. spins

38. What is the standard weight (kg) of an occupant for a normal category airplane?
a. 190
b. 170
c. 86
d. 77
39. What is the standard weight (kg) of an occupant for a utility category airplane?
a. 190
b. 170
c. 86
d. 77

40. What is the standard weight (kg) of an occupant for an acrobatic category
airplane?
a. 190
b. 170
c. 86
d. 77

41. What is the standard weight (kg) of an occupant for a commuter category airplane?
a. 190
b. 170
c. 86
d. 77

42. It is the highest weight at which compliance with each applicable structural
loading condition of this part is shown.
a. Maximum Weight
b. Minimum Weight
c. Design Maximum Weight
d. Design Minimum Weight

43. It is the highest weight at which compliance with each applicable requirement of
this part is shown.
a. Maximum Weight
b. Minimum Weight
c. Design Maximum Weight
d. Design Minimum Weight

44. It is the lowest weight at which compliance with each applicable requirement of
this part is shown.
a. Maximum Weight
b. Minimum Weight
c. Design Maximum Weight
d. Design Minimum Weight

45. Whichamong the following is not part of the empty weight?


a.Fixed ballast
b.Unusable fuel
c.Oil, hydraulic fluid, and other fluids required for normal operation of
airplane systems
d. Potable water, lavatory precharge water, and water intended for injection
in the engine

46. During a closed throttle glide, at VNE, a fixed-pitch propeller may not cause an
engine speed above _____ of maximum continuous speed.
a. 90%
b. 100%
c. 103%
d. 110%

47. With a governor inoperative, there should be a means to limit the maximum engine
speed to _____ of the maximum allowable takeoff RPM.
a. 90%
b. 100%
c. 103%
d. 110%

48. Which denotes the calibrated airspeed at which, when the critical engine is
suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the airplane?
a. VMC
b. VREF
c. VMCG
d. VSSE

49. IT is the minimum control speed on the ground, and is the calibrated airspeed
during the takeoff run at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made
inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the airplane using the rudder
control alone.
a. VMC
b. VREF
c. VMCG
d. VSSE

50. Which of the following statement is not true regarding pressurized cabin?
a. The pressure differential is negative when the internal pressure is greater
than the external.
b. There must be at least two pressure relief valves to automatically limit
the positive pressure differential to a predetermined value at the maximum
rate of flow delivered by the pressure source.
c. The relief valve/s must be large enough so that the failure of the other/s
e would not cause an appreciable rise in the pressure differential.
d. The must be at least two reverse pressure differential relief valves to
automatically prevent a negative pressure differential that would damage
the structure.

51. Reciprocating engine-powered airplane under the normal, utility, and acrobatic
category having a maximum weight of 6,000 pounds or less must have a steady climb
gradient at sea level of at least _____ for landplanes with the landing gear
retracted, wing flaps in the takeoff position, not more than maximum continuous
power on each engine, and a climb speed not less than the greater of 1.1 V MC and
1.2 vS1 for multi-engine airplanes and not less than 1.2 VS1 for single-engine
airplanes.
a. 8.3%
b. 6.7%
c. 4.0%
d. 1.2%
e. 1.1%

52. Reciprocating engine-powered airplane under the normal, utility, and acrobatic
category having a maximum weight of 6,000 pounds or less must have a steady climb
gradient at sea level of at least _____ for seaplanes and amphibians with the
landing gear retracted, wing flaps in the takeoff position, not more than maximum
continuous power on each engine, and a climb speed not less than the greater of
1.1 VMC and 1.2 vS1 for multi-engine airplanes and not less than 1.2 VS1 for
single-engine airplanes.
a. 8.3%
b. 6.7%
c. 4.0%
d. 1.2%
e. 1.1%

53. Reciprocating engine-powered airplane having a maximum weight more than 6,000
pounds and turbine engine-powered airplane under the normal, utility, and
acrobatic category must have a steady climb gradient at sea level of at least
_____ with takeoff power on each engine, landing gear retracted, and wing flaps
in the takeoff position.
a. 8.3%
b. 6.7%
c. 4.0%
d. 1.2%
e. 1.1%

FOCUS ON SUBPARTS B D G

Title 14 Subchapters
A Definitions and Abreviations (ADA)
B Procedural Rules (BPR)
C Aircraft (CAC)
D Airmen (DAM)
E Airspace (EAS)
F Air Traffic and Gen. Operating Rules (FATGOR)
G Air Carriers (GACa)
H Schools and Other Certified Agencies (HSOCA)
I Airports (IAP)
J Navigational Facilities (JNaF)
K Administrative Regulations (KAR)
L-M Reserved
N Risk Insurance (NRI)

Airworthy: (1) conforms to type design and is (2) safe for operation
Product: aircraft, aircraft engine, or aircraft propeller
Air Laws Questions
EASA and JAR

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- You are going to be great! Keep going. -


1. CAMO stands for _____.
a. Continuing Airworthiness Management Organization
b. Certified Airworthiness Maintenance Organization
c. Certified Aviation Management Office
d. Continuing Aviation Maintenance Office

2. JAR stands for _____.


a. Joint Aviation Requirements
b. Joint Aviation Registration
c. Joint Aviation Rules
d. Joint Aviation Regulation

3. What are the categories according to JAR-66?


a. Cat. A, B, C, and D
b. Cat. A, B, C1, and C2
c. Cat. A, B1, B2, and C
d. Cat. A, B, and C

4. Who is allowed to sign a ‘Release to Service’ after overhaul?


a. Base Maintenance Certifying Engineer
b. Line Maintenance Certifying Technician
c. Line Maintenance Certifying Mechanic
d. Pilot-in-command

5. How many sub-categories do JAR 66 CAT-A certifying staff license have?


a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6

6. What is the minimum training requirement by a JAR 147 school for the JAR 66 CAT-A
license?
a. 800 hours
b. 1,200 hours
c. 1,600 hours
d. 2,000 hours

7. By when does BCAR licensed aircraft maintenance engineers have to conform to EASA
Part-66?
a. 28th September 2011
b. 28th September 2006
c. 28th September 2001
d. 28th September 2004

8. An EASA IR B1.2 engineer can certify _____.


a. aircraft- both turbine and piston engine
b. aircraft- turbine engine
c. aircraft- piston engine
d. rotorcraft

9. In what document should you find the details of design of a particular aircraft?
a. Maintenance Manual
b. The Declaration of Design and Performance
c. EASA Certification Spec. 25
d. AC 43.13 1B

10. The validity of an EASA permit to fly is _____.


a. 24 months
b. 12 months
c. 7 days
d. as stated on the certificate but not exceeding 14 days

11. The period of validity of a Certificate of Fitness for Flight under 'A'
Conditions is _____.
a. 24 days
b. 14 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 flight

12. Safe operation of the aircraft is the responsibility of the _____.


a. part-M organization
b. owner
c. operator
d. pilot-in-command

13. To facilitate a repair, a drawing can be taken from _____.


a. the CAA
b. the manufacturer
c. a part-145 organization
d. an aircraft enthusiast

14. How long is an EASA part-66 licence valid?


a. 2 years once signed in ink
b. 3 years once signed in ink
c. 5 years once signed in ink
d. 5 years once signed and verified that the information contained in the
license is the same as that contained in the competent authority records

15. An EASA IR B1.3 engineer can certify _____.


a. turbine-engined aeroplanes
b. turbine-engined helicopters
c. piston-engined aeroplanes
d. piston-engined helicopters

16. An EASA IR B1.1 engineer can certify _____.


a. turbine-engined aeroplanes
b. turbine-engined helicopters
c. piston-engined aeroplanes
d. piston-engined helicopters

17. An EASA IR B1.4 engineer can certify _____.


a. turbine-engined aeroplanes
b. turbine-engined helicopters
c. piston-engined aeroplanes
d. piston-engined helicopters

18. An EASA IR B1.2 engineer can certify _____.


a. turbine-engined aeroplanes
b. turbine-engined helicopters
c. piston-engined aeroplanes
d. piston-engined helicopters

19. An ‘A’ licence is automatically granted with the issue of which of the following?
a. B1
b. B2
c. B1 or B2
d. None of the above

20. Which of the following are the sub-sections of a Part-66 maintenance licence in
category A?
a. Turbine-engined helicopters and aeroplanes
b. Piston-engined helicopters and aeroplanes
c. Piston-engined and turbine-engined aeroplanes
d. Piston-engined and turbine-engined helicopters and aeroplanes

21. An EASA category A licensed mechanic can _____.


a. certify minor line tasks which he has done himself and for which he has
approval
b. certify minor line tasks which he or other line mechanics have done and for
which he has approval
c. certify line maintenance checks
d. certify base maintenance checks

22. EASA IR Part-66 applies to aircraft _____.


a. below 5,700 kg only
b. above 5,700 kg only
c. above and below 5,700 kg
d. above and below 5,700 lbs

23. BCAR section L was replaced by _____.


a. EASA IR Part-66
b. JAA JAR-66
c. EASA IR Part-145
d. JAA JAR-145

24. The time scale for retaining training records within a JAR-147 school is _____.
a. ten years after the completion of the course
b. five years after the completion of the course
c. four years after the completion of the course
d. three years after the completion of the course

25. A B2 License applies to _____.


a. line maintenance on airframe structure
b. line maintenance on powerplants
c. line maintenance on airframe structure and powerplants
d. line maintenance on electrical systems and avionics

26. An A1 licensed mechanic can sign for minor scheduled line maintenance tasks on
_____.
a. turbine-engined aeroplanes
b. turbine-engined helicopters
c. piston-engined aeroplanes
d. piston-engined helicopters

27. How many people sign a CRS after scheduled maintenance?


a. One
b. Two
c. Two in each category
d. Three

28. Maintenance documentation held by a Part-145 company is kept for _____.


a. 2 years after they were raised
b. 2 years after the aircraft has been returned to the operator
c. 5 years after the aircraft has been permanently withdrawn from service
d. 5 years after the aircraft has been returned to the operator

29. A Part-145 approved organization is headed by _____.


a. the Team Leader
b. the Technical Manager
c. the QA Manager
d. the Accountable Manager

30. A situation is found which could hazard an aircraft, while it is undergoing


maintenance by a Part-145 organisation. The situation must be reported within
_____.
a. 6 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours

31. If you are required to produce your license, this must be done _____.
a. immediately
b. within 24 hours
c. within 48 hours
d. within 72 hours

32. The responsibility for regularly weighing aircraft rests with the _____.
a. operator
b. Part-145 maintenance organization
c. CAA
d. pilot-in-command
33. The requirement for re-weighing an aircraft under JAR-OPS is _____.
a. at manufacturer, then two years and five yearly thereafter
b. at manufacturer and then yearly intervals
c. at manufacturer and then four yearly intervals
d. at manufacturer and then five yearly intervals

34. In which book would you expect to find all of the following: a CMR, a
maintenance statement, a sector record and a deferred defect?
a. Technical logbook
b. Maintenance manual
c. Flight manual
d. Aircraft logbook

35. According to JAR OPS 1.605, aircraft over 5700 kg MTOM are weighed _____.
a. annually
b. prior to entry into service and then every 4 years
c. at the renewal of the Certificate of Airworthiness
d. at the renewal of the Certificate of Registration

36. JAR OPS 1 subpart J covers _____.


a. mass and balance
b. instrument and equipment
c. communication and navigation equipment
d. aeroplane maintenance

37. To what stage of flight is a Noise Certificate applicable?


a. Take-off only
b. Landing only
c. Take-off and landing
d. All stages of flight

38. The validity of a C of A extends _____.


a. for six months
b. for twelve months
c. as stated on the certificate
d. until change of ownership

39. What is the period of validity for a Certificate of Registration?


a. Six months
b. One year
c. Until change of ownership
d. The same as C of A

40. A radio station license becomes invalid _____.


a. whenever a radio flight test is required
b. upon change of ownership of aircraft
c. when the C of A is due for renewal
d. when the C of A has expired

41. Which EASA Form states that a product, a part, or a component was manufactured in
accordance with an approved design data?
a. 1
b. 19
c. 26
d. 29
Air Laws Questions
ICAO Annexes

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Forget the mistake. Remember the lesson. -


1. This Annex sets out the basis for the ICAO civil aviation security programme and
seeks to safeguard civil aviation and its facilities against acts of unlawful
interference.
a. 2
b. 13
c. 17
d. 19

2. Annex _____ specifies the broad Standards and Recommended Practices to be


followed to enable dangerous goods to be carried safely.
a. 2
b. 8
c. 16
d. 18

3. Annex _____ deals with the protection of the environment from the effect of
aircraft noise and aircraft engine emissions.
a. 6
b. 8
c. 16
d. 18

4. Standards and Recommended Practices for the licensing of flight crew members
(pilots, flight engineers and flight navigators), air traffic controllers,
aeronautical station operators, maintenance technicians, and flight dispatchers
are provided by _____ to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
a. Annex 1
b. Annex 2
c. Annex 3
d. Annex 4

5. Which among the following statements regarding right-of-way rules is correct?


a. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the
aircraft on the right has the right of way except that aeroplanes must give
way to airships, gliders and balloons, and to aircraft that are towing
objects.
b. An aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way and the overtaking
aircraft must remain clear by altering heading to the right.
c. When two aircraft are approaching each other head on, they must both alter
heading to the right.
d. All of the above.

6. Which among the following statements regarding flight plan is true?


a. A flight plan must be filed with air traffic services units for all flights
that will cross international borders, and for most other flights that are
engaged in commercial operations.
b. The flight plan provides information on the aircraft's identity and
equipment, the point and time of departure, the route and altitude to be
flown, the destination and estimated time of arrival, and the alternate
airport to be used should landing at destination be impossible.
c. The flight plan must also specify whether the flight will be carried out
under visual or instrument flight rules.
d. All of the above.

7. A VFR flight is permitted if the flight crew is able to remain clear of clouds by
a distance of at least _____ horizontally and at least _____ vertically and to
maintain a forward visibility of at least 8 kilometers.
a. 1,500 meters; 300 meters
b. 300 meters; 1,500 meters
c. 1,300 meters; 500 meters
d. 500 meters; 1,300 meters

8. Who is responsible for compliance with the rules of the air?


a. Passengers
b. Pilot-in-command
c. Operator
d. Owner
9. Annex 13 states that the objective of the investigation of an accident or
incident is _____.
a. Prevention
b. Blame
c.
10. Annex _____ provides the international requirements for the investigation of
aircraft accidents and incidents.
a. 8
b. 12
c. 13
d. 17

11. If the occurrence of an accident/incident takes place outside the territory of


any State, the State of _____ has the responsibility to conduct the
investigation.
a. Design
b. Manufacture
c. Occurrence
d. Operator
e. Registry

12. Prompted by the need to rapidly locate and rescue survivors of aircraft
accidents, a set of internationally agreed Standards and Recommended Practices
has been incorporated in ICAO's Annex _____.
a. 8
b. 12
c. 13
d. 17

13. This phase is declared when radio contact has been lost with an aircraft and
cannot be re-established or when an aircraft fails to arrive at its destination.
a. Alert
b. Distress
c. Recovery
d. Uncertainty

14. This phase declared when there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft is in
distress.
a. Alert
b. Distress
c. Recovery
d. Uncertainty

15. At this phase, the Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) alerts appropriate SAR units
and initiates further action.
a. Alert
b. Distress
c. Recovery
d. Uncertainty

16. In this phase, the RCC is responsible for taking action to assist the aircraft
and to determine its location as rapidly as possible.
a. Alert
b. Distress
c. Recovery
d. Uncertainty

17. In this phase, the RCC collects and evaluates reports and data pertaining to the
subject aircraft.
a. Alert
b. Distress
c. Recovery
d. Uncertainty
18. Annex _____ to the Chicago Convention defines air traffic services and specifies
the worldwide Standards and Recommended Practices applicable in the provision of
these services.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 11
d. 15
e.
19. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum
specifications for the design of aerodromes?
a. 14
b. 11
c. 6
d. 18

20. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers entry of cargo into a state?
a. 6
b. 14
c. 9
d. 11

21. Which ICAO Annex deals with the process involved with the regular transport of
passengers and luggage?
a. Annex 2
b. Annex 9
c. Annex 17
d. Annex 18

22. Which Annex is concerned with aerodrome design?


a. Annex 12
b. Annex 14
c. Annex 11
d. Annex 15

23. What Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?


a. Annex 10
b. Annex 11
c. Annex 14
d. Annex 15

24. Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of
aircraft?
a. Annex 6
b. Annex 11
c. Annex 17
d. Annex 7

25. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
a. Annex 15
b. Annex 16
c. Annex 17
d. Annex 18

26. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention provides the details for the minimum
acceptance of internal crew licenses?
a. Annex 9
b. Annex 1
c. Annex 6
d. Annex 17

27. According to Annex 8, the validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is subject


to the laws of _____.
a. ICAO
b. the State in which the aircraft is operated
c. the State of Registry and the State in which the aircraft is operated
d. the State of Registry
28. The continued validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is subject to the laws
of _____.
a. the State of Registry
b. the State of Registry and the State of the Operator
c. the State of the Operator
d. the State of Registry and State of Design

Annex 1 Personnel Licensing


Annex 2 Rules of the Air
Meteorological Service for
Annex 3
International Air Navigation
Annex 4 Aeronautical Charts
Units of Measurement to be used
Annex 5
in Air and Ground Operations
Annex 6 Operations of Aircraft
Annex 7 Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
Annex 8 Airworthiness of Aircraft
Annex 9 Facilitation
Annex 10 Aeronautical Telecommunications
Annex 11 Air Traffic Services
Annex 12 Search and Rescue
Annex 13 Aircraft Accident Investigation
Annex 14 Aerodromes
Annex 15 Aeronautical Information Services
Annex 16 Environmental Protection
Annex 17 Aviation Security
Annex 18 The Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
Annex 19 Safety Management

ANNEX 18: DANGEROUS GOODS HAZARD CLASSES


Class Description
EXPLOSIVES of all kinds
1
e.g. sporting ammunition, fireworks, and signal flares
COMPRESSED OR LIQUEFIED GASES (toxic or flammable)
2
e.g. cylinders of oxygen and refrigerated liquid nitrogen
FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS
3
including gasoline, lacquers, paint thinners
FLAMMABLE SOLIDS, spontaneously combustible materials and materials
4
e.g. powdered metals, cellulose type film, and charcoal
OXIDIZING MATERIAL
5
e.g. bromates, chlorates or nitrates, organic peroxides
POISONOUS OR TOXIC SUBSTANCES / INFECTIOUS
6
e.g. pesticides, mercury compounds
RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS
7
e.g. heart pacemakers, smoke detectors
CORROSIVE SUBSTANCES
8
e.g. caustic soda, battery fluid, paint remover
MISCELLANEOUS
9
e.g. magnetized materials
Air Laws Questions
ICAO and Chicago Convention

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- No matter where you’re from, you dreams are valid. -


1. Certificates of registration and airworthiness, license of crew members, aircraft
log book, passenger manifest, cargo manifest, and radio station license are the
documents that should be carried during flight. It is listed in Article _____.
a. 23
b. 26
c. 29
d. 32

2. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers the specifications for the design
and operations of aerodromes?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 15
d. 16

3. The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible for the type
design.
a. Registry
b. Operator
c. Occurrence
d. Manufacture
e. Design

4. The State in which the aircraft operator’s principal place of business is located
or, if there is no such place of business, the operator’s permanent residence.
a. Registry
b. Operator
c. Occurrence
d. Manufacture
e. Design

5. The State on whose register an aircraft is entered.


a. Registry
b. Operator
c. Occurrence
d. Manufacture
e. Design

6. The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible for the final
assembly of the aircraft.
a. Registry
b. Operator
c. Occurrence
d. Manufacture
e. Design

7. Which State is responsible for maintaining an anti-corrosion programme?


a. The State of Registry
b. The State of Design
c. The State of Manufacture
d. The State of Operator

8. This convention established rules of airspace, aircraft registration and safety,


and details the rights of the signatories in relation to air travel.
a. Warsaw
b. Chicago
c. Rome
d. Tokyo

9. Which convention is responsible for the exemption of air fuel from tax?
a. Warsaw
b. Chicago
c. Rome
d. Tokyo

10. Per Article 18 of the Chicago convention, _____.


a. an aircraft can be validly registered in more than one State
b. an aircraft cannot be validly registered in more than one State
c. an aircraft can be legally registered in more than one State as long as the
document verifying the registration is in the aircraft at all times
d. an aircraft does not require registration as long as the destination is a
member of the ICAO

11. Which article requires the Republic of the Philippines to issue certificates of
competency and licenses to the pilot of every aircraft engaged in international
navigation?
a. 32
b. 43
c. 44
d. 48
e. 50

12. The Assembly shall meet _____.


a. once a year
b. once in two years
c. once in three years
d. once in four years

13. It shall be composed of thirty-three (36) contracting States.


a. Assembly
b. Council
c. Air Navigation Commission
d. Committee on Unlawful Interference
e. Finance Committee
f. Committee on Joint Support of Air Navigation Services
g. Air Transport Committee
h. Legal Committee

14. Which is true regarding the President of the Council?


a. The Council shall elect its President for a term of three years.
b. The President may be reelected.
c. The President shall have no vote.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

15. Which among these groups should be composed of 15 members?


a. Assembly
b. Council
c. Air Navigation Commission
d. Committee on Unlawful Interference
e. Finance Committee
f. Committee on Joint Support of Air Navigation Services
g. Air Transport Committee
h. Legal Committee

16. Which among these groups should be composed of 9-13 members?


a. Assembly
b. Council
c. Air Navigation Commission
d. Committee on Unlawful Interference
e. Finance Committee
f. Committee on Joint Support of Air Navigation Services
g. Air Transport Committee
h. Legal Committee

17. Which among these groups should be composed of 9-111 members?


a. Assembly
b. Council
c. Air Navigation Commission
d. Committee on Unlawful Interference
e. Finance Committee
f. Committee on Joint Support of Air Navigation Services
g. Air Transport Committee
h. Legal Committee
18. How many countries signed the Convention on International Civil Aviation, also
known as the Chicago Convention?
a. 8
b. 27
c. 26
d. 52/54/55
e. 191

19. As of March 2016, there are _____ ICAO members.


a. 8
b. 27
c. 26
d. 52
e. 191

20. Which is not one of the working languages on ICAO documents?


a. Arabic
b. Chinese
c. English
d. French
e. Russian
f. Spanish
g. Thai
h. All are working languages

21. Which article of the Convention states that the aims and objectives of ICAO are
to develop the principles and techniques of international air navigation and to
foster the planning and development of international air transport?
a. 32
b. 43
c. 44
d. 48
e. 50

22. What is the objective of ICAO?


a. To assist states purchase aircraft
b. To help airlines set up
c. To assist with improving international aviation
d. To train pilots for international aviation

23. When and where were the objectives of ICAO agreed?


a. Paris 1919
b. Warsaw 1928
c. Chicago 1944
d. Rome 1953

24. Which ICAO body proposes the “Standards and Recommended Practices” (SARPs) for
adoption by the Council?
a. The Assembly
b. The Council itself
c. The Regional Air Navigation Meeting
d. The Air Navigation Commission

25. ICAO publishes _____.


a. Standards and Recommended Practices which are enforced worldwide without
exception
b. Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendation for the
rest of the world
c. Standards and Recommended Practices for ICAO contracting states only
d. International law

Suzerainty: acceptance of one state of the protection of another state; relates to the
acceptance by one state of the regulation of its airspace by another state (e.g. France
and Monaco)
Council President: Dr. Olumuyiwa Benard Aliu
Air Laws Questions
Airports/Aerodrome/Runway/Markings % Lightings

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Dream big, work hard, stay focused & surround yourself with good people. -
1. A defined area on land or water intended to be used either wholly or in part for
the arrival, departure, and movement of aircraft is called _____. 1996
a. airport
b. runway
c. ramp
d. aerodrome

2. These are publicly owned airports that have at least 2,500 passenger boardings
each calendar year and receive scheduled passenger service.
a. Cargo Service Airports
b. Commercial Service Airports
c. Reliever Airports
d. General Aviation Airports

3. These are Commercial Service Airports that have more than 10,000 passenger
boardings each year.
a. Primary Airports
b. Non-primary Commercial Service Airports
c. Reliever Airports
d. General Aviation Airports

4. These are airports designated by the FAA to relieve congestion (at Commercial
Service Airports) and to provide improved general aviation access to the overall
community.
a. Cargo Service Airports
b. Commercial Service Airports
c. Reliever Airports
d. General Aviation Airports

5. This airport type is the largest single group of airports in the U.S. system.
a. Cargo Service Airports
b. Commercial Service Airports
c. Reliever Airports
d. General Aviation Airports

6. These are Commercial Service Airports that have at least 2,500 and no more than
10,000 passenger boardings each year.
a. Primary Airports
b. Non-primary Commercial Service Airports
c. Reliever Airports
d. General Aviation Airports

7. It is the path thru the navigable airspace identified by an area of specified


width approved by the administrator as suitable for air commerce or air
transportation.
a. air lane
b. flight path
c. airway
d. airspace

8. An airport terminal design that uses a small, narrow building with aircraft
parked on both sides.
a. Mobile lounge
b. Pier
c. Satellite
d. Semi-circular

9. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorized by an aerodrome reference


code. This code is composed of two elements: a number and a letter. What does the
number signify?
a. Aerodrome Reference Field Length
b. Single Wheel Loading Classification
c. Crash/Rescue Category
d. Load Classification Number

10. For night landing, the thresholds are lighted _____.


a. blue
b. green
c. red
d. yellow

11. According to ICAO, markings on the runways and taxiways are painted _____,
respectively.
a. white; white
b. yellow; yellow
c. white; yellow
d. yellow; white

12. The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway are _____, respectively.
a. A and 1
b. A and 7
c. G and 1
d. G and 7

13. This airport terminal has a building detached from other airport buildings, so
that aircraft can park around its entire circumference.
a. Mobile lounge
b. Pier
c. Satellite
d. Semi-circular

14. Which among the listed airport terminal design requires passengers to be
transported from the gate to their aircraft through large vehicle?
a. Mobile lounge
b. Pier
c. Satellite
d. Semi-circular
Air Laws Questions
Aviation Documents (FAA and Non-FAA, etc), Flight Permits, Forms

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Problems are like washing machines. They twist us, spin us, and knock us around…. But in the end,
we come out cleaner, brighter, and better than before. -
1. What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested
persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product
may continue to be operated?
a. Airworthiness Alerts
b. Aviation Safety Data
c. Airworthiness Directives
d. Service Bulletins

2. It contains the specifications and data for certificated aircraft when the number
of registered aircraft is 50 or fewer.
a. Aircraft Listings
b. Aircraft Specifications
c. Airworthiness Directives
d. Manufacturer’s Published Data

3. This permit is required when the government or military operates the aircraft.
a. Diplomatic
b. Landing
c. Overflight
d. Special

4. Which among the following statements regarding airworthiness certificates is not


true?
a. An airworthiness certificate is an FAA document that grants authorization
to operate an aircraft in flight.
b. There are two different classifications of FAA airworthiness certificates:
standard and special.
c. A standard airworthiness certificate is the FAA's official authorization
allowing for the operation of type-certificated aircraft in the following
categories: normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, transport, manned free
balloons, and special classes.
d. The FAA special airworthiness certificate authorizes the operation of the
aircraft in one or more of the following categories: primary, restricted,
multiple, limited, light-sport, experimental, special flight permit, and
provisional.
e. Safety inspectors and authorized representatives of the Administrator may
issue the airworthiness certificate.
f. The airworthiness certificate should be displayed at the cabin or cockpit
entrance so that it is legible to the passengers or crew.
g. If the aircraft no longer meets its approved design, the airworthiness
certificate cannot be revoked as long as it the aircraft is airworthy.

5. All of the purposes below require a special airworthiness certificate under the
experimental category except _____.
a. air racing
b. crew training
c. exhibition
d. market surveys
e. operating amateur-built aircraft
f. operating kit-built aircraft
g. operating light-sport aircraft
h. pleasure and personal use
i. research and development
j. showing compliance with regulations

6. All of the purposes below require a special airworthiness certificate under the
restricted category except _____.
a. aerial advertising
b. aerial surveying
c. agricultural
d. forest and wildlife conservation
e. patrolling (pipelines, power lines)
f. weather control
g. other operations specified by the Administrator
h. unmanned aircraft systems

7. Which among the following statements regarding aircraft registration is not true?
a. The form for aircraft registration is pre-printed and cannot be obtained by
downloading and computer printing.
b. The application form is accomplished in three copies colored white, green,
and pink.
c. The white copy is the original one.
d. The green copy is submitted to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch.
e. The pink copy serves as the temporary authority to operate the aircraft
until the official registration is received.
f. The pink copy of the application or the actual certificate of registration
must be on board the aircraft during its operation.
g. The aircraft registration is valid for a maximum of 30 days.

8. Which among the following statements regarding radio station license is not true?
a. A radio station license is required if the aircraft is equipped with
radios.
b. A radio station license is required if the aircraft is planned to be flown
outside the boundaries of the United States.
c. A radio station license is required for aircrafts operating domestically.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

9. Which permit required when the aircraft is not being operated on a normal
certificate of airworthiness?
a. Diplomatic
b. Landing
c. Overflight
d. Special

10. It is the authorization to land at a given airport confirming that there are no
commercial, safety, and noise objections.
a. Diplomatic permit
b. Landing permit
c. Overflight permit
d. Special permit

11. Which permit authorizes an entry to, flyover, and exit from a sovereign airspace?
a. Diplomatic
b. Landing
c. Overflight
d. Special

12. Which among the following is the monthly electronic publication of the FAA that
provides information concerning malfunction or defects observed by technicians
throughout the aviation industry?
a. Advisory Circular
b. Aviation Maintenance Alerts
c. Supplemental Type Certificate
d. Type Certificate Data Sheet

13. Which document provides guidance for compliance on a designated subject area
showing a method acceptable to the Administrator for complying with a related
Federal Aviation Regulation?
a. Advisory Circular
b. Aviation Maintenance Alerts
c. Supplemental Type Certificate
d. Type Certificate Data Sheet

14. It is a notification to owners and operators of certified aircraft that a known


safety deficiency with a particular model of aircraft, engine, avionics or other
system exists and must be corrected.
a. Advisory Circular
b. Airworthiness Directives
c. Aviation Maintenance Alerts
d. Service Bulletin
15. It is a document issued for aircraft, engines, and propellers certificated under
the Air Commerce Regulations. It is no longer issued, but remain in effect and
will be further amended.
a. Aircraft Listings
b. Aircraft Specifications
c. Airworthiness Limitations
d. Air Transport Association

16. It defines the product design change, states how the modification affects the
existing type design, and lists serial number effectivity.
a. Advisory Circular
b. Aviation Maintenance Alerts
c. Supplemental Type Certificate
d. Type Certificate Data Sheet

17. It is a formal description of the aircraft, engine or propeller. It lists


limitations and information like airspeed limits, weight limits, thrust
limitations, etc.
a. Advisory Circular
b. Aviation Maintenance Alerts
c. Supplemental Type Certificate
d. Type Certificate Data Sheet

18. It is a detailed information of the aircraft’s primary and secondary structure,


criteria for evaluating the severity of the detected damage, determining the
feasibility of a repair, and alignment/inspection information
a. Airworthiness Limitations
b. Manufacturer’s Published Data
c. Service Bulletin
d. Structural Repair Manual

19. It is a national aviation authority-approved major modification or repair to an


existing type certified aircraft, engine or propeller.
a. Advisory Circular
b. Aviation Maintenance Alerts
c. Supplemental Type Certificate
d. Type Certificate Data Sheet

20. It is the document used by manufacturers of aircraft, their engines or their


components to communicate details of modifications that can be embodied in
aircraft.
a. Airworthiness Limitations
b. Manufacturer’s Published Data
c. Service Bulletin
d. Structural Repair Manual

FAA Documents Non-FAA Documents

Advisory Circulars (AC) Air Transport Association (ATA)

Airworthiness Directives (AD) Manufacturer’s Published Data

Aircraft Listings Airworthiness Limitations (AWL)


Operating Instructions
Aircraft Specifications
(Flight Manual/Pilot’s Operating Handbook)
Maintenance Manuals
Aviation Maintenance Alerts
(AMM/CMM)
Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) Service Bulletin (SB)

Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) Structural Repair Manual


AMM: Aircraft Maintenance Manual
CMM: Component Maintenance Manual
Air Laws Questions
Oxford – Air Law (Facilitation)

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- At first, they’ll ask you why you’re doing it. Later, they’ll ask you how you did it. -
1. If a person is delayed whilst en route in a state other than the state of
departure of the state of arrival, without further immigration procedures, that
person must leave the state within _____.
a. 24 hours
b. 2 days
c. 72 hours
d. 1 week

2. If a state requires an aircraft to be disinfected before arrival in that state,


this shall be done _____.
a. at least 1 hour before arrival
b. before arrival
c. when on the ground in the state
d. not less than 30 minutes before arrival

3. If cargo is unloaded from an aeroplane in a state other than the state of


intended destination, _____.
a. import and other taxes may be levied if there has been negligence by the
operator
b. import and other taxes may be levied
c. import and other taxes may not be levied
d. a deposit must be paid by the operator to cover any taxes that may be
levied

4. A flight plan for a non-scheduled commercial flight making a stop in a foreign


state for a non-commercial reasons shall be filed _____.
a. 1 hour before departure
b. 2 hours before departure
c. 3 hours before departure
d. 2 hours before the aircraft arrives in the foreign state

5. The General Declaration is signed by _____.


a. the Pilot-in-Command only
b. the Pilot-in-Command or the Operator’s agent
c. any Flight crew member
d. the Operator

6. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure


applicable to _____.
a. accompanied baggage or under simplified customs procedure distinct and
different from that normally applicable to other cargo
b. cargo
c. dangerous goods
d. mail

7. The documents which allow an aircraft entry to a country _____.


a. must be type-written
b. can be hand-written in block capitals in ink or indelible pencil
c. are accepted at the discretion of the state of arrival
d. must be type-written or sent in electronic data format

8. Member States should introduce specify security measures for the air
transportation of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers
defined below _____.
a. deportees and persons in lawful custody only
b. deportees and inadmissible persons only
c. deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody only
d. None of the above is correct.

9. When a person is found inadmissible and is retuned to the operator for transport
away from the territory of the state, the operator _____.
a. shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation
costs arising from his inadmissibility
b. Shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from
his inadmissibility
c. is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving
state
d. the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible

10. Is an oral declaration concerning the passenger or crew baggage acceptable?


a. Never
b. Yes
c. Only crew baggage
d. Only passenger baggage

11. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention deals with Facilitation?


a. Annex 6
b. Annex 9
c. Annex 12
d. Annex 15

12. On departure, how many copies of the following forms are required? 1: The Gen
Dec; 2: The Stores List; 3: Passenger manifest
a. 2 of each
b. 2 of 1; 2 of 2; 3 of 3
c. 2 of 1; 1 of 2; 2 of 3
d. 1 of 1; 1 of 2; 2 of 3

13. On arrival, Contracting States will not require the PIC of an aircraft to deliver
more than _____.
a. 2 copies of the General Declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest and 2
copies of a simple Stores List
b. 3 copies of the General Declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest and 2
copies of a simple Stores List
c. 3 copies of the General Declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest and 2
copies of a simple Stores List
d. 1 copy of the General Declaration

14. A contracting state that continues to require the presentation of a Cargo


Manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format
of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following items.
a. Airway bill number and the number of packages only
b. Total weight and the number of packages only
c. Total weight and the nature of the goods only
d. Airway bill number, the number of packages and the nature of goods
Air Laws Questions
Oxford – Air Law (Accident and Incident Investigation)

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- If you focus on results, you will never change. If you focus on change, you
will get results. -
1. Just before arrival at the apron, the aircraft unintentionally taxies onto the
grass causing the wheel to ride into a pothole. The aircraft has sustained
serious damage and consequently the crew is forced to delay the departure. Which
of the following statements is correct?
a. Considering that there is no physical injury and that the flight has ended,
the action that has to be taken is merely restricted to notification of the
insurance company, the mechanic, the operator, and persons who are in
charge of runways and taxiways.
b. This is an accident and the crew should follow the appropriate procedures.
c. This is an incident and the captain has to report this to the aerodrome
authority within 48 hours.
d. This is an irregularity in the exploitation. This crew should inform the
operator about the delay caused by necessary repairs.

2. The sole purpose of accident investigation is _____.


a. apportion blame
b. the prevention of future accidents
c. to improve manufacturing design
d. to help judicial investigations

3. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must only be allowed to
resume its flight provided that _____.
a. The State of Registry, State of Design, and the State of Manufacture agree
the aircraft be declared to be airworthy.
b. The State of Registry is of the opinion that the aircraft is still
airworthy.
c. The State of Design and the State of Manufacture, send a message to the
State of Registry that says that the aircraft is still airworthy.
d. The State of Manufacture has informed the State of Registry that the
sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy.

4. According to ICAO, who is entitled to be represented on an Aeronautical Accident


Investigation Board (AAIB)?
a. Only the State of Registry and State of Manufacture
b. Only the State of Registry, aircraft operator and State of Operator
c. Any state which on request provide assistance or information to help the
AAIB
d. Any ICAO contracting state

5. What language must an accident report be submitted to ICAO in>?


a. An ICAO (working) language
b. English
c. Major national language
d. Any language of a contracting state

6. Who is responsible for the investigation of an accident?


a. State of Occurrence
b. State of Registry
c. ICAO
d. Combination of a and b

7. An aircraft wheel is damaged whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off that has
to be cancelled. This is _____.
a. an incident
b. an accident
c. a serious incident
d. covered by normal operating procedures
Air Laws Questions
ASA Prepware (Maintenance Forms and Records)

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- There are far, far better things ahead than any we leave behind. -
1. Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist
that contains at least those items in the appendix of _____.
a. 14 CFR Part 43
b. 14 CFR Part 65
c. AC 43.13-3

2. For aircraft operated under part 91, which of the following records must be
retained for at least one year, or until the work is repeated or superseded?
a. Records of time since overhaul of items requiring overhaul on a time
specified basis
b. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive maintenance, 100-hour,
annual and progressive inspections
c. Records of the current inspection status of the aircraft, including time
since last required inspection

3. If more space is needed for a work description enter on FAA Form 337, what
information should be included on the attached sheet (s), in addition to the rest
of the work description?
a. Make, model, and serial number of the aircraft
b. Aircraft nationality and registration mark, and the date the work was
accomplished
c. Name, date, and office designator of the FAA inspector from the supervising
district office

4. An FAA Form 337 is used to record and document _____.


a. preventive and unscheduled maintenance and special inspections
b. major and minor repairs, and major and minor alterations
c. major repairs and major alterations

5. For aircraft operated under Part 91, when is aircraft total time required to be
recorded in aircraft maintenance records?
a. After satisfactorily completing maintenance, preventive maintenance,
rebuilding, and alteration (excluding inspections)
b. After satisfactorily completing inspections
c. After satisfactorily completing airframe, component, or propeller
maintenance

6. Which statement is true regarding the use of FAA Form 337?


a. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with both U.S. and foreign registered
aircraft.
b. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with both U.S. registered aircraft, and
foreign registered aircraft when located in the United States.
c. FAA Form 337 not is authorized for use other than U.S. registered aircraft.

7. When work is performed on an aircraft that necessitate the use of FAA Form 337,
who should prepare the form?
a. The person who performs or supervises the work
b. The person who approves for return to service
c. The aircraft owner or operator

8. After a mechanic holding an airframe and powerplant rating completes a 100-hour


inspection, what action is required before the aircraft is return to service?
a. Make the proper entries in the aircraft’s maintenance record
b. An operational check of all systems
c. A mechanic with an inspection authorization must approve the inspection

9. Which is an appliance major repair?


a. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump
b. Repairs to a propeller governor or its control
c. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light circuits

10. Which maintenance action is an airframe major repair?


a. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect
flutter and vibration characteristics
b. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory
c. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams
11. Where is the record of compliance with Airworthiness Directives or manufacturers’
Service Bulletins normally indicated?
a. FAA Form 337
b. Aircraft Maintenance Records
c. Flight Manual

12. In order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft maintenance records, what is


it necessary to establish?
a. Dates of all maintenance, preventive maintenance and alterations
b. Dates and/or times of all 100-hour, annual, or progressive inspections
c. Total time-in-service of the airframe

13. When approving for return to service after maintenance or alteration, the
approving person must enter the following in the maintenance record of the
aircraft.
a. The date the maintenance or alteration was begun, a description (or
reference to acceptable data) of work performed, the name of the person
performing the work (if someone else), signature, and certificate number
b. A description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of
completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else),
signature, and certificate number
c. A description (or reference to acceptable data) of work performed, date of
completion, the name of the person performing the work (if someone else),
signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held

14. Which aircraft record entry is the best description of the replacement of several
damaged heli-coils in a casting?
a. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coils were replaced. The damaged inserts
were extracted, the tapped holes gaged, then new inserts installed, and
tangs removed.
b. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coils were installed in place of damaged
ones.
c. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coil inserts were repaired by replacing the
damaged inserts with a lock-type insert, after the tapped holes were
checked for corrosion.

15. After making a certain repair to an aircraft engine part that is to be returned
to service, an FAA Form 337 is prepared. How many copies are required and what is
the disposition of the completed forms?
a. Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA
b. Two; one copy for the FAA and once copy for the permanent records of the
repairing agency or individual
c. Three; once copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for the FAA, and one copy
for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual

16. When a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft owner or operator after an


inspection, it says in effect that _____.
a. the item inspected is unairworthy
b. except for these discrepancies, the item inspected is airworthy
c. the item inspected may or may not be airworthy depending on the
discrepancies found

17. What is/are the appropriate action/s concerning minor repairs performed on a
certificated aircraft? 1: FAA Form 337 must be completed; 2: Entries must be made
in the aircraft’s maintenance record; 3: The owner of the aircraft must submit a
record of all minor repairs to the FAA at least annually.
a. 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2

18. Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a control
cable showing approximately 20 percent wear on several of the individual outer
wires at a fairlead?
a. Wear within acceptable limits, repair not necessary.
b. Removed and replaced the control cable and rerigged the system.
c. Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from fairlead.
19. Which statement is true regarding the requirements for maintenance record format?
a. Any format that provides record continuity and includes the required
information may be used.
b. The format provided by the manufacturer of the aircraft must be retained.
c. Any desired change from a manufacturer provided format requires approval
from the Federal Aviation Administration.

20. When a 100-hour inspection is completed, if separate maintenance record for the
airframe, powerplant/s, and propeller/s are maintained, where is the entry for
the inspection recorded?
a. In each record
b. In the airframe record only
c. In any one of the records

21. If work performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily, the signature of
an authorized person on the maintenance records for maintenance or alteration
performed constitutes _____.
a. approval of the aircraft for return to service
b. approval for return to service only for the work performed
c. verification that the maintenance or alteration were performed referencing
approved maintenance data

22. Which aircraft record entry best describes a repair of a dent in a tubular steel
structure dented at a cluster?
a. Removed and replaced the damaged member.
b. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area.
c. Filed the damage area with a molten metal and dressed to the original
contour.

23. Which maintenance record entry best describes the action taken for a 0.125-inch
deep dent in a straight section of 1/2-inch aluminum alloy tubing?
a. Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to
45°.
b. Dent within acceptable limits, repair not necessary.
c. Dented section removed and replaced with identical new tubing flared to
37°.

24. For aircraft operated under Part 91, what difference is there, if any, between
the record entry requirements for maintenance (e.g. repair or alteration) and the
record entry requirements for inspections (beyond the description of the work
performed and the type and extent of inspection)?
a. There is no difference.
b. Aircraft total time is required to be included only in the maintenance
entry.
c. Aircraft total time is required to be included only in the inspection
entry.

25. What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interest
persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product
may continue to be operated?
a. Airworthiness Directives
b. Aviation Maintenance Alerts
c. Aviation Safety Data

26. Which of the following may a certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic
perform on aircraft and approve for return to service? 1: a 100-hour inspection;
2: an annual inspection, under specified circumstances; 3: a progressive
inspection, under specified circumstances
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 2, 3

27. An aircraft was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection and
the owner wanted to fly the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which statement
is correct?
a. The owner must obtain a special flight permit.
b. The aircraft may be flown without restriction up to 10 hours to reach
another maintenance base.
c. The aircraft becomes a restricted category type until it is approved for
return to service

28. Who is responsible for upkeep of the required maintenance records for an
aircraft?
a. The maintaining repair station or authorized inspector
b. The maintaining certificated mechanic
c. The aircraft owner

29. During an annual inspection, if a defect is found which makes the aircraft
unairworthy, the person disapproving must _____.
a. void the aircraft’s Airworthiness Certificate
b. submit a Malfunction or Defect Report
c. provide a written notice of the defect to the owner

30. Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an
annual, 100 hour, or progressive inspection?
a. The owner or operator of the aircraft
b. The person approving or disapproving for return to service
c. The designee or inspector representing the FAA administrator

31. For aircraft operated under Part 91, which of the following records must be
retained and transferred with the aircraft when it is sold?
a. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive maintenance, 100-hour,
annual, and progressive inspections
b. Records of inspections performed in accordance with 14 CFR Part 43,
Appendix D
c. Records of the current status of applicable AD’s, and date and time when
recurring AD’s are next due

32. A certificated mechanic without an inspection authorization who signs the


appropriate block on FAA Form 337 is doing what?
a. Certifying the work was done in accordance with the requirements of 14 CFR
part 43
b. Approving the work for return to service
c. Certifying the maintenance information used as FAA-approved data

33. Where should you find this entry? ‘Removed right wing from aircraft and removed
skin from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches from the tip in
accordance with figure 8 in the manufacturer’s structural repair manual No. 28-
1.’
a. Aircraft engine maintenance record
b. Aircraft minor repair and alteration record
c. FAA Form 337

34. An aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies on an aircraft that was
not approved for return to service after an annual inspection. Which of the
following statement/s is/are true concerning who may correct the discrepancies?
1: Only a mechanic with inspection authorization; 2: An appropriately rated
mechanic. 3: Any certificated repair station
a. 2 & 3
b. 2
c. 1

35. What is the status of data used as a basis for approving major repairs or
alterations for return to service?
a. Data must be least FAA-acceptable when it is used for that purpose
b. Data must be FAA-approved prior to its use for that purpose
c. Data may be FAA-approved after its use for that purpose
Air Laws Questions
ASA Prepware (Maintenance Publications)

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- It is during our failures that we discover our true desire for success. -
1. Which regulation provides information regarding instrument range markings for an
airplane certificated in the normal category?
a. 14 CFR Part 21
b. 14 CFR Part 25
c. 14 CFR Part 23

2. When an airworthy (at the time of sale) aircraft is sold, the Airworthiness
Certificate _____.
a. becomes invalid until the aircraft is reinspected and approved for return
to service
b. is voided and a new certificate is issued upon application by the new owner
c. is transferred with the aircraft

3. The following is a table of airspeed limits as given in an FAA-issued aircraft


specification: Normal operating speed 260 knots; Never-exceed speed 293 knots;
Maximum landing gear operation speed 174 knots; Maximum flap extended speed 139
knots; The high end of the white arc on the airspeed would be at _____.
a. 260 knots
b. 293 knots
c. 139 knots

4. Statement 1: A Supplemental Type Certificate may be issued to more than one


applicant for the same design change, providing each applicant shows compliance
with the applicable airworthiness requirement. Statement 2: An installation of an
item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires
no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding the
above statements, _____.
a. both No.1 and No.2 are true
b. neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
c. only No.1 is true

5. Check thrust bearing nuts for tightness on new or newly overhauled engines at the
first 50-hour inspection following installation. Subsequent inspections on thrust
bearning nuts will be made at each third 50-hour inspection. From the above
statement, at what intervals should you check the thrust bearing nut for
tightness?
a. 150 hours
b. 200 hours
c. 250 hours

6. The following words are an example of what kind of statement in and AD? ‘Required
within the next 25 hours time-in-service after the effective date of this AD,
unless already accomplished.
a. Amendment
b. Compliance
c. Applicability

7. Statement 1: Propellers are not included in the Airworthiness Directive system.


Statement 2: A certificated powerplant mechanic may make a minor repair on an
aluminum propeller and approve for return to service. Regarding the above
statements, _____.
a. only No.2 is true
b. both No.1 and No.2 are true
c. neither No.1 nor No.2 is true

8. Where are technical descriptions of certificated propellers found?


a. Applicable Airworthiness Directives
b. Aircraft Specifications
c. Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets

9. What does the Type Certificate Data Sheet designation code ‘2 PCSM’ mean?
a. Two place (number of seats), closed, sea, monoplane
b. Two wing (biplane), primary category, semimonocoque (airframe)
c. Neither of the two choices

10. Type Certificate Data Sheets are issued for which of the following products?
a. Aircraft, engines, and propellers
b. Aircraft, engines, and appliances
c. Aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances

11. Primary responsibility for compliance with Airworthiness Directives lies with the
_____.
a. aircraft owner or operator
b. certificated mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization who conducts
appropriate inspections
c. certificated mechanic who maintains the aircraft

12. An aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform major alterations on U.S.


certificated aircraft; however, the work must be done in accordance with FAA-
approved technical data before the aircraft can be returned to service. Which is
not an approved data?
a. Airworthiness Directives
b. AC 43.13-2A
c. Supplemental Type Certificates

13. Suitability for use of a specific propeller with a particular engine-airplane


combination can be determined by reference to what information source?
a. Propeller Specifications or Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheet
b. Aircraft Specifications or Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet
c. Alphabetical Index of Current Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets,
Specifications, and Listings

14. A completed detailed inspection and adjustment of the valve mechanism will be
made at the first 25 hours after the engine has been placed in service.
Subsequent inspections of the valve mechanisms will be made each second 50-hour
period. From the above statement, at what intervals will valve mechanism
inspections be performed?
a. 100 hours
b. 50 hours
c. 125 hours

15. Technical information about older aircraft models, of which no more than 50
remain in service, can be found in the _____.
a. Aircraft Listings
b. Summary of Deleted and Discontinued Aircraft Specifications
c. Index of Antique Aircraft

16. Specifications pertaining to an aircraft model manufactured under a type


certificate, of which less than 50 are shown on the FAA Aircraft Registry, can be
found in the _____.
a. Aircraft Listing
b. Summary of Discontinued Aircraft Specifications
c. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil Aircraft Specifications

17. How long are AD compliance records required to be kept?


a. Until the work is repeated or superseded by other work
b. For one year after the work is performed, or until the work is repeated or
superseded by other work
c. They shall be retained, and then transferred with the aircraft when it is
sold

18. What is the maintenance recording responsibility of the person who complies with
an Airworthiness Directives?
a. Advise the aircraft owner/operator of the work performed
b. Make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment
c. Advice the FAA district office of the work performed, by submitting an FAA
Form 337

19. Which regulation provides the airworthiness standards for an airplane


certificated in the normal category?
a. 14 CFR Part 27
b. 14 CFR Part 25
c. 14 CFR Part 23
20. When is a mechanic responsible for checking AD compliance?
a. Never, the owner or operator is solely responsible
b. When performing an inspection required under part 91, 124, or 135
c. Anytime an aircraft or portion thereof is returned to service

21. The action required by an AD may take what form? 1: Inspection; 2: Part/s
replacement; 3: Design modification; 4: Change in operating procedure/s; 5:
Overall change in the content, form and disposition of aircraft maintenance
records
a. 1, 2, 3, and/or 4
b. 1, 2, 3, and/or 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4, and/or 5

22. An aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheet contains _____.


a. maximum fuel grade to be used
b. control surface adjustment points
c. location of the datum

23. Statement 1: The Air Transport Association of America (ATA) Specification No. 100
establishes a standard for the presentation of technical data in maintenance
manuals. Statement 2: The Air Transport Association of America (ATA)
Specification No. 100 divides the aircraft into numbered systems and subsytems in
order to simplify locating maintenance instructions. Regarding the above
statements, _____.
a. both No.1 and No.2 are true
b. neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
c. only No.1 is true

24. Which of the following includes all the regulatory definitions of ‘maintenance’?
a. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, and preservation, and preventive
maintenance
b. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, preservation, inspection, and
preventive maintenance
c. Overhaul, repair, parts replacement, inspection, and preservation

25. Airworthiness Directives are issued primarily to _____.


a. provide information about malfunction or defect trends
b. present recommended maintenance procedures for correcting potentially
hazardous defects
c. correct an unsafe condition

26. What is the maximum penalty for cheating or other unauthorized conduct when
taking an FAA mechanic test?
a. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year
b. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year, and
suspension or revocation of any certificate held
c. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year, and
suspension of any certificate held

27. Aviation Maintenance Alerts (formerly General Aviation Airworthiness Alerts)


_____.
a. provide mandatory procedures to prevent or correct serious aircraft
problems
b. provide information about aircraft problems and suggested corrective
actions
c. provide temporary emergency procedures until Airworthiness Directives can
be issued

28. Statement 1: Manufacturer’s data and FAA publications such as Airworthiness


Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and Advisory Circulars are all approved
data. Statement 2: FAA publications such as Technical Standard Orders,
Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and Aircraft
Specifications and Supplemental Type Certificates are all approved data.
Regarding the above statements, _____.
a. both No.1 and No.2 are true
b. only No.1 is true
c. only No. 2 is true
29. Placards required on an aircraft are specified in _____.
a. AC 43.13-1B
b. the Federal Aviation Regulations under which the aircraft was type
certificated
c. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets

30. Statement 1: The Federal Aviation Regulations require approval after compliance
with the data of a Supplemental Type Certificate. Statement 2: An installation of
an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system
requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding
the above statements, _____.
a. only No.2 is true
b. neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
c. only No.1 is true

31. Which information is generally contained in Aircraft Specifications or Type


Certificate Data Sheets?
a. Empty weight of the aircraft
b. Useful load of aircraft
c. Control surface movements

32. Which of the following are sometimes used as authorization to deviate from an
aircraft’s original type design? 1: FAA Form 337; 2: Supplemental Type
Certificate; 3: Airworthiness Directives; 4: Technical Standard Order
a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1, 2, and 3

33. The issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate is governed by _____.


a. 14 CFR Part 23
b. 14 CFR Part 21
c. 14 CFR Part 39

34. Under the Federal Aviation Regulations, an aviation maintenance technician is


required to perform maintenance on an aircraft so that it _____.
a. always meets its original type design
b. is at least equal to its original or properly altered condition
c. exceeds minimum standards with regards to aerodynamic function, structural
strength, resistance to vibration, and other qualities affecting
airworthiness
Air Laws Questions
ASA Prepware (Mechanic Privileges and Limitations)

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- Beautiful things happen when you distance yourself from negativity. -


1. Who is responsible for determining that materials used in aircraft maintenance
and repair are of the proper type and conform to the appropriate standards?
a. The installing person or agency
b. The owner or operator of the aircraft
c. The manufacturer of the aircraft

2. When may an otherwise qualified mechanic who does not read, write, speak, and
understand the English language be eligible for a mechanic certificate?
a. When a special authorization has been granted by the Administrator
b. When employed outside the United States by a U.S. air carrier
c. When employed outside the United States

3. According t Dr. James Reason, there are two types of human failure that can
occur. They are _____.
a. active and latent
b. mental and physical
c. proper and improper

4. FAA certificated mechanics may _____.


a. approve for return to service a major repair for which they are rated
b. supervise and approve a 100-hour inspection
c. approve for return to service a minor alteration they have performed
appropriate to the rating/s they hold

5. What is the normal duration a mechanic certificate with airframe and/or


powerplant ratings?
a. Until the holder is relieved of duties for which the holder was employed
and certificated
b. Until surrendered, suspended, or revoked
c. Until 24 months after the holder has last exercised the privileges of the
certificate

6. How long does the holder of a certificate issued under 14 CFR Part 65 have to
notify the FAA after any change in permanent mailing address?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days

7. A person working under the supervision of a certificated mechanic with an


airframe and powerplant rating is not authorized to perform _____.
a. repair of a wing brace strut by welding
b. a 100-hour inspection
c. repair of an engine mount by riveting

8. A repair, as performed on an airframe, shall mean _____.


a. the upkeep and preservation of the airframe including the component parts
thereof
b. the restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe operation after
damage or deterioration
c. simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small
standard parts not involving complex assembly operations

9. Which is classified as a (an airframe) major repair?


a. The splicing of skin sheets
b. Installation of new engine mounts obtained from the aircraft manufacturer
c. Any repair of damaged stress metal skin

10. Who has the authority to approve for return to service a propeller after a 100-
hour inspection? 1: A mechanic with a powerplant rating; 2: Any certificated
repairman; 3: A non-certificated mechanic working under the supervision of a
certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings
a. 1
b. 2
c. 1 and 3

11. Which of these publications contains standards for protrusion of bolts, studs,
and screws through self-locking nuts?
a. AC 43.13-1B
b. AC 43.13-2
c. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets

12. The 100-hour inspection required by Federal Aviation Regulations for certain
aircraft being operated for hire may be performed by _____.
a. person working under the supervision of an appropriately rated mechanic,
but the aircraft must be approved by the mechanic for return to service
b. appropriately rated mechanics only if they have an inspection authorization
c. appropriately rated mechanics and approved by them for return to service

13. A certificated mechanic shall not exercise the privileges of the certificate and
rating unless, within the preceding 24 months, the Administrator has found that
the certificate holder is able to do the work or the certificate holder has
_____.
a. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 18
months
b. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 12
months
c. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 6 months

14. All of the following are consequences of human error, except _____.
a. mental stressor
b. catastrophic
c. personal injury

15. Statement 1: Certificated mechanics with an airframe rating may perform a minor
repair to an airspeed indicator providing they have the necessary equipment
available. Statement 2: Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may
perform a major repair to a propeller providing they have the necessary equipment
available. Regarding the above statements, _____.
a. only No.1 is true
b. neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
c. only No.2 is true

16. A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may perform the _____.
a. annual inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a
powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the same to
service
b. 100-hour inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a
powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the same to
service
c. 100-hour inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on an
airframe, powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the
same to service

17. The three types of human error are _____.


a. omission, commission, and extraneous
b. active, latent, and stressor
c. mental, situational, and physiological

18. What part of the Federal Aviation Regulations prescribes the requirements for
issuing mechanic certificates and associated ratings and the general operating
rules for the holders of these certificates and ratings?
a. 14 CFR Part 43
b. 14 CFR Part 91
c. 14 CFR Part 65

19. The replacement of a damaged engine mount with a new identical engine mount
purchase from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a _____.
a. major or minor repair, depending upon the complexity of the installation
b. major repair
c. minor repair

20. An Airworthiness Directive requires that a propeller be altered. Certificated


mechanics should ______.
a. perform and approve the work for return to service if it is a minor
alteration
b. not perform the work because it is an alteration
c. not perform the work because they are not allowed to perform and approve
nor return to service, repair or alterations to propellers

21. The replacement of fabric on fabric-covered parts such as wings, fuselages,


stabilizers, or control surfaces is considered to be a _____.
a. minor repair unless the new cover is different in any way from the original
cover
b. minor repair unless the underlying structure is altered or repaired
c. major repair even though no alteration or repair is performed

22. Certificated mechanics with a powerplant rating may perform _____.


a. any inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant
or propeller or any component thereof, and may release the same to service
b. 100-hour and/or annual inspections required by the Federal Aviation
Regulations on powerplants, propeller, or any components thereof, and may
release the same to service
c. 100-hour inspections required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on
powerplants, propeller, or any components thereof, and may release the same
to service

23. The replacement of a damaged vertical stabilizer with a new identical stabilizer
purchased form the aircraft manufacturer is considered a _____.
a. minor alteration
b. major repair
c. minor repair

24. How is a quality system assured?


a. By an independent organization
b. By a dependent organization
c. By an internal reporting and auditing system

25. Many areas of aviation have shifted their focus from eliminating error to _____.
a. preventing and managing error
b. identifying and mitigating error
c. reducing and containing error

26. Instrument repair may be performed _____.


a. by the instrument manufacturer only
b. by an FAA-approved instrument repair station
c. on airframe instruments by mechanics with an airframe rating

27. The positive aspects of human factor issues are referred to as the _____.
a. Magnificent Seven
b. Dirty Dozen
c. MEDA

28. Which of the following statements is true for a certificated and appropriately
rated mechanic regarding repairs and alterations?
a. He/she may perform an airframe major repair or major alteration, but cannot
approve the work for return to service
b. He/she may perform airframe minor repairs and minor alterations and approve
the work for return to service, but cannot perform an airframe major repair
or major alteration
c. He/she may perform airframe major repair or major alteration and approve
the work, but not the entire aircraft, for return to service

29. Certificated mechanics, under their general certificate privileges, may _____.
a. perform minor repairs to instruments
b. perform 100-hour inspection of instruments
c. perform minor alterations to instruments

30. What is the maximum duration of a temporary airman certificate?


a. 60 days
b. 90 days
c. 120 days

31. The “SHEL” model is another human factors tool. The goal is to determine not only
what the problem is, but also _____.
a. where and why it exists
b. how we prevent the problem
c. how many factors contribute to the error

32. Under Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, what is the maximum penalty
for falsification, alteration, or fraudulent reproduction of certificates,
logbooks, reports, and records?
a. Ineligibility to receive any certificate or rating for one year
b. Imprisonment for one year and a $5,000.00 fine
c. Suspension or revocation of any certificate held

33. Why is a mechanic applicant issued a temporary certificate after successful


completion of the required tests?
a. To allow for review of his/her application and supplementary documents
b. So hat a background check/investigation may be completed
c. Both of the other two choices

34. When we think of aviation safety in a contemporary way, human error is _____.
a. the starting point
b. the ending point
c. the intervention point
Air Laws Questions
Miscellaneous/Additional

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- You are never too old, never too late, and


never too sick to start from scratch once again. -
1. In powerplant instrument marking, this colored arc indicates ‘takeoff
precautionary ranges.’
a. Yellow
b. White
c. Red
d. Green

2. How long should cockpit voice recorders (CVR) and flight data recorders (FDR)
data be kept in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in termination
of the flight?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days

3. Who submits reportable occurrences to the authority?


a. Quality Department AMO
b. Quality Department Airline
c. Maintenance Department
d. Production Control AMO

4. When does ‘flight time’ end?


a. When all the passengers have disembarked
b. At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay
c. At touchdown
d. When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers

5. PANS stands for _____.


a. Practices for Air Navigation Standards
b. Practices for Air Navigation Services
c. Procedures for Air Navigation Standards
d. Procedures for Air Navigation Services

6. Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an
annual, 100-hour, or progressive inspection?
a. Designated inspector representing the FAA administrator
b. Owner or operator of the aircraft
c. Person approving/disapproving for RTS
d. Pilot and crew members

7. Which is the correct definition of ‘night?’


a. The average hours of darkness
b. The total hours when the sun is below the horizon
c. The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of
morning civil twilight
d. From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes before sunrise

8. What is the SSR unlawful interference code?


a. 2200
b. 7500
c. 7600
d. 7700

9. It is any leasing agreement whereby a person agrees to provide an entire aircraft


with at least one crew member to another person.
a. Absolute lease
b. Dry lease
c. Perpetual lease
d. Wet lease

10. The training required for crew members who have qualified and have served in the
same capacity on another aircraft is _____.
a. difference training
b. familiarization training
c. transition training
d. upgrade training
11. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement
for a turbo-propeller flag air carrier airplane?
a. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes
plus 15% of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less
b. 60 minutes at holding altitude
c. 45 minutes at holding altitude
d. 30 minutes plus 15% of the total time required or 90 minutes at normal
cruise, whichever is less

12. Who is responsible for the upkeep of the required maintenance records of an
aircraft?
a. The repair station where maintenance was done
b. The certificated mechanic performing maintenance
c. The aircraft owner
d. The aircraft manufacturer
Air Laws Questions
ATA Chapters

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- God knows every disappointment, every loss, and every challenge. The Good News is that
your story ends in victory. -
ATA Chapters

General
ATA 00 Administrative
ATA 01 Maintenance Policy
ATA 02 Operations
ATA 03 Support
ATA 04 Airplane Statics
ATA 05 Time Limits/Maintenance Checks (Scheduled and Unscheduled)
ATA 06 Dimensions and Areas
ATA 07 Lifting and Shoring (Jacking)
ATA 08 Leveling and Weighing(Balancing)
ATA 09 Towing and Taxiing
ATA 10 Parking, Mooring, Storage and Return to Service
ATA 11 Placards (Exterior and Interior) and Markings (and Color Schemes)
ATA 12 Servicing (Scheduled and Unscheduled) - Routine Maintenance (Replenishing)
ATA 14 Hardware
ATA 18 Vibration and Noise Analysis (Helicopter Only)

Airframe Systems
ATA 20 Standard Practices - Airframe
ATA 21 Air Conditioning
ATA 22 Auto Flight
ATA 23 Communications
ATA 24 Electrical Power
ATA 25 Equipment / Furnishings
ATA 26 Fire Protection
ATA 27 Flight Controls
ATA 28 Fuel
ATA 29 Hydraulic Power
ATA 30 Ice and Rain Protection
ATA 31 Indicating / Recording System
ATA 32 Landing Gear
ATA 33 Lights
ATA 34 Navigation
ATA 35 Oxygen
ATA 36 Pneumatic
ATA 37 Vacuum
ATA 38 Water / Waste
ATA 39 Electrical - Electronic Panels And Multipurpose Components
ATA 40 Multisystem
ATA 41 Water Ballast
ATA 42 Integrated Modular Avionics
ATA 44 Cabin Systems
ATA 45 Diagnostic and Maintenance System
ATA 46 Information Systems
ATA 47 Nitrogen Generation System
ATA 48 In Flight Fuel Dispensing
ATA 49 Airborne Auxiliary Power
ATA 50 Cargo and Accessory Compartments

Structure
ATA 51 Standard Practices and Structures - General
ATA 52 Doors
ATA 53 Fuselage
ATA 54 Nacelles/Pylons
ATA 55 Stabilizers
ATA 56 Windows
ATA 57 Wings
Propeller/Rotor
ATA 60 Standard Practices - Prop./Rotor
ATA 61 Propellers
ATA 62 Rotor(S)
ATA 63 Rotor Drive(S)
ATA 64 Tail Rotor
ATA 65 Tail Rotor Drive
ATA 66 Folding Blades/Pylon
ATA 67 Rotors Flight Control

Powerplant
ATA 70 Standard Practices Engine
ATA 71 Power Plant
ATA 72 Engine General
ATA 73 Engine- Fuel and Control
ATA 74 Ignition
ATA 75 Bleed Air
ATA 76 Engine Controls
ATA 77 Engine Indicating
ATA 78 Exhaust
ATA 79 Oil
ATA 80 Starting
ATA 81 Turbines (Reciprocating Engines)
ATA 82 Water Injection
ATA 83 Accessory Gearboxes
ATA 84 Propulsion Augmentation
ATA 85 Fuel Cell Systems
ATA 91 Charts
ATA 92 Electrical System Installation
Air Laws Questions
Module 10 - Legislation

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

- You will never have this day again. So, make it count! –
1. The abbreviation "ICAO" means _____.
a. International Organization of Aircraft Operators
b. International Civil Aviation Organization
c. International Air Transport Organization

2. What stands the abbreviation JAR for?


a. Joint Aviation Requirements
b. Joint Aviation Registration
c. Joint Aircraft Rules

3. When comes a new JAA regulation into executive power?


a. When the JAA releases the final draft
b. When a NAA integrates this regulation into their national law
c. When the JAA publishes the new regulation

4. Who issues a JAR 66 certifying staff license?


a. The head office of the JAA
b. The local office of the JAA
c. The NAA

5. If an airline from a non-JAA country flies to an airport located in a JAA member


state what aviation law applies?
a. JAA regulations
b. The NAA regulations of the destination country
c. ICAO regulations

6. Where are the minimum requirements defined for commercial air traffic between
different countries?
a. In the JAA regulations
b. In the national law of the country the airline is belonging to
c. In the ICAO regulations

7. What is the minimum training requirements by a JAR 147 school for the JAR 66 CAT-
A license?
a. 2400 hours
b. 800 hours
c. 1600 hours

8. How many practical experience in a JAR 145 maintenance organization is required


to qualify for the JAR 66 CAT-A license if the applicant has graduated from a JAR
147 school?
a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 2 years

9. What are the privileges of a Certifying Staff category C only?


a. Release to Service after line maintenance inclusive electric and avionics
components
b. Release to Service after Base Maintenance
c. Release to Service of a component after overhaul in the workshop

10. What are the categories according to JAR-66?


a. Cat. A, B, C, D
b. Cat. A, B, C1, C2
c. Cat. A, B1, B2, C

11. How many sub-categories has a JAR 66 CAT-A certifying staff license?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4

12. A Who is responsible that the physical condition of a JAR 66 license holder does
not adversely affect his ability to satisfactorily certify the work for which he
is responsible?
a. The JAA
b. The JAR 145 maintenance organization
c. The Jar 66 license holder himself
13. According to JAR-145, what must be issued after each kind of maintenance?
a. A Certificate of Release to Service
b. Certificate of Airworthiness
c. A Maintenance Statement

14. Which category is allowed to sign a release to service after overhaul?


a. Line Maintenance Certifying Mechanic
b. Line Maintenance Certifying Technician
c. Base Maintenance Certifying Engineer

15. How is a major change defined? A change is a major change if _____.


a. ... different airworthiness standards have been used than the original ones
b. ... the applicant is the type certification holder
c. ... the airworthiness is affected

16. What is the function of the quality personnel?


a. Monitoring the maintenance personnel if they work properly
b. Issuance of all Certificates of Release to Service
c. To audit the entire organization

17. The JAR-145 aims to which kind of organization?


a. Organizations which perform only line maintenance on small aircraft
b. Organizations which maintain aircraft or components used for commercial air
transportation
c. Organizations which maintain only components

18. In a JAR 145 maintenance organization what language(s) must certifying staff be
able to use?
a. The local language
b. The English language
c. The language in which the documents and procedures are written and the
language which is usually spoken in the maintenance organization

19. How long is the validity of an Certificate of Airworthiness?


a. 12 months
b. Until the loss of airworthiness
c. Until the revocation or withdrawal

20. What is the Certificate of Airworthiness?


a. The evidence for air traffic permission
b. The evidence for the airworthiness of the aircraft. It is issued once a
year
c. An official statement for the airworthiness, issued after each overhaul.

21. Who issues the type certificate of an aircraft?


a. An approved JAR-145 organization
b. An approved JAR-21 organization
c. The national Civil Aviation Authority

22. ICAO Article 29 requires documents to be carried: Certificate of Registration,


Certificate of Airworthiness, license of the crew members, aircraft log book,
passenger manifest, cargo manifest. What is missing in this list?
a. Flight Manual
b. Type Certificate
c. Radio station license

23. Which requirements describe the papers which must be carried on board of an
aircraft used for passenger transportation?
a. JAR-21
b. JAR-145
c. JAR OPS 1

24. If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of


12 inches, what is the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C?
Note: 2/3 x height = character width; 1/6 x height = width for 1; 1/4 x 2/3
height = spacing; 1/6 x height = stroke or line width.
a. 52 inches
b. 48 inches
c. 57 inches

25. Who issues Airworthiness Directives?


a. The Design Organization
b. The National Authority
c. The JAA

26. What is the consequence if the time limit written in the AD is not overdue
(exceeded)?
a. The aircraft must not be operated unless for test flight
b. The type certificate becomes invalid
c. The maintenance organization will be advised to cancel the Certificate of
Airworthiness

27. If work performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily, the signature of
an authorized person on the maintenance records for maintenance alterations
performed constitutes _____.
a. approval of the aircraft for return to service
b. approval for return to service only for the work performed
c. only verification that the maintenance or alterations were performed
referencing maintenance data

28. What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested
persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product
may continue to be operated?
a. Airworthiness Directives
b. Airworthiness Alerts
c. Aviation Safety Data

29. Which aircraft record entry is the best description of the replacement of several
damaged heli-coils in a casting?
a. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils were replaced. The damaged inserts
were extracted, the tapped holes gauged, then new inserts installed, and
tangs removed.
b. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils were installed in place of damaged
ones.
c. Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils inserts were repaired by replacing
the damaged inserts with a lock-type insert, after the tapped holes were
checked for corrosion.

30. Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an
annual, 100 hour, or progressive inspection?
a. The owner or operator of the aircraft
b. The person approving or disapproving for return to service
c. The designee or inspector representing the FAA administrator
Air Laws Questions
CFR Subchapters / Description of FAR 23 and FAR 25

Engr. J.R.S. Gayon


April 2017

-Don’t ruin a good day by thinking about a bad yesterday. Let it go. –
CFR Subchapters
 Subchapter A – Definitions and Abbreviations
 Subchapter B – Procedural Rules
 Subchapter C – Aircraft
 Subchapter D – Airmen
 Subchapter E – Airspace
 Subchapter F – Air Traffic and General Operation Rules
 Subchapter G – Air Carriers and Operators for Compensation or Hire: Certification
and Operations
 Subchapter H – Schools and Other Certificated Agencies
 Subchapter I – Airports
 Subchapter J – Navigational Facilities
 Subchapter K – Administrative Rules
 Subchapter N – War Risk Insurance

FAR Part 23
 contains airworthiness standards for airplanes in the NORMAL, UTILITY, AEROBATIC,
and COMMUTER categories
 MAXIMUM TAKEOFF WEIGHT of an airplane in the normal, utility or acrobatic
category CANNOT exceed 12,500 lb, while in the commuter category it CANNOT exceed
19,000 lb.
 STALL SPEED (e.g., for single engine airplanes – not more than 61 knots), RATE OF
CLIMB (not less than 300 ft/min), TAKE-OFF SPEED (not less than 1.2 x VS1), and
WEIGHT of each pilot and passenger (170 lb for airplanes in the normal and
commuter categories, and 190 lb for airplanes in the acrobatic and utility
categories)
 commenced on February 1, 1965
 (before) promulgated in Part 3 of the US Civil Air Regulations (e.g. Cessna 150
and Piper Cherokee)

FAR Part 25
 contains airworthiness standards for airplanes in the TRANSPORT category
o jets with 10 or more seats or a maximum takeoff weight (MTOW) greater than
12,500 pounds (5,670 kg)
o propeller-driven airplanes with greater than 19 seats or a MTOW greater
than 19,000 pounds (8,618 kg)
 commenced on February 1, 1965
 (before) promulgated in Part 4b of the US Civil Air Regulations (e.g. Boeing 707
and 727)