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ONLY GOD CAN DIE FOR SINS PART 16-

TRINITY DECEPTION PART 79

The idea being taught is that forgiveness is our only option for salvation because this is the way God
wanted it (and the way he still wants it). You see, their thinking is, God doesn't want a lot of braggarts
in heaven who have bragging rights about how righteous they were in life, so God created man to fail,
then judged him for failing. God gave man “original sin,” a genetic curse that would be passed down
to all of his children, then promptly judged, not only the man, but every generation of his children for
all perpetuity for the sin. Mankind was created with a “sin nature” and then was promptly judged for
the very nature that God gave him.

It would be if God created tigers to eat gazelles, then judged the tigers for eating the gazelles, cast them
into a pit where they would be tortured for all eternity for eating gazelles. Or, if God put it in our
nature to love eating then judged us for loving eating.

The God they present is an insane psychopath.

If you tell these deranged people that God wants you to stop sinning and that he has even made a way
to help them do just that they will call you a liar to your face. They even have a pet scripture they
quote to do it:

If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
1 John 1: 8
They apply the above verse both to the unbeliever, who has never received the truth regarding the death
and resurrection of Christ and to the believers as well. To them “we” in this passage means “we
humans.” They are, of course, inserting their “original sin” doctrine right into the text where it does
not exist, but don't try to tell them that. If you examine the entire first chapter of first John you won't
find him discussing “original sin” at all. You also won't find it in any of the subsequent chapters.
Neither will you find him referring to a “sin nature.”

In fact, he defines sin, not as a “nature” but as “transgression of the law.”

Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law
1 John 3: 4

So, getting back to 1 John 1: 8. They will use that scripture and call you a liar if you say that you can
overcome sin and cease from sin based on the idea that if there ever was a man who said: “I no longer
have sin” (I have no sin) he would be a liar. That is clearly not what John says there, but don't try to
convince them. It will be a futile effort. John doesn't say that no one can ever stop sinning and if they
say they have they are a liar.

In fact he says a few verses later that the purpose of the entire letter was so that those to whom he was
writing would “stop sinning.”

My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not...
1 John 2: 1
We'll look at the rest of the verse just quoted in a moment. First we must establish to whom John was
speaking in 1 John 1:8. Who are the “we” to whom he refers when he says “if we say we have no sin?”
He's talking to believers who have sinned. If we back up to the beginning of the chapter we can see to
whom he is writing.

That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes,
which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;
1 John 1: 1

So, the “we” in this chapter is actually those who believe, and more specifically those who preach the
gospel. The followers of Christ. Yet, he turns his attention quickly to those who preach the gospel but
walk in sin.

If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:
1 John 1: 6

So, just two verses before his famous quote, “if WE say we have no sin” he establishes who the “we
are” and that is those who preach the gospel but still “walk in darkness.” What does he mean by
darkness? There's no need to guess he tells us by contrasting “walking in darkness” with walking in
light:

But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the
blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
1 John 1: 7

Here's where they seize on “the blood” atonement. For it clearly says that “the blood of Jesus” is what
“cleanses you from all sin.” They have John saying that the blood (the death) of Jesus is what saves
you. It “magically” and “miraculously” cleanses you of all sin (even though you remain a sinner).

Now, at this point they will stop me and say, “you are putting words in my mouth, I never said we
remain sinners.”

Yet, they do, for when you say that we can “overcome” sin and cease walking in sin they quote the very
next verse to prove you a liar. They are clearly reading the text in such a way as to say you are trapped
forever in sin and need “the magical blood of Jesus” all the days of your life and if you deny that you
have sin that needs to be “hidden” by “the blood” you are a liar.

When, in reality, even a child can read the first 8 verses of the first letter of John and see that he is
saying that the liar is he who claims to follow Christ but walks in sin (darkness) and he even states that
if you “walk in the light” you are “clean” of all sin.

They preach you are “clean” but only “in God's sight.” God is blinded to your darkness and he's
blinded to your filth.

Yet, this is all madness as we can see by applying a simple logical truth.

If Christian believers are 'clean” of all sin, and if God no longer sees your sin, nor does he see you
walking in darkness anymore once you are a believer, why would he be telling believers that they must
“confess”their sins?
If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all
unrighteousness.
1 John 1: 9

We know he's talking to those who preach the gospel. That is the “we” to whom he speaks. (We read
that from the very first verse of the chapter). Now he says “we” must “confess” our sins and then he
will “forgive” us our sins. Why would we have to confess sins that he's already paid for and forgiven
on the cross? Why would he tell us to confess sins that God no longer sees (because they are covered
by the blood atonement)?

Jesus Christ died 2000 years ago and “covered” my sins, why would I be told to “confess” them?

They argue, “well, he's talking to the unbeliever there, the one who “walks in darkness.”

That is NOT what we read. When he speaks of those that “walk in darkness” he is talking about those
who claim they “have fellowship” with Christ. Professed believers. The “we” in these passages are
those who claim to “have fellowship” with Christ (not those who have not received Christ yet).

He tells believers that IF they confess their sins not only will they be “forgiven” but he will “cleanse
them” from all of their sins (unrighteousness). If they are “cleansed” magically by the “blood” (which
was shed 2000 years ago) simply by “professing” Christ (sinner's prayer, confirmation, etc.) then WHY
would they have to “confess” sins in order to be forgiven?

They teach that Christ proclaimed “it is finished” on the cross. All they would have to do is “say we
have fellowship” with him (profess Christ) and they would be clean. Furthermore, they say the
cleansing atonement IS forgiveness, yet John didn't say it that way.

He said that Christ would “forgive” their sins AND cleanse them.

Let's read it again, it bears repeating:

If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all
unrighteousness.
1 John 1: 9

Now, let's backtrack to verse 7 again, we are about to see John completely contradict himself. In 1
John 1: 7 he states that the blood of Jesus Christ “cleanses” us from all sin (which is atonement) but
ONLY if we “walk in the light” and only if we “have fellowship” with Christ.

But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the
blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin.
1 John 1: 7

Actually, they reverse the meaning of this text. They have him to say:
“If the blood of Jesus has cleansed us from all sin, then we walk in the light, as he is in the light, and
we have fellowship with one another.”

But in fact he says it the opposite:


“If we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we shall have fellowship with one another... AND... the
blood of his Son, Jesus Christ, cleanses us from all sin.”

So, while they say you get the blood and you walk in the light (whether you sin or not), John is saying
you walk in the light and you don't sin.

There is a bigger discovery to be had from 1 John 1:7 that is completely ignored by the Christian world
in general. They have to ignore this part of John's message because it completely refutes their entire
reading of the first chapter of the Gospel of John.

The modern take on the Gospel of John is that it begins by identifying Jesus Christ as “the light” who
existed before the world, with God, as God.

In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
John 1: 4

And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.
John 1: 5

There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.
John 1: 6

The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might
believe.
John 1: 7

He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.
John 1: 8

That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.
John 1: 9

He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
John 1: 10

He came unto his own, and his own received him not.
John 1: 11

But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to
them that believe on his name:
John 1: 12
The entire Christian world sees “the light” as described in the first chapter of the Gospel of John as
Christ himself. They will quote the following verse as support:
Then spake Jesus again unto them, saying, I am the light of the world: he that followeth me
shall not walk in darkness, but shall have the light of life.
John 8: 12

At the same time they ignore the scriptures where Christ said his followers were also the light of the
world.

Ye are the light of the world. A city that is set on an hill cannot be hid.
Matthew 5: 14

They ignore the significance of Matthew 5: 14 entirely because it does not work with their teachings
regarding the pre-existence of Christ and his deity. They make him the “light” and as it puts it in the
Gospel of John, the “light” that existed before time itself and that created the world.

If you haven't seen the problem that the first letter of John, chapter one verse seven presents to the
Christian yet, let me spell it out for you.

John states that we dwell “in the light” even as he (Christ) is in the light. Several times in his letter he
admonishes us and demands that we must “dwell in the light as he is in the light.” This word “as”
means “just as” or “in the same way.”

John is telling us to dwell in the light in the same way the light dwells in the light, according to
Christians.

If the failed logic weren't so unbelievably tragic it might be comical.

If John believes that Jesus Christ is literally the LIGHT HIMSELF, who existed as light from before the
world began and then “shined into the darkness of the world” he would have to be crazy to insist that
we mere creatures must “dwell in the light even as he does.”

He IS the light according to Christians, how are we going to “dwell in that light” as he does? He's the
source of the light we dwell in. In order for us to “dwell” in that light as he does we'd have to become
God, the source of all light!

This should be common sense!

So John makes an impossible claim, that we can dwell in the light “as” (in the same way) that the Light
himself dwells in the light, and then makes an unreasonable demand that if we do not do this we are not
truly believers. Obviously John did not believe Christ was literally the light but rather “dwelt in the
light” (otherwise why would he admonish us to dwell in the light in the same way he dwelt in the
light)?

Furthermore, by telling us to dwell in the light “as he” dwelt in the light, he would be saying that we
must have “no darkness” in us at all, for he clearly says that in the Light there is no darkness at all, and
then claims that we can “dwell in the light even as he (Christ) is in the Light.”

This then is the message which we have heard of him, and declare unto you, that God is
light, and in him is no darkness at all.
1 John 1: 5
When you consider, in the next chapter John says “if any man sins” which is a direct contradiction to
his claim that we “dwell in the light as he is in the light,” you start to see that, if Christian dogma is
correct, then John's letter is the ramblings of a madman. Who first says we “dwell in the light as he
does” (with no darkness in us). Then later admits that it's possible for us to be “in darkness” by saying,
“if any man sins” (referring to the believers whom he has already said have no darkness in them if they
are true believers).

In 1 John 1:7 he says the only way “the blood of Jesus cleanses us from all unrighteousness” is if we
“dwell in the light as he is in the light.” He's already stated that there is “no darkness in him” so John
is clearly saying that you must have “no darkness at all in you,” or the blood of Jesus has no effect and
does not cleanse you.”

Let's read 1 John 1: 7 again just to drive this home:

But IF we walk in the light, AS HE IS IN THE LIGHT (no darkness in Him), we have fellowship one
with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin. (1 John 1: 7) Emphasis
mine.

Either John is a very poor teacher, or he did not believe that Jesus Christ was literally a person called
“the Light.”

Which would make sense, for if there is a person called “the Light” in the Godhead, it wouldn't be a
trinity it would be a quadrinity. You would have “God the Father, God the Son, God the Holy Spirit,
and God the Light” in the first chapter of the Gospel of John.

The “Light” therefore who was “in the world and the world was made by him” in the Gospel of John is
not talking about Jesus, but must be talking about God. Indeed, John identifies God Almighty, not
Jesus, as “the Light” in 1 John 1: 5.

John says in 1 John 1: 7 that “IF” you walk in the light even as Jesus walked in the light (following
Christ's example of obedience through love) only THEN will “the blood of Jesus Christ cleanse you
from all unrighteousness.

According to modern Christianity, however, just the act of Christ shedding his blood is what cleanses
you from sin. They present this as a covering for your sin so that God doesn't see it anymore; And,
invert the message of verse 7 to have it say that when you confess Jesus, the blood magically “cleanses
you from unrighteousness;” And, now you “dwell in the light even as he is in the light” even if you
walk around in darkness and commit sins every day.

Yet, only 4 verses later in his letter he states that Christ's blood applies to “the world” and not just the
believer:

And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole
world.
1 John 2: 2

The “propitiation” as we have learned in this series is the atonement. The cleansing “of sin” in the
flesh so that we can “serve” the living God. First, John says that IF you walk in the light and truly have
fellowship with Christ only THEN will the blood of Jesus “cleanse” you (atonement) from sin.

I know what you are going to say, you'll say: “silly Jeff, clearly when he says the blood of Jesus will
cleanse you from all sin he's not talking about the propitiation, for he says later that the propitiation was
for the “whole world.”

EXACTLY!

Yet modern gospel teachers make 1 John 1: 6-10 to be a discussion about how we all sin and that's why
we need the propitiation (atonement). When he says “the blood of Jesus will cleanse you from all sin”
they make it a discussion about how Christ died on the cross, shed his blood for atonement and that
atonement “cleanses you” magically from all your sins. Yet, apparently John can't make up his mind,
for first he says that only happens “if we walk in light” and “in fellowship” but then turns right around
and says that the atonement (the death of Christ for propitiation) was “for the whole world.”

Indeed, Paul in Romans clearly states (as we have already read but we will need to read it again) that
Christ's death “reconciled” the world to God “while they were yet sinners” and while they were yet
“enemies.”

But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for
us.
Romans 5: 8
Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.
Romans 5: 9
For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much
more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.
Romans 5:10

Clearly the atoning blood of Christ was for “the sinner” and John would be wrong saying that only “if
we walk in the light” will the blood “cleanse us from all sin.”

So, the contradiction is not with what John said, but with how they are reading John. First they say that
you must “believe” in Jesus (which they call walking in the light) and only then will the blood “cleanse
you of all sin” then they have John saying a few verses later that Christ “died for the sins of the whole
world.”

Something that Paul confirmed:

For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is
the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe.
1 Timothy 4: 10

So, they make the case that John is talking to everyone, believers and unbelievers when he says that
you can never say you are “without sin,” not without being a liar. Yet, at the same time making the
case that they have no sin (for it is covered by the blood and even when they do sin God doesn't see
their sins).

It gets even weirder, for if, once we confess Jesus and have fellowship with him his blood magically
“cleanses us” from all our sin (and God doesn't even see the sin) then why would we need “an
advocate” with the Father IF we sin? Why would we need a paracletos to take up our cause with the
Father if the Father doesn't even know we sinned?

My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an
advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:
1 John 2: 1

It's even stranger, because according to them the propitiation (atonement) alone is our defense with the
Father, and that this propitiation wasn't just for those who “confess” Jesus, but was for “the whole
world.”

And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole
world.
1 John 2: 2

They clearly teach that the advocate/ paracletos covers ALL their sins.. past, present future... all). So if
the whole world has this advocate, the shed blood of Christ, then why would the world have to
“confess” their sins? Wouldn't their sins already be covered by the all encompassing powerful magic
“blood?”

They will argue: “silly rabbit, he says why, they have to confess their sins and profess Jesus only then
will they walk in the light.”

So why is John speaking in verse 6 of someone who professes Christ but “walks in darkness?”

By their teaching it's literally impossible to “profess” Jesus and yet still walk in darkness because they
teach that professing fellowship with Jesus IS walking in the light.

They argue: “well professing it is not enough, you have to truly believe it.”

Yet, how does John judge whether or not someone truly believes it?

By one simple litmus test. If they “walk in sin,” it means they don't believe. That is what the rest of
the first letter of John addresses.

And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments.


1 John 2: 3
He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in
him.
1 John 2: 4
But whoso keepeth his word, in him verily is the love of God perfected: hereby know we that
we are in him.
1 John 2: 5
He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked.
1 John 2: 6
If you take away anything from the first letter of John, I would hope you would see that John states that
even the world has the “grace” that was shed abroad by Christ on the cross. What does this mean? Am
I preaching universalism? Are all saved? Not at all. I am preaching that even when the true believer
“deceives himself” and “abides in darkness” (or as John puts it, “if any man sins”) they still have the
“advocate” (paracletos) with the Father. There is still hope for them.
Believers who lie to themselves that they can never overcome sin (or that they are not required to
because Jesus already overcame sin for them) are not lost. They have “an advocate” as long as they
don't deny the Son of God and what he did for them.

That gives me hope for my family, who are all still lost in the lies and darkness of organized Christian
religion.

Unless, of course they judge others for preaching righteousness and call it of the devil. That is
“blasphemy of the Holy Spirit” and that is unforgiveable. However, that is for another study.

For you see that is John's message. That if we “confess” our sins not only will we have “forgiveness”
(which they say is atonement) but we will cease from sin, the blood of Jesus does something that
causes us to “walk even so as he walked.” In perfect righteousness.

That, my friends, is the paracletos. The “spirit of truth” that comes to “lead” and “guide” into “all
truth.” That is the power of “born again.”

They deny this power.

If you preach the power to walk as Christ walked, sinless and perfect, they will say that you are “a liar
and the truth is not in you” based on 1 John 1: 8.

Yet read the final verse in chapter one.

If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
1 John 1: 10

He's talking to people who “say they have fellowship” with Him and yet “walk in darkness.” He's
saying that if they refuse to acknowledge that they are walking in darkness and sin his word is not “in
them.”

This is PRECISELY what the modern grace teacher is preaching.

That even though they sin and do not walk according to the way Christ walked, they “have not sinned”
for God doesn't “see their sin” and the atonement blood magically covers up their sins.

It is THEY, ironically who are saying “I have no sin” and lying against the truth, while at the same time
calling those who preach righteousness through the overcoming power of the Holy Spirit liars!

They accuse those who preach you can stop sinning as claiming they have no sin, when he who says “I
can stop sinning” is acknowledging his sin, for how can you stop sinning if you have no sin to stop?

The statement “we can stop sinning in Christ” comes with a built in acknowledgment of our sin, and
the statement “God doesn't see our sins anymore, being washed in the blood” comes with a built in
statement that “I have no sins to overcome.”

They are the ones claiming to be “without sin” and lying all the while as they walk around in all
manner of sin and darkness.

If you walk in the light you can't stumble in the darkness of sin.

He that saith he is in the light, and hateth his brother, is in darkness even until now.
1 John 2: 9
He that loveth his brother abideth in the light, and there is none occasion of stumbling in him.
1 John 2: 10

The message of John is not that you walk around in darkness but God sees only light. That is the
biggest doctrine of devils out there.

The message of John is faith that if you are honest about your sins before God, that the POWER of the
HOLY SPIRIT which comes to you by the blood of Christ on the cross will help you (parecletos) to
overcome that sin. But if you walk around denying you even have sins to overcome (or that God
doesn't see those sins) there is no help nor hope for you. The Word is not in you.

It is THEY who preach they have no sins to overcome, saying that Jesus did the overcoming for them
and that overcoming was “finished on the cross” according to their twisted teaching.

How shall they overcome sin?

They shant.

They truly are slaves forever to the sins of the flesh, for they say so openly with their mouths and any
benefit Christ sought for them by shedding his blood while they were yet sinners is lost to them, for
they remain as they were and the purposes of the cross are nullified to them.