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1 which test is the most reliable test to indicate the presence of active hepatitis:

a) Hbs(surface)antigen
b) Hbc(core)antigen
c) Hbe antigen
d) Antibody to HBs antigen

2 BPE probe is marked at


a) 3.5-5.5
b) 3.5-5,5 and 8.5-11.5
c) 8.5-11.5

3 BITEWING recall for 9 year child With low caries is


a) 12
b) 18
c) 24

4 BITEWING recall for adult With low caries is


a) 12
b) 18
c) 24

5 Best way of giving oral health education


a) Nurse advice
b) Leaflet
c) Diagrams
d) Make sure the patient understands what causes gum disease and dental caries

6 Periodontal pocket in an abcess should have


a) Vertical bone loss
b) Horizontal bone loss

7 What is the medical condition of a man who came to your clinic asking you to remove radioreceptor
from his upper premolar
a) Mania
b) Anexity
c) Depression
d) Schizophrenia
8 Female patient with missing upper lateral incisors, gaps between centrals and canines and pointed.
canine the best treatment option would be:
a) Move the canines by orthodontic means to close gaps
b) Provide fixed-fixed bridge
c) Provide single crowns over the canines to close the gaps to a limit
c) Close the gaps with tooth colored restorations
c) Orthodontic and restorative

9 What is the least reason to extract Third molar tooth:


a) One or more episodes of infection such as pericoronitis, cellulitis, abscess formation;or
untreatable pulpal/periapical pathology.
b) Caries in the third molar which is unlikely to be usefully restored, or caries in the adjacent second
molar which cannot satisfactorily be treated without the removal of the third molar.
c) Periodontal disease due to the position of the third molar and its association with the secondmolar.
d) Cases of dentigerous cyst formation or other related oral pathology
d) Cases of external resorption of the third molar or of the second molar where this would appear
to
be caused by the third molar.

10 A study was conducted with the following objective: To determine the individual and combined
effects of potential risk factors in relation to the temporomandibular disorder, Pain Dysfunction
Syndrome (PDS). The first group comprised new referrals between May 1997 and August 1999 to the
temporomandibular disorder clinic of the University Dental Hospital, diagnosed with PDS. The second
group consisted of patients without PDS randomly selected from twenty-four dental practices. Using a
postal questionnaire information was collected on socio-demographic, local mechanical, psychological
factors, co-morbidities and illness behaviour.What type of study is this?
a) Case series
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-control study
d) Case report
e) Randomised clinical trial

11 Patient had trauma 8 days ago, upper central incisor palatal luxation mild, not interfering with

occlusion but tooth non vital. What do you do?


a) Pulp extirpation +CaoH2 dressing
b) Reposition
c) Reposition +Splinting
12 You have made a set of upper and lower complete dentures for a'patient who then has difficulty in
saying the letters 'f' and 'v
The most likely problem with the dentures is
a) Incorrect overbite

b) Incisors too far back palatally


c) Lack of retention

d) Palatal vault too high


e) Palate too thick

13 Patient want to extract a tooth and he bring with him a recom:nendation from his
cardiologist to take prophylactic antibiotic, the best action is
a) Tell him politely that we cannot treat him
b) Ask for a letter from his cardiologist
c) Ask for a letter from his GMP
d) Refer him to anther dentist
e) Insist on not giving him antibiotic and not extracting the tooth

14 What are the best radiographs for a new patient to the practice with gross caries
in all 4 quadrants?
a) Vertical BWs

b) Horizontal BWs
c) Full mouth periapicals

d) OPG

15 After doing pulpectomy, you performed a readymade stainlesteal crown and space maintainer So
under which band you should treat this child:
a) Band1

b) Band 2
c) Band3
d) Band 4

e) No claim

16 Which of the following? is a bacteriostatic antibiotic

Amoxicillin
Cephalosporins
c) Metronidazole
d) Tetracycline
e) Naproxen
i~
17 Attached gingiva is the thinnest in the mouth in the following region of the mouth?
a) Maxillary anterior buccal region
b) Maxillary molar buccal region
b) Mandibular anterior buccal region
c) mandibular anterior lingual region
d) mandibular molar lingual region

18 choose correct gloves for taking a blood sample.


a) Non sterile vinyl
a) Non sterile latex/neoprene
a) Sterile latex/nitrile

19 The radiograph of choice for a new adult patient with BPE 4* and proximal decay is:
a) Fullmouth vertical bitewings
b) Panorama with selected periapicals
c) Panoramic with fullmouth periapicals
d) Panorama with full mouth periapicals and selected bitewing'S
e) Full mouth periapicals and selected bitewings

20 Which of the following? is classed as pharmacy medicine


a) Fluor ide mouthwash 2% (En-de-Kay Fluor inse
a) Corsodyl mouthwash 0.12%
a) Fluoride mouthwash 0.05% (Fluorigard
a) Toothpaste containing < 1500 ppm fluoride

21 Patients on Oral Bisphosphonates


a) Must not be treated in general dental practice
a) Will develop osteonecrosis of the jaw after undergoing
tooth
extraction
c) Require antibiotic prophylaxis with 3g Amoxicillin provided they are
not allergic to penicillin
d) Most pr obably have metastatic bone disease or osteopor osis
d) Must have their bisphosphonate medication stopped 24 hours
prior
to dental treatment
22 Which of the following is NOT an ideal requirement for an interocclusal record
a) Does not displace teeth during intercuspation
a) May shrink to about 5% after setting
b) Should reproduce occlusal and incisal surfaces accurately
c) Remain rigid after setting
c) Offers minimal resistance during closure in order to
reduce
mandibular flexion or displacement

23 NSAIDs do not interact with


a) Phenytoin
b) Antihypertensive drugs
c) Methotrexate
d) Systemic Corticosteroids
d) Fluoxetine

24 Child aged 10 with 1 mm pulp exposure of upper c;entral ,which is the preferred treatment option
-='
a) Cvek pulpotomy
b) Direct pulp capping
c) Indirect pulp capping
d) Complete pulpotomy

25 Risk of cancer in dental Radiography(IOPA)


a)1 :20,000
b)1 :200,000
c)1 :2,000,000

d)1 :20,000,000

26 Which salivary gland do not secrete mucous saliva


a) Parotid
b) Submandibular
c) Sublingual
d) Minor palatal salivary gland
e) Labial

27 Which Antifungal Drug will interfere with Warfarin if applied topically


a) Miconazole
b) ketoconazole
c) Nystatin
d) Itrakenazole
28) According To Nice Guidelines, Which of the Following is a reason For removal of Wisdom Teeth
a) For Orthodontic Reasons
b) Potential Cystic changes
c) To prevent anterior crowding in a young girl
d) Decay in 2nd molar
e) First episode of Pericronitis and inflammation

29) which test is the most reliable test to indicate the presence of highly infective hepatitis:
a)Hbs(surface)antigen
b)Hbc(core)antigen
c)Hbe antigen
d)Antibody to HBs antigen

30) A 50 year old uncontrolled diabetic with BPE Scores of 3 in all sextants. the most appropriate
complexity score:
a)1
b) 2
c) 3

31) During extraction of upper wisdom tooth you found that the tuberosity is moving and
the tooth is completely loose:
a) Complete extraction and act as OAC
b) Stop extraction and splint the tooth
c) Advise the patient to bite on a gauze and refer him to surgeon
d) Stop extraction and arrange a surgical extraction

I" 32) Permanent damage to inferior dental nerve after third molar surgery
a) 1%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 8%

33) 22 year old with severe down's syndrome who requires surgery. Who can consent for the
procedure.
a) Patient cant consent for the procedure because of his medical condition even if he understands it
b) Patient can consent for it if he can understands it and the complications
c) His parents would consent
d) His GP will consent
34) Regarding inhalation sedation, which of the following statements is MOST appropriate
a) Nitrous oxide sedation is only useful for children under 12 years of age
b) Nitrous oxide should not be used on patients with liver and kidney disease
c) Flumazenil may be used to reverse sedation produced by nitrous oxide
c) 100% oxygen should be administer ed to the patient for 3-5 minutes once the nitrous
oxide
has been term inated
e) Nitrous oxide should not be used on patients with cerebral palsy

35) what is the best distance to achieve good apical area preparation
a) 0.5mm
a) 1.0mm
a) 1.5mm
b) 2.5mm

36) Pt on mobility grade 2,you did root paining for how long you asked the pt to see him again
~1wk -
b) 1 mth
b) 3mths

37) A child has grossly broken down upper and lower molars, carious tooth, which x-ray would you
consider

a) IOPA
a) Horizontal Bitewings
b) Vertical Bitewings
c) OPT

38) When do you do not extract impacted 8's


a) Extraction of 8's recommended by orthodontist
a) Extraction of 8's recommended in pati ent undergoing renal transplant immunosupr ession
b) 47 years old with moderate periodontittis
c) Second permanent molar undergoing internal resorption due to third molar

39) A 46-year-old male smoker presents as a new patient complaining of bleeding gums, bad breath
and a BPE score as follows: 3/1/3 1/4/3
Select the most appropriate initial radiographic examination.
a) Bitewings
b) Bitewings and periapical views of selected teeth
,------------

c) Full mouth periapicals


c) Periapicals of the lower incisors
c) Vertical bitewings

40) Which of the following does not affect the elasticity of retentive clasp?
a) Length of the arm
a) The cross section of the shape
a) The material used
a) The undercut area

41) Patient is waiting in waiting room and collapse and faints. Patient is cold, clammy, but pulse is
good. What do you give?
a) 1M Glucagon
b) Oral Glucose
c) GTN
d) Hydrocortisone
e) Diazepam

42) A pt on examination was found to have swollen gingiva around a crown that had been present for
several years.The papillae were particularly enlarged, The most important feature of the crown
responsible for this is
a) Material of the crown
b) The occlusion
c) Proximal contour
d) labial contour
e) Surface finish

43) A pt presents with a history of clicking from their tmj. This click occurs midway through the
opening cycle and is consistent. There is some preauricular pain and the lateral pterygoid muscle on
the affected side is tender to resisted movement test. There is no trismus and the click is not present
when the patient opens from a incisor edge to edge relationship ,instead of her normal class-1
occlusion. The patient would like treatment, the most appropriate occlusal splint for this patient would
be
a) Stabilisation splint
b) localised occlusal interference splint
c) Bite raiser
d) Soft bite Guard
e) Anterior Repositioner Splint
44) Oxygen flow during medical emergency
a) 10 L Imin
a) 15 Umin
b) 8 Llmin

45) Which of the following is NOT advised treatment for significant fractured tuberosity during
extraction of maxillary third molar
a) Stop extraction as soon as recognised, leave area to heal then perform RCT
b) Continue extraction ,ensure area is closed primarily with vicryl
C) Stop extraction disect off bone from extracted tooth with over!ying mucoperiosteum and reposition
original area and splint if possible
d) Stop extraction ,decor ornate tooth splint area and return in 6 weeks to perform surgical
extraction of remaining roots
e) Continue extraction close residual OAC

46) A pt attends your surgery complaining of severe pain, swelling and mobility associated with a
lower first molar tooth in which there is a broken filling. A periapical radiograph indicates that the tooth
has not been root filled and there is loss of apical lamina dura associated with the distal root and at
the bifurcation.The periodotal support is good .There is no periodontal pocketing. What is the likely
diagnosis?
a) Chronic periapical periodontitis
b) An acute periapical -endodontic periodontitis
c) Chronic periapical -endodontic periodontitis
c) Acute periapical periodontitis
d) Peri radicular periodontitis

47) Success of post retained crown on a CENTRAL incisor is dependent on


a) Post length greater than crown ht
b) At least Smm apical seal
c) Ferrule effect
d) Tough or serrated post
d) All the above

48) After doing mesio-angular impaction of lower third molar, which suture material is best used to
close mucoperiosteal flap (SBA)
a) 3-0 Silk cutting needle
a) 3-0 Vicryl cutting needle
b) Catgut
49) In bpe if there is no bleeding no calculus or overhang restoration,only pocket 2mm, BPE is
a) 0
a) 1
a) 2
a) 3

50) A 23 yrs old girl lost her laterals in a swimming pool 10 yrs ago, she had a spoon denture which
she feels it is aesthetically unacceptable. Has been told that she needs bone grafting if she likes to go
for a successful implant. What is the best treatment:
a) Two fixed fixed resin bonded bridges using central and canin~.
a) Two cantilever resin bonded bridges from centrals and canines
b) Conventional cantilever bridges from canines.
c) Co-er partial denture.

51) Hand washing should be done


a) Before wearing gloves
a) Before and after wearing gloves
a) After wearing gloves

52) Autoclave temperatures (at what temperature the sterilization is achieved)


a) 121 degrees centigrade for 15 minutes
a) 121 degrees centigrade for 3 minutes
a) 131 degrees centigrade for 15 minutes

53) During surgery on the submandibular gland


a) An incision on the lower border of the mandible is safe
a) The submandibular gland is seen to wrap around the posterior border of mylohyoid
,"'--\
c) The facial artery and vein are divided as they course through the deep part of the gland
d) The hypoglossal nerve is seen to loop under the submandibular duct
e) Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the posterior third of the tongue

54) Which antibiotic associated with infectious mononucleosis or glandular fever


a) Penicillin
a) Ampicillin
b) Tetracycline

55) Cigarette smoking is considered to be the most important factor next to microbial plaque in
periodontal disease progression. Which of the following is the most important factor in the disease
progression in smokers?
a) Smokers have drier mouth than non smokers
a) Smokers have poorer oral hygiene tan non smokers
b) Nicotine impair the chemotactic and phagocytic properties of PMNs
c) The gingival blood flow is reduced in smokers
c) Smokers alter the oral environment encouraging the growth of anaerobic bacteria.

56) If u suspected a child abuse in your patient,u check for:


a) Bruises in neck
b) Scratches in knee and elbow.
c) Child distress and agitated

57) Smallest angle for amalgam is


a) 70
b) 90
c) 110

58) What is the flavoured topical anasthesia


a) Lidocain wth adrenaline
b) Prilocain wth fellypressen
c) Bupivacaine
d) Articaine
e) Benzocaine

59) Treatment of diatry erosion


a) Crown
b) Paltal veneer
c) Direct composite

60) If pt has pencelin allergy and cannot swallow clindamycin, which antibiotic is the best choice.
a) Azithromycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Amoxycillin
d) Tetyracycline

61) What is the correct flap design for apeciectomy


a) Apical reposition
b) Apex is broder than base
c) Base is broder than apex
c) Base is equal as apex.

62) Pt got metalic tast after oral meditation, the reason is


a) Oral dysthsia
b) Burning mouth syndrom .
b) Oral dysguesia

63) A 15 year old child and her mother are demanding veneers to close a gap. You feel that
orthodontic treatment would be better, how would you best rnanaqe the situation?
a) Arrange for a second opinion
a) Refuse to treat the patient
a) Treat according to the patient's wishes
b) Refer for an orthodontic opinion

64) The purpose of recording protrusive relation is


a) To register the condylar path and to adjust the' inclination of incisal guidance
b) To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination of incisal guidance
b) To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that
they are equal to the condylar paths of the patient
d) To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the condylar guides of the
articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient.

65) Regarding drug metabolism, which statement is FALSE?


a) Many are metabolised in the liver
b) The liver may bio-transform inert pro-drugs into more active metabolites

b) The kidney is the main site for drug excretion


r>.
d) After absorption of a drug in the GIT, it is distributed in the blood stream bound to
haemoglobin

66) Which is the best cantilever bridge for missing max canine, the abutment on
a) Both premolars
a) Lateral and Central Incisors
a) Lateral incisor
a) First premolar
67) Primary management of dry socket
a) Xray.irriqation and alveogyl
b) Irrigation and alveogel
c) Irrigation only

68) Patient has an over jet of above 9mm, which IOTN band it will be
a) Band 1
b) Band 2
c) Band 3
c)
Band 4
e)Band 5

69 The tratment of choice of patient with BPE 4* is


a) OHI and Scaling
b) Flap Surgery
c) OHI, scaling and root planning
d) OHI, scaling, surgical root planning and GTR
e) Scalling followed by Tunnel surgery under strong coverage of aneasthia

70) You have just completed conventional endodontics on UL7. The tooth had originally been
restored with an extensive MOD amalgam and is now significantly further weakened. What is the best
immediate restoration for this tooth?

a) Direct composite with cusp reduction


b) Direct composite with full cuspal coverage
c) Indirect composite or porcelain onlay
d) MOD amalgam with Nayyar core capping all cusps
e) Porcelain fused to metal crown on amalgam core

71) Ideal INR check if the pt is undergoing surgical removal of impacted 3rd molar
a) On day of operation
b) Within 24 hours
c) 72 hours

72) The lab must keep lab records of crowns produced for a minimum period of:
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) 5 years
e) 11 years

73) 2.2 mg of NaF contains how many mg of fluoride ions


a) 0.5 mg
b) 1 mg
c) 1.5 mg
d) 10 mg

74) The concentratrion of fluoride in topical NAF


a)2%
b) 5%

b)
8%
d)10%

75) 28.A Female patient with history of hip fracture and osteoporosis taking oral bisphosphonates
from about 2 years, no other medications. She want to extracf a tooth:
a) Extract with no alteration but advice to keep her mouth clean
b) Stop the drug 3 days before extraction after consultation with GP
c) Consider 3 months drug holiday after consultation with GP
d) Never to extract, RCT and crown amputation
e) Extract under antibiotic cover

76) A 13 YR OLD boy with Down's syndrome attends for the first time. He is co operative and has no
relevant medical history. He is caries free, apart from two small occlusal cavities in the lower second
primary molars. His mother requests that this teeth are restored. Which is the most appropriate
management?
a) Arranging to extract these teeth at future visit
b) Arranging to place two small restorations at a future visit
c) Reassure that these teeth can be left until they exfoliate naturally,with no treatment being

necessary
d) Recommending use of fluoride mouthwash
e) Take DTP to check on unerupted teeth.

77) Maximum Percentage of NO come out from Machine during Sedation is:
a) 10%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 30%
1\ e) 70%

78) according to the recent radiation protection recommendations, The annual dose limit for non-

classified workers shouldn't exceed:

a) 20 MSV
b) 50 MSV
c) 6 MSV
d) 26 MSV

79) On examination of four teeth in a sextant except for L4 has no bleeding on probing. What is the
BPE score

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

80) In dental epidemiology, The main limitation of DMF index is


a) It does not allow statistical analysis
b) It gives equal weight to decayed,missing,filled teeth
c) It is difficult to calibrate examiners
d) It is reversible
e) There is no gold standard

81) The artificial teeth in rpd are made of?


a) Porcelain
b) cross linked Methyl-Methacrylate
c) Ethyl ethacrylate
d) Acrylic

82) The advantage of the silicone in soft relining material over hard plastic acrylic material is
a) Capability to flow
b) Prevents th8' colonisation of candida
c) Resilient in long run
d) Better bond strength.
83) When a RPD is terminally seated, the retentive clasp tips should
a) Apply retentive force to the body
a) Exert no force
b) Be invisible
c) Resist torque through the long axis of the teeth

84) The biting load of a denture base to the gingival tissue compared to teeth are
a) Ten times more
b) Ten times less
c) Equal

85) Prognosis of cancer depend on:


a) Site of lesion
b) Size of lesion
c) Differentiation of lesion
d) Presence of metastasis.

86) Itching the enamel:


a) Remove the smear layer.
b) Remove enamel prisms.
c) Dose not effect enamel prism.

87) Most common complication with orthodontic treatment


a) Pulpitis
b) Root resorption
c) Tmj problem.

88) Which of the following interfere with contraceptive pills:


a) Carbamazbine
b) Alcohol
c) Ampicillin
d) Phenytoin

89) Important histological feature of carcinoma in situ.


a) Intact basement membrane.
b) Absence of metastasis.
c) Absence of connective tissues involvement.
90) Which one can not a dentist alter?
a) Incisal angle
b) Condylar angle
c) Condylar guidance

91) Best cement for minimal preparation metal crown?


a) GIC
b) Zinc Phodphate
c) RMGIC
d) Zinc polucarboxylate
e) Resin Cement

92) Cervical line and dark lines on Central incisors, molars and incisal edges, most possible reason
could be
a) Ameologensis
b) Dentinogenesis
b) Childhood illness
b) Hypoplasia

93) Which of following score will indicate asterix*


a) Recession of 6mm
b) 4mm recession plus 3mm pocket
c) 12mm pocket

94) Which of the following is important for long term retention of a gold crown:
a) Amount of reduction is about 1.5:1.8 mm
rr-;
b) Subgingival finish line
c) Sholder finish line
d) Margines must be in a sound tooth structure.

95) diabetic with abscess complain of failure of root canal therapy and during the examination the
filling was leaking? What the reason
. a) Lack of coronal seal
b) Lack of apical seal
c) Medical condition
96) The radiograph of choice for a new adult patient with BPE 4* and proximal decay is:
a) Full mouth vertical bitewings
b) Panoramic with selected periapicals
c) Panoramic with full mouth periapicals
d) Panorama with full mouth periapicals and selected bitewings
e) Full mouth periapicals and selected bitewings

97) When an individual is exposed to radiation a certain amount of radiation is needed


before clinical
signs of damage to somatic cells appear.
For these effects to occur a minimum radiation dose has to be exceeded and this is known
as:
a) Background radiation dose
b) Threshold dose
c) Equivalent dose
d) Absorbed dose
e) Effective

98) Which of the following gives best sedation:


a) NO/02 Mixture
b) 10mg Midazolam
c) Bolus injection of midazolam
d) Titrated injection of midazolam
e) Oral Diazepam 2 hours before operation

99) 52 Patients comes to you with an ulcer on the lateral border of his tongue. He wears a
lower full
denture and is complaining that his denture is loose and sore. How would you manage?
a) Refer the patient as an emergency case
b) Refer the patient to the oncologist
c) Relieve the denture and ask the patient to come in for a review
d) Send the patient to the Oral Maxillofacial surgery department
e) Take biopsy

100) The core subject for CPO in GDC Regiestration


a) medical emergiencies 5h , infection control 10h , Radiation protection 10h
b) medical emergiencies,5h , infection control 5h , Radiation protection 10h
c) medical emergiencies 10h , infection control 1 Oh , Radiation protection 20h
d) medical emergiencies 10 , infection control 5h , Radiation protection 5h
e) medical emergiencies 10h , infection control 10h , Radiation protection 5h