(Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana)
CONTENTS
YEAR 2007 TEST PAPER – 2 – 12
YEAR 2008 TEST PAPER – 13 – 23
YEAR 2009 TEST PAPER – 24 – 32
YEAR 2010 TEST PAPER – 33 – 41
YEAR 2011 TEST PAPER – 42 – 53
YEAR 2012 TEST PAPER – 54 – 64
YEAR 2013 TEST PAPER – 65 – 75
YEAR 2014 TEST PAPER – 76 – 86
YEAR 2015 TEST PAPER – 87 – 99
YEAR 2016 TEST PAPER – 100 – 110
HINTS & SOLUTION
YEAR 2007 SOLUTION – 111 – 122
YEAR 2008 SOLUTION – 123 – 131
YEAR 2009 SOLUTION – 132 – 140
YEAR 2010 SOLUTION – 141 – 152
YEAR 2011 SOLUTION – 153 – 165
YEAR 2012 SOLUTION – 166 – 179
YEAR 2013 SOLUTION – 180 – 194
YEAR 2014 SOLUTION – 195 – 209
YEAR 2015 SOLUTION – 210 – 224
YEAR 2016 ANSWER KEY – 225
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A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2007
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 20 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 21 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 40 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 41 to 50 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 51 to 60 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR2007 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTI (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Let s1 (n) be the sum of the first n terms of the arithmetic progression 8, 12, 16, ....... and let s2(n) be the
sum of the first n terms of arithmetic progression 17, 19, 21 ......... If for some value of n, s1(n) = s2(n) then
this common sum is :
(A) not uniquely determinable (B) 260
(C) 216 (D) 200
2. The number of solutions are in [0, 2] such that (sin(2x))4 = 1/8 is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
3. The set of real numbers r satisfying :
3.r 2 – 8.r 5
0
4.r 2 – 3.r 7
is
(A) the set of all real numbers
(B) the set of all positive real numbers
(C) the set of all real numbers strictly between 1 and 5/3
(D) the set of all real numbers which are either less than 1 or greater than 5/3
4. If a, b and c are distinct real numbers such that a : (b + c) = b : (c + a) then
(A) a, b, c are all positive (B) a, b, c are all negative
(C) a + b + c = 0 (D) ab + bc + ca + 1 = 0
5. How many positive real numbers x are there such that x x x
?
x x
x
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) infinite
6. Let [x] denote the greatest integer part of a real number x. If
40
n2
M
2
n1
then M equals
(A) 5700 (B) 5720 (C) 5740 (D) 11060
7. Suppose for fixed real numbers a and b.f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c
has 3 distinct roots for c = 0. Then
(A) fc(x) has 3 distinct roots for all real c
(B) fc(x) has 3 distinct roots for all real c > 0 or for all real c < 0, but not for both
(C) f c(x) has 3 distinct roots for all real c in (p, q) for some p < 0 and q > 0
(D) fc(x) need not have 3 distinct roots for any real c other than zero
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8. Given a semicircle of radius 1, let a be the side of an equilateral triangle which is inscribed in the semicircle
with its vertices on the boundary of the semicircle (boundary includes the bounding diameter also). Then
the set of possible values of a is
(A) {1}
2
(B) {1, }
3
2
(C) the set of all positive real numbers not exceeding
3
2
(D) the set of all real numbers which are greater than or equal to 1, but less than or equal to
3
9. A ray of light originating at the vertex A of a square ABCD passes through the vertex B after getting reflected
by BC, CD and DA in that order. If is the angle of the initial position of the ray with AB then sin equals.
(A) 2 / 13 (B) 3 / 13 (C) 3/5 (D) 4/5
10. Let ABC be triangle with AB = AC = 6. If the circumradius of the triangle is 5, then BC equals
(A) 25/3 (B) 9 (C) 48/5 (D) 10
11. Let D and E be points on sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC such that
(A) DE is parallel to BC
(B) DE divides the area of the triangle ABC into two equal parts.
The ratio of the distance from A to DE to the distance between DE and BC is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 2 :1 (D) 2 + 1 :
1
12. If and are acute angles such that cos2 + cos2 = 3/2 and sin . sin = 1/4, then + equals
(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) 60° (D) 90°
13. There is a point inside an equilateral triangle which is at distances 1, 2 and 3 from the three sides. The area
of the triangle is
(A) not uniquely determinable (B) 6
(C) 6 3 (D) 12 3
14. The wealth of a person A equals the sum of that of B and C . If he distributes half of his wealth between
B and C in the ratio 2 : 1 then the wealth of B equals the sum of that of A and C. Then the fraction of the
wealth that A should distribute between B and C in the ratio 1 : 2 so that the wealth of C equals the sum of
that of A and B is
(A) 1/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/4 (D) 1
15. You have a measuring cup with capacity 25 ml and another with capacity 110 ml, the cups have no
markings showing intermediate volumes. Using large container and as much tap water as you wish. What
is the smallest amount of water you can measure accurately ?
(A) 1 ml (B) 5 ml (C) 10 ml (D) 25 ml
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16. A person travels in a car from his village to a town at a speed of 50 kms/hr for four hours. There he spends
an hour moving about 20 kms. He then returns to his village at a speed 40 kms/hr. His average speed over
the whole journey (in kms/hr) is
4 2
(A) 44 (B) 42 (C) 44 (D) 46
9 3
17. There are 20 unit cubes all of whose faces are white, and 44 unit cubes all of whose faces are red. They
are put together to form a bigger cube (4 × 4 × 4). What is the minimum number of white faces visible on
this larger cube ?
(A) 20 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 8
18. The number of 2digit numbers n such that 3 divides n – 2 and 5 divides n – 3 is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 10
19. Let m be the number of ways in which two couples can be seated on 4 chairs in a row so that no wife is next
to her husband and n be the number of ways in which they can be seated in 4 chairs in a circle. In the latter
case, rotations are considered different configurations. Then
(A) m = n (B) m = 2n (C) m = 4n (D) m = 8n
20. A certain school has 300 students. Every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60
students. Then the number of newspapers.
(A) is at least 30 (B) is at most 20
(C) is exactly 25 (D) cannot be determined by the data
PHYSICS
21. A fully loaded elevator has a mass of 6000 kg. The tension in the cable as the elevator is accelerated
downward with an acceleration of 2ms–2 is (Take g = I0 ms–2)
(A) 7·2 × 104 N (B) 4.8 × 104 N (C) 6 × 104 N (D) 1.2 × 104 N
22. A body is moving with constant acceleration from A to B in a straight line. C is the midpoint of AB. If u and
v are the speeds at A and B respectively. The speed at C is
uv v–u u2 v 2 v 2 – u2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
23.
, A ray of light enters a slab of material with increasing refractive index. Four possibilities of the trajectory of
the ray are shown below.
Slab with
increasing
Refractive
index
A B C D
The correct choice is :
(A) A (B) B (C) C ( D) D
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24. 238
The isotope U92 decays through a chain of and emissions ending up at the product Pb82
206
. This chain
involves
(A) 8 emission and 6 emissions
(B) 8 emission and 8 emissions
(C) 6 emission and 8 emissions
(D) 6 emission and 6 emissions
25. Figure shows an assembly consisting of a number of pendulums of varying lengths. The driver pendulum is
pulled aside and released so that it oscillates in a plane perpendicular to that of the diagram. It will be
observed that
String
Driver
pendulum
(A) all pendulums oscillate with the frequency of the driver pendulum and have the same amplitude.
(B) pendulums oscillate with different frequencies but equal amplitude, the shortest pendulum oscillating
with the highest frequency.
(C) all pendulums oscillate with the frequency of the driver pendulum; the pendulum with length equal to that
of the driver has the greatest amplitude.
(D) pendulums oscillate with different frequencies and different amplitudes.
26. You are riding on your bicycle with inflated tyres. Your friend asks for a lift and sits on the carrier behind
you :
(A) The air pressure in the tyres increases.
(B) The air pressure in the tyres decreases.
(C) The air pressure in the tyres remains the same.
(D) Nothing in the system changes except the reaction of the ground
27. The circuit shown has 3 identical light bulbs A, B, C and 2 identical batteries E1, E2 . When the switch is
open, A and B glow with equal brightness. When the switch is closed:
C
E1 A
S
E2 B
(A) A and B will maintain their brightness and C will be dimmer than A and B.
(B) A and B will become dimmer and C will be brighter than A and B.
(C) A and B will maintain their brightness and C will not glow.
(D) A, B and C will be equally bright.
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28. A boat at rest has two persons of unequal weights seated at either end. If they walk across the boat and
interchange their positions,
(A) the boat will move in the direction of walking of the lighter person.
(B) the boat will move in the direction of walking of the heavier person.
(C) the boat will not move at all.
(D) the boat will oscillate about a mean position and stop once the persons have moved to the new positions.
29. A physical quantity that is conserved in a process
(A) must have the same value for all observers.
(B) can never take negative values.
(C) must be dimensionless.
(D) need not necessarily be a scalar.
30. A coolant in a chemical or nuclear plant is a liquid that is used to prevent different parts of a plant from
getting too hot. One important property of coolant is that it
(A) should have low specific heat.
(B) should have high specific heat.
(C) high density and low thermal conductivity.
(D) low density and high thermal conductivity.
CHEMISTRY
60 60
31. The halflife of 27 Co is 5.3 years. How much of 20 g of 27 Co will remain radioactive after 21.2 years ?
(A) 10 g (B) 1.25 g (C) 2.5 g (D) 3.0 g
32. The element which reacts both with acids and bases to produce a salt and hydrogen gas is 
(A) Zn (B) Mg (C) Li (D) S
33. The compound having a triple bond is 
(A) Benzene (B) Cyclohexane (C) Acetylene (D) Glucose
34. An element which has 2 electrons less than that in Ne is 
(A) Mg (B) Na (C) O (D) F
35. Chlorine gas is produced from HCI by the addition of 
(A) K2SO4 (B) KCl (C) KNO3 (D) KMnO4
36. Among HCl, HBr, HF, and HI the weakest acid in water is 
(A) HCl (B) HF (C) HBr (D) HI
37. Products of the reaction Ca(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl, are
(A) CaCI2 + 2NH3 + 2H2O (B) CaCl2 + NH4OH + H2
(C) CaO + 2NH3 + 2H2O (D) CaO + NH4OH + H2
38. When a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid are added to a few drops of a clear sugar (sucrose)
solution in a test tube, the solution
(A) remains colorless (B) turns black (C) turns blue (D) turns white
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39. The reaction ZnO + C Zn + CO is an example of a
(A) Combination reaction (B) Reductionoxidation reaction
(C) Displacement reaction (D) Decomposition Reaction
40. The monomer of Teflon is :
F F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CN F F
Me Cl
BIOLOGY
41. In a wound, 'pus' is a :
(A) A mixture of destroyed germs, killed leucocytes and damaged tissue cells
(B) Concentrated blood plasma
(C) Thick mucus secretion
(D) Concentrated secretion of the sebaceous gland
42. Discovery of fossils has provided biologists with significant clues as in the steps in evolution. Archaeopteryx
one such example, which is connection link between :
(A) Pisces and amphibian (B) Amphibia and reptilia
(C) Reptilia and aves (D) Aves and mammalian
43. Which of the following is a bacterial disease ?
(A) Smallpox (B) Measles (C) Meningitis (D) Rabies
44. During photosynthesis, light energy :
(A) Is converted to chemical energy (B) Is converted to kinetic energy
(C) Is the catalyst (D) Dissociates CO2 directly
45. Majority of the world population depends largely on the following for their staple food :
(A) Fungi and algae (B) Animal products
(C) Dicotyledenous (D) Monocotyledenous plants
46. If you put a nail at the middle of a young plant and allow it to grow, then :
(A) You will find the nail at the same position after the tree is fully grown
(B) The nail will fall out
(C) The nail will rise along with the tree
(D) The nail will come closer to the ground
47. If you are asked to write on a topic of interest, you can read as many books as you want but never copy
someone else's writing on the same topic. The act is called plagiarism and is morally incorrect, as :
(A) You are stealing someone else's labor (B) It is a punishable offence in court
(C) You have not paid money to do so (D) A patent exists on the writing
48. A couple has 8 children, all boys. What is the chance that their ninth child will be another boy ?
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/8 (D) 1/16
49. Grapes were put in a concentrated sugar solution. On examination after 12 hours, the grapes were shrunken.
This is because :
(A) Grapes become sweeter (B) Water evaporates from the solution
(C) Sugar induces disintegration of grapes (D) Loss of water from grapes by osmosis
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50. On a normal sunny day, rate of photosynthesis (per unit time) is maximum during :
(A) Early morning (B) Between late morning to before noon
(C) Midday (D) Late evening
PARTII (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
51. The number of distinct pairs (x, y) of the real numbers satisfying x = x3 + y4 and y = 2xy is :
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 3 (D) 7
52. We want to find a polynomial f(x) of degree n such that f(1) = 2 and f(3) = . Which of the following is
true ?
(A) There does not exist such a polynomial
(B) There is exactly one such polynomial and it has degree 1
(C) There are infinitely many such polynomials for each n 1
(D) There are infinitely many such polynomials for each n 2 but not infinitely many for n = 1
53. A polynomial p(x) when divided by x2 – 3x + 2 leaves remainder 2x – 3. Then :
(A) p(x) must have a root between 0 and 3
(B) p(x) cannot have a root between 0 and 3
(C) p(x) must have a real root but may or may not be between 0 and 3
(D) p(x) need not have a real root
54. In a rectangle ABCD , M and N are the midpoints of the sides BC and CD respectively. If ANM = 90° then AB
: BC is :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 2 :1 (C) 3 :1 (D) 1: 1
55. Consider the triangle OAB in the xy  plane where O = (0, 0), A = (6, 0), B = 2,3 . A square PQRS is
inscribed in the square with P, Q on OA, R on AB and S on BO. Then the side of the square equals:
9 3 5
(A) 3 / 2 (B) (C) (D) 2
4 2 2
56. Let a semicircle with centre O and diameter AB. Let P and Q be points on the semicircle and R be a point on
AB extended such that OA = QR < PR. If POA = 102° then PRA is :
(A) 51° (B) 34°
(C) 25.5° (D) not possible to be determined
57. Let A, B, C, D be collinear points in that order. Suppose AB : CD = 3 : 2 and BC : AD = 1 : 5. Then AC : BD
is :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 11 : 10 (C) 16 : 11 (D) 17 : 13
58. Given a sphere, a cone is constructed so that the cone and the sphere have the same volume, but the total
surface area of the cone is k times that of the sphere, where k is determined so that there is a unique cone
satisfying this property. Then k equals :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 3
2
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59. How many 4digit numbers are there with the property that it is a square and the number obtained by
increasing all its digits by 1 is also a square ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
60. The number of positive fractions m/n such that 1/3 < m/n < 1 and having the property that the fraction
remains the same by adding some positive integer to the numerator and multiplying the denominator by the
same positive integer is :
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) infinite
PHYSICS
61. The rear wheels of a car are turning at an angular speed of 60 rad/s. The brakes are applied for 5s,
causing a uniform angular retardation of 8 rads–2. The number of revolutions turned by the rear wheels
during the braking period is about
(A) 48 (B) 96 (C) 32 (D) 12
62. The energy released in a modest size atomic bomb (20 kiloton) is about 1014 J. On a monsoon day in
Mumbai, there was a heavy rainfall of about 100 cm over an area of about 100 km 2. The energy released in
the atmosphere on that day is roughly equivalent to that released in
(A) 2000 atomic bombs. (B) 100 atomic bombs
(C) atomic bomb (D) negligible compared to an atomic bomb.
63. A battery of 10 V and negligible internal resistance is connected across the diagonally opposite corncr of a
cubical network consisting of 12 resistors each of resistance 1 . The total current I in the circuit external
to the network is :
A
10V
(A) 0.83 A (B) 12 A (C) 1 A (D) 4 A
64. Light incident on a rotating mirror M is reflected to a fixed mirror N placed 22.5 km away from M. The fixed
mirror reflects it back to M (along the same path) which in turn reflects the light again along a direction that
makes an angle of 27° with the incident direction. The speed of rotation of the mirror is:
(A) 250 revolutions s–1 (B) 500 revolutions s–1
–1
(C) 1000 revolutions s (D) 125 revolutions s–1
65. In aerial mapping a camera uses a lens with a 100 cm focal length. The height at which the airplane must
fly, so that the photograph of a 1 km long strip on the graund fits exactly on Ihe 20 cm long filmstrip of the
camera, is:
(A) 200 km (B) 20km (C) 5 km (D) 1 km
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CHEMISTRY
66. A 3 N solution of H2SO4 in water is prepared from Conc. H2SO4 (36 N) by diluting 
(A) 20 ml of the conc. H2SO4 to 240 ml (B) 10 ml of the conc. H2SO4 to 240 ml
(C) 1 ml of the conc. H2SO4 to 36 ml (D) 20 ml of the conc. H2SO4 to 36 ml
67. The gas responsible for under water corrosion of iron and the product of corrosion, respectively, are 
(A) Dissolved oxygen and Fe2O3 (B) Dissolved hydrogen and Fe2O3
(C) Dissolved oxygen and Fe(OH)3 (D) Dissolved nitrogen and Fe(OH)3
68. The solubility curve of KNO3 as a function of temperature is given below
250
Solubility (g/100 ml water)
200
150
100
50
0
0 20 40 60 80 100
Temperature (°C)
The amount of KNO3 that will crystallize when a saturated solution of KNO3 in 100 ml of water is cooled from
90°C to 30 °C, is
(A) 16 g (B) 100 g (C) 56 g (D)160 g
69. In the reaction.
yeast X KMnO 4 Y
Glucose
the products X and Y, respectively, are 
(A) EtOH, CH3COOH (B) MeOH, HCOOH
(C) EtOH, CH3CHO (D) EtOH, HOCH2CH2OH
70. A sample of water was checked for suitability for drinking and was subjected to a chemical test. Pure zinc
granules and sulphuric acid were added to the water sample. The effervescence that resulted from the
reaction was bubbled through a tube containing lead acetate solution. A black precipitate appeared. The
outgoing gas was subsequently passed through a heated copper tube, a black mirror appeared on the wall
of the tube. The first and second black substances, respectively, are :
(A) HgS and CuS (B) PbS and CuS (C) As and Hg (D) PbS and As
BIOLOGY
71. A swimmer crossing the British channel after 2 hrs of vigorous swimming experiences severe muscle
armors and is forced to discontinue. Which of the following options given' below could give rise to this
problem :
(A) Muscle tear (B) Sea winter diffusion into muscles
(C) Bite of pirranahas (D) Lactic acid accumulation
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72. In an experiment to monitor the ascent of sap, the following treatments were carried out to a twig dipped in
water. In which case wilting will be observed ?
(A) Bark removed (B) Pith removed
(C) Twig cut into half (D) Glucose added to water
73. Root pressure on a tree is typically about 26 atm. This is sufficient to raise the water level upto a few feet.
Tall trees get water at the top due to :
(A) Capillary rise and suction (B) A pump operating in the growing tree
(C) Fed by rain water (D) Water content in the atmosphere
74. A patient given broad spectrum antibiotic suffered from vitamin deficiency because :
(A) Antibiotic inactivated the vitamins
(B) Antibiotic inhibited the synthesis of vitamins
(C) Antibiotics killed the commensals in the gut which produced vitamins
(D) Antibiotics killed the vitamin producing cells in liver
75. Partial removal of liver is not harmful because :
(A) Liver being a large organ can suffice the functions even if a part is removed
(B) Liver is not a very essential organ of the body
(C) Liver has regenerative capacity and will grow after partial hepatectomy
(D) The function of liver can be taken over by kidneys
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2008
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR2008 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTI (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. If a and b are any two real numbers with opposite signs, which of the following is the greatest ?
(A) (a–b)2 (B) (a – b)2 (C) a2 – b2 (D) a2 + b2
2. The sum of the infinite series :
1 2 3 n
2 3 ... n ....
10 10 10 10
1 10 1 17
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 81 8 22
3. The number (1024)1024 is obtained by raising (16)16 to the power n. What is the value of n ?
(A) 64 (B) 642 (C) 6464 (D) 160
4. The smallest value the expression x2 + 6x+ 8 attains on the set { x R  x2 – 2x – 8 0} is
(A) 0 (B) –1 (C) 8 (D) 3
5. Let P1 be the set of all prime numbers, i.e., P1 = {2, 3, 5, 7,11, . . .}, Let Pn = {np  p P1}, i.e., the set of
all prime multiples of n. Then which of the following sets is non empty ?
(A) P1 P23 (B) P7 P21 (C) P12 P20 (D) P20 P24
6. The number of integers a such that 1 a 100 and aa is a perfect square is :
(A) 50 (B) 53 (C) 55 (D) 56
7. On a card, the following three statements are found :
(1) On this card exactly one statement is false.
(2) On this card exactly two statements arc false.
(3) On this card exactly three statements are false.
The number of false statements on the card is exactly
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
8. In triangle ABC, with A = 90°, the bisectors of the angles B and C meet at P. The distance from P to the
hypotenuse is 4 2 . The distance AP is :
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 8 2 (D) 4 2
9. In a rhombus one of the diagonals is twice the other diagonal. Let A be the area of the rhombus in square
units. Then each side of the rhombus is :
1 1 1
(A) A (B) 2A (C) 5A (D) 4A
2 2 4
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10. In the following figure, AE = EB, BD = 2DC What is the ratio of the areas of PED and ABC ?
A
E
P
B C
D
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 6 9 12
11. Let P be a point in the interior of the rectangle ABCD Which of the following sets of numbers can form the
areas of the four triangles PAB, PBC, PCD, PDA in same order ?
(A) 10,9,12,5 (B) 21,15,6,12 (C) 10,9,8,6 (D) 12,8,7,5
12. The sum of 7 consecutive positive integers is equal to the sum of the next five consecutive integers. What is
the largest among the 12 numbers ?
(A) 24 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D 21
13. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many
minutes will it take to fill the empty tanker if only B is used in the firsthalf of the time and A and B are both
used in the secondhalf of the time ?
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 27.5 (D) 30
14. Let 0 < a < b < c be 3 distinct digits. The sum of all 3digit numbers formed by using all the 3 digits once
each is 1554. The value of c is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
15. Let a sequence have 200 zeroes to start with. In step 1, to every position in the sequence we add1. In
step2, to every even position in the sequence we add1. In step 3, to every position which is a multiple of 3,
we add 1. This is continued up to 200th step. After the 200th step, what will be the value in the 128th
position ?
(A) 8 (B ) 16 (C) 128 (D) 200
PHYSICS
16. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a certain initial velocity. Assume that there is no resistance due to
air. Among the graphs below, the graph that is not an appropriate representation of the motion of the ball is
:
Potential Energy
Potential Energy
Kinetic Energy
Kinetic Energy
(i) (ii) ) (iii) (iv)
Time Time Height of the ball Speed of the ball
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
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17. An electron of mass me initially at rest takes time t1 to move a distance s in a uniform electric field in the
same field environment, a proton of mass mp initially at rest takes time t2 to move the same distance (in the
opposite direction). lgnoring gravity, the ratio t2/t1 is :
1/ 2
me mp
1/ 2
mp
(A) 1 (B)
(C) (D)
mp me me
18. A simple camera with a converging lens of 60 mm focal length is focused on very far objects. To focus the
camera on a nearby object 1.5 m away, the distance between the film and lens will have to be:
(A) decreased by 2.5 mm
(B) increased by 2.5 mm
(C) kept fixed as before. but aperture increased by a factor of 2.5
(D) kept fixed as before, hut aperture decreased by a factor of 2.5
19. A molecule of gas in a container hits one wall (1) normally and rebounds back. It suffers no collision and
hits the opposite wall (2) which is at an angle of 30º with wall 1.
Wall 1
30º
Wall 2
Assuming the collisions to be elastic and the small collision time to be the same for both the walls, the
magnitude of average force by wall 2. (F2) provided to the molecule during collision satisfy :
(A) F1 > F2 (B) F1 < F2
(C) F1 = F2, both nonzero (D) F1 = F2 = 0
20. A stone dropped from the window of a stationary train hits the ground and comes to rest. An identical stone
is dropped from the window when the same train is moving with speed v and it comes to rest on the ground.
Assume that in each case, the entire energy lost in impact goes into heating the stone. Then
(A) The first stone is is slightly more heated than the second.
(B) The second stone is slightly more heated than the first.
(C) Both the stones will be raised to the same slightly higher) temperature.
(D) The second stone will be slightly more heated than the first only if its horizontal speed during fall is more
than the final vertical speed.
21. A negatively charged particle initially at rest is placed in an electric field that varies from point to point.
There are no other fields. Then :
(A) the particle moves along the electric line of force passing through it.
(B) the particle moves opposite to the electric line of force passing through it.
(C) the direction of acceleration of the particle is tangential to the electric line of force at every instant.
(D) the direction of acceleration of the particle is normal to the electric line of force at every instant.
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22. There is a steady water flow in a horizontal tube in which one part has cross sectional area A1 and the other
part has cross sectional area A2. Assume that water is incompressible.
If A1/A2 = 16, the ratio of the speed u1 in part 1 and the speed u2 in part 2, i.e. u1/u2 is :
1 1
(A) (B) 4 (C) (D) 1
16 4
23. Positive point charges of magnitude are placed at all the twelve ‘hour’ positions of a clock of radius r. The
clock is mounted on a wall in the normal way. The charge at the position ‘6’ is removed. The resulting
electric field at the centre of the clock is :
1 q
(A) 0 (B) 4 2 in the horizontal direction.
o r
1 q 1 q
(C) 4 2 vertically upward. (D) 4 2 vertically downward
o r o r
24. The pair of quantities that do not have the same dimensions is :
(A) Latent heat, specific heat
(B) Gravitational force, Coulomb force
(C) Kinetic energy pf a freely falling body, potential energy of a compressed spring
(D) Coefficient of friction, number of molecules in a container.
25. A block of wood is floating on oil with half of its volume submerged. If the density of oil 840 kg m –3, the
relative density of wood (relative to water) is :
(A) 0.84 (B) 0.42 (C) 0.21 (D) 1.00
26. We are given n resistors, each of resistance R. The ratio of the maximum to minimum resistance that can
be obtained by combining them is :
(A) nn (B) n (C) n2 (D) logn
27. A light string goes over a frictionless polley. At its one end hangs a mass of 2 kg and at the other end hangs
a mass of 6 kg. Both the masses are supported by hands to keep them at rest. When the masses are
released, they being to move and the string gets taut.
(Take g = 10 ms–2) The tension in the string during the motion of the masses is :
(A) 60 N (B) 30 N (C) 20 N (D) 40 N
28. The escape speed of a body from the earth regarded as a uniform (nonrotating) sphere depends on :
(A) the mass of the body.
(B) the direction of projection.
(C) the location of the projection on the earth's surface.
(D) the height of location from the earth’s surface from where the body is launched.
29 . On a day during the Monsoon season, the relative humidity at a place is 90% and the temperature is 15°(C)
The saturation vapour pressure of water at this temperature is 0.0169 × 105 Pa. The partial pressure of water
vapour in the air on that day is
(A) 0.9 × 105 Pa (B) 0.0169 × 105 Pa (C) 0.0152 x 105 Pa (D) 1.0 x 105 Pa
30. It is now known that a proton and a neutron consist of three elementary units called 'quarks'. Two types of
2 1
quarks are involved: the 'up' quark (u) of charge + e and the ‘down’ quark (d) of charge – e, where e
3 3
is the magnitude of election's charge. u and d are their antiparticles. An antiparticle has the same
magnitude of charge as the particle but of opposite sign. The possible compositions of a proton and a
neutron are :
(A) p : uud ; n: udd
(B) p : uuu ; n: ddd
(C) p : uu d ; n: ud d
(D) p : uu u ; n: ud d
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CHEMISTRY
31. The volume of 0.5 M aqueous NaOH solution required to neutralize 10 ml of 2 M aqueous HCl solution is:
(A) 20ml (B) 40ml (C) 80ml (D) 120ml
32. The compound that can be purified by sublimation is :
(A) Ammonium Sulphate (B) Calcium Carbonate
(C) Calcium Oxide (D) Aluminium Chloride
33. Penicillin was discovered by :
(A) Alexander G. Fleming (B) Emil Fisher
(C) Robert B. Woodward (D) van’t Hoff
34. Among butane,1butene,1butanol and butanal, the compound which is most polar is
(A) butane (B) 1butene (C) 1butanol (D) butanal
35. Among ethanol, dimethyl ether, methanol, and propanal, the isomers are :
(A) ethanol, dimethyl ether, methanol and propanal
(B) ethanol and methanol
(C) ethanol, dimethyl ether, and methanol
(D) ethanol and dimethyl ether
36. Among Li, Be, N and F, the element having the largest atomic radius, is :
(A) Li (B) Be (C) N (D) F
37. The proof of oxidizing action of hydrogen peroxide in acid solution is in the formation of :
(A) O2 (B) H2O
(C) both H2O and O2 (D) both H3O+ and O2
38. A gel toothpaste is a mixture of a :
(A) liquid in a solid (B) solid in a gas (C) liquid in a liquid (D) gas in a solid
39. 3.01×1023 molecules of elemental Sulphur will react with 0.5 mole of oxygen gas completely to produce
(A) 6.02 × 1023 molecules of SO3 (B) 6.02 × 1023 molecules of SO2
(C) 3.01 × 1023 molecules of SO3 (D) 3.01 x 1023 molecules of SO2
40. The pair of metals which will produce hydrogen gas in reaction with acid is :
(A) Mg, Cu (B) Mg, Ag (C) Zn, Pb (D) Cu, Zn
41. The correct order of pH is :
(A) Lemon juice < water < Milk of Magnesia (B) Lemon juice > water > Milk of Magnesia
(C) Water > lemon juice > milk of Magnesia (D) Milk of Magnesia > lemon juice > water
42. The solubility of a gas in a solution is measured in three cases as shown in the figure given below where w
is the weight of a solid slab placed on the top of the cylinder lid. The solubility will follow the order :
w w w w w w
gas gas
gas
solution solution solution
(A) a > b > c (B) a < b < c (C) a = b = c (D) a >b < c
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43. A Daniel cell converts :
(A) electrical energy to chemical energy (B) chemical energy to electrical energy
(C) mechanical energy to chemical energy (D) potential energy to electrical energy
44. One of the major components in compressed natural gas (CNG) is :
(A) carbon dioxide (B) acetylene (C) methane (D) water gas
45. Dehydration of 2pentanol gives :
(A) pentane (B) Only 1pentene
(C) Only 2pentene (D) A mixture of 1pentene and 2pentene
BIOLOGY
46. A cancer which is not a tumor is :
(A) Lymphoma (B) Leukemia (C) Prostate cancer (D) Oral cancer
47. The phase of the cell cycle in which DNA synthesis takes place is :
(A) G1 phase (B) S phase (C) G2 phase (D) G0 phase
48. You have a tube containing 102 bacteria. You have taken out 102 bacteria. How many bacteria are left in the
tube ?
(A) approximately 107 (B) approximately 106 (C) approximately 105 (D) approximately 109
49. Association in which both the organisms get benefited is :
(A) Commensalism (B) Mutualism (C) Ammensalism (D) Parasitism
50. You are part of a scientific expedition that has ventured deep into the Amazon rain forest. You spot a tree
with branches spread over a large area. What can you conclude about the root structure of the tree?
(A) It is dicotyledonous
(B) It is monocotyledonous
(C) It may be either monocotyledonous or dicotyledonous
(D) There is no correlation between foliage and root structure
51. Alleles are :
(A) Different forms of the same protein (B) Two different genes
(C) Different forms of the same gene (D) Two different proteins
52. Diet rich in carotenoids is beneficial because :
(A) They act as free radical scavengers (B) They absorb harmful UV rays
(C) They help in curing cancer (D) They are rich source of iron
53. The amount of CO2 in plant is greater at night than during the day because :
(A) The rate of respiration is higher at night.
(B) More CO2 is produced because it is colder during the night.
(C) Photosynthesis during the day uses up some of the CO2 produced by respiration.
(D) More glucose is available for respiration during the night
54. Osmosis takes place between two solutions separated by a semipermeable membrane because.
(A) Water molecules move from the more dilute solution to the less dilute solution
(B) Solute molecules move from the less dilute solution to the more dilute solution
(C) Water molecules move from the less dilute solution to the more dilute solution
(D) Solute molecules move from the more dilute solution to the less dilute solution
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55. Arteries do not have valves but veins do, because :
(A) Arteries have a narrower lumen than veins
(B) Arteries have thicker walls than veins
(C) Arteries carry oxygenated blood whereas veins carry deoxygenated blood
(D) Valves prevent backflow of blood in veins
56. If a person's spinal cord is injured which of the following functions might be affected ?
(A) Talking (B) Seeing (C) Sneezing (D) Hearing
57. Use of an insecticide in an island made a certain insect species extinct. A few years later a tree species
was also found to be extinct. This may be because :
(A) The tree is pollinated by the insect (B) The insect used to live on the tree
(C) The insect used to eat the leaves of the tree (D) The tree is insectivorous
58. Why is it advisable to take antibiotics if someone is suffering from gastric ulcers ?
(A) Antibiotics reduce gastric acid secretion (B) antibiotics prevent ulcers from being infected
(C) Antibiotics reduce gastric enzyme secretion (D) Gastric ulcers are caused by bacteria
59. You are synthesizing a 5 amino acid containing peptide from the pool of 20 standard amino acids by
choosing amino acids randomly. What is the probability of selecting Gly–Gly–GlyGly
(A) 0 (B) 1/205 (C) 1/20 (D) 1/(20 × 5)
60. The appropriate description of animal hormones is,
(A) Have size smaller than 5 kDa (B) Comprise of proteins only
(C) Comprise of lipid molecule only (D) Are pour directly into the blood
PARTII (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
61. Five real numbers x1, x2, x3, x4, x5 are such that :
x1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5
x1 1 2 x 2 4 3 x 3 9 4 x 4 16 + 5 x 5 25 =
2
x1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5
The value of is
2
(A) not uniquely determined (B) 55
(C) 110 (D) 210
62. The coefficient of x30 in the expansion of :
(1 + 2x + 3x2 + .... 21x20)2 is :
(A) 2706 (B) 2450 (C) 1481 (D) 256
63. A billiards table of grid size 8 × 10 has four holes in the A, B, C, D. A ball starting from the point P on the
side AD, as in the figure, strikes against CD at an angle’ 45°, gets reflected and moves on striking against
the other sides. Which hole will the ball fall into ?
D C
P
A B
(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) no hole
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64. In triangle ABC, the coordinates of A and B are respectively (2,3) and (8,10). It is known that C also has
integer coordinates. The minimum possible area of ABC is :
1 3
(A) 0 (B) (C) 1 (D)
2 2
65. A shopkeeper increases the price of a commodity by x%. some time later, he reduces the new price by
1 1
y% and notices that the price is now the same as it was originally. The value of is :
y x
1 1
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D) not uniquely determinable
100 100
PHYSICS
66. An Insulated vessel contains 0.4 kg of warer at 0ºC. A piece of 0.1 kg ice at –15°C is put into it and steam
at 100ºC is bubbled into it until all ice is melted and finally the contents are liquid water at 40ºC. Assume that
the vessel does not give or take any heat and there is no loss of matter and heat to the surroundings.
Specific heat of ice is 2.2 × 10 3 J kg1K1, heat of fusion of water is 333 × 10 3 J kg–1 and heat of
vaporization of water is 2260 × 103 J kg–1. The amount of steam that was bubbled into the water is about :
(A) 34.7 gram (B) 236.0 gram (C) 0.023 gram (D) 48.0 gram
67. A light source is placed 100 cm away from a screen. A converging lens placed at a certain position between
the source and the screen focuses the image of the source on the screen. The lens is moved a distance of
40 cm and it is found that it again focuses the image of the source on the screen. The focal length of the
lens is :
(A) 21 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 40 cm (D) 67 cm
68. A rubber pipe with a diameter of 10 cm is connected to a nozzle 2 cm in diameter. Water flowing through
the. pipe at a speed of 0.6 ms–1, comes out like a jet through the nozzle. The backward force of the nozzle
is about :
(A) 7.7 N (B) 67.9 N (C) zero (D) 2.8 N
69. A power supply of fixed emf E is connected to a variable resistor (resistance = R) and an ammeter of
resistance RA. The internal resistance of the supply is r. The potential difference bctween the terminals of
the power supply in closed circuit is denoted by V and the current in the circuit is denoted by I. A graph is
obtained between V and I by drawing varying amount of current from the supply. The correct VI graph for
the given situation is :
V V V
E
E
V
I
E/r I I I E/r
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) Graph 1 (B) Graph II (C) Graph III (D) Graph IV
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70. A thermometer uses ‘density of water’ as thermometric property. The actual reading in the thermometer is
‘height of water’(h) which is inversely proportional to density of water (d). In a certain temperature range,
density of water varies with temperature as shown. The graph is symmetric about the maximum
d T1 T2
D ensity of w ater
Tempeature
Two identical bodies (of same mass and specific heat) at different temperatures T1 and T2 show the same
reading of height h1 = h2 in the thermometer. The bodies are brought into contact and allowed to reach
thermal equilibrium. The thermometer reading ‘height of water for final equilibrium state h1 satisfies.
h1 h2
(A) hf = = h1 h2
2
(B) hf > h1 = h2
(C) hf < h1 = h2
(D) hf may be greater or less than h1 = h2 , depending on the specific heat of the bodies.
CHEMISTRY
71. The density of a salt solution is1.13 g cm –3 and it contains 18% of NaCI by weight. The volume of the
solution containing 36.0 g of the salt will be :
(A) 200 cm3 (B) 217 cm3 (C) 177 cm3 (D) 157cm3
72. Esterification of a compound ‘’X’’ with molecular formula C3H6O2 with an alcohol ‘’Y’’ produces a com
pound with molecular formula C5H10O2. X and Y, respectively, are :
(A) propanoic acid and methanol (B) propanoic acid and ethanol
(C) acetic acid and ethanol (D) butyric acid and methanol
73. 10 g of a crystalline metal sulphate salt when heated generates approximately 6.4 g of an anhydrous salt of
the same metal. The molecular weight of the anhydrous salt is 160 g. The number of water molecules
present in the crystal is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
74. In the reaction of FeSO4 with K2Cr2O7 in the presence of an acid, the changes in the formal oxidation
numbers of Cr and Fe, respectively, are :
(A) 1 and 5 (B) 3 and 1 (C) 5 and 1 (D) 1 and 3
75. An aqueous solution of a metal salt (X) reacts with carbon dioxide to give a water soluble compound (Y)
which on heating gives the starting metal salt back. Y when present in water does not produce lather with
soap. The compounds X and Y, respectively are
(A) CaCO3 and Ca(HCO3)2 (B) Mg (HCO3)2 and MgCO3
(C) Ca(HCO3)2 and CaCO3 (D) MgCO3 and Mg (HCO3)2
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BIOLOGY
76. Plasmolysis is not observed in boiled plant tissue because :
(A) The cell wall becomes impermeable to water
(B) The cell membrane disintegrates
(C) The cell wall disintegrates
(D) The cell membrane becomes impermeable to water
77. If the analogy of a city is applied to a eukaryotic cell then which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Nucleus as a library and ribosome as a slaughter house
(B) Nucleus as a police station and mitochondria as powerhouse
(C) Mitochondria as powerhouse and Golgi as a cargo sorting facility
(D) Mitochondria as powerhouse and nucleus as slaughter house
78. The placenta tissue in mammals originates from :
(A) The mother only
(B) The foetus only
(C) Both the mother and the foetus
(D) Originates from the mother but taken over by the foetus
79. Both bacteria and amoeba are unicellular organisms which may live in aqueous environment. Bacteria do
not burst by taking up water from the surrounding because they have cell walls. Amoeba do not have cell
walls but yet do not burst because :
(A) Amoeba eliminates excess water by the help of contractile vacuoles.
(B) The cytoplasm of amoeba is isotonic to surrounding water.
(C) The cytoplasm of amoeba is hypotonic to surrounding water.
(D) Amoeba does not take up water from the surroundings.
80. In the lunch, you ate boiled green vegetables, a piece of cooked meat, one boiled egg and a sugar candy.
Which one of these foods may have been digested first ?
(A) Boiled green vegetables (B) The piece of cooked meat
(C) Boiled egg (D) Sugar candy
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2009
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR2009 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTI (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
x5
1. The real numbers x satisfying > 1are precisely those which satisfy
1 x
(A) x < 1 (B) 0 < x < 1 (C) – 5 < x < 1 (D) –1 < x < 1
2. Let tn denote the number of integral sided triangle with distinct sides chosen from {1, 2, 3 ———n). Then t20
– t10 equals
(A) 81 (B) 153 (C) 163 (D) 173
3. The number of pairs of reals (x, y) such that x = x2 + y2 and y = 2xy is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
4. How many positive real number x satisfy the equation
x3 – 3 x + 2 = 0 ?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (D) 4 (D) 6
5. Let (1 + 2x)20 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + .... + a20x20 . Then, 3a0 + 2a1 + 3a2 + 2a3 + 3a4 + 2a5 + .... 2a19 + 3a20.
equals to :
5.320 – 3 5.320 3 5.320 1 5.320 – 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
6. let P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 be five equally spaced points on the circumfercence of a circle of radius 1, centred at
O. Let R be the set of point in the plane of the circle that are closer to O than any of P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 Then
R is a 
(A) circular region (B) rectangular region
(C) pentagonal region (D) oval region that is not circular
7. A company situated at (2,0) in the xyplane charges Rs. 2 per km for delivery. A second company at (0,3)
chargs Rs. 3 per km for delivery. The region of the plane where it is cheaper to use the first company is 
(A) the inside of the circle (x + 5.4)2 + y2 = 18.72
(B) the outside of the circle (x + 1.6)2 + (y – 5.4)2 = 18.72
(C) the inside of the circle (x – 1.6)2 + (y + 5.4)2 = 18.72
(D) the outside of the circle (x – 5.4)2 + (y + 1.6)2 = 18.72
8. In a right triangle ABC. the in circle touches the hypotenuse AC at D. If AD = 10 and DC = 3, the inradius
of ABC is 
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
9. The sides of a quadrilateral are all positive integers and three of them are 5, 10, 20. How many possible
value are there for the fourth side ?
(A) 29 (B) 31 (C) 32 (D) 34
10. If the volume of a sphere increases by 72.8%, then its surface area increases by 
(A) 20% (B) 44% (C) 24.3% (D) 48.6%
11. If the decimal 0.d25d25d25 ———is expressible in the form n/27, then d+n must be
(A) 9 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 34
12. At what time between 10 O’clock and 11 O’ close are the two hands of clock symmetric with respect to the
vertical line (give the answer to the nearest second) ?
(A) 10h 9m 13s (B) 10h 9m 14s (C) 10h 9m 22s (D) 10h 9m 50s
13. A woman has 10 keys out of which only one opens a lock. She tries the keys one after the another (keeping
aside the failed ones) till she suceeds in opening the lock. What is the chance that it is the seventh key that
works ?
7 1 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10 2 10 10
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14. In a certain school 74% students like circket, 76% students like football and 82% like tennis. Then all the
three sports are liked by at least
(A) 68% (B) 32% (C) 77% ( D )
36%
15. Let Sn be the sum of all integers k such that 2n < k < 2n+1, for n 1. Then 9 divides Sn if and only if
(A) n is odd (B) n is of the form 3k+1
(C) n is even (D) n is of the form 3k + 2
PHYSICS
16. A boy standing on the foothpath tosses a ball straight up and catch it. The driver of a car passing by moving
with uniform velocity sees this.
The trajectory of the ball as seen by the driver will be 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17. Consider two spherical planets of same average density. Planet 2 is 8 times as massive as planet 1.
The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity on the second planet to that on the first is.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
18. Two immiscible liquids, A and B are kept in a Utube. If the density of liquid A is smaller than the density of
liquid B, then the equilibrium situation is.
A A A
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
19. In !he figure below a ray of light travelling in a medium of refractive index µ passes through two different
connected rectangular blocks of refractive indices µ1 and µ2 (µ2 > µ1).
µ µ1 µ2
The angle of incidence 1 is increased slightly. The angle 2
(A) increases.
(B) decreases.
(C) remains the same
(D) increases or decreases depending on the value of (µ1/µ2).
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20. Two charges of same magnitude move in two circles of radii R1 = R and R2 = 2R in a region of constant
uniform magnetic field B 0 .
The work W 1 and W 2 done by the magnetic field in the Two cases, respectively are such that
(A) W 1 = W 2 = 0 (B) W 1 > W 2 (C) W 1 = W 2 0 (D)W 1 < W 2
21. Two charges +q and –q are placed at a distance b apart as shown in the figure below.
B
P A
C
b/2
+q –q
b
The electric field at a point P on the perpendicular bisector as shown as :
(A) along vector
A
(B) along vector
B
(C) along vector
C
(D) Zero
22. A block of mass M is at rest on a plane surface inclined at an angle to the horizontal The magnitude of
force exerted by the plane on the block is :
(A) Mg cos (B) Mg sin (C) Mg tan (D) Mg
23. We are able to squeeze snow and make balls out of it because of 
(A) anomalous behaviour of water. (B) large latent heat of ice.
(C) large specific heat of water. (D) low melting point of ice.
24. Which of the following phenomena can be demonstrated by light. But not with sound waves in an air
column?
(A) Reflection (B) Diffraction
(C) Refraction (D) Polarziation
25. The temperature of a metal coin is increased by 100°C and its diameter increases by 0.15%. Its area
increases by nearly
(A) 0.15% (B) 0.60% (C) 0.30% (D) 0.0225%
26. The note "Saa" on the Sarod and the Sitar have the same pitch. The property of sound that is most
important in distinguishing between the two instruments is
(A) fundamental frequency (B) intensity
(C) displacement amplitude (D) waveform
235 207
27. 92 U atom disintegrates to 82 Pb with a halflife of 109 years. In the process it emits 7 alpha particles and
n – particles. Here n is 
(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 14
28. Consider the circuit below. The bulb will light up of :
S1
S2
~ S3
(A) S1 S2 and S3 are all closed.
(B) S1 is closed but S2 and S3 are open.
(C) S2 and S3 are closed but S1 is open.
(D) S1 and S3 are closed but S2 is open.
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29. Two bullbs, one of 200W and the other of 100W, are connected in series with a 100 V battery which has no
internal resistance. Then,
100V
200W 100W
(A) the current passing through the 200W bulb is more than that through the 100W bulb.
(B) the power dissipation in the 200W bulb is more lhan that In the 100 W bulb.
(C) the voltage drop across the 200W bulb is more than that across the 100W bulb.
(D) the power dissipation In the 100W bulb is more than that in the 200W bulb.
30. A solid cube and a solid sphere of identical material and equal masses are heated to the same temperature
and left to cool in the same surroundings. Then
(A) the cube will cool faster because of its sharp edges.
(B) the cube will cool faster because it has a larger surface area.
(C) the sphere will cool faster because it is smooth.
(D) the sphere will cool faster because it has a larger surface area.
CHEMISTRY
31. The element X which forms a stable product of the type XCI4 is 
(A) AI (B) Na (C) Ca (D) Si
32. A mixture of NH4CI and NaCI can be separated by 
(A) filtration (B) Distillation (C) Sublimation (D) Decantation
33. The pair in which the first compound is ionic and the second compound is covalent, is 
(A) Fe(OH)2,CH3OH (B) CH3OH, CH3CH2OH (C) Fe(OH)2, Cu(OH)2 (D) Ca(OH)2, Cu(OH)2
34. In the reaction SO2 + 2H2S 3S + 2H2O, the substance that is oxidized is 
(A) SO2 (B) H2O (C) S (D) H2S
35. Sodium oxide dissolves in water to give sodium hydroxide which indicates its 
(A) acidic character (B) basic character
(C) amphoteric character (D) ionic character
36. For an ideal gas, Boyle’s law is best described by 
P P P P
(A) (B) (C) (D)
T V V T
37. The pH values of
(i) 0.1 M HCl aq (ii) 0.1 M KOH
(iii) tomato juice and (iv) pure water
follow the order 
(A) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii) (B) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) (C) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (D) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
38. When calcium carbide is added to water, the gas that is evolved is 
(A) carbon dioxide (B) hydrogen (C) acetylene (D) methane
39. Atomic radii of alkali metals follow the order 
(A) Li > Na > K > Cs (B) K > Cs > Li > Na (C) Na > K > Cs > Li (D) Cs > K > Na > Li
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40. The number of possible structural isomers of C3H4 is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
41. Among the four compounds (i) acetone, (ii) propanol, (iii) methyl acetate and (iv) propionic acid, the two
that are isomeric are 
(A) methyl acetate and acetone (B) methyl acetate and propanol
(C) propionic acid and methyl acetate (D) propionic acid and acetone
42. One mole of nitrogen gas on reaction with 3.01 x 1023 molecules of hydrogen gas produces 
(A) one mole of ammonia (B) 2.0 x 1023 molecules of
ammonia
(C) 2 moles of ammonia (D) 3.01 × 1023 molecules of ammonia
43. Saponification is 
(A) hydrolysis of an ester (B) hydrolysis of an amide
(C) hydrolysis of an ether (D) hydrolysis of an acid chlo
ride
44. A concentrated solution of lead nitrate in water can be stored in 
(A) an iron vessel (B) a copper vessel
(C) a zinc vessel (D) a magnesium vessel
45. Solubility
g/I
250
KNO3
200
150
KCl
100
50
20 40 60 80 100
Temperature (ºC)
Given the solubility curves of KNO3 and KCl, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) At room temperature the solubility of KNO3 and KCI are not equal.
(B) The solubilities of both KNO3 and KCI increase with temperature.
(C) The solubility of KCI decreases with temperature.
(D) The solubility of KNO3 increases much more as compared to that of KCl with increase in temperature.
BIOLOGY
46. Which one of the following is the smallest in size ?
(A) Bacteria (B) Mitochondrion (C) Mammalian cell (D) Virus
47. If birds are moved from 30°C to 10ºC, their body temperature :
(A) changes from 30ºC to 10°C (B) increases by 10ºC
(C) does not changes at all (D) decreases by 10ºC
48. Ascorbic acid is a/an.
(A) Strong inorganic acid (B) Hormone (C) Vitamin (D) Enzyme
49. Bile salts :
(A) break down polypeptide chains (B) emulsify fats and solubilize them
(C) digest fats (D) help breakdown of polysaccharides
50. Dietary fibers are composed of :
(A) Cellulose (B) Amylase (C) Proteins (D) Unsaturated fats
51. ‘On the origin of species , by means of Natural selection’ was written by.
(A) Hugo de vires (B) Charles Darwin (C) Charles dickons (D) Alfred Russell wallace
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52. Unlike humans, dogs cannot perspire to get rid to excess metabolic heat. They lose metabolic heat by:
(A) Panting (B) running in windy conditions
(C) taking a bath (D) rolling in the mud
53. Haemodialysis is a treatement option for patients with malfunctions of :
(A) Kidney (B) Heart (C) Liver (D) Lungs
54. An individual has O blood group if his/her blood sample.
(A) Clumps only when antiserum A is added
(B) Clumps only when antiserum B is added
(C) Clumps when both antiserum A and antiserum B are added
(D) Does not clump when either antiserum A or antiserum B is added
55. In warmer, weather, curds from milk forms faster because :
(A) bacteria diffuse better in warmer milk (B) the rate of bacterial multiplication increases
(C) lactogen is better dissolved (D) it is easier to separate protein from water
56. Seedlings grown in dark are :
(A) similar to those grow in light (B) taller than those grow in light
(C) shorter than those grow in light (D) they don’t grow at all
57. In humans, Rhesus conditions can arise when :
(A) father is Rh+ and mother is Rh– (B) father is Rh– and mother is Rh+
(C) either father or mother is Rh+ (D) either father or mother is Rh–
58. The part of the human brain that governs memory and intelligence is :
(A) Cerebrum (B) Hypothalamus (C) Medulla (D) Cerebellum
59. Saturated dietary fats increase the risk of heart disease by :
(A) widening arteries by thinning their walls (B) narrowing veins by carbohydrate deposition
(C) narrowing arteries by fat deposition (D) narrowing arteries by carbohydrate deposition
60. Rotation of crops is carried out to :
(A) increase variation in the mineral content of the soil
(B) increase diversity of plant habitats
(C) increase in nitrogen content of the soil
(D) increase convenience for the farmer
PARTII (2 Marks)
MATHEMATICS
61. Let logab = 4, logcd = 2 where a, b, c, d are natural numbers. Given that b – d = 7, then value of c – a is
(A) 1 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) – 2
62. Let P(x) = 1 + x + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5. What is the remainder when P(x12) is divided by P(x) ?
(A) 0 (B) 6 (C) 1
+x (D) 1 + x + x2 + x3 + x4
63. In a triangle ABC the altitudes from B and C on to the opposite sides are not shorter than their respective
opposite sides. Then one of the angles of ABC is 
(A) 30º (B) 45º ( C )
60º (D) 72º
64. In a triangle ABC, AB = AC = 37. Let D be a point on BC such that BD = 7. AD = 33. The length of CD is
(A) 7 (B) 11 (C) 40 (D) not determinate
65. A line segment of length a cm is rotated about a vertical line L, keeping the line in one of the following
three position (I) is parallel to L and is at a distance of r cm. from L ; (II) is perpendicular to L and its mid
point is at a distance r cm, from L ; (III) and L are in the same plane and is inclined to L at an angle 30º
with it mid point at a distance r cm. from L. Let A1, A2 , A3 be the areas so generated. If r > (a/2), then
(A) A1 < A3 < A2 (B) A1 = A3 < A2 (C) A2 < A1 < A3 (D) A1 = A2 = A3
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PHYSICS
66. A spring balance A reads 2 kg when a block of mass m suspended from it. Anolher balance B reads 3 kg
when a beaker with a liquid is put on its pan. The two balanes are now so arranged that the hanging mass m
is fully immersed inside the liquid in tbe beaker as shown in the figure. In this situattion.
A
B
(A) the balance A will read 2 kg and B will read 5 kg.
(B) the balance A will read 2 kg and B will read 3 kg.
(C) the balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will read between 3 kgand 5 kg.
(D) the balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will read 3 kg.
67. According to the quantum theory, a photon of electromagnetic radiation of frequency has energy
E = h where h is known as planck’s constant. According to the theory of relativity, a particle of mass m has
equivalent energy E = mc2, where c is speed of light. Thus a photon can be treated as a particle having
h
effective mass m = . If a flash of light is sent horizonatally in earth’s gravitational field, then photons
C2
while traveling a horizontal distance d would fall through a distance given by 
gd2 h mcd 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) zero
2c 2 mc h
68. A solid square plate is spun around different axes with the same angular speed. In which of the following
choice of axis of rotation will the kinetic energy of the plate be the largest ?
(A) through the central normal to the plate. (B) along one of the diagonals of the plate.
(C) along one of the edges of the plate. (D) through one corner normal to the plate.
69. An object is placed 0.40 m from one of the two lenses L1 and L2 of focal lengths 0.20 m and 0.10 m
respectively as depicted in the figure. The separation between the lenses is 0.30 m.
L1 L2
0.40m + 0.30m
The final image formed by this two lens system is at
(A) 0.13 m to the right of the second lens. (B) 0.05 m to the right of the second lens.
(C) 0.13 m to the left of the second lens (D) Infinity
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70. 5 charges each of magnitude 10–5 C and mass 1 kg are placed (fixed) symmetrically about a movable
central charge of magnitude 5 × 10–5C and mass 0.5 kg as shown. The charge at P1 is removed. The
acceleration of the central charge is
P1
P2 P5
O
P3 P4
1
[Given OP1 = OP2 = OP3 = OP4 = OP5 = 1 m ; 4 = 9 × 109 in SI units]
0
(A) 9 m s–2 upwards (B) 4.5 m s–2 upwards (C) 9 m s–2 downwards (D) 4.5 m s–2 downwards
CHEMISTRY
71. Reaction of NaCl with conc. H2SO4 liberates a gas X that turns moist blue litmus paper red. When gas X is
passed into a test tube containing egg shell powder suspended in water another gas, Y is generated which
when passed through lime water makes it milky. The gases X and Y respectively, are 
(A) HCl and CO2 (B) Cl2 and CO2 (C) SO2 and CO2 (D) SO2 and HCl
72. 10 ml of an aqeuous solution containing 222 mg of calcium chloride (mol. wt. = 111) is diluted to 100 ml. The
concentration of chloride ion in the resulting solution is 
(A) 0.02 mol/lit. (B) 0.01 mol/lit. (C) 0.04 mol/lit (D) 2.0 mol/lit.
73. Aluminium reduces maganese dioxide to manganese at high temperature. The amount of aluminium re
quired to reduce one gram mole of manganese dioxide is 
(A) 1/2 gram mole (B) 1 gram mole (C) 3/4 gram mole (D) 4/3 gram mole
74. Ethanol on reaction with alkaline KMnO4 gives X which when reacted with methanol in the presence of an
acid gives a sweet smelling compound. Y. X and Y respectively, are 
(A) acetaldehyde and acetone (B) acetic acid and methyl acetate
(C) formic acid and methyl formate (D) ethylene and ethyl methyl ether
75. The pH of a 10 ml aqueous solution of HCl is 4. The amount of water to be added to this solution in order to
change its pH from 4 to 5 is 
(A) 30 ml (B) 60 ml (C) 90ml (D) 120 ml
BIOLOGY
76. Proteins are synthesized on :
(A) Cytoskeleton (B) Mitochondria (C) Ribosomes (D) Golgi apparatus
77. Which of the following allows light to focus in visual perception ?
(A) Retina (B) Retinal pigment (C) Iris (D) Cornea
78. During cell division if there is one round of chromosome duplication followed by one round of cell division ,
the number of chromosomes the daughter cells will have as compared to the mother is :
(A) equal (B) double (C) half (D) one fourth
79. Similar type of vegetation can be observed, in the same :
(A) latitude (B) longitude (C) country (D) continent
80. Which of the following ecological food chain does not represent an erect pyramid of numbers ?
(A) Grass Rodent Snake (B) TreeBirdAvian parastie
(C) GrassDeerTiger (D) InsectChickenHuman
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2010
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 52 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 10 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 11 to 20 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 21 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 31 to 40 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 41 to 43 consist of Five (5) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 44 to 46 consist of Five (5) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 47 to 49 consist of Five (5) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 50 to 52 consist of Five (5) marks for each correct response.
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Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR2010 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. A student notices that the roots of the equation x2 + bx + a = 0 are each 1 less than the roots of the equation
x2 + ax + b = 0. Then a + b is :
(A) possibly any real number (B) – 2
(C) – 4 (D) – 5
2. If x, y are real numbers such that
x x
1 1
y – y = 24,
3 3
then the value of (x + y) / (x – y) is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
12 2 2 3 2 ..... n 2
3. The number of positive integers n in the set {1, 2, 3, ...., 100} for which the number
1 2 3 ...... n
is an integer is :
(A) 33 (B) 34 (C) 50 (D) 100
4. The three different face diagonals of a cuboid (rectangular parallelopiped) have lengths 39, 40, 41. The
length of the main diagonal of the cuboid which joins a pair of opposite corners :
(A) 49 (B) 49 2 (C) 60 (D) 60 2
5. The sides of a triangle ABC are positive integers. The smallest side has length . What of the following
statements is true ?
(A) The area of ABC is always a rational number.
(B) The area of ABC is always an irrational number.
(C) The perimeter of ABC is an even integer.
(D) The information provided is not sufficient to conclude any of the statements A, B or C above.
6. Consider a square ABCD of Side 12 and let M, N be the midpoints of AB, CD respectively. Take a point P on
MN and let AP = r, PC = s. Then the area of the triangle whose sides are r, s, 12 is :
rs rs
(A) 72 (B) 36 (C) (D)
2 4
7. A cow is tied to a corner (vertex) of a regular hexagonal fenced area of side a meters by a rope of length
5a / 2 meters in a grass field. (The cow cannot graze inside the fenced area.) What is the maximum
possible area of the grass field to which the cow has access to graze ?
5
(A) 5 a2 (B) a2 (C) 6a2 (D) 3a2
2
8. A closed conical vessel is filled with water fully and is placed with its vertex down. The water is let out at a
constant speed. After 21 minutes, it was found that the height of the water column is half of the original
height. How much more time in minutes does it empty the vessel ?
(A) 21 (B) 14 (C) 7 (D) 3
9. I carried 1000 kg of watermelon in summer by train. In the beginning, the water content was 99%. By the
time I reached the destination, the water content had dropped to 98%. The reduction in the weight of the
watermelon was:
(A) 10 kg (B) 50 kg (C) 100 kg (D) 500 kg
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10. A rectangle is divided into 16 subrectangles as in the figure; the number in each subrectangle represents
the area of that subrectangle. What is the area of the rectangle KLMN ?
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50
PHYSICS
11. A hollow pendulum bob filled with water has a small hole at the bottom through which water escapes at a
constant rate. Which of the following statements describes the variation of the time period (T) of the
pendulum as the water flows out ?
(A) T decreases first and then increases. (B) T increases first and then decreases.
(C) T increases throughout. (D) T does not change.
12. A block of mass M rests on a rough horizontal table. A steadily increasing horizontal force is applied such
that the block starts to slide on the table without toppling. The force is continued even after sliding has
started. Assume the coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the table and the block to be equal.
The correct representation of the variation of the frictional forces, ƒ, exerted by the table on the block with
time t is given by :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. A soldier with a machine gun, falling from an airplane gets detached from his parachute. He is able to resist
the downward acceleration if he shoots 40 bullets a second at the speed of 500 m/s. If the weight of a bullet
is 49 gm, what is the weight of the man with the gun ? Ignore resistance due to air and assume the
acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2
(A) 50 kg (B) 75 kg (C) 100 kg (D) 125 kg
14. A planet of mass m is moving around a star of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit of radius r. The star
abruptly shrinks to half its radius without any loss of mass. What change will be there in the orbit of the
planet ?
(A) The planet will escape from the star. (B) The radius of the orbit will increase.
(C) The radius of the orbit will decrease. (D) The radius of the orbit will not change.
15. Figure (a) below shows a Wheatstone bridge in which P, Q, R, S are fixed resistances, G is a galvanometer
and B is a battery. For this particular case the galvanometer shows zero deflection. Now, only the positions
of B and G are interchanged,. as shown in figure (b). The new deflection of the galvanometer.
(A) is to the left. (B) is to the right.
(C) is zero. (D) depends on the values of P, Q, R, S
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16. 12 positive charges of magnitude q are placed on a circle of radius R in a manner that they are equally
spaced. A charge +Q is placed at the centre. If one of the charges q is removed, then the force on Q is :
(A) zero
qQ
(B) 4 R2 away from the position of the removed charge.
0
11qQ
(C) 4 R2 away from the position of the removed charge.
0
qQ
(D) 4 R2 towards the position of the removed charge.
0
17. An electric heater consists of a nichrome coil and runs under 220 V, consuming 1 kW power. Part of its coil
burned out and it was reconnected after cutting off the burnt portion. The power it will consume now is :
(A) more than 1 kW. (B) less that 1 kW, but not zero.
(C) 1 kW. (D) 0 kW.
18. White light is split into a spectrum by a prism and it is seen on a screen. If we put another identical inverted
prism behind it in contact, what will be seen on the screen ?
(A) Violet will appear where red was
(B) The spectrum will remain the same
(C) There will be no spectrum, but only the original light with no deviation.
(D) There will be no spectrum, but the original light will be laterally displaced.
19. Two identical blocks of metal are at 20ºC and 80ºC, respectively. The specific heat of the material of the two
blocks increases with temperature. Which of the following is true about the final temperature Tƒ when the
two blocks are brought into contact (assuming that no heat is lost to the surroundings) ?
(A) Tƒ will be 50ºC.
(B) Tƒ will be more than 50ºC.
(C) Tƒ will be less than 50ºC.
(D) Tƒ can be either more than or less than 50ºC depending on the precise variation of the specific heat
with temperature.
20. A new temperature scale uses X as a unit of temperature, where the numerical value of the temperature tX
in this scale is related to the absolute temperature T by tX = 3T + 300. If the specific heat of a material using
this unit is 1400 J kg–1 X–1 its specific heat in the S.I. system of units is :
(A) 4200 J kg–1 K–1
(B) 1400 J kg–1 K–1
(C) 466.7 J kg–1 K–1
(D) impossible to determine from the information provided
CHEMISTRY
21. The boiling points of 0.01 M aqueous solutions of sucrose,NaCl and CaCl2 would be :
(A) the same (B) highest for sucrose solution
(C) highest for NaCl solution (D) highest for CaCl2 solution
22. The correct electronic configuration for the ground state of silicon (atomic number 14) is :
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3p4 (C) 1s2 2s2 2p4 3s2 3p4 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p3
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23. The molar mass of CaCO3 is 100 g. The maximum amount of carbon dioxide that can be liberated on
heating 25 g of CaCO3 is :
(A) 11 g (B) 5.5 g (C) 22 g (D) 2.2 g
24. The atomic radii of the elements across the second period of the periodic table.
(A) decrease due to increase in atomic number
(B) decrease due to increase in effective nuclear charge
(C) decrease due to increase in atomic weights
(D) increase due to increase in the effective nuclear charge
25. Among NH3, BCl3, Cl2 and N2, the compound that does not satisfy the octet rule is :
(A) NH3 (B) BCl3 (C) Cl2 (D) N2
26. The gas produce on heating MnO2 with conc. HCl is
(A) Cl2 (B) H2 (C) O2 (D) O3
27. The number of covalent bonds in C4H7Br, is :
(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 13 (D) 11
28. An aqueous solution of HCl has a pH of 2.0. When water is added to increase the pH to 5.0, the hydrogen
ion concentration :
(A) remains the same (B) decreases threefold
(C) increases threefold (D) decreases thousandfold
29. Consider two sealed jars of equal volume. One contains 2 g of hydrogen at 200 K and the other contains 28
g of nitrogen at 400 K. The gases in the two jars will have :
(A) the same pressure. (B) the same average kinetic energy.
(C) the same number of molecules. (D) the same average molecular speed.
30. Identify the stereoisomeric pair from the following choices.
(A) CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2OCH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2Cl and CH3CHClCH3
(C) and (D) and
BIOLOGY
31. Which of the following is a waterborne disease ?
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Malaria (C) Chickenpox (D) Cholera
32. In his work on genetics, Gregor Mendel described the physical traits in the pea plant as being controlled by
two 'factors'. What term is used to define these factors today ?
(A) Chromosomes (B) Genes (C) Alleles (D) Hybrids
33. A majority of the tree species of Peninsular Indian origin fruit in the months of :
(A) April  May (B) August  September
(C) December  January (D) All months of the year
34. In frogs, body proportions do not change with their growth. A frog that is twice as long as another will be
heavier by approximately.
(A) Twofold (B) Fourfold (C) Sixfold (D) Eightfold
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35. Which of the following has the widest angle of binocular vision ?
(A) Rat (B) Duck (C) Eagle (D) Owl
36. The two alleles of a locus which an offspring receives from the male and female gametes are situated on:
(A) Two different homologs of the same chromosome.
(B) Two different chromosomes.
(C) Sex chromosomes.
(D) A single chromosome.
37. Ants locate sucrose by :
(A) Using a strong sense of smell.
(B) Using a keen sense of vision.
(C) Physical contact with sucrose.
(D) Sensing the particular wavelength of light emitted / reflected by sucrose.
38. The interior of a cowdung pile kept for a few days is quite warm. This is mostly because :
(A) Cellulose present in the dung is a good insulator.
(B) Bacterial metabolism inside the dung releases heat.
(C) Undigested material releases heat due to oxidation by air.
(D) Dung is dark and absorbs a lot of heat.
39. Which one of these is the correct path for a reflex action ?
(A) ReceptorMotor NeuronSpinal CordSensory NeuronEffector.
(B) EffectorSensory NeuronSpinal CordMotor NeuronReceptor.
(C) ReceptorSensory NeuronSpinal CordMotor NeuronEffector.
(D) Sensory NeuronReceptorMotor NeuronSpinal CordEffector.
40. Insectivorous plants digest insects to get an essential nutrient. Other plants generally get this nutrient from
the soil. What is this nutrient ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Phosphates
DISCLAIMER
The subjective problems are based memory rotations of our students hence they may differ slightly then
the original questions. The solutions presented here are in accordance with the given problems
statement.
PARTB (5 Marks)
MATHEMATICS
1. Leela and madan collectea their CD's and sold them such that each C.D. was sold at the same amount as
number of C.D's. From this amount colluted leela juist borrowed Rs. 10, then madan borrowed Rs. 10, they
borrowed money alternately until amount less than Rs. 10 was left for Madan to borrow. Find has much was
left for Madan to borrowed at the end.
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2. In ABC, DE is drawn parallel to BC, D on A and B on E. Such that ADE has area 3. Now BE and DC are
joined to get intersection point P. DPE = 1 sq. unit. Find area of ABC ?
3. (i) If there is natural number n relative prime with 10. Then show that there exist another natural number m
such that all digits are 1's and m is div. by 'n'.
a
(ii) Show that every natural number can represented as , where a, b, c N
10 (10 c 1)
b
PHYSICS
4. There is a smooth fixed concave surface. A particle is released from p. Find :
(i) PE as function of
(ii) KE as a function
(iii) time taken from P to
(iv) the reaction force at
5.
Given: RA << R << RV
V
Restimated =
R = R – Rest
(i) Calculate RP
(ii) Calculate RQ
(iii) Find the value of R for which RP = RQ
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6. An object is placed. 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10 cm :
(i) find the position of the image
(ii) find the position of another concave mirror of focal length 5 cm. where it should be placed right side of
above concave lens such that final image coincides with the object.
(iii) If a plane mirror is placed in place of concave mirror at the same position, then find the position of final
image.
CHEMISTRY
7. There are four bottles 1,2,3,4 containing following compounds.
Bottle1 : ; Bottle2 :
Bottle3 : ; Bottle4 :
Identify the bottle :
(I) (A) whose content does not react with 1N HCl or 1N NaOH.
(B) whose content reacts with 1N NaOH only.
(C) whose content reacts with 1N NaOH and 1N HCl both.
(D) whose content reacts with 1N HCl only.
(II) The bottle whose content is highly soluble in distilled water.
8. A copper ore was treated with HNO3 to form Cu(NO3)2, Which on further reaction with K, forms Cu2,
which decomposes to form Cu22 and 2, 2 was titrated with Na2S2O3.
(I) Balance the reactions involved (find out values of a to )
(a) a Cu + b HNO3 c Cu(NO3)2 + d NO + e H2O
(b) f Cu2 g Cu22 + h 2
(c) i Na2S2O3 + j 2 k Na2S4O6 + Na
(II) 2.54 g of 2 was evolved : Find the percentage purity of copper in 2 g of ore.
9. Human being required 2500 Kcal of energy per day
C12H22O11 + 12 O2 12 CO2 + 11 H2O
H = – 5.6 × 106 J / mol
(i) Human being required ..................... kJ of energy per day.
(ii) Amount of sucrose required per day and volume of CO2 evolved during the process [at STP]
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BIOLOGY
10. Mohini, a resident of Chandigarh went to Shimla with her parents. There she found the same plant that they
have in their backyard, at home, However, she observed that while the plants in their backyard bore white
flowers, those in Shimla had pink flowers. She brought home some seeds of the plant from Shimla and
planted them in Chandigarh. Upon performing selfbreeding for several generations she found that the plant
from Shimla produced only white flowers.
(a) According to you what might be the reason for this observation – genetic or environmental factors?
(b) Suggest a simple experiment to determine whether this variation is genetic in nature.
(c) Suggest another experiment to check whether this variation in flower color is due to environmental
factors.
11. The breakdown of glucose in a cell occurs in any of the following pathways :
CO2 + H2O (In the presence of O2 e.g.in mitrochondria )
Glucose Pyruvic Ethanol + CO2 (In the absence of O2 e.g.Yeast )
acid
Lactic acid (In the absence of O2 e..g. lactic acid bacteria)
Three experiments (A, B, C) have been set up. In each experiment, a flask contains the organism in growth
medium, glucose and a brown dye that changes its colours to yellow when the pH decreases. The mouth of
the flask is attached to a test tube containing lime water (Calcium Hydroxide, as shown in the figure). in C,
but not in A and B, air is removed from the flask before beginning the experiment.
– – ––
– – ––– Lime
– – water
–
Organism in Culture Medium
+ Glucose + Dye
After a period of growth, the following observations were made :
A : Lime water turns milky ; the dye colour remains the same.
B : The dye colour changes ; lime water does not turn milky.
C : Lime water turns milky ; the dye colour remains the same.
(a) Question : Identify which of the reactions is the pathways depicted above is taking place in each
experiment. Give reasons for your answer.
(b) Question : Identify which of the reactions in the pathways depicted above is expected to occur in Red
Blood Cells (RBCs)
12. A scientist has a house just beside a busy highway. He collects leaves from some plants growing in his
garden to do radiocarbon dating (to estimate the age of the plant by estimating the amount of a radioisotope
of carbon in its tissues). Surprisingly the radiocarbon dating shows that the plant is a few thousand years
old)
(a) Was the result of the radiocarbon dating wrong or can you propose a reason for such an observation?
(b) What simple experiment can be done to test the reason that you have proposed ?
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2011
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
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Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
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YEAR2011 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Suppose a, b, c are three distinct real numbers. Let
( x b)( x c ) ( x c )( x a) ( x a)( x b)
P(x) = + +
(a b)(a c ) (b c )(b a) (c a)(c b)
When simplified, P(x) becomes
(A) 1 (B) x
x 2 (a b c )(ab bc ca)
(C) (D) 0
(a b)(b c )(c a)
2. Let a, b, x, y be real numbers such that a2 + b2 = 81, x2 + y2 = 121 and ax + by = 99. Then the set of all
possible values of ay – bx is
9 9 9
(A) 0, (B) 0, (C) {0} (D) ,
11 11 11
1 1 1
3. If x a , x2 b , then x 3 is
x x 3
x2
(A) a3 + a2 – 3a – 2 – b (B) a3 – a2 – 3a + 4 – b
(C) a3 – a2 + 3a – 6 – b (D) a3 + a2 + 3a – 16 – b
4. Let a, b, c, d be real numbers such that a – b = 2, b – c = 3, c – d = 4. Then the sum of all possible
values of a – d is
(A) 9 (B) 18 (C) 24 (D) 30
5. Below are four equations in x. Assume that 0 < r < 4. Which of the following equations has the largest
solution for x ?
x x x
r r
(D) 51 9
1
(A) 51 9 (B) 51 9 (C) 5 (1 + 2r)x = 9
17 r
6. Let ABC be a triangle with B = 90°. Let AD be the bisector of A with D on BC. Suppose AC = 6 cm and
the area of the triangle ADC is 10 cm2. Then the length of BD in cm is equal to
3 3 5 10
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 10 3 3
7. A piece of paper in the shape of a sector of a circle (see Fig.1) is rolled up to form a rightcircular cone
(see Fig. 2). The value of the angle is
10 9 5 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 13 13 13
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8. In the adjoining figure AB = 12 cm, CD = 8 cm, BD = 20 cm; ABD = AEC = EDC = 90°. IF BE = x,
then
(A) x has two possible values whose difference is 4
(B) x has two possible values whose sum is 28
(C) x has only one value and x 12
(D) x cannot be determined with the given information
9. Three circles each of radius 1 touch one another externally and they lie between two parallel lines. The
minimum possible distance between the lines is
(A) 2 3 (B) 3 3 (C) 4 (D) 2 1
3
10. The number of distinct prime divisors of the number 5123 – 2533 – 2593 is
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
11. Consider an incomplete pyramid of balls on a square base having 18 layers; and having 13 balls on each
side of the top layer. Then the total number N of balls in that pyramid satisfies
(A) 9000 < N < 10000 (B) 8000 < N < 9000 (C) 7000 < N < 8000 (D) 10000 < N < 12000
12. A man wants to reach a certain destination. One sixth of the total distance is muddy while half the distance
is tar road. For the remaining distance he takes a boat. His speed of traveling in mud, in water on tar roaed
is in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The ratio of the durations he requires to cross the patch of mud. stream and tar road
is:
1 4 5
(A) : : (B) 3 : 8 : 15 (C) 10 : 15 : 18 (D) 1 : 2 : 3
2 5 2
13. A frog is presently located at the origin (0, 0) in the xyplane. It always jumps from a point with integer
coordinates to a point with integer coordinates moving a distance of 5 units in each jump. What is the
minimum number of jumps required for the frog to go from (0, 0) to (0, 1) ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 9
14. A certain 12hour digital clock displays the hour and the minute of a day. Due to a defect in the clock
whenever the digit 1 is supposed to be displayed it displays 7. What fraction of the day will the clock show
the correct time ?
1 5 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 8 4 6
15. There are 30 questions in a multiplechoice test. A student gets 1 mark for each unattempted question, 0
mark for each wrong answer and 4 marks for each correct answer. A student answered x questions
correctly and scored 60. Then the number of possible value of x is
(A) 15 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 5
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PHYSICS
16. A simple pendulum oscillates freely between points A and B.
We now put a peg (nail) at some point C as shown. As the pendulum moves from A to the right, the string will
bend at C and the pendulum will go to its extreme point D. Ignoring friction, the point D.
(A) will lie on the line AB (B) will lie above the line AB
(C) will lie below the line AB (D) will coincide with B
17. A small child tries to move a large rubber toy placed on the ground. The toy does not move but gets
deformed under her pushing force (F) which is obliquely upward as shown . Then
(A) The resultant of the pushing force (F) , weight of the toy, normal force by the ground on the toy and the
frictional force is zero.
(B) The normal force by the ground is equal and oipposite to the weight of the toy.
(C) The pushing force (F) of the child is balanced by the equal and opposite frictional force
(D) The pushing force (F) of hte child is ballanced by the total internal force in the toy generated due to
deformation
18. A juggler tosses a ball up in the air with initial speed u. At the instant it reaches its maximum height H, he
tosses up a second ball with the same initial speed. The two balls will collide at a height.
H H 3H 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) H
4 2 4 4
19. On a horizontal frictional frozen lake, a girl (36 kg) and a box (9kg) are connected to each other by means
of a rope. Initially they are 20 m apart. The girl exerts a horizontal force on the box, pulling it towards her.
How far has the girl travelled when she meets the box ?
(A) 10 m (B) Since there is no friction, the girl will not move
(C) 16 m (D) 4m
20. The following three objects (1) a metal tray, (2) a block of wood, and (3) a wooden cap are left in a closed
room overnight. Next day the temperature of each is recorded as T1 , T2 and T3 respectively. The likely
situation is
(A) T 1 = T 2 = T3 (B) T 3 > T 2 > T1 (C) T 3 = T 2 > T1 (D) T 3 > T 2 = T1
21. We sit in the room with windows open. Then
(A) Air pressure on the floor of the room equals the atmospheric pressure but the air pressure on the
ceiling is negligible
(B) Air pressure is nearly the same on the floor, the walls and ceiling
(C) Air pressure on the floor equals the weight of the air coloumn inside the room (from floor to ceiling)
per unit area
(D) Air pressure on the walls is zero since the weight of air acts downward
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22. A girl standing at point P on a beach wishes to reach a point Q in the sea as quickly as possible. She can
run at 6 kmh–1 on the beach and swim at 4 kmh–1 in the sea. She should take the path
(A) PAQ (B) PBQ (C) PCQ (D) PDQ
23. Light enters an isosceles right triangular prism at normal incidence through face AB and undergoes total
internal reflection at face BC as shown below :
The minimum value of the refractive index of the prifsm is close to :
(A) 1.10 (B) 1.55 (C) 1.42 (D) 1.72
24. A convex lens is used to form an image of an object on a screen. If the upper half of the lens is blackened
so that it becomes opaque. Then :
(A) Only half of the image will be visible (B) the image position shifts towards the lens
(C) the image position shifts away from the lens (D) the brightness of the image reduces
25. A cylindrical copper rod has length L and resistance R. If it is melted and formed into another rod of length
2L. the resistance will be :
(A) R (B) 2R (C) 4R (D) 8R
26. Two charges +Q and _2Q are located at points A and B on a horizontal line as shown below :
The electric field is zero at a point which is located at a finite distance :
(A) On the perpendicular bisector of AB (B) left of A on the line
(C) between A and B on the line (D) right of B on the line
27. A 750 W motor drives a pump which lifts 300 litres of water per minute to a height of 6 meters. The
efficiency of the motor is nearly (take acceleration due to gravity to be 10 m/s2)
(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 20%
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28. Figure below shows a portion of an electric circuit with the currents in ampreres and their directions. The
magnitude and direction of the current in the portion PQ is :
(A) 0A (B) 3A from P to Q (C) 4A from Q to P (D) 6A from Q to P
29. A nucleus of lead pb 314
82
emits two electrons followed by an alpha particle. The resulting nucleus will have
(A) 82 protons and 128 neutrons (B) 80 protons and 130 neutrons
(C) 82 protons and 130 neutrons (D) 78 protons and 134 neutrons
30. The number of air molecules in a (5m × 5m × 4m) room at standard temperature and pressure is of the
order of
(A) 6 × 1023 (B) 3 × 1024 (C) 3 × 1027 (D) 6 × 1030
CHEMISTRY
31. Two balloons A and B containing 0.2 mole and 0.1 mole of helium at room temperature and 2.0 atm.
respectively, are connected. When equilibrium is established, the final pressure of He in the system
is
(A) 0.1 atm (B)1.5 atm
(C) 0.5 atm (D) 2.0 atm
32. In the following set of aromatic compounds
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
the correct order of reactivity toward friedelcrafts alkylations is
(A) i > ii > iv (B) ii > iv > iii > i
(C) iv > iii >i (D) iii > i > iv > ii
33. The set of principal (n). azimuthal (l) and magnetic (m) quantum numbers that is not allowed for the
electron in Hatom is
(A) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1 (B) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0
(D) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0 (D) n = 2, l = 2, m = 1
34. At 298 K, assuming ideal behaviour, the average kinetic energy of a deuterium molecule is :
(A) two times that of a hydrogen molecule (B) four times that of a hydrogen molecule
(C) half of that of a hydrogen molecule (D) same as that of a hydrogen molecule
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35. An isolated box, equally partitioned contains two ideal gases A and B as shown
When the partition is removed, the gases mix. The changes in enthalpy (H) and entropy (S) in the
process, respectively, are :
(A) zero, positive (B) zero, negative (C) positive, zero (D) negative, zero
36. The gas produced from thermal decomposition of (NH 4)2Cr2O7 is :
(A) oxygen (B) nitric oxide (C) ammonia (D) nitrogen
37. The solubility curve of KNO 3 in water is shown below.
The amount of KNO 3 that dissolves in 50 g of water at 40°C is closest to :
(A) 100 g (B) 150 g (C) 200 g (D) 50 g
38. A compound that shows positive iodoform test is :
(A) 2pentanone (B) 3pentanone (C) 3pentanol (D) 1pentanol
39. After 2 hours the amount of a certain radioactive substance reduces to 1/16 th of the original amount
(the decay process follows firstorder kinetics). The halflife of the radioactive substance is :
(A) 15 min (B) 30 min (C) 45 min (D) 60 min
40. In the conversion of a zinc ore to zinc metal, the process of roasting involves.
(A) ZnCO 3 ZnO (B) ZnO ZnSO 4
(C) ZnS ZnO (D) ZnS ZnSO 4
41. The number of PH bond(s) in H 3PO 2, H3PO 3 and H3PO 4, respectively, is :
(A) 2, 0, 1 (B) 1, 1, 1 (C) 2, 0, 0 (D) 2, 1, 0
42. When chlorine gas is passed through an aqueous solution of KBr, the solution turns orange brown
due to the formation of :
(A) KCl (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) Br 2
43. Among
the compound which is not aromatic is :
(A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iv
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44. Among the following compounds :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2, 3–dimethylhexane is :
(A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iv
45. The major product formed in the reaction :
Product is :
(A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iv
BIOLOGY
46. If parents have free ear lobes and the offspring has attached ear lobes, then the parents must be
(A) homozygous (B) heterozygous (B) codominant (D) nullizygous
47. During meiosis there is
(A) one round of DNA replication and one division
(B) two round of DNA replication and one division
(C) two round of DNA replication and two division
(D) one round of DNA replication and two division
48. Blood clotting involves the conversion of :
(A) prothrombin to thromboplastin (B) thromboplastin to prothrombin
(C) fibrinogen to fibrin (D) fibrin to fibrinogen
49. The gall bladder is involved in :
(A) synthesizing bile (B) storing and secreting bile
(C) degrading bile (D) producing insulin
50. Which one of the following colors is the LEAST useful for plant life ?
(A) red (B) blue (C) green (D) violet
51. At rest the volume of air that moves in and out per breath is called :
(A) resting volume (B) vital capacity (C) lung capacity (D) tidal volume
52. How many sex chromosomes does a normal human inherit from father ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 23 (D) 46
53. In the 16th century, sailors who travelled long distances had diseases related to malnutrition, because
they were not able to eat fresh vegetables and fruits for months at a time scurvy is a result of
deficiency of
(A) carbohydrates (B) proteins (C) vitamin C (D) vitamin D
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54. The following structure is NOT found in plant cells
(A) vacuole (B) nucleus (C) centriole (D) vitamin D
55. The cell that transfers information about pain to the brain is called a
(A) neuron (B) blastocyst (C) histoblast (D) vitamins
56. The presence of nutrient in the food can be tested. Benedict's's test is used to detect.
(A) sucrose (B) glucose (C) fatty acid (D) vitamins
57. Several mineral such as iron, iodine, calcium and phosphorous are important nutrients. Iodine is
found in
(A) thyroxine (B) adrenaline (C) insulin (D) testosterone
58. The principle upon which a lactometer works is
(A) viscosity (B) density (C) surface tension (D) presence of protein
59. Mammalian liver cells will swell when kept in
(A) hypertonic solution (B) hypotonic solutions
(C) isotonic solution (C) isothermal solutions
60. The form of cancer called 'carcinoma' is associated with
(A) lymph cells (B) mesodermal cells
(C) blood cells (D) epithelial cells
PARTII (2 Marks)
MATHEMATICS
61. Let f(x) = ax2 + bx + c, where a, b, c are integers. Suppose f(1) = 0, 40 < f(6) < 50, 60 < f(7) < 70, and
1000t < f(50) < 1000 (t + 1) for some integer t. Then the value of t is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 or more
62. The expression
22 1 32 1 42 1 (2011)2 1
.......... ...
22 1 32 1 42 1 (2011)2 1
lies in the interval
1 1 1
(A) (2010, 2010 ) (B) 2011 , 2011
2 2011 2012
1 1
(C) (2011, 2011 ) (D) (2012, 2012 )
2 2
63. The diameter of one of the bases of a truncated cone is 100 mm. If the diameter of this base is increased
by 21% such that it still remains a truncated cone with the height and the other base unchanged, the volume
also increases by 21%. The radius the other base (in mm) is
(A) 65 (B) 55 (C) 45 (D) 35
64. Two friends A and B are 30 km apart and they start simultaneously on motorcycles to meet each other. The
speed of A is 3 times that of B. The distance between them decreases at the rate of 2 km per minute. Ten
minutes after they start A's vehicle breaks down and A stops and waits for B to arrive. After how much time
(in minutes) A started riding, does B meet A ?
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 30
65. There taps A, B, C fill up a tank independently in 10 hr, 20 hr, 30 hr, respectively. Initially the tank is empty
and exactly one pair of taps is open during each hour and every pair of taps is open at least for one hour.
What is the minimum number of hours required to fill the tank ?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
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PHYSICS
66. An object with uniform desity is attached to a spring that is known to stretch linearly with applied force as
shown below
When the spring object system is immersed in a liquid of density 1 as shown in the figure, the spring
stretches by an amount x1 ( > 1). When the experiment is repeated in a liquid of density 2 < 1 . the
spring strethces by an amound x2. Neglecting any buoyant force on the spring, the density of the object is
:
1x1 2 x 2 1x 2 2 x1 1x 2 2 x1 1x1 2x 2
(A) x x (B) x x (C) x x (D) x x
1 2 2 1 1 2 1 2
67. A body of 0.5 kg moves along the positive x  axis under the influence of a varying force F (in Newtons) as
shown below :
3
3
F(N)
1
0,0 2 4 6 8 10
x(m)
If the speed of the object at x = 4m is 3.16 ms–1 then its speed at x = 8 m is :
(A) 3.16 ms–1 (B) 9.3 ms–1 (C) 8 ms–1 (D) 6.8 ms–1
68. In a thermally isolated system. Two boxes filled with an ideal gas are connected by a valve. When the valve
is in closed position, states of the box 1 and 2. respectively, are (1 atm, V, T) and (0.5 atm, 4V, T). When
the valve is opened, the final pressure of the system is approximately.
(A) 0.5 atm (B) 0.6 atm (C) 0.75 atm (D) 1.0 atm
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69. A student sees the top edge and the bottom centre C of a pool simultaneously from an angle above the
horizontal as shown in the figure. The refractive index of water which fills up to the top edge of the pool is 4/
3. If h/x = 7/4 then cos is :
2 8 8 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 3 45 3 53 21
70. In the following circuit, the 1 resistor dissipates power P. If the resistor is replaced by 9. the power
dissipated in it is
(A) P (B) 3P (C) 9P (D) P/3
CHEMISTRY
71. An aqueous buffer is prepared by adding 100 ml of 0.1 mol L –1 acetic acid to 50 ml of 0.2 mol L–1 of
sodium acetate. If pKa of acetic acid is 4.76, the pH of the buffer is :
(A) 4.26 (B) 5.76 (C) 3.76 (D) 4.76
72. The maximum number of structural isomers possible for the hydrocarbon having the molecular formula
C4H6, is :
(A) 12 (B) 3 (C) 9 (D) 5
73. In the following reaction sequence, X and Y, respectively, are :
Y
X
OH
(A) H2O2 ; LiAlH4 (B) C6H5 COOOH ; LiAlH 4
(C) C6H5 COOOH ; Zn/Hg HCl (D) Alkaline KMnO 4 ; LiAlH4
74. Among (i) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, (ii) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 , (iii) [Cr(H2O)]6Cl3, (iv) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl2 the complex which is
diamagnetic is :
(A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iv
75. At 783 K in the reaction H 2 (g) + I2 (g) 2Hl(g), the molar concentration (mol L –1) of H2, I2 and HI
at some instant of time are 0.1, 0.2 and 0.4, respectively. If the equilibrium constant is 46 at the same
temperature, then as the reaction proceeds.
(A) the amount of HI will increase (B) the amount of HI will decrease
(C) the amount of H 2 and I2 will increases (D) the amount of H 2 and I2 will not change
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BIOLOGY
76. You removed four fresh tobacco leaves of similar size and age. Leave "leaf 1" as it is , smear " leaf 2"
with vaseline on the upper surface, "leaf 3" on the lower surface and "leaf 4" on both the surface.
Hang the leaves for a few hours and you observe that leaf 1 wilts the most, leaf 2 has wilted. leaf 3
wilted less than leaf 2 and leaf 4 remains fares. Which of the following conclusion is most logical ?
(A) tobacco leaf has more stomata on the upper surface
(B) tobacco leaf has more stomata on the lower surface
(C) stomata are equally distributed in upper and lower surface
(D) no conclusion on stomatal distribution can be drawn from this experiment
77. Vestigial organs such as the appendix exist because
(A) they had and important function during development which is not needed in the adult
(B) they have a redundant role to play if an organ with similar functions fails.
(C) nature cannot get rid of structures that have already formed
(D) they were inherited from an evolutionary ancestor in which they were functional
78. Mendel showed that unit factors, now called alleles, exhibit a dominant recessive relationship. In a
monohybrid cross. the .............................trait disappears in the first filial generation
(A) dominant (B) codominant
(C) recessive (D) semidominant
79. If a man with an Xlinked dominant disease has six sons with a woman having a normal complement
of genes, then the sons will
(A) not show any symptoms of the disease
(B) show strong symptoms of the disease
(C) three will show a disease symptom, while three will not
(D) five will show a disease symptom, while one will no
80. In evolutionary terms, an Indian school boy is more closely related to
(A) an Indian frog (B) an American snake
(C) a Chinese horse (D) an African shark
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2012
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
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A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR2012 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Let f(x) be a quadratic polynomial with f(2) = 10 and f(–2) = –2. Then the coefficient of x in f(x) is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(0.75 )3
2. The squareroot of + (0.75 + (0.75)2 + 1) is
1 (0.75 )
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
3. The sides of a triangle are distinct positive integers in an arithmetic progression. If the smallest side is
10, the number of such triangles is
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) infinitely many
a ab abc abc d a
4. If a, b, c, d are positive real numbers such that = = = , then
3 4 5 6 b 2c 3d
is
1
(A) (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) not determinable
2
22 4 2 6 2 ... (2n)2
5. For to exceed 1.01, the maximum value of n is
12 3 2 5 2 ... (2n 1)2
(A) 99 (B) 100 (C) 101 (D) 150
6. In triangle ABC, let AD, BE and CF be the internal angle bisectors with D,E and F on the sides BC, CA and
AB respectively. Suppose AD, BE and CF concur at I and B, D, I, F are concyclic, then IFD has
measure
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) any value 90
7. A regular octagon is formed by cutting congruent isosceles right–angled triangles from the corners of a
square. If the square has side–length 1, the sidelength of the octagon is
2 –1 5 1 5 1
(A) (B) 2 1 (C) (D)
2 4 3
8. A circle is drawn in a sector of a larger circle of radius, r, as shown in the adjacent figure. The smaller
circle is tangent to the two bounding radii and the arc of the sector. The radius of the small circle is
r r 2 3r r
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 5 2
9. In the figure, AKHF, FKDE and HBCK are unit squares; AD and BF intersect in X. Then the ratio of the
areas of triangles AXF and ABF is
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 5 6 8
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10. Suppose Q is a point on the circle with centre P and radius 1, as shown in the figure; R is a point outside
the circle such that QR = 1 and QRP = 2. Let S be the point where the segment RP intersects the given
circle. Then measure of RQS equals
(A) 86 (B) 87 (C) 88 (D) 89
11. Observe that, at any instant, the minute and hour hands of a clock make two angles them whose sum is
360. At 6:15 the difference between these two angles is
(A) 165 (B) 170 (C) 175 (D) 180
12. Two workers A and B are engaged to do a piece of work. Working alone, A takes 8 hours more to complete
1
the work than if both worked together. On the other hand, working alone, B would need 4
hours more to
2
complete the work than if both worked together. How much time would they take to complete the job
working together?
(A) 4 hours (B) 5 hours (C) 6 hours (D) 7 house
13. When a bucket is half full, the weight of the bucket and the water is 10 kg. When the bucket is two–thirds
full, the total weight is 11 kg. What is the total weight, in kg, when the bucket is completely full?
1 2
(A) 12 (B) 12 (C) 12 (D) 13
2 3
m 12
14. How many ordered pairs of (m,n) integers satisfy = ?
12 n
(A) 30 (B) 15 (C) 12 (D) 10
15. Let S = {1, 2, 3, ..., 40} and let A be a subset of S such that no two elements in A have their sum divisible
by 5. What is the maximum number of elements possible in A?
(A) 10 (B) 13 (C) 17 (D) 20
PHYSICS
16. A clay ball of mass m and speed v strikes another metal ball of same mass m, which is at rest. They stick
together after collision. The kinetic energy of the system after collision is :
(A) mv2/2 (B) mv2/4 (C) 2 mv2 (D) mv2
17. A ball falls vertically downward and bounces off a horizontal floor. The speed of the ball just before reaching
the floor (u1) is equal to the speed just after leaving contact with the floor (u2) ; u1 = u2 . The corresponding
magnitudes of accelerations are denoted respectively by a1 and a2. The air resistance during motion is
proportional to speed and is not negligible. If g is acceleration due to gravity, then :
(A) a1 < a2 (B) a1 = a2 g (C) a1 > a2 (D) a1 = a2 = g
18. Which of the following statements is true about the flow of electrons in an electric circuit ?
(A) Electrons always flow from lower to higher potential
(B) Electrons always flow from higher to lower potential
(C) Electrons flow from lower to higher potential except through power sources
(D) Electrons flow from higher to lower potential, except through power sources
19. A boat crossing a river moves with a velocity v relative to still water. The river is flowing with a velocity v/2
with respect to the bank. The angle with respect to the flow direction with which the boat should move to
minimize the drift is :
(A) 30º (B) 60º (C) 150º (D) 120º
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20. In the Arctic region hemispherical houses called Igloos are made of ice. It is possible to maintain inside an
Igloo as high as 20ºC because :
(A) ice has high thermal conductivity (B) ice has low thermal conductivity
(C) ice has high specific heat (D) ice has higher density than water
21. In the figure below, PQRS denotes the path followed by a ray of light as it travels three media in succession.
The absolute refractive indices ofthe m edia are 1,2 and 3 respectively. (The line segment RS' in the
figure is parallel to PQ). Then :
(A) 1 > 2 > 3 (B) 1 < 2 3 (C) 1 = 3 < 2 (D) 1 < 3 < 2
22. A ray of white light is incident on a spherical water drop whose center is C as shown below. When observed
from the opposite side, the emergent light :
(A) will be white and will emerge without deviating
(B) will be internally reflected
(C) will split into different colors such that the angles of deviation will be different for different colors
(D) will split into different colors such that the angles of deviation will be same for all colors
23. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm is placed infront of a plane mirror at a distance 25 cm from the mirror.
Where on the optical axis and from the centre of the lens should a small object be placed such that the final
image coincides with the object :
(A) 15 cm and on the opposite side of the mirror
(B) 15 cm and between the mirror and the lens
(C) 7.5 cm and on the opposite side of the mirror
(D) 7.5 cm and between the mirror and the lens
24. Following figures show different combinations of identical bulb(s) connected to identical battery(ies). Which
option is correct regarding the total power dissipated in the circuit ?
(A) P < Q < R < S (B) R < Q < P < S (C) P < Q < R = S (D) P < R < Q < S
25. A circular metallic ring of radius R has a small gap of width d. The coefficient of thermal expansion of the
metal is in appropriate units. If we increase the temperature of the ring by an amount T, then width of the
gap:
(A) will increase by an amount dT (B) will not change
(C) will increase by an amount (2R – d)T (D) will decrease by an amount dT
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26. A girl holds a book of mass m against a vertical wall with a horizontal force F using her finger so that the
book does not move. The frictional force on the book by the wall is :
(A) F and along the finger but pointing towards the girl
(B) F upwards where is the coefficient of static friction
(C) mg and upwards
(D) equal and opposite to the resultant of F and mg
27. A solid cube and a solid sphere both made of same material are completely submerged in water but to
different depths. The sphere and the cube have same surface area. The buoyant force is :
(A) greater for the cube than the sphere
(B) greater for the sphere than the cube
(C) same for the sphere and the cube
(D) greater for the object that is submerged deeper
238 214
28. 92 U atom disintegrates to 84 Po with a half life of 4.5×109 years by emitting six alpha particle and n
electrons. Here n is :
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 10 (D) 7
29. Which statement about the Rutherford model of the atom is NOT true ?
(A) There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus
(B) Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus
(C) Size of the nucleus is comparable to the atom
(D) Electrons occupy the space surrounding the nucleus
30. A girl brings a positively charged rod near a thin neutral stream of water from a tap. She observes that the
water stream bends towards her. Instead, if she were to bring a negatively charged rod near to the stream,
it will :
(A) bend in the same direction
(B) bend in the opposite direction
(C) not bend at all
(D) bend in the opposite direction above and below the rod
CHEMISTRY
31. The weight of calcium oxide formed by burning 20 g of calcium in excess oxygen is :
(A) 36 g (B) 56 g (C) 28 g (D) 72 g
NaOH
32. The major products in the reaction Br 3CCHO are :
(A) CHBr3 + (B)
Br Br
Br Br
(C) (D) OH + ONa
Br Br
O
40 +
33. The number of electrons plus neutrons in 19 K is
(A) 38 (B) 59 (C) 39 (D) 40
34. Among the following, the most basic oxide is
(A) Al2O3 (B) P2O5 (C) SiO2 (D) Na2O
35. By dissolving 0.35 mole of sodium chloride in water, 1.30 L of salt solution is obtained. The molarity of the
resulting solution should be reported as :
(A) 0.3 (B) 0.269 (C) 0.27 (D) 0.2692
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36. Among the quantities, density (), temperature (T), enthalpy (H), heat capacity (Cp), volume (V) and
pressure (P), a set of intensive variables are :
(A) (, T, H) (B) (H, T, V) (C) (V, T, Cp) (D) (, T, P)
37. The value of ‘x’ in KAl(SO4)x, 12H2O is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
38. Among the following substituted pyridines, the most basic compound is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
39. The major product in the following reaction is :
H3C–CC–H + HBr(excess)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40. The major product in the following at 25°C is :
CH3COOH
CH3CH2NH2
(A) CH3CONHCH2CH3 (B) CH3CH=NCH2CH3
+ –
(C) NH CH2CH3.CH3COO
3
(D) CH3CON=CHCH3
41. A reaction with reaction quotient QC and equilibrium constant KC, will proceed in the direction of the products
when :
(A) QC = KC (B) QC < KC (C) QC > KC (D) QC = 0
42. Acetylsalicylic acid is a pain killer and is commonly known as :
(A) paracetamol (B) aspirin (C) ibuprofen (D) penicillin
43. The molecule which does not exhibit strong hydrogen bonding is :
(A) methyl amine (B) acetic acid (C) diethyl ether (D) glucose
44. The following two compounds are :
(A) geometrical isomers (B) positional isomers
(C) functional group isomers (D) optical isomers
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45. The graph that does not represent the behaviour of an ideal gas is :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
BIOLOGY
46. A smear of blood from a healthy individual is stained with a nuclear stain called hematoxylin and then
obseved under a light microscope. Which of the following cell type would be highest in number ?
(A) neutrophils (B) lymphocytes (C) eosinophils (D) monocytes
47. Which of the following biological phenomenon involves a bacteriophage ?
(A) transformation (B) conjugation (C) translocation (D) transduction
48. In which compartment of cell does the process of glycolysis takes place ?
(A) Golig complex (B) cytoplasm (C) mitochondria (D) ribosome
49. Huntingtion's disease is disease of the
(A) nervous system (B) circulatory system (C) respiratory system (D) excretory system
50. A cell will experience the highest level of endosmosis when it is kept in
(A) distilled water (B) sugar solution (C) salt solution (D) protein solution
51. When the leaf of the 'touchmenot' (chuimui, Minosa pudica) plant is touched, the leaf droops because
(A) a nerve signal passes through the plant
(B) the temperature of the plant increases
(C) water is lost from the cell at the base of the leaf
(D) the plant dies
52. If you are seeing mangroves aroud you, which part to India are you visiting
(A) Western Ghats (B) Thar desert (C) Sunderbans (D) Himalayas
53. Myeloid tissue is a type of
(A) haematopoietic tissue(B) cartilage tissue (C) muscular tissue (D) areolar tissue
54. The heart of an amphibian is usually
(A) two chambered (B) three chambered (C) four chambered (D) three and half chambered
55. Gigantism and acromegaly are due to defects in the function of the following gland
(A) adrenals (B) thyroid (C) pancreas (D) pituitary
56. The pH of 10–8 M HCI solution is,
(A) 8 (B) close to 7 (C) 1 (D) 0
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57. Which one of the following organelles can synthesize some of its own proteins
(A) lysozome (B) Golgi apparatus (C) vacuole (D) mitochondrion
58. Maltose is a polymer of
(A) one glucose and one fructose molecule
(B) one glucose and galactose molecule
(C) two glucose molecules
(D) two fructose molecules
59. The roots of some higher plants get associated with a fungal partner. The roots provide food to the fungus
while the funus supplies water to the roots. The structure so formed is known as
(A) lichen (B) anabaena (C) mycorrhiza (D) rhizobium
60. Prehistoric forms of life are found in fossils. The probability of finding fossils of more complex organisms
(A) Increases from lower to upper strata
(B) decreases from lower to upper strata
(C) remains constant in each stratum
(D) uncertain
PARTII
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
a 2 b
61. Let a, b, c be positive integers such that is a rational number, then which of the following is
b 2 c
always an integer?
2a 2 b 2 a2 b2 c 2 a 2 2b 2 a2 b2 c 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2b 2 c 2 abc b 2 2c 2 a c b
62. The number of solutions (x, y, z) to the sytem of equations x + 2y + 4z = 9, 4yz + 2xz + xy = 13, xyz = 13,
such that at least two of x, y, z are integers is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 4
63. In a triangel ABC, it is known that AB = AC. Suppose D is the mid–point of AC and BD = BC = 2. Then the
area of the triangle ABC, is
(A) 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 7 (D) 2 7
64. A train leaves Pune at 7:30 am and reaches Mumbai at 11:30 am. Another train leaves Mumbai at 9:30 am
and reaches Pune at 1:00 pm. Assuming that the two trains travel at constant speeds, at what time do the
two trains cross each other?
(A) 10:20 am (B) 11:30 am (C) 10:26 am (D) data not sufficient
65. In the adjacent figures, which has the shortest path?
(A) Fig.1 (B) Fig.2 (C) Fig.3 (D) Fig.4
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PHYSICS
66. In the circuit shown, n identical resistors R are connected in parallel (n > 1) and the combination in series
to another resistor R0. In the adjoining circuit n resistors of resistance R are all connected in series along
with R0 .
The batteries in both circuits are identical and net power dissipated in the n resistors in both circuit is same.
The ratio R0/R is :
(A) 1 (B) n (C) n2 (D) 1/n
67. A firecracker is thrown with velocity of 30 ms–1 in a direction which makes an angle of 75º with the vertical
axis. At some point on its trajectory, the firecracker split into two identical pieces in such a way that one
piece falls 27 m far from the shooting point. Assuming that all trajectories are contained in the same plane,
how far will the other piece fall from the shooting point ? (Take g = 10 ms–2 and neglect air resistance)
(A) 63 m or 144 m (B) 28 m or 72 m (C) 72 m or 99 m (D) 63 m or 117 m
68. A block of mass m is sliding down an inclined plane with constant speed. At a certain instant t0, its height
above the ground is h. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the the plane is . If the
block reaches the ground at a later instant tg , then the energy dissipated by friction in the time interval (tg –
t0) is:
(A) mgh (B) mgh (C) mgh/sin (D) mgh/cos
69. A circular loop of wire is in the same plane as an infinitely long wire carrying a constant current i. Four
possible motions of the loop are marked by N,E,W and S as shown :
A clockwise current is induced in the loop when loop is pulled towards :
(A) N (B) E (C) W (D) S
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70. 150 g of ice is mixed with 100 g of water at temperature 80ºC. The latent heat of ice is 80 cal/g and the
specific heat of water is 1 cal/gºC. Assuming no heat loss to the environment, the amount of ice which does
not melt is :
(A) 100 g (B) 0 g (C) 150 g (D) 50 g
CHEMISTRY
71. Upon fully dissolving 2.0 g of a metal in sulfuric acid, 6.8 g of the metal sulfate is formed. The equilvalent
weight of the metal is :
(A) 13.6 g (B) 20.0 g (C) 4.0 g (D) 10.0 g
72. Upon mixing equal volumes of aqueous solutions of 0.1 M HCl and 0.2 M H2SO4, the concentration of H+ in
the resulting solution is :
(A) 0.30 mol/L (B) 0.25 mol/L (C) 0.15 mol/L (D) 0.10 mol/L
73. The products X and Y in the following reaction sequence are :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
74. A plot of the kinetic energy (½ mv2) of ejected electrons as a function of the frequency () of incident
radiation for four alkali metals (M1, M2, M3, M4) is shown below :
The alkali metals M1, M2, M3 and M4 are, respectively :
(A) Li, Na, K, and Rb (B) Rb, K, Na, and Li
(C) Na, K, Li, and Rb (D) Rb, Li, Na, and K
75. The number of moles of Br2 produced when two moles of potassium permanganate are treated with excess
potassium bromide in aqueous acid medium is :
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
BIOLOGY
76. A baby is born with the normal number and distribution of rods, but no cones in his eyes. We would expect
that the baby would be
(A) color blind (B) night blind
(C) blind in both eyes (D) blind in one eye
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77. In mammals, pleural membranes cover the lungs as well as insides of the rib cage. The pleural fluid in
between the two membranes
(A) dissolves oxygen for transfer to the alveoli
(B) dissolves CO2 for transfer to the blood
(C) provides partial pressure
(D) reduces the friction between the ribs and the lungs
78. At which phase of the cell cycle, DNA polymerase activity is at its highest
(A) Gap 1 (G1) (B) Mitotic (M) (C) Synthetic (S) (D) Gap 2 (G2)
79. Usain Bolt, an Olympic runner, at the end of a 100 mater sprint, will have more of the following in his
muscles
(A) ATP (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Lactic acid (D) Varbon dioxide
80. Desert temperature often varies between 0 to 50ºC. The DNA polymerase isolated from a Camel living in the
desert will be able to synthesize DNA most efficiently at
(A) 0 ºC (B) 37 ºC (C) 50 ºC (D) 25 ºC
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2013
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
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A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
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YEAR2013 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Let x, y, z be three nonnegative integers such that x + y + z = 10. The maximum possible value of xyz + xy
+ yz + zx is
(A) 52 (B) 64 (C) 69 (D) 73
2. If a, b are natural numbers such that 2013 + a2 = b2, then the minimum possible value of ab is
(A) 671 (B) 668 (C) 658 (D) 645
3. The number of values of b for which there is an isosceles triangle with sides of length b + 5, 3b – 2 and 6 – b is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
4. Let a, b be nonzero real numbers. Which of the following statements about the quadratic equation
ax2 + (a + b)x + b = 0
is neccesarily true ?
(I) It has at least one negative root
(II) It has at least one positive root.
(III) Both its roots are real.
(A) (I) and (II) only (B) (I) and (III) only (C) (II) and (III) only (D) All of them
x y z y z x x3 y3 z3
5. Let x, y, z be nonzero real numbers such that y z x 7 and x y z 9 , then 3 3 3 3
y z x
is equal to
(A) 152 (B) 153 (D) 154 (D) 155
6. In a triangle ABC with A < B < C, points D, E, F are on the interior of segments BC, CA, AB,
respectively. Which of the following triangles CANNOT be similar to ABC?
(A) Triangle ABD (B) Triangle BCE (C) Triangle CAF (D) Triangle DEF
7. Tangents to a circle at points P and Q on the circle intersect at a point R. If PQ = 6 and PR = 5 then the
radius of the circle is
13 15 16
(A) (B) 4 (C) (D)
3 4 5
8. In an acuteangled triangle ABC, the altitudes from A, B, C when extended intersect the circumcircle again
at points A1, B1, C1, respectively. If ABC = 45° then A1B1C1 equals
(A) 45° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 135°
9. In a rectangle ABCD, points X and Y are the midpoints of AD and DC, respectively. Lines BX and CD
when extended intersect at E, lines BY and AD when extended intersect at F. If the area of ABCD is 60
then the area of BEF is
(A) 60 (B) 80 (C) 90 (D) 120
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10. In the figure given below, ABCDEF is a regular hexagon of side length 1, AFPS and ABQR are squares.
Then the ratio Area (APQ)/ Area (SRP) equals
2 1 3 3
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
2 4
11. A person X is running around a circular track completing one round every 40 seconds. Another person Y
running in the opposite direction meets X every 15 second. The time, expressed in seconds, taken by Y to
complete one round is
(A) 12.5 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 55
12. The least positive integer n for which
n 1 n 1 0.2 is
(A) 24 (B) 25 (C) 26 (D) 27
13. How many natural numbers n are there such that n!+10 is a perfect square?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) infinitely many
14. Ten points lie in a plane so that no three of them are collinear. The number of lines passing through exactly
two of these points and dividing the plane into two regions each containing four of the remaining points is
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) dependent on the configuration of points
15. In a city, the total income of all people with salary below Rs. 10000 per annum is less than the total income
of all people with salary above Rs. 10000 per annum. If the salaries of people in the first group increases
by 5% and the salaries of people in the second group decreases by 5% then the average income of all
people
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) cannot be determined from the data
PHYSICS
16. A man inside a freely falling box throws a heavy ball towards a side wall. The ball keeps on bouncing
between the opposite walls of the box. We neglect air resistance and friciton. Which of the following figures
depicts the motion of the centre of mass of the entire system (man, the ball and the box)?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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17. A ball is thrown horizontally from a height with a certain initial velocity at time t = 0. The ball bounces
repeatedly from the ground with the coefficient of restitution less than 1 as shown.
Neglect air resistance and taking the upward direction as positive, which figure qualitatively depicts the
vertical component of the ball’s velocity (Vy) as a function of time (t)?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. A tall tank filled with water has an irregular shape as shown. The wall CD makes an angle of 45° with the
horizontal; the wall AB is normal to the base BC. The lengths AB and CD are much smaller than the height
h of water (figure not to scale).
Let P1, P2 and P3 be the pressures exerted by the water on the wall AB, base BC and the wall CD
respectively. Density of water is and g is acceleration due to gravity. Then, approximately
1 1
(A) P1 = P2 = P3 (B) P1 = 0, P3 = P2 (C) P = P = P2 (D) P1 = P3 = 0, P2 = hg
2 1 3 2
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19. The accompanying graph of position x versus time t represents the motion of a particle. If p and q are both
positive constants, the expression that best describes the acceleration of the particle is
(A) a = – p – qt (B) a = –p + qt (C) a = p + qt (D) a = p – qt
20. Two stones of mass m1 and m2 (such that m1 > m2) are dropped t time apart from the same height towards
the ground. At a later time t the difference in their speed is V and their mutual separation is S. While both
stones are in flight
(A) V decreases with time and S increases with time
(B) Both V and S increase with time
(C) V remains constant with time and S decreases with time
(D) V remains constant with time and S increases with time
21. The refractive index of a prism measured using three lines of a mercury vapour lamp. If 1, 2 and 3 are
the measured refractive indices for these green, blue and yellow lines respectively, then
(A) 2 > 3 > 1 (B) 2 > 1 > 3 (C) 3 > 2 > 1 (D) 1 > 2 > 3
22. A horizontal parallel beam of light passes through a vertical convex lens of focal length 20 cm and is then
reflected by a tilted plane mirror so that it converges to a point I. The distance PI is 10 cm.
M is a point at which the axis of the lens intersects the mirror. The distance PM is 10 cm. The angle which
the mirror makes with the horizontal is
(A) 15° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 60°
23. In a car a rear view mirror having a radius of curvature 1.50 m forms a virtual image of a bus located 10.0
m from the mirror. The factor by which the mirror magnifies the size of the bus is close to
(A) 0.06 (B) 0.07 (C) 0.08 (D) 0.09
24. Consider the circuit shown in the figure below :
All the resistors are identical. The ratio I/I’ is
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4
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25. The figure shows a bar magnet and a metallic coil. Consider four situations.
(I) Moving the magnet away from the coil.
(II) Moving the coil towards the magnet.
(III) Rotating the coil about the vertical diameter.
(IV) Rotating the coil about its axis.
An emf in the coil will be generated for the following situations.
(A) (I) and (II) only (B) (I), (II) and (IV) only (C) (I), (II), and (III) only
(D) (I), (II), (III), and (IV)
26. A current of 0.1 A flows through a 25 resistor represented by the circuit diagram. The current in the 80
resistor is
(A) 0.1 A (B) 0.2 A (C) 0.3 A (D) 0.4 A
27. Solar energy is incident normally on the earth’s surface at the rate of about 1.4 kW m –2. The distance
between the earth and the sun is 1.5 × 1011 m. Energy (E) and mass (m) are related by Einstein equation
E=mc2 where c (3 × 108 ms–1) is the speed of light in free space. The decrease in the mass of the sun is
(A) 109kg s–1 (B) 1030kg s–1 (C) 1026 kg s–1 (D) 1011 kg s–1
28. If the current through a resistor in a circuit increases by 3%, the power dissipated by the resistor
(A) increases approximately by 3%
(B) increases approximately by 6%
(C) increases approximately by 9%
(D) decreases approximately by 3%
29. An ideal gas filled in a cylinder occupies volume V. The gas is compressed isothermally to the volume V/3.
Now the cylinder valve is opened and the gas is allowed to leak keeping temperature same. What percentage
of the number of molecules escape to bring the pressure in the cylinder back to its original valuye.
(A) 66% (B) 33% (C) 0.33% (D) 0.66%
30. An electron enters a chamber in which a uniform magnetic field is present as shown
An electric field of appropriate magnitude is also applied so that the electron travels undeviated without any
change in its speed thorugh the chamber. We are ignoring gravity. Then, the direction of the electric field is
(A) opposite to the direction of the magnetic field
(B) opposite to the direction of the electron’s motion
(C) normal to the plane of the paper and coming out of the plane of the paper
(D) normal to the plane of the paper and into the plane of the paper
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CHEMISTRY
31. The moelcule having a formyl group is
(A) acetone (B) acetaldehyde (C) acetic acid (D) acetic anhydride
32. The structure of cis3hexene is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33. The number of sp2 hybridized carbon atoms in
, is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
34. The number of valence electrons in an atom with electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 11
35. The pair of atoms having the same number of neutrons is
12 24 23 19 23 24 23 39
(A) 6 C,12 Mg (B) 11Na, 9 F (C) 11Na,12 Mg (D) 11Na,19 K
36. Which of the following molecules has no dipole moment ?
(A) CH3Cl (B) CHCl3 (C) CH2Cl2 (D) CCl4
37. The decay profiles of three radioactive species A, B and C are given below :
These profiles imply that the decay constants kA, kB and kC follow the order
(A) kA > k B > k C (B) kA > k C > k B (C) kB > k A > k C (D) kC > kB > kA
38. A specific volume of H2 requires 24 s to diffuse out of a container. The time required by an equal volume of
O2 to diffuse out under identical conditions, is
(A) 24 s (B) 96 S (C) 384 S (D) 192 s
39. Acetic acid reacts with sodium metal at room temperature to produce
(A) CO2 (B) H2 (C) H2O (D) CO
40. The equilibrium constant, KC for
is 4 L2 mol–2. If the equilibrium concentration of benzene is 0.5 mol L–1 , that of accetylene in mol L–1 must be
(A) 0.025 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.5
41. The weight percent of sucrose (formula weight = 342 g mol–1) in an aqueous solution is 3.42. The density of
the solution is 1 g mL–1, the concentration of sucrose in the solution in mol L–1 is
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.1 (C) 1.0 (D) 10
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42. The order of reactivity of K, Mg, Au and Zn with water is
(A) K > Zn > Mg > Au (B) K > Mg > Zn > Au (C) K > Au > Mg > Zn (D) Au > Zn > K > Mg
43. Which of the following is an anhydride ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
44. Which of the following metals will precipitate copper from copper sulphate solution?
(A) Hg (B) Sn (C) Au (D) Pt
45. The radii of the first Bohr orbit of H (rH), He+ (rHe+) and Li2+ (rLi2+) are in the order
(A) rHe+ > rH > rLi2+ (B) rH < rHe+ < rLi2+ (C) rH > rHe+ > rLi2+ (D) rHe+ < rH < rLi2+
BIOLOGY
46. The Bowman’s capsule, a part of the kidney is the site of
(A) filtration of blood constituents
(B) reabsorption of water and glucose
(C) formation of ammonia
(D) formation of urea
47. In human brain the sensation of touch, pain and temperature is controlled by the
(A) parietal lobe of cerebrum
(B) limbic lobe of cerebrum
(C) temporal lobe of cerebrum
(D) frontal lobe of cerebrum
48. A pathogan which can not be cultured in an artificial medium is,
(A) protozoan (B) virus
(C) becterium (D) fungus
49. Meiosis I and Meiosis II are characterised by the separation of,
(A) homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids
(B) sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes
(C) centromere; telomere
(D) telomere; centromere
50. People suffering from albinism cannot synthesize
(A) suberin (B) melanin (C) keratin (D) collagen
51. Short sightedness in humans can be corrected by using
(A) concave lens (B) convex lens (C) cylindrical lens (D) plain glass
52. A person with blood group "A" can (a) donate blood to, and (b) receive blood from,
(A) (a) persons with blood group "AB", and (b) persons with any blood group
(B) (a) person with blood group "A" or "AB", and (b) "A" or "O" blood groups
(C) (a) person with blood group "B" or "AB", and (b) "B" or "O" blood groups
(D) (a) person with any blood group, and (b) "O" blood group only
53. Animal cells after removal of nuclei still contained DNA. The source of this DNA is
(A) nucleosomes (B) mitochondria (C) peroxisomes (D) lysosome
54. Which one of the following combinations is found in DNA?
(A) Guanine and guanidine (B) Guanidine and cytosine
(C) Guanine and cytosine (D) Adenine and guanidine
55. Which one of the following is NOT a mode of asexual reproduction?
(A) Binary fission (B) Multiple fission (C) Budding (D) Conjugation
56. Which one of the following class of animals consitutes the largest biomass on earth?
(A) Insects (B) Fish (C) Mammals (D) Reptilians
57. In the digestive system, the pH of the stomach and the intestine, respectively are,
(A) alkaline; acidic (B) acidic; alkaline (C) acidic; neutral (D) acidic; acidic
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58. The major nitrogenous excretory product in mammals is,
(A) amino acids (B) ammonia (C) urea (D) uric acid
59. Which of the following plant traits (characters) is NOT an adaptatioin to dry (Xeric) habitats?
(A) Sunken stomata on leaves
(B) Highly developed root system
(C) Thin epidermis without a cuticle on stem and leaves
(D) Small leaves and photosynthetic stem
60. Biological diversity increases with the productivity of an ecosystem. In which of the following habitats do we
see the greatest diversity of species?
(A) Tropical dry grasslends
(B) Temperate deciduous forests
(C) Alpine grasslends
(D) Tropical evergreen forests
PARTII
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
61. Let a, b, c, d, e be natural numbers in an arithmetic progression such that a + b + c + d + e is the cube of
an integer and b + c + d is square of an integer. The least possible value of the number of digits of c is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
62. On each face of a cuboid, the sum of its perimeter and its area is written. Among the six numbers so
written, there are three distinct numbers and they are 16, 24 and 31. The volume of the cuboid lies
between
(A) 7 and 14 (B) 14 and 21 (C) 21 and 28 (D) 28 and 35
63. Let ABCD be a square and let P be point on segment CD such that DP : PC = 1 : 2. Let Q be a point on
segment AP such that BQP = 90°. Then the ratio of the area of quadrilateral PQBC to the area of the
square ABCD is
31 37 39 41
(A) (B) (C) (D) 3
60 60 60 60
64. Suppose the height of a pyramid with a square base is decreased by p% and the lengths of the sides of its
square base are increased by p% (where p > 0). If the volume remains the same, then
(A) 50 < p < 55 (B) 55 < p < 60 (C) 60 < p < 65 (D) 65 < p < 70
65. There are three kinds of liquids X, Y, Z,. Three jars J1, J2, J3 contain 100 ml of liquids X, Y, Z, respectively.
By an operation we mean three steps in the following order:
 stir the liquid in J1 and transfer 10 ml from J1 into J2 ;
 stir the liquid in J2 and transfer 10 ml from J2 into J3 ;
 stir the liquid in J3 and transfer 10 ml from J3 into J1 ;
After performing the operation four times, let x, y, z be the amounts of X, Y, Z, respectively, in J1. Then
(A) x > y > z (B) x > z > y (C) y > x > z (D) z > x > y
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PHYSICS
66. Two identical uniform rectangular blocks (with longest side L) and a solid sphere of radius R are to be
balanced at the edge of a heavy table such that the centre of the sphere remains at the maximum possible
horizontal distance from the vertical edge of the table without toppling as indicated in the figure.
If the mass of each block is M and of the sphere is M/2, then the maximum distance x that can be achieved
is
(A) 8L/15 (B) 5L/6 (C) (3L/4 + R) (D) (7L/15 + R)
67. Two skaters P and Q are skating towards each other. Skater P throws a ball towards W every 5 s such that
it always leaves her hand with speed 2 ms–1 with respect to the ground. Consider two cases:
(I) P runs with speed 1 ms–1 towards Q while Q remains stationary
(II) Q runs with speed 1 ms–1 towards P while P remains stationary.
Note that irrespective of speed of P, ball always leaves P's hand with speed 2 ms–1 with respect to the
ground. Ignore gravity. Balls will be received by Q
(A) one every 2.5 s in case (I) and one every 3.3 s in case (II)
(B) one every 2 s in case (I) and one every 4 s in case (II)
(C) one every 3.3 s in case (I) and one every 2.5 s in case (II)
(D) one every 2.5 s in case (I) and one every 2.5 s in case (II)
68. A 10.0 W electrical heater is used to heat a container filled with 0.5 kg of water. It is found that the
temperature of the water and the container rise by 3 K in 15 minutes. The container is then emptied, dried,
and filled with 2 kg of an oil. It is now observed that the same heater raises the temperature of the container
oil system by 2 K in 20 minutes. Assuming no other heat losses in any of the processes, the specific heat
capacity of the oil is
(A) 2.5 × 103 JK–1 kg–1 (B) 5.1 × 103 JK–1 kg–1 (C) 3.0 × 103 JK–1 kg–1 (D) 1.5 × 103 JK–1 kg–1
69. A ray of light incident on a transparent sphere at an angle /4 and refracted at an angle r, emerges from the
sphere after suffering one internal reflection. The total angle of deviation of the ray is
3 5
(A) 4r (B) 4r (C) r (D) 4r
2 2 4 2
70. An electron with an initial speed of 4.0 × 106 ms–1 is brought to rest by an electric field. The mass and
charge of an electron are 9 × 10–31 kg and 1.6 × 10–19 C, respectively. Identify the correct statement
(A) The electron moves from a region of lower potential to higher potential through a potential difference of
11.4 V.
(B) The electron moves from a region of higher potential to lower potential through a potential difference of
11.4 V.
(C) The electron moves from a region of lower potential to higher potential through a potential difference of
45 V.
(D) The electron moves from a region of higher potential to lower potential through a potential difference of
45 V
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CHEMISTRY
71. The degree of dissociation of acetic acid (0.1 mol L–1) in water (Ka of acetic acid is 10–5) is
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.1 (D) 1.0
72. Compound 'X' on heating with Zn dust gives compound 'Y' which on treatment with O3 followed by reaction
with Zn dust gives propionaldehyde. The structure of 'X' is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
73. The amount of metallic Zn (Atomic weight = 65.4) required to react with aqueous sodium hydroxide to
produce 1 g of H2, is
(A) 32.7 g (B) 98.1 g (C) 65.4 g (D) 16.3 g
74. Natural abundances of 12C and 13C isotopes of carbon are 99% and 1%, respectively. Assuming they only
contributes to the mol. wt. of C2F4, the percentage of C2F4 having a molecular mass of 101 is
(A) 1.98 (B) 98 (C) 0.198 (D) 99
75. 2, 3Dimethylbut2ene when reacted with bromine forms a compound which upon heating with alcoholic
KOH produce the following major product.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
BIOLOGY
76. Sister chromatids of a chromosome have
(A) different genes at the same locus
(B) different alleles of the same gene at the same locus
(C) same alleles of the same gene at the same locus
(D) same alleles at different loci
77. A diabetic individual becomes unconscious after selfadministering insulin. What should be done immediately
to revive the individual?
(A) Provide him sugar (B) Give him high dose of insulin
(C) Provide him salt solution (D) Provide him lots of water
78. A regular check on the unborn baby of a lady towards the end of her pregnancy showed a heart rate of 80
beats per minute. What would the doctor infer about the baby's heart condition from this?
(A) Normal heart rate (B) Faster heart rate (C) Slower heart rate (D) Defective brain function
79. Three uniformly watered plants i, ii and iii were kept in 45% relative humidity, 45% relative humidity with
blowing wind and 95% relative humidity, respectively. Arrange these plants in the order (faster to slowest) in
which they will dry up.
(A) i = ii, iii (B) ii, i, iii (C) iii, ii, i (D) iii, i = ii
80. Many population colonising a new habitat show a logistic population growth pattern over time, as shown in
the figure below.
In such a population, the POPULATION growth rate
(A) stays constant over time (B) increases and then reaches an asymptote
(C) decreases over time (D) increases to a maximum and then decrease
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2014
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR2014 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Let r be a root of the equation x2 + 2x + 6 = 0. The value of (r + 2) (r + 3) (r + 4) (r + 5) is equal to .
(A) 51 (B) –51 (C) –126 (D) 126
2. Let R be the set of all real numbers and let f be a fucntion R to R such that
1
f ( x ) x f (1 x ) 1, for all x R . Then 2f(0) + 3f(1) is equal to.
2
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) –2 (D) –4
13 23 ..... (2n )3
3. The sum of all positive integers n for which is also an integer is.
12 22 ..... n 2
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 15 (D) Infinite
4. Let x and y be two 2digit numbers such that y is obtained by reversing the digits of x. Suppose they
also satisfy x2 – y2 = m2 for some positive integer m. The value of x + y + m is.
(A) 88 (B) 112 (C) 144 (D) 154
5. Let p(x) = x2 – 5x + a and q(x) = x2 – 3x + b, where a and b are positive integers. Suppose
HCF(p(x),q(x)) = x – 1 and k(x) = LCM (p(x), q(x)). If the coefficient of the highest degree term of k(x) is
1, the sum of the roots of (x – 1) + k(x) is.
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
6. In a quadrilateral ABCD, which is not a trapezium, it is known that DAB ABC 60 . Moreover,,
CAB CBD . Then.
(A) AB = BC + CD (B) AB = AD + CD (C) AB = BC +AD (D) AB = AC + AD
7. A semicircle of diameter 1 unit sits at the top of a semicircle of diameter 2 units. The shaded region
inside the smaller semicircle but outside the larger semicircle is called a lune. The area of the lune is.
1unit
2unit
3 3 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 4 4 24 4 12 4 8
8. The angle bisectors BD and CE of a triangle ABC are divided by the incentre I in the rators 3 : 2 and 2 :1
respectively. Then the ratio in which I divides the angle bisector through A is.
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 11 : 4 (C) 6 :5 (D) 7 : 4
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9. Suppose S1 and S2 are two unequal circles; AB and CD are the direct common tangents to these
circles. A transverse common tangent PQ cuts AB in R and CD in S. If AB = 10, then RS is .
A
R
Q B
P D
C S
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
10. On the circle with center O, points A,B are such that OA = AB. A point C is located on the tangent at B to
the circle such that A and C are on the opposite sides of the line OB and AB = BC. The line segment AC
intersects the circle again at F. Then the ratio BOF : BOC is equal to:
B
O
C
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 5
11. In a cinema hall, the charge per person is Rs.200. On the first day, only 60% of the seats were filled. The
owner decided to reduce the price by 20% and there was in increase of 50% in the number of spectators
on the next day. The percentage increase in the revenue on the second day was
(A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 30 (D) 20
12. The population of cattle in a farm increases so that the difference between the population in year n+2 and
then in year n proportional the population in year n + 1. If the populations in year 2010, 2011 and 2013
were 39, 60 and 123, respectively, then the population in 2012 was
(A) 81 (B) 84 (C) 87 (D) 90
13. The number of 6digit numbers of the form ababab (in base 10) each of which is a product of exactly 6
distinct primes is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 13 (D) 15
14. The houses on one side of a road are numbered using consecutive even numbers. The sum of the
numbers of all the houses in that row is 170. If there are at least 6 houses in that row and a is the number
of the sixth house, then
(A) 2 a 6 (B) 8 a 12 (C) 14 a 20 (D) 22 a 30
15. Suppose a2, a3, a4, a5, a6, a7 are are integers such that
5 a2 a3 a 4 a5 a6 a7
7 2! 3! 4! 5! 6! 7!
where 0 aj < j for j = 2,4,5,6,7. The sum a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 +a6 + a7 is
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
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PHYSICS
16. In the follwing displacement (x) vs time (t) graph, at which among the points P,Q, and R is the object's
speed increasing?
x
P
Q
(0,0) t
R
(A) R only (B) P only (C) Q and R only (D) P,Q,R
17. A box, when hung from a spring balance shows a reading of 50 kg. If the same box is hung from the same
spring balance inside an evacuated chamber, the reading on the scale will be
(A) 50 kg because the mass of the box remains unchanged
(B) 50 kg because the effect of the absence of the atmosphere will be indentical on the box and the spring
balance
(C) Less than 50 kg because the weight of the column of air on the box will be absent
(D) More than 50 kg because the atmospheric buoyancy force will be absent
18. Two possitively charged spheres of masses m1, and m2, are suspended from a common point at the ceiling
by identical insulating massless strings of length l. Charges on the two spheres are q1 and q2, respectively.
At equilivrium both strings make the same angle with the vertical. Then
(A) q1m1 = q2m2 (B) m1 = m 2 (C) m 1 = m 2sin (D) q2m1 = q1m2.
19. A box when dropped from a certain height reaches the ground with a speed v. When it skides from rest from
the same height down a rough inclined plane inclined at in angle 45° to the horizontal, it reaches the ground
with a speed v/3. The coefficient of sliding friction between the box and the plane is (acceleration due to
gravity is 10 ms2)
8 1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 3 3
20. A thin paper cup filled with water does not catch fire when placed over a flame. This is because
(A) The water cuts off oxygen supply to the paper cup
(B) Water is an excellent conductor of heat
(C) The paper cup does not become appreciably hotter than the water it contain
(D) Paper is a poor conductor of heat
21. Ice is used in a cooler in order to cool its contents. Which of the following will speed up the cooling process
(A) Wrap the ice in a metal foil (B) Drain the water from the cooler periodically
(C) Put the ice as a single block (D) Crush the ice
22. The angle of a prism is 60°. When light is incident at an angle of 60° on the prism, the angle of emergence
is 40°. The angle of incidence i for which the light ray will deviate the least is such that
(A) i < 40° (B) 40° < i < 50° (C) 50° < i < 60° (D) i > 60°
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23. A concave lens made of material of refractive index 1.6 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 2.0.
The two surfaces of the concave lens have the same radius of curvature 0.2 m. The lens will behave as a
(A) Divergent lens of focal length 0.4m (B) Divergent lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(C) Convergent lens of focal length 0.4 m. (D) Convergent lens of focal length 0.5 m
24. A charged particle, initially at rest at O, When released follows atrajectory as shown. Such a trajectory is
possible in the presence of
o
(A) Electric field of constant magnitude and varying direction
(B) Magnetic field of constant magnitude and varying direction
(C) Electric field of constant magnitude and constant direction
(D) Electric and magnetic fields of constant magnitudes and constant directions which are parallel to each
other
25. Two equal charges of magnitude Q each are placed at a dictance d apart. Their electrostatic energy is E. A
third charge Q/2 is brough midway betway these two charges.The electrostatic energy of the system is
now
(A) 2E (B) E (C) 0 (D) E
26. A bar magnet falls with its north pole pointing down through the axis of a copper ring. When viewed from
above, the currecnt in the ring will be
(A) Clockwise while the magnet is above the plane of the ring and counter clockwise while below the plane
of the ring
(B) Counter clockwise throughout
(C) Counter clockwise while the magnet is above the plane of the ring, and clockwise while below the plane
of the ring
(D) Clockwise throughout.
27. Two identical bar magnets are held perpendicular to each other with a certain separation, as shown below.
The area around the magnets is divided into four zones
N S I
N
II S V
Given that there is a neutral point it is located in
(A) Zone I (B) Zone II (C) Zone III (D) Zone IV
28. A large number of random snap shots using a camera are taken of a particle in simple harmonic motion
between x = x0 and x = +x0 with origine x = 0 as the mean position. A histogram of the total number of times
the particle is recorded about a given position (Event no.) would most closely resemble
Event no.
Event no.
Event no.
Event no.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x0 0 x0 x x0 0 x0 x x0 0 x0 x x0 0 x0 x
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29. In 1911, the physicist Ernest Rutherford discovered that atoms have a tiny, dense nucleus by shooting
pisitively charged particles at a very thin gold foil. A key physical property which led Rutherford to use gold
that it was
(A) Electrically conducting (B) Highly malleable
(C) Shiny (D) nonereactive
30. Consider the following statements
(i) All isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons
(ii) Only one isotope of an element can be stable and nonradioactive
(iii) All elements have isotops
(iv) All isotopes of Carbon can form chemical compounds with Oxygen16
The correct option regarding an isotope is
(A) (iii) and (iv) only (B) (ii), (iii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
CHEMISTRY
31. The isoelectronic pair is
(A) CO, N2 (B) O2, NO (C) C2, HF (D) F2, HCL
32. The numbers of lone pairs and bond pairs in hydrazine are, respectively
(A) 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 6 (C) 2 and 5 (D) 1 and 5
33. The volume of oxygen at STP required to burn 2.4 g of carbon completely is
(A) 1.12 L (B) 8.96L (C) 2.24 L (D) 4.48L
34. The species that exhibits the highest Rf value in a thin layer chromatogram using a nonpolar solvant on a
silica gel olate is
(A) (B) (C) + (D)
N N
OH
35. The number of CC sigma bonds in the compound
O
(A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 11
36. If the radius of the hydrogen atom is 53 pm, the radius of the He+ ion is closest to
(A) 108 pm (B) 81 pm (C) 27 pm (D) 13 pm
37. The diamagnetic species is
(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) O2 (D) CO2
38. The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solutions of NaCl, CH3COONa and NH4Cl will follow the order
(A) NaCl < CH3COONa < NH4Cl (B) NH4Cl < NaCl < CH3COONa
(C) NH4Cl < CH3COONa < NaCl (D) NaCl < NH4Cl < CH3COONa
39. At room temperature the average seed of Helium is higher than that of Oxygen by a factor of
(A) 2 2 (B) 6/ 2 (C) 8 (D) 6
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40. Ammonia is NOT produced in the reaction of
(A) NH4Cl with KOH (B) AIN with water (C) NH4Cl with NaNO2 (D) NH4Cl with Ca (OH)2
41. The number of isomers which are ethers and having the molecular formula C4H10O, is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
42. The major product of the reaction of 2butene with alkaline KMnO4 solution is
OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
o OH OH
43. Among the compounds IIV, the compound having the lowest boiling point is
OH OH
I II
OH
o
OH
III
IV
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
44. Of the following reactions
(i) A B Go = 250 kJ mol1
(ii) D E Go = 100 kJ mol1
(iii) F G Go = 150 kJ mol1
(iv) M N Go = 150 kJ mol1
the reaction with the largest equilibrium constant is
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
45. The first ionization inthalpies for three elements are 1314, 1680, and 2080 kJ mol1, respectively. The
correct sequence of the elements is
(A) O,F, and Ne (B) F, O and Ne (C) Ne, F and O (D) F, Ne and O
BIOLOGY
46. Individuals of one kind occupying a particular geographic area at a given time are called
(A) Community (B) Population (C) Species (D) Biome
47. What fraction of the assimilated energy is used in respiration by the herbivores
(A) 10 percent (B) 60percent (C) 30 percent (D) 80 percent
48. Athletes are often trained at high altitude because
(A) Training at high altitude increase muscle mass
(B) Training at high altitude increases the number of red blood cells
(C) There is less change of an injury at high altide
(D) Athles sweat less at high altidute
49. In human brain two hemispheres are connected by bundle of fibers which is known as
(A) Medulla oblongata (B) Cerebrum (C) Cerebellum (D) Corpus callosum
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50. Which one of the following hormones is produced by the pancreas
(A) Prolactin (B) Glucagon (C) Leutinizing hormone (D) Epinephrine
51. The stalk of a leaf is derived from which one of the following types of plant tissue?
(A) Sclerenchyma (B) Paranchyma (C) Chlorenchyma (D) Collenchyma
52. Which of the following muscle types CAN NOT be used valuntarily
(A) Both striated and smooth (B) Both cardiac and striated
(C) Both smooth and cardiac (D) Cardiac, striated and smooth
53. The pulmonary artery carries
(A) deoxygenated bood to the lungs (B) Oxygenated bood to the brain
(C) Oxygenated blood to the lungs (D) Deoxygenated blood to the kidney
54. Both gout and kidney stone formation is caused by
(A) Calcium oxalate (B) Uric acid (C) Creatinine (D) Potassium chloride
55. The auditory nerve gets its input from which of the following?
(A) The sense cells of the cochlea (B) Vibration fo the last ossicle
(C) Eustachian tube (D) Vibration of the tympanic membrane
56. Which of the following organelles contain circular DNA
(A) Peroxisomes and Mitochondria (B) Mitochondria and Glgi complex
(C) Chloroplasts and Lysosomes (D) Mitochondria and chloroplast
57. A reflex action does NOT involve
(A) Neurons (B) Brain (C) Spinal cord (D) Muscle fiber
58. Which one of the follwing options is true in photsynthesis
(A) CO2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced (B) H2O is oxidized and CO2 is reduced
(C) Both CO2 and H2O are reduced (D) Both CO2 and H2O are oxidized
59. Human mature red blood cells (RBCs) do NOT contain
(A) Iron (B) CYtoplasm (C) Mitochondria (D) Haemoglobin
60. A person was saved from poisonous snake bite by antivenom injection. Which of the following immunity
explains this form of protection?
(A) Naturally acquired active immunity (B) Artificially acquired active immunity
(C) Naturally acquired passive immunity (D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
PARTII
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
61. Let a,b,c be nonzero real numbers such that a+b+c = 0; let q = a2 +b2+c2 and r = a4 + b4 + c4
Then
(A) q2 < 2r always (B) q2 = 2r always
(C) q2 > 2r always (D) q2  2r can take both positive and negative value
62. The value of
1947
1
n0 2 21947
n
is equal to
487 1946 1947 1948
(A) 1945 (B) 1947 (C) 1947 (D)
2 2 2 21947
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63. The number of integers a in the interval [1,2014] for which the system of equations
x2 y2
x + y = a, 4
x 1 y 1
has finitely many solutions is
(A) 0 (B) 1007 (C) 2013 (D) 2014
64. In a triangle ABC with A = 90°, P is a point on BC such that PA : PB = 3:4. If AB = 7 and AC = 5,
then BP : PC is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 3 (C) 4 : 5 (D) 8 : 7
65. The number of all 3digit numbers abc (in base10) for which (a×b×c) + (a×b) + (bc)+ (c×a) + a + b + c
= 29 is.
(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 18
PHYSICS
66. A uniform square wooden sheet of side a has its center of mass located at point O as shown in the figure on
the left. A square portion of side b of this sheet is cut out to produce and Lshaped sheet as shown in the
figure on the right.
a b
O
P
The center of mass of the Lshaped sheet lies at the point P (in the diagram) when
(A) a/b = ( 5 1)/2 (B) a/b = ( 5 +1)/2 (C) a/b = ( 3 1)/1 (D) a/b = ( 3 +1)/2
67. A machine is blowing spherical soap bubbles of different raddi filled with helium gas. It is found that if
the bubbles have a radius smaller than 1 cm, then they sink to the floor in still air. Larger bubbles float in
the air. Assume that the thickness of the soap film in all bubbles is uniform and equal. Assume that the
density of soap solution is same as that of water (= 1000 kgm3). The density of helium inside the
bubbles and air are 0.18 kg m3 and 1.23 kg m3, respectively. Then the thickness of the soap film of the
bubbles is (note 1 m = 106m)
(A) 0.50 m (B) 1.50 m (C) 7.00 m (D) 3.50 m
68. An aluminum piece of mass 50g initially at 300 °C is dipped quickly and taken out of 1kg of water,
initially at 30 °C. If the teperature of the aluminum piece be 160 °C, what is the temperature of the water
then (Specific heat capacities of aluminum and water are 900 JKf 1K1 and 4200Jkg1K1, respectively)
(A) 165°C (B) 45 °C (C) 31.5 °C (D) 28.5 °C
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69. A ray of light incident paralled to the base PQ of an isosceles rightangled triangular prism PQR suffers
two successive total internal reflections at the faces PQ and QR before emerging reversed in direction
as shown
R
Q P
If the refractive index of the material of the prism is , then
(A) > 5 (B) 3 < < 5 (C) 2 << 5 (D) < 2
70. Consider the circuit shown below where all resistors are of 1k
P
X
Q
If a current of magnitude 1 mA flows through the resistor marked X, what is the potential difference
measured between point P and Q?
(A) 21V (B) 68V (C) 55V (D) 34V
CHEMISTRY
71. 10 moles of a mixture of gydogen and oxygen gases at a pressure of 1 atm at constant volume and
temperature, react to form 3.6 g of liquid water. The pressure of the resulting mixture will be closest to
(A) 1.07 atm (B) 0.97 atm (C) 1.02 atm (D) 0.92 atm
72. The amonia evolved from 2g of a compound in Kjeldahl's estimation of nitrogen neutralizes 10 mL of 2 M
H2SO4 solution. The weight percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(A) 28 (B) 14 (C) 56 (D) 7
73. Complete reaction of 2.0 g of calcium (at. wt. = 40) with excess HCL produces 1.125 L of H2 gas.
Complete reaction of the same quantity of another metal "M" with excess HCL produces 1.85 L of H2 gas
under indentical conditions. The equivalent weight of "M" is closest to
(A) 23 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 12
74. A compound X formed after heating coke with lime react with water to give Y which on passing over red
hot iron at 873 produces Z. The compound Z is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
75. In the following reaction sequence
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Br
1. Alcoholic KOH 3. HgSO4/dil.H2SO4, heat
× Y
Br 2. NaNH2 4. Con.HNO3/H2SO4
Ph
X and Y are, respectively
O
(A) Ph and
NO2
OH O
NH2
(B) NO2 and
PH NO2
NH2 H2N
O
(C) and
OH
PH NO2
O
OH
(D) and
NH2
PH NO2
BIOLOGY
76. In which of the following cellular compartment(s) do respiratory reactions occur?
(A) cytoplasm and endoplasmic reticulum (B) Mitochondria and Golgi complex
(C) Mitochondria and cytoplasm (D) Mitochondria only
77. A women heterozygous for color blindness marries a clolor blind man. What be the ratios of carrier
daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1 generation?
(A) 1:2:2:1 (B) 2:1:1:2 (C) 1:1:1:1 (D) 1:1:2:2
78. Two semipermeable bags containgn 2% sucrose placed in two beakers, 'P' containing water and 'Q'
containing 10% socrose. Which one of the following outcomes is true?
(A) Bag in 'P' becomes flaccid due to exosmosis (B) Bag in 'P' becomes turgid due to endosmosis
(C) Bag in 'Q' becomes turgid due to endosmosis (D) Concentration of su
crose remain unchanged both
79. Children suffering from phenylketonuria are given food low in phenylalanine and supplemented with
tyrosine. This is because they.
(A) Are unable to utilize phenylalanine (B) Do not require phenylalanine
(C) Have increased tyrosine anabolism (D) Have increased tyrosine catabolism
80. Two bottles were half filled with water from Ganga ('P') and kaveri ('Q') and kept under indentical airtight
conditions for 5 days. The oxygen was determined to be 2% in bottle ('P') and 10% in bottle ('Q'). What
could be the cause of this difference?
(A) Ganga is more polluted than Kaveri (B) Both the rivers are equally polluted
(C) Kaveri is more polluted than Ganga (D) Kaveri has more minerals than Ganga
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2015
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
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A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR2015 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Two distinct polynomial f(x) and g(x) are defined as follows:
f ( x) x 2 ax 2 ; g ( x) x 2 2 x a
If the equation f ( x) 0 and g ( x) 0 have a common root then the sum of the roots of the equation
f ( x) g ( x) 0 is
1 1
(A) (B) 0 (C) (D) 1
2 2
2. if n is the smallest natural number such that n 2n 3n .... 99n is a perfect square, then the
number of digits in n 2 is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) more than 3
3. Let x, y, z be positive reals. Which of the following implies x y z ?
(I) x 3 y 3 z 3 3xyz
(II) x 3 y 2 z yz 2 3 xyz
(III) x 3 y 2 z z 2 x 3xyz
(IV) ( x y z )3 27 xyz
(A) I, IV only (B) I, II, IV only (C) I, II and III only (D) All of them
4. In the figure given below, a rectangle of perimeter 76 units is divided into 7 congruent rectangles.
y y y y
x x
y y
x x x
What is the perimeter of each of the smaller rectangles?
(A) 38 (B) 32 (C) 28 (D) 19
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5. The largest nonnegative integer k such that 24 k divides 13! is.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
6. In a triangle ABC, points X and Y are on AB and AC, respectively, such that XY is parallel to BC,
Which of the two following always hold? (Here [PQR] denotes the area of triangle PQR.)
(I) [BCX] = [BCY].
(II) [ACX] [ABY] = [AXY] [ABC]
(A) Neither (I) nor (II) (B) (I) only
(C) (II) only (D) both (I) and (II)
7. Let P be an interior point of a triangle ABC. Let Q and R be the reflections of P in AB and AC,
respectively. IF Q, A,R are collinear then A equals.
(A) 30º (B) 60º (C) 90º (D) 120º
8. Let ABCD be a square of side length l, and a circle passing through B and C, and touching AD.
The radius of is
3 1 1 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 2 2 8
9. Let ABCD be a square of a side length l, Let P,Q,R,S be points in the interiors of the sides
3 3
AD,BC,AB, CD, respectively, such that PQ and RS intersect at right angles. If PQ then RS
4
equals
2 3 3 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 4 2 2
3 4 2
10. In the figure given below, If the areas of the two regions are equal then which of the following is
true?
45º
2y 2y 45º
y y 45º
45º
x x 2x
(A) x y (B) x 2y (C) 2x y (D) x 3y
11. A man standing on a railway platform noticed that a train took 21 seconds to cross the platform (this
means the time elapsed from the moment the engine enters the platform till the last compartment
leaves the platform) which is 88 meters long, and that it took 9 seconds to pass him. Assuming that
the train was moving with uniform speed, what is the length of the train in metres?
(A) 55 (B) 60 (C) 66 (D) 72
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1
12. The least positive integer n for which
3
n 1 3 n is
12
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
13. Let n > 1 be an integer. Which of the following sets of numbers necessarily contains a multiple of
3?
(A) n19 1, n19 1 (B) n19 , n 38 1
(C) n 38 , n 38 1 (D) n 38 , n19 1
14. The number of distinct primes dividing 12!+13!+14! is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
15. How many ways are there to arrange the letters of the word EDUCATION so that all the following
three conditions hold?
 the vowels occur in the same order (EUAIO);
 the consonants occur in the same order(DCTN);
 no two consonants are next to each other.
(A) 15 (B) 24 (C) 72 (D) 120
PHYSICS
16. In an experiment, mass of an object is measured by applying a known force on it, and then mea
suring its acceleration. IF, in the experiment, the measured values of applied force and the mea
sured acceleration are F 10.0 0.2 N and a 1.00 0.01 m/s2 , respectively, the mass of the
object is
(A) 10.0 Kg (B)10.0 0.1 Kg (C) 10.0 0.3 Kg (D) 10.0 0.4Kg
17. A hollow tilted cylindrical vessel of negligible mass rests on a horizontal plane as known. The
diameter of the base is a and the side of the cylinder makes an angle with the horizontal. Water is
then slowly poured into the cylinder. The cylinder topples over when the water reaches a certain height h,
given by.
h
a
a
(A) h 2a tan (B) h a tan 2 (C) h a tan (D) h tan
2
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18. An object at rest at the origin begins to move in the +x direction with a uniform acceleration of 1 m/s 2
for 4 s and then it continues moving with a uniform velocity of 4 m/s in the same direction. The x – t
graph for object’s motion will be
x x
(A) (B)
4s t 4s t
x x
(C) (D)
4s t 4s t
19. If the axis of rotation of the earth were extended into space then it would pass close to
(A) the moon
(B) the sun
(C) the pole star
(D) the centre of mass of all the planets in the solar system.
20. Methane is a greenhouse gas because
(A) it absorbs longer wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum while transmitting shorter wavelengths
(B) it absorbs shorter wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum while transmitting longer wave
lengths
(C) it absorbs all wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(D) it transmits all wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum.
21. A parachutist with total weight 75 kg drops vertically onto a sandy ground with a speed of 2 ms 1 and
comes to a halt over a distance of 0.25m. The average force from the ground on her is close to.
(A) 600 N (B) 1200 N (C) 1350 N (D) 1950 N
22. The beta particles of a radioactive metal originate from.
(A) the free electrons in the metal
(B) the orbiting electrons of the metal atoms
(C) the photons released from the nucleus.
(D) the nucleus of the metal atoms.
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23. An optical device is constructed by fixing three identical convex lenses of focal lengths 10 cm each
inside a hollow tube at equal spacing of 30 cm each. One end of the device is placed 10 cm away
from a point source. How much does the image shift when the device is moved away from the source
by another 10 cm?
(A) 0 (B) 5 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 45 cm
24. An isosceles glass prism with angles 40º is clamped over a tray of water in a position such that the
base is just dipped in water. A ray of light incident normally on the inclined face suffers total inter
nal reflection at the base. If the refractive index of water is 1.33 then the condition imposed on the
refractive index of the glass is
(A) 2.07 (B) 2.07 (C) 1.74 (D) 1.74
25. A point source of light is moving at a rate of 2 cms 1 towards a thin convex lens of focal length 10 cm
along its optical axis. When the source is 15 cm away from the lens the image is moving at
(A) 4 cms 1 towards the lens (B) 8 cms 1 towards the lens
1
(C) 4 cms away from the lens (D) 8 cms 1 away from the lens
26. A light bulb of resistance R 16 is attached in series with an infinite resistor network with identical
resistances r as shown below. A 10 V battery derives current in the circuit. What should be the value of r
such that the bulb dissipated about 1 W of power.
R
r r r
10V r r r
(A) 14.8 (B) 29.6 (C) 7.4 (D) 3.7
27. A ball is launched from the top of Mt. Everest which is at elevation of 9000 m. The ball moves in
circular orbit around earth. Acceleration due to gravity near the earth’s surface is g. The magnitude
of the ball’s acceleration while in orbit is
(A) close to g/2 (B) zero
(C) much greater than g. (D) nearly equal to g.
28. A planet is orbiting the sun in an elliptical orbit. Let U denote the potential energy and K denote the
kinetic energy of the planet at an arbitrary point on the orbit. Choose the correct statement.
(A) K  U  always (B) K U  always
(C) K U  always (D) K U  for two positions of the planet in the orbit.
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29. One mole of ideal gas undergoes a linear process as shown in figure below. Its temperature ex
pressed as a function of volume V is.
P0
(0, 0) V0
V V 2
P0V0 P0V P0V
1
P0V 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R V0
R R R V0
30. The international space station is maintained in a nearly circular orbit with a mean altitude of 330 km
and a maximum of 410 km. An astronaut is floating in the space station’s cabin. The acceleration of
astronaut as measured from the earth is.
(A) zero
(B) nearly zero and directed towards the earth
(C) nearly g and directed along the line of travel of the station
(D) nearly g and directed towards the earth.
CHEMISTRY
31. The percentage of nitrogen by mass in ammonium sulphate is closest to (atomic masses H = 1, N =
14, O = 16, S = 32)
(A) 21% (B) 24% (C) 36% (D) 16%
32. Mendeleev’s periodic law states that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their
(A) reactivity of elements (B) atomic size
(C) atomic mass (D) electronic configuration
33. Maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the subshell with azimuthal quantum
number l = 4, is
(A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 18
34. The correct order of acidity of the following compounds is
OCH3 NO2
COOH COOH COOH
(1) (2) (3)
(A) 1 > 2 > 3 (B) 1 > 3 > 2 (C) 3 > 1 > 2 (D) 3 > 2 > 1
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35. Reaction of 2butane with acidic KMnO 4 gives
(A) CH3CHO (B) HCOOH (C) CH3CH2OH (D) CH 3COOH
36. The gas released when baking soda is mixed with vinegar, is
(A) CO (B) CO 2 (C) CH4 (D) O 2
37. The element which readily forms an ionic bond has the electronic configuration.
(A) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3 (B) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p1 (C) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 2 (D) 1s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3s1
38. The major products of the following reaction
ZnS ( s ) O2 ( g ) heat
are
(A) ZnO and SO2 (B) ZnSO 4 and SO 3 (C) ZnSO 4 and SO 2 (D) Zn and SO 2
39. If Avogadro’s number is A0, the number of sulphur atoms present in 200 mL of 1N H 2SO 4 is
(A) A0/5 (B) A0/2 (C) A0/10 (D) A0
40. The functional group present in a molecule having the formula C 12O9 is
(A) carboxylic acid (B) anhydride (C) aldehyde (D) alcohol
41. A sweet smelling compounds formed by reacting acetic acid with ethanol in the presence of hydro
chloric acid is
(A) CH3COOC2H5 (B) C2H5COOH (C) C2H5COOH3 (D) CH3OH
42. Among Mg, Cu, Fe, Zn, the metal that does not produce hydrogen gas in reaction with hydrochloric
acid is.
(A) Cu (B) Zn (C) Mg (D) Fe
43. The maximum number of isomeric ethers with the molecular formula C 4H10O is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
44. The number of electrons required to reduce chromium completely in Cr 2O72– to Cr 3+ in acidic
medium, is
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 2
45. At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a gas varies as a function of temperature as
shown in the graph.
500
400
V(cm3)
300
200
100
0 100 200 300
Tº/C
The volume of the gas at 300º C is larger than that at 0ºC by a factor of
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2
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BIOLOGY
46. Excess salt inhibits growth in pickles by
(A) endosmosis (B) exosmosis (C) oxidation (D) denaturation
47. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that are used by biotechnologists to
(A) cut DNA at specific base sequences (B) join fragments of DNA
(C) digest DNA from the 3’ end (D) digest DNA from the 5’ end
48. Enzyme X extracted from the digestive system hydrolyses peptide bonds. Which of the following are
probable candidate to be enzyme X ?
(A) Amylase (B) Lipase (C) Trypsin (D) Maltase
49. A person with blood group AB has
(A) antigen A and B on RBCs and both antiA and antiB antibodies in plasma
(B) antigen A and B on RBCs but neither antiA and antiB antibodies in plasma
(C) no antigen on RBCs but both antiA and antiB antibodies present in plasma
(D) antigen A on RBCs and antibodies in plasma
50. Glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are
formed from one molecule of glucose?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
51. The process of transfer of electrons from glucose to molecular oxygen in bacteria and mitochondria
is known as
(A) TCA cycle (B) Oxidative phosphorylation
(C) Fermentation (D) Glycolysis
52. Which one of the following cell types is a part of innate immunity?
(A) Skin epithelial cells (B) B cells
(C) T lymphocytes (D) Liver cells
53. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins can cause impaired blood clotting?
(A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin K
54. Which one of the following is detrimental to soil fertility?
(A) Saprophytic bacteria (B) Nitrosomes
(C) Nitrobacter (D) Pseudomonas
55. In Which one of the following phyla is the body segmented?
(A) Porifera (B) Platyhelminthes (C) Annelida (D) Echinodermata
56. Widal test is prescribed to diagnose.
(A) Typhoid (B) Pneumonia (C) Malaria (D) Filaria
57. Which, among grass, goat, tiger and vulture, in a food chain, will have the maximum concentration of
harmful chemicals in its body due to contamination of pesticides in the soil?
(A) Grass since it grows in the contaminated soil
(B) Goat since it eats the grass
(C) Tiger since it feed on the goat which feeds on the grass
(D) Vulture since it eats the tiger, which in turns eats the goat, which eats the grass.
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58. Considering the average molecular mass of a base to be 500 Da, what is the molecular mass of a
double stranded DNA of 10 base pairs?
(A) 500 Da (B) 5kDa (C) 10 kDa (D) 1 kDa
59. Which of the following pairs are both polysaccharides?
(A) Cellulose and glycogen (B) Starch and glucose
(C) Cellulose and fructose (D) Ribose and sucrose
60. Which one of the following is a modified leaf?
(A) Sweet potato (B) Ginger
(C) Onion (D) Carrot
PARTII
Two Marks Questions
MATHEMATICS
61. A triangular corner is cut from a rectangular piece of paper and the resulting pentagon has sides 5, 6,
8, 9, 12 in some order. The ratio of the area of the rectangle is
11 13 15 17
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18 18 18 18
62. For a real number x, let [x] denote the largest integer less than or equal to x, and let {x} = x – [x].
The number of solutions x to be equation [x]{x} = 5 with 0 x 2015 is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 2008 (D) 2009
63. Let ABCD be a trapezium with AD parallel to BC. Assume there is a point M is interior of the segment
BC such that AB = Am and DC = DM. Then the ratio of the area of the trapezium to the area of
triangle AMD is.
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) not determinable from the data
64. Given are three cylindrical buckets X,Y,Z whose circular bases are of radii 1,2,3 units, respectively,
Initially water is filled in these buckets upto the same height. Some water is then transferred from Z
to Z so that they both have the same volume of water. Some water is then transferred between X
and Y so that they both have the same volume of water. If hy,hz denote the heights of water at this
hy
stage in the buckets Y,Z, respectively, then the ratio equals.
hz
4 9 81
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D)
9 4 40
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65. The average incomes of the people in two villages are p and Q, respectively. Assume that P Q .A
person moves from the first village to the second village. The new average incomes are P’ and Q’ ,
respectively. Which of the following is not possible?
(A) P' P and Q' Q (B) P' P and Q' Q
(C) P ' P and Q' Q (D) P ' P and Q' Q
PHYSICS
66. A girl sees through a circular glass slab(refractive index 1.50 of thickness 20 mm and diameter 60 cm
to the bottom of a swimming pol. Refractive index of water is 1.33. The bottom surface of the slab is in
contact with the water surface.
The depth of swimming pool is 6m. The area of bottom of swimming pool that can be seen through the
slab is approximately.
(A) 100 m 2 (B) 160 m 2 (C) 190 m 2 (D) 220 m 2
67. 1 Kg of ice at –20ºC is mixed with 2 Kg of water at 90ºC . Assuming that there is no loss of energy
to the environment, what will be the final temperature of the mixture? (Assume latent heat of ice =
334.4 KJ/Kg, specific heat of water and ice are 4.18 kJ/(kg.K) and 2.09kJ/(kg.K), respectively.)
(A) 30ºC (B) 0ºC (C) 80ºC (D) 45ºC
68. A rigid body in the shape of a “V” has two equal arms made of uniform rods. What must the angle
between the two rods be so that when the body is suspended from one end, the other arm is horizon
tal?
1 1 1 1
(A) cos 1 (B) cos 1 (C) cos 1 (D) cos 1
3 2 4 6
69. A point object is placed 20 cm left of a convex lens of focal length f = 5 cm (see the figure). The lens
is made to oscillate with small amplitude A along the horizontal axis. The image of the object will also
oscillate along the axis with.
f
A
(A) amplitude A/9, out of phase with the oscillations of the lens
(B) amplitude A/3, out of phase with the oscillations of the lens
(C) amplitude A/3, in phase with the oscillations of the lens
(D) amplitude A/9, in phase with the oscillations of the lens
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70. Stoke’s law states that the viscous drag force F experience by a sphere of radius a, moving with a
speed v through a fluid with coefficient of viscosity , is given by F 6av
If this fluid is flowing through a cylindrical pipe of radius r, length l and a pressure difference of P across
its two ends, then the volume of water V which flows through the pipe in time t can be written as
a
v p
k br c
t l
Where k is a dimensionless constant. Correct values of a,b and c are
(A) a = 1, b = – 1, c = 4 (B) a = – 1, b = 1, c = 4
(C) a = 2, b = – 1, c = 3 (D) a = 1, b = – 2, c = – 4
CHEMISTRY
71. When 262 g of xenon (atomic mass = 131) reacted completely with 152 g of fluorine (atomic mass =
19), a mixture of XeF 2 and XeF6 was produced. The molar ratio XeF 2 : XeF6 is :
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
72. Reaction of ethanol with conc. Sulphuric acid at 170ºC produces a gas which is then treated with
bromine in carbon tetrachloride. The major product obtained in this reaction is :
(A) 1,2dibromoethane (B) ethylene glycol
(C) bromoethane (D) ethyl sulphate
73. When 22.4 L of C4H8 at STP is burnt completely, 89.6 L of CO 2 gas at STP and 72 g of water are
produced. The volume of the oxygen gas at STP consumed in the reaction is closest to :
(A) 89.6 L (B) 112 L (C) 134.4 L (D) 22.4 L
74. The amount of Ag (atomic mass = 108) deposited at the cathode when a current of 0.5 amp is passed
through a solution of AgNO 3 for 1 hour is closest to :
(A) 2 g (B) 5 g (C) 108 g (D) 11 g
75. The major product of the reaction is :
+
H /H2O
Product
OH
OH OH
HO
I II III IV
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
BIOLOGY
76. Genomic DNA is digested with Alu I, a restriction enzyme which is a four basepair cutter. What is the
frequency with which it will cut the DNA assuming a random distribution of bases in the genome :
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/24 (C) 1/256 (D) 1/1296
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77. If rice is cooked in a pressure cooker on the Siachen glacier, at sea beach, and on Deccan plain,
which of the following is correct about the time taken for cooking rice :
(A) Gets cooked faster on the Siachen glacier
(B) Gets cooked faster at sea beach
(C) Gets cooked faster on Deccan plain
(D) Gets cooked at the same time at all the three places.
78. A few rabbits are introduced in an uninhabited island with plenty of food. If these rabbits breed in the
absence of any disease, natural calamity and predation, which one of the following graphs best
represents their population growth :
Population
Population
(A) (B)
Time Population Time
Population
(C) (D)
Time Time
79. What is the advantage of storing glucose as glycogen in animals instead of as monomeric glucose :
(A) Energy obtained from glycogen is more than that from the corresponding glucose monomers
(B) Glucose present as monomers within the cell exerts more osmotic pressure than a single
glycogen molecule, resulting in loss of water from the cells
(C) Glucose present as monomers within the cell exerts more osmotic pressure than a single
glycogen molecule, resulting in excess water within the cells
(D) Glycogen gives more rigidity to the cells.
80. A line is drawn from the exterior of an animal cell to the centre of the nucleus, crossing through one
mitochondrion. What is the minimum number of membrane bilayers that the line will cross :
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) 6
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2016
Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100
STREAM  SA
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions.
• There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part
is as under for each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PARTI :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response.
PARTII :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response.
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A14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2428664, 2428666, 2423406, 3205261, 3205262 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
YEAR2016 (KVPYSTREAMSA)
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Suppose the quadratic polynomial P(x) = ax2 + bx + c has positive coefficients a, b,c in arithmetic progression
in that order. If P(v) = 0 has integer roots and . then + + equals
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 14
2. The number of digits in the decimal expansion of 165516 is
(A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19
3. Let t be real number such that t2 = at + b for some positive integers a and b. Then for any choice of positive
integers a and b, t3 is never equal to
(A) 4t + 3 (B) 8t + 5 (C) 10t + 3 (d) 6t + 5
4. Consider the equation (1 + a + b)2 = 3(1 + a2 + b2). where a,b are real numbers. Then
(A) there is no solution pair (a, b)
(B) there are infinitely many solution pairs (a, b)
(C) there are exactly two solution pairs (a,b)
(D) there is exactly one solution pair (a, b)
5. Let a1, a2,....., a100 be nonzero real numbers such that
a1 + a2 + ...... + a100 = 0
Then
100 100
(A) a 2
i 1
i
ai
0 and a
i1
i 2 ai 0
100 100
(B) a 2
i 1
i
ai
0 and a
i1
i 2 ai 0
100 100
(C) a 2
i 1
i
ai
0 and a
i1
i 2 ai 0
100 100
(D) the sign of a 2
i 1
i
ai
or a
i 1
i 2 ai depends on the choice of a ‘s
i
6. Let ABCD be a trapezium, in which AB is parallel to CD. AB = 11. BC = 4. CD = 6 and DA = 3, The distance
between AB and CD is
(A) 2 (B) 2.4
(C) 2.8 (D) not determinable with the data
7. The points A, B, C, D, E are marked on the circumference of a circle in clockwise direction such that
ABC = 130° and CDE = 110°. The measure of ACE in degrees is
(A) 50° (B) 60° (C) 70° (D) 80°
8. Three circles of radii 1. 2 and 3 units respectively touch each other externally in the plane. The circumradius
of the triangle formed by joining the centers of the circles is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3
9. Let P be a point inside a triangle ABC with ABC = 90°, Let P1 and P2 be the images of P under reflection
in AB and BC respectively. The distance between the circumcenter of triangles ABC and P1PP2 is
AB AP BP CP AC AB BC AC
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 2 2
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10. Let a and b be two positive real numbers such that a + 2b 1. Let A1 and A2 be respectively, the areas of
A1
circles with radii ab3 and b2. Then the maximum possible value of A is
2
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 64 16 2 32
11. There are two candles of same length and same size. Both of them burns at uniform rate. The first one
burns in 5 hours and the second one burns in 5 hours. Both the candles are lit together. After how many
minutes the length of the first candle is 3 times that of the other?
(A) 90 (B) 120 (C) 135 (D) 150
12. Consider a cuboid all of whose edges are integers and whose base is a square. Suppose the sum of all its
edges is numerically equal to the sum of the areas of all its six faces. Then the sum of all its edges is
(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 24 (D) 36
13. Let A1, A2,... , Am be nonempty subsets of {1,2,3, ........100} satisfying the following conditions :
(1) the numbers A1, A2,... , Am are distinct :
(2) A1, A2,.... , Am are pairwise disjoint.
(Here A denotes the number of elements in the set A.)
Then the maximum possible value of m is
(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 16
14. The number of all 2digit numbers n, such that n is equal to the sum of the square of digit in its tens place
and the cube of the digit in units place is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
15. Let f be a function defined on the set of all positive integers such that f(xy) = f(x) + f(y) for all positive
integers x,y. If f(12) = 24 and f(8) = 15. the value of f (48) is
(A) 31 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 34
PHYSICS
16. A person walks 25.0° north of east for 3.18 km. How far would she have to walk due north and then due east
to arrive at the same location?
(A) towards north 2.88 km and towards east 1.34 km.
(B) towards north 2.11 km and towards east 2.11 km
(C) towards north 1.25 km and towards east 1.93 km
(D) towards north 1.34 km and towards east 2.88 km.
17. The length and width of a rectangular room are measured to be 3.95 = 0.05 in and 3.05 = 0 05 m.
respectively, The area of the floor is
(A) 12.05 ± 0.01 m2 (B) 12.05 = 0.005 m2 (C) 12.05 = 0.34 m 2 (D) 12.05 = 0.40 m 2
18. A car goes around uniform circular track of radius R at a uniform speed v once m every t seconds. The
magnitude of the Centripetal acceleration is ac. If the car now goes uniformly around a larger circular track
of radius 2R and experiences a centripetal acceleration of magnitude 8ac. then its time period is
(A) 2T (B) 3T (C) T2 (D) 32 T
19. The primary and the secondary coils of a transformer contain 10 and 100 turns, respectively, The primary
coil is connected to a battery that supplies a constant voltage of 1,5 volts. The voltage across the secondary
coil is
(A) 1.5 V (B) 0.15 V (C) 0.0 V (D) 15 V
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20. Water falls clown a 500.0 m shaft to reach a turbine which generates electricity. How much water must fall
per second in order to generate 1,00 × 109 Watts of power? (Assume 50 % efficiency of conversion and
g = 10 ms2)
(A) 250 m 3 (B) 400 m 3 (C) 500 m3 (D) 200 m3
21. The diagram below shows two circular loops of wire (A and B) centred on and perpendicular to the xaxis.
and oriented with their planes parallel to each other. The yaxis passes vertically through loop A (dashed
line). There is a current lB in loop B as shown, Possible actions which we might perform on loop A are:
y
IB
–x x
A B
(i) Move A to the right along x axis closer to B
(ii) Move A to the left along x axis away from B
(iii) As viewed from above, rotate A clockwise about y axis
(iv) As viewed from above, rotate A anticlockwise about y axis
Which of these actions will induce a current in A only in the direction shown.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only(i) and (iv) (D) Only (ii) and (iii)
22. A rigid boll rolls without slipping on a surface shown below.
Which one of the following is the most likely representation of the distance travelled by the ball vs time
graph?
distance distance distance distance
(A) (B) (C) (D)
time time time time
23. In an experiment, setup A consists of two parallel wires which carry currents in opposite directions as
shown in the figure. A second setup B is identical to setup A. Except that there is a metal plate between the
wires.
Setup A Setup B
Let FA and FB be the magnitude of the force between the two wires in setup A and setup B. respectively.
(A) FA > FB 0 (B) FA < FB (C) FA = FB 0 (D) FA > FB = 0
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24. In the circuit wire 1 is of neglibible resistance. Then
R1 R2
+ – + –
1 2
(A) Current will flow through wire 1 if 1 2
(B) Current will flow through wire 1 if 1 /R1 2 /R2
(C) Current will flow through wire 1 if (1 + 2)/ (R1 + R2) (1 – 2)/ (R1 – R2)
(D) No current will flow through wire 1.
25. The radius of a nucleus is given by r0 A1/3 where r0 = 1.3 × 10–15 m and A is the mass number of the nucleus.
The Lead nucleus has A = 206. The electrostatic force between two protons in this nucleus is approximately
(A) 102N (B) 107N (C) 1012N (d) 1017 N
26. A hollow lens is made of thin glass and in the shape of a double concave lens. It can be filled with air. water
of refractive index 1,33 or CS2 of refractive index 1,6. It will act as a diverging lens if it is
(A) filled with air and immersed in water.
(B) filled with water and immersed in CS2
(C) filled with air and immersed in CS2.
(D) filled with air and immersed in water,
27. A stone thrown down with a speed u takes a time t1 to reach the ground, while another stone, thrown
upwards from the same point with the same speed, takes time t2. the maximum height the second stone
reaches from the ground is
(A) 1/2 gt1 t2 (B) (g/8) (t1 – t2)2 (C) g8 (t1 – t2)2 (D) 1/2 gt22
28. An electric field due to a positively charged long straight wire at a distance r from it is proportional to r–1 in
magnitude. Two electrons are orbiting such a long straight wire in circular orbits of radii 1 A and 2 A. The
ratio of their respective time periods is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
29. Two particles of identical mass are moving in circular orbits under a potential given by V(r) = Kr –n. where K
is a constant. If the radii of their orbits are r1, r2 and their speeds are v1 : v2, respectively, then
(A) v12 r1n = v22 r2n (B) v12 r1n = v22 r2n (C) v12 r1 = v22 r2 (D) v12 r12.n = v22 r22n
30. Mercury is often used in clinical thermometers. Which one of the following properties of mercury is not a
reason for this?
(A) The coefficient of the thermal expansion is large.
(B) It is shiny.
(C) It is a liquid at room temperature,
(D) It has high density.
CHEMISTRY
31. One mole of one of the sodium salts listed below, having carbon content close to 14.3%, produces 1 mole of
carbon dioxide upon heating (atomic mass Na = 23, H = 1, C = 12, O = 16). The salt is
(A) C2H5COONa (B) NaHCO3 (C) HCOONa (D) CH3COONa
32. Among formic acid, acetic acid, propanoic acid and phenol, the strongest acid m water is
(A) formic acid (B) acetic acid (C) propanoic acid (D) phenol
33. According to Graham's Law, the rate of diffusion of CO, O2, N2 and CO2 follows the order :
(A) CO = N2 > O2 > CO2 (B) CO= N2 > CO2 > O2
(C) O2 > CO = N2 > CO2 (D) CO2 > O2 > CO = N2
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34. The major product formed when 2butene is reacted with O3 followed by treatment with Zn/H2O is
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CHO (C) CH3CH2OH (D) CH2 = CH2
35. The IUPAC name for the following compound is
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–C–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH3
(A) 2propylhex1ene (B) 2butylpent1ene
(C) 2propyl2butylethene (D) propyl1butylethene
36. The major products obtained in the reaction of oxalic acid with conc. H2SO4 upon heating are
(A) CO, CO2, H2O (B) CO, SO2, H2O (C) H2S, CO. H2O (D) HCOOH, H2S, CO
37. LiOH reacts with CO2 to form Li2CO3 (atomic mass of Li = 7). The amount of CO2 (in g) consumed by 1 g of
LioH is closest to
(A) 0.916 (B) 1.832 (C) 0.544 (D) 1.088
38. The oxidation number of sulphur is – 4 in
(A) H2S (B) CS2 (C) Na2SO2 (D) Na2SO3
39. Al2O3 reacts with
(A) only (B) water (C) only alkalis (D) both acids and alkalis
40. The major product formed in the oxidation of acetylene by alkaline KMnO4 is
(A) ethanol (B) acetic acid (C) formic acid (D) oxalic acid
41. In a closed vessel. an ideal gas at 1 atm is heated from 27ºC to 327ºc. The final pressure of the gas will
approximately be
(A) 3 atm (B) 0.5 atm (C) 2 atm (D) 12 atm
42. Among the elements Li, N, C and Be one with the largest atomic radius is
(A) Li (B) N (C) C (D) Be
43. A redox reaction among the following is
(i) CdCl2 + 2 KOH Cd(OH)2 – 2 KCl (ii) BaCl2 + K2SO4 BaSO4 + 2 KCl
(iii) CaCO3 CaO – CO2 (iv) 2 Ca + O2 2 CaO
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
44. The electronic configuration which obeys Hund’s rule for the ground state of carbon atom is
A
2p 2p
Energy
Energy
2s 2s
(A) (B)
1s 1s
2p 2p
Energy
Energy
2s 2s
(C) (D)
1s 1s
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45. The graph that depicts Einstein’s photoelectric effect for a monochromatic source of frequency about the
threshold frequency is
Photoelectric
Photoelectric
current
current
(A) (B)
Intensity of Intensity of
radiation radiation
Photoelectric
Photoelectric
current
current
(C) (D)
Intensity of Intensity of
radiation radiation
BIOLOGY
46. What is the length of human DNA containing 6.6 × 109 bp ?
(A) 22 mm (B) 0.22 mm (C) 2.2 m (D) 22 m
47. The Diptheria, Pertussis, Tetanus (DPT) vaccine consists of
(A) live attenuated strains of Diptheria, Pertussis. Tetanus
(B) toxoid of Diptheria, Tetanus, and heat killed whole cells of Pertussis
(C) whole cell lysate of Diptheria. Pertussis. Tetanus
(D) heat killed strains of Diptheria. Pertussis. Tetanus
48. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme ?
(A) Lipase (B) Amylase (C) Trypsin (D) Bilirubin
49. The pH of the avian blood is maintained by
(A) HCO3– (B) H2PO4– (C) CH3COO– (D) Cl–
50. Podocyte layer that provides outer lining to the surface of glomerular capillaries are found in
(A) bowman’s capsule (B) loop of Henle (C) renal artery (D) ureter
51. If a dsDNA has 20% adenine. what would be its cytosine content ?
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 80%
52. Which one of the following is incapable of curing Pellagra ?
(A) Niacine (B) Nicotine (C) Nicotinamide (D) Tryptophan
53. In Escherichia coli, how many codons code for the standard aminoacids?
(A) 64 (B) 60 (C) 61 (D) 20
54. Bombyx mori (silk worm) belongs to the order
(A) Lepidoptera (B) Diptera (C) Hymenoptera (D) Coleoptera
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55. The source of mammalian hormone “Relaxin” is
(A) ovary (B) stomach (C) intestine (D) pancreas
56. Which one of the following animals is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals ?
(A) Platypus (B) Bat (C) Armadillo (D) Frog
57. What is the number of chromosomes in an individual with Turner’s syndrome ?
(A) 44 (B) 45 (C) 46 (D) 47
58. Chipko movement in the year 1974 in Garhal Himalayas involved
(A) Protecting tigers
(B) preventing soil erosion by planting trees
(C) preventing pollution by closing down industries
(D) hugging trees to prevent the contractors from felling them
59. Which of the following amino acids is NOT involved in gluconeogenesis ?
(A) Alanine (B) Lysine (C) Glutamate (D) Arginine
60. Which of the following entities causes syphilis ?
(A) Treponema pallidum (B) Neisseria gonorrhoea
(C) HIV (D) Hepatitis B
PARTII
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
61. Suppose a is a positive real number such that a5 – a3 + a = 2
(A) a6 < 2 (B) 2 < a6 < 3 (C) 3 , a6 < 4 (D) 4 s a6
62. Consider the quadratic equation nx2 + 7 n x + n = 0. where n is a positive integer. Which of the following
statements are necessarily correct ?
I. for any n. the roots are distinct.
II. There are infinitely many values of n for which both roots are real.
III. the product of the roots is necessarily an integer.
(A) III only (B) I and III only (C) II and III only (D) I. II and III
63. Consider a semicircle of radius 1 unit constructed on the diameter AB and let O be its centre. Let C be a
point on AO such that AC : CO = 2 : 1 Draw CD perpendicular to AO with D on the semicircle. Draw OE
perpendicular to AD with E on AD. Let OE and CD intersect at H. Then DH equals
1 1 1 5 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 3 2 2
64. Let S1 be the sum of areas of the squares whose sides are parallel to coordinate axes. Let S2 be the sum of
areas of the slanted squares as shown in the figure. Then S1/S2 is
Length
1
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D)
2
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65. If a 3digit number is randomly chosen. What is the probability that either the number itself or some
permutation of the number (which is a 3digit number) is divisible by 4 and 5 ?
1 29 11 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45 180 60 4
PHYSICS
66. Which one of the following four graphs best depict the variation with x of the moment of inertia I of a uniform
triangular lamina about an axis parallel to its base at a distance x from it :
h
x
I I I I
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x x x x
h h h h
67. A rectangular block is composed of three different glass prisms (with refractive indices µ1 , µ2 and µ3) as
shown in the figure below. A ray of light incident normal to the left face emerges normal to the right face.
Then the refractive indices are related by
µ1 µ2 µ3
45º 45º
(A) µ12 + µ22 = 2µ32 (B) µ12 + µ22 = µ32 (C) µ12 + µ32 = 2µ22 (D) µ22 + µ32 = 2µ12
68. A uniform metal plate shaped like a triangle ABC has a mass of 540 gm. The length of the sides AB. BC. and
CA are 3 cm. 5 cm and 4 cm. respectively. the plate is pivoted freely about the point A. What mass must be
added to a vertex, so that the plate can hang with the long edge horizontal ?
(A) 140 gm at C (B) 540 gm at C (C) 140 gm at B (D) 540 gm at B
69. A 20 gm bullet whose specific heat is 5000 J/ (kg – ºC) and moving at 2000 m/s plunges into a 1.0 kg block
of wax whose specific heat is 3000 J/ (kg – ºC). Both bullet and wax are at 25ºC and assume that (i) the
bullet comes to rest in the wax and (ii) all its kinetic energy goes into heating the wax. Thermal temperature
of the wax in ºC is close to
(A) 28.1 (B) 31.5 (C) 37.9 (D) 42.1
70. A “V” shaped rigid body has two identical uniform arms. What must be the angle between the two arms so
that when the body is hung from one end the other arm is horizontal ?
(A) cos–1 (1/3) (B) cos–1 (1/2) (C) cos–1 (1/4) (D) cos–1 (1/6)
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CHEMISTRY
71. In the following reaction, X, Y and Z are
CH3 CH3
NO2
Y Z
+ X
(A) X = CH3Cl ; Y = anhydrous AlCl3 ; Z = HNO3 + H2SO4
(B) X = CH3COCl ; Y = anhydrous AlCl3 ; z = HNO3 + H2SO4
(C) X = CH3Cl ; Y = conc. H2SO4 ; Z = HNO3 + H2SO4
(D) X = CH3Cl ; Y = dil. H2SO4 ; Z = HNO3
72. 2,3 Dibromobutane can be converted to 2butyne in a twostep reaction using
(A) (i) HCl and (ii) NaH (B) (i) alcoholic KOH and (ii) NaNH2
(C) (i) Na and (ii) NaOH (D) (i) Br2 and (ii) NaH
73. Given
NO(g) + O3(g) NO2 (g) + O2 (g) H = – 198.9 kJ/Mol
O3 (g) 3/2 O2 (g) H = – 142.3 kJ/mol
O2 (g) 2O (g) H = + 495.0 kJ/mol
The enthalpy change (H) for hte following reaction is
NO(g) + O(g) NO2 (g)
(A) – 304.1 kJ/mol (B) + 304.1 kJ/mol (C) – 403.1 kJ/mol (D) + 403.1 kJ/mol
74. A 1.85 g sample of an arseniccontaining pesticide was chemically converted to AsO43– (atomic mass of As
= 74.9) and titrated with Pb2– to form Pb3 (AsO4)2. If 20 mL of 0.1 M Pb2+ is required to reach the equivalence
point the mass percentage of arsenic in the pesticide sample is closest to
(A) 8.1 (B) 2.3 (C) 5.4 (D) 3.6
75. When treated with conc. HCl. MnO2 yield a gas (X) which further reacts with Ca(OH)2 to generate a white
solid (Y). the solid Y reacts with dil. HCl to produce the same gas X. The solid Y is
(A) CaO (B) CaCl2 (C) Ca(OCl)Cl (D) CaCO3
BIOLOGY
76. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg at the sea level. Which of the following ranges is nearest to the
partial pressure of CO2 in mm Hg?
(A) 0.30 – 0.31 (B) 0.60 – 0.61 (C) 3.0 – 3.1 (D) 6.0 – 6.1
77. A breeder crossed a pure bred tall plant having white flowers to a pure bred short plant having blue flowers.
He obtained 202 F1 progeny and found that they are all tall having white flowers. Upon Selfing these F1
plants. he obtained a progeny of 2160 plants. Approximately. How many of these are likely to be short and
having blue flowers ?
(A) 1215 (B) 405 (C) 540 (D) 135
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78. Match the different types of heart given in column A with organisms given in the column B. Choose the
correct combination.
Column A Column B
(P) Neurogenic heart (i) Human
(Q) Bronchial heart (ii) King crab
(R) Pulmonary heart (iii) Shark
P Q R
(A) ii iii i
(B) iii ii i
(C) i iii ii
(D) ii i iii
79. Given below are the four schematics that describe the dependence of the rate of an enzymatic reaction on
temperature. Which of the following combinations is true for thermophilic and psychrophilic organisms ?
Reaction rate
Reaction rate
Reaction rate
Reaction rate
Temperature Temperature Temperature Temperature
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) P and P (B) P and S (C) P and R (D) R and R
80. Match the enzymes in Group I with the reaction in Group II select the correct combination.
Group I Group II
(P) Hydrolase (i) Inter conversion of optical isomers
(Q) Lyase (ii) Oxidation and reduction of two substrates
(R) Isomerase (iii) Joining of two compounds
(S) Ligase (iv) Removal of a chemical group from a substrate
(v) Transfer of a chemical group from one substrate to another
P Q R S
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) v iv i iii
(C) iv i iii v
(D) i iv v ii
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS (YEAR2007)
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B C D C B D D B A C D C D D B
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B C B C C B C C A C A C B A C
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B A C C D B A B B D A C C A D
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. A A A D B A D A B D D D D B B
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. C A B A C A A D A B D D A C C
PARTI (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
n n
1. s1(n) = [2.8 + (n – 1) 4] s2(n) = [2.17 + (n – 1)2]
2 2
s1(n) = s2(n)
n n
[2.8 + (n – 1) 4] = [2.17 + (n – 1)2]
2 2
2(n – 1) = 18
n–1=9
n = 10
s1(10) = 5[16 + 36] = 260 = s2(10)
2.
(sin(2x))4 = 1/8
Range x [0, 2]
Let 2x = y
given range 0 x 2
0 2x 4
0 y 4
(sin(2x))4 = 1/8
From above graph we can say,
Total Eight solution
3.r 2 – 8.r 5
3. 0
4.r 2 – 3.r 7
3r2 – 3r – 5r + 5 > 0 and 4r2 – 3r + 7 > 0 as D<0
3r(r – 1) –5(r – 1) > 0
(3r – 5)(r – 1) > 0
(3r – 5)(r – 1) > 0
r (– , 1) (5/3, )
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4. a : (b + c) = b : (c + a)
add 1 both side
abc abc
=
bc c a
a+b+c=0
3/2
3x
5. xx = 2
x
Case  I when base x = 1
Case  II when base x 1
3x
then x3/2 =
2
3
x x = 0
2
9
x0x=
4
Hence two solutions
40
n2
6. M 2
n1
Splitng n in odd number and in even number
( 2x ) 2
20 19
(2y 1)2
M 2
+
y 0
2
x 1
2x + 2y
20 19
1
M 2 2
2y
x 1 y 0
2
20 19
= 2x 2y 2y
2 2
+
x 1 y 0
20 19
2 20(20 1)( 41)
Now
x 1
2x 2
6 and ( 2y
y 0
2
2y ) = 2 19 (19 1)(39 ) + 2 19 20
6 2
20 21 41 (19 20 39 ) (19 20)
2x + 2x +2
6 6 2
5740 + 4940 + 380 = 11060
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7. f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c
Since f(x) has three roots when c = 0
graph can be
O
Now, graph of
f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c, when c > 0 can be
O
So option (D) is right
8. Case  I
Here a = 1
Case – II
3
Altitute a=1
2
2
a= .
3
9. Let AB = a then BE = a tan
CE
= tan
CF
CF = a cot – a
Now, In GHF
HF 1 tan
tan = =
GH 2 cot
Solving we get
2
tan =
3
2
sin =
13
10. R = 5, c = 6, b = 6
12 x
S= ,= s( s – a)( s – b)( s – c )
2
12 x x x 12 – x
= . . .
2 2 2 2
abc
R=
4
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36 x
5
4 (12 x )x 2 (12 – x )
4
36
(12)2 – x 2 =
5
2
36
(12) – = x2
2
5
x = 48/5
11. Let AP = x1, PQ = x2
ar( ADE) 1
Now, =
ar( ABC) 2
2
x1 1
=
( x1 x 2 ) 2
2
2x12 = x12 + x22 + 2x1x2
x12 – x22 – 2x1x2 = 0
x1 2 44
x2 = 2
x1 2 1
x2 = 1
1
12. cos2 + cos2 = 3/2 and sin sin =
4
1 cos 2 1 cos 2 1
+ = 3/2 and 2sin sin =
2 2 2
1
cos 2 + cos 2 = 1 and cos ( – ) – cos ( + ) = ...(ii)
2
2 cos ( + ) cos ( – ) = 1 ...(i)
From (i) and (ii)
cos ( + ) cos ( – ) = cos ( – ) – cos ( + )
1
cos ( + ) = and cos ( – ) = 1
2
+=
3
1 3x 2
13. Area = [x + 2x + 3x] =
2 4
3x 2
3x =
4
x= 4 3
Area = 12 3
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14. Let wealth A, B, C are x, y, z
Given : A = B + C
x=y+z ....(i)
A distribute half of his wealth to B & C
x 2 1
2 : 1 i.e. &
2 3 3
x
Now, A =
2
2 x
B = y + 2
3
1 x
C=z+
3 2
Now, B = A + C
x x x
y+ = +z+
3 2 6
x
y–z=
3
3y – 3z = x ...(ii)
1 2
Let t be fraction that A should distribute and the ratio of distribution is 1 : 2 i.e. < .
3 3
Now, A = (1 – t)x
tx
B=y+
3
2tx
C=z+
3
2tx tx
z+ =y+ + (1 – t) x
3 3
tx
z+ = y + x – tx
3
3z + tx = 3y + 3x – 3tx
4tx = 3 (y – z) + 3x
4tx = 3x + x
4tx = 4x
t = 1.
So, A would distribute his whole wealth to B and C.
Fraction is 1.
15. Put 3 times water of 110 ml to container and take 13 times 25 ml water from container then container
has 5 ml water.
16. Distance = speed × time
Distance covered in car = 50 × 4 = 200 km
He move for 1 hr = 20 km
Dis tan ce 200
Time take while retraining from town to village time = = = 5 hr
Speed 40
Total journey = 200 + 200 + 20
Total time taken = 4 + 1 + 5 = 10
420
average speed = = 42 km/hr
10
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17. Given 4 × 4 × 4 cubes is mode faces 64
1 × 1 × 1 cubes
total cubes = 64, white = 20, Red = 44
To find minimum number of visible white box
Counting total visible faces of unit cube
Total number of faces of small cube on bigger cube
except boundry cubes = 4 × 6 = 24
Counting boundry cube = 16 + 8 + 8 = 32
Total visible faces = 56
But we have 44 Red cube
minimum of number of white faces
cubes which are visible = 56 – 44 = 12
18. Multiple of 3 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 36 then n = 5, 8, 11, 14, 17, 20, 23......
Multiple of 5 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55 then n = 8, 13, 18, 23, 28 ......
Now, common two digit numbers are 23, 38, 52, 67, 82, 97.
19. if start with H1 2 ways
if start with H2 2 ways
if start with W 1 2 ways
if start with W 2 2 ways
m=8
in case of circle
H1 H1
W2 H2 H2 W2
Hence n = 2
W1 W1
20. Total students = 300
One student read = 5 newspapers
Number of newspapers read by 300 students
= 5 × 300
= 1500 newspaper
1500
Number of different newspapers = = 25.
60
T PHYSICS
21. mg–T = ma a
T = m(g–a)
mg
4
= 6000 (10–2)= 4.8 × 10 N
u C v
22. A v B
5 5
Between A and B
v2 = u2 = +2a(2s) .....(i)
Between A and C
v’2 = u2 + 2as .....(ii)
u2 v 2
from (i) and (ii) v’ =
2
92 U 82 Pb 824 He 601e
238 206
24.
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CHEMISTRY
n
1
31. Using the formula, N = N0
2
where, No = initial amount of radioactive substance
N = Amount of substance left after ‘n’ half lives
Total time (t)
No. of half lives (n) =
Half life period
21.2 years
n=
5.3 years
n=4
4
1 20
so, N = 20 = = 1.25g
2 16
32. Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Zinc Sulphuric Zinc sulphate Hydrogen gas
acid (salt)
Zn(s) + 2NaOH (aq) Na2ZnO2 (aq) + H2(g)
Zinc Sodium Sodium Hydrogen gas
hydroxide zincate
33. Acetylene (CH CH) has a triple bond.
34. Ne has 10 electrons and oxygen has 8 electrons.
35. KMnO4 being strong oxidising agent will oxidise Cl– ion present in HCl to form chlorine gas.
2KMnO4 + 16 HCl 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 8H2O + 5Cl2
36. Order of strength for halogen acids is HI > HBr > HCl > HF
38. Concentrated sulphuric acid is a dehydrating agent and it burns the organic compounds like sucrose so
the colour of the solution turns black.
C12H22O11(s) 12C + 11H2O(g)
Conc .H2SO 4
Sucrose Carbon Water vapour
(Black)
Oxidation
39. ZnO+C Zn + CO
Reduction
40. Monomer of Teflon is Tetrafluoroethene(CF2=CF2)
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PARTII (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
51. x = x3 + y4 ; y = 2xy
y = 2xy
Two cases 1. case 1 y=0&xR
1
2. case  2 x= &yR
2
Now, equation x = x3 + y4
Taking case  I
x = x3
Solution x = 0, 1, –1
pairs = (0, 0), (1, 0), (– 1, 0)
Taking case 2
3
1 1
= + y4
2 2
3
= y4
8
1/ 4
3
y = ±
8
1 3 1 / 4 1 3 1 / 4
,
Solution set = 2 , 8 , 2 8
52. f(x) degree (n)
f(1) = 2
f(3) =
f(x) = axn + bxn – 1 + cxn – 2 .......
If degree 0 f(x) = a = constant
f(1) = f(3) but it is not true
If degree 1 f(x) = ax + b
f(1) = a + b =
2
f(3) = 3a + b =
Two variables & two unknown
a & b can be found uniquly
one polynomial used only
For n>1
Let n = 2 ax2 + bx + c
We have 3 variable & only 2 equations can be formed from given condition
Hence infinite such polynomial can be formed
53. p(x) = Q(x) . (x2 – 3x + 2) + (2x – 3)
p(1) = – 1
p(2) = 1
at least one root between 1 & 2
1
–1 1 2
–1
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D x N x C
y
2y M
54. y
B
A 2x
y 2y
In MCN, tan = and In ADN, tan (90 – ) =
x x
2y
cot =
x
x
tan = 2 y
2y2 = x2
x 2
y = 1
B( 2 , 3)
S x R
x x
55. O(0, 0) P x Q (6, 0)
a A
2
3 x 3–x x 3
tan = = = ....(i) and tan = = ....(ii)
2 a 2 –a 6–a–x 6– 2
3a
x= [from (i)]
2
2x
a=
3
and 6x – 2 x = 18 – 3a – 3x [from (ii)]
2x
9x – 2 x = 18 – 3 . 3
x=2
Q' P
102º
56.
r A r B
R' O
Since R can be any point between A & R’ & hence its corresponding point Q will lie on the arc AQ’. Hence
PRA can not be uniquely determined.
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3x y 2x
A B C D
57.
5y
AB 3
Given =
CD 2
BC 1
=
AD 5
Let AB = 3x CD = 2x , BC = y, AD = 5y
3x + y + 2x = 5y
5x = 4y
To find AC : BD = (3x + y) : (y + 2x)
3x y 3x 5x / 4
2x y = 2x 5 x / 4
3 5 / 4 12 5 17
= =
2 5/4 85 13
58. Let r = radius of sphere
and R = radius of cone
and H = height of cone
4 3 1
r = R2H
3 3
4r3 = R2H ....(i)
Now,
k4r2 = R2 + R R 2 H2
k(4r2) = R2 + R R 2 H2
16r 6
4kr2 = R R R R 4
2
r2 6
1 R 2 16r r2
4k 2 =1 R6 Let =x
R R2
4kx = 1 + 1 16 x 3
16k2x2 – 8kx + 1 = 1 + 16x3
x=0 16k2x – 8k = 16x2
2x2 – 2k 2x + k = 0 since cone is unique therefore it has equal roots
4k4 – 8k = 0
k = 0, (2)1/3
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59. Let original four digit number is = m2
and new 4digit number is = n2
then m2 – n2 = 1111 (where, m, n, )
(m + n)(m – n) = 1 × 1111 or 11 × 101
Case  I
m + n = 1111
m–n=1
m = 556
n = 555
But m2 = is a 4digit number
Case  II
m + n = 101
m – n = 11
m = 56 and n = 44
So, there is only one such 4digit number.
60. m , n are integer
1/3 < m/n < 1 ...(i)
m m
= n0
n n
m
= = +ve integer
m 1
m=2
Using equation (i)
n = 3, 4, 5
m 2 2 2
= , ,
n 3 4 5
PHYSICS
1 2
61. = 0t – t
2
1
= 60 × 5 – × 8 × 25
2
= 300 – 100
= 200 radian
100
or n =
2
~ 32rev./s
62. Energy released = mLV
= volume of water × density ×LV
= 100 × (103)2 ×1×103 × 22.5 × 105 J
= 22.5 × 1016 J
22.5 1016
Number of bombs = 2250 ~
2000
1014
5r 5 1 5
63. Req =
6 6 6
V 10 volt
V 10 6
So, I = 12A
R 5
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64. time taken in rotataing angle is t, then N
45 103
t= 15 10 5 s
3 10 8
27º
t = 15 ×10–5 second
360
T= 15 10 5
1 1 1000
N= = 250 rev/s
T 4 10 3 4
65. Focal length, f = 1m,
size of object, h1 = 1000m, size of image, h2 = 0.2 m
image is real, so
h2 v 4
– h u v 2 10 u
1
1 1 1
f v u
1 1
1=– 4
u = – 5000 m or u = –5 km
2 10 u u
CHEMISTRY
66. N1V1 = N2V2
36 × V1 = 3 × V2
V2
= 12
V1
67. 4Fe + 3O2 + nH2O 2Fe2O3.nH2O
Iron Oxygen Water Hydrated Ferric oxide
(Rust)
68. Solubility of KNO3 at 90º C = 200 g/100 ml
Solubility of KNO3 at 30º C = 40 g/100 ml
Decrease in solubility when KNO3 solution is cooled from 90ºC to 30ºC = 200 – 40 = 160 g/100ml
C6H12O6 – 2C H OH
Yeast
69. 2CO 2 5
CH3COOH
KMnO 4
2
70. Zn + 2H2SO4(conc.) ZnSO4 + SO2(g) + 2H2O
(CH3COO)2 Pb + SO2 PbS
(Black Precipitate)
Cu + SO2 CuS + O2
(Black
mirror)
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS (YEAR2008)
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. A B D A C C C A C D B B D B A
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D D A A B C A D A B C B D C A
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. B A A C D A C A D C A B B C D
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B B B B A C A&C C A D C A D B D
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. B A D A C D A B A A C B D B A
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. B C C A D
PARTI (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Obvious (A) is greatest
1 2 3 n
2. S= ... n ....
10 10 2 10 3 10
S 1 2
= 2 + + .........
10 10 103
Subtracting,
9S 1 1 1
= + 2 + + .........
10 10 10 103
1
9S 10
= 1
10 1–
10
9S 1
=
10 9
10
S=
81
3. (1024)1024 = (16)16n
(210)1024 = (24)16n
10 × 1024 = 4 × 16n
10 1024
n=
4 16
n = 160
4. x2 + 6x + 8
xR
x2 – 2x – 8 0
x2 – 2x – 8 = x2 + 2x – 4x – 8
x(x + 2) – 4(x + 2) 0
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2
x + 6x + 8
–4 –3 –2 0 2 4
x [–2, 4]
clearly min value of expression is 0
at x = – 2
5. Check by option
P12 = {24, 36, 60, 84, ....}
P20 = {40, 60, 100, ......}
P12 P20 has common element
6. All even values of a i.e. 50 and 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, total 55
7. If any statement is true then remaining 2 are false.
C
D
P
4 2 4 2
8. F
4 2
B
A E
Angle bisector Incircle is formed whose radius = 4 2
PE = r = 4 2
PF = r = 4 2 also PF = AE
APE, (AP)2 = (AE)2 + (PE)2
= ( 4 2 )2 + ( 4 2 )2 = 64
AP = 8
1 D
9. Area of rhombus = dd C
2 1 2
Let one diagonal = x y y h
1 y
= ×(x)(2x) = x2 A F
2 2 2 E B y2 – h2
2 y –h
A=x
Let side of rhombus = y & height = h
BFC side BF = y 2 h2
InAFC, (y + y 2 h 2 )2 + h2 = (AC)2 = 4x2
DEB (y – y 2 h 2 )2 + h2 = (BD)2 = x2
Adding
4y2 = 5x2
5x 2 5A
y= =
4 2
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A(2a)
(a) E
P
10.
B C (3b)
D
(2b)
Let B is origin and the position vector of A and C are 2a and 3b
Then P.V. of E = a and P.V. of D = 2b
Now, let P divides AD in : 1 ratio
and P divides EC in : 1
2b 2a 3b a
=
1 1
2b + 2b + 2a + 2a = 3b + a + 3b + a
a (2 + 2 – – 1) = b (3 + 3 – 2 – 2)
But a and b are not collinear..
2 – + 1 = 0 and + 3 – 2 = 0
We get = 1
a 3b
Now, P.V. of P is =
2
1 a 3b a 3b
a 2b
2 2
ar PED 2
Now, ar ABC = 1
2a 3b
2
1
4
a 3b b a
1
= =
6ab 12
N
D C
O M
11. y P
A B
L
Let AB = a, BC = b
and PL = h1
then PN = b – h1
and OP = h2, then PM = a – h2
1
ar(PAB + PCD) = a(h1 + b – h1)
2
ab
=
2
1 ab
and area (PBC + PAD) = × b × (h2 + a – h2) =
2 2
From this only option B is correct
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12. Let x, x + 1, x + 2, x + 3, x + 4, x + 5, x + 6
& x + 7, x + 8, x + 9, x + 10, x + 11
7x + 21 = 5x + 45
2x = 24
x = 12
largest = x + 11 = 23
1
13. Let x minite will be taken. In one minute A can fill the part of tanker and in one minute B can fill the
60
1
part.
40
Both can fill in t
t t
+ =1
60 40
60 40
t=
100
t = 24
1
both can fill in one minute part of tanker..
24
x 1 x 1
1= +
2 40 2 24
x x
1= +
80 48
80 48
x= = 30
128
14. Given a < b < c
6 three digit number are possible with distinct a, b, c.
a b c
a c b
b a c
b c a
c a b
c b a
1 5 5 4
= 100[2(a + b + c)] + 10[2(a + b + c)] + [2(a + b + c)] = 1554
111[2(a + b + c)] = 1554
a+b+c=7
Given a < b < c
1, 2, 4 only satisly above two condition.
Hence, c = 4.
15. Since factor of 128 are = 1, 2, 4, 8 , 16, 32, 64, 128
Hence it will be increased by 8.
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PHYSICS
16. speed will not decrease, so answer is (D)
2s
17. For electron, t1 = ae
2s
For protion, t2 = ap
t2 ae eE mp
or t ap
me eE
1
mp
=
me
18. Focal length, f = 6 cm
u = 1.5m = 150 cm
v=?
1 1 1
f v u
1 1 1
6 v 150
1 1 1 25 1
v 6 150 150
150 75 25
v= 6.25
24 12 4
change in distance = 6.25 – 6 = 0.25 cm
= 0.25cm = 2.5 mm decreased
19. Initial momentum, P1 = mvcos30
and final momentum, P2 = mvcos30
change in momentum
P = – 2mv cos30
P = – 3 mv
Force on wall1
2mv
F1 =
t
Force on wall2
3mv
F2 = , so F1 > F2
t
22. A1u1 = A2u2
u1 A 2 1
u2 A1 16
23. resultant force at centre is zero. On removing the charge from the position 6, the resultant force at centre
kq
will be downward.
r2
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v d
25. w
V dL
1 dw
dw = 420 kg/m 3
2 840
420
R.D. = 0.42
10 3
26. RS = nR for maximum resistance
RP = R/n for minimum resistance
RS
or R = n2
P
27. For block 2kg
T
T – 2g = 2a ........(i) T
For 6 kg
a a
6g – T = 6a ........(ii)
2g
From (i) and (ii) T = 30 N
6g
28. v e 2gR with height g will change, so answer is (D)
partial pressure
29. R.H. =
saturated vapour pressure
90 partial pressure
=
100 0.0169 10 5
partial pressue = 0.0152 × 105 Pa
CHEMISTRY
31. NaOH HCl
N1V1 = N2V2
0.5 × V = 2 × 10
V = 40 mL
35. Ethanol (C2H5OH) and dimethyl ether (CH3 –O – CH3) have same molecular formula but different functional
groups, so they are isomers.
36. For the elements belonging to one period, increase in atomic number results in decrease in atomic
radius. So Li has the largest atomic radius.
37. 2H2O2 2H2O + O2
39. S + O2 SO2
1 mole 1 mole 1 mole
1 1 1
mole mole mole
2 2 2
3.01 × 1023 0.5 mole ?
3.01 × 1023 molecules of SO2 will be formed.
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40. Zn and Pb are placed above hydrogen in the metal activity series, so they will produce hydrogen gas with
dilute acids.
41. Milk of magnesia is basic, water is neutral and lemon juice is acidic in nature.
42. As pressure is increased, solubility of gas in liquid increases.
Conc. H2SO4
45. CH3 – CH –CH2 – CH2 – CH3 CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH3 + CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
–H2O
2Pentene (Major) 1Pentene (minor)
OH
2Pentanol
PARTII (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
61. x 1
2 x1 1 + x 2 4 x 2 4 + x 3 6 x 3 9 + x 4 8 x 4 16 + x 5 8 x 5 25 = 0
x 1 1 + x 4 2 +
1
2
2
2
x3 9 3 +
2
x4 16 4 +
2
x 5 25 5
2
Now, x1 1 – 1 = 0, x 2 4 – 2 = 0, x 3 9 – 3 = 0, x 4 16 – 4, x 5 25 – 5 = 0
x1 = 2, x2  8, x3 = 18, x4 = 32, x5 = 50
x1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5
= 55
2
62. (1 + 2x + 3x2 + .... 21x20) (21x20 + 20x19 + 19x18 + ........ 2x + 1)
coeff. of x30 is 11.21 + 12.20 + ..................... + 21.11
= 2[11.21 + 12.20 + 13.19 + 14.18 + 15.17] + 16.16
= 2[231 + 240 + 247 + 252 + 255] + 256
= 2[1225] + 256
= 2450 + 256
= 2706
63. If we follow the pattern according the rule that angle made by incident ray with normal is equal to the angle
made by reflected ray with normal then we find that ball will not go in any hole.
64. C can be collinear with A & B.
65. Let initial prize is P
Px
after X% increment P
100
after decrement y%
Px Px y
P – P
100 100 100 = P
x y xy
1+ – – =1
100 100 (100)2
x–y xy
=
100 (100)2
1 1 1
y – x = 100
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PHYSICS
66. mass of water, m1 = 0.4 kg
temperature of water, 1 0ºC
mass of ice, m2 = 0.1 kg
tempeature of ice, 2 = – 15ºC
mass of steam = m kg
final temperature of mixture = 40ºC
specific heat of ice, sice = 2.2 × 103 J/kg×k
latent heat of fusion, Lf = 333 × 103 J/kg
latent heat of vaporisation, LV = 2260 × 103 J /kg
Heat given = Heat taken
By steam of 100ºC to water of 100ºC + By water from100ºC to 40ºC = By water from 0ºC to 40ºC + By ice
from –15ºC to ice of 0ºC + By ice of 0ºC to water to 0ºC + By water of 0ºC to 40ºC
mLv + mSw (1100 – 40) = m1 × Sw (40 – 0) + m2sice(15) + m2 × Lf + m2Sw (40–0)
m (2260 × 103 + 4200 × 60) = 0.4 ×4200 × 40 +0.1 ×2.2 × 103 ×15 + 0.1 × 333 × 103 + 0.1 × 4200 × 40
m (2512 × 103) = 67200 + 3300 + 33300 + 16800
120600 603
m= kg = 48 g
251200 12560
100
67.
u v
As for question
u + v = 100 cm .....(i)
after displacing lens by 40 cm u and v will be
u + 40, v  40
for Ist condition
1 1 1 1 1
(i)
f v ( u) v u
1 u v 100
f uv uv
(ii) For second condition
1 1 1
f v 40 (u 40)
u 40 v 40 uv
= =
( v 40)(u 40) ( v 40)(u 40)
From (i) and (ii)
100 100
uv ( v 40)(u 40)
v– u = 40 .....(ii)
v + u = 100
from equation (i) and (ii)
2v = 140
v =70, u = 30
1 uv 100
= f = 21 cm
f uv 2100
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68. we know that
A1V1 = A2V2 = Q (volume flowing per second)
25 × 0.6 = 12 × v2
v2 = 15 m/s ........(i)
Q = A1v1=(5 ×10– 2)2 × 0.6 = 4.71g
force, F = rate of change of momentum
F = mv2 – mv1
= 4.71 × 15 – 4.71 × 0.6 (m = 4.71, mass flow per unit time)
F = 67.9 N
CHEMISTRY
71. Consider the volume of the solution = x cm3
Then the mass of the solution will be = 1.13x
(mass = density × volume)
The solution contains 18% of NaCl by weight
18
× 1.13x = 36
100
3600
x= = 177 cm 3
18 1.13
H+
72. CH3 – CH2 – COOH + CH2 – OH CH3 – CH2 – COOCH2CH3 + H2O
Propanoic Ethyl propanoate
acid CH3
Ethanol
73. Consider that the salt contains x molecules of water .
Molecular weight of anhydrous salt = 160 g
so molecular weight of hydrated salt will be = 160 + 18x g
10
Then, no. of moles of water present in 10x gm of hydrated salt = ×x
160 18 x
10 x
and weight of water present in 10 gm of hydrated salt = × 18
160 18 x
Hydrated salt Anhydrous salt + Water
10g 6.4 g 3.6g
180 x
= 3.6
160 18 x
180x = 576 + 64.8 x
x=5
74. Cr2 O72 – + 6Fe2+ + 14H+ 6Fe3+ + 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
Change in oxidation number of Cr is = 6 – 3 = 3
Change in oxidation number of Fe is = 3 – 2 = 1
75. CaCO3 + H2O + CO2 Ca(HCO3)2
Ca(HCO3)2 CaCO3 + H2O + CO2
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS (YEAR2009)
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D A A A C C B D D B D B D B C
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B C B A A D A D C D C B D B
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. D C A D B C A C D B C B A B C
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D C C B A B A A D B B A A C C
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. A B B C D C A D D A A C D B C
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. C D A A B
PARTI (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. x5 0 1– x 0
x<1 ...(i)
x5 > 1 – x
x + 5 > 1 + x2 – 2x
x2 – 3x – 4 < 0
(x – 4) (x +1) < 0
x (–1, 4) ....(ii)
Using (i) & (ii) x (–1, 1)
3. x = x2 + y2 & y = 2 xy
when y = 0
x = x2
x = 0, x = 1
solutions are (0,0) (1,0)
1
when x =
2
1 1 1 1
– = y2 = y2 y=±
2 4 4 2
1 1 1 1
solutions , ,–
2 2 2 2
4. x3 – 3 x + 2 = 0 [Let x > 0]
x3 – 3x + 2 = 0
(x – 1) (x2 + x – 2) = 0
– 1 9
x = 1, x = =1
2
Now, let x < 0
x3 + 3x + 2 = 0
no solution
x = 1 only one solution
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5. (1 + 2x)20 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 +  + a20x20
put x = 1 320 = a0 + a1 + a2 +  + a20
x = –1 1 = a0 – a1 + a2 – a3  + a20
subtract 320– 1 = 2(a1 + a3 +  + a19]
add 320 + 1 = 2 (a0 + a2 +  +a20]
3 20
2 (a1 + a3 +  + a19) + 3 [a0 + a2 +  + a20] = (320–1) + (3 + 1)
2
5.320 1
=
2
6. Points which are equidistant from O and P1 lies on perpendicular bisector of OP1
P5
P1
P4
O
P3 P2
Similarly for others
In figure points on pentagon are equdistant from points P1, P2, ...... and O
interior region of pentagon is closed to ‘O’
7. Let (x, y) be any point
Using given condition 2 ( x 2)2 y 2 < 3 ( x 0) 2 ( y 3) 2
5x2 + 5y2 – 54y + 16x + 65 > 0
x2 + y2– 10.8y + 3.2x + 13 > 0
It is a circle, radius = 18.72
Centre (– 1.6, 5.4)
Hence region is exterior of (x + 1.6)2 + (y – 5.4)2 = 18.72.
C
8. (r + 3)2 + (r + 10)2 = (13)2 3
r2 + 9 + 6r + r2 + 100 + 20r = 169 3 D
2r2 + 26r – 60 = 0
10
r2 + 13r – 30 = 0 r
(r + 15) (r –2) = 0 A
B r 10
r=2
9. To find possible intergal value of 4th sier minimum possible value of 4th side greater than 0 is 1.
For maximum possible value.
D
20
C
A
B
let angle , are slightly smaller than 180º
if , = 180º
AD = 35
maximum value of 4th side is 34
1, 2, 3,  34 are possible value of 4th side
34 values are possible.
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4
R' 3
V' 172 .8 3
10. = =
V 100 4
R 3
3
R'
= 1.2
R
S' 4 R' 2
Now, ratio of surface area = = =
S 4 R 3
S'
= = 1.44
S
Hence surface area increased by 44%
11. x = 0.d25 d25d25 
x = 0. d25
1000 x = d25. d25
999x = d25
d25
x=
999
d25
x=
37.27
25
take d = 9 then x =
27
d = 9 n = 25
d + n = 34
12. Let at x minute past 10 o’clock they become symmetric
We know the speed of hour hand and minute hand is 1 : 12
x
When minute hand moves x mimute distance then hour hand moves minute distance
12
x x1
12
x
= 10 – x 11
12
10 – x 2
10
13x
= 10
12
120
x=
13
x = 9 minute 13.8 second therefore required time is 10h 9m 13.8 sec.
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13. P = LLLLLL W
9 8 7 6 5 4 1
P= × × ×
10 9 8 7 6 5 4
1
P=
10
14. let x student like all three games.
If x minimum then a + b + c will be maximum p q
and p + q + r should be minimum. Cricket a Football
p+q+r=0 x
b c
a + b + x = 74 ..... (i)
a + c + x = 76 ......(ii)
b + c + x = 82 ......(iii) r
and a + b + c + x = 100 Tennis
a + b + c = 100 – x
Add (i), (ii) & (iii)
2 (a + b + c) + 3x = 232
2 (100 – x) + 3x = 232
200 – 2x + 3x = 232
x = 32.
15. Number of integers between 2n and 2n + 1 is 2n + 1 – 2n – 1
and term = 2n + 1
lastterm = 2n+1 – 1
Sn =
2 n1
2n 1 n
[2 + 1 + 2n + 1 – 1]
2
=
2 n1
2n 1 n
(2 )(1 + 2)
2
= (2n – 1)
2 .3
n
2
Sn = 9 ;
3 × 2n – 1 × (2n – 1) = 9
2n – 1 × (2n – 1) = 3
2n(2n – 1) = 6
It is possble when n is even.
PHYSICS
17. given mass of planet A = mA
and mass of planet B = mB
m B = 8 mA
Gm A GmB
gA = r and gB = r
2
A B2
2
gA mA rB
gB mB rA
or .......(i)
mB = 8 m A
4 3 4 rB
rB d 8 rA3 d r =2
3 3 A
gA 1 1
4
gB 8 2
gB = 2gA
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25. A = r2
A A
2
A r
A A
% 2 100
A r
A
% 2 0.15 = 0.30%
A
92 U 82 Pb 724 He 4 1e0
235 207
27.
so, n = 4 (–1 particles)
29 . Bulbs are connected in series and resistance of 100W is greater then that of 200 watt.
In series, P = I2 R (Here I is constant)
So, PR
So, power of 100W will be greater in the combination.
30. As masses are equal for cude and sphere
So, ms = vs × density
me = ve × density
as ms = m e vs × density ve × density
vs = ve
4 3
r s3
3
surface area comparison 6s2 > 4r2
CHEMISTRY
31. Silicon is tetravalent, so it forms SiCl4 .
32. NH4Cl undergoes sublimation while NaCl does not.
Oxidation
34. SO2 + 2H2S 3S + 2H2O
Reduction
36. As per Boyle’s law
PV = constant
1
and P
V
38. CaC2 + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
Calcium Water Calcium Ethyne
carbide hydroxide (acetylene)
39. As we move downwards in a group, atomic radii increases. So the order will be Li < Na < K < Cs.
40. CH3 – C CH (Propyne) and (cyclo propene) are two possible structural isomers of C3H4 .
Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 07442423406 [136]
41. Propionic acid and methyl acetate both have same molecular formula (C3H6O2) but different functional
groups, so they are isomers.
42 N2 + 3H2 2NH3
Initial
no. of
moles 1 0.5 0
After
reaction 1 – 0.167 0.5 – 0.5 0.334 mole
0.334 moles of NH3 = 2.0 × 1023 molecules
43. CH2OCOR CH2 – OH
Alkaline
CHOCOR + 3NaOH CH – OH + 3RCOONa
Hydrolysis
Soap
CH2OCOR CH2 – OH
Triester Glycerol
44. Copper cannot displace lead from its solution as it is less reactive than lead..
PARTII (2 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
61. loga b = 4 & logcd = 2
b = a4 d =c2
4 2
a –c =7
(a2 – c) (a2 + c) = 7
a2 – c = 7 & a2 + c =1 not possible
or a2 – c = 1 & a2 + c = 7
2a2 = 8
a = ±2
a=2 c=3
c–a=1
62. P(x) = 1 + x + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5
1 x6
=
1 x
It has 5 roots let 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 they are 6th roots of unity except unity
Now, P(x12) =1 + x12 + x24 + x36 + x48 + x60 = P(x) Q(x) + R(x)
Here R(x) is a polynomial of maximum degree 4
Put x = 1, 2, .......5
we get
R(1) = 6, R(2) = 6, R(3) = 6, R(4) = 6, R(5) = 6
i.e. R(x) – 6 = 0 has 6 roots
Which contradict that R(x) is maximum of degree 4
So, it is an identity
R(x) = 6
63. BD b and CE c
c sin A b ...(i) A
and b sin A c ...(ii)
c D
(i) + (ii) E
b
(c + b) sin A b + c k
sin A 1 B
h
C
A = 90º a
Now from (i) and (ii)
c b and b c
c=b Hence angles are 45º, 45º, 90º
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A
(37)2 (7)2 – (33)2 (37)2 x 2 – (33)2
64. cos = =
2.37.7 2.37.x
37 33 37
[(37)2 + (7)2 – (33)2] x = 7(31)2 + 7x2 – 7(33)2
x = 40
B 7 D x C
65. Case  I
a r
A1 =
CaseII
r
a/2 a/2
r – a/4
CaseIII
30 º
a/2
r
a/4
a/2
a/2
r + a/4
a a
A3 = a r r = 2ra
4 4
Hence A1 = A2 = A3
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PHYSICS
C
h=? u=0
67.
d
Time taken by the photon, t = d/c
1 2
h=0×t+ gt
2
1 d2
h= g
2 c2
gd2
h=
2c 2
69. For lens L1,
u= –0.40 m
f = 0.20 m
1 1 1
v f u
1 1 1
v 0.20 0.40
1 2 1
v = 0.40 m
v 0.40
for lens L2 , u = 0.1 m
f = – 0.1 m
1 1 1
v 0.1 0.1
v=
70. After removing charge from P, net force on central charge will be :
Kq1q2 9 109 10 5 5 10 5
F=
r2 12
F = 4.5 N
m = 0.5 kg
so, acceleration,
F 4.5
a= = 9 m/s2 upwards
M 0.5
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CHEMISTRY
71. 2NaCl + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2HCl(g)
(X)
2HCl + CaCO3 CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
(X) (Y)
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O
lime water (Y) Milky
Suspension
72. Initially concentration of salt in solution
222 10 –3
= = 0.2M
111 10 10 – 3
On dilution the final concentration of CaCl2 will be
M1V1 = M2V2
0.2 × 10 = M2 × 100
M2 = 0.02 M
CaCl2 Ca2+ + 2Cl–
0.02 M 0.02 M 2 × 0.02
–
[Cl ] = 0.04M = 0.04 mole/L
73. 4Al + 3MnO2 3Mn + 2Al2O3
To reduce 3 moles of MnO2 required moles of Al = 4
So, for one mole of MnO2 required moles of Al will be = 4/3
CH3 – CH2 – OH CH3COOH
Alkaline
74.
KMnO 4
Ethanol Acetic acid
(X)
CH3COOH + CH3OH CH3COOCH3 + H2O
H
Acetic acid Methanol Methyl acetate
(Y)
75. On dilution, mili equivalent of the solute remains constant.
Initially pH of HCl = 4
so normality of HCl = 10–4 N
after dilution pH of HCl = 5
so normality of HCl will be = 10–5 N
N1V1 = N2V2
10–4 × 10 = 10–5 × V
V = 100 mL
So, 90 mL of water should be added for this pH change
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS (YEAR2010)
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C D B A B B A D D D B A C D C
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D A D B A D A A B B A A D C C
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D C A D D A C B C B
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. x2 + bx + a = 0
x2 + ax + b = 0
x=–1 x+1=
2
(x + 1) + a(x + 1) + b = 0
x2 + (a + 2)x + 1 + a + b = 0
x2 + bx + a = 0 and 1+a+b=a b=–1
a=–3
_________
a+b=–4
t
2. 3x/y = t 3t – = 24 8t = 3 × 24
3
t=9
So, 3x/y = t 3x/y = 9
3x/y = 32 x = 2y.
xy 3y
= 3.
x–y y
n(n 1)(2n 1) 2n 1 3k – 1
3. 2 =k n=
6n(n 1) 3 2
3k – 1 20 1
1 100 3 3k 201 1 k
2 3
1 k 67.
Number of odd integers = 34.
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4. 2 + b2 = 392, b2 + h2 = 402, h2 + 2 = 412
Adding
2(2 + b2 + h2) = 392 + 402 + 412
392 40 2 412 ( 40 – 1)2 40 2 ( 40 1)2
2 b2 c 2 = =
2 2
3( 40)2 2 4802
= = = 2401
2 2
= 49.
5. It has to be an isosceles triangle.
1 2 1 1
= ×1 x – = 4x 2 – 1
2 4 4
Perimeter = 1 + 2x odd which is always irrational.
1
6. = × 12 × 6
2
= 36
7.
2 2
60 a 60 3a
= a , A = A = = 3a
2 2
A1 = A5 =
360 2 24 2 4 360 2 8
2
240 5a
= 25a
2
A3 =
360 2 6
a2 3a 2 25a2
2 2
Area that can be grazed = 24 + 8 +
= 5a2.
6
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dv
8. = c.
dt
1 2 r
v= r h tan =
3 h
3
= h tan
3
dv dh h3 tan
= h2 tan ct + k =
dt dt 3
H3 tan 3
when t = 0, h = H k= ct = (h – H3) tan
3 3
H –7
when t = 21 , h = c= H3
2 6 3
8
h=0
3 – 7
(–H3 ) tan = 3 H t 7 = 7
t t = 24
3 6 8 24 8 72
More time in minutes does it empty the vessel is 3
9. Water + solid = 1000
99
Water is 1000 = 990
100
water evaporated is x.
990 – x
so 100 = 98
1000 – x
99000 – 100 x = 96000 – 98x
1000 = 2x x = 500
10.
2x 2 30
xy = 10 and yz = 4 z= y 5 also x a = 12 a=
5 x
30 x x 50
and (b) = 15 b= and (c) = 25 c=
x 2 2 x
50
Area = x = 50
x
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PHYSICS
11. T = 2 g
First distance of com from suspension point will increase then decrease.
T.
12. when sliding has started (KVPY / 2010 / SA)
till acceleration of block is zero F – fk = ma
F – fs = 0
fs = F
49 500
13. Mg = 40 × ×
1000 1
40 49 5 10
M= = 100 kg.
10 98
14.
GMm mv 2
2 =
r r
No change because distance between them will be from centre to centre distance which is unchanged.
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15.
Since, ig = 0
PR = QS
Still it will be a balanced W.S.B.
So, again ig = 0.
KQq 1 Qq
16. 2 = 4 . 2
R 0 R
Since initially net force on Q was zero by symmetry
So, F1 FRe maining 11 0
FRe maining 11 F1
1 Qq
So, 4 . 2 towards the position of the removed charge.
0 r
Vi2
17. Pi =
Ri
Since, Rf < Ri keeping V = constant
V = Vf
V2
Pf =
Rf
Since, R P .
18.
the combination will behave as parallel slab so light get laterally displaced without any spectrum.
19. 20ºC 80ºC
S as T
d = m.s.d d = ms d
Since, average S of body which is initially at 80ºC is higher then body initially at temperature 20ºC so
temperature decreases of earlier will be less then temperature increases of letter.
So, Tf > 50ºC.
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20. tx = 3 T + 300 Q = ms
tx = 3T
Q Q
S= S=
m. m.
Since, unit of is joule in both system
X T
m = m0kg m0kg
Q = Q0J Q0.J
tx T
Q0 Q0 3Q
Sx = m t = 1400 ST = m T = m t
0 x 0 0 x
ST = 3 × 1400 = 4200 Jkg–1K–1
CHEMISTRY
21. Aqueous solution containing more number of particles have more elevation in boiling point.
22. 14
Si : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
23. CaCO3 (s) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
25 25
Number of mole
100 100
25
Amount of CO2 = × 44 = 11 gram.
100
24. As we move ‘left to right’ in 2nd period, atomic radii decreases due to increase in effective nuclear charge.
25. In BCl3 octet rule is not satisfy.
Total number of 6 electrons in outermost shell of B after bonding.
26. MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Cl2 gas produces.
27. C4H7Br
CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – Br
H H H H
   
H – C C – C – C – Br
 
H H
Number of covalent bond = 12.
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28. pH = 2 [H+]i = 10–2 M
pH = 5 [H+]f = 10–5 M
[H ] f 10 5 1
= =
[H ]i 10 2 1000
So, H+ concentration decreases thousand fold.
29. For 1st jar :
2
Number of moles of H2 (g) = =1 mole.
2
Number of molecules of H2 (g) = 6.02 × 1023.
For 2nd jar :
28
Number of moles of N2 (g) = =1 mole.
28
Number of molecules of N2 (g) = 6.02 × 1023.
So, both jar have same number of molecules.
30. and
(cis) (trans)
cis and trans are stereoisomeric pair.
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DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
PARTB (5 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. Let total amount is n2
Total borrowed amount = (2u + 1) 10
n2 – (2u + 1) 10 < 10
True for. n = 6 u=1
So, the left amount = 6.
2.
Let ADE is equilateral and D is mid point of AB and E is mid point of AC
[given condition is true for above assumption]
Area of quad. ADPE = Area of quad. DPFB
= Area of quad. EPFC
Area of ABC = 12 sq. units
3. From the question if m = 1111 or
(i) m = 111.11
is always divisible by n = 11 which is coprime with 10
(ii) by choosing a = k 10b (10c – 1) when k is any natural number we can option any natural number k.
The problem seen to have an error which may be due to memory retersion constraints.
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PHYSICS
4.
Assume to be spherical concave.
(R H)
cos0 =
R
(i) P.E. = mg(R – R cos) = mgR(1 – cos)
(ii) mgH – mgR (1 – cos) = kinetic energy
d2
(iii) m(g sin)R = (mR2)
dt 2
0
2
1
g 0
2
T 16
2 = 2 g 1
tPQ =
4 4 16
(iv)
mV 2
N – mg =
R
mV 2
N = mg + where V = 2gh .
R
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5.
(i) For RP
RR V RR V RR A R AR V
R estimated R A RP R
R RV R RV
V RR V
RP = =
R R V + RA
R.R V
(ii) RP = R R A
R RV
Since, RA < < R < < RV
RR V
Rest = R A ~– R
R RV
RP = 0
(R R A )R V
(iii) RQ V =
RA R RV
(R R A )R V
Restimated =
RA R RV
(R R A )R V
RQ = R –
R RA RV
R 2 RR A RR V RR V R A R V
=
R RA RV
R 2 RR A R A R V
=
R RA RV
R 2 RR A
= RA
RV RV
RQ ~
– RA .
R 2 RR A R A R V
(iii) =0
R RV RV
After solving, R= R AR V .
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6.
1 1 1 1 1 1 2 1
(i) =
V 20 10 V 10 20 20
20
V=
3
(ii) fLM = –5 cm
20
+ d = 10
3
20 10
d = 10 – = cm
3 3
(iii)
(A) Ist reference with lens
20
V=
3
(B) Then mirror,
Xim = –X0 M
(C) Again by lens,
1 3 1
=
V 40 10
1 1 3 4 3
=
V 10 40 40
40
V= cm
7
40
It means right of lens at a distance cm.
7
CHEMISTRY
7. (I) (A) Bottle3 does not react with HCl or NaOH.
(B) Bottle2 reacts only with NaOH.
(C) Bottle4 reacts with both NaOH or HCl.
(D) Bottle1 reacts with HCl only.
(II) Bottle4 is highly soluble in distilled water due to zwitter ion formation.
8. (i) Balanced equation are :
(a) 3 Cu + 8 HNO3 3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O
(b) 2 Cu2 Cu22 + 2
(c) 2 Na2S2O3 + 2 Na2S4O6 + 2 Na
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2.54
(ii) Mole of 2 = = 0.01
254
Mole of Cu2 = 2 × mole of 2 = 0.02
Mole of Cu2 = mole of Cu = 0.02
wt. = 0.02 × 63.5 = 1.27 g
1.27
% purity = × 100 = 63.5%
2
9. (i) 2500 × 4.18 = 10450 kJ
10450 103
(ii) Mole of sucrose required = = 1.866
5.6 10 6
wt. of sucrose required 1.866 × 342 = 638.172 g
1 mole of C12H22O11 12 mole of CO2
1.866 moles of C12H22O11 1.866 × 12 moles of CO2
22.392 moles of CO2
1 mole of CO2 22.4
22.392 moles of CO2 22.4 × 22.392.
501.58
10. (a) Difference in flower colour is most likely due to environmental factors
(b) Perform cross breeding between the plants from Chandigarh and those from Shimla to find out
whether we get any pink flower or flowers with any shade of color between pink and white in the F1
generation
(c) Grow the plants from Chandigarh in Shimla and check whether they still produce white flowers of
bear pink flowers.
11. (a) In experiment A, ethanol fermentation occurs producing CO2, turning lime water milky. Since acid is
not produced the dye colour does not change.
In experiment B, lactic acid fermentation takes place, which produces acid but does not produce CO2.
Hence dye colour changes to yellow but the lime water does not turn milky.
In experiment C, since the lime water turns milky, ethanol fermentation is occurring. In addition, since
removal of air did not affect the reaction, the fermentation is anaerobic and yeast must be the organism
in the flask.
(b) In RBC’s lactic acid fermentation occurs.
12. (a) The result of the radiocarbon dating was correct.
Reason : Vehicles running on the highway beside the house emitted carbon dioxide from the combustion
of petrol or diesel, which are fossil fuels. The carbon in this carbon dioxide, coming from living material
that has been converted into petroleum millions of years ago, would get assimilated into the tissues of the
plant as it uses carbon dioxide from the surrounding atmosphere for photosynthesis. Therefore tissues of
the plant, when used for radiocarbon dating, would show the age of the plant to be many thousands of
years old.
(b) A simple experiment to test the validity of this explanation would be to collect seeds from the plant and
grow them in a plot of land away from the highway or other sources of carbon dioxide coming from the
burning or fossil fuels. Radiocarbon dating of plants growing from these seeds show them as young
plants.
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS (YEAR2011)
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C A B B D A A A C B C B B C A A C D A
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B C C D C B B D A C D C D D A D A A B D
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D D B B C B D C B C D A C C A B A B B D
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. C C B B A B B B C A A C B A A B D C A C
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
( x b)( x c ) ( x c )( x a) ( x a)( x b)
1. P(x) = + +
(a b)(a c ) (b c )(b a) (c a)(c b)
Let f(x) = P(x) – 1
f(a) = 1 + 0 + 0 – 1 = 0
f(b) = 0 + 1 + 0 – 1 = 0
f(c) = 0 + 0 + 1 – 1 = 0
f(x) is a polynomial of degree atmost 2, and also attains same value (i.e., 0) for 3 distinct values of x
(i.e. a,b,c).
f(x) is an identity with only value equal to zero.
f(x) = 0 x R P(x) = 1, x R
2. Using cauchy schwartz's inequality
(a2 + b2) (x2 + y2) (ax + by)2
a b
equality holds at = y ay – bx = 0
x
Aliter :
a2 + b2 = 81 ......(i)
2 2
x + y = 121 ......(ii)
ax + by = 99 ......(iii)
2 2 2 2
(a + b ) (x + y ) = 81 × 121 ......(iv) [(i) × (ii)]
2 2
(ax + by) = 99 ......(v) [squaring (iii)]
(iv) – (v)
(ay – bx)2 = 0 ay – bx = 0
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1 1
3. Then, x a and x 2 b
x x3
2
1
x a2
x
1
x2 + +2 = a2 .........(i)
x2
3
1
x = a3
x
1 1
x3 + 3 x = a 3 .........(ii)
x3
x
add equation (1) and (2)
2 1 1 1
x 3 x 3 2 2 3 x = a2 + a3
x x x
3 1
b + x 2 + 2 + 3a = a2 + a3
x
1
x3 = a3 + a2 – 3a – b – 2
x2
4. a – b = 2, b – c = 3, c – d = 4
a–b=±2
b–c=±3
c–d=±4
possible values of (a – d) are ± 9, ± 5, ± 3
a – d = 9, 5, 3, 1
Sum of all possible values are 18
5. Given 0 < r < 4
in all the obtain
9
(Base)x =
5
the option having least base will give the largest x.
r
So, in option B base 1 is minimum for 0 < r < 4.
17
Aliter :
4
(1 + x =
5
x log (1 + ) = log (1.8)
log (1.8)
x = log (1 )
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For x to be maximum
log (1 + ) should be minimum
r r 1
= or 2r or or in 0 < r < 4
17 r
r
is minimum.
17
6. Angle bisector theorem
x y
=
6 z 6
x
xz = 6y 2
10cm
20 = 6y
10 y z
y= cm
3
ALITER :
Let ACB =
BC = 6 cos , AB = 6 sin
BD : CD = AB : AC
= 6 sin : 6
= sin : 1
6 cos
sin
BD =
1 sin .........(i)
6 cos
CD = 1 .........(ii)
1 sin
BD = CD sin
Now, area of ADC = 10 cm2
1
× 6(CD) sin = 10
2
CD sin = 10/3 cm
7.
Slant height = 13
by = r
2.5 = 13
10
13
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8.
12 20 x
=
x 8
x2 – 20x + 96 = 0
x = 8, 12
ALITER :
A(0,12)
C(20,8)
B(0,0) E(x,0) D(20,0)
AC = 20 2 4 2 = 4 52 1 = 4 26
(122 + x2) + (82 + (20 – x)2) = 202 + 42
2x2 – 40x + 400 + (122 – 202) + (82 – 42) = 0
2x2 – 40x + 144 + 12.4 = 0
x2 – 20x + 72 + 24 = 0
x2 – 20x + 96 = 0
x = 12, 8
9.
AP = 2 sin 60° = 3
d = 2 3
10. 5123 – (2533 + 2593)
= 5123 – [(512) (2532 + 2592 – 253.259)]
= 512 (5122 – ((512)2 – 3(253)(259))
= 512 (3.253 – 259)
= 29. 3. 253 . 7.37
= 29. 3. (11) . (23). 7.37
So, number of distinct prime divisors are 6.
11. Top layer has (13 × 13) balls
Simillary one layer below top layer will have (14 × 14) balls and we have 18 lesens to total number of ball
N = (13)2 + (14)2 + .............+ (30)2
30 31 61 12 13 25
N= –
6 6
N = 8805
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12. Let distance is 6d
Mud : Tar : Stream
Distance d : 3d : 2d
Speed 3V : 5V : 4V
d 3d 2d
time : :
3V 5V 4V
10 : 18 : 15 (Note : order is changed in questions)
13. 3 step
14. The clock well show 1 in an hour for 19 time for 11 hours it will show the incorrect time for (19 × 11) time.
The last12th hour will always show the incorrect time so total incorrect time
(19 × 11 + 60) min = 269 min
there are 24 hours in a day to = 269 × 2 = 538 min
269
538 min = = 9 hours
30
9
the fraction day when the clock shows correct time is = 1
24
3 5
= 1
8 8
15.
Right Wrong Unattempted
15 15 0
14 4
13 8
12 12
11 16
10 20
6 cases only
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PHYSICS
16. By mechanical energy conservation
KEi + Ui = KEf + Uf
O + Ui = 0 + U f
Ui = U f
hi = hf
So D will lie on line AB
17. Since toy is not accelerating so net external force on toy is zero. So (A)
18.
S1 + S2 = H
1 2 1
gt + ut – gt 2 = H
2 2
ut = H . ....(I)
u2
H= ....(II)
2g
u
t = 2g
1 2 u 1 u2 3u2
S2 = ut – gt = 4 g
2 2g 2 4g2 8g
3
= H
4
19.
By concept of centre of mass
36x = 9(20–x)
36x = 180 – 9x
45x = 180
x = 4m
20. All three will be in thermal equilibrium with air of room. so temperature of the three will be same
21. Pressure of gas is same everywhere in the vessel.
22. To travel from P to Q in minimum time, she should travel on path PCQ.
23. i = 45° C
C = 45° for minimum
sin 45 = 1
= 2 = 1.42
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24.
In this case only half part of lens is used to form the image so intensity will reduce
25. R=
A
R=
A
2
R=
V
(2)2
R’ = = 4R
V
26.
E1 = Electric field due to +Q
E2 = Electric field due to –2Q
There resultant is 0 at this point
mgh / t
27. = 100
750
300 10 6
= 60 100
750
300
= 100
750
= 40%
28.
6A from Q to P
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29. pb 314
82
2e–1 + He 24 + X82
210
So 82 proton and 128 Neutron
30. PV = NKT
105 × 100 = N × 1.38 × 10–23 × 273
N 3 × 1027
CHEMISTRY
31. Since pressures of the gases are same in both the containers. So, the final pressure will not change
32. Reativity towards FriedelCrafts alkylation is proportional to electron density in the benzene ring.
33. n=2
l = 0, 1
0
m = 0, 1
1
34. Average Kinetic Energy depends only on temperature
3kT
(KE)avg = per molecule
2
35. Ideal gas H = 0
S > 0
(randomness increases)
36.
(NH4)2 Cr2O7 Cr2O3 + N2 + 4H2O
37. According to the graph solubility 40° is approx. 200 g per 100 ml. For 50 ml, amount is 100 g
approx.
38. Aldehyde, ketones with acetyl group CH3 – – show Iodoform test.
1 1
39. n, number of halflives = 4 = 2 hrs. halflife = 30 min.
n 16
2
40. ZnS ZnSO 4 during roasting, sulphide ore is converted into sulphate.
41.
42. Cl2 + 2KBr 2KCl + Br2
reddish brown
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43. (i) and (iv) are hetro aromatic and the resonance form of azulene (iii) is aromatic.
(ii) Is nonaromatic.
44. Simple nomenclature of alkane.
45. The major product formed in the reaction :
Product is :
(A) i (B) ii
(C) iii (D) iv
Sol. (C)
The given reaction is SN2 which occurs at sp3 carbon with good leaving group.
PARTII (2 Marks)
MATHEMATICS
61. f(x) = ax2 + bx + c, f(1) = 0
given, f(1) = 0
a+b+c=0
and 40 < f(6) < 50
40 < 36a + 6b + c < 50
40 < 35a + 5b < 50
8 < 7a + b < 10
7a + b = integer = 9 .......(1)
and 60 < f(7) < 70
60 < 49a + 7b + c < 70
60 < 48a + 6b < 70
10 < 8a + b < 11.6
8a + b = 11 .......(2)
solving equation (1) and (2)
a = 2, b = –5, so c = 3
f(x) = 2x2 – 5x + 3
f(50) = 4753
t=4
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62. We can write the expression as
2011 r 2 1 2
1
r 2
2
r 1
=
r 1r 1
1 1
= 1
r 1 r 1
Putting r = 2, 3, ............, 2011
1 1 1
= 2010 + 1 +
2 2012 2011
1 1 1
2 2011 2012
= 2011 +
1
this lies between (2011, 2011 )
2
63. Let initially 2 bases have radii 5 & r. and finally bases have radii (1.21 × 5) & r.
V2
Ratios of volumes = 1.21
V1
h
V2 = ((6.05)2 + 6.05 r + r2)
3
h 2
V1 = (5 + 5r + r2)
3
V2 (6.05)2 6.05 r r 2
1.21 1.21
V1 5 2 5r r 2
36.6025 + 6.05 r + r2 = 30.25 + 6.05r + 1.21 r2
.21r2 = 6.3525
6.3525
r2 =
.21
11
r= cm. = 55 mm
2
64. Let speed of B = V km/hr.
Let speed of A = 3V km/hr.
Given 4r = 2 × 60 km/hr V = 30 km/hr
Distance covered by then after 10 min. = 2 × 10 = 20 km
So, remaining distance = (30 – 20) km = 10 km.
10
Time table by B to cover 10 km = = 20 min
30
65. A B C
10 hr 20 hr 30 hr
Exactly one pair of taps is open during each hour and every pair of taps is open at least for one hour.
So, first we say, A and B are open for 1 hour, then B & C and then C & A.
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1 1 1 1 1 1 22
+ + =
10 20 20 30 30 10 60
First then second then Third then
th
22
In three hours the tank will be filled part
60
1 1 9
Now, for minimum time, the rest tank must be filled with A and B taps.
10 20 60
th
38
So, the rest Part of tank will take 5 hour more
60
So, the tank will be filled in 8th hour.
PHYSICS
66.
kx1 + 1vg = vg
kx1
v = g g
1
kx2 + 2vg = vg
kx 2
v = g g
2
kx1 kx 2
( 1)g ( 2 )g
x1 – x1 = x2 – x2
x1 – x2) = x1 – x2
2x1 1x 2
= x1 x 2
8
F.dx 2 mv f 2 mvi
1 2 1 2
67.
4
1 1 1
×3×8– × 1.5 × 4 = × 0.5 (vf2 – 3.16)2
2 2 2
24 – 6 = 0.5 (vf2 – 3.162)
36 = vf2 – 3.162
vf 6.8 m/s
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68.
vi = vf
5 5 5
×1 × V + × 0.5 × 4v = P 5V
2 2 2
3V = 5PV
3
P= = 0.6
5
69.
sin(90 – ) = sinr
4 x/2
cos = 3
x2
h2
4
2 1 2 1
3
cos = h2 1 = 3 49 4
x 2 4 16 16
2 4 8
= 3 =
53 3 53
70.
Pi = i2R
2
10 100
P = 1
4 16
Pf = i2R
2
10 100 100
= 9 9 =P
12 12 12 16
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CHEMISTRY
71. 100 mL 0.1 M CH3COOH 50 mL 0.4 M CH3COONa
CH COO = 1
3
Ch3COOH
pH = pKa + log 1
= pKa = 4.76
72. 9structural isomers are possible.
CH3CH2CCH, CH3 –CC–CH3
CH2 =CH–CH=CH2 , CH2 =C=CH–CH3
73.
74. Co+3 : 3d6 45° strong field ligand (NH3)
Ni+2 : 3d8 45° SFL (NH3)
Cr+3 : 3d3 45° WFL (H2O)
Fe+2 : 3d6 45° WFL (H2O)
Co+3 will be diamagnetic (i)
[H] 2 (0.4)2
75. Reaction quotrient Q = = =8
[H2 ] [ 2 ] 0.1 0.2
Q<K
reaction proceeds in the forward direction.
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS (YEAR2012)
ANSWER KEY
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C B B A D B B B B B A C D A C B A C D B
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D A A D A C B B C A C A C D C D B B B C
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B B C B B A D B A A C C A B D B D C C A
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. D B C B C A D B B D B B B B * A D C C B
PARTA (1 Mark)
MATHEMATICS
1. f(x) = ax2 + bx + c
10 = 4a+2b+c ......... (1)
–2 = 4a – 2b + c ........ (2)
12 = 4b b = 3
(.75)3 (1)3 (.75)3 1
2. = =4
1 (0.75) .25
square root = 2
3.
10, 10+d , 10+2d , d I, d I
10+2d < 10+10+d
d < 10
d = 1, 2, 3, ..... 9
9 triangles are possible
4. a = 3k
b=k
c = 5k – 4k = k
d = 6k – 5k = k
a 3k 1
= =
b 2c 3d k 2k 3k 2
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2 2 [12 2 2 ....... n 2 ]
5.
[1 3 2 5 2 ..... ( 2n 1) 2 ]
2
2n(2n 1)( 4n 1)
12 + 22 + 32 + ...... + (2n)2 =
6
[12 + 32 ..... + (2n – 1)2 + 22 [12 + 2n ......+ n2]
2n( 2n 1)( 4n 1)
=
6
n(n 1)(2n 1) 2n(2n 1)( 4n 1)
S+4 =
6 6
2n(2n 1)( 4n 1) 4n(n 1)(2n 1)
S+ –
6 6
2n 1
= 2n [ 4n 1 2n 2]
6
2n( 2n 1)( 2n 1)
=
6
4n(n 1)(2n 1) 6 2n 2
Ratio = × =
6 2n(2n 1)(2n 1) 2n 1
2n 2 101
>
2n 1 100
200n + 200 > 202n – 101
2n < 301
301
n< maximum value = 150
2
A
6. ADB = 180 – B
2
C
BFC = 180 – B
2
A C
180 – – B + 180 – – B = 180
2 2
A C
180 + 2B
2
360 = A + C + 4B
360 = A + B + C + 3B
B = 60
B
IFD = IBD = = 30
2
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7.
+ + =1 + 2 = 1
2 2
1
= = 2 1
2 1
8.
R 1
=
2
= 2R
Now +R=r
3R = r
R = r/3.
AB
9. tan = , x = 90
AF
2
tan =
1
AX
sin =
AF
2 1
= AX ; XF =
5 5
1 1 2 1
( AX) ( XF)
Area of AXF 2 2 5 5 1
Area of ABF = 1 ( AB AF) = 1 =
5
2 1
2 2
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10. RQP = 176º
SPQ = 2º
SQP = 89º (SP = PQ)
SQR = 176 – 89 = 87º
11.
o
1 195 o
= 90 + 15× =
2 2
195 720 195 525
= 360 – = =
2 2 2
525 195 330
Difference = = = 165º
2 2
12. Let A take x
1 1
B take y has together is hours = x y in of work
Let time be t
1 1 t8
t x y + 8 =
x
t 8
y = x
1 1 t 4.5
t x y =
y
t 4.5
= y
x
x 8 x t
y = t ; y = 4.5
8 t
=
t 4.5
t2 = 36
t = 6 hours.
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13. Let weight of bucket be and weight of water is
2a + b = 20 ............. (1)
and 3a + 2b = 33 ............. (2)
=7
=6
total weight = + = 13
14. mn = 144
(m, n) = total 15 positive ordered pairs and negative ordered pairs are possible
15. 0 5, 10, 15, ... 40
1 2, 7, ........... 36
3 3, 8, ........... 38
4 4, 9, ........... 39
PHYSICS
16. Momentum conservation
mv = (m + m)v
v
v' =
2
2
1 v
K.E. = × 2m = mv2/4.
2 2
17. A ball falls vertically downward and bounces off a horizontal floor. The speed of the ball just before Down
: mg – F – ma1
F
a1 = g –
m
Up : mg + F = ma2
F
a2 = g +
m
a2 > a1 .
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19.
= 30º + 90º
= 120º .
22. i=r=0
So, =0
No dispersion.
23.
v2
24. In P=
3R
3v 2
In Q=
R
v2
In R=
R
4v 2
In S=
R
So, P<R<Q<S
25. In length 2R change 2RT
1 T
In d dT
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26.
fs = mg .
27. 6a2 = 4r2
a 4
=
r 6
4 3
BS = r g
3
BC = a3 g
BS 4 r 3 4 6 6 3
= = . = 2 1
BC 3 a3 3 4 4 2
BS > B C .
28. 238
92 U 214
84 Po + 6a + ne
238
92 U 214
84 Po + 62He4 + ne
So, n=4
30. Due to attraction in both case bend in the same direction.
CHEMISTRY
31. 2Ca O2 2CaO
( excess)
20 1 1
mole mole
40 2 2
1 1
mole of CaO will be formed i.e., 56 28g
2 2
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32. It is an example of bromoform reaction (similar to Iodoform reaction).
–
CHBr3 +
Na OH
40 +
33. 19
K
–
e s = 19 – 1 = 18
N = 40 – 19 = 21
electrons + Neutrons = 18 + 21 = 39
34. Na2O is most basic Oxide as it will form NaOH on dissolving in water which is strong base.
moles of solute
35. Molarity =
lit of solution
0.35
or = 0.269 M = 0.27 M
1.3
36. Density (), temperature (T) and pressure (p) are intensive variables because they donot depend upon
mass.
37. Potash alum is K2SO4 .Al2 (SO4)3.24H2O
Empirical formula is K Al(SO4)2.12H2O
38.
Sol.
The conjugate acid is resonance stabilized.
39. It is example of electrophilic addition reaction following the markownikov rule.
40. At room temperature, it is a simple acidbase reaction resulting in the formation of salt.
NH3+ CH2CH3.CH3COO–
CH3 – CH2 – NH2
41. If QC < KC then reaction will move in forward direction.
42. Acetyl salicylic acid is commonly known as aspirin.
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43. There is not any acidic proton in diethyl ether, hence it does not exhibit strong hydrogen bonding.
Or
For H–bonding in molecule highly electronegative element & H should be directly connected. In (C2H5)2O,
H is connected to carbon.
44. Both A and B differs in position of double bond, hence they are positional isomers.
45. (C)
PARTII
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
a 2 b b 2 –c 2ab – 2ac b 2 2 – bc 2ab – bc 2 (b 2 – ac )
61. = =
b 2 c b 2 –c 2b 2 – c 2 2b 2 c
b2 = ac , number are a, ar, ar2
2a 2 b 2 2a 2 ac a(2a c ) a 1
(A) = = = = 2 may or may not be integer..
2b c
2 2
2ac c 2 c(2a c ) c r
a 2 2b 2 a 2 2a 2r 2 a 2 (2r 2 1) 1
(B) = = =
b 2c
2 2
a r 2a r
2 2 2 4
a r (2r 1)
2 2 2
r2
a2 b2 c 2 a 2 a 2r 2 a 2r 4 1 r 2 r 4
(C) = =a 1 r r 2
abc a ar ar 2
a2 b2 c 2 a 2 (1 r 2 r 4 )
(D) = = a(r2 + r +1) = a + b + c = Integer
a c b a(r 2 r 1)
3 3
62. z = xy , x + 2y + 4 xy = 9
3( 4 3 xy )
x + 2y + xy =0
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xy(x + 2y – 9) = – 12
C–I xy = 1, x + 2y = – 3
2
x+ + 3 = 0 (–1, –1, 3)
x
1
x2 + 3x + 2 = 0 –1, –2 – 2, , 3
2
21 449
C – II xy = –1, x + 2y = 21 x=
2
2(–1)
x+ = 3, x2 – 3x – 2 = 0
x
3 9 4( 2) 3 17
x= =
2 2
C – III xy = 2, x + 2y = – 6 + 9 = 3
2
x + 2. =3 x2 – 3x + 4 = 0
x
D = 9 – 4.1.4 < 0
C – IV xy = – 2, x + 2y – 9 = 6
x + 2y = 15, x2 – 15x – 4 = 0
2
x+2 = 15, 152 + 4.1.4
x
C –V xy = 3, x + 2y – 9 = – 4, x + 2y = 5
3
x + 2. =5 x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
x
x = 2, 3
3 3
x = 2, y= , z=1 (2, , 1)
2 2
x = 3, y = 1, z=1 (3, 1, 1)
C – VI xy = –3, x + 2y – 9 = 4
x + 2y = 13
2(–3 )
x+ = 13
x
x2 – 13x – 6 = 0 D = 132 + 4 6 = 193
C – VII xy = 4
x + 2y – 9 = – 3
x + 2y = 6
4
x + 2. =6
x
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x2 – 6x + 8 = 0
x = 2,4
3 3
x = 2, y = 4, z = (2, 4, )
4 4
3 3
x = 4, y = 1, z = (4, 1, )
4 4
six solution (C)
63.
AB = AC
ABC ~ BDC
AB BC AC
= =
BD DC BC
2
x
x x –2
2 222 22
2
cosA = = 2
2x.x 2 . 2. 2
x2
2x 2 4 8
= 4
x2 4
x4
8x2 – 16 = 8x2 –
4
x4 = 64
x= 2 2
2 2 2 2 2
s= = 2 2 +1
2
area of ABC = (2 2 1)(2 2 1)(1) (1)
= 7
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64. Let distance b/w Pune and Mumbai be speed of 1st train =
4
2nd train = 3 1
2
2
=
7
distance covered by 1st train in 2 hours = 2=
4 2
at 9:30 relative distance to be covered =
2
Let they meet at time t
2
= t + t
2 4 7
78 14
= t t= hours or 56
2 28 15
Ans. 9: 30 + 56 min = 10 : 26
65. Applying pythogorus theorem.
Path = 22 22 + 3 2 12
= 8 + 10
PHYSICS
66. In parallel combination
E
= R
0
R
n
2
E R
2 R .
P1 = . = R n
n 0
R
n
In series combination
E
= R nR
0
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2
E
P2 = .nR
0
R nR
But P1 = P2
2
E R 2
. E
R n = R nR . nR
R0 0
n
n n
nR 0 R = R 0 nR
R0 + nR = nR0 + R
R0(1 – n) = R(1 – n)
R0
=1
R
67.
u2 sin 2 30 2 sin150 º 1
R= = = 90 × = 45 m
g 10 2
COM of firecracker at 45 m from projection point
m1r1 m 2r2
xCm = m1 m 2
m m
(27) r2
45 = 2 2
m
90 = 27 + r2
r2 = 90 – 27 = 64 m
If r2 = –27 m then
90 = –27 + r2
r2 = 117 m.
68. Using w.f.t
Kf – Ki = W g + W f
1 1
mu2 – mu2 = mgh + W f
2 2
W f = – mgh
Which is equal to energy loss in process.
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69. Magnetic field due to wire is inwards when loop moves towards E current is clockwise.
70. Heat given by water = 100 × 1 × 800 = 8000 cal
Heat taken by ice = 8000 cal = m × 80
m = 100 gm
So amount of ice which does not melt = 150 – 100 = 50 gm.
CHEMISTRY
71. Metal + H2SO4 Metal sulphate
No. of Eq. of metal = No. of eq. of metal sulphate
2 6.8
, E = 20 Ans.
E 96
E
2
V 0.1 V 0.2 2 0.5 V
72. [ x ]f = = 0.25 M Ans.
2V 2V
73.
1
74. m2 = h – W
2
High is the thershold frequency of metal greater will be the work function.
So,
M1 Rb ; M2 K ; M3 Na ; M4 Li
75. Mn2 Br2
KMnO 4 KBr
H
2 mole ( excess )
No. of eq. of KMnO4 = No. of eq. of Br2
2 × 5 = nBr × 2
2
nBr = 5 mole
2
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2013
STREAM  SA
ANSWER KEY
Que s Ans Que s Ans Que s Ans Que s Ans
1 C 21 B 41 B 61 B
2 C 22 D 42 B 62 D
3 C 23 B 43 A 63 D
4 B 24 A 44 B 64 C
5 C 25 C 45 C 65 B
6 A 26 C 46 A 66 A
7 C 27 A 47 A 67 A
8 C 28 B 48 B 68 A
9 C 29 A 49 A 69 A
10 D 30 D 50 B 70 D
11 B 31 B 51 A 71 A
12 C 32 C 52 B 72 C
13 A 33 A 53 B 73 A
14 B 34 C 54 C 74 A
15 B 35 C 55 D 75 B
16 A 36 D 56 A 76 C
17 B 37 D 57 B 77 A
18 A 38 B 58 C 78 C
19 D 39 B 59 C 79 B
20 D 40 D 60 D 80 B
Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 07442423406 [180]
PARTI
One Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
1. Taking three no's.
x + 1, y + 1, z + 1
AM GM.
x 1 y 1 z 1 x 1y 1z 11/ 3
3
3
13
xyz + xy + yz + zx + 11
1
3
3
13
– 11 xyz + xy + yz + zx
3
equality hold when x = y = z but x + y + z = 0 and x, y, z are integers.
So maximum value when any two of x, y, z are equal to 3 and third is equal to 4.
Ans. (C)
2. (b – a) (b + a) = 2013 = 3 × 11 × 61
ab minimum when b – a = 33
b + a = 61
a = 14
ab = 14 × 47 = 658
Ans. (C)
3. Case (I)
b + 5 = 3b – 2
7
b=
2
17 17 5
So sides are , ,
2 2 2
Case (II)
1
b+5=6–b=b=
2
11 1 11
Sides , , Not possible
2 2 2
Case (III) 3b – 2 = 6 – b
4b = 8
b=2
7, 4, 4
two cases are possible
Ans. (C)
4. ax2 + (a + b)x + b = 0
b
(x + 1) (ax + b) = 0 roots are –1,
a
Ans. (B)
5. a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = [a + b + c] [(a + b + c)2 – 3(ab + bc + ca)]
= [7] [(7)2 – 3(9)]
= 7(49 – 27) = 7 × 22 = 154
Ans. (C)
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6. A < B < C
In ABD greatest angles is D which is greater by C so ABD is not similar to ABC.
Ans. (A)
7.
4
In RCP cos =
5
3
In PCO cos =
r
Ans. (C)
8.
BCH = 45° = BCA1
C1CA1 = C1B1A1 = 90°
Ans. (C)
9.
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Let AB = x
BC = y
xy = 60
XED ~ XBA
and DFY ~ CBY
BEF = BXDY + XED + DFY + DEF
= 60 + DEF
1
60 + xy
2
60 + 30 = 90
Ans. (C)
10.
In APQ
AP = AQ = 2 , APQ = 30°
In SRP
SR = SP = 1, RSP = 30°
FAB = 120°
BAS = FAB – FAS = 120° – 90° = 30°
SAR = BAR – BAS = 60°
In ARS
1 1 SR 2
cos60° = AR AS 1
2.1.1
SR = 1
Now, RSP = ASP – ASR
= 90° – 60° = 30° [ ASR is equilateral]
3 1
Now, from SRP RP =
2 2
In APR
cosRAP =
2 2
12 PR 2
2 2
cos RAP = 15°
PAQ = RAQ – RAP = 45° – 15° = 30°
1
2 2 sin 30
ar APQ 2
Now, ar ( SRP) 1 =2
1 1 sin 30
2
Ans. (D)
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11.
2 2
= 15 2 15
40 n
3 15
1
8 n
n = 24
Ans. (B)
12. n 1 0. 2 n 1
squaring
1.96 < .4 n 1
again squaring (4.9)2 + 1 < n
Ans. (C)
13. If n = 1, 2, 4, 5, n! + 10 is not a perfect square
If n = 3, n! + 10 is a perfact square
If n > 5
n! + 10 =
than exponant of 2 is one so it is not a perfact square.
Ans. (A)
14.
Ans. (B)
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15. Let total number of people with salary below Rs. 10000 per annum is x and salary is A. Let total number of
people with salary above Rs. 10000 per annum is y and salary is B then.
xA – yB < 0
105 95
x A y B
average after
100 100
average before xA yB
5 xA yB
= 1+ 100 xA yB
Ans. (B)
PHYSICS
16. CM will go downwards
Ans. (A)
17. as Vy = Uy – gt
Ans. (B)
18. All are nearly at same height hence P1 = P2 = P3
Ans. (A)
19. From graph V first increases then decreases
Hence a is earliar positive then negative
a = P – qt
Ans. (D)
20. V = Const & S increases with time
Ans. (D)
C
21. () = B + +...
2
2 > 1 > 3
Ans. (B)
22.
Ans. 60°
Ans. (D)
23. u = – 10 m
R = 1.5 m
1 1 2 1 1 2 30
; ;=
u R 10 1.5 43
30 ~
m= 0.07
u 43 10
Ans. (B)
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24.
I
8
I'
Ans.(A)
25. No EMF Induce if ring rotate about its own axis ( = 0)
Hence, I, II & IV are correct
Ans. (C)
26.
20 60
0.1 25 i2 20
20 60
I2 = 0.2A
Hence, i through 80
0.1 + 0.2 = 0.3A
Ans. (C)
27. E Radiated by Sun
E = 4r2 × 1.4 kW = mC2
E = 4 × (1.5 × 1011)2 × 1.4 × 103 = m.(3 × 108)2
4 22 (1.5 )2 1.4 10 9 ~ 9
m= 10 kg / s
79
Ans. (A)
28. P = I2 R
P 2 I
6%
P I
Ans. (B)
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P1V1 P2 V2
29.
n1 n2
V
P1.
P1V 3
n1 n2
n1
n2 =
3
2
Now, of Gas will come out to make the presence P1
3
Hence 66.66%
Ans. (A)
30. q E q V B 0
Hence, into the paper
Ans. (D)
31. (a) CH3 C CH3

O
(b) CH3 C H

O
(c) CH3 C OH

O
(d) CH3 C O C CH3
 
O O
CH3 C H has formal group.

O
Ans. (B)
32.
Ans. (C)
33.
Ans. (A)
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36. CCl4 has zero dipole moment due to its tetrahedral shape, all C–Cl bond moment cancel each other.
Ans. (D)
37. Ct = C0e–kt
Ans. (D)
rO MH rO2 2 rO 2 1
38.
2
2
; rO 2 : rH2 1 : 4
rH MO2 rH 32 rH 2 4
2 2
Ans. (B)
39. 2CH3 COOH 2Na 2CH3 COONa H2
Ans. (B)
C6H6
40. Kc =
C2H2 3
0.5 0 .5
4=
C2H2 3 [C2H2]3 =
4
1
[C2H2]3 =
8
1
[C2H2] =
2
[C2H2] = 0.5
Ans. (D)
41. 3.42 gm sacrose in 100 gm solution
d = 1 gm ml–1
mass
d=
volume
100
volume of solution = 100ml
1
n
Molarity = 1000
v
3.42
Molarity = 1000 0.1
342 100
Ans. (B)
42. E0red = K < Mg < Zn < Au
Ans. (B)
43. ; an hydride group.
Ans. (A)
44. E0red = Sn < Cu < Hg < Au
Ans. (B)
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n2
45. r = 0.529 ×
z
1
r So correct order is rH > rHe+ > rLi2+
z
Ans. (C)
BIOLOGY
46. In Bowman’s capsule ultrafiltration of blood occur.
Ans. (A)
47. Parietal lobe is sensory lobe for touch, pain temperature.
Ans. (A)
48. Virus multiplies only in living cells
Ans. (B)
49. Meiosis I – Reduction Division (2n n), Separation of Homologous Chromosomes results in reduc
tion of chromosome ploidy to half
Meiosis II – Similar to mitosis sister chromatids separate
Ans. (A)
50. Melanin pigment synthesized from Tyrosine amino acid impart colour to skin.
Ans. (B)
51. Image is formed before retina in short sightedness
Ans. (A)
52. O is universal donor; AB is universal recipient O blood group RBC donot have antigen AB blood group
plasma donot have antibody
Ans. (B)
53. Mitochondria have circular DNA.
Ans. (B)
54. Guanine and Cytosine are nitrogenous bases of DNA.
Ans. (C)
55. Conjugation involves transfer of DNA from one microbe to another.(e.g. Bacteria)
Ans. (D)
56. Ans. (A)
57. pH stomach = 1.5 – 2.5
Intestine = 7.4 – 7.6
Ans. (B)
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58. NH3 is converted to urea in hepatocytes.
Ans. (C)
59. Thick cuticle prevent loss of water
Ans. (C)
60. (D)
PARTII
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
61. a = C – 2D b=C–D c=C d=C+D
e = C + 2D
a + b + c + d + e = 5c = 3
b + c + d = 3c = 2
33 = 52
3 2
least possibility
5 3
= 5 × 3, = 5 × 3 × 3
= 15 = 45
452
C= = 15 × 45 = 675
3
Ans. (B)
62. 2(a + b) + ab = 16 ... (1)
2(b + c) + bc = 24 ... (2)
2(c + a) + ca = 31 ... (3)
From equation (2), equation (3) (a – b) (2 + c) = 7 ... (4)
From equation (2) and equation (4) 4a = 2 + 5b ... (5)
Solve equation (1) and (5)
b = 2 a = 3, c = 5
Volume = 30
Ans. (D)
63.
2 a
CP = a PD =
3 3
1
Let PAD = tan = (In APD)
3
Now, DAP = QBA =
area of PQBC a 2 area of ADP area of AQB
Required ratio =
a2 a2
1 3 41
1
6 20 60
Ans. (D)
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2
1 2 1 100 p 100 p
64. x y x2
3 3 100 100
p2 + 100p – 1002 = 0
p = 12500 50
60 < p < 65
Ans. (C)
65. After one operation amount of x, y, z in J, respectively are
2 2
1 1 100
90 + 10 × , 100 ,
11 11 11
Similarly we can find after four operations amount of x,y, z in J1.
Ans. (B)
PHYSICS
66.
2 + S System lie above edge of 1.
M L
y M y 0
2 2
y L
y
2 2
L
y
3
Now 1 + 2 + S centre of mass wili lie above the table
3M L L L
x M x 0
2 3 3 2
3x L L L
x 0
2 2 3 2
5 x 4L 8L
x
2 3 15
Ans. (A)
67. (I) Let initial distance between P & Q is x
x
at t 1 a receive the ball.
2
Next ball
x 5
t2 = 5
2
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5
t =
2
(II) in second case
at t = 0 P throws the ball.
x
t1 = .
3
Next ball
x 5
t2 = 5
3
10
t =
3
Ans. (A)
68. Pt = mwSwT + mcscT
10 × 15 × 60 = 0.5 × 4200 × 3 + mcsc × 3
9000 = 6300 + mcsc3
mcsc = 900 J/k.
Now, for oil
10 × 20 × 60 = 2 × S0 × 2 + 900 × 2
12000 – 1800 = 4 S0
10200
S0 = = 2.51 × 103 J/kg–k
4
Ans. (A)
69.
S1 = r
4
S2 = – 2r
S3 = r
4
3
S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 4r
2
Ans. (A)
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70.
1
qV = mv2
2
1 mv 2
V=
2 q
V=
1 9 10 31 4 10 6
2
45 V
2 1.6 10 19
45 V from higher to lower potential.
Ans. (D)
CHEMISTRY
71. C = 0.1 M Ka = 10–5
Ka = 2C
10–5 = 2 × 0.1 2 = 10–4
= 10–2
Ans. (A)
72.
Ans. (C)
73. Zn + 2OH– + 2H2O [Zn (OH4)]2– + H2
2gm (1 mole) H2 is given by 65.4 gm of Zn
65.4
1 gm is given by gm of Zn
2
Ans. (A)
1 1
74. Percentage of C2F4 of Molar mass 100 = 100 = 0.01%
100 100
99 99
Percentage of C2F4 of Molar mass 102 = 100 = 98.01%
100 100
Percentage of C2F4 of Molar mass 101 = 100 – (0.01 + 98.01) = 1.98%
Ans. (A)
75.
Ans. (B)
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BIOLOGY
76. Sister chromatids are identical DNA molecules (In somatic cells)
Ans. (C)
77. Insulin lowers blood sugar level and in this case brain is getting inadequate sugar/ glucose
Ans. (A)
78. Infants have higher heart rate.
Ans. (C)
dN N dN
80. rN1 , As N approach k decrease that is asymptote.
dt k dt
Ans. (B)
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2014
STREAM  SA
ANSWER KEY
Que s Ans Que s Ans Que s Ans Que s Ans
1 C 21 A 41 B 61 B
2 C 22 B 42 D 62 A
3 A 23 B 43 C 63 D
4 D 24 A 44 C 64 A
5 D 25 B 45 A 65 D
6 D 26 C 46 B 66 B
7 B 27 B 47 A 67 D
8 B 28 B 48 B 68 C
9 C 29 B 49 D 69 D
10 B 30 A 50 B 70 D
11 D 31 A 51 D 71 B
12 B 32 B 52 C 72 A
13 C 33 D 53 A 73 D
14 C 34 A 54 B 74 A
15 B 35 B 55 A 75 A
16 A 36 C 56 D 76 C
17 D 37 D 57 B 77 C
18 B 38 B 58 B 78 B
19 A 39 A 59 C 79 A
20 B 40 C 60 D 80 A
Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) DLP Help line. 7340042900 [195]
PARTI
One Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
1.
Sol. r be a root r2 + 2r + 6 = 0 ...................(1)
now (r+2) (r+3) (r+4) (r+5)
= (r2 + 5r +6) (r2 + 9r + 20)
= (3r) (7r + 14) using (i)
= 21 (r2 + 2r)
= 126 using (i)
Ans. (C)
2.
1
Sol. Given f(x) + (x+ ) f (1x) = 1 ................(1)
2
but x = 0
1
f (0) + f (1) = 1
2
2f (0) + f (1) = 2 ...............................(2)
put x = 1 in (1)
3
f (1) + f (0) = 1
2
2f (1) +3 f (0) = 2 .............................(3)
Solving (2) & (3) we have
F(0) = 2 & f (1) = 2
2f(0) + f (1) = 46 = 2
Ans. (C)
2
13 23 ..... (2n )3 2n(2n 1) 6
3. .
1 2 ........ n n(n 1)(2n 1)
2 2 2
2
6n(2n 1)
=
n 1
12n 2 6n 12(n 2 1) 6(n 1) 6
= =
n 1 n 1
6
=I+
n 1
6
If the given terms is an intiger, then must be an integer
n 1
n = 1,2,5
Sum = 8
Ans. (A)
4. X ab or x = 10 a + b
y ba or y = 10 b + a
Now x2  y2 = (10a +b)2  (10 b + a)2
= 99 (a2  b2)
= 32 x 11(a + b) (a – b)  (1)
According of Q
(a + b)(a – b) = 11 and a – b = 1
a + b = 11 and a – b = 1
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a = 6, b = 5
Hence
x = 65
y = 56
and m = 33 x + y + m = 154
Ans. (D)
5.
Sol. HCF = x –1
p(x) = x2 – 5x + a
= x2 – 5x + 4
= (x – 1) (x – 4) ..........(1)
and q(x) x2 – 3x + b = x2 – 3x + 2
= (x – 1) (x – 2) ..........(2)
k(x) = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 4)
Hence
(x – 1) + R(x) = (x – 1) + (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 2) (x – 4)
= (x – 1) (x – 3)2
Hence sum of roots = 7
Ans. (D)
6. Construction: complete the equilateral APB
ABC ~ BPD
x a b
= x=a+b
x x
AB = AD + BC
Ans. (C)
7.
C
B A
1
Sol. 1 60° 1
O
area of sector OACB r 1
2
2 2 3 6
area of shaded region – area of OAB
6
3
=
6 4
Hence area of line = Area of semicircle – area of shaded region
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1 1 3
2
2 2 6 4
3
4 8 6
3
.
4 24 B
Ans. (B)
8.
AI b c
Sol. ........ (1)
IF a
BI a c 3
........(2)
ID b 2
CI a c 2
IE c 1
a b 2c .......(3)
(2) 2a + 2c = 3b using to
2a + a + b = 3b using (3)
3a = 2b
3
b a .........(4)
2
Now again (3) 2c a b
3
a a
2
5
c a
4
1 5
a a
AI b c 2 4 11
Hence
IF a a 4
Ans. (B)
9.
Sol.
RP = RA = 10 RS 10 ...... (1)
Also SQ = SD = 10 RS 10 .......(2)
(1) and (2) , Hence RS = 10
Ans. (C)
10.
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Sol.
1. AOB is equilatrual (AOB OAB OBA 60)
2. OBC is right angled isosceles (OBC 90)
3. ABC is isosceles (BAC BCA 15)
4. OAC 60 CAB 45
5. AOF is right angled isosceles (AOF 90, OFA 45)
6. BOF 90 AOB 30
7. OBC is right angled isosceles (BOC 45)
BOF 30 2
BOC 45 3
Ans. (B)
11.
Sol. Let total seats = 100
on first day,
Ticket price = 200
sneots ful = 60%
60
= 100 60
100
Revenue = 60 × 200
R1 = 12000
On second day
Tricked price = 200 – 20% of 200
20
200 200
100
= 200 – 40 = 160
Scents full 60 + 50% of 60
50
60 60
100
= 60 + 30 = 90
Revenue = 160 × 90
R2 = 14400
R2 R1
% Increase is Revenue = 100
R1
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14400 12000
100
12000
2400
100
1200
= 20%
Ans. (D)
12.
Sol. year Population
2010 ––– 39
2011 ––– 60
2012 ––– x
2013 ––– 123
According to Q
x  39 = k (60) & 63 = kr
63
x 39 .63
x
x 2 39 x (60)(63) 0
x = 84 &  40
Ans(B)
13. N = ab ab ab
1 a 9 0b9 a, b I
N = 105a + 104b + 103 a + 102b + 10a + b
(10 4 10 2 1)(10a b )
(102 10 1)(10 2 10 1) (10a b )
3 37 13 7(10a b ) ......... (1)
then 10a + b = P 1 × P2 p1,p2 prime and 10 10a b 99
a b 10a + b
1 0 10 = 2 × 5
2 2 22 = 2 × 11
3 4 34 = 2 × 17
3 8 38 = 2 × 19
4 6 46 = 2 × 33
5 5 55 = 5 × 11
5 8 58 = 2 × 29
6 2 62 = 2 × 31
7 4 74 = 2 × 37
8 2 82 = 2 × 41
8 5 85 = 5 × 17
9 4 94 = 2 × 47
9 5 95 = 5 × 19
Ans(C)
14. Sol. Let house no are , , 2, 4, 6, 8, 10,.....
10 a a 10 ............ (1)
House no. will be (+)
a 10 0
10
12 as a is each too ...........(2)
n
Now Sn 2 (n 1)d
2
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n
170 2 (n 1)(2)
2
n( (n 1))
n(a 10 n 1)
n(a 11 n )
n 2 n(a 11) 170 0
(11 a ) (a 11)2 680
n ..........(3)
2
n 6
(11 a ) (a 11)2 680
6
2
800
a .........(4)
24
From (2) and (4) 12 a 32
Now checking through (3) for a = 12, 14,.....;
we have a = 18, n = 10 and Sn = 170
Hence options
Ans(C)
15.
5 2520 a 2 840 a 3 210 a 4 42 a 5 7 a 6 a7
Sol.
7 7
2520a2 840a3 210a4 42a5 7a6 a7 3600
Let a2 a3 a4 1 a5 = 0 a6 = 4 a7 = 2
Ans(B)
PHYSICS
16.
Sol. slope is increasing at point R
Ans. (A)
17.
Sol. No Bnoycncy force in vaccum
Ans. (D)
18.
T
F
Sol.
mg
F
tan (F same)
mg
1
tan
m
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m1 m2
Ans. (B)
19.
Sol. Case1
v 2gh
Case2
U kE w f
B
H
45°
1 2gh
mgh m mgh
2 9
8
9
Ans. (A)
20. Ans. (B)
21. Ans. (A)
22.
Sol. For min deviatom
i=e
60°=A
A
r1 r2
2
r1 r2 30
S
40°
t
40 60
For minimum devation i should lie between 40 to 50°
Ans. (B)
23.
2 1.6 2
Sol.
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1 1.6 1 1
1 0.2 0.2
F 2
0.4 1
2 0.1
F = – 0.5 divorcing lens
Ans. (B)
24. Sol. In option B it will not move, in option C & D path will be straight line.
Ans. (A)
25.
kQ 2
Sol. i E
d Q / 2
Q
Q
kQ2 k ( Q )2 k Q 2
f
d d d
kQ 2
E
d
Ans. (B)
26. Sol.Useing lenz's law upper face first become North pole then south pole
S
N
anticolume
Ans. (C)
27. Ans. (B)
28. In SHM particle comes 2 times at every position in 1 oscillation, so actual histogram may be option (A)
but since at it random snap shots so it should be option (D)
Ans. (D)
29. Ans. (B)
30. Ans. (A)
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CHEMISTRY
31.
Sol. CO & N2 are isoelectronic
Molecule No.of Electron
CO 6+8 14
N2 7+7 14
Ans. (A)
32.
Sol. HYDRAZINE N2H4
H H
N N
H H
LP = 2
BP = 5
Ans. (B)
33.
Sol. C (s ) O2 ( g ) CO2 ( g )
moles = 1mole 1mole 1mole
weight = 12gm 32gm 44gm
12gm of C require 1 mole of O2
1
2.4gm of C will recquire 2.4 mole of O2
12
22.4 2.4
volume of 2.4/12 mole O2 at STP = litre
12
4.48 litre
Ans. (D)
34.
Sol. Nonpolar substance will have high Rf value as solvent is nonpolar therefore option (A) will have high Rf value
as it have low dipole moment.
Ans. (A)
35. Ans. (A)
36.
RH n 2
Sol. rn
Z
53 n 2
rHe
Z
53 12
27 approx.
2
Ans. (C)
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37. Ans. (D)
38.
Sol. NH 4Cl acidic Salt (PH 7)
NaCl Neutral Salt (PH = 7)
CH3COONa Basic salt (PH > 7)
Ans. (B)
39.
1
Sol. average speed
M
VHe 32 MO2
VO2 4 MHe
8 2 2
Ans. (A)
40.
Sol. NH 4Cl NaNO2 NaCl N2 2H 2O
Ans. (C)
41.
Sol. CH3 O CH2 CH 2 CH3
CH3 CH2 O CH 2 CH3
CH3
CH3 O CH CH3
Ans. (B)
42.
OH
Alkaline
Sol. KMnO4
(Syn)
OH
Oxidation
Ans. (D)
43.
Sol. I,II & IV compound form H –bond III do not form H–Bond
Ans. (C)
44.
Sol. G RT ln K eq
Ans. (C)
45.
Sol. As we move from left to right in period ionisaton energy increases.
Ans. (A)
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BIOLOGY
46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (B) 51. (D) 52. (C)
53 (A) 54. (B) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C)
60. (D)
PARTII
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
61. a + b + c = 0, a,b,c R 0
a2 +b2 +c2 + 2(ab + bc +ca) = 0
q = a2 +b2 +c2, r = a4 + b4 +c4
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
r = q  2(a b +b c +c a )
r = q2 2[(ab + bc + ca)2  2abc(a + b + c)]
r = q2  2 (q2 / 4)
r = q2 / 2
ANS  B
1947
1 974 487
62. Total1945
terms = 1948
n 0 2 2
4 1947
2 1947
2
1 1 1
1947
T1 = 1 21947 1947
21947 2 2 2 2
Similarly &
1947
1 974 487
n 0 2
4 1947
1947
2 2 21945
ANS  A
63. x+y=a ...............(1)
2 2
x y
4 ...............(2)
x 1 y 1
x=a y
put in equation (2)
a y
2
y2
4
a y 1 y 1
(a y)2 (y1) + y2(ay1) = 4 (ay1) (y1)
y2 (2a) +y(a22a) + 4a  4 a2 = 0
D0
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(a2  2a)2  4(2  a)(4a  4 a2) 0
(a2  2a)2  4(a  2)(a2  4a + 4) 0
a2(a  2)2  4(a  2)(a  2)2 0
(a  2)2 [a2  4a + 8] 0
{D < 0 +ive}
(a  2) 2
0
a R a [1,2014]
ANS D
(
A 0, 5 )
P
64.
B
C (0,0) ( 7,0)
Equation of line AB is
x y
1
7 5
Let P [ , 5(1 )]
7
on solving 16(PA)2 = 9(PB)2
7 2 5
P[ , ]
3 3
Let BP : PC = : 1
then 2
BP:PC = 2 : 1
ANS  (A)
65. abc + ab + bc + ca + a + b + c = 29
ab (c + 1) +b (c + 1) + a(c + 1) + c + 1 = 30
(a + 1) (b +1) (c+1) = 30
9 a 1 0 b, c 9 a,b,c I
Then no of sol. = 18
ANS  (D)
PHYSICS
66.
Sol. Finaly com at p
A1X1 + A 2 X2
A
+
A
Xam =
1
2
A
(a  b)
a (a  b) b(a b )(a b b / 2)
a
(
a

b
)
+
(
a

b
)
b
(ab) = 2
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2
a a
1 0
b b
a 1 5
b 2
Ans. (B)
67. Weight = F0
4r2t W g + 4/3r3 Ne
g = 4/3 r3 air g
t = 3.5 um
Ans. (D)
68. Heat lost = heat gas
0.05 x 900 x (300  160) = 1 x 4200 x (T  30)
T = 31.5 °
Ans. (C)
69.
45r i = 45
45 + r
45 + r > C
also 45  r > C
90 > C
> 2
Ans (D)
G R E R C R A R
P
21 mA 8 mA 3 mA 1 mA
R R R R R
70. 13 mA 5 mA 2 mA
34 mA X
Q
H F P B
Using KCL
At point A
Current is 3mA
At point C
Current is 8 mA
At point E
Current is 21 mA
At point G
Current through GH is
34 ma
VPQ = VGH = i RGH
= 34 V
Ans. (D)
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CHEMISTRY
71.
Sol. 2H 2 (g ) O2 ( g ) 2H 2O(l )
0.2 mole 0.1 mole 0.2 mole
moles of gas remainting = 9.7
at consiant (T) & (V)
n1 p1
n2 p2
10 1
& p2 0.97
9.7 p2
Ans. (B)
72.
2NH3+H2SO4 (NH4)2SO4
Sol.
10ml
2M
mmol of NH3
millimole of H2SO4 20
2
mmol NH3 mmol of N 40
40 14 560
WN 0.56g
1000 1000
0.56
% of N 100 28
2
Ans. (A)
73.
Sol. 1.125L of H2 produced by 0.1 eqvivalent of metal
0.1 1.85
1.85L a of H2 will be produced by eqvivalents
1.125
No of gram eqvivalent of metal
2 2
Eqvivalent weight x
0.1 2
1.85
1.125 x
x 12.16
Ans. (D)
74.
Sol. CaO C CaC2 CO2
CaC2 H2O HC CH Ca(OH )2
Re d Hot
3HC CH
Fe
Ans. (A)
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2015
STREAM  SA
ANSWER KEY
Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans C C B C B D C D B B C C B A A
Ques 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C C B C A C D A B D A D A C D
Ques 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans A C D C D B D A C B A A B C D
Ques 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B A C B B B A D D C A D C A C
Ques 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans D D B D C B A A A A C A C A A
Ques 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C B A C B
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PARTI
One Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
1. f ( x) x 2 ax 2
g ( x) x 2 2 x a
Here a common Roat then
2
1 a a 2 2 1
=
1 2 2 a a 1
= a = 2, – 3
f ( x) g ( x) 2 x 2 (a 2) x a 2
(a 2) 1
Sum of roots = if a = – 3 then sum =
2 2
2. n + 2n + 3n + ……….. + 99n
n (1 + 2 + 3 + …… + 99)
(99)(100)
n = 9 × 25 × 22 × n is a perfect square when n = 22
2
Number of digits in n = 3
3. For option (3) if x = z = 1 and y = 2 then option (3) is right.
So by option (3) we can’t say x = y = z. Remaining options implies x = y = z
4. Let Sides of Rectangle are x & y
Then
5 x 6 y 76
4y = 3x
After solving we get y = 6 , x = 8
Perimeter = 2 (x + y) = 28
5. 24 k (23 3) k
Exponent of 2 in 13!
13 13 13
2 2 2 23 10
Exponent of 3 in 13!
13 13
3 3 2 5
So (23 3) 3 So K = 3
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A
X Y
6.
B C
BCX BCY (Obvious)
Same base and same height
Now Let A(O) , AB b, AC c
So AX b ,
AY c
1
ACX  b c 
2
1
ABY  b c 
2
1
AXY 2  b c 
2
1
ABC  b c 
2
A Q
R
P
7.
B C
So from Diagram
180º
A 90º
D(0, 1)
C(1, 1)
r
r
P(r, 1/2)
8.
A B(1, 0)
(0, 0)
PC = r
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PC 2 = r2
2
1
(r – 1) + 1 r
2
2
2
1
1 – 2r + 0
4
5
r
8
D(0, 1) S(d, 1)
C(0, 1)
P(0, a) Q(1, c)
9.
A(0, 0) R(b, 0) B(1, 0)
PQ RS
ca bd ——————— (1)
3 3
PQ
4
27
PQ 2
16
27
1 (a c) 2 …………….. (2)
16
RS (b d) 2 1 ……………… (3)
By equation (1), (2) and (3)
3 3
RS
4
2y
10. y
x x
1 7
A1 x 2 y ( y 2 y ) x xy
2 2
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y2/2
A K B
45º y A = y2/2
O 45º C
m 2y D
2
2
y /2 y y 45º y /2
45º
G E
y H F
y
HF = 2x  2y y2
y2
A2 4 (2 x 2 y ).2 y y 2
2
A1 A2
x = 2y
Railway Station
11.
Train
9v + 88 = 21v
12v = 88
88
V=
12
88
Required = 9V = 9 66
12
1
12. (n 1)1/ 3 (n)1/ 3
12
1
(n 1)1/ 3 (n)1/ 3
12
Cube Both side are get
1 1727
(n1/ 3 ) n1/ 3
12 432
So n = 8 only possible least positive integer
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13. If n = 3m then n19 is multiple of 3
If n = 3m + 1 or 3m + 2 then n38 – 1 is multiple of 3 by binomial expansion
14. 121!131!141!
121!(1 13 14 13)
121
! 196
Which is only divided by possible distinct primes
2,3,5,7,11
15. first arrange EUAIO 1
 E  U  A  I  O  6
For consonant C4 15
6
C4 (1)
PHYSICS
16. F = Ma
f
M
a
M 100 f a
100 100
M f a
0.2 0.01
10 1
M 0.03 10
M 10 0.3 kg
N
a/2
Center
of mass
h/2
17.
mg
h
tan 2
a/2
h a tan
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18. v=0+1×t
dx
t
dt
dx t dt
x t 2 ………………. Parabolic (1)
dx
=4
dt
dx 4dt
x t ……………….. Linear (2)
Pole Star
Earth
19.
1
21. 0 2 2 2 2a
4
a = 8m/s2
aT = 10 + 8 = 18m/s2
f = ma
= 75 × 18
= 1350 N
22. R
10 c m 30 cm 30 cm 20 cm
10 + 30 + 30 + 20 = 90 cm
O I
F = 10 cm F = 10 cm F = 10 cm
23. 20 cm 30 cm 30 cm 10 cm
20 + 30 + 30 + 10 = 90 cm
O I
No Shift in image
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24. 40º
40º 40º
1.33 sin 90º . sin 40º
1.33 1
=
sin 400
1.33
=
3/5
1.33 5
=
3
= 2.07
= 2.07 (For TIR)
dv v 2 du
25. 2
dt u dt
1 1 1
&
v F u
1 1 1
V 10 15
1 3 2
v 30
v = 30 cm
2
dv 30
2
dt 15
= 8 cm/s away from lens
v2
26. Pbulb = i2R
R
v2
1
16
VB = 4 V
1 i 2 16
1
IB = Amp.
4
1
6 req (equivalent of groups of r)
4
Where
req .r
req r
req r
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mv 2
27. mg ' (where g’ is nearly equal to g)
r
28. Total energy must be less than zero and as potential energy is negative so answer is A
P0
29. P V P0 ………………. (1)
V0
&
PV nRT …………………(2)
P0V V
T 1
R V0
CHEMISTRY
31. Ammonium sulphate (NH4)2 SO 4 =
28 100 28 100
% of nitrogen = 21.21%
36 96 132
32. Mendeleev’s periodic law states that properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic
masses.
33. Total number of electrons = 2(2l+1) = 18
OCH3 NO2
34.
COOH COOH COOH
(A) (B) (C)
(B) OCH3 exerts +M effect destabilizes the conjugate base of the acid.
(C) NO 2 exerts – M effect and stabilizes the conjugate base of the acid
KMnO4 / H +
35. CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 2CH3COOH
36. NaHCO3( s ) CH 3COOH ( l ) CO2( g ) H 2O( l ) CH 3COO ( aq ) Na ( aq )
37. Metals form ionic bond as they have low ionization energies.
1s 2 2s 2 2p6 3s 1 : Sodium metal
38. 2ZnS ( s ) 3O2 ( g ) heat
2ZnO( s ) 2SO2( g )
39. Avogadro’s number = A0
Normality = n t Molarity
1=2×M
1
M= mol L1
2
1
Moles of H2SO4 = × 0.2 = 0.1 moles
2
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Normality = 1; Volume = 200 ml (0.2 litre)
Moles of hydrogen = 0.2 moles
Moles of sulphur = 0.1 moles
Atoms = 0.1 A0
O
O C O
C C O
O
40. C C O
O C O
O
CH 3 C OH HOC 2 H 5
H
CH 3 O OC 2 H 5
41.  
O O
Ethyl acetate
42. Metals having more standard reduction potential than H + /H2(g) can’t produce H 2(g) in acidic me
dium.
43. C 4 H10 O CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 O CH 3
CH 3 CH O CH 3

CH 3
CH 3 CH 2 O CH 2 CH 3
44. Cr2 O 72 14H 6e 2Cr 3 7H 2 O
45. From graph.:
500
V
250
0ºC 300ºC
T
T 1 = 0ºC V1 = 250
T 2 = 300º V2 = 500
V2
2
V1
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BIOLOGY
46. Due to hypertonic solution outside the bacterial cell, bacteria will die by plasmolysis
47. Restriction endonucleases cut ds DNA from specific base sequence (Palindromic sequence)
48. Trypsin is proteolytic enzyme.
49. Person with blood group AB having both A and B antigens in membrane of his RBC but lacks antibod
ies (a, b) in his plasma.
50. In glycolysis one mol. Glucose (C 6H12O6) froms two mol. Of pyruvic acid (CH 3COCOOH)
51. ETS or electron transport system is also known as oxidative phosphorylation.
52. Skin, mucus membranes and phagocytes are part of innate immunity.
53. Vit. K is useful in synthesis of prothrombin and fibrinogen is liver which are necessary for blood
clotting.
54. Pseudomonas is denitrifying bacterium
55. Annelids show metameric segmentation.
56. Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi which is diagnosed by widal test.
57. It is due to biomagnifications.
58. 1 Base = 500 Da, ds DNA having 10 BP or 20 bases, thus 20 500 10kDa
59. Cellulose is polymer of , Dglucose and glycogen of , Dglucose. Glucose, fructose and ribose are
monosaccharides.
60. Onion is bulb forms by fleshy scaly leaves sweet potato and carrot (root), Ginger – rhizome (stem)
PARTII
Two Marks Questions
MATHEMATICS
4 8
3
5
9
6
61.
12
Angle of Rectangle = 12 9
1
Area of pentagon = 12 9 3 4
2
12 9 6
12 9 6 17
Required =
12 9 18
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62. {x} = x – [x]
[x]{x} = 5 f 0
If=5
0<f<1
Possible solutions
5 5 5
6 , 7 ,........, 2014 2009
6 7 2014
B a a m(a, b) (a+c,b)
C(a+2c, b)
(–a, b)
b
63.
A a D(a+c, 0)
c
1
(a c) 2(a c)b
2 3
Required = 1
(a c ) b
2
y
z
x
64. h h h
1 2 3
V= h 4h 9h ….. stage (1)
5h 4h 5h ….. stage (2)
4.5h 4.5h 5h …... stage (3)
9h
4.h y 9h z 5h
2
9h 5
hy hz h
8 9
h y 9 h 5h
/
hz 8 9
81
40
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n m
65.
P Q
Let number of peoples in two villages are n and m respectively
So nP – P’(n – 1) = (m + 1)Q’ – mQ
n(P – P’) + P’ = m(Q’ – Q) + Q’
PHYSICS
66. For maximum possible area
I should be 90º
4
1 × sin90º = sinr ’
3
3
sin r '
4
3
tan r '
7
2
3
Total base area 6 0.3 160m 2
7
67. mi si (T ) mi L mi .sw (T 0) mw sw (90 T )
1 2.09(20) 1 334.4 1 4.18 T 2 4.18 (90 T )
T = 60 – 30 = 30º C
68. m1r1 m2 r2 0
mr1 mr2
r1 r2
l l
cos l cos
2 2
3l l
cos
2 2
1
cos
3
1 1 1
69.
v 20 5
20
v cm
3
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v2
xi xo
u2
A
xi out of phase with lens
9
Hence (A) is correct
a
V p b c
70. r
t l
L3T 1 ( ML2T 2 ) a Lc ( ML1T 1 ) b
a+b=0
2a b c 3
2 a b 1
c = 4, a = 1, b = – 1
Ans (A) is correct
CHEMISTRY
71. Xe F2 XeF2 XeF6
262 152
a mole b mole
131 38
= 2 mole 4 mole
Let a mole XeF2 form and b mole XeF6 form
Apply POAC
a 1 b 1 2 ….. (1)
2a 6 b 8 ….. (2)
After solving eq. (1) & (2)
a = 1 mole & b = 1 mole
CH 3 CH 2 OH Conc
CH 2 CH 2
.H 2 SO4 Br2
CH 2 CH 2
170 º CCl 4
Ethene  
Br Br
72.
1,2 Dibromoethene
73. C4H8 6O 2 4CO 2 4H 2 O
22.4 lit 89.6 lit. 72 g
At S.T.P. at S.T.P.
72
1 mole 4 mole 4mole
18
For complete combustion of 1 mole C4H8
6 mole O2 required
n O 2 6 mole
VO 2 6 22.4
VO 2 134.4 lit.
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E
74. W I t
96500
108
W 0.5 3600 2gm
96500
75.
OH
+
H /H 2O
Mechanism electrophilic addition reaction of alkenes.
+ : H
H+ H2O: +
O OH
H
BIOLOGY
76. Alu, I is a restriction endonuclease which is a four base pair cutter its frequency is 1/256 BP, while
frequency of 6 cutter Bam HI, ECORI is 1/4096.
77. Rice cooked faster at sea level than high altitude.
78. In absence of disease, natural calamity and predation growth of rabbit is exponential.
79. Glucose maintaining high osmotic pressure inside cell.
80.
1 2 3
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KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA  2016
STREAM  SA
ANSWER KEY
Q. No Key Q. No Key Q. No. Key Q. No Key
1 C 21 A 41 C 61 C
2 C 22 D 42 A 62 B
3 B 23 C 43 D 63 C
4 D 24 D 44 A 64 A
5 A 25 A 45 C 65 *
6 B 26 D 46 C 66 A
7 B 27 B 47 B 67 C
8 C 28 B 48 D 68 C
9 C 29 A 49 A 69 C
10 B 30 D 50 A 70 A
11 D 31 B 51 B 71 A
12 C 32 A 52 B 72 B
13 A 33 A 53 C 73 A
14 C 34 B 54 A 74 C
15 D 35 A 55 A 75 C
16 D 36 A 56 A 76 A
17 C 37 A 57 B 77 D
18 C 38 D 58 D 78 A
19 C 39 D 59 B 79 D
20 B 40 D 60 A 80 B
*2 mark credit for all candidates
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