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NSEJS (IJSO STAGE-1 2018) Paper & Solution [18-11-2018]

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Believe in Excellence

(India) Private Limited

NSEJS 2018-19 [IJSO STAGE-1] PAPER & SOLUTIONS

Time : 2 Hours MM : 240

**DATE : 18-Nov-2018 / Sunday [Paper Code : JS512]
**

Instructions : -

Paper carries 80 questions each of 3 marks.

For Each correct answer gets 3 marks, each wrong answer gets a penalty of 1 mark.

**1. A scientist observed few cells under a microscope with following characters :
**

i. Cells divided by binary fission or fragmentation, or budding.

ii. Cells moved with the help of flagella.

iii. Ether lipids were o served in cell membranes

iv. Peptidolglycans werenoted in the cels walls.

(a) Archaea (b) Plant cells

(c) Unicellular eukaryotes (d) Cyanobacteria

**2. True coelom is not present in animals of :
**

(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelida

(c) Echinodermata (d) Arthropoda

**3. The intracellular organelle that is responsible for formation of acrosomal vesicle is :
**

(a) endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi apparatus

(c) mitochondrion (d) none of the above

**4. Character(s) of acquired immunity is (are) :
**

(a) differentiation between self and non-self

(b) specificity of antigen

(c) retains memory

(d) all of the above

**5. Instead of using chemical fertilizers in a paddy field, a farmer thought of employing nitrogen fixation
**

technique. Amongst the following which would be beneficial for his cuase ?

(a) Glyucine max-Rhizobium (b) Cycas – Nostoc

(c) Casuarina –Frankia (d) Azolla-Anbaena

6. An action potential ion the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on outside and

inside of the axon membrane are re versed because/

(a) all potassium ions leave the axon

(b) more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sedum ions leaving it

(c) more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it

(d) all soiudm ions enter the axon

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7. A geneticist was studying the pathway of n synthesis of an amino acid 'X' in an organism. The presence

(either synthesized de novo or external added) of 'X; is a must for the survival of that organism. She

isolated several mutants that required 'X' to grow. She tested whether each mutant would grow when

different additives, P, Q, R, S and T were used. '+' indicates growth and '–' indicates the inability to grow

in the mutants tested. Find out the correct sequence of additives in the biosynthetic pathway of 'X'

Organisms Additives

P Q R S T

Wild-type + + + + +

Mutant 1 – – – – –

Mutant 2 – + + + +

Mutant 3 – – + – +

Mutant 4 – + + – +

(a) P Q R S T (b) P R S Q T

(c) T P Q S R (d) P S Q R T

**8. What would be the length of a polypeptide translated from mRANA which is encoded by 2988 bp of a
**

bacterial gene ?

(a) 989 (b) 992 (c) 995 (d) 98

**9. If was observed in a group of tadpoles of a mutant frog reared in a laboratory that their development
**

was arrested at a particular stage. The exact tissue that was affected by the mutation is unknown. The

development was then resumed And accelerated by injecting the tadpoles with the extracts prepared

from various tissues of the wild type frogs. The observation of the experiment are given below :

**Experiment No. Tissue Extract Observations
**

1. Anterior lobe of pituitary Development resumed

2. Posterior lobe of pituitary Development did not resume

3. Thyroid gland Development resumed

4. Anterior lobe of pituitary + Thyroid gland Development resumed

5. Anterior + posterior lobe of pituitary Development resumed

6. Posterior lobe of pituitary + Thyroid gland Development did not resume

From the above observations, find out the tissue that is affected by the mutation.

(a) Anterior lobe of pituitary (b) Posterior lobe of pituitary

(c) Thyroid gland (d) Both pituitary and thyroid gland

**10. In a case of mammalian coat color, the principal gene indemnified is 'C' which codes for a tyrosine's
**

enzyme. In case of rabbits four different phenotypes are observed Full Color > Chinchilla > Himalayan >

Albino (in order of the expression of 'C' and its alleles). In a progeny obtained after crossing two rabbits,

the percentages of Chinchilla, Himalayan and Albino rabbits were 50, 25 and 25 respectively. What

must have be the genotypes of the parent rabbits ?

(a) CchC chXCchc (b) CchC chXCchc (c) CchcXChc (d) CghC ghXCchC ch

**11. Identify the odd ones from each group (A and B) based on same criterion.
**

Group A Group B

Salmon Alpine salamander

Bullfrog Spiny anteater

Platypus Common toad

Bull shark Crocodile

(a) Platypus, Alpine Salamander (b) Bull shark, Alpine Salamander

(c) Bullfrog, Crocodile (d) Platypus, Common toad

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12. At patient was administered a chemical agent called Guanfacine hydrochloride after the patient showed

the symptoms like shortness of breath and headache. Guanfacinke hydrochloride is a known stimulatnt

of central 2-adrenergic receptors of the medulla regulating the sympathetic nervous sytem. The patient

in this case must be suffering from ?

(a) Hypertension (b) Hyperstimulation

(c) Hyperpolarization (d) None of the above

**13. A bacterial dsDFNA molecule, 2988 bp in length, was found to have the following compositions :
**

T C A G

Strand I 348 X 1400

Strand II 650 Y

**(a) 1400 and 590 (b) 590 and 1400
**

(c) 590 and 590 (d) None of the above

**14. The genetically modified (GM) brinjal in India has been development for :
**

(a) enhancing shelf life (b) insect-resistance

(c) drought-resistance (d) enhancing mineral content

8

15. A bacterium has a generation time of 50 minutes. A culture contain 10 cells per mL is incubated fro 300

minutes. What will be the number of cells after 300 mi0nutes ?

3 8 9 9

(a) 64 × 10 cells (b) 6.4 × 10 cells (c) 64 × 10 cells (d) 6.4 × 10 cells

**16. A student recorded the data for five types of cells as given below :
**

Character P Q R S T

Cell wall + + – – +

Centioles – – – –

Chloroplast – + – – –

Mitochondrion – + – + +

Nucleus + + – + +

RNA/DNA + + + + +

Vacuoles + + – + +

**The five cell types of P, Q, R, S and T are :
**

(a) P-Bacterium, Q-Plant, R-Virus, S-Animal, T-Fugus

(b) P-Bacterium, Q-Plant, R-Virus, S-Fungus, T-Animal

(c) P-Fungus, Q-Plant, R-Bacterium, S-Animal, T-Virus

(d) P-Plant, Q-Bacterium, R-Virus, S-Animal, T-Fungus

**17. In an experiment, a scientist discovered a darkly stained chromatin body on the periphery of nucleus of
**

epithelial cells obtained from an eight year old boy. This is indicative of a particular syndrome. Find out

the best possible chromosome combination of their parents form the options given below; which have

highest probability of producing the child under investigation. 'A' indicates autosome. 'X' and 'Y' reprints

the sex chromosomes.

(a) 22AA +XY, 22AA + XXX

(b) 22AA + XXY, 22AA + XXX

(c) 22AA + XY, 22A + XX

(d) 22AA + XXY, 22AA + XX

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18. The blood grouping system is an example of 'multiple allelism'. In order of find out the gene productsd of

various gene variants, different enzymes (codes used for the purpose of experimentation are X and Y)

from four blood samples were assayed. The enzymes were quantified and the information obtained from

these experiments is given in percentages in the following table. '+' indicates presence of an enzyme

and '–' indicates the absence of that enhzyme from the blood sample. The standard codes for dominant

and recessive alleles are considered. Identify the blood groups of subjects and choose the correct

option of their genotypes of from given options. (In table : P means present, A means absent)

Subjects Ramesh Ali Sophia Balwinder

Enzymes P/A % P/A % P/A % P/A %

X + 50 + 50 + 100 – –

Y – – + 50 – – + 100

A B A B A AB A AW BB B AB B B AB A

(a) I i, ii, I i, I I (b) I i, I I , I I ,I I (c) I i, I I , ii, I i (d) I i, ii, I I , I i

**19. An environment conservation group performed a survey of some diverse locations in the country and
**

represented it as under :

**Which amongst these sites should be included as a biodiversity hotspot ?
**

(a) Site A (b) Site B (c) Site C (d) Site D

20. A millionaire Mr. Jim, died recently. Two women, Mary and Lou, claiming to have a child by Jim

appropriated the police demanding a share in his wealth. Fortunately Jim's semen sample was cry

preserved. The scientists used DNA fingerprinting technique to study the three highly variable

chromosome regions. The results obtained are shown in the adjoining figure.

**After studying the DNA profile, which of the alleged heirs are children of Jim ?
**

(a) Mary's child (b) Both are children of Jim

(c) Lou's child (d) none oare children of Jim

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21. A metal rod of length L at temperature T , when heated to temperature T', expands to new length L'.

These quantities are related as L' = L (1 + [T' – T']) where is a constant for that material and called

as coefficient of linear expansion. Correct SI unit of is :

–1 –1

(a) m-K (b) m-K (c) K (d) is a pure number

**22. Two plane mirrors M1 & M2 have their reflecting faces inclined at . Mirror M1 rceives a ray AB, reflets it
**

at B and sends it as BC. It is now reflected by mirror M2 along CD, as shown in the figure. Total angular

deviation suffered by the incident ray AB is :

**(a) = 90º + 2 (b) = 180º + 2 (c) = 270º – 2 (d) = 360º – 2
**

23. Two sound waves in air have wavelengths differing by 2 m at a certain temperature T. their notes have

musical interval 1.4. Period of the lower pitch note is 20 ms. Then, speed found in air at this temperature

(T) is L :

(a) 350 m/s (b) 342 m/s (c) 333 m (d) 330 m/s

**24. Image is obtained on a screen by keeping an object at 25 cm and at 240 cm in front of concave mirror.
**

Image in the former case is four n times bigger than into the latter. Focal length of the mirror must be.

(a) 12 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 24 cm (d) 36 cm

**25. In the adjacent figure, line AB is parallel to screen S. A linear obstacle PQ between the two is also
**

parallel to both. AB, PQ and screen S are coplanar. A point source is carried from A to B, along the line

AB. What will happen to the size of the shadow of PQ (cast due to the point source) on the screen S?

A

P

S

Q

B

(a) It will first increase and then decrease.

(b) It will first decrease and then increase

(c) It will be of the same size for any position of the point source on the line AB.

(d) Umbra will increase and penumbra will decrease till central position.

**26. Two particles P1 and P2 move towards origin O, along X and Y-axes at constant speeds u 1 and u2
**

respectively as shown in the figure. At t = 0, the particles P1 and P2 are at distances a and b respectively

from O. Then the instantaneous distance s between the two particles is given by the relation :

P1 O

u1

u2

P2

2 2 2

(a) s = [a + b + (u1 + u 22)t2 – 2t(au1 + bu2)] 1/2

(b) s = [a2 + b2 + (u12 + u 22)t2 – 2t(bu1 + au2)]1/2

2 2 2 2 2 1/2 2 2 2 2 2 1/2

(c) s = [a + b + (u1 + u 2 )t + 2t(au1 + bu2)] (d) s = [a – b + (u1 + u 2 )t – 2t(au1 + bu2)]

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27. A tiny ball of mass m is initially at rest at height H above a cake of uniform thickness h. At some moment

the particle falls freely, touches the cake surface and then penetrates in it at such a constant rate that its

speed becomes zero on just reaching the ground (bottom of the cake). Speed of the ball at the instant it

touches the cake surface and its retardation inside the cake are respectively.

H H

(a) 2gh and g 1 (b) 2g(H h) and g 1

h h

h h

(c) 2gh and g 1 (d) 2g(H h) and g 1

H H

**28. An electric generator consumes some oil fuel and generates output of 25 kW. Calorific value (amount of
**

heat released per unit mass) of the oil fuel is 17200 kcal/kg and efficiency (output to input ratio) of the

generator is 0.25. Then, mass of the fuel consumed per hour and electric energy generated per ton of

fuel burnt are respectively.

(a) 0.5 kg, 20000 kWh (b) 0.5 kg, 5000 kWh

(c) 5 kg, 5000 kWh (d) 5 kg, 20000 kWh

29. A glass cube of refractive index 1.5 and edge 1 cm has a tiny black spot at its centre. A circular dark

sheet is to be kept symmetrically on the top surface so that the central spot is not visible from the top.

1 1 1

Minimum radius of the circular sheet should be (Given : = 0.707, = 0.577, = 0.477)

2 3 3

(a) 0.994 cm (b) 0.447 cm (c) 0.553 cm (d) 0.577 cm

**30. A paramedical staff nurse improvises a second's pendulum (time period 2 s) by fixing one end of a
**

string of length L to a ceiling and the other end to a heavy object of negligible size. Within 60 oscillations

of this pendulum, she finds that the pulse of wounded soldier beats 110 times. A symptom of

bradycardia is pulse < 60 per minute and that of tachycardia is > 100 per minute. Then the length of the

string is nearly ________ and soldier has symptoms of _______ .

(a) 1 m, bradycardia (b) 4 m, bradycardia (c) 1 m, tachycarida (d) 4 m, tachycardia

**31. Each resistance in the adjacent circuit is R . In order to have an integral value for equivalent
**

resistance between A and B, the minimum value of R must be :

A B

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 29

th

3

32. A block of wood floats on water with of its volume above water. It is now made to float on a salt

8

solution of relative density 1. 12. The fraction of its volume that remains above the salt solution now, is

nearly ______ .

(a) 0.33 (b) 0.44 (c) 0.67 (d) 0.56

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33. Suppose our scientific community had chosen force, speed and time as the fundamental mechanical

quantities instead of length, mass and time respectively and they chose the respectively units of

1

magnitudes 10 N, 100 m/s and s. Then the unit of mass in their system is equivalent to _______ in

100

our system.

3 –3 –1

(a) 10 kg (b) 10 kg (c) 10 kg (d) 10 kg

34. Three objects of the same material coloured white, blue and black can withstand temperature up to

2000°C. All these are heated to 1500°C and viewed in dark. Which option is correct?

(a) White object will appear brightest

(b) Blue object will appear brightest

(c) Black object will appear brightest

(d) Being at the same temperature, all will look equally bright

35. Two equally charged identical pith balls are suspended by identical massless strings as shown in the

2 2 2

adjacent figure. If this set up is on Mercury (g = 3.7 m/s ), Earth (g = 9.8 m/s ) and Jupiter (g = 24.5 m/s ),

then angle 2 will be _______ .

(a) maximum on mercury

(b) maximum on earth, as it has atmosphere

(c) maximum on Jupiter

(d) the same on any planet as Coulomb force is independent of gravity

**36. A car running with a velocity of 30 m/s reaches midway between two vertical parallel walls separated by
**

360 m, when the driver sounds the horn for a moment. Speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. After blowing

horn, the first three echoes will be heard by the driver respectively at ________ .

(a) 1.2 s, 2.4 s, 3.0 s (b) 1.0 s, 2.4 s, 3.0 s (c) 1.0 s, 2.0 s, 3.0 s (d) 1.2 s, 2.4 s, 3.6 s

37. Refer the adjacent circuit. The voltmeter reads 117 V and ammeter reads 0.13 A. If the resistance of

voltmeter and ammeter are 9 k and 0.015 W respectively, the value of R is _______ .

V

R

A

(a) 500 (b) 1k (c) 1.5 k (d) 2 k

**38. Choose correct option from the following statements from electrostatics :
**

(I) It two copper spheres of same radii, one hollow and other solid are charged to the same electrical

potential, the solid sphere will have more charge.

(II) A charged body can attract another uncharged body.

(III) Electrical lines of force originating from like charges will exert a lateral force on each other, while

those originating from opposite charges can intersect each other.

(a) only (I) is correct (b) only (II) is correct

(c) only (I) & (II) are correct (d) all (I), (II) & (III) are correct.

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39. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. Consider the following statements :

(I) Water will overflow if the beaker is cooled for some time.

(II) Water will overflow if the beaker is heated for some time.

Select correct option regarding (I) and (II).

(a) only (I) is correct (b) only (II) is correct

(c) Both (I) and (II) are correct (d) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct

40. A bar magnet is allowed to fall freely from the same height towards a current carrying loop along its axis,

as shown in the four situations I to IV. Arrows show direction of conventional current. Choose the

situations in which the potential energy of the magnet coil interaction is maximum ______ .

(a) I, III (b) I, IV (c) II, IV (d) II, III

**41. Element "X" with atomic mass 10 was allowed to react completely with element "Y" of atomic mass 20
**

to form a compound. When this compound was analysed it was found that it contains 60% of X and

40% of Y by weight. The simplest formula of this compound will be ______ .

(a) X3Y (b) X2Y3 (c) Y3X (d) X6Y4

3–

42. P has a larger radius than atom of P because

(a) There is greater coulombic attraction between the nucleus & electrons in the P3– ion.

(b) The core electrons in P3– exert a weaker shielding force than those of a neutral atom.

3–

(c) The nuclear charge is weaker in P than it is in P.

3–

(d) The electrons in P have a greater coulombic repulsion than those in P atom.

**43. When surface tension experiment with capillary tube is performed, water rises up to 0.1 m. If the
**

experiment is carried out in space, water will rise in capillary tube ______ .

(a) up to height of 0.1 m (b) up to height of 0.2 m

(c) up to height of 0.98 m (d) along its full length

**44. A substance is dissolved in water, forming a 0.5 molar solution. If 4.0 L of solution contains 240g of the
**

substance, what is the molecular mass of the substance?

(a) 60g/mole (b) 120g/mole (c) 240g/mole (d) 480g/mole

45. A car battery was kept for charging and after getting fully charged density of the battery acid (H2SO4)

was measured and found to be 1.28g cm –3. If initial morality of battery acid was 4.2 M then mass

percentage will be around ______ .

(a) 28% (b) 30% (c) 32% (d) 34%

46. 4.095 X 1024 nitrogen atoms are filled in an enclosed gas cylinder of capacity two litre. The number of

moles of nitrogen gas in the cylinder is____.

(a) 14.7 (b) 6.8 (c) 3.4 (d) 2.9

47. Deepa was studying properties of gases. She took a flask and filled it with sulphur dioxide gas, and

weighed it at temperature T and pressure P. The weight of the flask containing the gas was found to be

W 1. She then flushed the flask, cleaned and filled it with methane at the same temperature and

pressure. The weight of the flask containing oxygen was found to be W 2. She repeated the process with

oxygen under the same conditions and found the weight to be W 3. The ratio of the weights W 1 : W 2 : W 3

is

(a) 2 : 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 4

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48. Four gas jars filled with sulphur dioxide gas were inverted into troughs of water by four students P, Q, R,

S. The following observations and inference were reported by them.

P: Water did not enter the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is soluble in water.

Q: Water rushed into the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is soluble in water.

R: Water did not enter in the gas jar and sulphur dioxide is insoluble in water.

S: A small amount of water entered the gas jar slowly and sulphur dioxide is sparingly soluble in water.

Then the correct set of observations and inference is reported by,

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

**49. A solution of pure aluminium sulphate containing 0.170g of aluminium ions is treated with excess of
**

barium hydroxide solution. Total weight of the precipitate will be :

(a) 0.5g (b) 2.7g (c) 1.7g (d) 0.54g

50. A region of one square meter area was given to each Suhas, Bobby, Sandy and Kimi in a garden. The

daffodil plants grow best in the soil having a pH range of 6.0 to 6.5. If the soil has a pH 4.5, to grow daffodils,

Suhas added common salt, Bobby added sodium phosphate, Sandy added aluminium sulphate and Kimi

added ammonium chloride in their allotted area. Who was successful in growing daffodil?

(a) Suhas (b) Bobby (c) Sandy (d) Kimi

51. Sulphur di-oxide gas and ammonia gas were mixed in different proportions. The pair of gases

containing same number of molecules at NTP is________.

(a) 1120 cm 3 of SO2 + 0.85 g of ammonia (b) 0.25g mole of SO2 + 2240 cm 3 of ammonia

(c) 1680 cm 3 of SO2 + 1.7 g of ammonia (d) 0.25 g mole of SO2 + 0.85 g of ammonia

**52. Electrons in the last shell of X, Y, W and Z are 2, 6, 4 and 1 respectively. Which of the following
**

statement is correct?

(a) melting point of compound formed by X and Y is more than that of by W and Z.

(b) compound formed by X and Y is more volatile than that of by W and Z.

(c) melting point of compound formed by X and Z is more than that of by W and Y.

(d) Incomplete information so inference cannot be drawn.

53. W g of pure coal was combusted in pure dry oxygen. The carbon dioxide gas obtained was absorbed in

0.1 M KOH solution. The complete absorption of CO2 required 5cm 3 of 0.1M KOH. The amount of coal

combusted is

(a) 3mg (b) 6mg (c) 11mg (d) 12mg

54. Sonu has N/2 HCl solution and Monu has N/10 HCl solution. They are asked to prepare 2 litres of N/5

HCl solution. What volume of two solutions be mixed?

(a) (0.5 + 1.5) litre (b) (1.0 + 1.0) litre (c) (0.3 + 1.7) litre (d) (0.2 + 1.8) litre

**55. A strip of iron with mass 15.5 g is placed in a solution containing 21.0 g copper sulphate. After some
**

time the reaction stops. Iron strip was found to have mass 8.5 g. The mass of copper formed was found

to be 8.60g. Find the mass of ferrous sulphate formed in this reaction.

(a) 19.40 g (b) 18.40 g (c) 17.40 g (d) 16.40 g

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56. A solution (P) was prepared by dissolving 6.3 g of oxalic acid in 100 ml water. 25 ml of this solution was

taken and was further diluted to 250 ml to prepare solution (Q). What weight of NaOH in ppm will be

required to neutralize 10 ml of solution (Q)?

(a) 40 ppm (b) 10 ppm (c) 20 ppm (d) 80 ppm

**57. Which of the following is incorrect?
**

(a) Chalcocite-Copper (b) Magnetite-Iron

(c) Calamine-Aluminium (d) Galena-Lead

**58. Which of the following can improve the quality of petrol?
**

(a) n heptane (b) iso-octane (c) n hexadecane (d) benzene

**59. 2KBrO3 + 12H + + 10e– Br 2 + 6H2O + 2K+
**

From above reaction the equivalent weight of KBrO3 can be calculated as (M is molecular weight of

KBrO3)

(a) M/5 (b) M/10 (c) M/12 (d) M/2

**60. Shaila took about 10 cm 3 of a diluted Potassium hydrogen carbonate solution in a test tube. To this
**

solution she added few drops of universal indicator. The colour of the solution turned:

(a) orange (b) green (c) blue (d) yellow

**61. Let AB be a diameter of a circle C1 of radius 30 cm and with centre O. Two circles C2 and C3 of radii 15
**

cm and 10 cm touch C1 internally at A and B respectively. A fourth circle C4 touches C1, C2 and C3.

What is the largest possible radius of C4?

(a) 12 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 30 cm

2 2 2

62. What is the largest value of the positive integer k such that k divides n (n – 1) (n – n – 2) for every

natural number n?

(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48

63. A person kept rolling a regular (six faced) die until one of the numbers appeared third time on the top.

This happened in 12th throw and the sum of all the numbers in 12 throws was 46. Which number

appeared least number of times?

(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1

64. In a square ABCD, a point P is inside the square such that ABP is an equilateral triangle. The segment

AP cuts the diagonal BD in E. Suppose AE = 2. The area of ABCD is

(a) 4+2 3 (b) 5+2 3 (c) 4+4 3 (d) 5+4 3

65. A 5 x 5 x 5 cube is built using unit cubes. How many different cuboids (that differ in at least one unit

cube) can be formed using the same number of unit cubes?

(a) 1000 (b) 1728 (c) 2730 (d) 3375

**66. Let n be a positive integer not divisible by 6. Suppose n has 6 positive divisors. The number of positive
**

divisors of 9n is

(a) 54 (b) 36 (c) 18 (d) 12

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ax ax 2ab

67. The value of , when x = is:

ax ax b2 1

(a) a (b) b (c) x (d) 0

68. Two regular polygons of different number of sides are taken. In one of them, its sides are coloured red

and diagonals are coloured green; in the other, sides are coloured green and diagonals are coloured

red. Suppose there are 103 red lines and 80 green lines. The total number of sides the two polygons

together have is:

(a) 23 (b) 28 (c) 33 (d) 38

**69. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. The bisector of BAC meets the cirumcircle of ABC in D. Suppose
**

DB + DC = 4. The diameter of the circumcircle of ABC is

(a) 4 (b) 3 3 (c) 2 3 (d) 2

70. A box contains some red and some yellow balls. If one red ball is removed, one seventh of the

remaining balls would be red; if one yellow ball is removed, one-sixth of the remaining balls would be

red. If n denotes the total number of balls in the box, then the sum of the digits of n is

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

**71. Let Tk denote the k-th term of an arithmetic progression. Suppose there are positive integers m n such
**

that Tm = 1/n and Tn = 1/m. Then Tmn equals

1 1 1

(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 0

mn m n

72. For a regular k-sided polygon, let a(k) denotes its interior angle. Suppose n > 4 is such that a(n–2), a(n),

a(n+3) forms an arithmetic progression. The sum of digits of n is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

2

73. If sin and cos are roots of the equation px + qx + r = 0, then:

(a) p2 – q2 + 2pr = 0 (b) (p + r)2 = q 2 – r 2

2 2 2 2 2

(c) p + q – 2pr = 0 (d) (p – r) = q + r

** 102 102 10 2 102
**

74. The number of distinct integers in the collection ,

,

,........, , where [x] denotes the

1 2 3 20

largest integer not exceeding x, is

(a) 20 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 15

**75. Let ABCD be a rectangle. Let X and Y be points respectively on AB and CD such that AX : XB = 1: 2 =
**

CY : YD. Join AY and CX; let BY intersect CX in K; let DX intersect AY in L. If m/n denotes the ratio of

the area of XKYL to that of ABCD, then m + n equals

(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 15

**76. The sum of 5 number in geometric progression is 24. The sum of their reciprocals is 6. The product of
**

the terms of the geometric progression is

(a) 36 (b) 32 (c) 24 (d) 18

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77. Digits a and b are such that the product 4a1x 25b is divisible by 36 (in base 10). The number of ordered

pairs (a, b) is

(a) 15 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4

**78. In a triangle ABC, let AD be the median from A; let E be a point on AD such that AE:ED = 1:2; and let
**

BE extended meets AC in F. The ratio of AF/FC is

(a) 1/6 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/3

79. The integer closest to 111...1– 222...2 , where there are 2018 ones and 1009 twos, is

101009 1 101009 1 102018 1 102018 1

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3 9 3 9

80. In a triangle ABC, a point D on AB is such that AD : AB = 1 : 4 and DE is parallel to BC with E on AC.

Let M and N be the mid points of DE and BC respectively. What is the ratio of the area of the

quadrilateral BNMD to that of triangle ABC?

(a) 1/4 (b) 9/32 (c) 7/32 (d) 15/32

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VIBRANT ACADEMY

Believe in Excellence

(India) Private Limited

NSEJS 2018-19 (IJSO STAGE-1) SOLUTIONS

DATE : 18-Nov-2018 / Sunday Code JS512

Sol.1 [D]

Peptidolglycans is absent in the cell wall of Archaea. Cyanobacteria is a eubacteria which shows all the

four characteristics mentioned in question.

Sol.2 [A]

Platyhelminthes are known as acoelomates which means that true coelom is not present in these

animals.

Sol.3 [B]

Acrosome is formed by Golgi apparatus in sperm.

Sol.4 [D]

All of the above are the character(s) of acquired immunity.

Sol.5 [D]

Azolla-Anbaena are used for nitrogen fixing technique in paddy fields.

Sol.6 [C]

An action potential in the nerve fiber is produced when positive and negative charges on outside and

inside of the axon membrane are reversed because more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to

potassium ions leaving it due to the activity of sodium ion voltage gated channel.

Sol.7 [D]

To synthesis amino acid 'X' in an organisms, several mutants were taken that require 'X' to grow. In

presence of additive P, no mutant was able to synthesis amino acid, so P will be the first additive added.

In presence of additive S, only mutant 2 was able to synthesis amino acid, so S will be the second

additive added. Similarly, Q then R and finally T additive will come at last.

Sol.8 [C]

3 nucleotides found in a codon which codes for a particular AA.

Length of a polypeptide translated from mRNA encoded by 2985 bp (because 3 bp will be stop codon,

2985

so 2988 – 3 = 2985). =

3

995 will be length of polypeptide.

Sol.9 [D]

Both pituitary and thyroid gland (pituitary gland is a master gland it mean it controls all endocrine glands

pituitary gland as three lobes Anterior, middle and posterior. Anterior part secrete TSH hormone which

stimulate the thyroid gland and thyroid gland secrete thyroxine hormone which is responsible for

metamorphosis).

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Sol.10 [C]

Given Gene 'C' Tyrosinase enzyme

4 phenotypes in order of expression of gene 'c' [color > Ch > h > albino]

ch

Genotype of parent C C X ChC Parent

C

ch

C Ch C Gametes

Cch C

ch h

C h

C C ChC

C CchC CC

**The offsprings are as follows:2 chinchilla (50%), 1 himalayan(25%), 1 albino (25%).So, the condition
**

given in question is obtained with the desired genotype.

Sol.11 [B]

In group A bull shark is viviparous and rest all the organisms are oviparous, so it is different, in group B

Alpine salamander is fully terrestrial, rest all are amphibious, so it is different in group B.

Sol.12 [A]

Sympathetic nervous system is a part of autonomous nervous system which controls hyperactivity like

increased blood pressure and hypertension.

Sol.13 [C]

DNA is double helical it mean two antiparallel strands.

So, Ist strand of guanine = IInd strand of cytosine

and Ist strand of adenine = IInd strand of thymine

So, in strand Ist = T + C + A + G = 2988

348 + X + 650 + 1400 = 2988

X = 590

Strand IInd = T + C + A + G = 2988

650 + 1400 + 348 + Y = 2988

Y = 590

Sol.14 [B]

[Insect – resistance]

Sol.15 [D]

50 min

100 min 150 min 200 min 250 min 300 min

Double [4 time] [8 time] [16 time] [32 time] [64 time]

Ans. 64 × 108

64 10 8 10

But according to options =

10

= 6.4 × 109

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Sol.16 [A]

Bacteria is a prokaryote which is having cell wall, in plant cell centriole is absent, virus contain nucleic

acid, cell wall is absent in animal cell, fungus has cell wall which is made up of chitin

Sol.17 [A]

Boy Child is having syndrome which comes from her mother. Mother is having X-chromosome

which is known as barr body and this barr body is darkly stained and located periphery of the

nucleus

Sol.18 [B]

Ramesh A 50 % IAi

B 0%

Ali A 50% IAIB

B 50%

Sophia A 100% IAIA

B 0%

Balvindra A 0% IBIB

B 100%

Sol.19 [A]

Site A

Sol.20 [A]

Mary's child

Sol.21 [C]

L' = L (1 + [T' – T])

m = m (1 + [K])

–1

=K

Sol.22 [D]

2

**In clock wise direction, = 2
**

So in anti clock wise direction, = 360° – 2

Sol.23 [A]

1 – 2 = 2

v v

– =2

f1 f2

v f

1 – 1 = 2

f1 f 2

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V 1

1 – =2

50 1.4

v = 350 m/s.

Sol.24 [B]

40 25

1 1 1

v f u

1 uf

v uf

h1 = 4h2

h v f

m1 = 1 1

h0 u1 f u1

h2 f

m2 =

h0 f u2

f u2

4= (dividing m 1 by m 2)

f u1

f 40

4=

f 25

4f + 100 = f + 40

3f = – 60

f = –20

Sol.25 [C]

Similar triangles and corresponding parts of similar triangles are proportional

x PQ PQ PQ

= = =

xy S1 S2 S3

S 1= S 2= S 3

x y

A S A S A S

P S3

P

S2 P

Q

Q

S1 Q

B B B

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Sol.26 [A]

a

u1t a – u1t

P1

s b–u2t

b

u2

u2t

P2

s = (a – u1t ) 2 (b – u2 t )2

= a2 u12 t 2 – 2au1t b 2 u22 t 2 – 2bu2 t

= a 2 b 2 (u12 u 22 )t 2 – 2t(au1 bu2

1/ 2

Sol.27 [Bonus]

H

h

**Velocity at the top of cake is
**

v2 – u 2 = 2gH

v= 2gH

Between cake upper surface and lower surface

MEi = MEf.

1

mv2 = ma rh.

2

v2 2Hg

= ar = ar

2h 2h

H g

= ar

h

**Sol.28 [C] Output of electrical generator = 25 kW
**

efficiency of the generator = 0.25

25

Input given to electrical generator = = 100 kW

0.25

Pi 3600

Mass of the fuel consumed per hour = = 5 kg

4.18 CV

1000

Electrical energy generator per ton of fuel burnt = 25 5000 kWh

5

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Sol.29 [B]

r r

0.5

ic ic ic 0.5 cm

1.5

1

sin ic =

1.5

r sinic

tan ic =

0.5 1 sin2 ic

1

= 1.5

1

1

2.25

1

= 1.5

1.25

1.5

0.5

r= 0.447 cm

1.25

Sol.30 [B]

L

T = 2

g

g

L= 1m

2

60 oscillation = 120 sec for 110 pulses

2 min. = 110 pulses

1 min. = 55 pulses.

< 60.

bradycardia.

1 m, bradycardia.

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Sol.31 [B]

R

R R

R

R R

R

R R

R R

A R B

R R

R R

R

R

R R

R

5R/2

R R

5R/2

R R

A B

5R/2

R R

5R/2

13R/4

R R

A B

13R/4

29R/8

A B

29R

Requ. =

8

R should at least multiple of 8 i.e. 8, for Requ. to be an integer

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Sol.32 [B]

b b

3V/8 V0

5V/8 Vs

w

s/w = 1.12

FB = mg

5

w × vg = b vg

8

5

s × vs = b = pw

8

5 w

vs = v

8 s

v0 = v – vs

(8 1.12 – 5)v

=

8 1.12

3.96

= = 0.44

8.96

Sol.33 [B]

F

m=

a

Ft

m=

v

10

= 10 3 kg

100 100

Sol.34 [C]

By Kirchoff's law, good absorber = good emitter (for same temperature)

In dark, black body would appear brightest

Sol.35 [A]

T cos = mg

T sin = Fe

Fe

tan =

mg

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T T

Fe Fe

mg mg

1

g

maximum on mercury because minimum g.

Sol.36 [B]

30 m/s

180 m 180 m

First echo

Since speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1

d

v= , where t1 is time taken by sound to strike the wall

t1

180

t1 = 0.545 sec

330

Now distance covered by car in 0.54 sec = 30 × 0.545 = 16.363 m

Dis tance between car & wall

Time taken by sound to reach the car again =

Velocity of sound with respect to car

180 16.363

= 0.454 sec

360

Time for Ist echo = 0.545 + 0.454 = 0.999 sec 1 sec

Second echo

distance travelled by car in 1 sec = 30 m

2 210

time taken by sound to travel remaining distance = 1.272 sec

330

distance travelled by car in 1.272 sec = 1.272 × 30 = 38.18 m

38.18

time taken by sound to cover 38.18 m = 0.127

300

time taken for second echo = 1.272 + 0.127 + 1 = 2.4 sec

Third echo

distance b/w wall and car at 2.4 sec = 180 – (2.4 × 30) = 108

108

time taken by sound to strike the wall = 0.327 sec

330

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dis tance between car and wall

time taken by sound to reach the car again =

relative speed of sound

108 (0.327 30)

= = 0.273 sec

360

time for 3 rd echo = 0.273 + 0.327 + 2.4 = 3 sec

Sol.37 [B]

V = IR

9000R

117 = 0.13 0.015

9000 R

R = 999.99

= 1 k

Sol.38 [B]

only option (II) is correct.

Sol.39 [C]

Volume of water

4ºC

T

Sol.40 [B]

P.E. is maximum when interacting poles-by current given in loop and by induced current due to change

in flux through magnet-are same.

Sol.41. [A]

Element Percentage Atomic Mass Ratio Simplest Ratio

X 60 10 60 3

6

10

40

2

Y 40 20 20 1

Simplest formula of compound = X3Y

Sol.42. [D]

In P, p = 5, e = 15

In P –3 , p = 15, e = 18

–3

Effective nuclear charge is weaker in P due to repulsion among the electrons.

Sol.43. [D]

In space, there is no gravity.

So, water will rise along full length of capillary tube.

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Sol.44. [B]

Mass of substance in 4L = 240 g

Number of moles

Molarity =

Volume of solution(in litre)

Givenmass / molecualr Mass

0.5 =

4

240 / MM

0.5 =

4

240

MM =

0.5 4

MM = 120g / mole

Sol.45. [C]

3

d = 1.28 g/cm = 1.28g / ml

1000 ml 1.28 1000 g = 1280 g (Mass of H2SO4 solution)

Initial molarity = 4.2 M 4.2 mole in 1000 ml

Molar Mass of H 2SO4 = 98 g

Mass of 4.2 mole = 98 4.2 = 411.6 g.

411.6 4116

Mass percentage = 100 = = 32 %

1280 128

Sol.46. [C]

Number of nitrogen atoms = 4.095 X 1024

4.095 1024

Number of molecules =

2

We know that,

6.02 X 1023 molecules = 1 mole nitrogen gas

1

1 molecules = mole N 2 gas

6.02 1023

4.095 1024 4.095 1024

atoms =

2 6.02 1023 2

6.8

= = 3.4 moles

2

Sol.47. [C]

SO2 CH4 O2

(T,P,V) (T,P,V) (T,P,V)

W 1 gm W 2 gm W 3 gm

Pressure, Temperature and volume are same

As PV = nRT

So, number of moles in each case will be same

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n1 = n 2 = n3

W1 W2 W3

64 16 32

W1 W2 W3

4 1 2

W1 : W2 : W3 = 4 : 1 : 2

Sol.48. [D]

SO2 is sparingly soluble in water.

As SO2 will start dissolving in water, empty space will be created and thus water will start entering in jar

slowly.

Sol.49. [B]

Al2(SO4)3 + 3 Ba(OH)2 3 BaSO4 + 2 Al(OH)3

0.170 +3

Moles of = 0.0062 mole Al ions

27

2 mole Al+3 ion ________ 1 mole Al2 (SO4) 3

1

0.0062,, ________ 0.0062 mole = 0.0031 mole

2

1 mole Al2(SO4)3 _________ 3 mole BaSO4

0.0031 __________ 3 0.0031 mole BaSO4

Hence, Mass = 3 0.0031 233 = 2.7g

Sol.50. [B]

pH of soil = 4.5,

We need to add some base to increase its pH.

Sodium phosphate is a basic salt.

(made up of strong base and weak acid)

Sol.51. [A]

Volume of 1 mole at NTP = 22.4 lt. = 22400 ml

1120

1120cm 3 of SO2 = 1120 ml of SO2 = mole

22400

1

= mole

20

= 0.05 mole

0.85

0.85g NH3 = mole = 0.05 mole

17

Because in both cases moles are equal therefore number of particles would also be equal.

Sol.52. [A]

X and Z are metals while Y and W are non-metals

So, compound formed by X and Y will be ionic

And compound formed by W and Z will be covalent

Thus, melting point of compound formed by X and Y is more than that of W and Z

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Sol.53. [A]

C + O2 CO2

W W

mole mole

12 12

CO2 + 2KOH K2 CO3 + 2H2O

W

mole (0.1 M) 5 ml

12

1000 ml 0.1 mole KOH

0.1

5ml 5 mole KOH

1000

–4

= 5 10 mole KOH

2 mole KOH 1 mol CO2

–4 1 –4

5 10 mole KOH 5 10 mol CO2

2

–4

= 2.5 10 mol CO2

W

Now, = 2.5 10–4

12

–4

W = 2.5 10 12

–4

W = 30 10 g

= 3 10 –3 g

= 3 mg

Sol.54. [A]

N, V, + N2 V 2 = N3 V 3

1 1 1

0.5 + 1.5 = V3

2 10 5

1

0.25 + 0.15 = V3

5

V3 = 2

Since on using the volume from option A gives us matches the volume given in the product, it is correct.

Sol.55. [A]

It is based on law of conservation of mass

Mass of Reactants = Mass of product

15.5 + 21.0 = 8.5 + 8.60 + mass of FeSO4 formed

36.5 = 17.10 + mass of FeSO4

Mass of FeSO4 = 36.5 – 17.10

= 19.40 g

Sol.56. [Bonus]

Sol.57. [B]

Calamine is an ore of Zinc not Al

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Sol.58. [B]

Iso-octane is added to improve the quality of petrol.

Sol.59. [A]

5

5e– + 2 K Br O3 Br2 (Reduction)

Here change in oxidation State of Br from KBrO3 to Br2 is +5 to 0

It is reduction

Molmass

Hence Equivalent Mass =

5

M

=

5

Sol.60. [C]

The given solution is basic in nature.

When we add universal indicator to the solution, it will turn blue.

Sol.61 [C]

O

A B

P 15 10 10 Q 10

**the dotted circle is the required (having maximum radius) circle
**

40

radius of this circle is = 20

2

Sol.62 [D]

k = n2(n 2 – 1) (n2 – n – 2)

2

n (n + 1) (n – 1) (n + 1) (n – 2)

[n(n + 1)] [n(n – 1) (n + 1) (n – 2)]

2! | n(n + 1), 4! | n(n – 1) (n + 1) (n – 2)

2! × 4! | k

48|k

Sol.63 [C,D]

Two possibilities

1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 5

1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6

1 or 2 can be the answer

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Sol.64 [A]

D C

P

E

2 75º

60º 45º

A B

2+a

Let EP = a

AP = AB = 2 + a

In AEB by sine Rule

2 2a

sin 45º sin 75º

2 3 1

2+a=

1 2 2

2

2+a= 31

area of ABCD = ( 3 1) 2 = 4 + 2 3

Sol.66 [C,D]

6 n but n can be multiple of 3

If 3 n

Case I Case II

5 1 2

a a ×b

1× 6 2×3

Total factors = 6

9 n = 32 × a 5 32 × a 1 × b2

=3×6 3×6

= 18 18

If 3|n

n = 35 31 × a 2 32 × a 1

7 3 2 4 1

9 n= 3 9n=3 a 9n=3 ×a

Total factors = 8 4× 3 = 12 5× 2 = 10

Total factors can be 8, 10, 12, 18

Sol.67 [B]

2ab 2ab

a – a–

b 1 b2 1

2ab 2ab

a a–

b2 1 b2 1

b 2 1 2b – b 2 1 – 2b

=

b 2 1 2b b 2 1 – 2b

(b 1) – (1 – b )

=

(b 1) (1 – b )

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2b

= =b

2

In paper code JS511 and JS513 there are printing mistake for x, so for these two paper codes this

question should be bonus. For JS512 and JS514 the answer is option B.

Sol.68 [B]

Let no. of sides for first polygon = a

Second polygon = b

b(b 3)

a = 103

2

2a + b2 – 3b = 206 …..(i)

a(a 3 )

+ b = 80

2

2

a – 3a + 2b = 160 …..(ii)

(i)-(ii)

2 2

5(a – b) – (a – b ) = 46

(a – b) (5 – (a + b)) = 46

(a + b – 5) (b – a) = 46

a, b, n

a b 5 46 23

ba 1 2

a b 51 28

51 Not satisfy

28

Sol.69 [A]

AB = AC

A

30º 30º

60º 0

B C

30º

2 2

60º 60º

D

BAD = CAD

AD = AD

by SAS criterian

BAD CAD

BD = DC = 2

OD

In BOD sin 30º =

2

OD = 1

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**

OD

tan 30º = OB = 3

OB

Let AB = a

a

BO = = 3

2

a=2 3

3

Diameter = Ad = AO + OD = a+1

2

3

= ×2 3 +1

2

=3+1=4

Sol.70 [B]

Let red balls = R

Yellow balls = y

1

R – 1 = (R + y + 1) …(1)

7

1

R= (R + y –1) …(2)

6

7(R – 1) = 6 R

R7

By equation (1)

1

7–1= (7 + y –1)

7

y 36

Total balls = R + y

= 7 + 36 = 43

4+3=7

Sol.71 [C]

1 1

Tm = , Tn = , Tmn = ?

n n

1

a + (m – 1) d =

n

1

a + (n – 1) d =

m

– – –

1 1

d(m – 1 – n + 1) =

n m

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**

mn

d(m – n) =

mn

1

d=

mn

(m 1) 1

a+

mn n

1 (m 1)

a= –

n mn

m m 1

=

mn

1

a=

mn

T mn = a + (mn – 1) d

1

= {1 + mn – 1} = 1

mn

Sol.72 [B]

(K – 2).180

a(K) =

K

2a(x) = a(x – 2) + a (x + 3)

**2 180( x – 2) 180( x – 4 ) 180( x 1)
**

= +

x x–2 x3

2( x – 2) x 2 – x – 12 x 2 – x – 2

=

x ( x – 2)( x 3)

x = 12

1+2=3

Sol.73 [A]

sin

px2 + qx + r = 0

cos

–q

sin + cos =

p

r

sin .cos =

p

by squaring

q2

sin2 + cos2 + 2sin cos =

p2

2r q2

1+ = 2

p p

p2 + 2pr = q2

p2 – q 2 + 2pr

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Sol.74 [D]

10 2 10 2 10 2 10 2

=5

20 19 18 17

10 2 10 2

= 6

16 15

10 2 10 2

=7

14 13

rest all are different

12 + 3 = 15

Sol.75 [B]

D Y

C

K

L

A B

X

BX || DY & BX = DY

BXDY is a parallelogram

XL || KY …(i)

Similarly LY || XK

XKYL is a parallelogram

Now Let ar(XKY) = ar(XLY) = p

YKC ~ BKX

YK CK CY 1

KB KX XB 2

ar ( YKC ) 1

ar ( YKX ) 2

p

ar(YKC) =

2

similarly ar(BKC) = ar(XLY) = ar(ALD) = p

ar(XKB) = ar(DLY) = 2p

ar( XKYL) 2p 2

ar ( ABCD) 9p 9

2 + 9 = 11

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**

Sol.76 [B]

a a 2

2

+ a + ar + ar = 24

r r

1 1

a 2 1 r r 2 = 24 …(i)

r r

r2 r 1 1 1

6

a a a ar ar 2

1 2 1 1

r r 1 2 6 …(ii)

a r r

(i) a 24

(ii) 1 6

a

2

a =4 a=±2

Product of terms a 5 = 2 5 = 32

**Sol.77 [Not in option]
**

36 | 4a1 × 25b

4 4a1

4 | 25b

So b can be 2 or 6

If b = 2

36 | 4a1 × 252

36 | 252

So a = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9

10 solutions

If b = 6

36 | 4a1 × 256

9 256

9 | 4a1

a=4

So total 11 solutions

Sol.78 [C]

A

x

F

1

E 2x

Q

2

2x

B D C

Draw DQ || BF

By BPT

AE AF 1

ED FQ 2

In BFC by BPT

FQ BD 1 AF 1

= =

QC DC 1 FC 4

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**

Sol.79 [A]

S = 111 ………. 111 n times 1

= 10n – 1 + ……………. + 102 + 101 +1

10 n 1

=

9

= 111...... 11 222......... 2

10 2018 1 101009 1

= 2

9 9

1

= (101009 1)(101009 1 2)

3

1

= (101009 1)

3

Sol.80 [D]

A

1

D E

M

3

B C

N

2

ar( ADE) 1 1

ar( ABC) 4 16

ar (BDEC) 15

ar ( ABC) 16

ar(ABN) = ar(ANC)

ar(ADM) = ar(AME)

ar(BNMD) = ar(NCEM)

ar (BNMD) 15 / 2 15

= =

ar( ABC) 16 32

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