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GRAMMAR – 03 - 14

VOCABULARY – 14 - 21


LITERATURE – 22 - 24

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE
Direction : Read the following passages and Answer the questions given below.
Passage - 1
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakenly
is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different level of existence make
up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such
as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and
security. Life is a dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection
against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other
1. The author’s point is that
(A) different forms of life are found on earth
(B) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(C) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(D) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life
2. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position
(A) All forms of life have a single overiding goal
(B) The will to survive of creature is identified with a desire for peace
(C) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(D) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death
Passage -2
In many of our schools, children who ‘complete’ Primary school are not fully functional in the language that
serves as the medium of their education. One would expect that a class VI student, almost twelve years old
with five years / of schooling behind him, would be able to read understand and write the language.
Unfortunately, surveys conducted among rural school children in the state reveal that this is not the case.
A majority of the school population was found to be at the frustration level in understanding the texts. The
surveys also reveal the enormous heterogeneity of the linguistic and cultural background of the children,
contrary to the belief that they all come from Hindi-speaking backgrounds.
1. The phrase ‘not fully functional’ means that the children
(A) are not able to do any work on their own (B) cannot read the textbook properly
(C) cannot write letters to their friends (D) do not have any general knowledge
2. A class VI student who is twelve years old has ‘five years of schooling behind him’. This means that he
(A) has attended school for five years
(B) has skipped his primary school
(C) refuses to attach school till he is twelve
(D) does not attach any importance to primary education
3. The surveys conducted in the state reveal that
(A) there are very few primary schools in the rural areas
(B) there is no single medium of instruction for them
(C) all languages are taught in a haphazard manner
(D) the students cannot understand the textbooks
4. Before the surveys we had the belief that
(A) all the children were good students (B) the schools taught Hindi very efficiently
(C) all the children spoke Hindi at home (D) Hindi was a compulsory subject
5. In the given context, ‘the enormous heterogeneity of .... children’ is due to the fact that these children
(A) speak different languages (B) come from various states
(C) belong to different classes of society (D) come from different cultural milieux
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Passage - 3

By human obligations I mean the ability to behave in a reasonable way, to observe restraint so that restraints
do not have to be imposed, to be able to think clearly and objectively so that false doctrines cannot gain
ground. I believe that it also means the ability to see through nonsense, political, economic, scientific and so
on, and the feeling that it is a duty to resist it.
1. Human obligations do not include
(A) behaving in a disciplined manner (B) acquiring knowledge
(C) making others feel that you are always right (D) thinking clearly
2. If one does not observe restraint
(A) people around one will grow hostile (B) one’s friends will ignore one
(C) one’s life will be miserable (D) people will see to it that one behaves responsibly
3. When one does not think clearly and objectively
(A) one falls to achieve success (B) one tends to believe in the wrong things
(C) one is considered a fool (D) one tends to make mistakes in day-to-day life
4. It is one’s duty to resists
(A) all political propaganda (B) religious practices
(C) unsatisfactory plans and programme (D) irrational ideas
5. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
(A) moral conduct (B) a humane approach to our problem
(C) the scientific point of view (D) the acquisition of specialized knowledge
Passage - 4
Science and technology have relieved mankind of degrading drudgery. They have added to man’s comfort,
health and enjoyment of existence. The average life span of a man on earth has been greatly increased.
Science has added to the dignity and stature of the individual. When man is relieved from the battle for
physical safety, he becomes a little creator. Every challenge of science has added to man’s moral stature.
As we find that the world is much more wonderful than we ever dreamed it to be, we are led into new fields of
awareness, new ranges of attainment, a new realization of destiny. New knowledge is both a challenge and
an opportunity. ‘For it is not yet known what man may be’. He must therefore, without haste and without rest,
strive to reach the quality of human greatness that is greatness in humanity.
1. Science and technology have relieved making of
(A) difficulties in life (B) unpleasant situations
(C) hard, boring work (D) humiliating experiences
2. A man becomes a little creator when he
(A) indulges in creative writing
(B) is free from risks to his physical existence
(C) works hard to improve his life
(D) gets inspiration to do good to others
3. According to the passage, scientific achievements have
(A) made man materialistic (B) turned man into an atheist
(C) enchanced man’s intellectual ability (D) given man a higher moral stature
4. New knowledge is both a challenge and an opportunity because it
(A) opened up new fields of activity
(B) has made man self-confident
(C) has increased man’s potentiality exceedingly
(D) has increased man’s curiosity about things around him
5. According to the passage, man should strive to
(A) achieve a higher social status in life
(B) get material prosperity
(C) inspire others to do good things in life
(D) achieve that greatness which makes him a good human being

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Passage -5
If India takes up the doctrine of the sword, she may gain temporary victory. Then India will cease to be the
pride of my heart. I am wedded to India because I owe my all to INDIA. I believe absolutely that she has a
mission for all the world. She is not to copy Europe blindly. India’s acceptance of the sword will be the hour
of my trial. I hope I shall not be found wanting. My religion has no geographical limits. If I have a living faith in
it, it will transcend my love for India herself. My life is dedicated to the service of India through the religion of
1. Indian will cease to be a pride of the writer’s heart when it
(A) copies others (B) does not fight for its cause
(C) follows the path of violence (D) has no mission for the world
2. A religion has no geographical limits when
(A) it is followed by a small community (B) it rises above the interests of a country
(C) many people follow it (D) people fight for their religion
3. The expression ‘hour of trial’ in the passage given above means the time
(A) of trial in a court of law (B) when a person gets some punishment
(C) when one’s principles are put to test (D) when a man faces some difficult problems in life
4. The expression ‘doctrine of the sword’ means
(A) dictatorship (B) belief in the use of violent methods
(C) fighting with a sword means (D) habit of carrying arms
5. The author of the passage is
(A) very critical of his own philosophy of life (B) deeply aware of his failures in life
(C) unsure of what religion can do to politics (D) morally strong and invincible

Direction : Mark the correct answer.
1. The noun form of responsible is
(A) responsability (B) responsibality (C) responsibility (D) responsibly
2. The proper noun in the following is
(A) Kabir (B) market (C) army of soldiers (D) bravery
3. The masculine gender of the noun 'bee' is
(A) drone (B) fly (C) drake (D) bee
4. John has hatred for swimming. The abstract noun is
(A) John (B) for (C) swim (D) hatred
5. The correct collective noun in the following is
(A) a pride of peacocks (B) a flock of peacocks (C) a herd of peacocks (D) a colony of peacocks
6. The noun 'parliament' means
(A) a cultural body in any country (B) a religious body in any country
(C) an entertaining body in any country (D) a legislative body in any country
7. The proper noun in the sentence is
(A) seed (B) table (C) deer (D) Kanpur
8. The collective noun 'choir' means
(A) a group of singers (B) a group of ladies (C) a group of ants (D) a group of birds
9. The feminine form of the noun 'monk' is
(A) friar (B) lady (C) woman (D) nun
10. The noun form of the verb 'dine' is
(A) dinely (B) dinner (C) dining (D) dineless

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11. The collective noun for lion is
(A) a herd of lions (B) a pack of lions (C) a pride of lions (D) a heal of lions
12. The feminine form of the noun 'lord' is
(A) lady (B) lordess (C) lordy (D) sister
13. The abstract noun of 'Dangerous' is
(A) danger (B) dangerly (C) dangerousness (D) dangerful
14. The correct sentence is
(A) Whose books are these? (B) Who books are these?
(C) Whom books are these? (D) Where books are these?
15. The meaning of 'pharmacy' is
(A) a kids store (B) a fancy store (C) a drug store (D) a pet store
16. The feminine gender of horse is
(A) colt (B) mare (C) filly (D) stag
17. The plural form of mouse is
(A) mice (B) mouses (C) mices (D) mouse
18. The antonym of the abstract noun 'gloomy' is
(A) cheerly (B) cheerful (C) cherish (D) cheers
19. The collective noun of 'thieves' is
(A) a swarm of thieves. (B) a team of thieves. (C) a den of thieves. (D) a spring of thieves.
20. Neuter gender in the following is
(A) child (B) teacher (C) computer (D) poetess

Direction : Write the correct form of pronoun in the following :
1. They scored as many marks as _________ [They, Them]
2. Can you dance as well as _________ ? [They, them]
3. Let you and _________ try what we can do. [I, me]
4. Wait for Tarry and _________. [I, me]
5. Nobody but _________ was present. [he, him]
6. Whom can I trust, if not _________ ? [He, him]
7. Raman drives the car as well as _________. [I, me]
8. It was _________ that gave you the money. [he, him]
9. None is so blind as they that will not see. [ they, them]
10. They are not so fortunate as _________. [we, us]
11. Goldy is as strong as _________. [I, me]
12. He is the man _________ wallet was stolen by the thieves. [whose, whom]
13. The player _________ scores the most runs shall be praised. [whom, who]
14. It is known to all as to _________ you mean. [what, that]
15. I invited my friend to my house, _________ is near Jain Temple. [which, that]
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any,
will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
16. Let your mother / and myself serve / food for you.
(A) (B) (C)
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17. Offer the chocolates to / whoever comes to the door and / mentions whom sent them.
(A) (B) (C)
18. We are ordered to fire over the / head of whoever tries to cross the river. Balram Singh /
(A) (B)
and me will try to get at the position from the rear.
19. Her and I often / went to the / films together.
(A) (B) (C)
20. Don’t you realize / that Mr. Sharma is richer / than your and me ?
(A) (B) (C)

Direction : Supply suitable adjectives :
1. He was listened to in _________ silence.
2. He was a man of _________ambition.
3. Every cloud has a_________ lining.
4. _________ errors are not easily corrected.
5. He always walks with a _________ step.
6. I have no _________ cash.
7. Nelson won for himself _________ fame.
8. He stands _________ feet in his stockings.
9. An _________ man will not reason calmly.
10. There were riots in _________ places.
11. _________ anxiety has undermined his health.
12. Have you any _________ reason to give?
13. The _________bird catches the worm.
14. India expects _________ man to do his duty.
15. You cannot have it _________ ways.
16. The injured man wants _________ advice.
17. His reading is of a very _________ range.
18. Here is Rs. 50 ; pay the fare and keep the _________money.
19. The _________tidings were a heavy blow to the old man.
20. It is a _________ lie.

Direction : Underline the adverbs and tell their kinds.
1. He usually gets up late. ____________________________
2. Come as early as possible. ____________________________
3. I hurt my knee yesterday. ____________________________
4. I have spoken to him already. ____________________________
5. The end soon came. ____________________________
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6. He looked up. ____________________________
7. Surely you are mistaken. ____________________________
8. She sings delightfully. ____________________________
9. Don’t go far. ____________________________
10. He is far better now. ____________________________
11. I do not know him. ____________________________
12. He seldom comes here. ____________________________
13. I am fully prepared. ____________________________
14. Slowly and sadly we laid him down. ____________________________
15. We shall now begin to work. ____________________________

Direction : Find errors in the following:
16. He fought cowardly.
Ans. ___________________________________________
17. She spends money miserly.
Ans. ___________________________________________
18. He behaves weird.
Ans. ___________________________________________
19. Rahul lives princely.
Ans. ___________________________________________
20. He drives rash.
Ans. ___________________________________________

Direction : Fill in the blanks with appropriate Preposition.
1. I invited him ___________ the party.
2. Throw yourself ___________ the mercy of the Lord.
3. The cat jumped ___________ the table
4. Mom put the blanket ___________the child.
5. He has been known ___________me for a long time.
6. I always write ___________ a pen.
7. Which room do you sleep ___________?
8. I want a pen to write ___________.
9. There is a bridge ___________ the river.
10. He put a ladder ___________ the wall.
11. He leaned ___________ the desk.
12. Prop the bicycle ___________ the tree.
13. Richa has been waiting for the bus ___________ 8 o' clock.
14. She wrote all her answers ___________ black-ink.
15. We saw a lion while passing ___________ the forest.
16. Vandana met her aunt ___________ the railway station.

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17. Have you got any money ___________ you ?
18. My house is situated ___________ a temple.
19. He is not pleased ___________ me.
20. Joshi has been speaking ___________ an hour.

Direction : Fill in the blanks with appropriate determiners.
1. How __________ milk did he drink?
2. __________ of the students came out with flying colours.
3. Our garden looks awful this summer. There are too__________ weeds.
4. I didn’t ask about __________ student.
5. __________ experts say you should fertilize your lawn in the summer. But it didn’t seem to do my lawn
__________ good.
6. They say __________ knowledge is a dangerous thing.
7. But it does him __________ good when the whole system goes down.
8. He drank the __________ milk that was there in the glass.
9. Rahul lost the __________ friends he had.
10. I saw __________ one-eyed man.
11. I have __________ European friend.
12. I enjoyed __________ lunch held at the Crown Plaza.
13. __________ U.K. has ruled most of the countries of the world.
14. __________ Americans are hard working.
15. __________ Janshatabdi is about to arrive.
16. I sometimes go to __________ school of my son to review his progress.
17. He has developed intimacy with __________ Sharmas.
18. Have you got __________ books I sent by courier ?
19. __________ Pluto is the farthest from the sun.
20. __________ Hindu is an English daily.

Direction : Complete these sentences with suitable conjunctions.
1. I work hard _________ he idles away his time.
2. _________ you are a rich man, no one will object to you.
3. Giving up wrong pleasure is not self-sacrifice, _________ self - culture.
4. His ambition was inordinate, _________ he was jealous of every man of ability.
5. _________ we approached the house, we heard the sound of music.
6. _________ he but all of us are pursuing our studies diligently.
7. _________ you study, you will fail.
8. The employees work only _________ the boss is in the office.
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9. He is _________ stupid to understand this.
10. Pranav is _________ a good politician _________ a good doctor.
11. They would have attended the conference _________ the Mayor refused to pay him the fixed amount.
12. Do some more practice _________ your opponent will flat you down in the arena.
13. She was punished _________ she had lied to the teacher.
14. I would rather stay here _________ go out ?
15. I attended the seminar _________ I had been ill.

Direction : Join these sentences using appropriate conjunctions :
1. Pay the income tax well in time. Pay the penalty.
Ans. __________________________________________________
2. He is very frail. He cannot do it.
Ans. __________________________________________________
3. He is not so good. He should not be appreciated.
Ans. __________________________________________________
4. Maintenance of law and order is important. The crime graph will go up.
Ans. __________________________________________________
5. Books will not be issued to students. They produce their library card.
Ans. __________________________________________________

Direction : Choose the correct form of the verb from those given in the bracket.
1. I (will have finished, will finish) the work before you come back.
2. It started drizzling while we (played, were playing) cricket.
3. John will meet Sarah when he (will come, comes) back from work.
4. Harry (finished, has finished) his work just now.
5. Prabhat (is jogging, jogs) every morning.
6. The meeting began after the chief guest (arrived, had arrived).
7. As soon as he (finished, had finished) the book, he informed the publisher.
8. Prem told me that he (had decided, decided) to take the examination.
9. I wish I (work, worked) harder.
10. His brother is always (troubling, troubles) me.
Direction : Rectify the errors in the given sentences and rewrite the correct sentences :
1. Vicky has been staying in Kanpur from 2003.
2. Aditya left for Punjab before Madhu reached there.
3. Did you went there yesterday?
4. Karina has bought a new scooty last month.
5. You won’t succeed until you worked hard.
6. Have you been played cricket since morning?
7. She is going to done this work.
8. I will leave after you had come.
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9. He has been singing since two hours.
10. He will have went there by tomorrow.

DPP NO. 10
Direction : Change the following sentences from the Active Voice to the Passive Voice:
1. Sit and wait there.
Ans. _______________________________________________
2. Help me, please.
Ans. _______________________________________________
3. Do they invite you to their parties?
Ans. _______________________________________________
4. Did he read a book?
Ans. _______________________________________________
5. Shall I ever forget those happy days?
Ans. _______________________________________________
6. Was he not selling his books?
Ans. _______________________________________________
7. She listened to me.
Ans. _______________________________________________
8. Was John plucking flowers?
Ans. _______________________________________________
9. Do it.
Ans. _______________________________________________
10. Bring me a glass of water.
Ans. _______________________________________________
11. The rose smells sweet.
Ans. _______________________________________________
12. One should speak the truth.
Ans. _______________________________________________
13. Why did the teacher punish you?
Ans. _______________________________________________
14. Somebody snatched my pen.
Ans. _______________________________________________
15. The hunter wants to kill the lion.
Ans. _______________________________________________
16. Who broke the table?
Ans. _______________________________________________
17. Women like men to adore them.
Ans. _______________________________________________
18. We do not know him.
Ans. _______________________________________________
19. Who has done this mischief?
Ans. _______________________________________________
20. Why was the teacher scolding you?
Ans. _______________________________________________
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DPP NO. 11
Direction : Change the following sentences into Indirect Speech:
1. He said to me, “I have never been to Delhi.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
2. Seema said to me, “ I don’t like ice-cream.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
3. “You have spoken the truth’’ , he said to me.
Ans. _________________________________________________
4. I shall say to mother, “Your sister is ill.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
5. Sita will say to Ram, “You will help me in my work.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
6. He said to the driver, “you killed a dog.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
7. Manish said, “I must leave for home immediately.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
8. She said to me, “I did not have tea today”
Ans. _________________________________________________
9. She said, “ I have tolerated you for too long.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
10. My father said, “The sun rises in the east.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
11. I said to Anand, “May you always be happy !”
Ans. _________________________________________________
12. They said, “Long live our Prime Minister!”
Ans. _________________________________________________
13. Govind said to me, “May God bless you with long life!”
Ans. _________________________________________________
14. Stela said to me, “Good morning!”
Ans. _________________________________________________
15. Rakesh said to his friend, “When do you go to school ?
Ans. _________________________________________________
16. My father said to me, “Go to bed.”
Ans. _________________________________________________
17. My boss said to me, “Are you happy with your new job ?”
Ans. _________________________________________________
18. She said to me, “ Wow, what a nice car!”
Ans. _________________________________________________
19. He said to me, “Where are you going ?”
Ans. _________________________________________________
20. Sohan said to you, “I think Mohan is right.”
Ans. _________________________________________________

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DPP NO. 12
Direction : Fill in the blanks with Modal Auxiliaries.
1. We __________ to respect our teachers.
2. You __________ not drive fast on crowded roads.
3. He prayed that God __________ bless me.
4. If she were a doctor, she __________ treat you.
5. He is working hard so that he __________ get good marks.
6. __________ I get you food ?
7. Rakesh lives next door to you, you __________ know him.
8. One __________ be honest.
9. __________ she come by bus ?
10. __________ you please help me ?
11. He __________ have caught the bus if he had hurried.
12. __________ I help you to pack ?
13. You__________ do it again.
14. This is a wonderful book. You __________ read it.
15. Bharti __________ be cheerful before her marriage.
16. She is not __________ understand French.
17. __________ we leave ?
18. Seema __________ help her old mother.
19. You __________ go to Jaipur.
20. He __________ play cricket when he was in college.

DPP NO. 13
Direction : Fill in the blanks :
1. More books than one ___________ been stolen. (has/have)
2. More than one accident ___________ occured in this place. (has/have)
3. He is one of the students who ___________ the class. (disturb/disturbs)
4. The Arabian Nights ___________ my favourite book. (is/am/are)
5. A number of students ___________ using unfair means during exams. (was/were)
6. George, and not his sister ___________ punished for cheating during the exam. (was/were)
7. Two and two___________ four. (make/makes)
8. Not only my friends but also my brother ___________ selected for the show. (was/were)
9. Neither of the brothers ___________ contacted me so far. (has/have)
10. The number of viewers watching Reality Shows on TV ___________ on the rise. (is/am/are)
11. One of my intimate friends ___________ going there. (was/were)
12. My strength ___________ you. (is/am/are)
13. It’s I who ___________ in love with you. (is/am/are)

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14. It’s she who ___________ it. (do/does)
15. Was it you who ___________ making a noise ? (was/were)
16. Rahul and not his friends ___________ to music. (listen/listens)
17. The professor and writer ___________ coming to motivate the students. (is/am/are)
18. The politician and the writer ___________ been invited. (has/have)
19. He as well as I ___________ teaching at Resonance. (is/am/are)
20. He as well as his brothers ___________ involved in this matter. (is/am/are)

DPP NO. 14
Direction : Mark the correct answer.
1. The waves are high
(A) unless the sea is stormy. (B) if the sea is stormy.
(C) so that the sea is stormy. (D) else the sea is stormy.
2. I would have succeeded as a singer
(A) so that I had training in classical music. (B) if I had trained in classical music.
(C) until I had training in classical music. (D) therefore I had training in classical music.
3. Mother will not let us watch the movie
(A) so that we finish our homework. (B) unless we finish our homework.
(C) therefore we finish our homework. (D) if we finish our homework.
4. I will take my credit card
(A) whereas we don't run out of money. (B) if we don't run out of money.
(C) as long as we don't run out of money. (D) so that we don't run out of money.
5. I would have called Sonia to the party
(A) so that I had her new contact number. (B) provided I had her new contact number.
(C) unless I had her new contact number. (D) even if I had her new contact number.
6. Crime in NCR is increasing
(A) even though the police department is on high alert.
(B) if the police department is on high alert.
(C) as long as the police department is on high alert.
(D) because the police department is on high alert.
7. The cat crosses the road
(A) whenever the lady comes out of the house. (B) whereas the lady comes out of the house.
(C) so that the lady comes out of the house. (D) unless the lady comes out of the house.
8. I would come with you to watch the movie
(A) even if I felt better. (B) if I felt better.
(C) because I felt better. (D) as much as I felt better.
9. My daughter falls sick
(A) therefore she eats too much chocolate. (B) so that she eats too much chocolate.
(C) if she eats too much chocolate. (D) provided she eats too much chocolate.
10. It is better to call the doctor
(A) in case of any emergency. (B) unless any emergency.
(C) provided any emergency. (D) even if any emergency.
11. I would like to work here
(A) provided they offer me a handsome salary. (B) whenever they offer me a handsome salary.
(C) whereas they offer me a handsome salary. (D) unless they offer me a handsome salary.

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12. The strike will be successful
(A) as soon as we all stay united. (B) as long as we all stay united.
(C) whereas we all stay united. (D) so that we all stay united.
13. We will need more staff
(A) either we start a new project. (B) whereas we start a new project.
(C) in case we start a new project. (D) unless we start a new project.
14. We caught the train
(A) unless we reached the station. (B) even if we reached the station.
(C) as soon as we reached the station. (D) if we reached the station.
15. She was not able to give the answer
(A) as soon as she had been a teacher for years.
(B) either she had been a teacher for years.
(C) although she had been a teacher for years.
(D) because she had been a teacher for years.
16. Parul will not come to the party
(A) would have her father permits her. (B) even if her father permits her.
(C) even her father permits her. (D) when if her father permits her.
17. Akshay joined the gym
(A) so that he could reduce his weight. (B) provided he could reduce his weight.
(C) as long as he could reduce his weight. (D) if he could reduce his weight.
18. The players cannot be ordered to practice
(A) because the coach permits. (B) so that the coach permits.
(C) if the coach permits. (D) unless the coach permits.
19. I can get more profit
(A) even if I invest in this business. (B) because I invest in this business.
(C) if I invest in this business. (D) so that I invest in this business.
20. You might suffer from stomach ulcer
(A) so that you remain hungry for such a long duration.
(B) if you remained hungry for such a long duration.
(C) unless you remain hungry for such a long duration.
(D) even if you remain hungry for such a long duration.

DPP NO. 15
Direction : In the space before each group of words, mark P if it is a phrase, D if it is a dependent clause
and I if it is an independent clause.
1. Over my head______
2. Because I was afraid______
3. I didn’t get very much sleep______
4. That night______
5. I knew what happened______
6. So that I could get some rest______
7. I heard the cat’s meow______
8. Sitting by the broken plate licking the crumbs______
9. When I finally got up______
10. I got so tired______

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Direction : There is an error in the following sentences. Rewrite them correctly.
1. She told me which she would be delighted to come.
2. Pay careful attention to whom I am going to say.
3. I went to see which had happened.
4. Which you should cheat me, hurts me.
5. I don’t know which I can get out of this mess.
6. I don’t know whose he wants.
7. I thought whom she would arrive tomorrow.
8. He asked me unless I knew his name.
9. I want to know whom she is angry with me.
10. I often wonder whose he is getting on.

DPP NO. 16
Direction : In the following questions four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase which is bold in the
sentence. Choose the one that presses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase:
1. His most trusted friend proved to be a snake in the grass.
(A) an unreliable person (B) a hidden enemy
(C) low and mean (D) cowardly and brutal
2. The captors of the kidnapped kept his family on tenter-hooks.
(A) in anxious suspense (B) on constant move
(C) in seething anger (D) in excited wait
3. I have come to know of your hole-and-corner methods of dealing with people.
(A) suspicious (B) secret (C) servile (D) strict
4. They are sure to steal a march upon their competitors.
(A) outshine (B) defy (C) challenge (D) resist
5. Despite being under debt, Rohit still keeps a good table.
(A) keeps up an outward show of prosperity
(B) entertains his guests sumptuously
(C) helps his friends with money
(D) is lively and gay when his friends call
6. The authorities took him to task for his negligence.
(A) gave him additional work (B) suspended his assignment
(C) forced him to resign (D) reprimanded him
7. I am sure they will fight tooth and nail for their rights.
(A) with all their rights (B) with all their mights
(C) without any weapon (D) very cowardly
8. The detective left no stone unturned to trace the culprit.
(A) took no pains (B) did very irrelevant things
(C) restored to illegitimate practices (D) used all available means
9. A golden handshake is a payment ..............
(A) received as an inducement to leave job.
(B) received in advance for a new job.
(C) received as a bribe in return of a favour.
(D) received as a prize.

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10. Harassed by repeated acts of injustice, he decided to put his foot down.
(A) not to yield (B) resign (C) withdraw (D) none of these
11. Harshad Mehta could be easily arrested because the police were tipped off in advance.
(A) bribed (B) cautioned
(C) given advance information (D) threatened
12. You cannot have your cake and eat it too.
(A) enjoy for ever (B) enjoy without payment
(C) cannot have it both ways (D) absolve yourself of guilt
13. In the beginning of his career, he was practically rolling in money.
(A) wasting a lot of money (B) spending more than his earnings
(C) very rich (D) saving lot of money
14. Those were only crocodile tears.
(A) pretended sadness (B) a weeping sign
(C) mild regret (D) very gloomy
15. He was murdered in cold blood.
(A) coolly (B) nicely
(C) unfeelingly (D) thoughtlessly
16. The students were in the blues when they heard that the examination would not be postponed after all
(A) cheerless and depressed (B) violent and angry
(C) wearing blue badges (D) singing sad songs
17. Making a mountain out of a mole hill
(A) mountains make molehills (B) climbing a mountain to find a molehill
(C) finding things very difficult (D) fussing too much over a small problem
18. The captain played with determination because the honour of the team was at stake.
(A) at the top (B) in danger (C) very low (D) appropriate
19. The inspector was caught red handed.
(A) quickly (B) caught in the act of commiting the crime
(C) caught with dirty hands (D) found with hands tied
20. She cut a sad figure in her first performance on the stage.
(A) made a sorry figure (B) cut a sorry face
(C) did not do well (D) performed a sad role

DPP NO. 17
Direction : Tick the correct alternative.
1. Mr. Sharma has put in for the post of a teacher.
(A) applied for (B) served (C) recommended (D) selected
2. The Secretary has put forward the idea that the staff should work on Saturday.
(A) accepted (B) suggested (C) rejected (D) requested
3. I am afraid you will have to put up with this condition.
(A) fight (B) bear (C) watch (D) remove
4. Sarthak put across the point yesterday.
(A) ignored (B) repeated (C) communicated (D) successfully
5. Mohan did not put by much.
(A) save (B) offer (C) plan (D) need
6. You must put down everything .
(A) leave (B) forget (C) write down (D) lie down

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7. The patient died because of the doctor‘s negligence but the docter escaped punishment.
(A) did away with it (B) went along with it (C) got away with it (D) run away with it.
8. You must give back your uniform when you leave the army.
(A) turn in (B) turn up (C) turn down (D) put up
9. I shall support you through thick and thin.
(A) stand for (B) stand by (C) depend on (D) turn in
10. You will have to compensate the loss.
(A) make for (B) make up (C) stand for (D) give up
11. He has promised to investigate the matter.
(A) go into (B) look out (C) make out (D) find out
12. Don’t forget to _________ the light.
(A) turn up (B) turn off (C) turn in (D) turn away
13. Could you _________ the gas so that I can light the fire.
(A) turn in (B) turn on (C) turn up (D) turn down
14. The factory _________ five hundred pieces a month.
(A) turns on (B) turns away (C) turns out (D) turns off
15. The business _________ two crore per year.
(A) turns over (B) turns up (C) turns back (D) turns on
16. The candidates _________ for the interview.
(A) turned over (B) turned up (C) turned out (D) turned down
17. Fire _________ in the market.
(A) broke away (B) broke out (C) broke down (D) broke up
18. The government is _________ a new legislation to curb hoarding.
(A) bringing in (B) bringing out (C) bringing up (D) bringing on
19. The orders must be _________ at once.
(A) carried in (B) carried over (C) carried forward (D) carried out
20. Even if it rains I shall not _________ my journey.
(A) put away (B) put off (C) put out (D) put by

DPP NO. 18
Direction : Write the past and past participle forms of the following verbs.
Base Form Past From Past participle From
1. Lie _________ _________
2. Light _________ _________
3. Lose _________ _________
4. Behold _________ _________
5. Bend _________ _________
6. Buy _________ _________
7. Cast _________ _________
8. Sink _________ _________
9. Sit _________ _________
10. Upset _________ _________

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Direction : Change the verb into the past simple
1. I________ (hear) a new song on the radio.
2. I ________ (read) three books last week.
3. They ________ (speak) French to the waitress.
4. He ________ (understand) during the class, but now he doesn't understand.
5. I ________ (forget) to buy some milk.
6. She ________ (have) a baby in June.
7. You ________ (lose) your keys last week.
8. They ________ (swim) 500m.
9. I ________ (give) my mother a CD for Christmas.
10. At the age of 23, she ________ (become) a doctor.

DPP NO. 19
Directions : Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.
(A) cherish (B) detest (C) prize (D) reject (E) caress
(A) blossom (B) fizzle (C) dishonor (D) flourish (E) omit
(A) discard (B) surrender (C) oppose (D) approve (E) sanction
(A) elementary (B) modern (C) juvenile (D) withering (E) infant
(A) invoke (B) insult (C) aggravate (D) encourage (E) soothe
(A) cruel (B) steadfast (C) careless (D) fickle (E) loyal
(A) activate (B) cede (C) hasten (D) reduce (E) retreat
(A) daring (B) peaceful (C) hopeful (D) violent (E) useless
(A) disqualified (B) undesirable (C) proper (D) clumsy (E) suitable
(A) vivid (B) convenient (C) dangerous (D) secure (E) risky
Direction : In each of the following sentences replace the underlined word with another word that means
the same. Choose your answers from the given options.
(insensitive, commencement, at odds, crippled, unnoticeable, unruly, unjustifiable, provoked, suspicious, inconclu-
1. Memorial Day marks the inception of summer for most people.
2. A leg injury incapacitated the athlete for the season.
3. She gave me an incredulous glance.
4. The result of the race was indecisive and we had to run it again.

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5. Your purchase of a mink coat was an indefensible waste of money.
6. The dictator’s cruel decree incited the people to open rebellion.
7. That raucous voice is incompatible with her fragile looks.
8. It was inconsiderate of him to play the music so loud.
9. The film star preferred to remain inconspicuous by wearing a very simple outfit.
10. The incorrigible boy was in and out of reform school for years.

DPP NO. 20
Direction : Tick the correct alternative.
1. One who walks in one's sleep.
(A) dreamer (B) somnambulist (C) neomatic (D) ignorant
2. A person suffering from nervous breakdown.
(A) eccentric (B) neurotic (C) lunatic (D) mongrel
3. A book or paper written by hand.
(A) handwritten (B) manuscript (C) edition (D) draft
4. Unable to pay one's debt.
(A) beggar (B) insolvent (C) poor (D) borrower
5. Born of unmarried parents.
(A) legitimate (B) illegitimate (C) orphan (D) adopted
6. An instrument for measuring the force of the wind.
(A) manometer (B) micrometer (C) telescope (D) anemometer
7. A person's first speech.
(A) maiden (B) extempore (C) opener (D) preface
8. A decision on which all are agreed.
(A) anonymous (B) unanimous (C) obsolete (D) confession
9. One for whom the whole world is one home.
(A) cosmopolitan (B) humanitarian (C) international (D) tourist
10. A job without salary.
(A) free service (B) honorary (C) voluntary (D) amateur
11. A cure for all diseases.
(A) panacea (B) cure (C) antibiotic (D) remedy
12. The study of birds
(A) ornithology (B) philology (C) orology (D) geology
13. An insect with many legs is called
(A) centipede (B) mammal (C) herbivorous (D) vertebrate
14. A disease which ends in death.
(A) fatal (B) cancer (C) lifesucking (D) deadly
15. That which can be carried.
(A) portable (B) edible (C) potable (D) bearable
16. A person who tries to deceive people by claiming to be able to do wonderful things
(A) Trickster (B) Imposter (C) Magician (D) Mountebank
17. A dramatic performance
(A) Mask (B) Mosque (C) Masque (D) Mascot

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18. One who does not marry, especially as a religious obligation
(A) Bachelor (B) Celibate (C) Vigin (D) Recluse
19. That which is perceptible by touch is
(A) Contagious (B) Contingent (C) Tenacious (D) Tangible
20. Very pleasing to eat
(A) Appetising (B) Palatable (C) Tantalising (D) Sumptuous

DPP NO. 21
Direction : Differentiate between the following words.
1. Overdo _________________________________________________________________________
Overdue _________________________________________________________________________
2. Perspective _________________________________________________________________________
Prospective _________________________________________________________________________
3. Supposedly _________________________________________________________________________
Supposably _________________________________________________________________________
4. Torpid _________________________________________________________________________
Turgid _________________________________________________________________________
5. Vicious _________________________________________________________________________
Viscous _________________________________________________________________________
6. Wave _________________________________________________________________________
Waive _________________________________________________________________________
7. Desert _________________________________________________________________________
Dessert _________________________________________________________________________
8. Device _________________________________________________________________________
Devise _________________________________________________________________________
9. Divers _________________________________________________________________________
Diverse _________________________________________________________________________
10. Aid _________________________________________________________________________
Aide _________________________________________________________________________

Direction : Tick the correct alternative.
1. I’m tired, so I’m going to sleep late in the morning__________, tomorrow is a holiday.
(A) Beside (B) Besides
2. If you__________up straight, you will have less back and neck pain.
(A) set (B) sit
3. Many medications have other__________besides the intended one.
(A) affects (B) effects
4. The cloth __________over the table, and then set the vase of flowers on it.
(A) Lay (B) Lie
5. My great-grand parents__________ from Ireland in the 1840s.
(A) emigrated (B) immigrated
6. Tens of thousands of people in Sub-Saharan Africa are__________of AIDS.
(A) dyeing (B) dying
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7. In a wedding ceremony the bridesmaids the bride__________ down the aisle.
(A) precede (B) proceed
8. Luis has come up with a good__________for our group presentation.
(A) idea (B) ideal
9. From the gloomy way the sky looked, we __________that we would have to cancel the picnic.
(A) implied (B) inferred
10. He has been the acting head of the company, but today he was__________given the title of company
(A) formally (B) formerly

DPP NO. 22
Direction : Tick mark the correct answer :-
1. With open arms
(A) Warmly (B) Cold blooded (C) Resemble (D) Coldly
2. By leaps and bounds
(A) very fast (B) very slow (C) in details (D) aimlessly
3. Lions share
(A) look angrily (B) major share (C) minor share (D) heart of the prey
4. To cry wolf
(A) To refer to (B) To emphasise (C) To have no result (D) To give false alarm
5. Out of question
(A) Resemble (B) Easy (C) Impossible (D) For the end
6. A hard nut to crack
(A) To be deceived (B) Lazy (C) To confirm (D) A difficult problem
7. Every trick in the book
(A) Nothing Happening (B) Be optomistic
(C) Try every possible way (D) Forgive someone
8. A black sheep
(A) Stranger (B) On the run
(C) Scoundrel (D) Gentleman
9. A turn coat
(A) One who changes one’s opinion or party (B) A wet coat
(C) A poor man (D) Man of principal
10. Bag and baggage
(A) All the clothing (B) Without any belonging
(C) Leave (D) With all one’s belongings
11. To end in smoke
(A) To come to nothing (B) To gain importance
(C) To praise oneself (D) To reach target
12. At arm’s length
(A) Length of arm (B) At a distance (C) Insult (D) Very near
13. Get rid of
(A) Invite somenone (B) Attend an occasion
(C) To begin to do something (D) Dispose of
14. Tie the knot
(A) To get married (B) To get educated (C) To hit someone (D) To be turned away

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15. At daggers drawn
(A) real cause (B) to be puzzled (C) at enmity (D) at friendship
16. Up to the mark
(A) Feel greatly (B) Standard (C) Extinguish (D) Below standard
17. Lean and mean
(A) To destroy something (B) To create something
(C) Using only what is necessary (D) Not afraid dangerous situations
18. All and Sundry
(A) Everybody without distinction (B) only rich person
(C) together (D) selected people
19. A cock and bull story
(A) Interesting story (B) A detective story (C) An absurd tale (D) A relevant story
20. A bone of contention
(A) Bone of lion (B) A reason for discord (C) Cause of friendship (D) Continued to bed

DPP NO. 23
Direction : Spot the errors in the following sentences.
1. His mouth watered / when he saw / a bouquet of grapes / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. My brother-in-laws / who live in Bombay / have come to stay with us / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. The customer handed over / a hundred-rupees note / to the shopkeeper / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. The blinds / deserve / our sympathy / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. They have / placed order / for books / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. The flock of lions / roamed about / fearlessly in the jungle / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7. A trained gang of sailors / was employed / on the ship / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8. The sound of / a gun shot / scattered the flock of birds / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. The interviewer asked the candidate / to what district / he came from / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10. The ruling party stood / for implementation of the Bill / and was ready to stake their political
(A) (B) (C)
existence / No error.
11. This is the boy / whom I think had won / the gold medal in the Dance competition / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12. He is / taller / than me / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. You must either tell me / the whole story or, at least / the first half of it / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

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14. The old woman has had the best medical facilities available / but she will not be cured / unless she does not
(A) (B)
have a strong desire to live / No error.
(C) (D)
15. My book has been / missing from my room / till yesterday / No error.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. Kolkata is further / from Alwar / than Jaipur / the Capital of Rajasthan / No Error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
17. Ramesh is smarter / enough to get / selected for this / post, without any recommendations. / No Error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
18. He said, “Priyanka / is the most unique / singer of / our college. / No Error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
19. This shirt is / comparatively better / than that / we saw in corner shop yesterday / No Error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
20. Everyone was surprised to note / that Rahim married a girl / who was more beautiful and more tall / than he.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
/ No Error

DPP NO. 24

1. What jobs did Hans Wolf and Jim Macpherson have when they were not soldiers?
2. Which war does the story talk about?
3. Which was Hans Wolf's favourite book?
4. What was Jim ashamed of?
5. Why was the narrator unable to sleep, having read Jim's letter to Connie?

1. When did the cricket realise a change in his circumstances?
2. Why is the adjective 'gay' used to describe summer and spring?
3. Describe the sufferings of the cricket.
4. How different are the ant and the cricket from each other?

DPP NO. 25

1. How many times did Meghna see the relief helicopters?
2. To which place had Tilly and her family travelled to celebrate Christmas?
3. How did Tilly become aware of the upcoming calamity?
4. How was the fate of other tourists different from the tourists who were present on the Phuket beach?
5. Why does Almas Javed refuse to talk about the incident?

1. From a certain height a mile got reduced to…….inches.
2. Why did the city look haphazard on the ground?
3. What were the poets thoughts when he sees the city from the sky?
4. Discuss the tone of the poem.

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DPP NO. 26

1. What were the two conflicting views with which the Indians welcomed the British during the years 1757 and
2. Why had the Indians lost respect in the eyes of the British?
3. Ram Mohan Roy's concept of knowledge was very different from that of the traditional idea of knowledge in
the Indian scheme of things. Why?
4. Why did the Indian soldiers feel that they had lost their religion on account of the British?
5. Why did Tipu fight with the British till his last breath?

1. What is Macavity called?
2. Where Macavity could never be found?
3. How can one recognise Macavity?
4. What does the poet reveal about Macavity in the final stanza of the poem?

DPP NO. 27

1. Discuss a regular feature of Bepin Choudhury's Monday evenings.
2. According to Parimal Ghose he had arranged a car for Bepin Babu to travel to which place?
3. Why was Bepin Choudhury unable to consult his friend, Haridas Bagchi?
4. Why does Dr Chanda call Bepin Babu's case a peculiar case?
5. What role does Dinesh Mukherji play in the story?

1. Who all had the man encountered till the evening?
2. Did the man compromise?
3. Why did the man turn down the offers made by the kings, the old man and fair lady?
4. What do the sword, the gold and the smile of the fair lady signify?

DPP NO. 28

1. In which year did HPS Ahluwalia undertake the expedition to Everest?
2. Which was the most dominant emotion that he experiences on reaching the top?
3. According to Ahulwalia, why do people climb mountains.
4. Why does the author become sad on reaching the top of the mountain?
5. Why does HPS Ahulwalia compare climbing the mountain to a battle?

1. Why is the speaker of the poem unhappy?
2. What is the boy fond of doing?
3. What does the poet intend to convey through this poem?
4. Do, you think the boy is imaginative?

DPP NO. 29

1. Why was Penny proud of his son?
2. Penny Baxter was worried about how they would feed the fawn. What does Jody suggest?
3. Were Doc Wilson and Mill-wheel supportive of Jody's decision?
4. What excuse does Jody give to the Mill-wheel for not accompanying him?
5. Describe the meeting between Jody and the fawn.

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1. Why was the duck fascinated by the kangaroo?
2. What wee the Dee and Jelly Bo Lee?
3. What objection did the kangaroo raise?
4. What solution did the duck offer?

DPP NO. 30

1. Give the name of the book written by Stephen Hawking?
2. Why had the writer come to England?
3. What makes the writer feel stronger in weak times?
4. How does the writer overcome his depression over his disintegrated body?
5. Why does the writer's association with England change altogether by the time journey comes to an end?

1. What time of the day the poet set out on his journey?
2. How far was Lyonnesse?
3. Where was Lyonnesse?
4. What happened to the poet when he returned from Lyonnesse?

DPP NO. 31

1. In what form has the chapter been written?
2. Write two adjectives used to describe the early monsoon rain.
3. What is the colour of the minivets that arrive with the rains? How does the writer describe them?
4. Why was the writer unable to sleep on the night of 2nd August?
5. How does the writer get to know that the monsoon was coming to an end?

1. What happens to birds during summer?
2. Where do the birds hide to avoid the heat of the sun?
3. Discuss the common features between the grasshopper and the cricket?
4. Why does the poet believe that the poetry of earth is never dead?

DPP NO. 32

1. Why did Ernest wish to speak to the Great Stone Face?
2. From whom did Ernest's mother hear the story about the Great Stone Face?
3. Describe the immediate reaction of Ernest on hearing the story.
4. Write a note describing the appearance of Gathergold.
5. Why did Ernest and the other people leave their works on the day of the general's arrival?

DPP NO. 33

1. Which new character is introduced in the second part of the story?
2. Who all came to pay a visit to Ernest?
3. Whom does Ernest assume to be a likeness of the Great Stone Face? Does his assumption prove right?
4. Why does Ernest become sad on being introduced with the author of the book he used to read?
5. How different was the poet from Ernest's assumptions of the poet?

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(India) Private Limited CLASS – VIII (CBSE)

DPP NO. 01

x 3
1. Find (x + y)  (x – y) if y=
4 2
7 10 1 7
(A) (B) (C) – (D) –
5 3 2 5

2. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) Every point on the number line represents a rational number
(B) The product of a rational number and its reciprocal is 0.
–1 –1
(C) (17 × 12) = 17 × 12
(D) Reciprocal of , a  0 is a

3. Additive inverse of is ____.
3 1
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D) 0
4 4

4. Which of the following statement is false ?
(A) Every fraction is a rational number (B) Every rational number is a fraction
(C) Every integer is a rational number (D) All of these

5. What is the value of the fraction 1 + when written as a decimal ?
1 4
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.25 (C) 2.5 (D) 2.6

6. The last digit in the finite decimal representation of the number   is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

1 5
7. Sum of two rational numbers is . If one of the number is . The other is.
12 6
1 3 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4 4

28 14
8. The product of two rational numbers is . If one of them is find the other.
81 27
1 2 5 4
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
3 3 3 3

 3  21    10 
9.    (6)    is equal to
5 4  9 
(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 22

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1 3
10. The value of x satisfying the equation = is ________
1 4
(A) 2 (B) -2 (C) 3 (D)1

11. Verify that |x × y| = |x| × |y| by taking –
1 1 2 7 11 5 3 5
(1) x  ,y  (2) x  ,y  (3) x  ,y  (4) x  ,y 
2 3 3 2 2 121 5 3

12. Simplify and express the result as a rational number in the standard form.
7 7 1
(i)  (24) (ii) 
16  3 28

3 1
13. Find six rational numbers between and ?
8 2

14. Arrange the rational numbers in the descending order –
4 5 7 2 3 5 7 9 4 2 2 1
(i) , , , (ii) , , , (iii) 3 ,6 ,7 ,5
9 12  18  3  4 12 16 24 5 3 3 4

15. Verify that (x + y) + z = x + (y + z)
2 7 3 3 2 1
(i) x  ; y  ;z  (ii) x  ;y  ;z 
3 4 5 7 5 2
2 1 3 2 1 7
(iii) x  ;y  ;z  (iv) x  ;y  ;z 
7 5 4 9 3 9

DPP NO. 02

 27   x
1. If 1   = 1   , then x equals __ .
 169   13 
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7

2. The number of square numbers between 1000 and 2000 is :
(A) 44 (B) 25 (C) 13 (D) 10

3. Square root of 0.2025 is _____.
(A) 0.45 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.95 (D) 0.99

4. If 2401 = 7 x , then the value of x is ______ .
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

5. The Pythagorean triplet where one member is 14 __ .
(A) 14,48, 50 (B) 14, 15, 18 (C) 14,20, 30 (D) 14, 30, 50

6. Find the square root of 64009.
(A) 253 (B) 347 (C) 363 (D) 803

7. The greatest 3 digit number which is a Perfect square is :
(A) 729 (B) 927 (C) 961 (D) 972

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8. If 12  12  12  .......  = x, then the value of x is __ .
 
 
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) Greater than 6

9. 0.01  0.0064  ?
(A) 0.03 (B) 0.3
(C) 0.42 (D) None of these

81  256  39
10. The value of is
169 – 49 – 2
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2

11. Find the least number that must be subtracted from 5607 so as to get a perfect square. Also find the
square root of the perfect square.

12. Without adding, find the sum (1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 + 23).

13. Find the square root of 0.00088804.

14. A gardener has 1000 plants. Find the minimum number of plants he needs more to plant these in such
a way that the number of rows and the number of columns remain same.

15. The area of a square field is 80 sq. m. Find the length of each side of the field.

DPP NO. 03

1. The cube of 2 is :
8 27 7
(A) (B) (C) 18 (D) none of these
3 512 27

2. The length of each side of the cubical box is 2.4 m. Its volume is:
3 3
(A) 13.824 m (B) 14.824 m
3 3
(C) 16.934 m (D) 18.824 m

3. Choose the correct statement-
(A) Cubes of odd natural numbers are odd
(B) Cubes of even natural numbers are even
(C) Cubes of negative integers are negative
(D) All of the above

4. The number which is a perfect square as well as a perfect cube ?
(A) 4 (B) 64 (C) 125 (D) 343

5. Sum of digits of the smallest number by which 1440 be multiplied so that it becomes a perfect cube ?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
1/3 1/3
6. The value of {27 × (–2744) } is
(A) –40 (B) –42 (C) –22 (D) –32

7. If 72C is a perfect cube, then the value of C is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 9

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8. Which of the following numbers are cubes of rational numbers ?
27 125
, , 0.001331, 0.04
64 128
27 125
(A) , 0.001331 (B) (C) 0.04 (D) None of these
64 128
9. If (15625) = 3p + 1, then the value of p is.
(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 9

10. The largest four digit number which is a perfect cube, is :
(A) 8000 (B) 9261 (C) 9999 (D) None of these

11. Find the cube root of the following-
(i) 2744, (ii) 4913, (iii) 1728.

12. Three numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The sum of their cubes is 33957. Find the numbers.
13. The volume of a cube is 9261000 m . Find the side of the cube.

14. Find the cube root of the following –
(i) –2300 × 5290, (ii) . (iii) 1.331
 2197

15. Find the smallest number which when multiplied with 3600 will make the product a perfect cube.
Further, find the cube root of the product.

DPP NO. 04
2 2
1. The solution of (x + 4) – (x – 5) = 9 is ______.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

2. Two angles in a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 5. If the sum of these angles is equal to the third angle, then
the third angle is __ .
(A) 180° (B) 40° (C) 50° (D) 90°

x  6 x  3 5x  4
3. The value of x for which   is________.
4 5 8
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

2 3
4.   of a number when multiplied by of the same number make 338. The number is____.
3 4
(A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 26

5. If a + 2a + 3a + ..... + 1000a = 2b + 4b + 6b + .....+ 2000b = 3c + 6c + 9c + .....+ 3000c then a : b : c is
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 3 : 6 (D) 6 : 3 : 2

6. There were only two candidates in an election. One got 62% votes and was elected by a margin of 144
votes. The total number of voters were _.
(A) 500 (B) 600 (C) 700 (D) 800

7. You join a job. Your pay for the first day is Rs. 5 Each day after that your pay will be twice as much as it
was the day before. Your pay on the tenth will be
(A) Rs. 100 (B) Rs. 250 (C) Rs. 5120 (D) Rs. 2560

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1 3 1
8. If 3  3  12 , then the value of 'x' is
x 4 2
(A) 1 (B) (C) 2 (D) 3

9. In a school, there are 5 times as many boys as girls, and 6 times as many girls as teachers. If b,g,t
represent the boys, girls and teachers respectively the total number of boys, girls and teachers in the
school is
(A) 37 b (B) b (C) 30 g (D) 37g

10. When 75% of a number is added to 75, the result is the number again. The number is
(A) 150 (B) 300 (C) 100 (D) 450

Direction for (Q.11 and Q.12) : Find value of x

2x – 1 2x  1
Q.11 =
3x – 2 3x  2

x 2 – ( x  1)( x  2)
Q.12 =6
5x  1

Q.13 The numerator of a fraction is 6 less than the denominator. If 3 is added to the numerator, the fraction is
equal to . Find the original fraction.

Q.14 One number is three times another. If the larger number is subtracted from 60, the result is 5 less than
the smaller number subtracted from 55. Find the two numbers.

Q.15 Amit is 19 years younger than his father. After 5 years, their ages will be in the ratio 2 : 3. Find their present

DPP NO. 05

1. One angle of a quadrilateral is 150° and the other three angles are equal. Find the measure of other
three angles :
(A) 70° (B) 75° (C) 85° (D) 90°

2. Two adjacent sides AB and BC of a parallelogram ABCD are in the ratio of 5:3. If the perimeter is 200
cm, then the lengths of AB and BC are :
(A) 25 cm, 50 cm. (B) 40 cm, 37.50 cm. (C) 62.50 cm, 37.50 cm. (D) 60 cm, 62.50 cm.

3. In a quadrilateral ABCD, if AO and BO be the bisectors of A and B respectively, C = 70º and
D = 30º, then AOB is :
(A) 40º (B) 80º (C) 50º (D) 100º

4. The value of the variable x and y in the given kite are respectively :

(A) 5 and 9 (B) 9 and 5 (C) 5 and 7 (D) 7 and 5
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5. A car jack is shaped like rhombus. The sides of car jack are 17 cm long. When the horizontal distance
between the vertices is 30 cm, the vertical distance between the other two vertices is :

(A) 8cm (B)16cm (C) 23cm (D) 30 cm

6. The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, the angles are :
(A) 36°, 72°, 108°, 144° (B) 15°, 130°, 45°, 150°
(C) 45°, 110°, 55°, 150° (D) None of these

7. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD. If ADC = 2ABC, AD = a cm and CD = b cm, then the length
(in cm) of AB is :
a 2 2
(A) + 2b (B) a + b (C) a+b (D) a + b
2 3 3

8. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other at right angles, then it is a
(A) Trapezium (B) Parallelogram (C) Rectangle (D) Rhombus

9. The length of the diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm. The side of the rhombus is
(A) 10 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 9 m (D) 8 cm

10. If ABCD is a parallelogram with two adjacent angles A and B equal to each other, then the
parallelogram is a
(A) Rhombus (B) Trapezium (C) Rectangle (D) None of these

11. Find x + y + z + w shown in the following figure:

12. The perimeter of a parallelogram is 150 cm. One of its sides is greater than the other by 25 cm. Find
the length of the sides of the parallelogram.

13. If an angle of a parallelogram is two third of its adjacent angle, find the angles of the parallelogram.

14. In figure, ABCD is a kite whose diagonals intersect at O. If DAB = 44° and BCD = 86° :
Find : (i) ODA, (ii) OBC.




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15. Find the values of x, y and z in a parallelogram ABCD shown in the figure given below.

DPP NO. 06

1. A quadrilateral can be constructed if its three angles and _____ included sides are given.
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

2. Data about five parts of a quadrilateral in order to be sufficient must also satisfy triangle inequality and
_____ of a triangle, wherever applicable.
(A) Angle sum property (B) Exterior angle property
(C) Corresponding angle (D) alternate angle

3. In quadrilateral ABCD, if BC = 4 cm, AC = 12 cm, CD = 5 cm, AD = 8 cm. Then the quadrilateral can be
constructed if AB =
(A) 10 cm (B) 17 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 5 cm

4. To construct a quadrilateral, if 2 diagonals are given, then how many sides are required.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

5. A quadrilateral has :
(A) 4 sides, 4 angles and 2 diagonals (B) 3 sides, 2 angles and 1 diagonals
(C) 2 sides, 2 angles and 2 diagonals (D) 5 sides, 5 angle and 3 diagonals

6. A quadrilateral can be drawn if at least _____ parts are given.
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

7. Which of the following is true for constructing a quadrilateral.
(A) 5 sides and 3 diagonals (B) 3 sides only
(C) 3 angles and their 2 included sides (D) 2 diagonals only

8. To construct a quadrilateral, which is the necessary condition.
(A) Square inequality (B) Triangle inequality
(C) Angles sum property of a triangle (D) Both (B) and (C)

9. Given AB = 3 cm, BC = 5 cm, AC = 9 cm, AD = 6, CD = 2 cm which of the following is true about the
construction of a quadrilateral ?
(A) It is possible to draw the quadrilateral
(B) It is not possible to draw the quadrilateral since AD + DC < AC.
(C) It is possible to draw the quadrilateral since AD + CD < AC
(D) None of these

10. If AB = 5 cm, BC = 4 cm, B = 60° and opposite sides are equal is given, then which of the following
figure can be constructed ?
(A) Rectangle (B) Rhombus (C) Parallelogram (D) Square

11. Construct a square of side 4 cm.

12. Construct a rhombus CLUE in which CL = 7.5 cm and LE = 6 cm.
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13. Construct a quadrilateral BEAR in which BE = 6 cm, EA = 7 cm, RB = RE = 5 cm and BA = 9 cm.
Measure its fourth side.

14. Draw a circle of radius 3 cm and draw its diameter and label it as AC. Construct its perpendicular
bisector and let it intersect the circle at B and D. What type of quadrilateral is ABCD? Justify your

15. Is it possible to construct a quadrilateral ROAM in which RO=4 cm, OA = 5 cm, O = 120°,
R = 105° and A = 135°? If not, why?

DPP NO. 07
0 –1 2
1. The value of (3 + 4 ) × 2 is :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 5
4 –3
2. The value of 2 × 3 is :
27 16
(A) (B) (C) 8 × 27 (D) 27 × 16
16 27
3. The expression 61 × 61 × 61 × 61 × 61 can be written as :
4 5 3 2
(A) 61 (B) 61 (C) 61 (D) 61

4. The expression 3 × 3 × 35 × 35 can be written as :
2 3 2 2 3 2 3 3
(A) 3 × 35 (B) 3 × 35 (C) 3 × 35 (D) 3 × 35

2 (1) 20
5. (12 – 5 ) × equals :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) 2

4 4 3
1 1  1
6. The multiplicative inverse of          is :
 2 3  2
79 79 16 17
(A) (B)  (C) (D) 
17 16 79 79
7. Size of a plant cell is 0.00001275 m. Expressed in scientific notation in centimetres it is :
–5 –3 –7 –8
(A) 1.275 × 10 cm (B) 1.275 × 10 cm (C) 1.275 × 10 cm (D) 1.275 × 10 cm

5 6
6 5
8. Find the value of (0.000064)  (0.00032)
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 5 (D) 2.5

y x y
9. If x = 64, where y  1, find the sum of greatest possible value of and greatest possible value of .
y x
Where x and y are positive integer.
(A) (B) 7 (C) 67 (D) 4

1 1
10. The value of –m
+ is :
1 x 1 xm
(A) 2 (B) x (C) 1 (D) None of these

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11. Simplify and express the result in power notation with positive exponent.
2 4
5 8 1 4 5 –7 –10 –5
(i) (–4) ÷ (–4) (ii)  3 (iii) (–3) ×   (iv) (3 ÷ 3 )×3
2  3
–3 –3
(v) 2 × (–7)

12. In a stack there are 5 books each of thickness 20 mm and 5 paper sheets each of thickness 0.016 mm.
What is the total thickness of the stack.

13. Find x, so that-
3 4 2 x 1 3 4 2 x 1
2 2 2 3 3 3
(i)         (ii)        
5 5 5 2 2 2
–9 x x –8 –3
(iii) 3 ×3 =3 (iv) 4 × 4 =4
4 6 2x
  3   3 5 x –2 4 –3
(v)       (vi) 5 × 5 ×5 =5
 5   5  3
14. Find the value of 'a' in the following equation :
3 6 2 a –1 0
9  2 2 9 
 2  ×   =    2 
9  9
x +2 x
15. If 9 = 240 + 9 , then find the value of x.

DPP NO. 08

2 2 2 3
1. Find the value of the expression (81x + 16y – 72xy), when x = and y =
3 4
(A) 1 (B) 9 (C) (D) 3

2. (2a + 5b) × (a – 3b) = ?
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(A) 2a + ab + 15b (B) 2a + ab – 15b (C) 2a – ab – 15b (D) 2a – ab + 15b
2 2 2
3. The two adjacent sides of a rectangle are 5x – 2y and x + 2xy. Find the perimeter -
2 2 2 2
(A) 12x – 4y + xy (B) 12x – 4y – xy
2 2 2 2
(C) 12x – 4y – 8xy (D) 12x – 4y + 4xy

6 4 3 2 2
4. Divide (– x + 2x + 4x + 2x ) by 2 x
4 2 1
(A) – x + 2x + 4x + 2 (B)  x 4  2x 2  4 2x  2
1 1
(C)  x 4  2x 2  2 2x  2  (D)  x 4  2x 2  2 2x  2
2 2
4 2 2 4 4 2 2 4
5. By how much is a + 4a b + b more than a – 8a b + b -
2 2 2 2 4 4
(A) 12a b (B) –12a b (C) 2a + 2b (D) None

6. Coefficient of y in the term –y/3 is -
(A) – 1 (B) – 3 (C) 1/3 (D) -1/3
3 2
7. The value of (3x +9x + 27x) ÷ 3x is -
2 3 2 3 2 2
(A) x +9 + 27x (B) 3x +3x + 27x (C) 3x +9x + 9 (D) x + 3x + 9
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2 2
8. Common factor of 17abc, 34ab , 51a b is
2 2
(A) 17abc (B) 17ab (C) 17ac (D) 17a b c

9. Sum of a – b + ab, b + c – bc and c – a – ac is -
(A) 2c + ab – ac – bc (B) 2c – ab – ac – bc (C) 2c + ab + ac + bc (D) 2c – ab + ac + bc
2 2
10. The area of a rectangle is x + 12xy + 27y and its length is (x + 9y). Find the breadth of the rectangle.
(A) (3x – y) (B) (x + 3y) (C) (x – 3y) (D) (3x+y)
11. Subtract : –3p + 3pq + 3px from 3p (– p – a – r)
4 3 2 4 3 2
12. Add: 2p – 3p + p – 5p +7, –3p – 7p – 3p – p – 12

13. Verify: (ab + bc) (ab – bc) + (bc + ca) (bc – ca) + (ca + ab) (ca – ab) = 0
4 3 2 2
14. Divide : 25 x – 20x + 3x + 2 by 5x – 3x + 1 and find the quotient and remainder.
2 2
15. Subtract b (b + b – 7) + 5 from 3b – 8 and find the value of expression obtained for b = – 3.

DPP NO. 09

1 1
1. If x – = 6 then x2 + =
x x2
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

 1  2 1 
2. If  x   = 3, then  x  2  is equal to :
 x  x 
10 82
(A) (B) (C) 7 (D) 11
3 9

 1 1  2 4 
3. If  x   = , then  4 x  2  is equal to :
 x 2  x 
(A) 7 (B) –7 (C) 9 (D) –9

 1  4 1 
4. If  x   = 4, then  x  4  is equal to :
 x  x 
(A) 196 (B) 194 (C) 192 (D) 190

 2 1   1
5. If  x  2  = 102, the value of  x   is :
 x   x
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 13

 1   17   1
6. If x is an integer such that  x   =   , then the value of  x   is :
 x  4   x
13 15 1
(A) 4 (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4
7. On dividing 29x – 6x – 28 by 3x – 4, we get quotient :
(A) –2x + 7 (B) 2x – 7 (C) 2x + 7 (D) 2x
8. The factors of (x + 4) are :
2 2 2 2
(A) (x + 2) (B) (x + 2) (x – 2)
2 2
(C) (x + 2x + 2) (x – 2x + 2) (D) None of these
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9. Factorise : 2x + 13x+ 20
(A) (x + 4)(2x + 5) (B) (x – 4)(2x + 5) (C) (x + 4)(2x – 5) (D) (x – 4)(2x – 5)
2 2
10. Factorise : 8a – 22ab + 15b
(A) (4a + 5b)(2a – 3b) (B) (4a + 5b)(2a +3b) (C) (4a – 5b)(2a – 3b) (D) None of these

11. Show that
2 2 2 2
(i) (3x + 7) – 84x = (3x – 7) (ii) (9p – 5q) + 180pq = (9p + 5q)
4 3  16 2 9 2 2 2 2
(iii)  m  n   2mn  m  n (iv) (4pq + 3q) – (4pq – 3q) = 48pq
3 4  9 16
(v) (a – b) (a + b) + (b – c) (b + c) + (c – a) (c + a) = 0
3 2
12. If (x + 5) is a a factor of x + 2x – 14x + k, then find the value of k.
2 3
13. Divide 9x – 6x + x – 2 by (x – 2) and hence verify the division algorithm.
4a 2a 2b 4b 2a a b 2b
14. Divide: x +x y +y by x +x y +y

15. Factorise :
2 2 2 2 2 4 4
(i) 4x – 4xy + y – 9z (ii) 16 – x – 2xy – y (iii) x – (x – z)

DPP NO. 10
1. The area of a square is (49x + 28x + 4). Its side is :
(A) 7x + 3 (B) 7x – 2 (C) 7x + 2 (D) 5x + 7
2 2
2. If 9x + kxy + 16y be a perfect square, then k’ s value is :
(A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 32

3. If x = 10, then find the value of x2  4x  4
(A) 100 (B) 144 (C) 12 (D) 10
4. The factors of 5x – 19x + 12 are :
(A) (5x – 4) (x – 3) (B) (5x – 4) (x + 3) (C) (x+2) (5x – 1) (D) (5x – 6) (x – 1)
4 4
5. The factors of a – b will be -
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(A) (a – b ) (a + b ) (B) (a + b) (a – b )
2 2 2 2
(C) (a + b) (a – b) (a + b ) (D) (a + b) (a–b)

6. Which of the following is an identity?
2 2 2 2 2 2
(A) (p + q) = p + q (B) p – q = (p – q)
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(C) p – q = p + 2pq – q (D) (p + q) = p + 2pq + q

7. Factorised form of 23xy – 46x + 54y – 108 is
(A) (23x + 54) (y – 2) (B) (23x + 54y) (y – 2)
(C) (23xy + 54y) (– 46x – 108) (D) (23x + 54) (y + 2)
8. Factorised form of r – 10r + 21 is
(A) (r – 1) (r – 4) (B) (r – 7) (r – 3) (C) (r – 7) (r + 3) (D) (r + 7) (r + 3)

9. Factorised form of p2 – 17p – 38 is
(A) (p – 19) (p + 2) (B) (p – 19) (p – 2) (C) (p + 19) (p + 2) (D) (p + 19) (p – 2)
3 2
10. (x + x – 132x) ÷ x (x – 11)
(A) x (B) (x + 12) (C) (x – 11) (D) None of these

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11. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 2π (y – 7y + 12) and its radius is (y – 3). Find the height of the
cylinder (C.S.A. of cylinder = 2πrh).
2 2 2
12. Find the value of a, if pq a = (4pq + 3q) – (4pq – 3q)

1 3
13. Factorise x 2  2
 2  3x 
x x
4 4 2 2
14. Factorise p + q + p q .
2 2
15. If m – n = 16 and m + n = 400, then find mn.

DPP NO. 11

1. The salary of Ram is 30% more than that of Madan’s salary. By what percentage is Madan’s salary less
then that of Ram’s ?
1 1
(A) 30% (B) 23 % (C) 25% (D) 21 %
13 3

2. Ram’s salary was reduced by 50%. Again the reduced salary was increased by 50%. Then, what will be
the % loss in salary ?
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 35%

4 5
3. Total percentage by which of 70 less then of 112 :
5 7
(A) 42% (B) 30% (C) 24% (D) 36%

4. Mohan purchased 50 dozens of toys at the rate of Rs.384 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the
rate of Rs.36. What was his percentage profit ?
(A) 12% (B) 12.5% (C) 13% (D) 13.5%

5. I sold two watches for Rs. 300 each, one at 10% loss, and another at 10% profit. What is the loss
percentage or the profit percentage that resulted from the transaction ?
(A) (+) 10% (B) (–) 1% (C) (+) 1% (D) (–) 10%

6. If half of x is y and one-third of y is z then :
(A) z = 6% of x (B) z = 16.66% of x (C) z = 60% of x (D) z = 30% of x

7. Pradeep allows a cash discount of 20%. If he earns 40% profit on his own goods then by how much %
he should increase the price from his cost price :
(A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 75%

8. A dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price and uses an 880 gm weight instead of a kg. What is
his percentage of gain :
(A) 13.13% (B) 13.33% (C) 13.36% (D) 13.63%

9. 40% of 1640 + ? = 35% of 980 + 150% of 850
(A) 372 (B) 842 (C) 962 (D) 1052

10. 60% of 264 is the same as :
(A) 10% of 44 (B) 15% of 1056 (C) 30% of 132 (D) None of these

11. The C.P of 20 articles is equal to S.P. of 16 articles. Find the gain or loss percent.

12. Find a single discount equivalent to the discount series 25%, 20% and 20%.

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13. A student scores 40 marks in an examination and fails by 26 marks. If the passing percentage is 33
then find the maximum marks in the examination.

14. If a number x is 10% less than another number y and y is 10% more than 125, then find the value of x.

15. A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, then what will
be the profit percentage ?

DPP NO. 12

1. A sum invested for 2 years at the rate of 15% pa compounded annually fetches Rs.3225 as compound
interest, the sum is :
(A) Rs. 20000 (B) Rs.10000 (C) Rs. 4410 (D) None of the above

2. In a certain time a sum of Rs.125000 amounts to Rs.148877 at the rate of 6% pa compounded
annually. The time period is :
(A) 2 years1 (B) 3 years (C) 4 years1 (D) None of the above

3. Abhay lent Rs 8000 to his friend for 3 years at the rate of 5% per annum compound interest. What
amount does Abhay get after 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 8500 (B) Rs. 9200 (C) Rs 9261 (D) Rs 9561

4. Find the compound interest on Rs 1000 at the rate of 10% per annum for 18 months when interest is
compounded half-yearly.
(A) Rs 157.625 (B) Rs 167.625 (C) Rs 187.625 (D) Rs 197.625

5. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money at 10%
per annum for 2 years is Rs 500.Find the sum when the interest is compounded annually.
(A) Rs. 40000 (B) Rs. 50000 (C) Rs. 60000 (D) Rs. 70000

6. In what time will Rs 2000 amount to Rs 2420 at 20% per annum, interest being compounded half
(A) 5 years (B) 3 years (C) 1 year (D) 2 years

7. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 10240 in 2 years at 6 % per annum, compound annually the sum is:
(A) Rs. 9025 (B) Rs. 9000 (C) Rs. 9010 (D) Rs. 9015

8. The difference between C.I. and S.I. on a certain sum of money is Rs. 10 for 2 years at 12 % p.a.
The sum is :
(A) Rs. 125 (B) Rs. 250 (C) Rs. 400 (D) Rs. 640

9. Simple interest of Rs. 4 on Rs. 50 per quarterly, is same as :
(A) 16 % p.a. (B) 24 % p.a. (C) 32 % p.a. (D) 12 % p.a.
10. Compound interest is :
(A) Always greater than the simple interest (B) Always less then the simple interest
(C) Always equal to the simple interest (D) Always greater or equal to the simple interest

11. Ram Singh buys a refrigerator for Rs 4000 on credit. The rate of interest for the first year is 5% and of
the second year is 15% . How much will it cost him if he pays the amount after two years ?

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12. The population of a town 2 years ago was 62500. Due to migration to cities, it decreases every year at
the rate of 4% per annum. Find its present population.

13. In a factory the production of scooters rose to 48400 from 40000 in 2 years.
Find the rate of growth per annum.

14. Simple interest on a sum of money for 3 years at 6 % per annum is Rs 2400. What will be the
compound interest on that sum at the same rate for the same period ?

15. Vijay obtains a loan of Rs 64000 against his fixed deposits. If the rate of interest be 2.5 paise per rupee
per annum, calculate the compound interest payable after 3 years.

DPP NO. 13

1. The speed 48 m/sec. when converted into km/hr is :
(A) 172.8 km/hr (B) 175.8 km/hr (C) 1728 km/hr (D) 1758 km/hr

2. 12 labourers can construct a road in 20 days. Then 30 labourers can construct the same road in x days.
The value of x will be found from the proportion.
(A) 12 : 30 :: 20 : x (B) 30 : 12 :: 20 : x (C) 30 : 12 :: x : 20 (D) None of these

3. Two pipes M and N can fill a cistern in 24 min. and 32 min. respectively. If both the pipes are opened
together, then after how many minutes N should be closed so that the tank is full in 18 minutes ?
(A) 6 min. (B) 7 min. (C) 8 min. (D) 9 min.

4. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 kmph in the same direction in which the train is going, in
10 seconds. The speed of the train is :
(A) 45 km/hr (B) 50 km/hr (C) 54 km/hr (D) 55 km/hr

5. If 4 workers can dig 20 m long ditch in 6 days, find out the part dug by 2 workers in a day (in metre) ?
2 2 2 3
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D) 1
3 4 3 2

6. A, B and C can complete a work, working alone in 10, 15 and 20 days respectively. If all of them work
together to complete the work, what fraction of the work would have done by B?
4 1 1 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 2 3 13

7. If 20 men complete one-third of a piece of work in 20 days, how many more men should be employed
to finish the rest of the work in 25 days ?
(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 20 (D) 21

8. If the cost of 93 flowers pots is Rs.1395, find the cost of 105 such pots.
(A) Rs. 1500 (B) Rs, 1575 (C) Rs. 1650 (D) Rs. 1600

9. If a quarter kg of green chillies cost 60 paise, how many paise will 200 g cost ?
(A) 48 paise (B) 24 paise (C) 66 paise (D) 82 paise

10. A fort has enough food for 720 soldiers for 35 days. After 5 days 120 soldiers leave the fort, food will be
lasted for :
(A) 36 days (B) 30 days (C) 20 days (D) 40 days

11. A bag contains Rs.600 in the form of one-rupee, 50 paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 3 : 4 : 12. Find
the number of 25-paise coins.

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12. Two trains 350 m and 250 m long are going at 42 km and 30 km per hour respectively in opposite
direction. How long would it take them to pass each other?

13. The speed of a train, 125m long, is 45 km per hour . How much time will it take to pass a platform
625m long?

14. Two trains of length 220 m and 100 m are travelling on parallel lines in the same direction with speeds
46 km/h and 36 km/h. How long will it take the faster train to overtake the slower train? How long will it
take if the trains were moving in the opposite directions ?

15. 4 men or 7 boys can dig a tank in 15 days. How long would 2 men and 4 boys working together take to
dig the tank.

DPP NO. 14

Directions : 1 to 3 : Given below is a bar diagram showing the percentage of Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims in a
state during the year from 1992 to 1994 :

Study the graph and answer the following Questions

1. During which year was the Hindus percentage maximum :
(A) 1991 (B) 1992 (C) 1993 (D) 1994

2. What percentage was the increase in Muslim population from 1992 to 1994 :
(A) 10% (B) 100% (C) 200% (D) 20%

3. If the total population in 1994 is 2 millions, then the sikh population is :
(A) 1300000 (B) 130000 (C) 13000 (D) 13000000

4. A cricketer has a certain average run for 10 innings. In the 11 th inning, he scores 100 runs, and now
his average run is ,increased by 9 runs. Then average of 11 inning is :
(A) 10 runs (B) 20 runs (C) 11 runs (D) 21 runs

Directions : 5 and 6 : The circle graph given below shows the spending of a family on various items and its
saving during a year :

23% rs
15% C
Ed hild
uc ren
% g

1 2 a ti o
10 thin

Ho 15%

% n


Study the graph and answer the following Questions

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5. Out of a total income of Rs. 75000, the difference of the expenses on Housing and Transport was :
(A) Rs. 8500 (B) Rs. 7500
(C) Rs. 8200 (D) Rs. 6350

6. Out of a total income of Rs. 75000. The expenditure on food was more than that on clothing by :
(A) Rs. 8250 (B) Rs. 6750
(C) Rs. 9750 (D) Rs. 7350

Instructions (7 to 10)
The final marks in mathematics of 30 students are as follows :
53, 61, 48, 60, 78, 68, 55, 100, 67, 90, 75, 88, 77, 37, 84, 58, 60, 48, 62, 56, 44, 58, 52, 64, 98, 59, 70,
39, 50, 60
Now answer the following :

7. The highest score is :
(A) 98 (B) 95
(C) 99 (D) None of these

8. The lowest score is :
(A) 44 (B) 37
(C) 31 (D) 29

9. The range of data is :
(A) 61 (B) 62
(C) 63 (D) 64

10. If 40 is the pass marks how many have failed :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

11. The frequency distribution table for the height of 50 student class VIII are given. Based on the following
Heights (in cm) Tally Marks Frequency
150 – 155 12
155 – 160 9
160 – 165 14
165 – 170 10
170 – 175 5
Total 50

answer the following questions
(a) find the number of classes
(b) find class size
(c) class mark of 3 class
(d) how many student having height less than 160 cm.
(e) how many student having height more than or equal to 165 cm.
(f) In which group of height the number of students are maximum.

12. Draw frequency distribution table for the following observation 7, 25, 29, 15, 16, 22, 8, 12, 19, 2, 15, 12,
17, 5, 3, 6,22, 23, 29, 7, 5, 3, 8, 16, 12, 17, 18, 3, 2, 9 with class size 5.

13. If the mean of the following data is 18.75, find the value of p :
x 10 15 p 25 30

f 5 10 7 8 2

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14. Read the following pie chart and answer the questions that follow :

Tennis Table
30º Tennis
Cricket 80º

If the school spent Rs 72000 on sports,
(a) how much did they spend on cricket ?
(b) how much more was spent on table tennis than tennis ?
(c) how much did they spend on football ?

15. Fill in the blanks in the following data :
Item Angle Expenses
Clothing – 2800
Rent 90º –
Education – 1800
Food – 3600
Travel 65º –
Total 360º 14400

Item Students Angle
Bus 120 –
Cycle – 90º
Car – 40º
Van 240 –
Scooter – 50º
Total 720 360º

DPP NO. 15

1. Which of the following can not be the probability of any events.
1 4
(A) (B) 1 (C) 0 (D)
2 3

2. If probability of happening of any event A is 0.63 then what is the probability of not happening of A.
(A) 0.36 (B) 0.37 (C) 1 (D) 0

3. A bag contains 5 red, 2 black, and 3 green balls, find probability of getting Red or Green ball
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.8 (D) 0.3

4. Probability of getting a face card
12 3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 13 13 4

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5. If the odds in favour of an event be 3 : 5 then the probability of non-happening of the event is
3 5 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 3 8 8

6. In a single throw of two dice, the probability of getting sum more than 7 is
7 7 5 5
(A)  (B) (C) (D)
36 12 12 36

7. Two dice are thrown together. The probability that sum of the two numbers will be a multiple of 4 is
1 1 1 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 3 4 9

8. When two dice are thrown, the probability of getting a number always greater than 4 on the seconds
dice is.
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
6 3 36

9. In a school only 3 out of 5 students can participate in a competition. What is the probability of the
students who do not make it to the competition ?
(A) 0.65 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.45 (D) 0.6

10. Ram put some buttons on the table. There were 4 blue, 7 red, 3 black and 6 white buttons in all. Al of
the sudden, a cat jumped on the table and knocked out one button on the floor. What is the probability
that the button on the floor is blue ?
7 3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 5 5 4

11. 1500 families with 2 children were selected randomly and the following data were recorded :
Number of girlsina family 2 1 0
Number of families 475 814 211

Compute the probability of a family chosen at random, having
(i) 2 girls (ii) 1 girl (iii) no girl.
Also, check whether the sum of these probabilities is 1.

12. Given an example of sure chance and impossible chance.

13. In a cricket match, a batsman hits a boundary 6 times out of 90 balls he plays. Find the probability that
(i) hit a boundary
(ii) did not hit a boundary.

14. A number from 1 to 20 is choosen at random. What in the probability of getting
(i) a prime number
(ii) multiple of 3.
(iii) multiple of 2
(iv) multiple of 2 and 3
(v) multiple of 2 or 3

15. All the red face cards are removed from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. A card is then drawn at
random from the remaining pack. Find the probability of getting
(i) queen of black suit (ii) a heart
(iii) a jack of red suit (iv) number 7 of black suit

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DPP NO. 16

1. Find the volume of a cylinder of height 40 cm and having radius of the base 3.5 cm :
(A) 1540 cm3 (B) 1545 cm3 (C) 1550 cm3 (D) 1560 cm3

2. The figure shows a cuboid with a volume of 180 cm3.
4 cm

9 cm

(p + 3) cm

What is the value of “p” ?
(A) 2 (B) 18 (C) 36 (D) 72

3. Find the volume of a cube whose total surface area is 486 cm2 :
(A) 700 cm3 (B) 729 cm3
(C) 297 cm3 (D) 800 cm3

4. In the figure shown, two tangent semicircles with a radius equal to ‘x’ are inscribed in a square. What is
the area of the shaded region ?

(A) 4x 2 (B) x 2 (C) (2 – )x 2 (D) (4 – )x 2

5. The sides of a triangle are 16 cm, 30 cm and 34 cm. Its area is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 140 cm (B) 160 cm (C) 240 cm (D) 172 cm

6. The corners of an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm each are cut to form a regular hexagon. What is the
area of the hexagon?

12 12

(A) 24 3 sq. cm (B) 12 5 sq. cm
(C) 15 3 sq. cm (D) 9 5 sq. cm

7. If the radii of two concentric circle are 15 cm and 13 cm respectively, then the area of the circulating
ring in sq. cm will be :
(A) 176 (B) 178 (C) 200 (D) 180

8. ABCD is a rectangle. E, F, G, H are the mid-points of the concerned sides. Area of rectangle ABCD :
area of rhombus EFGH is :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 3

9. The length of a square is increased by 25% and its breadth is decreased by 25%. The ratio of the area
of the square to that of the resulting rectangle is :
(A) 15 : 16 (B) 16 : 15 (C) 5 : 4 (D) 4 : 5

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10. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 m more than its breadth. If the cost of fencing the plot at the rate
of j 26.50 per m is j 5300, then what is the length of the plot?
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 60 cm (D) 80 cm

11. How many bricks will be required for a wall 8 m long, 6m high and 22.5 cm thick, if each brick measures
25 cm × 11.25 cm × 6 cm ?

12. Area of a trapezium is 91 cm2 and its height is 7 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the other
side by 8 cm, find the length (in cm) of the smaller side.

13. A rectangular piece of paper 22cm × 6cm is folded without overlapping to make a cylinder . Find the
volume of cylinder if it’s height is (a) 6cm (b) 22cm

14. A well is dug 16m deep .Its radius is 1.75m .The earth dug out is spread evenly on a rectangular
platform which is 11m× 4m. Find the height of the platform raised.

15. A lawn is the form of a square of side 30m. A cow is tied with a rope of 10 m to a pole standing at one
of its corner. Find the maximum area of the lawn grazed by this cow.

DPP NO. 17

1. The abscissa of a point is distance of that point from :
(A) X-axis (B) Y-axis (C) Origin (D) None of these

2. If both co-ordinates of any point are negative then that point will lie in :
(A) First quadrant (B) Second quadrant (C) Third quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant

3. If the abscissa of any point is zero then that point will lie:
(A) on X-axis (B) on Y-axis (C) at origin (D) None of these

4. 2
0 1 2 3 4

The above diagram shows the graph of _________
(A) y = x – 3 (B) y = 2x + 3 (C) y = – x – 3 (D) y = +4

5. The distance of the point (3, 5) from X-axis is :
(A) 34 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) None of these

6. The point whose ordinate is 4 and which lies on y – axis is:
(A) (4, 0) (B) (0, 4) (C) (1, 4) (D) (4, 2)

7. The perpendicular distance of the point P(3,4) from the y – axis is:
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

8. Abscissa of the all the points on y – axis is:
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) –1 (D) any number

9. In which quadrant the sign of x coordinate and y coordinate of a point is same :
(A) I (B) III
(C) (A) and (B) both (D) None of these

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10. What are the coordinates of the image of point Z with respect to y-axis ?
2 X
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5
(A) (–2, 4) (B) (2, 4) (C) (4, –2) (D) (4, 2)

11. Plot the following point on the graph.
(i) (2, 3) (ii) (0, 5) (ii) (– 3, 0) (iv)( – 3, – 2)

12. Draw the graph of y = 4x.
x 0 1 2
y 0 4 8

13. Draw the graph of following :
(i) y = 0 (ii) y – 2 = 0 (iii) 2y + 4 = 0

14 Draw the graphs of the lines represented by the equations x + y = 4 and 2x – y = 2 in the same graph.
Also, find the coordinate of the point where the two lines intersect.

15. Draw the graph of the equation 3x + 2y = 6. Find the co-ordinates of the point where the graph cuts the
x - axis and y - axis.

DPP NO. 18

1. Which amongst the following is not a polyhedron?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. Which of the following will not form a polyhedron?
(A) 3 triangles (B) 2 triangles and 3 parallelogram
(C) 8 triangles (D) 1 pentagon and 5 triangles

3. Which of the following is a regular polyhedron?
(A) Cuboid (B) Triangular prism (C) Cube (D) Square prism

4. Which of the following is a two Dimensional figure?
(A) Rectangle (B) Rectangular Prism (C) Square Pyramid (D) Square Prism

5. Which of the following can be the base of a pyramid?
(A) Line segment (B) Circle (C) Octagon (D) Oval

6. Which of the following 3D shapes does not have a vertex?
(A) Pyramid (B) Prism (C) Cone (D) Sphere

7. Solid having only line segments as its edges is a
(A) Polyhedron (B) Cone (C) Cylinder (D) Polygon

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8. In a solid if F = V = 5, then the number of edges in this shape is
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 2

9. Side of a square garden is 30 m. If the scale used to draw its picture is 1cm: 5m, the perimeter of the
square in the picture is
(A) 20 cm (B) 24 cm (C) 28 cm (D) 30 cm

10. Which of the following is the top view of the given shape?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. The model of a ship shown is of height 3.5 cm. The actual height of the ship is 210 cm if the scale
chosen is 1: 60. Is the statement true or false justify.

12. The distance between school and house of a girl is given by 5 cm in a picture, using the scale 1 cm : 5
km. Find the actual distance between the two places?

13. A solid has forty faces and, sixty edges. Find the number of vertices of the solid.

14. Match the following:
Figure Name

(a) Hexahedron

(b) Hexagonal Prism

(c) Square Pyramid

(d) Cone

15. The side of a square board is 50 cm. A student has to draw its image in her notebook. If the drawing of
the square board in the notebook has perimeter of 40 cm, then by which scale the figure has been

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DPP NO. 19

1. If x7y5 is exactly divisible by 3, then the least value of (x + y) is :
(A) 6 (B) 0 (C) 4 (D) 3

2. If x4y5z is exactly divisible by 9, then the least value of (x + y + z) is :
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 0

3. The value of A in the given sum

(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) greater than 8.

4. In a two-digit number, the digit in the unit place is four times the digit in the tens place and the sum of
the digits is equal to 10, then the number is :
(A) 26 (B) 28 (C) 40 (D) 82

5. Form all possible 3-digit numbers using all the digits 7, 2 and 3 and find their sum. This sum is divisible
(A) 37 (B) 27 (C) 17 (D) 11

6. There are two sections A and B of a class, consisting of 36 and 44 students respectively. If the average
weight of section A is 40 kg and that of section B is 35 kg, then the average weight of the whole class
(A) 40 kg (B) 38.75 kg (C) 37.25 kg (D) 39.25 kg

7. The largest number of four digits exactly divisible by 88 is :
(A) 9768 (B) 9988 (C) 8888 (D) 9944

8. 5764801 is divisible by :
(A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 11

1 AB
C C A
9. If and there is no carry on addition, then the value of B is :
6 9 7
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

10 The usual form of 1000a + 10b + c is :
(A) abc (B) ab0c (C) a0bc (D) none of these

11. Replace A, B, C by suitable numerals
6 5AB 9C
–5 4
– 36

12. If 42x is a multiple of 3 (where x is a digit), find the value of x.

13. Find a number whose cube is equal to the number itself but its square is not equal to the number itself.

14. A two digit number exceeds the sum of the digits of that number by 18. If the digits at the unit’s place is
double the digit in the ten’s place, find the number.

15. Find A, B, C in the addition.

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PHYSICS – 01 - 24

CHEMISTRY – 25 - 36

BIOLOGY – 37 - 44

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE

1. A force may :
(A) change the state of rest (B) change the state of uniform motion
(C) change the direction of motion (D) all of these
2. SI unit of force is :
(A) Dyne (B) Newton (C) gf (D) can’t say
3. Force is  a :
(A) Vector quantity (B) Scalar quantity (C)  Both (A) & (B) (D) None of  these
4. On drawing water from a well, a force of __________ is applied on the rope.
(A) pull (B) push (C) push or pull (D) none of these
5. Balanced forces may change ....................................... of a body :
(A) State of rest (B) State of uniform motion
(C) Shape or size (D) Direction of motion
6. A minus sign of force implies that the
(A) force is exerted on some other object.
(B) force is in opposite direction to that of the motion.
(C) force is in the same direction to that of the motion.
(D) gravitational force is acting on the object.
7. A body is said to be under balanced forces when the resultant force acting on the body is :
(A) Unity (B) Zero (C) Infinite (D) None of these
8. When a cricket ball strikes the stumps, a force of _____________  uproots the stumps.
(A) pull (B) push (C) push or pull (D) can’t say
9. .....................................forces act on   a freely falling body:
(A) Balanced (B) Unbalanced
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Magnetic

10. B

Line of action of force is :
(A) AB (B) AC (C) AD (D) BC

11. Give two examples from everyday life where a force of push is applied and also write about  its effect.

12. Give two examples from everyday life where a force of pull is applied and  also write about its effect.

13. Convert 100 dyne into newton.

14. A body is moving with velocity 10 m/s and a force of 5N is applied in the direction of motion and two other
forces of 3N and 2N are applied opposite to its motion find the acceleration of the moving body.

15. A force F1 acting on a body of mass 2 kg produces an acceleration of 2.5 m/s2. Other force F2 acting on
the another body of mass 5 kg produces an acceleration of 2 m/s2. Find the ratio   .
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1. Which of the following is a contact force :
(A) frictional force (B) magnetic force (C) electric force (D) can’t say

2. Which of the following is a non contact force :
(A) magnetic force (B) frictional force (C) impact force (D) none of these
3. A magnet attracting iron pins is an example of :
(A) magnetic force (B) electric force (C) frictional force (D) none of these
4. Which of the following is action at a distance force :
(A) muscular force (B) frictional force (C) magnetic force (D) none of these

5. The force exerted between two object by virtue of their masses is :
(A) magnetic force (B) electrostatic force
(C) gravitational force (D) frictional force

6. When Harsh shake hand with Kabeer the kind of force exert between their hands is,
(A) Gravitational force (B) Weak force
(C) Electromagnetic force (D) Nuclear force

7. If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon to the earth.:
(A) Its mass will change
(B) Its weight will change, but not mass.
(C) Both mass and weight will change.
(D) Its mass and weight will remain the same.

8. 1 dyne is equal to :

(A) 980 g wt (B) 980 kg wt (C)  g wt (D) None of these
9. A Diwali rocket is ejecting 0.05 kg of gases per second at a velocity of 400 ms-1. The accelerating force on
the rocket is :
(A) 20 dyne (B) 20 Newton
(C) 20 kg wt. (D) sufficient data not given

10. The pressure of atmosphere on earth is around :
(A) 100 K Pa (B) 0 K Pa (C) 50 K Pa (D) none of these

11. Name any two contact and two non contact forces.

12. Give reason :
In tug of war when two teams pull equally hard, the rope does not move in any direction.

13. Define the weight of a body. Also write its S.I. unit.

14. Force required to lift slowly a 1000 gm mass vertically against gravity of earth.

15. Find the Mass of the body of weight 245N .

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1. The SI unit of pressure is :
(A) atmosphere (B) pascal (C) cm of mercury (D) mm of mercury

2. Pressure is defined as :
(A) force (B) force × distance (C) Normal force per unit area (D) force × area

3. Pressure cannot be measured in :
(A) Nm–2 (B) bar (C) Pa (D) Kg wt

4. Pascal is the unit of :
(A) force (B) pressure (C) distance (D) area

5. Sharper knives cut fruits easily because :
(A) the area of contact is more (B) the area of contact is less
(C) they shine more (D) none of these

6. Women's sandals hurt more than the men's sport shoes because :
(A) women are stronger in health (B) sport shoes have small heel
(C) area of contact of sandal's heel is more (D) area of contact of sandal's heel is lesser

7. A camel can walk/run in deserts very easily as compared to horse, donkey etc, because its :
(A) feet are smaller (B) weight is lesser
(C) feet are broader (D) body is heavier

8. The atmosphere exerts a pressure P on the surface of earth.  Here P is equal to
(A) 1.01 × 105  Nm–2 (B) 1.01 × 10 –5  Nm–2
(C) 1.01 × 10 7  Nm–2 (D) 1.01 × 10 –7  Nm–2

9. If you increase the number of books in your school bag :
(A) pressure increases (B) pressure decreases
(C) pressure remains same (D) none of these

10. 1 kg wt /m2 pressure equals  :
(A) 1000 Pascal (B) 1 Pascal
(C) 9.8 Pascal (D) 100 Pascal

11. Explain why we prefer to use a sharper knife to cut vegetables and fruits.

12. Tractors have large tyres, bull dozers have caterpillar tracks and heavy buses and  trucks have eight rear
wheels. Give one reason common to all these.

13. Define pressure. What is the SI unit of pressure ?

14. Explain why a school bag with a broader strip causes less pain than the bag with a narrow strip on the

15. Explain why is it easy to fix a sharp nail than a blunt nail in a wall.

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1. Atmospheric pressure on the earth is unable to crush humans because :
(A) humans are the most powerful living beings on the earth
(B) pressure exerted from the inside of the body cells is less than the atmospheric pressure there
(C) pressure exerted from the inside of the body cells is more than the atmospheric pressure there
(D) pressure exerted from the inside of the body cells equals the atmospheric pressure there

2. The vacuum cleaner can suck dust and paper pieces because :
(A) the air inside the collecting bag is sucked out by an electric motor
(B) there is a magnet like substance inside it which attracts the dust and paper
(C) the electric current flowing in the device makes dust particles stick to it
(D) none of these

3. When we suck a cold drink through a straw :
(A) cold drink sticks to the straw and climbs to our mouth
(B) we suck some air present in the straw, which lowers the pressure of air there as compared to outside
(C) we push some air in the straw so as to increase the air pressure in the straw
(D) none of these

4. Atmospheric pressure is greatest on :
(A) 100 m2 area of earth (B) 10 m2 area of earth
(C) is zero everywhere (D) is independent of the area of the earth

5. At sea level, the air pressure is equal to :
(A) 300 mm of mercury column (B) 760 mm of mercury column
(C) 100 mm of mercury column (D) 5 mm of mercury  column

6. Pascal law tells us about the :
(A) Pressure of a gas (B) Pressure of a solid (C) Pressure of a liquid (D) Force on a liquid

7. Blood pressure can be measured by :
(A) thermometer (B) sphygmomanometer(C) speedometer (D) odometer

8. Atmospheric pressure depends upon :
(A) Density of air (B) Temperature of air
(C) Height of the point of measurement (D) All of the above

9. On higher altitudes a fountain pen starts leaking because the air inside the ink tube of the pen is :
(A) at a lower pressure than the air outside (B) at a higher pressure than the air outside
(C) at a pressure equal to that of air outside (D) none of  these

10. Blood contains dissolved oxygen at a pressure which is :
(A) slightly more than the atmospheric pressure(B) slightly less than the atmospheric pressure
(C) equal to the atmospheric pressure (D) zero

11. Atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted by ................. on the earth.
12. Write the definition of atmospheric pressure. Explain it with the help of an example.
13. Why a heated tin can gets crushed when fitted with a stopper and cooled?
14. How does the human body withstand atmospheric pressure?
15. Why do astronauts wear space suits ?

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1. Friction always opposes :
(A) Relative motion between two surfaces (B) Motion
(C) Change in speed (D) Change in size of an object

2. Force of friction between two surfaces in contact will be less when :
(A) surfaces are rough (B) surfaces are smooth
(C) surfaces are not moving (D) none of these

3. Frictional force acts in .......................... direction :
(A) Upward (B) Downward (C) Horizontal (D) All

4. A  rough surface offers ............................. friction as compared to a smooth surface :
(A) More (B) Less (C) Same (D) Either more or same

5. Forces of adhesion are caused due to :
(A) Magnetic attractions (B) Gravitational attractrions
(C) Electrostatic attractions (D) Frictional forces

6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Force of friction offered by wind to the ball will act :
(A) downwards
(B) upwards
(C) perpendicular to the direction of motion of force
(D) none of these

7. When a big rock lying on ground is pushed and it does not move, then it means  :
(A) force of friction acts on rock
(B) force of friction is not acting on rock
(C) force of friction will come into play only when rock will move
(D) none of these

8. Force of friction does not depend upon :
(A) area of surfaces in contact till weight remains the same
(B) weight of surfaces in contact
(C) nature of surfaces in contact
(D) all are correct

9. Identify the wrong statement :
(A) Friction always opposes motion.
(B) Friction always opposes relative motion between two surfaces.
(C) Friction acts between two rough surfaces in contact with each other.
(D) Friction always acts opposite to the direction of motion or intended motion.

10. When brakes are applied to a forward moving car,  force of friction acting on tyres of car will be in :
(A) backward direction (B) forward direction
(C) perpendicular to direction of motion of car (D) none of these
11. Give any two examples where friction supports motion.
12. Name some activities which are not possible without friction.
13. Why talcum powder is spread over carrom board before playing?

14. What are the various ways of reducing friction?
15. What are the various factors on which friction force depends?

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1. Lubricant ................... force of friction.
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) does not change (D) none of these

2. Work of a lubricant is :
(A) to reduce friction between two surfaces in contact
(B) to reduce interlocking between two surfaces in contact
(C) both A and B are correct
(D) none of these

3. Friction may cause :
(A) Heat (B) Wear and tear (C) Forest Fires (D) All of these

4. In which of the following situations friction is disadvantageous :
(A) walking on a road (B) riding a car
(C) sliding a box (D) brushing our teeth

5. Treading tyres,................force of friction between the tyres and the road.
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) don’t change (D) none of these

6. Soap solutions are used in high speed cutting and grinding because :
(A) They act as a lubricant
(B) They absorb heat produced during cutting or grinding
(C) They increase friction to facilitate cutting
(D) Both A and B are correct

7. Polishing wooden surface reduces friction because :
(A) it knocks out irregularities (B) layers of polish can move against each other
(C) two polished surfaces repel each other (D) none of these

8. Friction while walking on a wet polished floor when compared to a rough dry floor is :
(A) less (B) more (C) equal (D) cannot say

9. Sliding friction is slightly ....................... limiting friction :
(A) greater than (B) less than
(C) both A and B are correct (D) none of these

10. What type of frictional force acts on a ball when it rolls on ground :
(A) static friction (B) sliding friction
(C) rolling friction (D) composite friction

11. Which force is responsible for slowing down a moving bicycle when we stop paddling ?

12. How can lubricants reduce friction ?

13. Why are worn out tyres discarded?

14. Why do automobile tyres have deep grooves?

15. Why do we hold a slippery glass tightly?

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1. What is transferred in wave motion :
(A) matter (B) energy (C) both A and B (D) none of these

2. The maximum displacement of an oscillating body from its mean position is called :
(A) amplitude (B) one meter (C) frequency (D) a wave

3. Which of the following is visible to a naked eye :
(A) light waves (B) sound waves (C) water waves (D) none of these
4. Which of the following is not a wave motion :
(A) ripples on water (B) sound propagation (C) moving bus (D) radio waves

5. In the given figure, which point represents the mean position of the pendulum :

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) (B) and (C) both

6. Sound is produced due to :
(A) heating (B) vibrations (C) running (D) walking

7. Sound waves cannot travel through :
(A) glass (B) air (C) water (D) vacuum

8. Transverse waves travel in the form of :
(A) compressions and rarefactions (B) crests and troughs
(C) crests and compressions (D) troughs and rarefactions

9. Transverse waves can be :
(A) Mechanical (B) Non Mechanical
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these

10. Light waves are :
(A) mechanical waves (B) longitudinal waves
(C) transverse waves (D) none of these

11. Define wave motion.

12. Define amplitude.

13. Give two examples which are both periodic  and  oscillatory motion.

14. Give an example which is periodic but not oscillatory.

15. Differentiate between periodic and oscillatory motion.

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1. Velocity of sound in air is :
(A) 330 m/s (B) 360 m/s (C) 380 m/s (D) 400 m/s
2. On moon, sound is :
(A) like a thunder (B) inaudible
(C) louder than on Earth (D) same as on earth
3. Pitch of A is more than that of B, then frequency of :
(A) A  = B (B) A > B (C) A < B (D) A < B

4. 1 Khz is equal to :
(A) 10 Hz (B) 100 Hz (C) 1000 Hz (D) 10000 Hz

Directions for questions 5 to 6 :

5. What is the amplitude of wave, shown in figure.
(A) 0.6 m (B) 0.3 m (C) 20 cm (D) 4 cm

6. What is the wavelength of the wave, shown in above figure :
(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 0.08 m (D) 0.6 m

7. A radio station broadcasts at 760 KHz. What is wavelength of the station :
(A) 395 m (B) 790 m (C) 760 m (D) 197.5 m

8. A series of ocean waves, each 5.0 m from crest to crest, are moving past the observer at a rate of 2 waves per
second. What is the velocity :
(A) 2.5 m/s (B) 5.0 m/s (C) 8.0 m/s (D) 10.0 m/s

9. Sound waves of wavelength l travelling with velocity V in a medium enter into another medium in
which their velocity is 4 V. The wavelength in 2nd medium is :
(A) 4l (B) l (C) l / 4 (D) 16l

10. Rarefractions are the regions of  :
(A) Maximum pressure (B) Minimum pressure
(C) Maximum density (D) Minimum density

11. Define wavelength.

12. Give relation between wave velocity, frequency and wavelength.

13. Why do we hear sound of a horn of an approaching car before the car reaches us ?

14. The wavelength of sound in air is 5 cm. Find its frequency. (Take velocity of sound = 330 m/s)

15. Find the frequency of sound waves in air if the distance between a compression and an adjacent rarefaction
is 0.5 mm. Speed of sound waves in air is 330 m/s.

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1. The pitch of a sound depends on its :
(A) frequency (B) amplitude (C) resonance (D) intensity

2. Sound vibrations are transmitted from the eardrum directly to the :
(A) hammer (B) nerve (C) stirrup (D) cochlea

3. The use of sound waves to determine distance or find objects is called :
(A) ultrasound (B) infrasound (C) acoustics (D) sonar

4. The ear structure that converts vibrations into nerve impulses is called :
(A) ear canal (B) cochlea (C) anvil (D) eardrum

5. The echo is heard if the original sound reflected by an obstacle reaches our ears after :
(A) 10s (B) 5s (C) 1s (D) 0.1 s

6. A dog barks in a park and hears its echo after 0.5 second. If the sound of its bark gets reflected by a nearby
building, find the distance between the dog and the building. Take the speed of sound in air as 346 m/s.
(A) 173 m (B) 86.5 m (C) 346 m (D) 175 m

7. The deepest recorded point below the sea level is in the Mariana Trench, Pacific Ocean. This point is 11 km
below the sea level. A research vessel sends down a sonar signal to confirm this depth. After how long can
it expect to get the echo ? Take the speed of sound in sea water as 1,520 m/s.
(A) 15 s (B) 16 s (C) 14 s (D) 12 s

8. The speed of electromagnetic wave in air is :
(A) 3 × 105 m/s (B) 3 × 107 m/s (C) 3 × 106 m/s (D) 3 × 108 m/s

9. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Both, sound and light waves in air are longitudinal
(B) Both, sound and light waves in air are transverse
(C) Sound waves in air are transverse and light waves are longitudinal
(D) Sound waves in air are longitudinal and light waves are transverse

10. Which of the following is a wind instrument :
(A) Flute (B) Shehnai (C) Both A and B (D) Can’t say

11. What is the range of audible frequency for humans ?

12. Give the basic conditions of an echo.

13. What causes an echo ?

14. Name the organ which makes us listen.

15. Give two examples where the human ear cannot detect a sound.

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DPP NO. 10

1. Which of the following is a membrane instrument :
(A) Flute (B) Shehnai (C) Dolak (D) Veena

2. Violin  is  a  ...................................  instrument  and  flute  is  a  ....................................  instrument

(A) Wind, reed (B) membrane; wind
(C) wind, membrane (D) stringed, wind

3. Ultrasonic waves are :
(A) High frequency waves (B) Low frequency waves
(C) High energy waves (D) Both (A) and (C) are currect
4. Which of the following is used in SONAR :
(A) Ultrasonic waves (B) Light waves (C) Water waves (D) Radio waves

5. Sonography is based on  :
(A) Ultrasonic waves (B) Infrasonic waves (C) Light waves (D) None of these

6. A sonar device attached to a ship sends ultrasonic waves in the sea. These waves are reflected from the
bottom of the sea. If the ultrasonic waves take 4 seconds to travel from the ship to the bottom of the sea and
back to ship (in the form of an echo),what is the depth of the sea ?
(Speed of sound in water = 1500 m/s.)
(A) 1500 m (B) 30,000 m (C) 3000 m (D) 750 m

7. Which of the following is used in SONAR :
(A) Ultrasonic waves (B) Light waves (C) Water waves (D) Radio waves

8. Sonography is based on :
(A) Ultrasonic waves (B) Infrasonic waves (C) Light waves (D) None of these

9. The pitch of a sound depends on its :
(A) frequency (B) amplitude (C) resonance (D) intensity

10. Sound vibrations are transmitted from the eardrum directly to the :
(A) hammer (B) nerve (C) stirrup (D) cochlea

11. What are membrane instruments ?

12. Give uses of SONAR.

13. Give atleast one use of ultrasonic waves in medical science.

14. Name a natural agent which produces ultrasound.

15. A fishing boat using sonar detects a shoal of fish 190 m below it. How much time elapsed between sending
the ultra sonic signal which detected the fish and receiving the signal’s echo ? (speed of sound in sea water
is 1519 ms–1 )

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DPP NO. 11

1. Gold leaf electroscope is device to :
(A) Detect current (B) Measure voltage
(C) Detect electric charge (D) None of these

2. By  convention,  a  negatively  charged  body  has  .............  potential  when  compared  to  the  potential  of  a
positively charged body :
(A) same (B) less (C) more (D) none of these

3.  This electrical symbol represents :
(A) Closed plug key (B) Variable Resistor (C) Fixed Resistor (D) Secondary battery

4. Choose wrong statement :
(A) Static electricity deals with charge at rest
(B) Current electricity deals with study of charge in motion
(C) Electroscope is used to detect charge & identifying its polarity
(D) When glass rod rubbed with silk it develops negative charge

5. What is not true for electric charge :
(A) Electric charge is scalar quantity (B) Charge is of type + ve & – ve
(C) S.I. unit of charge is coulomb (D) One coulomb is charge of one electron

6. When a body is negatively charged by friction, it means :
(A) The body has acquired excess of electrons (B) The body has acquired excess of proton
(C) The body has lost some electrons (D) The body has lost some neutrons

7. If a positive charged body attracts another body, the charge on the other body :
(A) Must be negative or zero (B) Must be positive
(C) Must be zero (D) May be positive or negative or zero

8. Which of the following charge is not possible :
(A) 1.6 × 10–19C (B) 1C (C) 2C (D) 2×10–19C

9. Current between two points will not flow if :
(A) both the points have same potential (B) circuit is open
(C) potential difference between the points is zero (D) all of them

10. Electric current flows from :
(A) Positive to negative electrode of cell (B) Negative to positive electrode of cell
(C) A and B both (D) None of these

11. Can charge be created ?

12. Give  properties of an electric charge.

13. If 8A current is flowing through a conductor for 2 s. Then find the number of electrons passing through that
conductor in 2 s.

14. How much charge flows through a wire in 10 minutes if the current through it is 2.5 A ?

15. If I is the current through a wire and e is the charge of electron, then the number of electrons in t sec. will be ?

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DPP NO. 12

1. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it acquires a positive charge because :
(A) Electrons are added to it (B) Protons are added to it
(C) Protons are removed from it (D) Electrons are removed from it

2. Container in which electrolysis occur is :
(A) Voltmeter (B) Voltameter (C) both (A) and (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B)
3. Cathode is :
(A) positively charged electrode
(B) negatively charged electrode
(C) a positively charged ion formed in the electrolyte
(D) a negatively charged ion formed in the electrolyte
4. Which of the following process is done by using electrolysis?
(A) Purification of metals (B) Extraction of metals
(C) Electroplating (D) All of these
5. Liquids that conduct electricity are solution of ………..
(A) acid (B) pure metal (C) base (D) plastic

Paragraph for Q.No. 6 to 8
Due to ionization, CuSO4 solution is dissociated. Thus, copper gets deposited on the cathode, while the
anode loses an equivalent amount of copper. The concentration of CuSO4 in the solution remains unchanged.
Electrolysis of water is the decomposition of water (H2O) into oxygen (O2) and hydrogen gas (H2) due to the
passage of electric current through water.
6. After dissociation of CuSO4, Cu2+ ion goes towards –
(A) Anode (B) Cathode (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

7. After dissociation of CuSO4,  SO 4 2  ion goes towards
(A) Anode (B) Cathode (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
8. Electrolysis of water is the decomposition of water is :
(A) Oxygen and hydrogen (B) Chlorine and hydrogen
(C) Carbon-dioxide (D) Sulphur-dioxide

Paragraph for Q.No. 9 to 10
Due to the heating effect of current, the filament of the bulb gets heated to a high temperature and it starts
glowing. However, if the current is very weak the filament doesn’t get heated sufficiently and it does not glow.
That is why in some situations, even though the liquid is conducting, the bulb may not glow. Hence, it is
preferable to classify materials as good conductors and poor conductors instead of conductors and insulators.
9. Bulb glows due to –
(A) Heating effect of current (B) Chemical effect of current
(C) magnetic effect of current (D) None of these
10. Which of the following is best conductor of electric current?
(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Silver (D) Mercury
11. State the three methods of charging a body.
12. Draw a labelled diagram of a circuit containing ammeter, voltmeter, cell, resistor.
13. Which physical quantity is measured in ampere? Define it. Which  instrument is used to measure it and how
it is connected in circuit ?
14. Explain the process of Electroplating with the help of an example.
15. Give some applications of the chemical effect of current.

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DPP NO. 13

1.  If  two  ends  of  a  wire  are  dipped  in  distilled  water,  the  compass  needle  brought  near  the  circuit
(A) would keep moving in anticlockwise direction continuously.
(B) would keep moving in clockwise direction continuously.
(C) would remain still.
(D) would show deflection.

2.   Battery is having :
(A) Two or more cells connected to each other in any manner.
(B) Positive terminal of one cell is connected to the positive terminal of the next cell.
(C) Two or more cells connected in such a way that the positive terminal of one cell is connected to the
negative terminal of the next.
(D) Only one cell.

3.   During electrolysis, copper sulphate solution dissociates into
(A) copper metal only. (B) copper ions only.
(C) sulphate ions only. (D) copper ions and sulphate ions.

4.   Switch can be connected
(A) to the positive terminal of the battery only.
(B) any where in between the circuit elements within the circuit.
(C) to the negative terminal of the battery only.
(D) first to the positive terminal and then to the negative terminal of the battery.

5. Bicycle handle bars are usually
(A) tin plated. (B) chromium plated. (C) zinc plated. (D) gold plated.

6.  Metals can be extracted from their ores by the method of
(A) electroplating. (B) electrolysis. (C) conduction. (D) mining.

7. When HCL acid is used as a conducting liquid in an electric circuit, the products formed are
(A) only hydrogen gas. (B) both hydrogen and chlorine gases.
(C) only chlorine gas. (D) only nitrogen gas.
8.  If a LED glows when the conducting liquid is tomato juice, it means that a compass needle will
(A) also deflect. (B) remain still.
(C) continuously move in clockwise direction. (D) continuously move in anticlockwise direction.

9. The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called
(A) Electroscoping (B) Electroplating (C) Plating (D) Electroscoping

10. A non-conductor of electricity is
(A) a metal. (B) acid solution in water.
(C) a metallic salt solution. (D) distilled water.

11. When electric current is passed through tap water, we get
(A) nitrogen gas. (B) only hydrogen gas.
(C) only oxygen gas. (D) both hydrogen and oxygen gases.

12. The process by which water is broken into H  and O  by passing electricity is an example of:
2 2
(A) electroplating. (B) electric breakdown. (C) electrolysis. (D) chemical process.

13. Explain the term magnetic effects of an electric current.

14.  Define electrolysis.

15. What happens when an electric current is passed through the copper sulphate solution?

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DPP NO. 14

1. Light is a form of ............. .
(A) matter (B) fluid (C) energy (D) none

2. Which of the following is a point source of light  :
(A) Star (B) Candle (C) A bulb (D) Tube light

3. Which of the following is a natural source of light :
(A) bulb (B) tubelight (C) moon (D) artificial satellite

4. Nature of light is :
(A) Ray (B) Wave (C) Dual (D) None

5. We see different objects around us due to ................................ of light. :
(A) Refraction (B) Diffraction (C) Polarisation (D) Reflection

6. Normal is the :
(A) line perpendicular to the incident ray
(B) line perpendicular to the reflected ray
(C) line perpendicular to the mirror surface at any point
(D) line perpendicular to mirror at the point of incidence

7. A thin plane mirror :
(A) refracts light (B) reflects light (C) transmits light (D) none of these

8. The angle of reflection is the angle between :
(A) the reflected ray and surface of mirror
(B) the incident ray and the surface of mirror
(C) the normal to the surface of a mirror and incident ray
(D) the normal to the surface of mirror and reflected ray

9. In a plane mirror, ...................................acts as the reflecting surface :
(A) Silver layer (B) The glass sheet
(C) The red-orange layer at the back. (D) The air above the glass surface.

10. If angle of incidence is equal to 0º, the angle of reflection will be :
(A) 90º (B) 120º (C) 45º (D) 0º
11. The sun is a .......................... luminous body whereas moon is a ..................... body.

12. Define light

13. Define hot source of light.

14. What do you mean by rectilinear propagation of light ?

15. What do you mean by self luminous sources of light ?

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DPP NO. 15

1. Images formed by plane mirror are always .......................... :
(A) real (B) virtual (C) erect and real (D) magnified
2. In a plane mirror, the distance of the image from the mirror is ................. the distance of object
from the mirror :
(A) equal to (B) less than
(C) greater than (D) both B and C are possible
3. What type of mirror is used to obtain a virtual, laterally inverted image, equal in size of object :
(A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror (C) concave mirror (D) all of these
4. A point object in front of a plane mirror forms :
(A) point image (B) extended image
(C) both A and B (D) neither A nor B
5. Which of the following is not a characteristic of image formed by a plane mirror :
(A) Size of image = size of object
(B) Distance of image from mirror = distance of object from mirror
(C) we cannot obtain the image on the screen
(D) Image is formed on the same side as that of object
6. Different types of mirrors are :
(A) plane mirror (B) concave mirror (C) convex mirror (D) all of these
7. A virtual image is always formed ........................ w.r.t. object :
(A) on the same side of mirror (B) on the opposite side of mirror
(C) inside the mirror (D) none of these

8. Identify true and false statement :
(T - true ; F - False) :
(i) A real image can be seen as well as obtained on a screen
(ii) A virtual image is erect with respect to the object
(iii) If rays of light after reflection or refraction actually converge at a point then the image  formed is called
virtual image.
9. Identify the correct laterally inverted image of letter 'g' :
(A) q (B) g (C)  (D) 
10. Identify the correct image :

(A)  (B) 

(C) P P (D) 

11. Write differences between real image and virtual image.
12. Define lateral inversion.
13. Why cannot you see your image in newspaper ?
14. An object A is placed at a distance d in front of aplane mirror. If one stands directly behind the object at a
distance S from the mirror, find the distance of the image of A from the individual.
15. Define reflection of light.

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DPP NO. 16

1. A plane mirror forms ..................... image of a single object :
(A) single (B) double (C) triple (D) multiple

2. An object is placed between two parallel plane mirrors with reflecting sides facing each other. Number of
images formed will be :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) infinite (D) zero

3. What type of mirrors are used in solar cookers :
(A) plane mirrors (B) convex mirrors (C) parabolic mirrors (D) all are correct

4. Images formed by reflecting periscopes are :
(A) brighter than object (B) fainter than object
(C) equally bright as object (D) none of these

5. In case of multiple image formation by two plane mirrors, placed parallel to each other, image by one mirror
acts as an ....................... for the second mirror :
(A) image (B) object
(C) both (A) and (B) are correct (D) none of these

6. The beautiful patterns that we obtain in a kaleidoscope are due to ....................... of  light :
(A) multiple reflection (B) diffration (C) refraction (D) dispersion

7. Device which is used in submarines to get the outside view is :
(A) kaleidoscope (B) periscope (C) spectroscope (D) camera

8. Laws of reflection are diffused reflection :
(A) Violated (B) Followed
(C) Followed at some points only (D) Sometimes violated and sometimes followed.

9. Reflection through plane mirror is an example of :
(A) regular reflection (B) diffused reflection
(C) irregular reflection (D) all are correct

10. If angle of incidence is 30o, then glance angle of reflection is :
(A) 60o (B) 90o (C) 30o (D) 120o

11. Draw  ray diagram to show the working of  periscope.

12. Draw  neat diagram of kaleidoscope.

13. Write any two uses of plane mirror.

14. Write any three uses of  periscope.

15. Write one disadvantage of reflecting periscope.

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DPP NO. 17

1. A virtual image is formed by concave mirror when the object is placed :
(A) between the focus and the pole (B) at the focus
(C) between the focus and the centre of curvature (D) beyond the centre of curvature

2. Which of the following correctly depicts the  reflection of a ray of light on a spherical mirror ?

(A)  (B) (C)  (D) 

3. Convex mirrors are used in cars to see the traffic coming from behind because :
(A) They produce magnified images
(B) The produce images which are more clear than those produced by others mirrors
(C) They reflect light better than the other mirrors
(D) They form images which are smaller than the objects

4. What should be the minimum height of a plane mirror to get a full image of a man whose height is h ?
(A) h (B) 2h (C) h/2 (D) h/4

5. An observer runs towards a plane mirror with a velocity x m/s. What is the velocity of his image which will
appear to move towards him ?
x x
(A) 2 x m/s (B)  m/s (C) x m/s (D)  m/s
2 4
6. A student sitting in the last row of classroom is unable to see the writing on the board. He is suffering from
(A) myopia (B) hypermetropia (C) farsightedness (D) astigmatism

7. Which of the following figure is correct :

i r r i r
i r i
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)   
i < r i = r i = r i = r

8. Light travels in a straight line. This phenomenon is known as –
(A) Dispersion (B) Reflection
(C) Refraction (D) Rectilinear propagation of Light

9. Light  is ________________ form of Energy.
(A) invisible (B) visible (C) mechanical (D) elastic

10. Sun is _______________ source of light.
(A) Luminous (B) Non-Luminous (C) Natural (D) Both (a) & (c)

11. Define dispersion of light.

12. How is hypermetropia corrected ?

13. Define blindness.

14. What are the different causes of blindness ?

15. Give some methods to take care of eyes.

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DPP NO. 18


1. The amount of light entering into eye is controlled by :
(A) Lens (B) Pupil                    (C) Cornea (D) Retina

2. While reading a book, minimum distance between book and eyes should be :
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 50 cm

3. The change in focal length of an eye lens to focus the image of objects at varying distances is done by the
action of its :
(A) Pupil (B) Retina (C) Ciliary muscles (D) Blind spot

4. The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. This is
due to :
(A) Persistence of vision (B) Near sightedness
(C) Accommodation (D) Least distance of distinct vision

5. Decrease in focal length of eye lens causes:
(A) Hypermetropia (B) Myopia (C) Astigmatism (D) Nothing

6. Nightblindness is caused by the deficiency of :
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin E

7. Images formed on the retina of a human eye is :
(A) temporary (B) permanent
(C) blurred (D) none of these

8. Loss of vision which cannot be corrected by lenses is :
(A) myopia (B) astigmatism (C) blindness (D) none of these

9. An eye suffering from shortsightedness forms image of far object :
(A) In front of retina (B) Behind retina (C) On retina (D) Outside eye

10. Final processing of signals carried by the optic nerve is done by :
(A) brain (B) spinal cord (C) heart (D) optic nerve

11. Draw a ray diagram of image formation in a myopic eye.

12. What is myopia ?

13. Give the two causes of myopia.

14. How is myopia corrected ?

15. Give the two causes of hypermetropia.

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DPP NO. 19


1. The most useful layer of earth  to living organisms is :
(A) crust (B) mantle (C) outer core (D) inner core

2. The point from where the shock waves of an earthquake originate is called :
(A) epicenter (B) seismic focus (C) focal depth (D) none of these

3. The shock waves produced by an earthquake travel :
(A) along the surface (B) deep inside the earth
(C) both on the surface and inside the earth (D) only in the air

4. The point on the surface of earth vertically above the seismic focus is called as :
(A) epicenter (B) focal depth (C) focus (D) seismic origin

5. The magnitudes of some earthquakes are given below. Which of these will cause the maximum damage:
(A) 3.0 (B) 4.0 (C) 5.0 (D) 8.0

6. The magnitude of earthquake is measured by :
(A) Richter scale (B) Mohr's scale (C) pH scale (D) Any scale
7. If a storm is accompanied by lightning, we should
(A) take shelter under an isolated tree.
(B) take shelter under an umbrella with a metallic end.
(C) not sit near a window, open garages, storage sheds.
(D) take shelter under metal sheds.

8.  Thunderstorms usually occur in
(A) cold, humid tropical areas. (B) cold, dry tropical areas.
(C) hot, dry tropical areas. (D) hot, humid tropical areas

9. Which one of the following is not natural phenomenon:
(A) Earthquake (B) Cyclone (C) Lightning (D) Nuclear explosion

10. Which of the following is NOT true:
(A) Lightning and spark from woolen clothing are essentially the same phenomena.
(B) When you rub a plastic scale on your dry hair,it acquires a charge.
(C) Charge acquired by a glass rod when it is rubbed with silk is called as negative charge.
(D) Static charges are called so,because they do not move by themselves.
11. What does the intensity of an earthquake signify ?

12. What is richter scale?

13. Write any four steps taken to make a building ‘quake safe’.

14. What are faults?

15. Write any three damaging effects of earthquake?
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DPP NO. 20

1. Which of the following is an example of celestial body :
(A) moon (B) car (C) rocket (D) none of these

2. The vast unimaginable space which encompasses most distant stars, planets and anything else that exist
is called :
(A) universe (B) sky (C) stars (D) earth

3. Stars appear to move from :
(A) East to west (B) West to east (C) North to south (D) South to north

4. Pole star is situated :
(A) Exactly in front of the equator.
(B) On the axis of the earth.
(C) Directly above the geographic north pole of earth’s axis.
(D) Directly above the geographic south pole of earth’s axis.

5. Diameter of sun is approximately ................. times that the earth :
(A) 500 (B) 109 (C) 1000 (D) 50

6. Due to nuclear fusion reaction inside sun, hydrogen gas gets converted into :
(A) deuterium (B) helium (C) argon (D) xenon

7. Stars are not visible during day time because :
(A) they shine only during night time
(B) their brightness observed from earth is very less when compared to sun
(C) they are at the opposite side of earth at day time
(D) none of these

8. Stars appear like point objects because :
(A) they are very small in size (B) their size reduces during night time
(C) they are very far away from us (D) all are correct

9. The nearest star from earth is :
(A) sun (B) alpha centauri (C) proxima centauri (D) pole star

10. Temperature of the surface of sun is about  :
(A) 16500°C (B) 7000°C (C) 6000°C (D) 8000°C
11. How far is sun from earth ?

12. Give the cause behind motionless appearance of stars.
13. Define astronomy.

14. Name two important galaxies in the universe.

15. Give the reason behind the energy of sun.

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DPP NO. 21


1. Pole star is used to find :
(A) direction (B) age of universe
(C) age of earth (D) direction of rotation of earth

2. One A.U. is equal to :
(A) Average distance between earth and sun (B) distance between earth and moon
(C) distance between sun and moon (D) all are correct

3. Orion constellation is clearly visible during :
(A) summer (B) winter
(C) spring (D) none of these

4. Number of galaxies in the universe is  :
(A) 1020 (B) 1011 (C) 1022 (D) 1014

5. Shapes of galaxies are :
(A) spiral (B) elliptical (C) irregular (D) all

6. Number of constellations known to us is  :
(A) 45 (B) 80 (C) 88 (D) 81

7. One parsec is equal to :
(A) 30.857 × 1015 m (B) 30.857 × 1012 km
(C) 30.857 × 1018 mm (D) all are correct

8. Pole star is the part of which constellation :
(A) ursa major (B) ursa minor (C) orion (D) scorpio

9. Ursa Major constellation has :
(A) 7 stars (B) 10 stars (C) 17 stars (D) 20 stars

10. cassiopeia constellation is visible during :
(A) summer (B) winter (C) autumn (D) spring

11. Name  the various constellations known to you.
12. Name any two constellations visible in summer.
13. Name any two constellations visible in winter.
14. Why is pole star always seen in north direction when viewed from the earth ?
15. What is a light minute ? Calculate 1 light  minute in  kilometers.

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DPP NO. 22


1. Planets depend upon ......................... for heat and light.

(A) stars (B) comets (C) other planets (D) asteroids

2. Sun rays fall .............................. on earth during summer season.

(A) normal (B) obliquely (C) tangentially (D) do not fall

3. Earth revolves around sun in :

(A) circular orbit (B) elliptical orbit

(C) spherical orbit (D) parabolic orbit

4. ..................... are commonly called as shooting stars.

(A) meteors (B) meteorites (C) asteroids (D) planets

5. When north pole of earth is tilted away from the sun then there is ....................... in northern hemisphere.

(A) summer (B) winter (C) spring (D) autumn

6. The upper half part of the earth below the north pole is known as :

(A) southern hemisphere (B) northern hemisphere (C) equator (D) south pole

7. India lies in ......................... hemisphere while Australia lies in ......................... hemisphere.

(A) northern, southern (B) southern, northern

(C) southern, southern (D) northern, northern

8. The angle of tiltation of earth with respect to the plane perpendicular to the orbit is :
(A) 25º (B) 32.5º (C) 23.5º (D) 60º

9. When will the Halley’s comet be visible again after  the year 2062 AD. :
(A) 2128 AD. (B) 2138 AD (C) 2148 AD (D) 2158 AD

10. Revolution of earth around the sun is responsible for :
(A) occurrence of seasons (B) occurrence of monsoon
(C) occurrence of day and night (D) none of these
11. Define meteors.
12. Define comet.
13. Define solar system.
14. Explain the cause of burning of meteors when they enter into the atmosphere of earth.
15. Name the force which keeps the solar system together.

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DPP NO. 23


1. A solid heavenly body which revolves around sun is known as :
(A) planet (B) comets (C) U.F.O. (D) meteors

2. Which of the following is not an innermost planet :
(A) mercury (B) venus (C) earth (D) saturn

3. Which of the following is not a Jovian planet :
(A) saturn (B) uranus (C) neptune (D) mars
4. Biggest planet of solar system is :
(A) earth (B) jupiter (C) saturn (D) mars

5. Which planet is commonly named as morning and evening star :
(A) venus (B) earth (C)mercury (D) (A) and (C) Both

6. Which planet is also known as red planet :
(A) mercury (B) venus (C) earth (D) mars

7. Which planet has distinct pattern of colourful rings around it :
(A) venus (B) jupiter (C) saturn (D) neptune

8. Which planet rotates from east to west :
(A) venus (B) mars (C) jupiter (D) earth

9. Which planet does not have any natural satellite :
(A) mercury (B) earth (C) mars (D) saturn

10. The hottest planet of solar system is :
(A) mercury (B) venus (C) earth (D) mars

11. Name the planets which receive substantial amount of solar energy.

12. Name any three conditions which are responsible for life on earth.

13. Name the planet which takes least time to complete one revolution around sun.

14. Give any three characteristic features of planet venus.

15. Give any three characteristic features of planet mars.

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DPP NO. 24

1. In Crescent moon we see :
(A) half Moon (B) more than half Moon
(C) full moon (D) less than half moon

2. The moon takes ____________ to move once around the earth.
(A) 27.3 days (B) 27 days (C) 27.6 days (D) 27.2 days

3. The full moon night is called :
(A) purnima (B) amavasya (C) both (D) none

4. The new moon night is :
(A) dark (B) bright (C) semi-bright (D) none

5. Waxing phase of the moon is :
(A) decreasing phase (B) increasing phase (C) constant phase (D) none of these

6. Indian name of milky way galaxy is :
(A) ganga (B) akash ganga
(C) ganga sagar (D) all are correct

7. Waning phase of moon is :
(A) increasing phase (B) decreasing phase
(C) constant phase (D) none of these

8. Milky  way  is  a  .........................  galaxy.
(A) spiral (B) elliptical
(C) irregular (D) none of these

9. Sun is  situated at  ............................ of  milky way  galaxy.
(A) center (B) some distance from galactic center
(C) outside edge (D) none of these

10. The space between stars in milky way galaxy is filled with :
(A) dust (B) gases
(C) interstellar matter (D) all are correct

11. What do you mean by phases of moon ?

12. Why milky way is also called as Akash Ganga ?

13. Name any two natural satellites of planet mars.
14. Give the composition of comets.

15. What is  the cause behind the occurrence of seasons on earth.

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(India) Private Limited CLASS – VIII (CBSE)

DPP NO. 01

1. Synthetic fibre is/are -
(A) Rayon (B) Spandex (C) Polyesters (D) all of these

2. Which one of these is a type of nylon -
(A) Nylon-4 (B) Nylon-5 (C) Nylon-6 (D) Nylon-7

3. Synthetic fibre are -
(A) Lightweight (B) having insulating property
(C) Tough (D) All of these

4. Synthetic fibre having reactivity towards -
(A) Air (B) Water (C) both A and B (D) none of these

5. Acrylic fibre used for making -
(A) Water hoses (B) Sarees (C) curtains (D) sweaters

6. Rayon is used for making
(A) Fabric (B) carpets (C) cord (D) all of these

7. Nylon is used for making -
(A) Leg wear (B) Fabricating sheets (C) Neck ties (D) all of these

8. Nylon is -
(A) man-made fibre (B) natural fibre (C) both A & B (D) mix of two natural fibre

9. ………………. closely resembles to wool in its properties.
(A) Orlon (B) Acrilan (C) Acrylic (D) All of these

10. Which fibre while burning give smell of burning paper ?
(A) Polyester (B) Cotton (C) Rayon (D) Acrylic

11. What are the source of raw material for synthetic fabrics ?
12. A fibre 'X' which have very high tensile strength & used in parachutes. Identify the fibre 'X' & write all
properties of it.

13. What do you mean by Natural fibres ? Give examples.

14. Explain why some fibres are termed as synthetic.

15. Why is rayon called Artificial Silk ? Give reason.

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DPP NO. 02

1. Which of the following plastic is a thermo-setting plastic ?
(A) PVC (B) Polystyrene
(C) Polyethylene (D) Bakelite

2. ……………………. is used for making disposal cups ?
(A) LDPE (B) PS (C) PP (D) PVC

3. Which thermoplastic is known as thermocole ?
(A) Polystyrene (B) PVC (C) Teflon (D) Polythene

4. Fibre obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp is called
(A) Natural silk (B) Rayon
(C) Nylon (D) Polyester

5. Which one is hard & stiff in nature ?
(A) Polystyrene (B) Acrylic (C) Bakelite (D) Polythene

6. Which one is used for making shoes ?
(A) Bakelite (B) Melamine (C) Teflon (D) PVC

7. Acrylic used for making
(A) shawls (B) water pipes
(C) lenses (D) non stick cookware

8. Most widely produced plastic for making bucket is
(A) polythene (B) polypropylene (C) PVC (D) polystyrene

9. Which one is used for an insulation of wire ?
(A) Polystyrene (B) PVC (C) Teflon (D) Acrylic

10. Which of the following is a polymer of tetrafluroethene ?
(A) PVC (B) Teflon (C) Bakelite (D) Nylon

11. Explain what are thermoplastics and thermo setting plastics.

12. Give reason why electric wire has plastic coating.

13. Why it is advise not to wear nylon clothes during cooking ?

14. What is the solution of the problems associated with plastic disposal ?

15. Explain the statement "Plastics are non-corrosive".

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DPP NO. 03

1. Which of the following is used for non-stick coating on kitchen utensils ?
(A) LDPE (B) PVC (C) Teflon (D) None of these

2. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?
(A) Cellulose (B) Nylon (C) Polythene (D) PVC
3. The clothes made from which of the following fibres will take lesser time than others to dry if soaked in
(A) Silk (B) Wool (C) Cellulose (D) Rayon

4. Which of the following is used in endoscopy ?
(A) Optical fibres (B) Glass fibres (C) Glass wool (D) None of these

5. Soft drink bottles are made up of ……………
(A) Teflon (B) Polyester (C) Terrycott (D) PET

6. Who is the inventor of Nylon ?
(A) K. Macmillan (B) Samuel Colt (C) John Dunlop (D) Wallace Carothers

7. How we can mitigate pollution caused by plastic ?
(A) By using 4R principle (B) By using reduce, reuse, recycle & recover
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

8. Plastic are mostly formed by the process of
(A) Oxidation (B) Neutralization
(C) Polymerization (D) Combustion

9. ……………….. is used in automobile battery casings.
(A) HDPE (B) PP (C) PVC (D) Polyester

10. HDPE is used in -
(A) Microwave cooking (B) Packaging
(C) Polybags (D) liquid detergent

11. Name the semi synthetic fibre which is preferred over other synthetic fabrics in summer season ?

12. Why is nylon blended with wool ?

13. Riya found kitchenware which was resistant to fire & was able to tolerate heat better than other plastics.
Write the name of that plastic & identify the type of plastic
14. Match the polymers of column A with their properties given in column B
Column-A Column-B
Polyester Prepared by using wood pulp
Acrylic Used for making parachutes and stockings
Rayon Fabrics do not wrinkle easily
Teflon Used to make non-stick cookware
Nylon Used to make sweaters & shawls.

15. Write the process used in synthesis of Rayon ?

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DPP NO. 04

1. Non-metal generally from
(A) anions (B) cations
(C) ions (D) none of these

2. Which non-metals have semi-conductor property ?
(A) Boron (B) Carbon
(C) Silicon (D) Magnesium

3. Which can be beaten into thin sheets
(A) Zinc (B) Phosphorus
(C) Sulphur (D) Oxygen

4. Which non-metals is the best conductor of electricity ?
(A) Phosphorus (B) Sulphur
(C) Graphite (D) Fluorine

5. Which of the following gas is lightest among the following ?
(A) H2 (B) SO2 (C) O2 (D) NO2

6. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is
(A) ductility (B) malleability
(C) sonority (D) conductivity

7. An alloy is a/an
(A) a element (B) a mixture
(C) an isomer (D) a metalloid

8. Which of the following metal is used for making foils in packing of food materials ?
(A) Copper (B) Platinum
(C) Aluminium (D) Sodium

9. Which of the following elements is metalloid ?
(A) Si (B) Sb (C) Both A and B (D) Fe

10. Which metal does not react with water ?
(A) Cu (B) Fe (C) Au (D) Both A and B

11. Give two differences between metals and non-metals.

12. Write five uses of nitrogen gas.

13. What happen when you hammer a metals and a non - metals ?

14. Why lemon pickle cannot be stored in an aluminium foil ?

15. Generally metals are hard but it is found some metals like sodium are soft. Give reason.

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DPP NO. 05

1. Which one is correct in terms of reactivity of metal ?
(A) Ca > Na (B) Zn < Fe (C) K < Ba (D) Ba > Mg

2. The metal which is least reactive is
(A) Ag (B) Au (C) Cu (D) Pt

3. Which of the following metals will not displace iron from iron (II) sulphate solution -
(A) Zn (B) Mg (C) Al (D) Tin

4. Oxides of metals are -
(A) acidic (B) amphoteric (C) basic (D) neutral

5. Which of the following reaction will occur ?
(A) Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq)  ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(B) 2Al(s) + 3ZnSO4 (aq)  Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3Zn(s)
(C) 3Ca(s) + Al2 (SO4)3(aq)  3CaSO4(aq) + 2Al(s)
(D) All of the above

6. The most reactive metal among the following is -
(A) Ca (B) Ba (C) Na (D) Fe

7. The metal which reacts with water only when it is red hot and steam is passed over it is -
(A) Na (B) Ca (C) Fe (D) Mg

8. The only non-metal included in the reactivity series of metals is -
(A) H (B) Cl (C) He (D) Br

9. What happens when calcium is treated with water ?
(i) It does not react with water
(ii) It react violently with water
(iii) It reacts less violently with water
(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas form stick to the surface of calcium.
(A) i and iv (B) ii and iii (C) i and ii (D) iii and iv

10. Oxides of non-metals are -
(A) acidic (B) amphoteric (C) basic (D) neutral

11. Write two chemical properties of metals and non-metals ?

12. Why non-metals doesn't react with water ?

13. What is displacement reaction ? Give examples.

14. What formed if :
(a) Iron react with ZnSO4
(b) Copper react with calcium sulphate

15. Why copper is used for making electrical wire, while silver is not even if Ag comes below Cu in reactivity

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DPP NO. 06

1. When iron nail reacts with copper sulphate solution, the reaction is called -
(A) Displacement reaction (B) Neutralisation reaction
(C) Reduction reaction (D) None of these

2. When iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution, the bluish colour of copper sulphate turns -
(A) Brownish (B) Yellowish (C) Greenish (D) Colourless

3. Which of the following is highly resistant to corrosion?
(A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Both A & B (D) Gold

4. Which is the correct order of decreasing reactivity in metals?
(A) K > Na > Cu > Au (B) Na > Au > Cu > K (C) Cu > Na > K > Au (D) Au > Cu > Na > K

5. Which metal reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen?
(A) Zinc (B) Copper (C) Silver (D) Platinum

6. Which metals occur in their native state in nature?
(A) Only noble metals
(B) Noble and coinage metals
(C) Metals below hydrogen in the electrochemical series
(D) Any metal depending upon its location of occurrence

7. Which of the following metals has been used for building boats because it has resistance to corrosion
by sea water ?
(A) Cu (B) Ni (C) W (D) Ti

8. Which oxide is neutral ?
(A) NO2 (B) H2O (C) MgO (D) None of these

9. Which compound is used in photography ?
(A) AgNO3 (B) AgO (C) AgBr (D) AgCl

10. Which of the following metal react vigorously with oxygen ?
(A) Zn (B) Mg (C) Na (D) Copper

11. Is it safe to cook food containing iron salts in the utensils made of aluminium ?

12. Metals are good conductor of electricity but the Non-metals are not why ? Explain with reason.

13. Give reason :
(a) Why iron does not react with cold water while sodium react with cold water ?
(b) Why gold and silver are used for making jewellery ?

14. Sodium is stored in kerosene while Lithium is not. Why ?

15. A,B and C are three metals which undergo chemical reactions according to the following equations :
(i) A2O3 + 2B  B2O3 + 2A
(ii) 3CSO4 + 2B  B2(SO4)3 + 3C
(iii) 3CO + 2A  A2O3 + 3C
Now answer the following questions:
(a) Which element is most reactive?
(b) Which element is least reactive?
(c) Arrange these elements in the order of increasing reactivity.

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DPP NO. 07

1. Which element exists in diatomic state ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Sulphur
(C) Selenium (D) Tellurium

2. The non-metal which is used for the manufacture of fertilizers is;
(A) Chlorine (B)Sulphur (C) Phosphorus (D) None of these

3. Which of the following non metal is denser than many metals ?
(A) Bromine (B) Chlorine (C) Oxygen (D) Graphite

4. Sulphur dioxide is a -
(A) basic oxide (B) acidic oxide (C) neutral oxide (D) None of these

5. Which of the following elements is a metalloid ?
(A) N (B) C (C) As (D) P

6. Which metal has high melting point ?
(A) Sn (B) Sb (C) Fe (D) Pb

7. Which is used for vulcanization of Rubber ?
(A) Phosphorus (B) Sulphur (C) Sodium (D) Potassium

8. Which gas is used for balloon ?
(A) Helium (B) Neon (C) Argon (D) Nitrogen

9. Which gas is used in electrical bulbs ?
(A) Argon (B) Helium (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen

10. The metal that has little to no affinity for reaction with water or steam is
(A) copper (B) aluminium (C) zinc (D) iron

11. Give some examples of amphoteric oxides.

12. Give the formula of non-metallic oxide which is known as laughing gas ?

13. Define Alloys with example along with their usage in day to day life.

14. Which property of graphite is utilised in making electrodes ?

15. An oxide 'X' when react with 'Y' produce salt & water. 'Y' turns red litmus blue & 'X' is an oxide of an
elements which are not malleable & ductile. Identify 'X' & 'Y'.

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DPP NO. 08

1. Fuels are materials which are generally burnt to produce
(A) light energy (B) heat energy (C) sound energy (D) None of these

2. Coal is a
(A) fossil fuel (C) secondary fuel (C) processed fuel (D) None of these

3. Water gas contains
(A) hydrogen and carbon dioxide (B) hydrogen and nitrogen
(C) hydrogen and carbon monoxide (D) None of these

4. Oldest form of fossil coal is
(A) Lignite (B) Anthracite (C) Coke (D) Charcoal

5. Carbonization is
(A) formation of carbon dioxide (B) formation of carbon-monoxide
(C) burning of coal in presence of oxygen (D) conversion of dead vegetation into coal

6. The main constituent of coal is
(A) nickel (B) carbon (C) oxygen (D) iron

7. Ointments are prepared from
(A) lubricating oil (B) coke (C) bitumen (D) paraffin wax

8. Coal tar is replaced by
(A) tar (B) coal gas (C) coal (D) bitumen

9. The natural resource, which is known as 'Black Gold' is
(A) coal (B) natural gas (C) petroleum (D) coal tar

10. The one that is known as marsh gas is
(A) ethane (B) methane (C) propane (D) butane

11. Name the type of coal which has least amount of carbon and how it can be used.

12. Name the four products obtained by destructive distillation of coal.

13. Give two examples of solid fuel with their usage.

14. What do we get on heating of soft coal in limited air ?

15. Producer gas is not considered as a good fuel. Explain why ?

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DPP NO. 09

1. Petroleum was formed under the surface of earth by the decomposition of
(A) plants (B) animals (C) rocks (D) Both (A) & (B)

2. The gas which is found with petroleum is :
(A) hydrogen (B) oxygen (C) natural gas (D) producer gas

3. Petroleum is refined by :
(A) crystallisation (B) steam distillation
(C) fractional distillation (D) distillation

4. Which of the following is not a product of petroleum refining ?
(A) Toluene (B) Gasoline
(C) Kerosene oil (D) Diesel oil

5. LPG mainly contains :
(A) butane and propane (B) methane
(C) methane and ethane (D) hydrogen, methane and ethane

6. Natural gas is composed primarily of :
(A) methane (B) n-butane
(C) n-octane (D) a mixture of octanes

7. Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons containing :
(A) C1-C14 atoms (B) C40- C50 atoms (C) C15-C20 atoms (D) C1-C40 atoms

8. Which of the following is used as an anti - knocking compound ?
(A) TEL (B) C2H5OH (C) Glyoxal (D) Freon

9. The first petroleum oil well in India was drilled at :
(A) Digboi in Assam (B) Bombay in Maharashtra
(C) Sikar in Rajasthan (D) Ankaleshwar in Gujrat

10. The process of separating the various constituents of petroleum is called -
(A) Ionization (B) Carbonization
(C) Refining. (D) Lubrication

11. What is the principle behind fractional distillation used in refining of petroleum ?

12. How leakage of LPG is detected ?

13. Name the petroleum product used for making candles.

14. Define petrochemicals.

15. Which fraction of petroleum has the lowest boiling point and is collected at the top ?

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DPP NO. 10

1. Which zone is the hottest part of candle flame ?
(A) outer zone (B) inner zone (C) middle zone (D) None of these
2. Which is a zone of non combustion ?
(A) Blue zone (B) Dark zone (C) Luminous zone (D) All of these
3. Which is not used as fire extinguisher ?
(A) Water (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Oxygen (D) All of these
4. The flame produced by burning LPG is :
(A) Blue (B) Yellow (C) Orange (D) Green
5. A family consumes 14.5 kg of LPG in 28 days. Calculate the average energy consumed per day, if the
calorific value of L.P.G. is 55 KJ/g
(A) 26480 KJ/day (B) 28482 KJ/day (C) 24842 KJ/day (D) 24882 KJ/day
6. Match the following -
(a) CH4 (i) Neither combustible nor supports combustion

(b) CO2 (ii) Combustible

(c) N2 (iii) Supports combustion

(d) O2 (iv) Extinguishes fire

Which of the following indicates the correct match ?
(A) a - i ; b - ii ; c - iii ; d - iv (B) a - ii ; b - iv ; c - i ; d - iii
(C) a - ii ; b - iii ; c - i ; d - iv (D) a - iii ; b - iv ; c - ii ; d - i

7. Nitya was a very naughty girl. One day she made a paper cup by folding a sheet of paper. Then she
poured about 50 ml water in the cup and heated the cup over a candle flame.To her surprise the paper
cup did not burn. It is because
(A) in the presence of water, the ignition temperature of the paper cannot be reached.
(B) the candle flame does not provide sufficient heat to raise the temperature of paper to its ignition
(C) air is not present at the point of contact of the flame with the paper.
(D) the flame of the candle is not luminous.

8. Which of the following on burning does not produce a flame ?
(A) Candle wick (B) A wick dipped in kerosene oil
(C) Charcoal (D) Camphor

9. The head of a safety match contains
(A) antimony trisulphide and potassium chlorate
(B) antimony chloride and potassium sulphide
(C) antimony carbonate
(D) potassium sulphide

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10. When a frying pan containing cooking oil is kept for long on a burning stove then cooking oil catches fire
(A) Its temperature is lower than its ignition temperature
(B) Its temperature is reached to its ignition temperature
(C) Its temperature is lower than critical temperature
(D) Its temperature is higher than critical temperature

11. What other name can be used for ignition temperature ?

12. Burning of fuel is which kind of chemical reaction - exothermic or endothermic and why ?

13. Write the necessary conditions for combustion ?

14. Luminous flame leaves black soot. What is this black substance made up of ?

15. Match the following -
Column A Column B
(1) Carbon dioxide a. Rapid combustion
(2) LPG b. Incomplete combustion
(3) Hydrogen c. Spherical flame
(4) Carbon monoxide d. Candles
(5) Zero gravity e. Solid fuel
(6) Petrol f. Black
(7) Soot g. Non - combustible gas
(8) Paraffin wax h. Liquid fuel
(9) No combustion i. Poisoning
(10) Wood j. Combustible gas

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DPP NO. 11
1. Which of the following is best fuel in terms of energy released by per unit gram of fuel ?
(A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Propane (D) Butane

2. Out of the following different types of fuels the one which is excellent is
(A) the solid fuel (B) the liquid fuel (C) the gaseous fuel (D) none of these

3. Destructive distillation of coal is the process of –
(A) heating coal in excess of air (B) heating coal in absence of air
(C) heating coal with water (D) heating coal with carbon dioxide

4. The harmful gas(es) produced during combustion of coal and petroleum products is/are
(A) SO2 (B) NO2 (C) CO (D) All of these

5. The minimum temperature at which a substance catches fire is
(A) melting point (B) ignition temperature
(C) boiling point (D) critical temperature

6. The non-combustible substance among the following is
(A) coal (B) glass (C) wood (D) paper

7. Pollution can be reduced by using
(A) petrol (B) diesel (C) kerosene (D) CNG

8. Combustion is a
(A) Physical process (B) Chemical process
(C) Biological process (D) Mechanical process

9. In carbon dioxide based fire extinguishers, carbon dioxide is present in -
(A) liquefied and compressed form
(B) powdered sodium bicarbonate form
(C) powdered potassium bicarbonate form
(D) all of them

10. Sun produces heat and light by
(A) combustion (B) inflammation
(C) nuclear reactions (D) photochemical reactions

11. What do you understand by calorific value ?

12. Why does powdered coal burn more rapidly than a lump of coal ?

13. Coke burns without smoke, still it is not used as a fuel. Why ?

14. When coal or charcoal burns, it just glows red and gives out heat without a flame, while wood burns
with a flame. Why ?

15. Hydrogen has the highest calorific value still it cannot be used for domestic purposes. Why ?

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(India) Private Limited CLASS – VIII (CBSE)

DPP NO. 01
1. Kharif season crops are grown in
(A) Oct-Nov (B) Sept-Oct (C) June-July (D) Nov-Dec

2. Unwanted plants grow along with crops are termed as
(A) weeds (B) shrubs (C) herbs (D) none of these

3. Cultivation of fruits, vegetables and ornamental plants, is studied under
(A) agronomy (B) plant Tissue Culture (C) horticulture (D) seed culture

4. The sowing process includes
(A) sprinkle of water droplets (B) dispersion of fertilizer
(C) dispersion of seeds (D) all of these

5. Threshing means
(A) cutting of crops (B) separation of grain from crop
(C) separation of chaff (D) storage of crops

6. Components required for fertility of soil
(A) Na, Ca, K (B) K, Mg, Mn (C) N, P, K (D) N, Mg, Ca

7. Irrigation is done after
(A) manuring (B) threshing (C) weeding (D) storage

8. Wheat, Barley are the
(A) rabi crops (B) zaid crops (C) kharif crops (D) Both (A) & (B)

9. Which of the following implement used for digging soil?
(A)Sickle (B) Spade (C) Khurpa (D) Harrow

10. Which sowing method is used for paddy field
(A) seed-drills (B) broad Casting (C) transplantation (D) all of these

11. What do you mean by ploughing ?

12. What are kharif and rabi crops?

13. What is sowing?

14. Write the points that should be considered for selection of crops for rotation.

15. What are the modern methods of Irrigation? Explain.

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DPP NO. 02


1. The micro-organism which always harm the living creature is

(A) Bacteria (B) Virus (C) Protozoa (D) Algae

2. The connecting link between plant and animal cell is

(A) mycoplasma (B) viruses (C) euglena (D) amoeba

3. The curdling of milk is induced by

(A) algae (B) plasmodium (C) bacteria (D) fungi

4. Malaria is caused by

(A) bacteria (B) algae (C) protozoa (D) fungi

5. Fermentation is the major function of

(A) yeast (B) lichen (C) mushroom (D) plasmodium

6. Which of the following is cause of Polio?

(A) Virus (B) Algae (C) Bacteria (D) Protozoa

7. Cake and bread are produced by

(A) algae (B) yeast (C) fungi (D) lichen

8. Lichen is the association of

(A) Algae - Bacteria (B) Yeast-Protozoa (C) Bacteria-Yeast (D) Algae-fungi

9. Viral disease is

(A) small Pox (B) mumps (C) chicken Pox (D) all of these

10. Kala Azar is a ……………..disease.

(A) viral (B) bacterial (C) protozoan (D) fungal

11. Define bacteriophage.

12. Name the structure present in bacteria which is analogous to mitochondria and write its function also.

13. Name the causal organism of

(i) tetanus (ii) cholera (iii) syphilis (iv) food poisoning

14. Differentiate in between communicable and non communicable disease.

15. Name the five groups into which microorganisms are divided. Which of these are only unicellular


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DPP NO. 03

1. Biodiversity of a region, means
(A) group of same species (B) group of mountains
(C) group of different species (D) group of different religion

2. Members of same species
(A) do not reproduce (B) do not reside together
(C) do not reproduce (D) do not form colonies

3. 'Fauna' is
(A) group of microbes (B) group of animals
(C) group of flowers (D) group of animals & microbes

4. Abiotic components of ecosystem are
(A) animals (B) microbes (C) plants (D) mountains

5. Cutting down of forest an a large scale is
(A) reforestation (B) afforestation (C) deforestation (D) none of these

6. Species of animals and plants which are no more now, comes in the category of
(A) endangered (B) extinct (C) vulnerable (D) rare

7. Movement of animals and birds periodically is known as
(A) conversion (B) extinction
(C) migration (D) none of these

8. A Book which provide essential information about animals and plants which are endangered is?
(A) Green Data Book (B) Black Data Book
(C) IUCN (D) Red Data Book

9. Jim Corbett National park is situated in which state?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand (D) Uttarakhand

10. Flora includes
(A) only plants (B) both plants and animals
(C) only animals (D) plants, animals and microorganism

11. Name one extinct bird.

12. Which wild life sanctuary preserves Siberian crane?

13. Define Biodiversity.

14. What is the difference between endangered and extinct species ?

15. Explain various threat categories of animals.

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DPP NO. 04


1. Who observed the cell?

(A) Robert Brown (B) C.Nagoli

(C) Robert Hook (D) De Duve

2. Smallest cell is

(A) PPLO (B) Bacteria

(C) Amoeba (D) Virus

3. Outermost covering of plant cell is

(A) cell membrane (B) tonoplast

(C) cell wall (D) cytoplasm

4. Nuclear region of prokaryotic cell is called

(A) nucleoid (B) nucleus

(C) nucleolus (D) all

5. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by which scientist?

(A) Singer & Nicolson (B) Darwin

(C) Purkinje & Virchow (D) C. Benda

6. Which of the following is an unicellular organism?

(A) Amoeba (B) Plant

(C) Fungi (D) Algae

7. What is Dictyosome ?

(A) Ribosome (B) Golgi Complex

(C) Lysosome (D) Plastids

8. Demolition squads are

(A) vacuoles (B) lysosome

(C) plastids (D) peroxisome

9. The term lysosome introduced by whom?

(A) C.Benda (B) D. Duve

(C) Nageli (D) E.Haede

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10. ATP is

(A) Adenosine tri phosphate (B) Adinine tetra phosphate

(C) Arginine tri phosphate (D) None

11. What is the name of membrane of a vacuole?

12. Name the types of Endoplasmic reticulum.

13. What is the main function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum ?

14. Write down the characteristic features of golgi bodies.

15. Differentiate between plant & animal cell.

DPP NO. 05

1. Bi-parental reproduction is
(A) asexual (B) binary fission (C) sexual (D) amitosis

2. Gametes are produce in
(A) asexual reproduction (B) regeneration
(C) sexual reproduction (D) fragmentation

3. Sexual reproduction includes
(A) meiosis (B) gamete formation
(C) mitosis (D) both (A) and (B)

4. Asexual reproduction is
(A) fragmentation (B) spore formation
(C) budding (D) all of these

5. Division type occur in asexual reproduction
(A) meiosis (B) direct division
(C) indirect division (D) mitosis

6. Binary fission shows by
(A) hydra (B) planaria
(C) amoeba (D) none of these

7. Variation occur in
(A) asexual Reproduction (B) sexual Reproduction
(C) amitosis (D) fragmentation

8. Planaria shows ..................... reproduction
(A) sexual (B) asexual
(C) parasexual (D) both (A) and (C)

9. Fusion of gametes out side the female body shows
(A) external fertilization (B) induced fertilization
(C) internal Fertilization (D) syngamy

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10. In man, progeny produced by
(A) internal fertilization (B) external fertilization
(C) induced fertilization (D) syngamy

11. Define parthenogenesis.

12. What is internal fertilization ?

13. What function does vasa deferens perform in the body of an adult male?

14. What is an embryo ? Where does the development of a human embryo take place ?

15. Classify the following animals as Viviparous (VP) or Oviparous (OP) animals .
Force Viviparous (VP) or Oviparous (OP)
1. Human being ____________________
2. Crow ____________________
3. Fish ____________________
4. Elephant ____________________
5. Zebra ____________________

DPP NO. 06


1. Adolescent age

(A) starts at 11 years of age & ends at the age of 18-19 years

(B) starts at 13 years of age & ends at the age of 16 years

(C) starts at 9 years of age & ends at the age of 18-19 years

(D) varies

2. Female produce

(A) two types of ova (B) only one ova

(C) one types of ova (D) none of these

3. Widening of voice during Adolescence is a feature of

(A) boys (B) old people

(C) girls (D) new ones

4. Endocrine glands release hormones in

(A) duct (B) bone marrow

(C) blood (D) organ's cavity

5. Fertilization is the fusion product of

(A) male gametes (B) female gametes

(C) male & female gametes (D) male and pollen cell

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6. XX gametes are formed by

(A) female (B) zygote

(C) male (D) foetus

7. Gametes contain __________ number of chromosome

(A) double (B) half

(C) single (D) multiple

8. Balance diet include

(A) proteins in high amount (B) fats in lower amount

(C) carbohydrates in high amount (D) all the nutrients in adequate amount

9. Macro elements of our meal is

(A) carbohydrates (B) lipids

(C) proteins (D) vitamins

10. 'Master gland' of our body is

(A) adrenal gland (B) pancreas

(C) thyroid gland (D) pituitary gland

11. Name the different steps involved in sexual reproduction & define them.
12. What causes boys and girls to develop different kinds of voices during adolescence?
13. What is the cause of dwarfism?
14. When do body changes occur in a boy and in a girl?
15. "Sweat and oil glands are ductless". Do you agree with this statement? Give reason for your answer.

DPP NO. 07

1. Which pollutant exhibits biomagnifications in food-chain ?
(A) DDT (B) SO2 (C) CO (D) PAN

2. Which of the following is main factor of water-pollution?
(A) Smoke (B) Industrial waste
(C) Detergent (D) Ammonia

3. Main air pollutant among the following is
(A) O2 (B) CO2 (C) N2 (D) Sulphur

4. Domestic wastes will lead to
(A) biodegradable pollution (B) non-degradable pollution
(C) thermal pollution of soil (D) air pollution

5. The most harmful pollutants produced by automobiles is
(A) HNO2 (B) NO (C) SO2 (D) CO

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6. Which is greatest air pollutant these days?
(A) Factories (B) Motor vehicles (C) Domestic appliances (D) Animals

7. Non-ionising radiations damaging to DNA are
(A) X-rays (B) U.V. rays (C) Gamma rays (D) Beta rays

8. Acidic rains are due to
(A) O3 (B) SO2 + NO2 (C) CO (D) CO2

9. Percentage of land-mass in India under forest cover is
(A) 33 % (B) 23 % (C) 17 % (D) 19 %

10. Radiation is health hazard because it cause
(A) pneumonia (B) leukaemia (C) hemophilia (D) anaemia

11. What do you mean by fly ash ?

12. Write two main sources of water pollution.

13. What is ozone? How does it protect our environment?

14. What is the Greenhouse effect? How does it affect the atmosphere?

15. Explain different steps of purification of drinking water for city supply.

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(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE

1. When did the National Archives of India came up?
(A) 1920 (B) 1925 (C) 1930 (D) 1945

2. Jamel Mills divided Indian history on the basis of
(A) Development (B) Social and economic culture
(C) religion (D) rulers

3. Modern period first began in
(A) Europe, 15th century AD (B) Asia, 16th century AD
(C) Africa, 15th century AD (D) None of these

4. Main aim behind colonizing a country was
(A) to promote christianity (B) to promote education
(C) to promote socialism (D) to get resources

5. Those artists who specialise in the art of beautiful handwriting are called
(A) calligraphers (B) graphologists
(C) writers (D) hieroglyphists

6. Which of the following is not a source material of modern history?
(A) Books (B) Articles
(C) Pottery (D) Photographs

7. British maintained ______________ for keeping records.
(A) buildings (B) record rooms
(C) museums (D) storage rooms

8. When did British complete their first census survey of India?
(A) Around 1851 (B) Around 1861
(C) Around 1867 (D) Around 1881

9. During Britishers who prepared the first nearly accurate map of India.
(A) James Rennel (B) James Donald
(C) Simon Rennell (D) Alexander

10. India became a ____________ colony in the eighteenth century.
(A) French (B) Portugal
(C) British (D) Spanish

11. What is periodisation?

12. What are the characteristic features of the ‘Modern Age’?

13. What is the importance of history?

14. How did surveys help British people to rule over India?

15. On what basis did James Mill periodise Indian history? Explain.

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1. British territories were broadly divided into administrative units called
(A) Parganas (B) Provinces
(C) Presidencies (D) Districts

2. The first English factories in India were set up at
(A) Masulipatam (B) Bombay
(C) Calcutta (D) Madras

3. Who was the Nawab of Bengal during the Battle of Plassey?
(A) Alivardi Khan (B) Shuja-ud-Daulah
(C) Siraj-ud-Daulah (D) Siraj Khan

4. Who started a new policy of "paramountcy" ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings
(C) Lord Wellesley (D) None of these

5. Which of the following was not annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Nagpur (B) Jaipur
(C) Jhansi (D) Sambhalpur

6. Where was the Supreme Court established by the Regulating Act of 1773 ?
(A) Calcutta (B) Bombay
(C) Madras (D) Pune

7. Christopher Columbus discovered
(A) The sea route to India (B) The sea route to Africa
(C) The America (D) Australia

8. The British East India Company was established in
(A) 1650 (B) 1600
(C) 1700 (D) none of the above

9. Who introduced the system of subsidiary Alliance?
(A) Lord Wellesley (B) Robert Clive
(C) Warren Hasting (D) Lord Curzon

10. The regional state that was governed by a confederacy different chief was
(A) Punjab (B) Marathas
(C) Oudh (D) Bengal

11. What was the result of the competition between the trading companies from different European countries ?

12. What were the main clauses of the Subsidiary Alliance System?

13. What do you understand by Doctrine of Lapse?

14. What did Tipu Sultan do that resulted in wars against the Company ?

15. What were the reasons for the decline of the Mughal Empire ?

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1. The constitution was adopted on
(A) 26 November, 1949 (B) 26 November, 1950
(C) 26 December, 1949 (D) 26 December, 1950

2. Basic fundamental legal document according to which the government of a country functions
(A) Preamble (B) Legislature
(C) Constitution (D) Draft

3. Preamble of Indian constitution has declared India as Republic State which means head of the state is
(A) Prime Minister of India (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) President of India (D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India.

4. India is a secular country. It means
(A) All people are equal (B) All states are equal
(C) All ministers are equal (D) All religions are equal

5. Our constitution allowed reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes
to improve their
(A) Living standard (B) Intelligence
(C) Economic and social status (D) Cultural activities

6. All citizens are equal before the law comes under
(A) Equality (B) Fraternity
(C) Liberty (D) Sovereign

7. Which term is used in the Indian constitution means that the everyone is given equal opportunities to make
use of the resources of the country.
(A) Equality (B) Fraternity
(C) Socialist (D) Justice

8. Which structure of government does Indian constitution provide?
(A) Unicameral (B) Monarchy
(C) Dictatorship (D) Federal

9. Guidelines for government while making laws and policies for the country.
(A) Union policy (B) Directive principles of state policy
(C) Law policy (D) Fundamental rights

10. Which branch of government is answerable to the legislature for its actions.
(A) Judiciary (B) State government
(C) Executive (D) Both (A) and (B)

11. What is a constitution?

12. Define the term ‘Fundamental Rights’.

13. Explain any four features of the Indian constitution.

14. Why should a country have a constitution?

15. What do you understand by a federal structure of government ?

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1. Secularism means
(A) showing respect to Hindu religion (B) showing respect to all religions
(C) showing respect to major religion (D) None of these

2. Indian constitution has adopted secularism because
(A) Britishers forced
(B) religious community does not dominate another minor community
(C) it removes discrimination
(D) both (B) & (C)

3. A secular country is where
(A) There is no state religion (B) There is no religious teaching
(C) There is no test of religious nature (D) All of the above

4. The word ‘Secular’ was incorporated into the preamble to the Indian Constitution by an amendment to the
constitution in
(A) 1973 (B) 1974 (C) 1975 (D) 1976

5. Under the right to freedom of religion every citizen has the freedom to
(A) practise his or her religion (B) criticise other religious groups
(C) force people to convert to their religion (D) practice untouchability

6. A small group within a community or a country that is different because of race, religion, language, etc. is
(A) A community (B) A majority (C) A family (D) A minority

7. Which of these institutions in India cannot display anything that promotes religion?
(A) Law court (B) Police station
(C) Government schools (D) All of these

8. Among the following statement which one is not true?
(A) Indian citizen can preserve their culture
(B) Indian citizen can run their own educational institute
(C) There is religious teaching in Government Educational Institute in India
(D) No Indian citizen can be stopped from studying in Government institute on ground of religion

9. What can one do if one’s Fundamental Rights are denied?
(A) One can do anything
(B) One can move the lower court
(C) One can move the High Court or the Supreme Court
(D) One can approach the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

10. Which one of the following is a fundamental right ?
(A) Right to freedom of religion (B) Right to property
(C) Right to work (D) All of these

11. Explain by giving example how Indian Government relax laws, so citizen can do religious practice?

12. Define secularism?

13. Why there is a need to separate religion from the state?

14. Explain by giving example how Indian Government ban things done in the name of religion?

15. Why the government interferes if some religious groups say that their religion allows them to practise
untouchability or infanticide?
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1. Anything that satisfy human needs is called
(A) wants (B) resource
(C) source (D) Both (A) and (B)

2. Which of the following is a resource?
(A) Building (B) Forest
(C) Soil (D) All of these

3. Coal is a resource because -
(A) It is black in colour (B) It is found deep inside the earth
(C) It can produce fire (D) It is a rock

4. Which of the following resource has a esthetic value?
(A) Swimming pool (B) Fan
(C) Road (D) Mountains

5. Inexhaustible natural resources in nature are
(A) limited (B) unlimited
(C) scarce (D) not present

6. Those resources which are found in a region, but have not been put to a proper use are called
(A) Actual resources (B) Biotic resources
(C) Potential resources (D) Abiotic resources

7. The application of the latest knowledge and skill in doing or making things is called -
(A) skilling (B) discovery
(C) technology (D) training

8. Biotic resources are obtained from the -
(A) Biosphere (B) Sky
(C) Coal (D) Air

9. Which of the following is a ubiquitous resource -
(A) Copper (B) Petroleum
(C) Light (D) Lake

10. Sustainable development involves -
(A) preventing pollution (B) proper use of resources
(C) improve the quality of human life (D) All of these

11. When can people make the best use of nature?

12. What is a resource?

13. What are the criteria (requirements) for any substance to become a resource?

14. What do you understand by sustainable development? Also mention its basic principles.

15. Differentiate between Ubiquitous and Localised resources.

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1. How many land revenue system were introduced by British in India ?
(A) two (B) three
(C) five (D) four

2. Who were the revenue collectors in the permanent settlement system ?
(A) planters (B) governor
(C) zamindars (D) officers

3. In this place Gandhiji launched his campaign against exploitation of the idigo planters.
(A) Champaran (B) Bengal
(C) Punjab (D) Kerala

4. When was the East India company appointed the Diwan of Bengal ?
(A) 1863 (B) 1764
(C) 1765 (D) 1866

5. When was the Permanent Settlement introduced and by whom?
(A) Lord Cornwallis, 1793 (B) Warren Hastings, 1782
(C) Lord Wellesley, 1800 (D) Lord Canning 1770

6. Who devised the Mahalwari system in India?
(A) John Booth (B) Thomas Munro
(C) Holt Mackenzie (D) John Thomas

7. Who introduced the Ryotwari system on a large-scale and where?
(A) Thomas Munro, Madras Presidency (B) Holt Mackenzie, the North West
(C) Lord Cornwallis, Bengal (D) Robert Clive

8. Neel Darpan highlighted the pitiable condition of
(A) Jute Cultivators (B) Indigo Cultivators
(C) Sugar cane cultivators (D) Cotton Cultivators

9. The word ‘Mahal’ meant -
(A) Palace (B) Village
(C) Farm (D) Banglow

10. Which land revenue settlement was devised and recommended by Read and Munro?
(A) Permanent Settlement (B) Mahalwari Settlement
(C) Ryotwari Settlement (D) All of these

11. Why were the British interested in the production of cash crops ?

12. Why there was a demand for Indian indigo?

13. 'Commercialisation of agriculture was a boon for the Company, but a bane for the peasant'. Justify the

14. Describe two main features each of the Mahalwari and the Ryotwari systems. How were the different from the
Permanent Settlement?

15. What problems were faced by the planters in the Nij system?

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1. What is jhum cultivation?
(A) Settled agriculture by tribal groups in river valleys
(B) Shifting cultivation by tribal groups in hilly areas
(C) Settled agriculture and pastoralism practiced by tribal groups
(D) Settled agriculture by tribal groups in plateaus

2. Who were dikus?
(A) Tribal cultivators and pastoralists (B) Non-tribal merchants, middlemen and moneylenders
(C) Non-tribal settled agriculturists (D) None of these

3. The Gaddis of Kulu were
(A) shepherds (B) cattle herders (C) fruit gatherers (D) hunters.

4. How did colonialism affect the life of the tribal people ?
(A) Many of them lost their land, as they had no written proof of ownership of land
(B) The British protected the rights of the tribal people and gradually absorbed them into British society
(C) In an effort to pay the high revenues demanded by the British, the tribal people often ended up in debt to
the moneylenders and lost their land
(D) The tribal people prospered under the British, who gave them jobs and educated them

5. What was the immediate cause of the Kol uprising of 1831-32?
(A) The oppression of the Kols by the British
(B) The oppression of the Kols by the non-advasi contractors and landlords
(C) The forced conversion of the Kols to Christianity
(D) All of the above

6. Why did the Mundas under Birsa Munda rise in revolt against the British?
(A) By the Forest Regulation Act passed by the British, the Mundas had lost their traditional rights to the
produce of the forest and their land
(B) The British brought in outsiders to cultivate the land of the Mundas and forced the Mundas to grow cash
crops on their land
(C) All adivasi groups that rebelled against the British were labeled criminals and treated as such
(D) All of the above

7. Birsa belonged to which tribal group ?
(A) Santhal (B) Munda (C) Bhiku (D) None of these

8. British officials saw these settled tribal groups as more civilised than hunter- gatherers
(A) Gonds (B) Santhals (C) Khonds (D) Both (A) and (B)

9. Vaishnav preachers were the worshippers of
(A) Shiva (B) Durga (C) Krishna (D) Vishnu

10. Kusum and palash flowers were used to
(A) prepare medicines (B) make garlands
(C) colour clothes and leather (D) prepare hair oil

11. Mention different types of activities of the tribal people.

12. Why did the British want tribal groups to settle down and become peasant cultivators ?

13. Write a brief summary on Birsa Munda and his struggle against the British.

14. What problems did shifting cultivators face under British rule ?

15. How did the power of tribal chiefs change under the colonial rule?

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1. The President of India holds office for a period of
(A) 6 years (B) 5 years
(C) 4 years (D) 7 years

2. Rajya Sabha members are elected by the members of the
(A) legislature of state (B) assemblies of States and Union territories
(C) union territories (D) cabinet ministers

3. Into how many parliamentary constituencies is India divided?
(A) 540 (B) 541
(C) 542 (D) 543

4. Who appoints twelve members to the Rajya Sabha?
(A) President (B) Vice President
(C) Prime Minister (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

5. Rajya sabha is also called
(A) Parliament (B) House of people
(C) Council of States (D) None of these

6. Houses of people is
(A) Lok sabha (B) Vidhan sabha
(C) Rajya sabha (D) Parliament

7. How many members are nominated in Lok sabha by president?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7

8. The parliament of India consists
(A) President, Lok sabha, Rajya sabha (B) Prime minister, lok sabha, Rajya sabha
(C) Vice president, Vidhan sabha (D) None of these

9. Who is the leader of ruling party in the lok sabha?
(A) Prime minister (B) President
(C) Speaker of lok sabha (D) All of these

10. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?
(A) Speaker (B) Vice President
(C) President (D) Prime Minister

11. Give reasons why the parliamentary form of government was chosen in India.

12. What is the total membership of the Rajya Sabha? Why is it called a ‘Permanent House’?

13. What are the three organs of democratic government? What functions does each of them perform?

14. Differentiate between Parliamentary and Presidential form of government.

15. Why the Constitution of independent India laid down the principle of universal adult franchise ?

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1. All persons are equal before :
(A) Police (B) Minister
(C) Law (D) Court

2. Which institution of the government has the power to amend the old laws?
(A) Parliament (B) Courts
(C) Council of ministers (D) All of these

3. Which of these acts as the custodian of the Constitution?
(A) Supreme Court (B) Parliament
(C) Governor (D) Mayor

4. The Right to Information Act was passed in the year
(A) 2003 (B) 2005
(C) 2006 (D) 2008

5. In which year, a new bill was reintroduced in the Parliament regarding Domestic Violence?
(A) 2000 (B) 2001
(C) 2004 (D) 2005

6. NREGA is legislation regarding ..................... .
(A) Urban employment (B) Industrial labour
(C) Rural education (D) Rural employment

7. Fundamental law was guaranteed by : :
(A) Minister (B) Government
(C) President (D) Indian Constitution

8. Right against exploitation ways that :
(A) Every person is free to chose any religion (B) No one can interrupt constitution
(C) No one can forced to work for law wages (D) All of these

9. No child below the age of ……. shall be employed to work in any factory :
(A) Fourteen (B) Twenty
(C) Ten (D) Three

10. RTI Act guarantees people's right to
(A) know governmental proceedings
(B) get universal primary education
(C) speak out their discontent freely and fearlessly
(D) hold meetings and public gatherings

11. What do you mean by RTE? Explain in detail.

12. How do new laws come about ?

13. What do you mean by RTI? Explain the RTI Act in detail.

14. What was the Sedition Act?

15. What do you understand by the term the 'rule of law'.

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DPP NO. 10

1. The process of capturing and using rainwater is called
(A) Water budget (B) Rainwater havesting
(C) Hydrological cycle (D) Both (A) and (B)

2. Which of the following factors do not participate in soil formation?
(A) Afforestation (B) Parent rock
(C) Climate (D) Time

3. Contour ploughing and terrace cultivation is common along
(A) river valleys (B) hill slopes
(C) deltas (D) plains

4. Which is not a conservation method of water resource ?
(A) water harvesting (B) pollution of waterbodies
(C) multipurpose projects (D) judicious use of water

5. Trees that shed their leaves once a year occur mostly in
(A) Evergreen (B) Deciduous
(C) Mangrove Forests (D) Mountain forests

6. Sustainable development seeks to prevent
(A) wastage of resources (B) pollution
(C) loss of biodiversity (D) all of these

7. In dry regions, soil erosion is checked by
(A) Shelter belts (B) Strip cropping
(C) Plugging of gullies (D) Contour ploughing

8. Largest percent of area under crops is in
(A) India (B) Russia
(C) Canada (D) France

9. Biosphere means
(A) lithosphere (B) hydrosphere
(C) atmosphere (D) all the three

10. Private land is mainly owned by the
(A) government (B) community
(C) individuals (D) none of these

11. What is a National park ?

12. Why all available water on earth is not usable?

13. What are the problems associated with the depletion of forest resources ?

14. State the factors affecting soil formation.

15. Explain methods of soil conservation.

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DPP NO. 11

1. Awadh was annexed on grounds of
(A) Corruption (B) Treason (C) Misgovernment (D) Fertile land

2. In which year Mangal Pandey hanged?
(A) 1856 (B) 1857 (C) 1858 (D) 1859

3. The adopted heir of Peshwa Baji Rao II was
(A) Mangal Pandey (B) Nana Saheb (C) Kunwar Singh (D) Tantia Tope

4. The Revolt of 1857 was a revolt by -
(A) only the Sepoys
(B) Indians from different walks of life, and included the sepoys, peasants, zamindars and even some rulers
(C) the British army officers against the British government
(D) the impoverished Indian peasants against the high taxes they had to pay

5. Whom did rebels declare as Emperor of India ?
(A) Shah Alam (B) Faruq Shiar
(C) Bahadur Shah Zafar (D) Bahadur Shah I

6. What was the immediate cause of the revolt of 1857?
(A) The annexation of Awadh
(B) The rumour that cartridge of the new Enfield rifle was greased with the fat of cows and pigs
(C) The banning of Sati by the British
(D) The refusal of the British to pay nana Sahib, the adopted son of Baji Rao II, pension

7. Who led the Revolt in Jhansi?
(A) Tantia Tope (B) Rani Lakshmibai (C) Nan Sahib (D) Azimullah

8. Who led the rebels in Bihar ?
(A) Laxmi Bai (B) Kunwar Singh (C) Tantia Tope (D) Nana Saheb

9. Bahadur Shah Zafar was arrested and sent to
(A) Mandeley (B) Andaman (C) Yerravada (D) Rangoon

10. As a result of the revolt, how was the British Empire in India reorganized?
(A) India was brought directly under the British Crown
(B) The East India Company continued to rule India
(C) The viceroy of India was now known as the governor-general
(D) The British replaced the Gurkhas, Pathans and Sikhs in the British army with British officers

11. Why was Awadh annexed?

12. What was the demand of Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi that was refused by the British?

13. How did the position of the Governor-General change after the Revolt of 1857?

14. What were the results of the revolt of 1857?

15. Describe briefly the outbreak and spread of the revolt of 1857.

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DPP NO. 12

1. In 1888 which extension scheme was planned by Robert Clarke for the Walled City residents?
(A) Lajpat Nagar Scheme (B) Tilak Nagar Scheme
(C) Lahore Gate Improvement Scheme (D) Clarkegunj Scheme

2. The central dome of the Viceroy's Palace was copied from
(A) the Buddhist stupa at Sanchi (B) Gol Gumbaj at Bijapur
(C) Victoria Palace, London (D) St. James Church, Delhi

3. The Mughal aristocracy in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries lived in grand mansions called
(A) fort (B) bunglows
(C) durbar (D) havelis

4. Which of these was not a feature of urban centres built by the British in India?
(A) Broad roads and parks
(B) Large imposing public buildings
(C) Poor civic amentities like drainage, electricity and piped water
(D) The military cantonment

5. Which institute was set up in 1936, that built areas like Daryaganj South for wealthy Indians?
(A) Urban Improvement Trust (B) Delhi Suburban Trust
(C) Delhi Improvement Trust (D) Delhi Municipal Coorporation

6. Who organized a Durbar in Delhi to acknowledge Queen Victoria as the Empress of India?
(A) Lord Cleve (B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Viceroy Lytton (D) Lord Duggerin

7. Shahjahanabad consisted of_____ one of the largest and grandest mosques in India.
(A) Jama Masjid (B) Red Fort
(C) Chandni Chowk (D) Dargah

8. In which year Delhi was made the capital of British India?
(A) 1910 (B) 1912
(C) 1913 (D) 1911

9. In which year Shah Jahan laid the foundation of Shah Jahanabad?
(A) 1638 (B) 1600
(C) 1650 (D) 1700

10. Which architects were called on to design New Delhi and its buildings?
(A) Edward Lutyens (B) Herbert Baker
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

11. What do you understand by urbanization?

12. How did India's partition affected Delhi?

13. How was colonial India divided for administrative purposes ?

14. Why did the British shift their capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911?

15. Write about the lay out of New Delhi.

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DPP NO. 13

1. The highest civil court in a district is the court of the
(A) District Judge (B) Subordinate Judge
(C) Sessions Judge (D) Munsif

2. The highest court of appeal in India is -
(A) The High Court (B) The Sessions Court
(C) The Supreme Court (D) The District Court

3. The Indian judiciary is single, integrated and unified. This means that -
(A) the Indian judiciary is the only body that can protect the rights of the people of India
(B) if a person is not satisfied with the judgement of a lower court, he/she can appeal to a higher court
(C) the judges can move from one court to any other whenever they want as the judiciary is a unified unit
(D) all of the above

4. The High Court that is common for all the seven states of the Northeast is located in
(A) Aizawal (B) Imphal
(C) Guwahati (D) Shillong

5. Which of the following is a Subordinate Court ?
(A) District Court (B) Court of Sub-Judges
(C) Munsif Court (D) All of these

6. Who presided the supreme court ?
(A) Subordinate (B) district court
(C) Chief justice (D) All of these

7. If an Indian feels that a particular decision or act of the government harm the interests of the public, he/she
(A) issue a writ against the government (B) go in for judicial review
(C) file a public interest litigation in court (D) all of the above

8. The High court of Delhi came up in :
(A) 1862 (B) 1860 (C) 1972 (D) 1966

9. The Judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of
(A) 58 years (B) 60 years (C) 62 years (D) 65 years

10. Which of these is a criminal case?
(A) Cases involving divorce (B) Cases involving divorce
(C) Cases involving property (D) Cases involving theft

11. Define jurisdiction.

12. What do you know about the subordinate court?

13. Explain pyramidal structure of the judiciary.

14. How can you say that the Supreme Court is the guardian of Fundamental Rights?

15. Explain the main functions and powers of the Supreme Court of India.

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DPP NO. 14

1. An accused person is decided by:
(A) Police (B) Court (C) Person himself (D) All of these

2. Every person has a Fundamental Right to be presented before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest under
the act _______________.
(A) Article 42 (B) Article 67 (C) Article 45 (D) Article 22

3. Key players of criminal Justice system are :
(A) Police & public prosecutor (B) Defence lawyer & Judge
(C) Both (a) & (b) (D) None of these

4. The court can direct a police officer to arrest a person and produce him before the court by issuing a
......................... against him.
(A) summon (B) warrant (C) chargesheet (D) verdict

5. FIR means
(A) Formal Identification Report (B) First Information Report
(C) First Indian Region (D) All of these

6. Public Prosecutor is
(A) One who represents the interests of state (B) One who investigate crime
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these

7. What is the role of Judge?
(A) Decide whether accused person is guilty or innocent
(B) May send the person to jail
(C) May impose a fine or both
(D) All of these

8. What is a fair trial?
(A) The trial in the absence of accused (B) The trail in the presence of accused
(C) Judge should not be there for judgment (D) All of these

9. Which Court has made it mandatory for the police to record FIRs?
(A) High Court (B) Sessions Court
(C) District Court (D) Supreme court

10. When Some one violate the law, we immediately inform
(A) Neighbours (B) Relative
(C) Judge (D) Police

11. Briefly trace the procedure of filling an FIR.

12. Describe how a fair trial of every citizen is ensured by our constitution.

13. What is cross–examination in the criminal justice?

14. What is the role of the Public Prosector?

15. What guidelines have been laid by supreme court for police during, investigation?

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DPP NO. 15

1. The most commonly available mineral on the surface of the Earth is/are
(A) Iron (B) Aluminium
(C) Silicates (D) Sodium

2. Carbon is an/a
(A) organic mineral (B) inorganic mineral
(C) metallic mineral (D) none of the above

3. A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is known as a
(A) Ore (B) Mineral
(C) Soil (D) Land

4. Which continent is the world’s largest producer of tin?
(A) Asia (B) Europe
(C) North America (D) Africa

5. Which one of the following properties of a mineral is not correct ?
(A) Impure (B) Non- Renewable
(C) Non-Exhaustible (D) Unevenly distributed

6. One fourth of the world's electricity is produced by
(A) Thermal power (B) Nuclear power
(C) Hydel power (D) Wind power

7. This energy is obtained from naturally occurring radio active elements
(A) Solar energy (B) Tidal energy
(C) Thermal energy (D) Nuclear energy

8. What features of fossil fuels makes it necessary to develop non-conventional sources of energy?
(A) Fossil fuels are being depleted at an alarming rate
(B) Fossil fuels do not give as much hear as non-conventional sources of energy
(C) Fossil fuels cause atmospheric pollution
(D) Both (A) & (C)

9. Which of the following countries have a high consumption of firewood?
(A) Polar countries (B) Tropical countries
(C) Subtropical (D) Subpolar

10. Which was the first country in the world to develop hydroelectricity?
(A) Japan (B) France
(C) Norway (D) Iceland

11. Give three examples of metallic and three examples of non-metallic minerals.

12. Describe the distribution of iron ore in India.

13. Differentiate between conventional and nonconventional sources of energy.

14. How are minearals extracted from the Earth?

15. Describe the ways of conserving minerals and power resoures.

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DPP NO. 16

1. Patola weave was highly valued at
(A) India (B) England
(C) Indonesia (D) None

2. For coloured textiles, the thread was dyed by the dyer, known as
(A) Rangrez (B) Bandhana
(C) Dyer (D) None of these

3. Who were the weavers of Bengal ?
(A) Tanti (B) Sale
(C) Devangs (D) Julahas

4. Dacca was famous for its
(A) Calico (B) Silk
(C) Jamdani (D) Patola

5. Who was the inventer of Spinning Jenny ?
(A) John mill (B) John kaye
(C) James Hargreaves (D) None

6. First cotton mill in India was established at
(A) Delhi (B) Bombay
(C) Madras (D) Calcutta

7. The tricolour flag of the Indian National Congress was adopted in
(A)1922 (B) 1927
(C) 1929 (D) 1931

8. Wootz steel was the main feature of
(A) Gujarat (B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Mysore (D) Bombay

9. The Tata Iron and Steel Company was established in
(A) 1904 (B) 1907
(C) 1912 (D) 1914

10. Bhilai steel plant was supported by the Iron ore from
(A) Bhilai (B) Jamshedpur
(C) Rajhara hills (D) None

11. What was Wootz steel?

12. What was the the 'Calico Act'?

13. Why was printed cotton cloth from India called chintz?

14. How did the Tata Iron and Steel factory come up?

15. How did the development of cotton industries in Britain affect Indian textiles ?

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DPP NO. 17

1. Which Charter Act set a side Rs. one lakh for development of education in India?
(A) Charter Act of 1813 (B) Charter Act of 1833
(C) Charter Act of 1844 (D) Charter Act of 1845

2. Which one of the following terms is used to describe someone who knows and studies several languages?
(A) Social Scientist (B) Philosopher
(C) Linguist (D) Poet

3. In which one of the following cities "Victoria Memorial" is located?
(A) Delhi (B) Kolkata
(C) Mumbai (D) Chennai

4. With great energy, he emphasised the need to teach the English language.
(A) Macualay (B) Munro
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) None of these

5. Universities were established in
(A) Calcutta (B) Madras
(C) Bombay (D) All of these

6. Who argued that colonial education created a sense of inferiority in the minds of Indians?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

7. After which year, the company decided to improve the system of vernacular education?
(A) 1850 (B) 1851
(C) 1852 (D) 1854

8. The Wood's Despatch was formulated in
(A) 1851 (B) 1852
(C) 1853 (D) 1854

9. Who among the following was an Anglicist?
(A) James Mill (B) Henry Thomas
(C) Nathaniel Halhed (D) William Jones

10. Which one of the following wa not studied in a 'madrsa' set up in Calcutta in 1781 by Company Rule in India?
(A) Hindu Law (B) Islamic Law
(C) Arabic Language (D) Persian Language

11. What were the special features of a pathshala ?

12. What were the motives of British Education Policy?

13. State the recommendations of the Wood's Despatch.

14. Explain the controversy between the Anglicists and Orientalists.

15. Why did Mahatma Gandhi want to teach children handicrafts?

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DPP NO. 18

1. Marginalisation means
(A) At the centre of thing (B) Forced to occupy the sides
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

2. In social environment, marginalisation is due to
(A) Different Language (B) Different religion
(C) Minority (D) All of these

3. Who are Adivasi ?
(A) Original Inhabitants (B) Tribals
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these

4. How many percent of India's population is Adivasi?
(A) Around 8% (B) About 10%
(C) About 4% (D) about 6%

5. Scheduled Tribes is term used for
(A) Rich People (B) Adivasis
(C) People below poverty (D) All of these

6. Adivasi are involved in the Workship of
(A) Ancestors (B) Hinduism
(C) Jesus Chirst d.temple (D) Both (A) and (B)

7. Social justice targets the ....................... people of the society.
(A) wealthy (B) powerful
(C) marginalised (D) healthy

8. During the nineteenth century, substantial numbers of Adivasis converted to
(A) Hinduism (B) Islam
(C) Christianity (D) All of these

9. What was the percent of muslims in Indian population according to 2001 census?
(A) 13.4% (B) 61%
(C) 14.7% (D) 20%

10. Which of the following is/are the marginalised group(s) in India?
(A) Scheduled Castes (B) Scheduled Tribes
(C) Other Backward Classes (D) All of these

11. What do you mean by marginalisation?

12. What do you understand by the term minority?

13. Give reasons why Adivasis are becoming increasingly marginalised.

14. How far do you agree with the view that Muslims are a marginalised community?

15. Why do we need safeguards for minorities?

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DPP NO. 19

1. Rathnam, who belonged to the dalit community, was studying in an engineering college refused to perform
the ritual of-
(A) Washing the feet of all the priest and then bathing in that water.
(B) Carrying the priest on his shoulders and taking him to the temple.
(C) Cleaning the temple premises on his won
(D) Eating the leftover food of the priest

2. By granting different forms of cultural rights, the Constitution tries to ensure.......... justice to various groups.
(A) religious (B) cultural
(C) political (D) All of these

3. C.K. Janu of Kerala was a
(A) Political worker (B) Social activist
(C) Economist (D) None of these

4. If a particular Dalit caste or a certain tribe is on the government list, then a condidate from that caste or tribe
can avail of the benefit of
(A) Article 17 (B) Status
(C) Reservation (D) Money

5. Marginalised groups have low social status because of -
(A) Their physical appearance are different (B) Their social customs are different
(C) Their economic condition is very poor (D) All of these

6. Provision of the Act. of 1989 promised the tibals, that their land couldn't be sold or brought by
(A) Forest department (B) Non-tribal people
(C) Dalits (D) Landless people

7. Which article forbids discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth?
(A) Article-12 (B) Article-16 (C) Article-15 (D) Article-18

8. Which Act was passed under Article 17?
(A) Right to Freedom (B) Right to life (C) Right to Education (D) Untouchability Act

9. The Scheduled Castes and the Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed in the year
(A) 1987 (B) 1989 (C) 1990 (D) 1992

10. The Central government Passed the Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act in
(A) 2006 (B) 2007 (C) 2008 (D) 2009

11. What do you mean by manual scavenging?

12. How are the interests of minorities safeguarded?

13. What is the scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

14. Mention a few crimes listed in the Prevention of atrocities Act 1989.

15. What is given in the The Scheduled Castes and the Schedule Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?

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DPP NO. 20

1. Agriculture is a
(A) primary activity (B) secondary activity
(C) tertiary activity (D) none of these

2. A farmer who clears a small patch of forest, burns the area and then plants his crops there is practicing
(A) shifting agriculture (B) nomadic agriculture
(C) subsistence farming (D) mixed farming

3. In a mixed farm, a farmer
(A) grows food crops and rears livestock (B) grows food crops and fodder crops
(C) grows fodder crops and rears livestock (D) grows fodder crops, food crops and rears livestock

4. Which one is not a millet crop ?
(A) Jowar (B) Ragi
(C) Wheat (D) Bajra

5. Factors influencing the crop cultivation
(A) Temperature (B) Fertile soil
(C) Rainfall (D) All of these

6. Which one of the following is not a agro based industry?
(A) Cotton Textile Industry (B) Cement Industry
(C) Jute Industry (D) Sugar Industry

7. Farming where a single crop is grown on large area.
(A) Shifting Agriculture (B) Plantation
(C) Horticulture (D) Extensive

8. The two most important staple food crops of the world are
(A) Ragi & Bajra (B) Tea & coffee
(C) Rice & Wheat (D) Miltets & Maize

9. Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is called
(A) Sericulture (B) Viticulture
(C) Pisciculture (D) Horticulture

10. Which of the following is a cash crop?
(A) Tea (B) Cotton
(C) Sugarcane (D) All of these

11. What do you understand by commercial farming? Describe its forms.

12. What are the problems of Indian Agriculture?

13. What is nomadic herding ?

14. Describe the physical conditions required for cultivation of wheat and maize crops.

15. Distinguish between Extensive and Intensive farming.

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DPP NO. 21

1. The Brahmo Samaj funded by Raja Rammohan Roy aimed to -
(A) improve the position of women in society (B) encourage idot worship
(C) encourage sati (D) spread idot worship

2. Which of the following social reformer played an active role in abolition of Sati System in 1829?
(A) Vivekananda (B) Dayanand Saraswati
(C) Raja Rammohan Roy (D) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

3. When social reformer demanded a ban on the purdah system and polygamy among the Muslims?
(A) Swami Dayanand (B) Syed Ahmed Khan
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad (D) None of the

4. Who was the founder of Arya Samaj?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy (B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(C) Mahadev Govind Ranade (D) Dayanand Saraswati

5. Among the following who was called as Periyar?
(A) Jyotirao Phule (B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) E.V.Ramaswamy Naicker (D) Rajaji

6. Among the following who published a book, Stripurushtulna?
(A) Tarabai Shinde (B) Savitribai Phule
(C) Begum Rokeya (D) Pandita Ramabai

7. Who founded the Self Respect Movement ?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar (B) Periyar
(C) Jyotirao Phule (D) Pandita Ramabai

8. Among the following whose suggestion was adopted by British officials, and a law was pased in 1856
permitting widow remarriage?
(A) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar (B) Dayanand Saraswati
(C) Raj Rammohun Roy (D) Mahatma Gandhiji

9. Schools for girls were established by the Arya Samaj, in
(A) Punjab (B) Maharashtra
(C) Rajasthan (D) Delhi

10. According to which act marriageable age of girls raised to 16 and that of boys to 18
(A) Age of Consent Act (B) Child Marriage Restraint Act
(C) Raised Age Act (D) None of these

11. What do you know about the reforms of Jyotirao Phule towards eradicating the caste system?

12. Discuss the status and condition of women of the 19th century.

13. How far did the knowledge of ancient texts help the reformers to promote new laws?

14. Write about Raja rammohan roy and his reforms.

15. Discuss the contribution and achievement of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in the field of social reform.

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DPP NO. 22

1. The painting named "Ruins on the banks of the Ganges at Ghazipur, painted by
(A) Thomas Daniell (B) William Daniel (C) Johann Zoffany (D) George Willon

2. Mural is a
(A) Wall Painting (B) Scroll Painting (C) Portrait Painint (D) None of these

3. The person associated with the painting 'Damyanti' was
(A) Rabindra nath Tagore (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(C) Raja Ravi verma (D) Raj verma

4. Which of the following statement is/are true in regarding the painting which shows the victory of the battle
of seringapatam
(A) This painting was made by Rober kerr Porter in 1800
(B) The British troops are shown storming the fort from all the sides & cutting Tipu's soldiers to pieces.
(C) A British soldier is also shown raising the British flag aloft on the ramparts of Tipu's fort
(D) All of these

5. Calcutta Art Studio printed the scene of Nala and Damayanti in the
(A) 1876-77 (B) 1877-78 (C) 1878-80 (D) 1880-82

6. Johann Zoffany was born in
(A) England (B) France (C) Germany (D) Scotland

7. Read the following statements carefully
(1) In imperial Arts Indians were shown as submissive.
(2) British were shown as superior and imperious.
(3) They were shown as flaunt in their clothes, stand regally or sit arrrogantly and live a life of luxury
(4) Sometimes Indians were also drawn at the centre of such Paintings
Which of the above statements is/are not true
(A) 1, 4 (B) 2, 3 (C) only 1 (D) only 4

8. European artists brought with them the idea of
(A) realism (B) Confuciasm (C) regionalism (D) all of these

9. Another tradition of art that became immensely popular in colonial India was
(A) Portrait painting (B) Colonial Oil paints
(C) Wood block printing (D) Cloth painting

10. The theme of William Daniel's Painting was the-
(A) Modernisation of India (B) Contrast of Indian and Europeon life style
(C) Activition of roads (D) Mode of Transport

11. In what way did the British history paintings in India reflect the attitudes of imperial conquerors?

12. What were 'Company Paintings'?

13. Why can we think of Raja Ravi Varma's paintingas as national?

14. What were portrait paintings? What was their purpose?

15. Explain the effect of portrait painting becoming popular during colonial period.

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DPP NO. 23

1. Which of the following is not an example of public facilities?
(A) Power supply (B) Water supply
(C) Public transport (D) None of these

2. Private companies provide public facilities for
(A) Welfare of the people (B) Their own profit
(C) The development of India (D) None of these

3. Fundamental law was guaranteed by
(A) Minister (B) President
(C) Government (D) Indian constitution

4. An example of water related diseases is
(A) pneumonia. (B) sleeping sickness.
(C) dysentery. (D) roundworm infections.

5. The constitution of India recognises the right to water as being a part of
(A) Right to Personal Liberty. (B) Right to Life.
(C) Right to Freedom. (D) Right to Equality.

6. Laws are necessary
(A) To make people happy (B) To make people enjoy
(C) To protect people from unfair means (D) All of these

7. To protect people from exploitation government make certain ...............
(A) Laws (B) Police
(C) Courts (D) Ministers

8. The Indian constitution guarantees "Right to life" under
(A) Article 21. (B) Article 22.
(C) Article 23. (D) Article 24.

9. The burden of shortfalls in water supply falls mostly on
(A) Rich (B) Poor
(C) Both (D) None of these

10. Supreme Court and High Court held that the right to safe drinking water is a
(A) directive Principle of State Policy. (B) Fundamental Duty
(C) Fundamental Right (D) Government's Right.

11. What is sanitation?

12. What is Right to Education?

13. What is the government role in providing the puplic facilities?

14. What are the characteristics of Public facilities?

15. How does the government raise fund to provide public facilities?

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DPP NO. 24

1. The Non Government Organisations in Bhopal are fighting for the cause of
(A) CEO Anderson (B) Bhopal gas tragedy
(C) DOW company (D) Union Carbide

2. The term Fundamental Rights is mentioned in Part III of the Constitution of
(A) U.S.A. (B) India.
(C) Australia. (D) Great Britain.

3. Right against exploitation prohibits the employment of children in
(A) hazardous factories (B) office
(C) company (D) multinational companies

4. To ensure that workers are not underpaid, there is a low on
(A) Maximum wages (B) Minimum wages
(C) Wages on demand (D) None of these

5. The government has to ensure that the laws are
(A) protected (B) formulated
(C) accepted (D) implemented

6. Foreign companies set up their factories in India because
(A) workers are willing to work at lower wages. (B) shorter working hours.
(C) high security mechanism. (D) higher wages.

7. Bhopal gas tragedy took place on
(A) 12 Dec. 1984 (B) 17 Dec 1984
(C) 14 Dec 1984 (D) 2 Dec 1984

8. UC is a __________company.
(A) African (B) American
(C) Arabian (D) None of these

9. The Fundamental Right which prohibits bonded labour is
(A) Right to Exploitation (B) Right of Exploitation
(C) Right against Exploitation (D) None of these

10. According to the constitution what is the age below which a child cannot be employed in any factory or
(A) 21 years (B) 18 years
(C) 16 years (D) 14 years

11. What are the advantages to foreign companies in setting up production in India?

12. How can the government ensure social justice ?

13. What were the reasons for the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?

14. What are the reasons for the sharp differences in safety standards between the Union Carbide factories in
the U.S.A. and India ?

15. In what way was the Government responsible for the Bhopal tragedy ?

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DPP NO. 25

1. Industries owned and operated by the government and its agencies are included under
(A) Private Sector (B) Public Sector
(C) Joint Sector (D) Co-operative Sector

2. Huge quantities of raw materials are used in
(A) Cottage industries (B) Large scale industries
(C) Small industries (D) None of these

3. Which one of the following falls in the category of basic industry?
(A) Sugar industry (B) Iron and steel industry
(C) Chemical industry (D) Textile industry

4. Manufacturing industries are placed in -
(A) Primary sector (B) Tertiary sector
(C) Secondary sector (D) Service sector

5. An important iron and steel industry centre of the USA
(A) Rotterdam (B) Pittsburg
(C) Manchester (D) Ruhr basin

6. Main region of iron and steel industry in India
(A) Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta (B) Mumbai-Ahmedabad
(C) Chhotanagpur Plateau (D) West Bengal

7. The nation in which powerlooms were first used
(A) India (B) Great Britain
(C) Germany (D) France

8. Industry refers to an economic activity that is concerned with
(A) production of goods (B) extraction of minerals
(C) the provision of services (D) all of these

9. After the process of manufacturing
(A) value is added to the goods
(B) the finished good costs more than the raw material
(C) the finished good becomes of greater value to humans
(D) all of the above

10. Which of these is an example of a joint sector industry?
(A) Maruti Udyog Limited (B) Steel Authority of India Limited
(C) Reliance Industries (D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

11. Describe the classification of industries on three different bases.

12. Differentiate public and joint sector industries.

13. Where is Silicon Valley located? How did it get its name?

14. Mention a few factors that affect the location of industries.

15. Give reasons for the growth of the cotton textile industry in Ahmadabad.

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DPP NO. 26

1. Gandhiji started the Satyagraha Movement against the __________ in 1919.
(A) Cripps Mission (B) Rowlatt Act
(C) Cabinet Mission (D) None of these

2. Prime Minister of England sent the __________ to India in March 1946.
(A) Cripps Mission (B) Simon Commission
(C) Rowlatt Act (D) Cabinet Mission

3. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Arms Act – 1878 (B) Vernacular Press Act – 1878
(C) Ilbert Bill – 1883 (D) Foundation of Indian National Congress – 1886

4. The civil disobedience movement was withdrawn by Gandhi in the year
(A) 1936 (B) 1935 (C) 1934 (D) 1938

5. When did the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy occur?
(A) 10th April, 1919 (B) 13th April, 1919 (C) 12th April, 1919 (D) 9th April, 1919

6. ‘Do or Die’ slogan was given by Mahatma Gandhi at the commencement of which movement?
(A) Non-Cooperation Movement (B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Quit India Movement (D) Champaran Satyagraha

7. Which of the following statements regarding Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan is incorrect?
(A) He was called Sarhadi Gandhi (B) He founded the Khudai Khidmatgars
(C) He opposed the partition of India (D) He opposed Mahatma Gandhi

8. Why was the Simon Commission greeted with black flags and the slogan ‘Simon Go back’ in India?
(A) The Simon Commission had come to divide India into Indian and Pakistan
(B) The Commission was formed to look for ways of increasing Britain’s control over India
(C) The Commission, which was to decide India’s political future, did not include a single Indian
(D) The Commission had come to grant Purna Swaraj to India, but the Indians did not know this

9. The Dandi March was undertaken by Mahatma Gandhi to -
(A) fight for the release of all the freedom fighters held in British prisons
(B) fight for the right of the regional press to express its opinions against the British
(C) protest against the grossly unjust salt laws imposed by the British on the Indians
(D) protest against the Simon Commission’s report and the hanging of Bhagat Singh

10. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Motial Nehru-Nehru Report (B) Jinnah-Khilafat Movement
(C) Gandhi - Champaran Satyagrah (D) Subhash Chandra Bose - Forward Block

11. What according to Gandhiji were the qualities of a true Satyagrahi?

12. Why did the Indians boycott the Simon Commission?

13. Who led Civil Disobedience Movement and what was its effect?

14. What was the Ilbert Bill?

15. Describe the Rowlatt satyagraha.

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DPP NO. 27

1. Bhilai Steel plant was established in India with the help of
(A) Japan. (B) Germany.
(C) USSR. (D) USA.

2. The issue that was supposed to bring conflict among the people of India was the
(A) language. (B) religion.
(C) caste. (D) gap in different sections of Indian people.

3. The new state of Andhra Pradesh was formed in the year
(A) 1950 (B) 1951
(C)1952 (D) 1953

4. T.T. Krishnamachari conveyed the warning on behalf of the people of
(A) west. (B) north.
(C) east. (D) south.

5. He was a lawyer and economist and known as the "Father of the constitution"
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Pandit Nehru (D) None of these

6. At the time of independence, large number of Indian people were residing in
(A) cities . (B) towns.
(C) villages. (D) urban agglomeration.

7. Which of the following problems were faced immediately after independence by free India?
(A) The problem of 8 million refugees.
(B) The language problem of various regions.
(C) The problems of merger of 500 princely states in India
(D) Both (A) and (C)

8. Which one of the following lists's subjects are the joint responsibility of the Centre and states both?
(A) Residuary Subjects (B) State List
(C) Union List (D) Concurrent List

9. On which one of the following dates, Indian constitution was made effective?
(A) 29 Dec 1949 (B) 15th Aug 1947
(C) 30th Jan 1948 (D) 26 Jan 1950

10. The practice described as a 'Slur and a blot' on the fair name of India was
(A) sati (B) untouchability
(C) communalism. (D) dowry

11. What were the problems that faced the new government after independence ?

12. What is meant by Universal Adult Franchise?

13. Write a brief not on abolition of untouchability and Reservation Policy.

14. What was the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) constituted for ? What were its proposals?

15. What was the problem of a national language and how was it solved?

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DPP NO. 28

1. Distribution of population depends on
(A) Landforms (B) Climate
(C) Soil (D) All of these

2. Varanasi is crowded because
(A) it is a port city (B) it is very fertile
(C) it is a centre of religion, learning and arts (D) None of these

3. Which of the following regions are thinly populated?
(A) Coastal areas (B) Northern plains
(C) Hilly areas (D) Both (B) & (C)

4. In 1999, the world population reached :
(A) 1 billion (B) 3 billion
(C) 6 billion (D) 7 billion

5. Changes in the size of the population depend on
(A) Birth rate (B) Death rate
(C) Immigration (D) All of these

6. Which of the following age group do not contribute in production?
(A) Below 21 years (B) Above 25 years
(C) Below 15 years (D) Above 50 years

7. Population pyramid means :
(A) Graphical presentation of the age, sex composition of a population.
(B) When the population density of an area is so high that people live in tall building
(C) Patterns of population distribution is large urban area.
(D) Graphical presentation of population density.

8. The state of India which does not have high density of population .
(A) West Bengal (B) Bihar
(C) Jharkhand (D) West Rajasthan

9. Settlement in the Arabian Peninsula has been due to
(A) Water wells (B) Oil wells
(C) Fertile soil (D) Political factors

10. The Deccan plateau of India is -
(A) Densely populated (B) Moderately populated
(C) Sparsely populated (D) Uninhabited

11. Why are people called human resource ?

12. What do you understand by social and cultural factors in the distribution of pupulation?

13. What are the indicators of population composition?

14. Which are the geographical factors affecting the distribution of population?

15. What are the different characteristics of population composition?

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(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE

Topic : Number series
Find the missing term :
Q.1 3, 8, 15, 24, ?
(A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 35 (D) 36
Q.2 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, ? ,16, 64
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 25 (D) 28
Q.3 2, 20, ?, 110, 182
(A) 56 (B) 72 (C) 90 (D) 96
Q.4 11, 13, 17, 25, 32 , ? , 47
(A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 37 (D) 39
Q.5 512, 64, 16, 8, 8, 16, ?
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 40 (D) 64
Q.6 13, 16, 22, 26, 38, 62, ?, 102
(A) 66 (B) 68 (C) 72 (D) 74
Q.7 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, ? , 123, 199
(A) 76 (B) 70 (C) 84 (D) 95
Q.8 8, 4, 12, 6, 18, ? , 27
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) None of these
Q.9 5, 14, 41, 122, 365, ?
(A) 1194 (B) 1094 (C) 1095 (D) 1093
Q.10 12, 30, 56, 90, ?
(A) 130 (B) 125 (C) 147 (D) 132
Q.11 4, 8, 12, 24, 36, 72, ?
(A) 108 (B) 98 (C) 92 (D) 96
Q.12 128, 110, 90, ?, 44
(A) 37 (B) 55 (C) 68 (D) 44
Q.13 61, 52, 63, 94, 46, ?
(A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 40 (D) 25
Q.14 80, 62, 46, ?, 20
(A) 36 (B) 40 (C) 38 (D) 32
Q.15 7, 21, 11, 33, 17, ?
(A) 32 (B) 50 (C) 54 (D) 51
Find the wrong term :
Q.16 297, 272, 245, 216, 185, 153, 117
(A) 117 (B) 153 (C) 185 (D) 216
Q.17 444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80
(A) 200 (B) 136 (C) 87 (D) 80
Q.18 376, 188, 88, 40, 16, 4, –2
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 40 (D) 188
Q.19 572, 284, 140, 72, 32, 14, 5
(A) 14 (B) 32 (C) 72 (D) 5
Q.20 2, 5, 11, 23, 48, 95, 191, 383
(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 23 (D) 48
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DPP. NO. - 2
Topic : Alphabet and Letter Repeating Series
Find the missing term :
Q.1 A Z, BY, CX, DW, ?, FU
(A) EV (B) DU (C) FV (D) None of theseS
Q.2 AN, OB, CP, QD, ?
(A) ER (B) ES (C) FR (D) EQ
Q.3 1BR, 2EO, 6HL, 15KI, ?
(A) 22NF (B) 31NF (C) 31NE (D) 28NF
Q.4 (ABC)-6, (DEF)-15, (GHI)-24, ?
(A) (IJK)-33 (B) (JKM)-33 (C) (IJK)-32 (D) (JKL)-33
Q.5 AD9, BF16, CH25, ?, EL49
(A) DJ36 (B) DJ49 (C) JD36 (D)DM49
Q.6 FLP, INS, LPV, ?
Q.7 CAT, FDW, IGZ, ?
Q.8 B3M, E7J, H15G, K31D, ?
(A) N65A (B) O63A (C) N63A (D) N63Z
Find the wrong term :
Q.9 G4T, J10R, M20P, P43N, S90L
(A) G4T (B) J10R (C) M20P (D) P43N
Q.10 P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, X18O, Z23R
(A) V12L (B) X18O (C) Z23R (D) R5F
Q.13 Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, Y88F
(A) Y66B (B) Y44B (C) Y88F (D) Z88B
Fill in the blanks :
Q.16 abca _ bcaab _ ca _ bbc _ a
(A) ccaa (B) bbaa (C) abac (D) abba
Q.17 aba _ baca _ ba _ bacaabac _ aca
(A) cacb (B) ccab (C) cabc (D) abcc
Q.18 m _ l _ ml _ m _ llm
(A) lmmm (B) lmlm (C) lmml (D) mllm
Q.19 a_ _b_a_ab_aa
(A) a b a a b (B) b b a b a (C) b b a b b (D) b a a b a
Q.20 k _ mk _ lmkkl _ kk _ mk
(A) lklm (B) lkmk (C) lkmm (D) lkml

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DPP. NO. - 3
Topic : Missing Term in Figures
Find the missing term :


(A) 28 (B) 40 (C) 39 (D) 42


(A) 39 (B) 45 (C) 35 (D) 48


(A) 35 (B) 37 (C) 45 (D) 26


(A) 26 (B) 25 (C) 34 (D) 38


(A) 94 (B) 86 (C) 82 (D) 78


(A) 125 (B) 216 (C) 121 (D) 225


(A) 25 (B) 129 (C) 7 (D) 49


(A) I (B) L (C) O (D) U


(A) 304 (B) 104 (C) 204 (D) 404


(A) D (B) W (C) Y (D) U

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(A) 262 (B) 274 (C) 320 (D) 132


(A) 112 (B) 92 (C) 82 (D) 102
5 3 6
2 4 2 3 4 7
584 694 ?
2 2 3 2 1 2
1 2 1
(A) 937 (B) 824 (C) 769 (D) 678
3 ?
2 15 54 6
Q.14 4 67 75 3
7 8
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7


(A) 16 (B) 9 (C) 85 (D) 112
5 1 126

Q.16 4 4 68
7 5 ?
(A) 348 (B) 340 (C) 400 (D) 70


(A) 65, 36, 63 (B) 53, 24, 63 (C) 49, 32, 53 (D) 51, 25, 61
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24

(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) 8
15 4
33 2
27 2
36 8
32 ?
Q.19 18 9
22 11
12 3

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12
6 1 9

Q.20 2 12 4 4 12 2 2 ? 3

3 3 15
(A) 27 (B) 45 (C) 120 (D) 180

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DPP. NO. - 4
Topic : Mathematical Operations
Q.1 What is the value of (48 – 12)  4 + 6  2 × 3 = ?
(A) 10 (B) 0.6 (C) 2 (D) 18
Q.2 What is the value of 1260  15  7 = ?
(A) 12 (B) 58 (C) 122 (D) 588
Q.3 It being given that : > denotes +, < denotes – , + denotes , – denotes =, = denotes ‘less than’ and × denotes
‘greater than’, find which of the following is a correct statement.
(A) 3 + 2 > 4 = 9 + 3 < 1 (B) 3 > 2 > 4 = 18 + 3 < 2
(C) 3 > 2 < 4 × 8 + 4 < 2 (D) 3 + 2 < 4 × 9 + 3 < 3
Q.4 Find out the to sign to be interchanged for making the given equation correct.
10 + 10  10 – 10 × 10 = 10
(A) + and – (B) + and × (C)  and × (D) + and 
Q.5 If > = ÷, V = ×, < = +, = –, + = =, × = <, – = >
(A) 6 < 2 > 3 8 V 4 + 13 (B) 6 2 < 3 > 8 < 4 – 13
(C) 6 V 2 < 3 8 > 4 × 13 (D) 6 > 2 V 3 < 8 4 + 13

Q.6 If + = 7, = 27, = 81 then + =?
(A) 690 (B) 689 (C) 780 (D) 789
Q.7 Which of the following conclusions is correct according to the given expressions and symbols?
A : > , B : >, C :  , D : = , E : < , F : <
Expression (pEq) and (qEr)
(A) pEr (B) pFr (C) rBp (D) rBq
Q.8 If A + D > C + E, C + D = 2B and B + E > C + D, it necessarily follows that
(A) A + B > 2D (B) B + D > C + E (C) A + D > B + E (D) A + D > B + C
Direction : (Q.9)
In answering the question below, use the following information
X  Y means divide X by Y X  Y means multiply X by Y
X # Y means subtract Y from X X  Y means add Y to X
Q.9 One-fifth of one-tenth of two-third of a number X is given by
(A) X  (1  5)  (1  10)  (2  3) (B) X (1  5) (1  10) (2 3)
(C) X (1  5) ( 1  10) (2  3) (D) can’t be determined
Q.10 Which one of the four interchanges in signs and numbers would make the given equation correct?
(A) + and –, 2 and 3 (B) + and –, 2 and 5 (C) + and –, 3 and 5 (D) None of these
Directions : (Q. 11 to Q. 14)
In the following questions, the symbols, ©, ©, =, * and * are used with the following meanings
‘A © B’ means ‘A is greater than B’ ; ‘A © B’ means ‘A is greater than or equal to B’;
‘A = B’ means ‘A is equal to B’; ‘A * B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’;
‘A * B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’;
Now in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Give answer (A) if only conclusion I is true; (B) if only conclusion II is true; (C) if either I or II is true; (D) if
neither I nor II is true.

Q.11 Statements : S©T, M * K, T = K
Conclusions : I. T © M II. T = M

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Q.12 Statements : S * M, M © L, L© P
Conclusions : I. S = P II. S * L

Q.13 Statements : U = V, V * N, R * U
Conclusions : I. R * N II. U © N

Q.14 Statements : E © U, C * E, C © B
Conclusions : I.U = C II. E © B

Q.15 What is the value of A if each letter represents a different digit?

A 3 B
 B
2 1 7 B

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

Direction : (Q.16 & Q.17) For the following questions
means “bigger than”
 means “smaller than”
O means “equal to”
× means “addition”
= means “subtraction”
Q.16 If a c and b × d O c, then :
(A) d a (B) a O d (C) b c (D) d  a
Q.17 If a = b  d = c and a O c, then :
(A) d b (B) d  b (C) b O d (D) None of these

Q.18 If A stands for +, B stands for –,C stands for ×, then what is the value of : 10 C 4 A 4 C 4 B 6 ?
(A) 60 (B) 56 (C) 50 (D) 46

Q.19 If 4 # 2 @ 3 = 6, 18 # 6 @ 4 = 12, then what will be the value to 24 # 3 @ 7 ?
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 72 (D) 56

Q.20 In the following question some numbers are given in the shape of figures

 = 2,  =5

+ = 7, × = 18

What is the value of = ?

(A) 9 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 2

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DPP. - 05
Topic : Alphabet Test

Q.1 Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes first :
(A) Cloud (B) Middle (C) Grunt (D) Chain

Q.2 Arrange the given world in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes last :
(A) Abandon (B) Actuate (C) Accumulate (D) Acquit

Q.3 Find which one word can be made from the letters of the given word.

Q.4 How many pairs of letters in the word ‘BRIGHTER’ have as many letters between them in the word as in the
alphabet ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D)more than 4

Q.5 Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series increases by one. Which of the following
series observes this rule ?

Directions (Q.6- Q.13) : Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series.

Q.6 Which letter is the seventh to the right of the thirteenth letter from your left ?
(A) S (B) T (C) U (D) V

Q.7 Which letter will be the sixth to the right of the eleventh letter from the right end of the alphabet :
(A) K (B) V (C) J (D) U

Q.8 Which letter is midway between 22nd letter from the left and 21st letter from the right :
(A) N (B) M (C) O (D) P

Q.9 If the above alphabet is written in the reverse order, which will be the eighth letter to the right of O :
(A) F (B) G (C) V (D)W

Q.10 If every alternate letter starting from B is deleted from the given alphabet, which of the following will be the
tenth letter from the right end :
(A) G (B) D (C) Q (D) H

Q.11 If the second half of the given alphabet is written in reverse order, which letter will be seventh to the right of
the twelfth letter from the left end :
(A) R (B) S (C) U (D) V
Q.12 If the first and the second letters interchange their positions and similarly the third and the fourth letters, the
fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which letter will be the seventeenth from your right :
(A) F (B) H (C) I (D) J

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Q.13 Four of the following are alike in regard to their position in the alphabet and hence form a group which is the
one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) FE (B) ML (C) JK (D) VX

Q.14 Arrange the following group of numbers such that when arranged in a specific order, meaningful word is
1 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 1,5,4,2,6,3 (B) 2,6,3,4,1,5 (C) 3,5,2,4,6,1 (D) 4,6,3,2,1,5

Q.15 A meaningful word starting with A is made from the first, the second, the fourth, the fifth and sixth letters of
the word ‘CONTRACT’, which of the following is the middle letter of the word ?
(A) C (B) T (C) O (D) R

Q.16 How many independent words can ‘STAINLESS’ be divided into without changing the order of the letters and
using each letter only once ?
(A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

Q.17 Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series decreases by one. Which of the following
series is observing the rule ?

Q.18 If the last four letters for the word ‘CONCENTRATION’ are written in the reverse order followed by next two
letters in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order and then followed by the first four in the reverse
order, counting from the end, which letter would be eighth in the new arrangement ?
(A) T (B) N (C) E (D) R

Q.19 If in the alphabet series the first and the second letters interchanges their positions and similarly the third and the
fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which letter will be the seventeenth from your right ?
(A) F (B) H (C) J (D) None of these

Q.20 If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, the fourth, the fifth, the seventh and the eleventh
letters of the word ‘DISTRIBUTION’ which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such
word can be formed give ‘X’ as answer. If more than one such words can be formed, give ‘M’ as answer.
(A) O (B)  (C) B (D) X

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DPP. - 06
Directions (1-9) : In each of the questions below, find out the correct answer from the given alternatives.

1. If in a certain language PENSION is coded as NEISNOP, how is TEMPERS coded in that code ?

2. If in a certain language CASUAL is coded as GEWYEP, how is PEOPLE coded in that code ?

3. If in a certain language SALE is coded as SCLG, how is CASUAL coded in that code ?

4. If in a certain language KNIFE is coded as HNFFB, how is DOCTOR coded in that language ?

5. I f BAT C H is c o de d as ABSD G, h ow is FORSAKE coded in that code ?

6. In a certain code, CALANDER is written as CLANAEDR. How is CIRCULAR written in that code ?

7. In a certain code, REFRIGERATOR, is coded as ROTAREGIRFER. Which word would be coded as

8. If FULFNHW is the coded for CRICKET, then EULGH is the code for which word ?

9. If in a certain language, SHIFT is coded as RFFBO,which word would be coded as LKUMB ?
10. If :(i) Mum Sum Dum means Water is pure ; (ii) Lao Chin Mum means Water has taste; (iii) Dum Phu
Phin means He is honest; (iv) Khu Sing Chin means Never taste it; then which letter code stands for has:
(A) Sum (B) Chin (C) Lao (D) Mum

11. If in a certain language, Rum Pum Po means Boy Is Mad; Main Po She means Girl Is Beautiful and Dum
Pum To means They Are Mad, which word in the language means Boy ?
(A) Rum (B) Dum (C) Pum (D) Po

12. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and
pink is called fish in a certain language, what is the colour of the sky called in that language ?
(A) Blue (B) Fish (C) Rain (D) Pink

13. If room is called bed, bed is called window, window is called flower and flower is called cooler on what
would a man sleep ?
(A) Window (B) Bed (C) Flower (D) Cooler

Directions (14-15): In each of the following questions find the correct answer from the given alternatives.
14. If 6 is coded as T, 8 is coded as I, 3 is coded as N, 9 is coded as Q, 2 is coded as Y, 5 is coded as D and 7
is coded as R, then what is the coded form of DRINTQ:
(A) 573869 (B) 578396 (C) 576839 (D) None of these

15. In a certain code 975 means Throw away garbage, 528 means Give away smoking and 213 means Smoking
is harmful. Which digit in that code means Smoking :
(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 3

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DPP. - 07

1. Amit faces towards North.Turning to his right he walks 25 metres. He then turns to his left and walks 30
metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and walks 55 metres. Finally,
he turns to the right and moves 40 metres. In which direction is he now from his starting point ?
(A) South-West (B) South (C) North-West (D) South-East

2. A rabbit runs 30' towards East and turns to right, runs 20' and turns to right, runs 19' and again turns to left, runs
15' and then turns to left, runs 22' and finally turns to left and runs 16'. Now, which direction is the rabbit facing?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

3. Raj walked 20 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He then turned to his
left and walked 20 metres. He again turned to his right and walked 10 metres. At what distance is he from the
starting point and in which direction ?
(A) 35 metres, East (B) 35 metres, North (C) 40 metres, East (D) 60 metres, East

4. While facing East you turn to your left and walk 10 m; then turn to your left and walk 10 m, and now you turn
45º towards your right and go straight to cover 25 m. Now, in which direction are you from your starting point?
(A) North-East (B) South-West (C) South-East (D) North-West

5. Ram is to the South-East of Mukesh, Shyam is to the East of Mukesh and North-East of Ram. If Suresh is
to the North of Ram and North-West of Shyam, in which direction of Mukesh is Suresh located ?
(A) North-West (B) South-West (C) North-East (D) South-East

6. A watch reads 10:30, if the minute hand points to East in which direction does the hour hand point ?
(A) North-East (B) South-East (C) South-West (D) West

7. Aadi stand on his head and his face pointing North words, in what direction will his left hand point-
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

8. There are four towns P, Q, R and T. Q is to the South-west of P, R is to the east of Q and south-east of P, and
T is to the north of R in line with QP. In which direction of P is T located ?
(A) South-east (B) North (C) North-east (D) East

9. Ramesh started from his house, walked 2 km North then 3 km West then 6 km south. How for away from his
house was he then ?
(A) 2 kms (B) 3 kms (C) 4 kms (D) 5 kms

10. One evening before sunset two friends Amit and Sunil were talking to each other face to face. If Sunil’s
shadow was exactly to his left side, which direction was Amit facing ?
(A) North (B) South (C) West (D) Data inadequate

11. If East become North-West, North-West become South and so on then what will South become ?
(A) North-West (B) South-West (C) West (D) North-East

12. A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the North. When the post office was
100 metres away from him, he turned to the left and moved 50 metres to deliver the last letter at shantivilla.
He then moved in the same direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100 metres. How many
metres was he away from the post office ?
(A) 0 (B) 90 (C) 150 (D) 100

13. Ram left for his home in his car. He drove 15 km towards North and then 10 km towards West. He then turned
to the South and covered 5 km. Further, he turned to the East and moved 8 km. Finally, he turned right and
drove 10 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point ?
(A) 2 km West (B) 5 km West (C) 6 km West (D) None of these

14. A and B start from a fixed point. A moves towards East and after walking 3 km. turns to his right and covers
4 km. B moves towards West and walks 4 km.and then turns to his right and walks 3 km. Now how far are A
and B from each other ?
(A) 10 km (B) 5 km (C) 8 km (D) 7 2 km

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DPP NO. 08

Directions : (1 to 3) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow. In a swimming race,
five participants - A , B, C, D and E take part. Lane 1 is extreme left and lane 5 is extreme right. The following
conditions exist .
I. B and E are not swimming adjacent to each other.
II. D is not in any one of the extreme (outermost) lanes.
III. A is to the left of C.

1. If B is in lane 3, A in lane 1, then C could be in
(A) lane 4 (B) lane 2
(C) lane 2 or 4 (D) Situation violates the conditions

2. If B is in lane 4 and C is in lane 3, then E could be in
(A) lane 1 (B) lane 2
(C) lane 1 or 2 (D) Situation violates the conditions

3. If D is to the left of A, then D can be in
(A) lane 2 (B) lane 3 only (C) lane 2 or 3 (D) None of these

4. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing you such that D is on the left of C and B is on the right
of E. A is on the right of C and B is on the left of D. If E occupies a corner position, then who is sitting in the
centre ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

Directions : (5 to 9)
(i) Nine students P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are sitting on a bench facing towards the sea.
(ii) R is next to the right of P and second to the left of W.
(iii) Q is on any one end and second to the left of T.
(iv) U is the neighbour of Q and X is third to the right of S. (v) V is the neighbour of S and T.

5. Which of the two students are on the two ends?
(A) R and V (B) P and V (C) P and T (D) None of these

6. Which of the following is true ?
(A) R and W are neighbours of Q (B) U is just in the middle of all students
(C) Group of 8 friends is just left to W (D) W and U are neighbours of X.

7. Which of the given five statements is unnecessary ?
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iv) (D) None of these

8. Who is just in the middle ?
(A) P (B) U (C) S (D) V

9. Which of the following group is just right to U ?

Direction: (10 to 14): Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below :
(i) Six persons A,B,C, D, E and F are sitting in two rows, three in each
(ii) E is not at the end of any row.
(iii) D is second to the left of F
(iv) C who is the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally opposite to D (v) B is the neighbour of F.
10. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other ?
(A) F and C (B) D and A (C) A and C (D) A and F

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11. Who is facing B ?
(A) A (B) C (C) E (D) D
12. Which of the following are in one row ?

13. Which of the following are in the same row ?
(A) A and E (B) E and D (C) C and B (D) A and B

14. After interchanging the seat D with E. Who will be the neighbour of D in the new position ?
(A) C and A (B) F and B (C) Only B (D) Only C

Directions : (15 to 16) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Six people are to be
seated around a circular table keeping equal distance among each other. Naveen cannot sit adjacent
to Laxman, Madhvi or Puneet. However, Kamini insists on sitting adjacent to Madhvi and in the
anticlockwise direction with respect to Madhvi. Omprakash should also be seated.

15. In how many possible arrangements can these six people seat themselves around the circular table ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6

16. Who sits opposite to Madhvi ?
(A) Naveen (B) Laxman (C) Omprakash (D) Cannot be determined

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DPP NO. 09

1. If the first and second digits in the sequence 5 9 8 1 3 2 7 4 3 8 are interchanged, also the third and fourth
digits, the fifth and sixth digits and so on, which digit would be the seventh counting to your left ?
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 8

2. In the following number series how many 8's are there which are exactly divisible by the numbers which are
preceded and followed by it ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

3. How many such 6’s are there in the following number series which are followed by an even number and
preceded by any odd number ?
(A) zero (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

4. If the digits of the following numbers are reversed and then the number are arranged in ascending order then
what will be the middle digit of the middle term ?
375, 682, 315, 792, 865, 129, 875
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

5. How many 9’s are there which come after 6 or multiple of 3 ?
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 6

6. How many A's are in the given letter series which does not has B just before it but has C just after it ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

7. Thirty six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car, there is one scooter. After the
second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the
number of scooters in the second half of the row.
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 17

8. If the numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in ascending order, minimum number
being on the top, which would come at the ninth place from the top ?
(A) 18 (B) 21 (C) 24 (D) 27

9. Three persons P, Q and R are standing in a queue. There are five persons between P and Q and eight persons
between Q and R. If there be three persons ahead of R and 18 persons behind P, what could be the minimum
number of persons in the queue ?
(A) 38 (B) 37 (C) 25 (D) 28

10. Rohan ranked eleventh from the top and twenty-seventh from the bottom among the students who passed
the annual examinations is a class. If the number of students who failed in the exams. was 12, how many
students did appear for the examinations ?
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) Can't be determined

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11. 1. Silver 2. Sand 3. Platinum 4. Iron
5. Gold 6. Diamond
(A) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (B) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2 (C) 3, 6, 5, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 4, 2

12. 1. Yellow 2. Red 3. Green 4. Orange
5. Violet 6. Blue
(A) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2 (B) 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 5, 6, 3, 1, 4, 2 (D) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

13. 1. Milky way 2. Sun 3. Moon 4. Earth
5. Stars
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 (B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (C) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 (D) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1

14. 1. Shirt 2. Shoes 3. Cap 4. Trouser
5. Spects
(A) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 (B) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 (C) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

15. 1. Multiplication 2. Addition 3. Bracket 4. Division
5. Subtraction
(A) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5 (C) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 (D) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

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DPP NO. 10

1. Pointing towards a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said the only daughter of her grandfather(Paternal) is
my wife. How is Rajesh related to that woman
(A) Uncle (Fufa) (B) Father (C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother

2. Pointing to a person, Rohit said to Neha, His mother is the only daughter of your father. How is Neha related
to that person ?
(A) Aunt (B) Mother (C) Daughter (D) Wife

3. Neelam, who is Rohit's daughter, says to Indu, Your mother Reeta is the younger sister of my father, who is
the third child of Sohanji. How is Sohanji ralated to Indu ?
(A) Maternal-uncle (B) Grandfather (C) Father (D) Father-in-law

4. Pointing to a photograph, a person says to his friend, She is the grand-daughter of the elder brother of my
father, How is the girl in the photograph related to the man ?
(A) Niece (B) Sister (C) Aunt (D) Sister-in-law

5. Pointing towards a person in a photograph, Mukesh said, She is the only daughter of the mother of my
brotherís sister. How is that person related to Mukesh ?
(A) Mother (B) Cousin (C) Sister (D) Aunt

6. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sisters or daughters but her mother is the only
daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother ?
(A) Sister-in-law (B) Grand daughter (C) Daughter-in-law (D) Cannot be determind

Directions : (7 to 9) P,Q,R,S,T,U,V & W are the family members.Q is the sister of V and V is the brother of R.T is the
wife of P,whose father is W. S is the husband of Q and U is the son of V. P is the father of Q.

7. How U is related with T ?
(A) Son (B) Mother (C) Grandson (D) Nephew

8. How S is related with R ?
(A) Son (B) uncle (C) Brother-in-law (D) Brother

9. How W is related with R ?
(A) Grand father (B) uncle (C) Son (D) Brother

10. In a family of 8 persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, there are 3 couples and 4 females. All couples
excepting one particular, have 1 child each. G and F are cousins. B is the grandmother of G and C is the son
of A. If couple C - H has a daughter F then how is G related to E ?
(A) Grandson (B) Granddaughter (C) Son (D) Daughter-in-law

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DPP NO. 11

Directions : (1 to 5) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
I. There are six students ( A, B, C, D, E and F) in a group. Each student can opt for only three
choices out of the six which are music, reading, painting, badminton, cricket and tennis.
II. A, C and F like reading.
III. D does not like badminton, but likes music.
IV. Both B and E like painting and music.
V. A and D do not like painting, but they like cricket.
VI. All student except one like badminton.
VII. Two students like tennis.
VIII. F does not like cricket, music and tennis.

1. Which pair of students has the same combination of choices ?
(A) A and C (B) C and D (C) B and E (D) D and F

2. Who among the following students likes both tennis and cricket ?
(A) A and B (B) C (C) B and D (D) D

3. How many students like painting and badminton ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

4. Who among the following do not like music ?
(A) A , C and D (B) A, B and C (C) A, C and F (D) B, D and F

5. Which of the following is the most popular choice ?
(A) Tennis (B) Badminton (C) Reading (D) Painting

Directions : (6 to 7) Read the information carefully given below and answer the questions that follow.
A total of nine cards consisting of four kings, four queens and one Joker were there with Sujith, Ajay are
I. Ajay had two cards, Sujith had three cards, and Sanjay had four cards.
II. The man with the most cards did not have the joker.
III. Everyone has at least one king.

6. Who had the Joker ?
(A) Ajay (B) Sanjay (C) Sujith (D) Ajay or Sujith

7. Who can have three queens ?
(A) Ajay (B) Sanjay (C) Sujith (D) Sanjay of Sujith

Directions : (8 to 12) Read the following information and answer the questions based on it :
In a school, there were five teachers. A and B were teaching Hindi and English C and B were teaching English and
Geography. D and A were teaching Mathematics and Hindi. E and B were teaching History and French.

8. Who among the teachers was teaching maximum number of subjects ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

9. Which of the following pairs was teaching both Geography and Hindi ?
(A) A and B (B) B and C (C) C and A (D) None of these

10. More than two teachers were teaching which subject ?
(A) History (B) Hindi (C) French (D) Geography

11. D, B and A were teaching which of the following subjects ?
(A) English only (B) Hindi and English
(C) Hindi only (D) English and Geography

12. Who among the teachers was teaching less than two subjects ?
(A) A (B) B (C) D (D) There is no such teacher

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DPP. NO. 12
Topic- Logical Venn Diagram

Directions (1 to 2) : Select the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each question.
1. Elected house, M.P., M.L.A. :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. Animals, Men, Plants.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions (3 to 5 ) : Select the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each question.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. Science, Physics, Chemistry
4. Atmosphere, Hydrogen, Oxygen
5. Biology, Botany, Zoology

Directions (6 to 10) : In the following figure, the circle stands
for employed, the square stands for hard working, the
triangle stands for rural and the rectangle stands for
intelligent. Study the figure carefully and answer the
questions that follow :

6. Non-rural, employed, hard working and intelligent people are indicated by region :
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
7. Non-rural, employed people who are neither intelligent nor hard working are represented by region :
(A) 12 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 7

8. Intelligent, employed and hard working non-rural people are indicated by region :
(A) 11 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 7
9. Hard working non-rural people who are neither employed nor intelligent are shown by region :
(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) 10

10. Employed, hard working and intelligent rural people are indicated by region :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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DPP NO. 13

Direction : (1 to 5) In the following questions, choose the words that show the same relationship as given
in the each questions.
1. Bank is related to ‘Money’ in the same way as ‘Transport’ is related:
(A) Goods (B) Road (C) Terrace (D) Floor

2. Which pair is related to each other in the same way as State and District ?
(A) Cockpit : Aeroplane (B) Judge : Court (C) Market : Shop (D) Europe : Euro

3. Flower is to a Bouquet as Minister is to:
(A) Voter (B) Cabinet (C) Constituency (D) Department

4. What is related to ‘Taka’ in the same way as ‘Lira’ is related to ‘Italy’ ?
(A) Pakistan (B) Jordan (C) Mexico (D) Bangladesh

5. Disease is related to pathology in the same way as Planet is related to:
(A) Sun (B) Satellite (C) Astrology (D) Astronomy

Directions : (6 to 15) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given
words/numbers/letters on one side of :: and one word is given on another side of :: while another
word/number/letter is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this
word/number/letter as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternatives.

6. Fruit : Banana : : Mamm al : ?
(A) Snake (B) Whale (C) Sparrow (D) Shark

7. Light : Ray : : Sound : ?
(A) Hear (B) Wave (C) Audio (D) Pitch

8. Rayon : Synthetic Fibre : : Polythene : ?
(A) Rubber (B) Polymer (C) Rexine (D) Artificial leather

9. 3 : 24 :: 5 : ?
(A) 120 (B) 45 (C) 124 (D) 27

10. 225 : 257 : : 289 : ?
(A) 301 (B) 316 (C) 320 (D) 325

11. 12 : 35 : : 16 : ?
(A) 32 (B) 48 (C) 47 (D) 63

12. AEZ : EIY :: IOX : ?

13. BID : CHE : : LEG : ?

14. BDG : YVT : : DFI : ?


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Directions : (16 to 20) Fill the blanks in the following questions from the choice given below. Which are based
on pyramids.

2 3 4
9 8 7 6 5
10 11 12 13 14 15 16
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37
50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64
81 80 79 78 77 76 75 74 73 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 65
82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

16. 234 : 4614 : : 2812 : ?
(A) 3713 (B) 34614 (C) 121314 (D) 131415

17. 192021 : 213241 : : 414243 : ?
(A) 433023 (B) 435871 (C) 414039 (D) 435773

18. 151933 : 425774 : : 132131 : ?
(A) 435675 (B) 445576 (C) 455477 (D) 304554

19. 151835 : 193439 : : 274655 : ?
(A) 274654 (B) 465674 (C) 475475 (D) 455673

20. 474849 : 495277 : : 777879 : ?
(A) 795149 (B) 795247 (C) 527978 (D) 525377

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DPP NO. 14

Directions : (1 to 16) In each of the following questions, four words are given, out of which three are same in
one way and the fourth one is different from others. Select the odd one.

1. (A) Green (B) Violet (C) Brown (D) Yellow

2. (A) Monkey (B) Rabbits (C) Whale (D) Shark

3. (A) Hour (B) House (C) Honour (D) Know

4. (A) July (B) May (C) June (D) March

5. (A) listen (B) walk (C) run (D) swim

6. (A) Lion-Deer (B) Cat-Mouse (C) Hawk-Pigeon (D) Pig-Piglet

7. (A) Cooperate (B) Coordinate (C) Correlate (D) Combat

8. (A) Mumbai (B) Cochin (C) Kandla (D) Mysore

9. (A) 21 : 24 (B) 28 : 32 (C) 14 : 16 (D) 54 : 62

10. (A) 22 : 0 (B) 24 : 12 (C) 23 : 5 (D) 24 : 18

11. (A) 4 : 7 (B) 7 : 16 (C) 17 : 36 (D) 16 : 34

12. (A) 26 (B) 124 (C) 728 (D) 64

13. (A) KQ14 (B) AY13 (C) MR11 (D) GW15

14. (A) OUT (B) CAP (C) FAN (D) LIT

15. (A) Y X V T (B) G E C A (C) V T R P (D) H F D B


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DPP. NO. - 15

1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Which number is on the face opposite 6 :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
2. If the total of dots on opposite faces of a cubical block is always 7, find the figure which is correct :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. (i) (ii) (iii)

Find the number of dots on the face opposite the face bearing 3 dots :
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) Cannot be determined

4. (i) (ii) (iii)

What numbers occur at the bottom face in the three positions of the same die :
(A) 6, 6, 2 (B) 5, 6, 1 (C) 5, 5, 5 (D) 6, 5, 2

5. (i) (ii)

What is the number of dots at the bottom face of the left hand side dice ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

6. (i) (ii)

What is the number of dots on the face opposite 2 dots :
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
Directions : (7 to 8) The figure (X) given below is the unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of the
following questions this unfolded figure is followed by four different figures of dice. You have to
select the figure which is identical to the figure (X).

7. (X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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8. (X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (9 to 10) In each of the following questions how does the figure look like when folded into a
cube along the marked lines ?


(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) A and D (B) C and D (C) Only A (D) B and C


(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) A and B (B) B and D (C) B and C (D) A and D

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DPP. NO. - 16
TOPIC : Non-Verbal Series, Analogy & Classification

Directions : (1 to 5) In the following questions, series of figures are given. Find the correct alternative to continue the



(A) (B) (C) (D)



(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)

Directions : (6 to 10) In the following questions, there is a relationship between the two figures on the left of the sign
(: :). The same relationship exists between the figures to the right of the sign (: :), of which one is missing.
Find the missing one from the alternatives.


7. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Directions : (11 to 15) In each of the following questions four figures are given. One of these figures does not correlate
with the rest of the figures. Find the different figure.


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)


(A) (B) (C) (D)

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DPP. NO. - 17

Directions : (1 to 4) Find the Mirror image of given words/figures ñ

(A) (B) (C) (D)


(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions : (5 to 8) Find the Water image of given words/figures ñ
5. VAYU8436
(A) (B) (C) (D)

6. U4P15B7
(A) (B) (C) (D)



Directions : (9 to 10) A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given in figure X. Find out from amongst the
alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line.



Directions : (11 to 12) A sheet has been folded in the manner as shown in X, Y and Z respectively and
punched. You have to choose from the alternatives how it will look when unfolded.


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13. How many triangles are there in the given figure

(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 18

14. How many cubes are there in the following figure?

(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 8

15. How many squares does the following figure have ?

(A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 13 (D) 16
Directions :(16 to 17) Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X)
would complete the pattern.


(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

18. There are four figures, three of which would form a complete square. Choose the three from among the

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) bcd (B) abc (C) acd (D) abd
Directions : (19 to 20) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative figure in which the
question figure (X) is embedded.


(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)


(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

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PHYSICS – 01 - 03

CHEMISTRY – 04 - 05



ENGLISH – 10 - 16



VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited
(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE

1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. B 9. B 10. A 13. 10–3 N 14. 0 15. 2 : 1

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. C 9. B 10. A 14. 10 N upward 15. 24.5 kg.

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. C
8. A 9. A 10. C

1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. C

1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. A
8. A 9. A 10. A

1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. B 10. C

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. C 10. C

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. D 9. A 10. B 14. 6,600 Hz 15. 330 KHz

1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. C

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DPP NO. 10

1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. A 10. D 15. 0.184 s

DPP NO. 11
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. D
8. D 9. D 10. A 13. 10 14. 1,500 C 15. It/e

DPP NO. 12
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A,C 6. B 7. A
8. A 9. A 10. C

DPP NO. 13
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. B 10. D 11. D 12. C

DPP NO. 14
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. D

DPP NO. 15
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. B
8. A 9. C 10. B 14. 2d, s + d

DPP NO. 16
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. B
8. B 9. A 10. A

DPP NO. 17
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. D
8. D 9. A 10. A

DPP NO. 18
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. A
8. C 9. A 10. A

DPP NO. 19
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. C

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DPP NO. 20
1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. C 9. A 10. C 11. 8.5 × 108 km.
DPP NO. 21
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. B
DPP NO. 22
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. A
8. C 9. B 10. A
DPP NO. 23
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. C
8. A 9. A 10. B
DPP NO. 24
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. A 9. B 10. D

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(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE
DPP NO. 01

1. D 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. B

DPP NO. 02
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. B 10. B

DPP NO. 03
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. A

DPP NO. 04

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B
8. C 9. C 10. C

DPP NO. 05
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. A 9. D 10. C

DPP NO. 06

1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. C 10. C

DPP NO. 07
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. A 9. A 10. A

DPP NO. 08

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. D
8. D 9. C 10. B

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DPP NO. 09
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. D
8. A 9. A 10. C

DPP NO. 10
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A
8. D 9. A 10. B

DPP NO. 11
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. C

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(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE

DPP - 01

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. C 10. C

DPP - 02

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. D 10. C

DPP - 03

1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. A

DPP - 04

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B
8. B 9. B 10. A

DPP - 05

1. C 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. B
8. B 9. A 10. A

DPP - 06

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. D

DPP - 07

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. B
8. B 9. B 10. B

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(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE

1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B

21 1
8. B 9. C 10. B 12. (i)  (ii) 
2 12

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A
8. B 9. B 10. D 11. 131 12. 144 13. 0.298 14. 24
15. 8.96


1. D 2. A 3. D 4.    B 5.      B 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. A 10. B 11. (i) 14 (ii) 17 (ii) 12 12. 14, 21, 28
13. 210 m 14. (i) –230 (ii)  (iii) 1.1 15. 30

1. A 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. C
8 3
8. D 9. B 10. B 11. Zero 12. X  13. 15. 52, 33
33 9

1.  A 2.    C 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. C


1. C 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. C


1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. C 9. B 10. C
1 1 1 1
11. (i)   (ii)  (iii) 625 (iv)  (v)  
64 64 9 2744
13. (i) 4 (ii) 1 (iii) 10 (iv) 5 (v) –1 (vi) –5
14. –9 15.
Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2425408 ( 7

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. B 9. A 10. B 11. Subtract : –3p(a + q + r + x)
12. – p4 – 10 – P3 – 2P2 – 6P – 5 14. quotient (5x2 – 5x–1), remainder (2x + 3)
15. –43


1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. C 9. A 10. C 12. 5 14. x2a – xayb + y2b
15. (i) (2x – y + 3z) (2x – y – 3z) (ii) (4 + x + y) (4 – x – y) (iii) (2x2 – 2xz + z2) (2x – z)z

DPP NO. 10

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. B 11. r = y – 3 12. a = 48

 1  1 
13.  x    x  1 3 14. (p2 + q2 – pq)(p2 + q2 + pq) 15. mn = 72
x x

DPP NO. 11

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D
8. D 9. C 10. B 11. 25%. 12. 52%. 13. 200 marks
14. 123.75 15. 140%

DPP NO. 12

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. C 10. D 11. 4730 12. 57600 13. 10%
14. 2605.5 15. 68921

DPP NO. 13

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. A 11. 900 12. 30 sec 13. 1 min

DPP NO. 14

1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. B 9. C 10. A
11. (b) 5 (c) 162.5 (d) 21 (e) 75 (f) 160-165
13. p = 20 14. (a) 18000 (b) 10000 (c) 140500

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15. (a) Item Angle Expenses
Clothing 70 º  2800
Rent 90º 3600
Education 45 1800
Food 90º 3600
Travel 65º 2600
Total 360º 14400 

Item Students Angle
Bus 120 60
Cycle 180 90º
Car 80 40º
Van 240 120
Scooter 100 50º
Total 720 360º 

DPP NO. 15

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. C
8. B 9. B 10. C 11. (i) 0.316 (ii) 0.542 (iii) 0.140
1 14
12. (i)  (ii) 
15 15
8 6 1 3 16
14. (i)  (ii)  (iii)  (iv)  (v) 
20 20 2 20 20
2 10 1
15. (i)  (ii)  (iii) 0 (iv) 
46 46 23
DPP NO. 16

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. A
8. A 9. B 10. C 11. 64000 12. 9 cm 13. 726, 198
14. 35 m 15. 25

DPP NO. 17

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A
8. A 9. C 10. A

DPP NO. 19

1. D 2. C 3.   C 4.   B 5.  A 6. C 7. D
8. C 9. C 10. C 11. A = 7, B = 6, C = 6 12.  x = 3
13. x = –1 14.  24 15.   A = 8, B = 1, C = 7

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(India) Private Limited CLASS VIII - CBSE

1. C 2. B
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. D
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. B
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. D
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D


1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. A
15. C 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C


1. They 2. They 3. me 4. me 5. he 6. him 7. I
8. he 9. they 10. we 11. I 12. whose 13. who 14. what
15. which 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. C


1. Complete 2. great 3. silver 4. Such 5. heavy 6. ready
7. eternal 8. five 9. angry 10. several 11. Constant 12. valid
13. early 14. every 15. both 16. medical 17. wide
18. remaining 19. sad 20. deliberate


1. He usually gets up late. (Adverb of Time)
2. Come as early as possible. (Adverb of Time)
3. I hurt my knee yesterday. (Adverb of Time)
4. I have spoken to him already. (Adverb of Time)
5. The end soon came. (Adverb of Time)
6. He looked up. (Adverb of Place)
7. Surely you are mistaken. (Adverb of Affirmation)
8. She sings delightfully. (Adverb of Manner)
9. Don’t go far. (Adverb of Place)
10. He is far better now. (Adverb of Degree)
11. I do not know him. (Adverb of Negation)
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12. He seldom comes here. (Adverb of Frequency)
13. I am fully prepared. (Adverb of Degree)
14. Slowly and sadly we laid him down. (Adverb of Manner)
15. We shall now begin to work. (Adverb of Time)
16. He fought in cowardly manner.
17. She spends money in  miserly way.
18. He behaves weirdly.
19. Rahul lives like a prince.
20. He drives rashly.
1. to 2. upon 3. upon 4. over 5. to 6. with 7. in
8. to 9. across 10. against 11. over 12. against 13. since 14. in
15. through 16. at 17. with 18. beside 19. with 20. for
1. much 2. Most 3. many 4. any 5. Most, any 6. a little
7. no/little 8. little 9. few 10. a 11. a 12. the
13. The 14. The 15. The 16. the 17. the 18. the
19. The 20. The
1 but 2. Since 3. but 4. so 5. When 6. Not only
7. Unless 8. as long as 9. too 10. not only, but also 11. only
12. else 13. because 14. than 15. although
1. Either pay the income tax well in time or pay the penalty.
2. He is too frail to do it.
3. He is not so good as to be appreciated.
4. Maintenance of law and order is important else the crime graph will go up.
5. Books will not be issued to students unless they produce their library card.
1. will have finished 2. were playing 3. comes 4. has finished
5. jogs 6. had arrived 7. finished 8. had decided
9. worked 10. troubling
1. Vicky has been staying in Kanpur since 2003.
2. Aditya  had left for Punjab before Madhu reached there.
3. Did you go there yesterday?
4. Karina  bought a new scooty last month.
5. You won’t succeed until you  work hard.
6. Have you been playing cricket since morning?
7. She is going to do this work.
8. I will leave after you have come.
9. He has been singing for two hours.
10. He will have gone there by tomorrow.

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DPP NO. 10

1. You are ordered to sit and wait there.
2. You are requested to help me. / Let me be helped.
3. Are you invited to their parties?
4. Was a book read by him?
5. Will those happy days ever be forgotten?
6. Were books not being sold by him?
7. I was listened to by her.
8. Were flowers being plucked by John?
9. Let it be done.
10. Let a glass of water be brought for me.
11. The rose is sweet when smelt.
12. The truth should be spoken.
13. Why were you punished by the teacher?
14. My pen was snatched.
15. The hunter  wants the lion to be killed.
16. By whom was the table broken?
17. Women like to be adored by men.
18. He is not known to us.
19. By whom has this mischief been done?
20. Why were you being scolded by the teacher?

DPP NO. 11

1. He told me that he had never been to Delhi.
2. Seema told me that she didn’t like ice-cream.
3. He told me that I had spoken the truth.
4. I shall tell mother that her sister is ill.
5. Sita will tell Ram that he will help her in her work.
6. He told the driver that he had killed a dog.
7. Manish said that he had to leave for home immediately.
8. She told me that she had not had tea that day. .
9. She said that she had tolerated me too long.
10. My father said that the sun rises in the east.
11. I wished Anand that he might always be happy.
12. They wished their Prime Minister to live long.
13. Govind wished that God might bless me with long life.
14. Stela greeted me Good morning.
15. Rakesh asked his friend when he went to school.
16. My father asked me to go to bed.
17. My boss asked me if I was happy with my new job.
18. She exclaimed with praise that it was a very nice car.
19. He asked me where I was going.
20. Sohan told you that he thought Mohan was right.

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DPP NO. 12

1. ought 2. must not 3. might 4. would
5. may 6. Shall 7. must 8. should
9. Can 10. Could 11. could 12. Shall
13. daren’t 14. must 15. used to 16. able to
17. Shall 18. ought to 19. need not 20. used to

DPP NO. 13

1. have 2. has 3. disturb 4. is 5. were 6. was 7. make
8. was 9. has 10. is 11. was 12. is 13. am 14. does
15. were 16. listens 17. is 18. have 19. is 20. is

DPP NO. 14

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. A
8. B 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. C
15. C 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. B

DPP NO. 15

1. P 2. IC 3. IC 4. DC 5. IC 6. DC 7. IC
8. P 9. DC 10. IC

1. She told me that she would be delighted to come.
2. Pay careful attention to what I am going to say.
3. I went to see what had happened.
4. That you should cheat me, hurts me.
5. I don’t know how I can get out of this mess!
6. I don’t know what he wants.
7. I thought that she would arrive tomorrow.
8. He. asked me if I knew his name.
9. I want to know why she is angry with me.
10. I often wonder how he is getting on.

DPP NO. 16

1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. C 14. A
15. C 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D

DPP NO. 17

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. C
15. A 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. B

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DPP NO. 18

Past From Past participle From
1. Lay Lain
2. Lit Lit
3. Lost Lost
4. Beheld Beheld
5. Bent Bent
6. Bought Bought
7. Cast Cast
8. Sank Sunk
9. Sat Sat
10. Upset Upset

1. heard 2. read 3. spoke 4. understood 5. forgot 6. had
7. lost 8. swam 9. gave 10. became

DPP NO. 19

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. E 6. D 7. E
8. C 9. A 10. D

1. Commencement 2. Crippled 3. Suspicious 4. Inconclusive
5. Unjustifiable 6. Provoked 7. At odds 8. Insensitive
9. Unnoticeable 10. Unruly

DPP NO. 20

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. A 14. A
15. A 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. B

DPP NO. 21

1. Overdo Overdo is to exaggerate something: Marcy overdoes her makeup every morning and she ends
up looking like a clown.

Overdue Overdue indicates something that has missed its deadline: You must return these overdue
books to the library immediately, or A visit to our grandparents is long overdue.

2. perspective A perspective is a view from a certain place or position or a mental outlook: The perspective from
this building is spectacular, or Lydia Potts has a wonderful perspective on life considering the
fact that she has 12 kids.

Prospective Prospective is an adjective that means “possible, likely to happen”: We have several prospective
opportunities before us.

3. Supposedly Supposedly means “reputedly” or “likely to be true”: Sam is supposedly the greatest waterboy
in the football team’s history.
Supposably Supposably means  “can be  supposed”: The best  solution to the  problem is  supposably to
ignore it. (However, this word is seldom used.)
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4. Torpid Torpid means “unresponsive, lacking alertness”: Prunella tried to elicit answers from the torpid
students in front of her.

Turgid Turgid means “very ornate and decorative”: The author’s turgid writing style lost my interest
quickly. It can also mean “swollen and bulging”: Turgid veins covered her legs.

5. Vicious Vicious means “cruel and mean”: A vicious dog attacked the young boy.

Viscous Viscous means “thick and sticky”: Honey and tar are viscous substances.

6. wave To wave is to move back and forth; a wave is a swelling in a body of water due to movement:
Helen Highwater waved her hand to the boat rocking in the waves.

Waive Waive means “to give up, not require or ask for”: Never waive your right to a lawyer.

7. Desert Desert means “to abandon” (and can also be a noun, meaning “a wasteland”): Cooley deserted
his family when they all got tattoos and lip piercings.

Dessert Dessert is the sweet course of a meal: The whole family wanted to have cake for dessert.

8. device A device is an instrument used to perform a task: This device will peel apples for you.

Devise Devise is to create or invent: They will devise a scheme to continue the business.

9. Divers Divers means “several”: You can take that statement in divers ways.

Diverse Diverse means “different or varied”: There are many diverse cultures in the world.

10. Aid Aid is help or assistance given: Every Christmas the community gives aid to those less fortunate.

aide An aide is a person who helps: Frieda Gogh worked five years as a teacher’s aide.

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. B
8. B 9. B 10. B

DPP NO. 22

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. A
15. C 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B

DPP NO. 23

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A
8. C 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A
15. C 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. D

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1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. C


1. C 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. B 9. A 10. B


1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. C


1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. C 10. A


1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. D


1. B 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. B 9. B 10. C


1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. D 10. C


1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. A
8. A 9. A 10. A

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1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. A 10. A


1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A
8. A 9. D 10. C


1. C 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. B
8. B 9. D 10. A


1. C 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. A
8. D 9. A 10. C


1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. D


1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. D


1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D
8. D 9. B 10. C


1. C 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. C 9. C 10. C


1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. D
8. D 9. A 10. A


1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. D

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1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. A


1. A 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. B
8. C 9. C 10. D


1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. A 10. B


1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. D
8. A 9. A 10. B


1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. B 10. C


1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. D
8. B 9. C 10. D


1. B 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. D 10. A


1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. C 9. C 10. B


1. C 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. D 9. D 10. B


1. D 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. A
8. D 9. B 10. B

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1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A)
15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B)
8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C)
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4.         (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (C)
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D)
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A)
15. (B)
16. (C)

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1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (C)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C)
15. (B)
DPP NO. 10
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
DPP NO. 11
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (D)
DPP NO. 13
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C)
15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
DPP NO. 14
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (D)
8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (C)
DPP NO. 15
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C)
DPP NO. 16
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (D)
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (A)
15. (A)
DPP NO. 17
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (A)

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